1.

Nurse Linda is educating a patient with advanced breast cancer who has been prescribed
tamoxifen (Nolvadex). During the session, she stresses the importance of promptly reporting
any specific adverse reactions to the medication. Which adverse effect should the patient be
instructed to report immediately?
A. Persistent headache.
B. Loss of hearing.
C. Loss of appetite (anorexia).
D. Changes in vision.
2. Nurse Ellen is teaching a group of women the proper technique for performing breast self-
examinations. She emphasizes that the main goal of the examination is to detect:
A. Changes when compared to previous self-examinations.
B. Areas of unusual thickness or fullness.
C. The presence of fibrocystic masses.
D. Any suspicious cancerous lumps.
3. Nurse Alex is assessing Mr. Ford, a patient diagnosed with a brain tumor located in the
parietal lobe. Based on the location of the tumor, Nurse Alex expects to find which of the
following symptoms?
A. Seizures.
B. Tactile agnosia.
C. Short-term memory impairment.
D. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia.
4. Nurse Sarah is caring for a male patient who is in isolation after receiving an internal
radioactive implant for cancer treatment. Two hours into her shift, she discovers that the
implant has fallen into the bed linens. What is the first action Nurse Sarah should take?
A. Exit the room and immediately notify the radiation therapy department.
B. Attempt to reposition the implant using forceps and a protective shield, then call for help.
C. Move as far away from the implant as possible and call for assistance.
D. Use long-handled forceps to pick up the implant and place it in a lead-lined container.
5. Nurse Olivia is providing post-operative care instructions to Mr. James, who has recently
undergone a laryngectomy for laryngeal cancer. As part of the teaching, Nurse Olivia explains
how to properly care for his neck stoma. Which of the following instructions should she
emphasize?
A. "Avoid getting water into the stoma while showering."
B. "Cover the stoma with a tight bandage to protect it from dust."
C. "Apply petroleum jelly around the stoma to keep the skin moisturized."
D. "Use sterile cotton swabs to clean around the stoma daily."
6. Nurse Jamie is advising a 52-year-old male patient on the best practices for early detection of
prostate cancer. To aid in the early identification of prostate cancer, what should Nurse Jamie
recommend?
A. Undergo a digital rectal exam and a PSA test annually.
B. Conduct monthly testicular self-exams, especially after age 50.
C. Have a yearly CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels checked.
D. Get a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years.
7. Nurse Adam is caring for Mr. Lewis, a patient recently admitted with a cerebellar brain tumor.
Concerned about Mr. Lewis's safety, Nurse Adam formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for
injury. Which "related-to" phrase should Nurse Adam include to accurately complete this
nursing diagnosis?
A. Related to visual field deficits.
B. Related to psychomotor seizures.
C. Related to difficulty swallowing.
D. Related to impaired balance.
8. Nurse Julia is teaching a group of patients how to assess their skin for possible signs of skin
cancer using the ABCD method. In this method, what does the "A" stand for?
A. Assessment
B. Asymmetry
C. Actinic
D. Arcus
9. Nurse Jenny is preparing a female patient for an MRI to assess a possible spinal cord lesion.
She explains the procedure and ensures the patient is aware of any potential risks during the
scan. Which of the following would pose a safety risk to the patient during the MRI?
A. The patient hears thumping noises.
B. The patient asks questions.
C. The patient is wearing a watch and wedding band.
D. The patient remains still.
10. Nurse Clara is educating Mrs. Andrews, who has found a lump in her breast and is
concerned about the possibility of breast cancer. To ensure accurate information, Nurse Clara
explains that breast cancer can only be definitively diagnosed through which of the following
methods?
A. Undergoing a mammography.
B. Performing a breast self-exam.
C. Getting a chest X-ray.
D. Having a fine needle aspiration.
11. Nurse Sarah is preparing Ms. Lopez, a patient with cancer, for her upcoming radiation
therapy. Knowing that radiation can cause a common adverse effect regardless of the treatment
site, Nurse Sarah advises Ms. Lopez to be prepared for which of the following?
A. Hair loss.
B. Fatigue.
C. Vomiting.
D. Stomatitis.
12. Nurse Lisa is creating a care plan for Mrs. Parker, a patient newly diagnosed with radiation-
induced thrombocytopenia. To manage this condition effectively, which intervention should
Nurse Lisa include in the plan?
A. Ensure the patient has frequent rest periods.
B. Place the patient in strict isolation.
C. Inspect the skin for petechiae once every shift.
D. Administer aspirin if the temperature exceeds 102° F (38.8° C).
13. Nurse Emily is educating a group of women, with an average age of 48, on the importance of
early breast cancer detection. Based on the American Cancer Society guidelines, Nurse Emily
should recommend that the women:
A. Schedule a mammogram annually.
B. Undergo a hormonal receptor assay each year.
C. Perform breast self-examinations annually.
D. Have a physician conduct a clinical breast examination every 2 years.
14. Nurse Tom is caring for a patient undergoing chemotherapy, who has developed stomatitis
due to decreased nutrition and immunosuppression. The patient's care plan includes
interventions to manage the pain associated with stomatitis. Which nursing intervention is most
effective for reducing this pain?
A. Suggest the use of a soft-bristle toothbrush for oral hygiene.
B. Encourage the patient to drink citrus juices to promote healing.
C. Provide the patient with hot tea to soothe the mouth.
D. Advise the patient to rinse their mouth with a saline solution before and after meals.
15. Nurse Kelly returns to her patient's room to find that Ms. Thompson, a 34-year-old woman,
has been reading her chart and is concerned about the term "dysplasia" noted in her abnormal
Pap test results. Ms. Thompson asks Nurse Kelly to explain what "dysplasia" means. How should
Nurse Kelly respond?
A. A change in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells.
B. The presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don’t resemble the cells of the
original tissue.
C. An increase in the number of normal cells arranged in a typical pattern within a tissue or
organ.
D. The replacement of one fully differentiated cell type by another that is not normally found in
that tissue.
16. Nurse Lisa is reviewing the medical history of Ms. Reynolds, a 41-year-old client whose
gynecologist suspects cervical cancer. As Nurse Lisa evaluates the history, she looks for risk
factors associated with the disease. Which of the following history findings is considered a
significant risk factor for cervical cancer?
A. A pregnancy complicated by eclampsia at age 27.
B. A spontaneous abortion experienced at age 19.
C. A history of human papillomavirus (HPV) infection at age 32.
D. Sporadic sexual activity that began at age 17.
17. Nurse Laura is leading a breast cancer awareness session at a local community center.
During the session, she shares the American Cancer Society's recommendations regarding
mammograms. According to these guidelines, women should have mammograms:
A. Starting after their first menstrual period and then yearly.
B. After the birth of their first child and then every 2 years.
C. Every 3 years between ages 20 and 40, then annually afterward.
D. Annually starting at age 40.
18. Nurse Michelle is creating a care plan for a patient receiving floxuridine (FUDR) and is
particularly concerned about managing bone marrow suppression, which is a significant dose-
limiting adverse effect of the drug. How soon after administering floxuridine does bone marrow
suppression typically become evident?
A. 21 to 28 days
B. 2 to 4 days
C. 7 to 14 days
D. 24 hours
19. Nurse Paula is caring for a female patient with cancer who is currently undergoing
evaluation for possible metastasis. She considers the most common sites where cancer cells
may spread. Which of the following is a common site for cancer metastasis?
A. White blood cells (WBCs)
B. Reproductive tract
C. Liver
D. Colon
20. Nurse John is caring for Mr. Stevens, who is in severe pain and receiving a continuous I.V.
infusion of morphine. To ensure safe and effective pain management, which intervention should
Nurse John implement?
A. Switch to oral administration if the client can tolerate fluids.
B. Assist with a naloxone challenge test before starting therapy.
C. Obtain baseline vital signs before administering the first dose.
D. Discontinue the drug immediately if signs of dependence are noted.
21. Nurse Jenna is developing a care plan for Mrs. Harris, who has just received a cancer
diagnosis and is understandably anxious about her prognosis. To address the nursing diagnosis
of Anxiety related to the threat of death secondary to the cancer diagnosis, which expected
outcome would be most appropriate for Mrs. Harris?
