PMT

Mark Scheme (Results)

October 2021

Pearson Edexcel International Advanced Level

In Biology (WBI14) Paper 01
Energy, Environment, Microbiology and
Immunity
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October 2021
Question Paper Log Number P67105A
Publications Code WBI14_01_2110_MS
All the material in this publication is copyright
© Pearson Education Ltd 2021
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General Marking Guidance

 All candidates must receive the same treatment. Examiners

must mark the first candidate in exactly the same way as
they mark the last.
 Mark schemes should be applied positively. Candidates must
be rewarded for what they have shown they can do rather
than penalised for omissions.
 Examiners should mark according to the mark scheme not
according to their perception of where the grade boundaries
may lie.
 There is no ceiling on achievement. All marks on the mark
scheme should be used appropriately.
 All the marks on the mark scheme are designed to be
awarded. Examiners should always award full marks if
deserved, i.e. if the answer matches the mark
scheme. Examiners should also be prepared to award zero
marks if the candidate’s response is not worthy of credit
according to the mark scheme.
 Where some judgement is required, mark schemes will
provide the principles by which marks will be awarded and
exemplification may be limited.
 When examiners are in doubt regarding the application of
the mark scheme to a candidate’s response, the team leader
must be consulted.
 Crossed out work should be marked UNLESS the candidate
has replaced it with an alternative response
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Question Answer Mark

number
1(a)(i)
The only correct answer is D.

A is incorrect because P is a ribosome (the smallest structure), Q is a starch grain (the largest structure)
B is incorrect because P is a ribosome (the smallest structure), Q is a starch grain (the largest structure) (1)
C is incorrect because P is a ribosome (the smallest structure), Q is a starch grain (the largest structure)

Question Answer Mark

number

1(a)(ii)
The only correct answer is B.

A is incorrect because GALP is found in the stroma which is structure R

C is incorrect because GALP is found in the stroma which is structure R (1)
D is incorrect because GALP is found in the stroma which is structure R

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
1(a)(iii)
 14 267 / 14 270 / 14 300 / 14 400 / 14 000 (1) ACCEPT in standard form (1)
e.g. 1.4267 × 104
DO NOT ACCEPT with units
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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
1(a)(iv) An answer that includes at least one similarity and one difference: DO NOT PIECE TOGETHER

Similarities:

 both have a phospholipid bilayer (1) ACCEPT made of phospholipids

Differences:

 T has {chlorophyll / photosynthetic pigments / photosystems / PSI

/ PSII} in it but U does not (1)

 T contains {ATP synthase / ATP ase} but U does not (1) (3)

 T contains electron carrier proteins but U does not (1) ACCEPT electron carriers / ETC

NB penalise once if refer to

membranes or chloroplast as a cell

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
1(b) An answer that includes the following points:

 light is needed for the replication (of chloroplast DNA) (1) ACCEPT replication of chloroplast
DNA does not occur in the dark
IGNORE DNA increases (2)
day / night

 replication (of chloroplast DNA) is independent of {mitosis / cell

cycle} (1)
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Answer Mark

2(a)(i)
The only correct answer is A.

B is incorrect because TMV does not have an envelope

C is incorrect because λ phage does not have an envelope (1)
D is incorrect because TMV does not have an envelope

Question Answer Mark

number
2(a)(ii)
The only correct answer is C.

A is incorrect because Ebola has a helical structure

B is incorrect because HIV has a polyhedral structure (1)
D is incorrect because TMV has a helical structure

Question Answer Mark

number
2(a)(iii)
The only correct answer is C.

A is incorrect because Ebola, HIV and TMV all have RNA and λ phage has DNA
B is incorrect because Ebola, HIV and TMV all have RNA and λ phage has DNA (1)
D is incorrect because Ebola, HIV and TMV all have RNA and λ phage has DNA

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
2(b)(i)
U G G U U C C G C (1) (1)
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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
2(b)(ii) An explanation that includes two of the following points:

 (because the positive strand) has the {codons / codes} for the ACCEPT used in translation / (viral)
{proteins / amino acids} (1) genes
negative strand does not have
the correct codons (2)
DO NOT ACCEPT transcription

 because the positive strand has the complementary base IGNORE refs to sense and antisense
sequence needed to make the negative strand (1) (strands)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
2(c) An explanation that includes four of the following points:

 because (during 18 days) new viruses are produced (1) IGNORE refs to latency / description of
retroviruses / replication of DNA

 (new) viruses {burst out of / damage} (host) cells (1) IGNORE names of host cells

 infecting more cells / causing the spread of the virus (1)

