FTS-10 Paper-2 JEE Advanced-2020 QP & Solutions
FTS-10 Paper-2 JEE Advanced-2020 QP & Solutions
FTS-10 Paper-2 JEE Advanced-2020 QP & Solutions
B
CODE
Topics covered:
Physics : System of Particles and Rotational Motion, Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids,
Mechanical Properties of Fluids
Chemistry : Thermodynamics, Equilibrium, Redox Reactions, Hydrogen, The s-Block Elements.
P-Block Elements (XI syllabus)
Mathematics : Sequences and Series (Including Exponential & Logarithmic Series), Trigonometric
Functions(Transformation Formulae, Trigonometric Equations, Properties of Triangle,
Height & Distance)
General Instructions:
1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use blue/black ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log table and calculator or any other material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that the test paper contains all
pages and no page is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that Roll No.,
Centre Code and Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the answer sheet is to be returned to
the invigilator.
10. Pattern of the questions are as under:
(i) The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics).
Each part has three sections.
(ii) Section-1: This section contains 8 multiple choice questions which have one or more
correct answer(s). Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer. Partial +1 mark is given for darkening a bubble corresponding to
each correct option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
(iii) Section-2: This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is
a double-digit integer, ranging from 00 to 99 (both inclusive) without being given any
option. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and there is no negative
mark for wrong answer.
(iv) Section-3: This section contains Two List-Match sets. Each List-Match set has Two
Multiple Choice Questions. List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and List-II
has Six entries (P), (Q), (R), (S), (T) and (U). Four options are given in each Multiple
Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and Only one of these four options
satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question. Each question carries
+3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
[Page 1]
Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III
PART – I: PHYSICS
SECTION - 1
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which one or more is/are correct.
1. A planet of mass M moves around the sun along an ellipse so that its minimum distance from sun is
equal to R and maximum distance to 3R. Choose the correct statement(s).
3GMs
(A) Maximum speed of planet would be
2R
3GMs R
(B) Areal velocity of planet would be
8
3
2
(C) Time period of planet would be (2R ) 2
GMs
(D) Areal velocity remain constant as planet moves from apogee to perigee
2. A uniform rod of mass m and length l is shown in figure with velocity of its ends as shown. Choose the
correct statement/s.
A v
B 3v
2v
(A) Angular velocity of rod would be anticlockwise
l
13
(B) Kinetic energy of rod would be mv 2
6
2v 2
(C) Acceleration of end A would be
l
mv 2
(D) Tension at middle of rod would be
l
3. Two horizontal discs of different radii are free to rotate about central vertical axis. One is given some
angular velocity, the other is stationary. Their rims are now brought in contact. There is friction between
the rims.
r2 r1
(A) The force of friction between the rims will disappear when the discs rotate with equal angular speeds
(B) The force of friction between the rims will disappear when they have equal linear velocities at the
point of contact
(C) The angular momentum of the system will be conserved
(D) The rotational kinetic energy of the system will not be conserved
[Page 2]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B)
4. A planet P is moving along the elliptical orbit, about sun S, as shown, passing with the speed V at point
C. Evaluate the correct statement. SC = 2R, SD = 4R
A
P
C S D
O
v
B
3R 2R
(A) Time taken from C to D is (B) Time taken from C to D is
2V V
V V
(C) Speed at point A is (D) Speed at point D is
2 2
5. A thin tube, containing two immiscible liquids, of densities and 2, rotate with an angular velocity
g
. Let Px be the pressure at a distance x from axis of rotation
l
2
l 2l
2
gl gr gl gr 2
(A) Pl – Pr – (for r l) (B) Pl – Pr – (for r l)
2 2l 2 l
r2 gr 2
(C) P3l – Pr 9gl – g , (for l < r 3l) (D) P3l – Pr 9gl – , for l r 3l
l 2l
3
6. A uniform rod is lying on the horizontal table with th of its length out of the edge of the table. Small
4
spheres each of mass one hundredth of mass of the rod, strike at the free end, vertically upward with the
100
speed of m/s, maintaining rod just in equilibrium. If sphere comes to rest after collision. (g = 10
3
m/s2)
(A) Minimum rate, of striking required, is 8 per second
(B) Minimum rate, of striking required, is 10 per second
(C) Maximum rate, of striking required, is 15 per second
(D) Maximum rate, of striking required, is 18 per second
7. Moment of inertia of right triangluar uniform plate about the given axis are shown as I1, I2 and I3. Evaluate
the correct relation(s). Given BC = 2AB
A B
I1
C I2
I3
I2
(C) I1 (D) I1 I2 8 I3
3
[Page 3]
Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III
8. A rigid uniform bar AB of length L is slipping from its vertical position on a frictionless floor (as shown in
the figure). At some instant of time. The angle made by the bar with the vertical is . Which of the
following statements about its motion is/are correct?