A. Mrs. Harris will report a reduction in anxiety levels within 24 hours.
B. Mrs. Harris will join a support group for cancer patients within one week.
C. Mrs. Harris will express a desire to speak with a spiritual advisor within 48 hours.
D. Mrs. Harris will verbalize understanding of her treatment options within 24 hours.
22. Nurse Rachel is assessing Mr. Davis, who is concerned about his nagging cough, a symptom
he learned could be a warning sign of cancer. As she continues the assessment, Nurse Rachel
considers other potential warning signs. Which of the following is also recognized as a warning
sign of cancer?
A. Chronic ache or pain
B. Persistent nausea.
C. Indigestion.
D. A rash.
23. Nurse Karen is monitoring Mrs. Davis, who is undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer.
During her assessment, Nurse Karen is vigilant for signs of fluid and electrolyte imbalance
caused by the treatment. Which finding would indicate that such an imbalance might be
present?
A. Dry oral mucous membranes and cracked lips.
B. Blood pressure ranging from 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg.
C. Serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L.
D. Urine output of 400 mL over 8 hours
Nurse Carla is administering hydroxyurea (Hydrea) to Ms. Anderson, a 35-year-old patient
diagnosed with ovarian cancer. Understanding the drug’s mechanism of action is crucial for
providing patient education and care. Antimetabolites like hydroxyurea interfere with:
A. The chemical structure of DNA and the chemical bonds between DNA molecules (cell cycle–
nonspecific).
B. One or more stages of RNA synthesis, DNA synthesis, or both (cell cycle–nonspecific).
C. The process of cell division or mitosis specifically during the M phase of the cell cycle.
D. Normal cellular functions during the S phase of the cell cycle.
25. Nurse James is conducting an interview with Mr. Thompson, reviewing his past medical
history. During the assessment, Nurse James is alert for any preexisting conditions that might
suggest a higher risk for colorectal cancer. Which of the following conditions would raise this
concern?
A. History of polyps.
B. Recent weight gain.
C. History of duodenal ulcers.
D. Presence of hemorrhoids.
26. Nurse Amanda is administering methotrexate (Mexate) to Ms. Collins, a patient undergoing
treatment for osteogenic carcinoma. To protect Ms. Collins' normal cells during this
chemotherapy, Nurse Amanda anticipates administering which additional medication?
A. Thioguanine (6-thioguanine, 6-TG)
B. Cytarabine (ara-C, cytosine arabinoside [Cytosar-U])
C. Leucovorin (citrovorum factor or folinic acid [Wellcovorin])
D. Probenecid (Benemid)
27. Nurse Angela is assisting a 55-year-old woman who is being evaluated for possible multiple
myeloma. As part of the diagnostic process, Nurse Angela reviews the findings that are typically
associated with this condition. Which of the following would be expected in a patient with
multiple myeloma?
A. Low calcium levels (hypocalcemia).
B. A reduced level of serum creatinine.
C. The presence of Bence Jones protein in the urine.
D. A decreased serum protein level.
28. Nurse Emily is providing guidance to a 35-year-old woman who is seeking information about
mammograms and breast cancer prevention. The client isn't considered at high risk for breast
cancer. What should Nurse Emily advise?
A. She should perform breast self-exams during the first 5 days of her menstrual cycle.
B. A baseline mammogram should have been done before she turned 30.
C. Adopting a low-fat diet can help reduce her risk of developing breast cancer.
D. Once she starts getting yearly mammograms, she can stop doing breast self-exams.
29. Nurse Alex is caring for a male patient who presents with intermittent epigastric pain,
jaundice, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fatigue. After a diagnostic workup, the patient is
diagnosed with gallbladder cancer. Considering the patient's diagnosis, which nursing diagnosis
would be most appropriate?
A. Impaired swallowing.
B. Disturbed body image.
C. Anticipatory grieving.
D. Chronic low self-esteem.
30. Nurse Kelly is monitoring a 36-year-old patient who is undergoing chemotherapy for cancer.
During an oral assessment, she is vigilant for signs that may indicate the development of
stomatitis. Which of the following findings should raise concern?
A. Rust-colored sputum.
B. Yellowish discoloration of the teeth.
C. White, cottage cheese–like patches on the tongue.
D. Red, open sores on the inside of the mouth.

1. Nina, an oncology nurse educator is speaking to a women’s group about breast cancer.
Questions and comments from the audience reveal a misunderstanding of some aspects of the
disease. Various members of the audience have made all of the following statements. Which
one is accurate?
A. Mammography is the most reliable method for detecting breast cancer.
B. Breast cancer is the leading killer of women of childbearing age.
C. Breast cancer requires a mastectomy.
D. Men can develop breast cancer.
2. Nurse Meredith is instructing a premenopausal woman about breast self-examination. The
nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination:
A. at the end of her menstrual cycle.
B. on the same day each month.
C. on the 1st day of the menstrual cycle.
 D. immediately after her menstrual period.
3. Nurse Kent is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which
of the following points would be appropriate to make?
A. Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer.
B. Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose.
C. Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males.
D. Testicular cancer is more common in older men.
4. Rhea, has malignant lymphoma. As part of her chemotherapy, the physician prescribes
chlorambucil (Leukeran), 10 mg by mouth daily. When caring for the client, the nurse teaches
her about adverse reactions to chlorambucil, such as alopecia. How soon after the first
administration of chlorambucil might this reaction occur?
A. Immediately
B. 1 week
C. 2 to 3 weeks
D. 1 month
5. A male client is receiving the cell cycle–nonspecific alkylating agent thiotepa (Thioplex), 60
mg weekly for 4 weeks by bladder instillation as part of a chemotherapeutic regimen to treat
bladder cancer. The client asks the nurse how the drug works. How does thiotepa exert its
therapeutic effects?
A. It interferes with deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) replication only.
B. It interferes with ribonucleic acid (RNA) transcription only.
C. It interferes with DNA replication and RNA transcription.
D. It destroys the cell membrane, causing lysis.
6. The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to perform a testicular self-examination. The
nurse tells the client:
A. To examine the testicles while lying down
B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
D. That testicular self-examination should be done at least every 6 months
7. A female client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia. The
nurse identifies which intervention as the highest priority in the nursing plan of care?
A. Monitoring temperature
B. Ambulation three times daily
C. Monitoring the platelet count
D. Monitoring for pathological fractures
8. Gian, a community health nurse is instructing a group of female clients about breast self-
examination. The nurse instructs the client to perform the examination:
A. At the onset of menstruation
B. Every month during ovulation
C. Weekly at the same time of day
D. 1 week after menstruation begins
9. Nurse Cecilia is caring for a client who has undergone a vaginal hysterectomy. The nurse
avoids which of the following in the care of this client?
A. Elevating the knee gatch on the bed
B. Assisting with range-of-motion leg exercises
C. Removal of antiembolism stockings twice daily
D. Checking placement of pneumatic compression boots
10. Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse
provides which preprocedure instruction to the client?
A. Eat a light breakfast only
B. Maintain an NPO status before the procedure
C. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the procedure
D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test
11. A male client is diagnosed as having a bowel tumor and several diagnostic tests are
prescribed. The nurse understands that which test will confirm the diagnosis of malignancy?
A. Biopsy of the tumor
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Magnetic resonance imaging
 D. Computerized tomography scan
12. A female client diagnosed with multiple myeloma and the client asks the nurse about the
diagnosis. The nurse bases the response on which description of this disorder?
A. Altered red blood cell production
B. Altered production of lymph nodes
C. Malignant exacerbation in the number of leukocytes
D. Malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone
13. Nurse Bea is reviewing the laboratory results of a client diagnosed with multiple myeloma.
Which of the following would the nurse expect to note specifically in this disorder?
A. Increased calcium
B. Increased white blood cells
C. Decreased blood urea nitrogen level
D. Decreased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow
14. Vanessa, a community health nurse conducts a health promotion program regarding
testicular cancer to community members. The nurse determines that further information needs
to be provided if a community member states that which of the following is a sign of testicular
cancer?
A. Alopecia
B. Back pain
C. Painless testicular swelling
D. Heavy sensation in the scrotum
15. The male client is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of the larynx. The most
likely side effect to be expected is:
A. Dyspnea
B. Diarrhea
C. Sore throat
D. Constipation
16. Nurse Joy is caring for a client with an internal radiation implant. When caring for the client,
the nurse should observe which of the following principles?