(4)
 takes time for the immune system to be stimulated (1) ACCEPT description of event that take
place

 so {person may become ill / virus out of control} before immune ACCEPT description e.g. not enough
system stimulated (1) antibodies present for opsonisation
ACCEPT before {receiving antiviral
drugs / drugs can take effect}
DO NOT ACCEPT kill virus
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Question Answer Mark

number
3(a)
Type of artificial immunity
Statement both active active passive neither active
and passive only only nor passive
Antibodies are injected into the
person X

B cells differentiate into plasma

cells X

Memory cells are formed X

(3)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
3(b)(i) A description that includes the following points:

 engulf the virus / phagocytosis of the virus (1) ACCEPT pathogen, if in context of
virus
reference to a macrophage
being a phagocyte, if in context of
viruses (3)

 digestion of the virus (1) DO NOT ACCEPT kills the virus

 antigen presentation to {T helper / CD4} {cells / lymphocytes} ACCEPT macrophage is an {antigen

(1) presenting cell / APC} to T helper cells
DO NOT ACCEPT to T killer cells
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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
3(b)(ii) An explanation that includes four of the following points:

 T helper cells {activate / stimulate} B cells (to divide) (1) ACCEPT stimulate humoral response

 because antibody will be needed for opsonisation (1) ACCEPT antibodies prevent viruses
binding to host cells
 T helper cells {activate / stimulate} T killer cells (to divide) ACCEPT stimulate cell-mediated
(1) response

 because T killer cells destroy (virus-infected) cells (1) ACCEPT a description

(4)
 so that virus can be {engulfed / destroyed} by macrophages (1) DO NOT ACCEPT killed
pathogen in context
of bacteria

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
4(a)(i)
 1.27 / 1.33 (1) DO NOT ACCEPT 1.33 recuring (1)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
4(a)(ii) Allow ecf from (i)
 21 / 21.3 / 21.26 / 24.8 / 24.81 / 25 (%) (1) (1)
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Question Answer Mark

number
4(b)(i)
The only correct answer is B.

A is incorrect because S is the oldest ring

C is incorrect because P is the newest ring and S is the oldest ring (1)
D is incorrect because P is the newest ring and S is the oldest ring

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
4(b)(ii) An explanation that includes three of the following points:

 because each year a ring will be formed (1) ACCEPT the number of rings is the age
this tree is {68 to 76} years old
quoted figures e.g. 69 rings =
69 years
(3)

 and the thickness of the rings will {be different for each year / ACCEPT named condition e.g.
depend on the conditions} (1) temperature

 the rings in each sample can be {matched / lined up} (1)

 and only counting a ring once if it overlaps (1)

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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
4(b)(iii) A description that includes the following points:

 measure the height (of the whole tree) (1) ACCEPT length for height
measure {radius / diameter
/ total width of rings} at bottom (of
tree) (2)

 height divided by the {(total) number of rings / age} (1) ACCEPT {radius / diameter} at
bottom of tree divided by {number of
rings / age}
CE from mp 1

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
5(a)(i)
methods used to prevent contamination (of person / ACCEPT techniques / procedures / (1)
culture) (with other microorganisms) (1) routines
ACCEPT prevent {entry / exit /
infection}
IGNORE growth
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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
5(a)(ii) A description that includes two of the following points:

 carry out work beside {a bunsen burner / in a hood} (1)

 use sterilised {equipment / media} / sterilise equipment after use ACCEPT description of how
(1) equipment could be sterilised e.g.
media autoclaved, wash area with (2)
disinfectant

 credit named personal procedure (1) e.g. wearing gloves, washing hands

 minimise the time that cultures are exposed to the air / do not e.g. transfer bacteria quickly
open cultures at the end (1)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
5(a)(iii) An explanation that includes two of the following points:

 to prevent entry of bacteria that may compete with the E. coli

(1)
(2)
 to prevent entry of bacteria that may grow in different {types / ACCEPT will not know if E.coli or the
concentrations} of microbial substances (than E. coli) (1) other bacteria is growing

 to prevent infection (of person) with bacteria in the culture that

{is / maybe} pathogenic (1)
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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
5(b) An explanation that includes the following points:

 explanation for temperature given (1) e.g. appropriate temperature needed

for the enzymes to function
temperature not too high so the
enzymes do not denature
ACCEPT proteins for enzymes
temp won’t be rate limiting
for growth

 explanation for time given (1) e.g. antimicrobial effect can be seen
when bacteria are growing (2)
enough time has to be allowed
for the bacterial growth to become
visible
enough time for antimicrobials to
have an effect
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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
5(c)(i) An explanation that includes the following points:

 to show if the cultures were contaminated (1) ACCEPT a description e.g. to see if
other bacteria are growing
 because the antimicrobial agent would not {kill / inhibit the
growth of} other types of bacteria (1)