L
(C) Instantaneous torque about the point in contact with the floor is proportional to sin
(D) When the bar makes an angle with the vertical. The displacement of its midpoint from the initial
position is proportional to (1 – cos)
SECTION - 2
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a double-digit integer, ranging
from 00 to 99. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows.
Examples- If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9 respectively, then
mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
9. Two particles of mass 1 kg and 2 kg move towards each other under the mutual force of attraction when
relative velocity of approach is 2 m/s, then centre of mass has velocity 1 m/s, the velocity in m/s of centre
of mass when their relative velocity is 3 m/s is
10. A particle is projected with initial velocity of 20 m/s at an angle of 60° with horizontal. The angular velocity
2
of particle with respect to point of projection when it is at its maximum height is rad/s. Value of n is___
n
(g = 10 m/s2)
11. A glass rod of diameter d1 = 1.5 mm is inserted symmetrically into a glass capillary with inside diameter
d2 = 2.0 mm. If the whole arrangement is vertically oriented and brought in contact with the surface of
water in a tank, the height raised by the water in the capillary is n mm. The value of n is ___ (Take surface
tension of water = 0.07 N/m, density of water = 1 g/cc)
[Page 4]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B)
12. A block of mass 10 kg connected to another hollow block of same size and negligible mass, by a spring
of spring constant 500 N/m, floats in water as shown in the figure. The compression (in cm) in the spring
is
10 Kg
Hollow
block
13. A string is wrapped around a cylinder of mass M and is resting on a rough incline of angle of inclination
= 30°, as shown in the figure. The tension in the string, such that the cylinder does not slide and also
Mg
not rotate is . The value of n is____
n
String is vertical
14. A disc hits a floor in elastically as shown in the figure. Find speed of the disc in horizontal direction just
after the collision (in m/s).
y
0 = 5 rad/s
R=2m
10 m/s = v0
= 0.5
1
e
2
SECTION - 3
Answer Q. 15 and Q. 16 by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the
paragraph.
A ring of mass M, radius R is placed on rough horizontal surface. Horizontal forces act on the ring as shown in
List-I. Magnitude of quantities are given in List-II. If ring rolls without slipping, then match the entries.
List-I List-II
F
(I) (P) 1
[Page 5]
Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III
F
R/2
1
(III) (R)
3
F
R/2
1
(IV) (S)
2
3
(T)
2
(U) Zero
15. If acceleration of ring shown in entry-I is a0, then the acceleration in different situation in terms of a0 as
listed will be
A satellite is projected tangentially with velocity v0 at height R above the surface of earth. If M, R be mass of
earth and radius respectively then match the entries in List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
v1
(I) If maximum velocity during motion is v1, then is (P) 1
v0
v2 1
(II) If minimum velocity during motion is v2, then is (Q)
v0 2
R
(III) If time period is T0, then value of is (R) 2
v 0T0
1
(IV) Radius of curvature at point of projection r1. (S)
4
r1
Value of is
R
2
(T)
3
4
(U)
3
[Page 6]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B)
GM
17. If v 0 , then match the entries
2R
(A) I P; II Q; III R; IV P
(B) I P; II P; III R; IV Q
(C) I P; II P; III S; IV R
(D) I P; II P; III R; IV T
GM
18. If v 0 , then match the correct option
3R
(A) I P; II Q; III S; IV U
(B) I P; II Q; III T; IV U
(C) I R; II P; III T; IV U
(D) I R; II P; III S; IV U
19. A sample consisting of one mole of a real gas obeying van der Waals gas equation of state is heated at
fixed volume from a temperature T K to TK. Which of the following relation holds correct?