 A. Limit the time with the client to 1 hour per shift
B. Do not allow pregnant women into the client’s room
C. Remove the dosimeter badge when entering the client’s room
D. Individuals younger than 16 years old may be allowed to go in the room as long as they
are 6 feet away from the client
17. A cervical radiation implant is placed in the client for treatment of cervical cancer. The nurse
initiates what most appropriate activity order for this client?
A. Bed rest
B. Out of bed ad lib
C. Out of bed in a chair only
D. Ambulation to the bathroom only
18. A female client is hospitalized for insertion of an internal cervical radiation implant. While
giving care, the nurse finds the radiation implant in the bed. The initial action by the nurse is to:
A. Call the physician
B. Reinsert the implant into the vagina immediately
C. Pick up the implant with gloved hands and flush it down the toilet
D. Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead container.
19. The nurse is caring for a female client experiencing neutropenia as a result of chemotherapy
and develops a plan of care for the client. The nurse plans to:
A. Restrict all visitors
B. Restrict fluid intake
C. Teach the client and family about the need for hand hygiene
D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to prevent skin breakdown
20. The home health care nurse is caring for a male client with cancer and the client is
complaining of acute pain. The appropriate nursing assessment of the client’s pain would
include which of the following?
A. The client’s pain rating
B. Nonverbal cues from the client
C. The nurse’s impression of the client’s pain
 D. Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention
21. Nurse Mickey is caring for a client who is postoperative following a pelvic exenteration and
the physician changes the client’s diet from NPO status to clear liquids. The nurse makes which
priority assessment before administering the diet?
A. Bowel sounds
B. Ability to ambulate
C. Incision appearance
D. Urine specific gravity
22. A male client is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of Hodgkin’s disease.
Which assessment findings would the nurse expect to note specifically in the client?
A. Fatigue
B. Weakness
C. Weight gain
D. Enlarged lymph nodes
23. During the admission assessment of a 35 year old client with advanced ovarian cancer, the
nurse recognizes which symptom as typical of the disease?
A. Diarrhea
B. Hypermenorrhea
C. Abdominal bleeding
D. Abdominal distention
24. Nurse Kate is reviewing the complications of colonization with a client who has
microinvasive cervical cancer. Which complication, if identified by the client, indicates a need for
further teaching?
A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Cervical stenosis
D. Ovarian perforation
25. Mr. Miller has been diagnosed with bone cancer. You know this type of cancer is classified
as:
 A. sarcoma.
B. lymphoma.
C. carcinoma.
D. melanoma.
26. Sarah, a hospice nurse visits a client dying of ovarian cancer. During the visit, the client
expresses that “If I can just live long enough to attend my daughter’s graduation, I’ll be ready to
die.” Which phrase of coping is this client experiencing?
A. Anger
B. Denial
C. Bargaining
D. Depression
27. Nurse Farah is caring for a client following a mastectomy. Which assessment finding
indicates that the client is experiencing a complication related to the surgery?
A. Pain at the incisional site
B. Arm edema on the operative side
C. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain
D. Complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site
28. The nurse is admitting a male client with laryngeal cancer to the nursing unit. The nurse
assesses for which most common risk factor for this type of cancer?
A. Alcohol abuse
B. Cigarette smoking
C. Use of chewing tobacco
D. Exposure to air pollutants
29. The female client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the
nurse that it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client
may be experiencing:
A. Rupture of the bladder
B. The development of a vesicovaginal fistula
C. Extreme stress caused by the diagnosis of cancer
 D. Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of radiation therapy
30. The client with leukemia is receiving busulfan (Myleran) and allopurinol (Zyloprim). The
nurse tells the client that the purpose if the allopurinol is to prevent:
A. Nausea
B. Alopecia
C. Vomiting
D. Hyperuricemia
31. A 25 year old patient is inquiring about the methods or ways to detect cancer earlier. The
nurse least likely identify this method by stating:
A. Annual chest x-ray.
B. Annual Pap smear for sexually active women only.
C. Annual digital rectal examination for persons over age 40.
D. Yearly physical and blood examination
32. The removal of entire breast, pectoralis major and minor muscles and neck lymph nodes
which is followed by skin grafting is a procedure called:
A. Simple mastectomy
B. Modified radical mastectomy
C. Radiation therapy
D. Radical mastectomy
33. Chemotherapy is one of the therapeutic modalities for cancer. This treatment is
contraindicated to which of the following conditions?
A. Recent surgery
B. Pregnancy
C. Bone marrow depression
D. All of the above
34. The nurse is preparing Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). Safe handling of the drug should be
implemented to protect the nurse from injury. Which of the following action by the nurse
should be corrected?
A. The nurse should wear mask and gloves.
 B. Air bubbles should be expelled on wet cotton.
C. Label the hanging IV bottle with “ANTINEOPLASTIC CHEMOTHERAPY” sign.
D. Vent vials after mixing.
35. Neoplasm can be classified as either benign or malignant. The following are characteristics
of malignant tumor apart from:
A. Metastasis
B. Infiltrates surrounding tissues
C. Encapsulated
D. Poorly differentiated cells
36. On a clinic visit a client who has a relative with cancer, is asking about the warning signs that
may relate to cancer. The nurse correctly identifies the warning signs of cancer by responding:
A. “If a sore healing took a month or more to heal, cancer should be suspected.”
B. “Presence of dry cough is one of the warning signs of cancer.”
C. “A lump located only in the breast area may suggest the presence of cancer.”
D. “Sudden weight loss of unexplained etiology can be a warning sign of cancer.”
37. In staging and grading neoplasm TNM system is used. TNM stands for:
A. Time, neoplasm, mode of growth
B. Tumor, node, metastasis
C. Tumor, neoplasm, mode of growth
D. Time, node, metastasis
38. Breast self examination (BSE) is one of the ways to detect breast cancer earlier. The nurse is
conducting a health teaching to female clients in a clinic. During evaluation the clients are asked
to state what they learned. Which of the following statement made by a client needs further
teaching about BSE?
A. “BSE is done after menstruation.”
B. “BSE palpation is done by starting at the center going to the periphery in a circular
motion.”
C. “BSE can be done in either supine or standing position.”
D. “BSE should start from age 20.”
39. A client had undergone radiation therapy (external). The expected side effects include the
following apart from:
A. Hair loss
B. Ulceration of oral mucous membranes
C. Constipation
D. Headache
40. Nurse Janet is assigned in the oncology section of the hospital. Which of the following
orders should the nurse question if a client is on radiation therapy?
A. Analgesics before meals
B. Saline rinses every 2 hours
C. Aspirin every 4 hours
D. Bland diet
41. Skin reactions are common in radiation therapy. Nursing responsibilities on promoting skin
integrity should be promoted apart from:
A. Avoiding the use of ointments, powders and lotion to the area
B. Using soft cotton fabrics for clothing
C. Washing the area with a mild soap and water and patting it dry not rubbing it.
D. Avoiding direct sunshine or cold.
42. Nausea and vomiting is an expected side effect of chemotherapeutic drug use. Which of the
following drug should be administered to a client on chemotherapy to prevent nausea and
vomiting?
A. Metochlopramide (Metozol)
B. Succimer (Chemet)
C. Anastrazole (Arimidex)
D. Busulfan (Myleran)
43. Radiation protection is very important to implement when performing nursing procedures.
When the nurse is not performing any nursing procedures what distance should be maintained
from the client?
A. 1 feet
 B. 2 feet
C. 2.5 feet
D. 3 feet
44. The following are teaching guidelines regarding radiation therapy except:
A. The therapy is painless
B. To promote safety, the client is assisted by therapy personnel while the machine is in
operation.
C. The client may communicate all his concerns or needs or discomforts while the machine
is operating.
D. Safety precautions are necessary only during the time of actual irradiation.
45. Contact of client on radiation therapy should be limited only to how many minutes to
promote safety of the therapy personnel?