OR (2)

 to check that the E. coli has not changed its {susceptibility /

resistance} (1)

 so that the results will apply to known E. coli (1)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
5(c)(ii) An explanation that includes the following points:

 to show that the E.coli were viable (1) ACCEPT alive / can replicate / can
grow
 because if there was not any growth of bacteria you would not ACCEPT to show that the
know if the bacteria were dead or the antimicrobial agents were antimicrobials were inhibiting growth (2)
(very) effective (1) IGNORE antimicrobials affecting
growth
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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
5(c)(iii) A description that includes the following points: ACCEPT the idea of doing this
process in the wells directly or
separately

 description of adding equal volumes of {antimicrobial substance / ACCEPT stated volumes / 50%
antimicrobials / substance / solution} and {water / media / broth volumes / volumes in ratio 1 : 1 (2)
/ buffer} together (1) IGNORE amount

 description of this being repeated (a few times) using previous ACCEPT a reference to serial
solution (1) dilutions

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
5(c)(iv)
 MIC of E and G calculated (1) MIC of E = 1 in 8 and MIC of G = 1 in 256
Or
MIC of E = 1 in 16 and MIC of G = 1 in 512 (2)

 {32 / 25} (1) ACCEPT E is {32 / 25} times less effective

NB correct answer gains 2 marks

ACCEPT 2.25 for 1 mark

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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
6(a) An answer that includes the following points:

 number of (different) species (1) ACCEPT species richness

amount
(2)
 genetic diversity within a species (1) ACCEPT variation in {genotypes / alleles}

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
6(b) An explanation that includes two of the following points:

 absorb light energy so that electrons are {excited / released} (1)

 to synthesise ATP and reduced NADP (1) ACCEPT NADPH

IGNORE + signs
(2)
ALLOW to absorb light energy so that
it can be converted into ATP energy =
1 mark
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Question Answer
number
*6(c)(i) Indicative content:

Comparisons:
 propanone extracts more chlorophyll a from species P
 propanone extracts more chlorophyll a from species R
 DMSO extracts more chlorophyll a from species Q than propanone Level 1 :
 propanone and DMSO extract similar concentrations of chlorophyll b from species S
 propanone extracts more chlorophyll b from species P 1 mark = 2 comparisons listed
 propanone extracts more chlorophyll b from species Q 2 marks = 4 comparisons listed
 propanone extracts more total chlorophyll from species P
Level 2 :
Generalisations:
3 marks = 6 comparisons
 propanone is the most effective solvent at extracting chlorophyll
OR
 species P appears to contain the most chlorophyll when using propanone
1 generalisation + 3 comparisons
 DMSO is generally less effective than propanone except when extracting chlorophyll a OR
from species Q 2 generalisations

Implications in identifying species: 4 marks = one implication discussed

 some chlorophyll lost when extracted together as total is less than the sum of the components
 other pigments extracted in some cases as total is more than individual components added Level 3 :
together
 the choice of solvent depends on the chlorophyll / species being extracted 5 marks = two implications discussed
 because of difference in solubility (of pigments / membranes) / permeability of membranes 6 marks = three implications discussed
 more than one solvent needs to be used if this method is to be used for identifying species
 as different solvents extract different concentrations of different chlorophylls from different
species
 possibility of looking at extraction of other pigments
 some sort of comparison table / calibration curve needed to match profile to extraction profiles
 propanone better if only using one solvent as results the most varied
 avoids need for DNA analysis
 comparisons can be made in the field / with simple equipment
 no indication of validity of data
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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
6(c)(ii) An answer that includes two of the following points:

 chlorophylls have different solubility in different solvents (1) ACCEPT more / less will dissolve
IGNORE Rf values
reacted with solvent
 because the chlorophylls have different structures (1) (2)

 different solvents can {permeate / dissolve / disrupt} (cell /

chloroplast) membranes differently (1)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
7(a)(i)

7 (g) (1)
(1)
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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
7(a)(ii)

 value given in the range 0.005 to 0.0083 (1)

(2)
 this value given to 1 or 2 sig figs {per day / day-1} (1) ACCEPT answers in correct standard
form to 1 or 2 sig figs

ACCEPT {0.02 / 0.017} {per day / day-1}

for 1 mark
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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
7(a)(iii) An explanation that includes four of the following points: ACCEPT converse throughout

 decomposition (of tea) is {faster / greater} at 25°C (1) ACCEPT description e.g. breakdown of
organic matter
 because enzymes {work faster / move faster / have more kinetic ACCEPT may be due to more bacteria
energy} (at warmer temperatures) (1)

 as there are more (frequent / energetic) enzyme-substrate

collisions (1) (4)

 loss of mass is due to release of carbon dioxide (1)

 by the respiration of the {decomposers / bacteria / fungi} (1)