(T = T – T, V = fixed volume, all other used symbols have their usual meaning)
RVT
(A) H = U + VP (B) H = U +
V b
RVT
(C) H = U – (D) H = U + PV
V b
20. A new hydrocarbon of molar mass 102 g mol–1 was placed in an electrically heated vessel. When the
pressure was 650 torr, the liquid boiled at 78°C. Under boiling conditions, it was found that current of
0.232 A from a 12 V supply passed for 650 s vapourise 1.871 g of sample. The molar enthalpy and
internal energy of vapourisation are correctly represented in (approx.) (Assume all involved gases
behave ideally)
(A) H = 98.7 kJ mol–1
(B) U = 95.8 kJ mol–1
(C) H = 102 kJ mol–1
(D) U = 99.9 kJ mol–1
21. Which are correct increasing order of property indicated?
(A) Li2CO3 < Na2CO3 < K2CO3 (Thermal stability)
(B) AIF3 < AlCl3 < AlBr3 (Covalent nature)
[Page 7]
Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III
23. Consider the graph for the reaction Q P . (Take R = 8.3 J/mol K) if = tan–1(5)
ln K
83
0 1
T
Correct statement(s) is/are
(A) H = –41.5 kJ (B) H = 20.75 kJ
(C) H = 41.5 kJ. (D) S = 688.9 J K–1
24. The correct statement(s) or the order with the property indicated is/are (where X is halide)
(A) GeX4 is less stable than GeX2 (B) PbX2 is more stable than PbX4
(C) GeX4 is more stable than GeX2 (D) C> Si > Ge > Sn > Pb (first ionisation energy)
(D) Viscosity of heavy water is more than viscosity of normal water at 25°C
26. aCu + bHNO3 cNO + dCu NO3 2 + eH2O
Then the value of stochiometric coefficients a, b and c if reaction is balanced with smallest whole number
integers
(A) a = 3 (B) b = 4
(C) b = 8 (D) c = 2
SECTION - 2
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a double-digit integer, ranging
from 00 to 99. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows.
Examples- If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9 respectively, then
mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
27. 6.023 × 10X OH– ions are present in 1 ml solution of pH = 1 at 298 K. The value of X is
28. If number of Lewis base present in given compounds are X, then the value of X 2 is
H2O, NH3, NH4 , OH– , F– , BeCl2, BF3, FeCl3
[Page 8]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B)
29. Among the given species, how many are not having any existance?
H3O , H5O2 , H7O3 , H8O4 , H3O2– , H5O3– , H5O4– , H7O4–, H7O5–
30. 1 mole N2O4 gas is taken in a closed container of one litre. N 2O4 gas completely changes into NO 2 gas.
The gases deviate appreciable from ideal behaviour. If pressure changes from 40 atm to 80 atm during
this change, then find out the magnitude of E (in kJ) at 500 K. (Take 1 L atm = 0.1 kJ).
N2O4 (g) 2NO2(g); H = + 56 kJ
31. Molar heat capacity of water at constant pressure P is 90 JK–1 mol–1. When 1.0 kJ of heat is supplied to
100 g of water which is free to expand, increase in temperature of water is _______ K.
x
32. Number of oxygen shared per tetrahedron unit of cyclic Silicate is then x is _______.
12
SECTION - 3
O
N
pH 7.0
M
L
Volume of NaOH
List-I List-II
pKa logc
I. L (P) pH = 7 +
2 2
pKa logc
II. M (Q) pH =
2 2
III. N (R) pH = 14 – logNaOH
33. Which of the following is correct match for (I) and (II) ?
(A) I Q, U (B) I Q, R
(C) II Q, U (D) II P, S
34. Which of the following is correct match for (III) and (IV) ?
(A) III P, R (B) III Q
(C) IV R, U (D) IV R, T
[Page 9]
Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III
II. Ssystem < 0 (Q) 1 mol of monoatomic ideal gas expands in vacuum
atm
(T) Reversible compression of 1 mol of ideal gas at
constant temperature of 300 K from 10 L to 3 L
(U) N2 + 3H2 2NH3
35. Which of the following is correct match for (I) and (II) ?
(A) I P, Q, R; II S, T, U
(B) I Q, R, S; II S, T, U
(C) I Q, R, U; II S, T
(D) I P, Q; II R, S, T
36. Which of the following is correct match for (III) and (IV) ?
(A) III R; IV P, S, T
(B) III R; IV P, S, U
(C) III R; IV P, R, S
(D) III Q; IV P, S, U
(A) cot7.5° = 2 3 4 6
(B) tan142.5° = 2 2 3 6
5 5 3 5
(C) sin27° =
4
2 3 7
(D) sin .sin .sin
7 7 7 8
38. Three numbers in A.P. with common difference d are removed from first n natural numbers and average
43
of remaining number is found to be then ordered pair (n, d) can be
4
(A) (19, 5) (B) (19, 2)
(C) (23, 5) (D) (19, 8)
[Page 10]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B)
40. A sequence a1, a2, ..., an, ... of integers is defined by an 1 an2 an 1 and a1 = 2, then
(A) (B) 2
(C) 3 (D)
2
6
m 1 m
42. For 0
2
, the solution of cos ec 4
.cos ec
4
4 2 is/are
m 1
(A) (B)
4 6
5
(C) (D)