A. 1 minute
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes
46. A client is taking Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) for the treatment of lymphoma. The nurse is
very cautious in administering the medication because this drug poses the fatal side effect of:
A. Alopecia
B. Myeloma
C. CNS toxicity
D. Hemorrhagic cystitis
47. Cytarabine (Ara-C) is an antimetabolite that can cause a common cytarabine syndrome
which includes the following apart from:
A. Fever
B. Myalgia
C. Chest pain
D. Diarrhea
48. To provide relief from the cytarabine syndrome, which drug is given?
 A. Analgesic
B. Aspirin
C. Steroids
D. Allopurinol
49. Chemotherapeutic agents have different specific classifications. The following medications
are antineoplastic antibiotics except:
A. Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)
B. Fluorouracil (Adrucil)
C. Mitoxantrone (Novantrone)
D. Bleomycin (Blenoxane)
50. Specific classification of the chemotherapeutic agent, Vincristine (Oncovin) is:
A. Hormone modulator
B. Mitotic inhibitor
C. Antineoplastic antibiotic
D. Antimetabolite
51. A client is diagnosed with progressive prostate cancer. The nurse expects which drug is
given?
A. Anstrazole (arimidex)
B. Estramustine (Emcyt)
C. Paclitaxel (Taxol)
D. Irinotecan (Camptosar)
52. A client taking a chemotherapeutic agent understands the effects of therapy by stating:
A. “I will avoid eating hot and spicy foods.”
B. “I should stay in my room all the time.”
C. “I should limit my fluid intake to about 500 ml per day.”
D. “I should notify the physician immediately if a urine color change is observed.”
53. A client is diagnosed with breast cancer. The tumor size is up to 5 cm with axillary and neck
lymph node involvement. The client is in what stage of breast cancer?
 A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV
54. The classic symptoms that define breast cancer includes the following except:
A. “pink peel” skin
B. Solitary, irregularly shaped mass
C. Firm, nontender, nonmobile mass
D. Abnormal discharge from the nipple
55. Surgical procedure to treat breast cancer involves the removal of the entire breast,
pectoralis major muscle and the axillary lymph nodes is:
A. Simple mastectomy
B. Modified radical mastectomy
C. Halstead Surgery
D. Radical mastectomy

1. Which of the following conditions is not a complication of Hodgkin’s disease?

A. Anemia
B. Infection
C. Myocardial Infarction
D. Nausea
2. Which of the following laboratory values is expected for a client just diagnosed with chronic
lymphocytic leukemia?
A. Elevated sedimentation rate
B. Uncontrolled proliferation of granulocytes
C. Thrombocytopenia and increased lymphocytes
D. Elevated aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase levels.
3. At the time of diagnosis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, which of the following areas is often
involved?
A. Back
B. Chest
C. Groin
D. Neck
4. According to a standard staging classification of Hodgkin’s disease, which of the following
criteria reflects stage II?
A. Involvement of extralymphatic organs or tissues
B. Involvement of single lymph node region or structure
C. Involvement of two or more lymph node regions or structures.
D. Involvement of lymph node regions or structures on both sides of the diaphragm.
5. Which of the following statements is correct about the rate of cell growth in relation to
chemotherapy?
A. Faster growing cells are less susceptible to chemotherapy.
B. Non-dividing cells are more susceptible to chemotherapy
C. Faster growing cells are more susceptible to chemotherapy
D. Slower growing cells are more susceptible to chemotherapy.
6. Which of the following foods should a client with leukemia avoid?
A. White bread
B. Carrot sticks
C. Stewed apples
D. Medium rare steak
7. A client with leukemia has neutropenia. Which of the following functions must be
frequently assessed?
A. Blood pressure
B. Bowel sounds
C. Heart sounds
 D. Breath sounds
8. Which of the following clients is most at risk for developing multiple myeloma?
A. A 20-year-old Asian woman
B. A 30-year-old White man
C. A 50-year-old Hispanic woman
D. A 60-year-old Black man
9. Which of the following substances has abnormal values early in the course of multiple
myeloma (MM)?
A. Immunoglobulins
B. Platelets
C. Red blood cells
D. White blood cells
10. For which of the following conditions is a client with multiple myeloma (MM) monitored?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypermagnesemia
11. Giving instructions for breast self-examination is particularly important for clients with
which of the following medical problems?
A. Cervical dysplasia
B. A dermoid cyst
C. Endometrial polyps
D. Ovarian cancer
12. During a routine physical examination, a firm mass is palpated in the right breast of a 35-
year-old woman. Which of the following findings or client history would suggest cancer of the
breast as opposed to fibrocystic disease?
A. History of early menarche
B. Cyclic changes in mass size
 C. History of anovulatory cycles
D. Increased vascularity of the breast
13. The client with which of the following types of lung cancer has the best prognosis?
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Oat cell
C. Squamous cell
D. Small cell
14. Warning signs and symptoms of lung cancer include persistent cough, bloody sputum,
dyspnea, and which of the other following symptoms?
A. Dizziness
B. Generalized weakness
C. Hypotension
D. Recurrent pleural effusion
15. A centrally located tumor would produce which of the following symptoms?
A. Coughing
B. Hemoptysis
C. Pleuritic pain
D. Shoulder pain
16. Which of the following interventions is the key to increasing the survival rates of clients
with lung cancer?
A. Early bronchoscopy
B. Early detection
C. High-dose chemotherapy
D. Smoking cessation
17. A client has been diagnosed with lung cancer and requires a wedge resection. How much of
the lung is removed?
A. One entire lung
B. A lobe of the lung
 C. A small, localized area near the surface of the lung.
D. A segment of the lung, including a bronchiole and its alveoli.
18. When a client has a lobectomy, what fills the space where the lobe was?
A. The space stays empty.
B. The surgeon fills the space with gel
C. The lung space fills up with serous fluid
D. The remaining lobe or lobes overexpand to fill the space.
19. Which of the following is the primary goal for surgical resection of lung cancer?
A. To remove the tumor and all surrounding tissue.
B. To remove the tumor and as little surrounding tissue as possible.
C. To remove all of the tumor and any collapsed alveoli in the same region.
D. To remove as much as the tumor as possible, without removing any alveoli.
20. If the client with lung cancer also has preexisting pulmonary disease, which of the following
statements best describes how the extent of that can be performed?
A. It doesn’t affect it.
B. It may require a whole lung to be removed.
C. The entire tumor may not be able to be removed
D. It may prevent surgery if the client can’t tolerate lung tissue removal.
21. The client with a benign lung tumor is treated in which of the following ways?
A. The tumor is treated with radiation only.
B. The tumor is treated with chemotherapy only.
C. The tumor is left alone unless symptoms are present.
D. The tumor is removed, involving the least possible amount of tissue.
22. In the client with terminal lung cancer, the focus of nursing care is on which of the following
nursing interventions?
A. Provide emotional support
B. Provide nutritional support
C. Provide pain control
 D. Prepare the client’s will
23. What are the three most important prognostic factors in determining long-term survival for
children with acute leukemia?
A. Histologic type of disease, initial platelet count, and type of treatment
B. Type of treatment and client’s sex
C. Histologic type of disease, initial WBC count, and client’s age at diagnosis
D. Progression of illness, WBC at the time of diagnosis, and client’s age at the time of
diagnosis.
24. Which of the following complications are three main consequences of leukemia?
A. Bone deformities, spherocytosis, and infection.
B. Anemia, infection, and bleeding tendencies
C. Lymphocytopoesis, growth delays, and hirsutism
D. Polycythemia, decreased clotting time, and infection.
25. A child is seen in the pediatrician’s office for complaints of bone and joint pain. Which of
the following other assessment findings may suggest leukemia?
A. Abdominal pain
B. Increased activity level
C. Increased appetite
D. Petechiae
26. Which of the following assessment findings in a client with leukemia would indicate that the
cancer has invaded the brain?
A. Headache and vomiting.
B. Restlessness and tachycardia
C. Hypervigilant and anxious behavior
D. Increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure.
27. Which of the following types of leukemia carries the best prognosis?
A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B. Acute myelogenous leukemia
 C. Basophillic leukemia
D. Eosinophillic leukemia
28. Which of the following is the reason to perform a spinal tap on a client newly diagnosed
with leukemia?
A. To rule out meningitis
B. To decrease intracranial pressure
C. To aid in classification of the leukemia
D. To assess for central nervous system infiltration
29. Which of the following tests in performed on a client with leukemia before initiation of
therapy to evaluate the child’s ability to metabolize chemotherapeutic agents?
A. Lumbar puncture
B. Liver function studies
C. Complete blood count (CBC)
D. Peripheral blood smear
30. Which of the following immunizations should not be given to a 4-month-old sibling of a
client with leukemia?