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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
7(a)(iv) An answer that includes the following points: ACCEPT converse throughout

 because the teas maybe composed of different molecules (1) ACCEPT named difference e.g.
surface area
IGNORE different masses of organic
matter
 that {cannot be broken down as easily / are less accessible to the ACCEPT which enzymes cannot (2)
enzymes} (in rooibos) (1) breakdown

OR

 because the pH (in the teabag) is different (1)

 therefore enzymes (of the bacteria) are less active (in rooibos) (1)

OR

 because there are {inhibitors / antimicrobials / toxins} in rooibos ACCEPT higher concentrations
(1)

 that {inhibit the enzymes / kill the decomposers} (1)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
7(b)(i)
 both the decomposition rate and {S / stabilisation factor / ACCEPT average for mean
carbon stored} are mean values (1) (1)
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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
7(b)(ii) An explanation that includes three of the following points:

 {number 6 / loamy desert} (and 3 / birch / 5 / sandy desert) (1)

 because it has the highest S value and the lowest decomposition

rate (1)
(3)
 therefore more carbon retained (in the soil) and less {carbon / DO NOT ACCEPT carbon dioxide
carbon dioxide} released (1) retained

 less carbon dioxide (in the atmosphere), the less global warming (1) ACCEPT less greenhouse effect,
description
OR

 {number 6 / loamy desert} (and 3 / birch / 5 / sandy desert) (1)

 because it has the highest S value therefore more carbon retained DO NOT ACCEPT carbon dioxide
(in the soil) (1) retained

 because it has the lowest decomposition rate and therefore less

{carbon / carbon dioxide} released (1)

 less carbon dioxide (in the atmosphere), the less global warming (1) ACCEPT less greenhouse effect,
description
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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
8(a)
 how much organic matter present in organisms (1) ACCEPT amount / mass / content of / measure of
dry mass / tissue containing carbon (1)
plant / animal / an organism / trophic level

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
8(b)(i)
 total biomass of eukarya or all organisms calculated (1) 468 / 545.2

 85.84 / 85.8 / 86 (%) (1)

(2)

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
8(b)(ii) An answer that includes two of the following points:

 cannot count all organisms as individuals (1) ACCEPT take too long to count /
too small to count
IGNORE measure

 organisms (within a group) are different {sizes / masses} (1) ACCEPT biomasses (2)
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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
8(b)(iii) An answer that includes three of the following points:

Advantage:

 very {visual / clear / easy} (way of presenting data / to

understand) (1)
(3)
 credit an example (1) e.g easy to see the organisms with
the highest biomass such as
Disadvantage: arthropods

 cannot compare polygons with different shapes (but similar size) (1) ACCEPT areas of polygons cannot
be compared

 credit an example (1) e.g. such as cnidarians and livestock

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Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
*8(c) Indicative content:
Voronoi diagram:
 most biomass found on land and least found in marine (D)
 because land provides the most suitable conditions to sustain living organisms* Level 1 :
 such as light (for plants and algae) / water
Plants: 1 mark = 2 descriptions
 all plants found on land (D)
 because need enough light for photosynthesis 2 marks = 4 descriptions
 not in marine (D) OR
 as salt water not suitable 1 {organism / Voronoi
diagram} explained
 not found deep underground (D)
 as no light for photosynthesis
Level 2 :
Fungi:
 predominantly found on land (D) 3 marks = 2 {organisms / Voronoi
 because they need a solid place to feed diagram} explained
 because they need (gaseous) oxygen for respiration
 not found deep underground (D) 4 marks = 3 {organisms / Voronoi
 because barely any other organisms live there to provide organic matter to decompose diagram} explained
Protists:
 found on both land and in marine environment (D) Level 3 :
 because enough light for those that photosynthesise
 they are the producers for the marine food chains* 5 marks = 4 {organisms / Voronoi
 can feed on {phytoplankton / algae} in the sea diagram} explained
 not found deep underground (D)
 because no light for those that photosynthesise 6 marks = 4 organisms explained
 because no food AND
Animals: explanation of Voronoi diagram* (6)
 found on land and in a marine environment (D) OR
 because have adapted for {feeding / movement} in both of these environment realises that there must be a
 can feed on {plants / seaweeds / other animals} non-plant producer in the sea*
 not found deep underground (D)
 because no {food / water / pressure too high / ground too hard}
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Bacteria:
 one of two groups to be found in all three environments (D)
 because can obtain energy from decomposition on the {land / marine}
 can use alternative sources of energy deep underground
Archaea:
 one of two groups to be found in all three environments (D)
 because can obtain energy from decomposition on the {land / marine}
 can use alternative sources of energy deep underground
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