12 12
43. Which of the following options are correct?
(A) If the in-circle of ABC passes through the circumcentre than cosA + cosB + cosC = 2
(B) In a triangle ABC if euler line is parallel to side BC, then tanB. tanC = 3
(C) If in a tringle ABC 2tanA.tanB = 9, then ABC will be always equilateral
(D) If cotA + cotB + cotC = 3 in a ABC then ABC will be always equilateral
44. In a ABC, BC = 2, CA 3 1 and C = 60°. Feet of the perpendicular from A, B and C on the
opposite sides BC, CA and AB are D, E and F respectively and are concurrent at P. then which of the
following is / are true
1
(A) Radius of the circle circumscribing the DEF is
2
3
(B) Area of the DEF is
4
6– 2
(C) Radius of the circle inscribed in the DEF is
8
3 3
(D) sin D sin E sin F
2
[Page 11]
Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III
SECTION - 2
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a double-digit integer, ranging
from 00 to 99. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows.
Examples- If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9 respectively, then
mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
45. Given a parallelogram whose acute angle is 60°, if the squares of length of the diagonals are in ratio 1 : 3,
a
then is (where a, b are the length of the sides)
b
46. In a triangle ABC, the foot of the perpendicular from A divides the opposite side into parts of lengths
11
3 and 17 and tan A . Let a PQR is a right angle triangle (right angle at Q) such that A = P and
3
Area ABC
PQ = 3 units, the is __________ (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
Area PQR
47. ABC is an acute angle triangle, A = 30°. H is the orthocentre and M is the midpoint of BC. On the line
HM a point T is taken such that HM = MT. If BC = 4 cm, then the length of AT is ___________
1
48. Set a, b, [–, ] such that cos (a – b) = 1 and cos(a b) . The number of pairs (a, b) satisfying the
e
above system of equation is
49. Number of solutions of 2sin|x| = 4|cosx| in the interval [–, ] is equal to
50. In an acute angle ABC value of [sinA + sinB + sinC] is always equal to (where [ ] denotes greatest
integer function)
SECTION - 3
BD.CE.AF
concurrent then is equal to
DC.AE.FB
3 r1 r1
IV. 1– 1– is (where r1, r2, r3 are radii (S) 1
2 r2 r3
[Page 13]
Test Date: 12/04/2020 Phase-III
B
CODE
ANSWERS
[Page 1]
Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B)_(Answers and Solutions) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III
PART – I : PHYSICS 4v 2 l 2v 2
aA 2 r
l2 2 l
1. Answer (A, B, C, D)
a–ae=R
a + a e = 3R
2a = 4R
a = 2R
2R (1 – e) = R
1 m 2 l
1 e T
2 2 4
1 m 4v 2 l
e 2
2 2 l 4
Gm 1 e 3Gm mv 2
Vmax =
a 1 e 2R 2l
3. Answer (B, D)
rminVmax 3GmR
Areal velocity
2 8 Friction force will act till there is relative motion
at point of contact.
3
2 4. Answer (C, D)
Time period T (2R ) 2
Gms
A
2. Answer (A, B, C)
3v v 2v 3R 2 2R
l l 2R R
Vcom = 2V
1 1 B
KE mv 2 COM lc 2c
2 2
Area of the half ellipse
2 2R 3R
1 1 ml 2 4v 2
m 4v 2 2 2
2 2 12 l
3 2R 2
1 13
mv 2 2 mv 2
6 6 Angular momentum 2mvR
Areal speed
2m 2m
[Page 2]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B)_(Hints and Solutions)
3 2 R
t 2a
v
v speed at A, (mv sin)3R = mv (2R)
4ma2
I1
v 2 2 6
v sin
2 3 2
2 2m 2a 4ma2
I2 – 2ma2
v 2 36 6
At D, mv 2R mvD 4R vD
2
ma2
I3
5. Answer (A, C) 6
For r < l 8. Answer (A, C, D)
dp × A = dm.2r = Adr.2r There is no horizontal force on rod during its
motion
dp = 2rdr
C.M. will fall vertically downwards
Pr r r
2 Net torque about point B(on the ground) = mgL
dp rdr
sin
Pl r l
r 2 l2 L L
Pr – Pl 2 – Displacement mid-point = cos
2 2
2 2
9. Answer (01)
2 2
g r l Velocity of CM does not change.