A. Diphtheria and tetanus and pertussis (DPT) vaccine.
B. Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Haemophilus influenza type b vaccines (Hib)
D. Oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV)
31. Which of the following medications usually is given to a client with leukemia as prophylaxis
against P. carinii pneumonia?
A. Bactrim
B. Oral nystatin suspension
C. Prednisone
D. Vincristine (Oncovin)
32. In which of the following diseases would bone marrow transplantation not be indicated in a
newly diagnosed client?
A. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
 B. Chronic myeloid leukemia
C. Severe aplastic anemia
D. Severe combined immunodeficiency
33. Which of the following treatment measures should be implemented for a child with
leukemia who has been exposed to the chickenpox?
A. No treatment is indicated.
B. Acyclovir (Zovirax) should be started on exposure
C. Varicella-zoster immune globin (VZIG) should be given with the evidence of disease
D. VZIG should be given within 72 hours of exposure.
34. Nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of radiation and chemotherapy. When
should a nurse administer antiemetics?
A. 30 minutes before the initiation of therapy.
B. With the administration of therapy.
C. Immediately after nausea begins.
D. When therapy is completed.
35. Parents of pediatric clients who undergo irradiation involving the central nervous system
should be warned about postirradiation somnolence. When does this neurologic syndrome
usually occur?
A. Immediately
B. Within 1 to 2 weeks
C. Within 5 to 8 weeks
D. Within 3 to 6 months
36. The nurse is instructing the client to perform a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells
the client:
A. To examine the testicles while lying down.
B. The best time for the examination is after a shower
C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
D. That testicular examination should be done at least every 6 months.
37. The community nurse is conducting a health promotion program at a local school and is
discussing the risk factors associated with cancer. Which of the following, if identified by the
client as a risk factor, indicates a need for further instructions?
A. Viral factors
B. Stress
C. Low-fat and high-fiber diets
D. Exposure to radiation
38. The client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia. The
nurse identifies which intervention as the highest priority in the nursing plan of care?
A. Ambulation three times a day
B. Monitoring temperature
C. Monitoring the platelet count
D. Monitoring for pathological factors
39. A client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. The client asks the nurse about the diagnosis.
The nurse bases the response on which of the following descriptions of this disorder?
A. Malignant exacerbation in the number of leukocytes.
B. Altered red blood cell production.
C. Altered production of lymph nodes
D. Malignant proliferation of plasma cells and tumors within the bone.
40. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client diagnosed with multiple myeloma.
Which of the following would the nurse expect to note specifically in this disorder?
A. Decreased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow.
B. Increased WBC’s
C. Increased calcium levels
D. Decreased blood urea nitrogen
41. The nurse is developing a plan of care for the client with multiple myeloma. The nurse
includes which priority intervention in the plan of care?
A. Coughing and deep breathing
B. Encouraging fluids
 C. Monitoring red blood cell count
D. Providing frequent oral care
42. The oncology nurse specialist provides an educational session to nursing staff regarding the
characteristics of Hodgkin’s disease. The nurse determines that further education is needed if a
nursing staff member states that which of the following is characteristic of the disease?
A. Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells
B. Involvement of lymph nodes, spleen, and liver
C. Occurs most often in the older client
D. Prognosis depends on the stage of the disease
43. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client receiving chemotherapy. The
platelet count is 10,000 cells/mm. Based on this laboratory value, the priority nursing
assessment is which of the following?
A. Assess level of consciousness
B. Assess temperature
C. Assess bowel sounds
D. Assess skin turgor
44. The nurse is caring for a client following a modified radical mastectomy. Which assessment
finding would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication related to this surgery?
A. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain
B. Pain at the incisional site
C. Complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site
D. Arm edema on the operative side
45. A nurse is providing education in a community setting about general measures to avoid
excessive sun exposure. Which of the following recommendations is appropriate?
A. Apply sunscreen only after going in the water.
B. Avoid peak exposure hours from 9am to 1pm
C. Wear loosely woven clothing for added ventilation
D. Apply sunscreen with a sun protection factor (SPF) of 15 or more before sun exposure.
46. Which of the following nursing interventions would be most helpful in making the
respiratory effort of a client with metastatic lung cancer more efficient?
A. Teaching the client diaphragmatic breathing techniques
B. Administering cough suppressants as ordered
C. Teaching and encouraging pursed-lip breathing
D. Placing the client in a low semi-Fowlers position
47. The nurse is teaching a 17-year old client and the client’s family about what to expect with
high-dose chemotherapy and the effects of neutropenia. What should the nurse teach as the
most reliable early indicator of infection in a neutropenic client?
A. Fever
B. Chills
C. Tachycardia
D. Dyspnea
48. A 58-year-old man is going to have chemotherapy for lung cancer. He asks the nurse how
the chemotherapeutic drugs will work. The most accurate explanation the nurse can give is
which of the following?
A. “Chemotherapy affects all rapidly dividing cells.”
B. “The molecular structure of the DNA is altered.”
C. “Cancer cells are susceptible to drug toxins.”
D. “Chemotherapy encourages cancer cells to divide.”
49. When caring for a client with a central venous line, which of the following nursing actions
should be implemented in the plan of care for chemotherapy administration? Select all that
apply.
A. Verify patency of the line by the presence of a blood return at regular intervals.
B. Inspect the insertion site for swelling, erythema, or drainage.
C. Administer a cytotoxic agent to keep the regimen on schedule even if blood return is not
present.
D. If unable to aspirate blood, reposition the client and encourage the client to cough.
E. Contact the health care provider about verifying placement if the status is questionable.
50. A client with stomach cancer is admitted to the oncology unit after vomiting for 3 days.
Physical assessment findings include irregular pulse, muscle twitching, and complaints of
prickling sensations in the fingers and hands. Laboratory results include a potassium level of 2.9
mEq/L, a pH of 7.46, and a bicarbonate level of 29 mEq/L. The client is experiencing:
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
51. A 32-year-old woman meets with the nurse on her first office visit since undergoing a left
mastectomy. When asked how she is doing, the woman states her appetite is still not good, she
is not getting much sleep because she doesn’t go to bed until her husband is asleep, and she is
really anxious to get back to work. Which of the following nursing interventions should the
nurse explore to support the client’s current needs?
A. Call the physician to discuss allowing the client to return to work earlier.
B. Suggest that the client learn relaxation techniques to help with her insomnia
C. Perform a nutritional assessment to assess for anorexia
D. Ask open-ended questions about sexuality issues related to her mastectomy
52. One of the most serious blood coagulation complications for individuals with cancer and for
those undergoing cancer treatments is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The most
common cause of this bleeding disorder is:
A. Underlying liver disease
B. Brain metastasis
C. Intravenous heparin therapy
D. Sepsis
53. A pneumonectomy is a surgical procedure sometimes indicated for treatment of non-small-
cell lung cancer. A pneumonectomy involves removal of:
A. An entire lung field
B. A small, wedge-shaped lung surface
C. One lobe of a lung
D. One or more segments of a lung lobe
54. A 36-year-old man with lymphoma presents with signs of impending septic shock 9 days
after chemotherapy. The nurse could expect which of the following to be present?
A. Flushing, decreased oxygen saturation, mild hypotension
B. Low-grade fever, chills, tachycardia
C. Elevated temperature, oliguria, hypotension
D. High-grade fever, normal blood pressure, increased respirations
55. Which of the following represents the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client
with pruritis caused by cancer or the treatments?
A. Administration of antihistamines
B. Steroids
C. Silk sheets
D. Medicated cool baths
56. A 56-year-old woman is currently receiving radiation therapy to the chest wall for recurrent
breast cancer. She calls her health care provider to report that she has pain while swallowing
and burning and tightness in her chest. Which of the following complications of radiation
therapy is most likely responsible for her symptoms?
A. Hiatal hernia
B. Stomatitis
C. Radiation enteritis
D. Esophagitis

1. You are caring for a patient with esophageal cancer. Which task could be delegated to the
nursing assistant?
A. Assist the patient with oral hygiene.
B. Observe the patient’s response to feedings.
C. Facilitate expression of grief or anxiety.
D. Initiate daily weights.
2. A 56-year-old patient comes to the walk-in clinic for scant rectal bleeding and intermittent
diarrhea and constipation for the past several months. There is a history of polyps and a family
history for colorectal cancer. While you are trying to teach about colonoscopy, the patient
becomes angry and threatens to leave. What is the priority diagnosis?
A. Diarrhea/Constipation related to altered bowel patterns
B. Knowledge Deficit related to disease process and diagnostic procedure
C. Risk for Fluid Volume Deficit related to rectal bleeding and diarrhea
D. Anxiety related to unknown outcomes and perceive threat to body integrity
3. Which patient is at greatest risk for pancreatic cancer?
A. An elderly black male with a history of smoking and alcohol use
B. A young, white obese female with no known health issues
C. A young black male with juvenile onset diabetes
D. An elderly white female with a history of pancreatitis
4. The disease progress of cancers, such as cervical or Hodgkin’s, can be classified according to a
clinical staging system. Place the description of stages 0-IV in the correct order.
A. Metastasis
B. Limited local spread
C. Cancer in situ
D. Tumor limited to tissue of origin
E. Extensive local and regional spread

,CDBEA
5. In assigning patients with alterations related to gastrointestinal (GI) cancer, which would be
the most appropriate nursing care tasks to assign to the LPN/LVN, under supervision of the
team leader RN?
A. A patient with severe anemia secondary to GI bleeding
B. A patient who needs enemas and antibiotics to control GI bacteria
C. A patient who needs pre-op teaching for bowel resection surgery
D. A patient who needs central line insertion for chemotherapy
6. A community health center is preparing a presentation on the prevention and detection of
cancer. Which health care professional (RN, LPN/LVN, nurse practitioner, nutritionist) should be
assigned to address the following topics?
A. Explain screening exams and diagnostic testing for common cancers
____________________________
B. How to plan a balanced diet and reduce fats and preservatives
_______________________
C. Prepare a poster on the seven warning signs of cancer
____________________________
D. How to practice breast or testicular self-examination _______________________
E. Strategies for reducing risk factors such as smoking and obesity
___________________________
7. The physician tells the patient that there will be an initial course of treatment with continued
maintenance treatments and ongoing observation for signs and symptoms over a prolonged
period of time. You can help the patient by reinforcing that the primary goal for this type of
treatment is:
A. Cure
B. Control
C. Palliation
D. Permanent remission
8. For a patient who is experiencing side effects of radiation therapy, which task would be the
most appropriate to delegate to the nursing assistant?
A. Assist the patient to identify patterns of fatigue.
B. Recommend participation in a walking program.
C. Report the amount and type of food consumed from the tray.
D. Check the skin for redness and irritation after the treatment.
9. For a patient on the chemotherapeutic drug vincristine (Oncovin), which of the following side
effects should be reported to the physician?
A. Fatigue
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Paresthesia
 D. Anorexia
10.For a patient who is receiving chemotherapy, which laboratory result is of particular
importance?
A. WBC
B. PT and PTT
C. Electrolytes
D. BUN
11.For care of a patient who has oral cancer, which task would be appropriate to delegate to the
LPN/LVN?
A. Assist the patient to brush and floss.
B. Explain when brushing and flossing are contraindicated.
C. Give antacids and sucralfate suspension as ordered.
D. Recommend saliva substitutes.
12.When assigning staff to patients who are receiving chemotherapy, what is the major
consideration about chemotherapeutic drugs?
A. During preparation, drugs may be absorbed through the skin or inhaled.
B. Many chemotherapeutics are vesicants.
C. Chemotherapeutics are frequently given through central nervous access devices.
D. Oral and venous routes are the most common.
13.You have just received the morning report from the night shift nurses. List the order of
priority for assessing and caring for these patients.
A. A patient who developed tumor lysis syndrome around 5:00 AM
B. A patient with frequent reports of break-through pain over the past 24 hours
C. A patient scheduled for exploratory laparotomy this morning
D. A patient with anticipatory nausea and vomiting for the past 24 hour
ACDB
14.In monitoring patients who are at risk for spinal cord compression related to tumor growth,
what is the most likely early manifestation?
A. Sudden-onset back pain
 B. Motor loss
C. Constipation
D. Urinary hesitancy
15.Chemotherapeutic treatment of acute leukemia is done in four phases. Place these phases in
the correct order.
A. Maintenance
B. Induction
C. Intensification
D. Consolidation
_____, _____, _____, _____ B C D A
16.Which set of classification values indicates the most extensive and progressed cancer?
A. T1 N0 M0
B. Tis N0 M0
C. T1 N1 M0
D. T4 N3 M1
17.For a patient with osteogenic sarcoma, you would be particularly vigilant for elevations in
which laboratory value?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Potassium
D. Hematocrit
18.Which of the following cancer patients could potentially be placed together as roommates?
A. A patient with a neutrophil count of 1000/mm3
B. A patient who underwent debulking of a tumor to relieve pressure
C. A patient receiving high-dose chemotherapy after a bone marrow harvest
D. A patient who is post-op laminectomy for spinal cord compression
19.What do you tell patients is the most important risk factor for lung cancer when you are
teaching about lung cancer prevention?
 A. Cigarette smoking
B. Exposure to environmental/occupational carcinogens
C. Exposure to environmental tobacco smoke (ETS)
D. Pipe or cigar smoking
20.Following chemotherapy, a patient is being closely monitored for tumor lysis syndrome.
Which laboratory value requires particular attention?
A. Platelet count
B. Electrolytes
C. Hemoglobin
D. Hematocrit
21.Persons at risk are the greater target population for cancer screening programs. Which
asymptomatic patient(s) needs extra encouragement to participate in cancer screening?
(Choose all that apply).
A. A 19-year-old white-American female who is sexually inactive for a Pap smear
B. A 35-year-old white-American female for an annual mammogram
C. A 45-year-old African-American male for an annual prostate-specific antigen
D. A 49year-old African-American male for an annual fecal occult blood test
22.A patient with lung cancer develops syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
secretion (SIADH). After reporting symptoms of weight gain, weakness, and nausea and
vomiting to the physician, you would anticipate which initial order for the treatment of this
patient?
A. A fluid bolus as ordered
B. Fluid restrictions as ordered
C. Urinalysis as ordered
D. Sodium-restricted diet as ordered
23.In caring for a patient with neutropenia, what tasks can be delegated to the nursing
assistant? (Choose all that apply).
A. Take vital signs every 4 hours
B. Report temperature elevation >100.4o F
 C. Assess for sore throat, cough, or burning with urination.
D. Gather the supplies to prepare the room for protective isolation.
E. Report superinfections, such as candidiasis
F. Practice good handwashing technique.
24.A primary nursing responsibility is the prevention of lung cancer by assisting patients in
smoking/tobacco cessation. Which tasks would be appropriate to delegate to the LPN/LVN?
A. Develop a “quit plan”
B. Explain the application of a nicotine patch
C. Discuss strategies to avoid relapse
D. Suggest ways to deal with urges for a tobacco
1) Nurse April is teaching a client who suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The nurse
instructs the client that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by:
A. breast self-examination.
B. mammography
C. fine needle aspiration.
D. chest X-ray.
2) A male client has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting, he read his
chart while the nurse was out of the room, the client asks what dysplasia means. Which
definition should the nurse provide?
A. Presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don’t resemble cells of the
tissues of their origin
B. Increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in a tissue or an organ
C. Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by another in tissues where the
second type normally isn’t found
D. Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells
3) Nurse Lucia is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American
Cancer Society recommends that women get mammograms:
A. yearly after age 40.
B. after the birth of the first child and every 2 years thereafter.
 C. after the first menstrual period and annually thereafter
D. every 3 years between ages 20 and 40 and annually thereafter.
4) A female client is receiving chemotherapy to treat breast cancer. Which assessment finding
indicates a fluid and electrolyte imbalance induced by chemotherapy?
A. Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours
B. Serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg
D. Dry oral mucous membranes and cracked lips
5) A 35 years old client has been receiving chemotherapy to treat cancer. Which assessment
finding suggests that the client has developed stomatitis (inflammation of the mouth)?
A. White, cottage cheese–like patches on the tongue
B. Yellow tooth discoloration
C. Red, open sores on the oral mucosa
D. Rust-colored sputum
6) What should a male client over age 52 do to help ensure early identification of prostate
cancer?
A. Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly.
B. Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years.
C. Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 50.
D. Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
checked yearly.
7) A male client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse
formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse
add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?