= –
l 2 2 10. Answer (07)
Y
gl gr 2
P– P –
at l at r 2 2l /s A
m 10 m/s
20
For l < r < 2l
2 l 2 r 3 l Hmax
P –P 22 rdr
at 3l at r 2l r r
60°
2 2 O X
l 9l 2 r 2
22 – R
2 2 2
2
2 l 2 10 sin 10 15
2
2 9l 2 – r 2 Here, =
OA 525 525
6. Answer (B, C) 150
525
mg F 2
rad/s
N 7
3l m 100 3l l 11. Answer (56)
F n1 mg
4 100 3 4 4
n1 = 10
mg
h
F'
N
m 100 l
n2 l m 10 n2 = 15 Surface tension force = Weight of liquid in
100 3 2
capillary
[Page 3]
Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B)_(Answers and Solutions) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III
FB 1
FS Jf R mR 2 0
2
Jf = 5 m
Solid FB + FS = Mg ...(i)
Jf = mux – mux
Hollow FB = FS ...(ii)
ux = 5 m/s
2FS = Mg
u 5i 5 j m/s
2kx = Mg
15. Answer (C)
Mg 100
x 0.1 m 16. Answer (D)
2k 2 500
13. Answer (03) Solution For Qs. Nos. 15 and 16
About IAOR
F.h + f.R = MR2
T T sin
N a = R
T cos
f F – f = Ma
17. Answer (C)
mg sin 18. Answer (D)
mg cos Solution For Qs. Nos. 17 and 18
mg
ab
T
Translation Areal velocity
T sin f mg sin ...(i) L
Areal velocity =
N T cos mg cos ...(ii) 2m
Mg RT a
P=
VM b V 2
vy = –euy M
[Page 4]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B)_(Hints and Solutions)
RVT x=7
H U
VM b 28. Answer (16)
H2O, NH3, OH–, F–
20. Answer (A, B)
qP = I × v × t 29. Answer (03)
H nH2O
H (aq)
= 0.232 × 12 × 650 = 1.81 kJ
102 H H2O H3O
Hvap molar enthalpy = 1.81
1.871 H 2H2O H5O2
= 98.7 kJ mol–1
H 3H2O H7O3
Uvap = Hvap – ngRT
OH— nH2O
OH— (aq)
= 98.7 – [8.314 × 351/1000]
= 95.8 kJ mol–1 OH— H2O H3O2
[Page 5]
Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B)_(Answers and Solutions) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III
tan142.5
sin285
1 cos285
A cos x1 B sin x1 0
A cos x2 B sin x2 0
tan x1 tan x2
1 sin54 1 sin54
sin27° = x1 n x2 x1 x2 n
2
42. Answer (C, D)
2 3 6 7
sin .sin .sin ....sin
7 7 7 7 26
sin
m
m 1
6
38. Answer (A, B)
m m 1
Let removed numbers are a – d, a, a + d m 1 sin .sin
4
sum of removed numbers = 3a
6 ≤ 3a ≤ 3n – 3 cot cot cot cot 6 4
4 4
2a ≤ a ≤ n – 1 …..(i)
cot + tan = 4
n n 1 43
Also 3a – n – 3 5
2 4 or
12 12
2n 2 – 41n 129
a .....(ii) 43. Answer (A, B, C, D)
12
from (i) and (ii) R 2 2Rr r
[Page 6]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B)_(Hints and Solutions)
1 2 Area ABC
R sin2A sin2B sin2C 6
2 Area PQR
C = 60° R 2
D = 90° E = 30°
F = 60°
45. Answer (01)
D C
a2 b2 2d12 AT = 8
48. Answer (04)
also ab = d12 ...(i)
cos(a b) cos0
2 2
a b 2ab 3ab d12 4d12
a b 2n, n I
2
a b 4d12 a b 2,0,2
A1 A2
B C
3 D 7
tan A = tan(A1 + A2)
AD = 11
1
hence the area of ABC 11 20 110
2 Hence, number of solutions is 4.
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Test-10_Paper-2_(Code-B)_(Answers and Solutions) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Advanced)-2020_PHASE-III
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