A. Related to visual field deficits
B. Related to difficulty swallowing
C. Related to impaired balance
D. Related to psychomotor seizures
8) Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor is scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse
provides which preprocedure instruction to the client?
A. Eat a light breakfast only
B. Maintain an NPO status before the procedure
C. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the procedure
D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding before the test
9) A male client with a nagging cough makes an appointment to see the physician after reading
that this symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer. What is another warning sign of
cancer?
A. Persistent nausea
B. Rash
C. Indigestion
D. Chronic ache or pain
10) The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to perform a testicular self-examination. The
nurse tells the client:
A. To examine the testicles while lying down
B. That the best time for the examination is after a shower
C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a growth
D. That testicular self-examination should be done at least every 6 months
11) Nurse Kent is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which
of the following points would be appropriate to make?
A. Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer
B. Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose.
C. Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males.
D. Testicular cancer is more common in older men.
12) A male client undergoes a laryngectomy to treat laryngeal cancer. When teaching the client
how to care for the neck stoma, the nurse should include which instruction?
A. “Keep the stoma uncovered.”
B. “Keep the stoma dry.”
 C. “Have a family member perform stoma care initially until you get used to the
procedure.”
D. “Keep the stoma moist.”
13) Rhea, has malignant lymphoma. As part of her chemotherapy, the physician prescribes
chlorambucil (Leukeran), 10 mg by mouth daily. When caring for the client, the nurse teaches
her about adverse reactions to chlorambucil, such as alopecia. How soon after the first
administration of chlorambucil might this reaction occur?
A. Immediately
B. 1 week
C. 2 to 3 weeks
D. 1 month
14) A female client with cancer is scheduled for radiation therapy. The nurse knows that
radiation at any treatment site may cause a certain adverse effect. Therefore, the nurse should
prepare the client to expect:
A. hair loss.
B. stomatitis
C. fatigue
D. vomiting
15) Nurse Farah is caring for a client following a mastectomy. Which assessment finding
indicates that the client is experiencing a complication related to the surgery?
A. Pain at the incisional site
B. Arm edema on the operative side
C. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain
D. Complaints of decreased sensation near the operative site
16) A cervical radiation implant is placed in the client for treatment of cervical cancer. The nurse
initiates what most appropriate activity order for this client?
A. Bed rest
B. Out of bed ad lib
C. Out of bed in a chair only
D. Ambulation to the bathroom only
17) Nurse Amy is speaking to a group of women about early detection of breast cancer. The
average age of the women in the group is 47. Following the American Cancer Society guidelines,
the nurse should recommend that the women:
A. perform breast self-examination annually.
B. have a mammogram annually.
C. have a hormonal receptor assay annually.
D. have a physician conduct a clinical examination every 2 years.
18) Nurse Kate is reviewing the complications of colonization with a client who has
microinvasive cervical cancer. Which complication, if identified by the client, indicates a need for
further teaching?
A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Cervical stenosis
D. Ovarian perforation
19) Nurse Mickey is caring for a client who is postoperative following a pelvic exenteration and
the physician changes the client’s diet from NPO status to clear liquids. The nurse makes which
priority assessment before administering the diet?
A. Bowel sounds
B. Ability to ambulate
C. Incision appearance
D. Urine specific gravity
20) For a female client with newly diagnosed cancer, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of
Anxiety related to the threat of death secondary to cancer diagnosis. Which expected outcome
would be appropriate for this client?
A. “Client verbalizes feelings of anxiety.”
B. “Client doesn’t guess at prognosis.”
C. “Client uses any effective method to reduce tension.”
D. “Client stops seeking information.”
21) The home health care nurse is caring for a male client with cancer and the client is
complaining of acute pain. The appropriate nursing assessment of the client’s pain would
include which of the following?
A. The client’s pain rating
B. Nonverbal cues from the client
C. The nurse’s impression of the client’s pain
D. Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention
22) A female client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia. The
nurse identifies which intervention as the highest priority in the nursing plan of care?
A. Monitoring temperature
B. Ambulation three times daily
C. Monitoring the platelet count
D. Monitoring for pathological fractures
23) A male client is in isolation after receiving an internal radioactive implant to treat cancer.
Two hours later, the nurse discovers the implant in the bed linens. What should the nurse do
first?
A. Stand as far away from the implant as possible and call for help.
B. Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead-lined container.
C. Leave the room and notify the radiation therapy department immediately.
D. Put the implant back in place, using forceps and a shield for self-protection, and call for
help.
24) A 35 years old client with ovarian cancer is prescribed hydroxyurea (Hydrea), an
antimetabolite drug. Antimetabolites are a diverse group of antineoplastic agents that interfere
with various metabolic actions of the cell. The mechanism of action of antimetabolites
interferes with:
A. cell division or mitosis during the M phase of the cell cycle.
B. normal cellular processes during the S phase of the cell cycle.
C. the chemical structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and chemical binding between
DNA molecules (cell cycle–nonspecific)
D. one or more stages of ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis, DNA synthesis, or both (cell
cycle–nonspecific).
25) For a female client newly diagnosed with radiation-induced thrombocytopenia, the nurse
should include which intervention in the plan of care?
A. Administering aspirin if the temperature exceeds 102° F (38.8° C)
B. Inspecting the skin for petechiae once every shift
C. Providing for frequent rest periods
D. Placing the client in strict isolation
26) Nurse Meredith is instructing a premenopausal woman about breast self-examination. The
nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination:
A. at the end of her menstrual cycle.
B. on the same day each month.
C. on the 1st day of the menstrual cycle.
D. immediately after her menstrual period.
27) he nurse is admitting a male client with laryngeal cancer to the nursing unit. The nurse
assesses for which most common risk factor for this type of cancer?
A. Alcohol abuse
B. Cigarette smoking
C. Use of chewing tobacco
D. Exposure to air pollutants
28) A male client complains of sporadic epigastric pain, yellow skin, nausea, vomiting, weight
loss, and fatigue. Suspecting gallbladder disease, the physician orders a diagnostic workup,
which reveals gallbladder cancer. Which nursing diagnosis may be appropriate for this client?
A. Anticipatory grieving
B. Impaired swallowing
C. Disturbed body image
D. Chronic low self-esteem
29) Nurse Brian is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting
adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow
suppression become noticeable?
A. 24 hours
 B. 2 to 4 days
C. 7 to 14 days
D. 21 to 28 days
30) The nurse is interviewing a male client about his past medical history. Which preexisting
condition may lead the nurse to suspect that a client has colorectal cancer?
A. Duodenal ulcers
B. Hemorrhoids
C. Weight gain
D. Polyps
31) The ABCD method offers one way to assess skin lesions for possible skin cancer. What does
the A stand for?
A. Actinic
B. Asymmetry
C. Arcus
D. Assessment
32) A client, age 41, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical
cancer. The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history
finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
A. Onset of sporadic sexual activity at age 17
B. Spontaneous abortion at age 19
C. Pregnancy complicated with eclampsia at age 27
D. Human papillomavirus infection at age 32
33) A female client is undergoing tests for multiple myeloma. Diagnostic study findings in
multiple myeloma include:
A. a decreased serum creatinine level
B. hypocalcemia
C. Bence Jones protein in the urine.
D. a low serum protein level.
34) Nurse Bea is reviewing the laboratory results of a client diagnosed with multiple myeloma.
Which of the following would the nurse expect to note specifically in this disorder?
A. Increased calcium
B. Increased white blood cells
C. Decreased blood urea nitrogen level
D. Decreased number of plasma cells in the bone marrow
35) Jeovina, with advanced breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). When teaching
the client about this drug, the nurse should emphasize the importance of reporting which
adverse reaction immediately?
A. Vision changes
B. Hearing loss
C. Headache
D. Anorexia
36) A 34-year-old female client is requesting information about mammograms and breast
cancer. She isn’t considered at high risk for breast cancer. What should the nurse tell this client?
A. She should have had a baseline mammogram before age 30.
B. She should eat a low-fat diet to further decrease her risk of breast cancer.
C. She should perform breast self-examination during the first 5 days of each menstrual
cycle.
D. When she begins having yearly mammograms, breast self-examinations will no longer be
necessary.
37) During chemotherapy, an oncology client has a nursing diagnosis of impaired oral mucous
membrane related to decreased nutrition and immunosuppression secondary to the cytotoxic
effects of chemotherapy. Which nursing intervention is most likely to decrease the pain of
stomatitis?
A. Recommending that the client discontinue chemotherapy
B. Providing a solution of hydrogen peroxide and water for use as a mouth rinse
C. Monitoring the client’s platelet and leukocyte counts
D. Checking regularly for signs and symptoms of stomatitis
38) When caring for a male client diagnosed with a brain tumor of the parietal lobe, the nurse
expects to assess:
A. short-term memory impairment.
B. tactile agnosia.
C. seizures
D. contralateral homonymous hemianopia.
39) Vanessa, a community health nurse conducts a health promotion program regarding
testicular cancer to community members. The nurse determines that further information needs
to be provided if a community member states that which of the following is a sign of testicular
cancer?
A. Alopecia
B. Back pain
C. Painless testicular swelling
D. Heavy sensation in the scrotum
40) During the admission assessment of a 35 year old client with advanced ovarian cancer, the
nurse recognizes which symptom as typical of the disease?
A. Diarrhea
B. Hypermenorrhea
C. Abdominal bleeding
D. Abdominal distention
41) Nurse April is teaching a group of women to perform breast self-examination. The nurse
should explain that the purpose of performing the examination is to discover:
A. cancerous lumps.
B. areas of thickness or fullness.
C. changes from previous self-examinations.
D. fibrocystic masses.
42) A male client is receiving the cell cycle–nonspecific alkylating agent thiotepa (Thioplex), 60
mg weekly for 4 weeks by bladder instillation as part of a chemotherapeutic regimen to treat
bladder cancer. The client asks the nurse how the drug works. How does thiotepa exert its
therapeutic effects?
 A. It interferes with deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) replication only.
B. It interferes with ribonucleic acid (RNA) transcription only.
C. It interferes with DNA replication and RNA transcription.
D. It destroys the cell membrane, causing lysis.
43) A female client is hospitalized for insertion of an internal cervical radiation implant. While
giving care, the nurse finds the radiation implant in the bed. The initial action by the nurse is to:
A. Call the physician
B. Reinsert the implant into the vagina immediately
C. Pick up the implant with gloved hands and flush it down the toilet
D. Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and place it in a lead container.
44) A male client is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of Hodgkin’s disease.
Which assessment findings would the nurse expect to note specifically in the client?
A. Fatigue
B. Weakness
C. Weight gain
D. Enlarged lymph nodes
45) A female client diagnosed with multiple myeloma and the client asks the nurse about the
diagnosis. The nurse bases the response on which description of this disorder?
A. Altered red blood cell production
B. Altered production of lymph nodes
C. Malignant exacerbation in the number of leukocytes
D. Malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the bone
46) A male client is diagnosed as having a bowel tumor and several diagnostic tests are
prescribed. The nurse understands that which test will confirm the diagnosis of malignancy?
A. Biopsy of the tumor
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Magnetic resonance imaging
D. Computerized tomography scan
47) The male client is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of the larynx. The most
likely side effect to be expected is:
A. Dyspnea
B. Diarrhea
C. Sore throat
D. Constipation
48) Mr. Miller has been diagnosed with bone cancer. You know this type of cancer is classified
as:
A. sarcoma
B. lymphoma
C. carcinoma
D. melanoma
49) Nina, an oncology nurse educator is speaking to a women’s group about breast cancer.
Questions and comments from the audience reveal a misunderstanding of some aspects of the
disease. Various members of the audience have made all of the following statements. Which
one is accurate?
A. Mammography is the most reliable method for detecting breast cancer.
B. Breast cancer is the leading killer of women of childbearing age.
C. Breast cancer requires a mastectomy.
D. Men can develop breast cancer.
50) Gian, a community health nurse is instructing a group of female clients about breast self-
examination. The nurse instructs the client to perform the examination:
A. At the onset of menstruation
B. Every month during ovulation
C. Weekly at the same time of day
D. 1 week after menstruation begins
51) The nurse is preparing for a female client for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to confirm
or rule out a spinal cord lesion. During the MRI scan, which of the following would pose a threat
to the client?
A. The client lies still.
 B. The client asks questions.
C. The client hears thumping sounds.
D. The client wears a watch and wedding band.
52) A female client is receiving methotrexate (Mexate), 12 g/m2 I.V., to treat osteogenic
carcinoma. During methotrexate therapy, the nurse expects the client to receive which other
drug to protect normal cells?
A. probenecid (Benemid)
B. cytarabine (ara-C, cytosine arabinoside [Cytosar-U]
C. thioguanine (6-thioguanine, 6-TG)
D. leucovorin (citrovorum factor or folinic acid [Wellcovorin])
53) The female client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the
nurse that it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client
may be experiencing:
A. Rupture of the bladder
B. The development of a vesicovaginal fistula
C. Extreme stress caused by the diagnosis of cancer
D. Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of radiation therapy
54) A female client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of the
following is one of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells?
A. Liver
B. Colon
C. Reproductive tract
D. White blood cells (WBCs)
55) Nurse Cecilia is caring for a client who has undergone a vaginal hysterectomy. The nurse
avoids which of the following in the care of this client?
A. Elevating the knee gatch on the bed
B. Assisting with range-of-motion leg exercises
C. Removal of antiembolism stockings twice daily
D. Checking placement of pneumatic compression boots
56) Which intervention is appropriate for the nurse caring for a male client in severe pain
receiving a continuous I.V. infusion of morphine?
A. Assisting with a naloxone challenge test before therapy begins
B. Discontinuing the drug immediately if signs of dependence appear
C. Changing the administration route to P.O. if the client can tolerate fluids
D. Obtaining baseline vital signs before administering the first dose
57) Sarah, a hospice nurse visits a client dying of ovarian cancer. During the visit, the client
expresses that “If I can just live long enough to attend my daughter’s graduation, I’ll be ready to
die.” Which phrase of coping is this client experiencing?
A. Anger
B. Denial
C. Bargaining
D. Depression
58) The client with leukemia is receiving busulfan (Myleran) and allopurinol (Zyloprim). The
nurse tells the client that the purpose if the allopurinol is to prevent:
A. Nausea
B. Alopecia
C. Vomiting
D. Hyperuricemia
59) The nurse is caring for a female client experiencing neutropenia as a result of chemotherapy
and develops a plan of care for the client. The nurse plans to:
A. Restrict all visitors
B. Restrict fluid intake
C. Teach the client and family about the need for hand hygiene
D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to prevent skin breakdown
60) Nurse Joy is caring for a client with an internal radiation implant. When caring for the client,
the nurse should observe which of the following principles?
A. Limit the time with the client to 1 hour per shift
B. Do not allow pregnant women into the client’s room
 C. Remove the dosimeter badge when entering the client’s room
D. Individuals younger than 16 years old may be allowed to go in the room as long as they
are 6 feet away from the client
Breast cancer
1.Can a mammography detect breast cancer before you can even see it.
A. Yes
B. No
C. Sometimes
D. What is a mammography?
2) Jeovina, with advanced breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). When teaching the
client about this drug, the nurse should emphasize the importance of reporting which adverse
reaction immediately?
A. Vision changes
B. Hearing loss
C. Headache
D. Anorexia
3) Noninvasive Breast Cancer is when..
A. the cancer cells have spread to other parts of your body
B. the cancer cells have stayed from their origin and have not spread
4) Can family history of breast cancer increase the chances of the family members?
A. No
B. Yes
C. Only from the mother’s side
D. Only from the dad’s side
5) The nurse is teaching the client about breast self-examination. Which observation should the
client be taught to recognize when doing the examination for detection of breast cancer?
A. tender, movable lump
B. pain on breast self-examination
 C. round, well-defined lump
D. dimpling of the breast tissue
6) Which of the following terms is used to describe removal of the breast tissue and an axillary
lymph node dissection leaving muscular structure intact as surgical treatment of breast cancer?
A. Modified radical mastectomy
B. Segmental mastectomy
C. Total mastectomy
D. Radical mastectomy
7) Nurse Meredith is instructing a premenopausal woman about breast self-examination. The
nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination:
A. at the end of her menstrual cycle.
B. on the same day each month.
C. on the 1st day of the menstrual cycle.
D. immediately after her menstrual period.
8) Hormonal agents are used to treat some cancers. An example would be:
A. Thyroxine to treat thyroid cancer.
B. ACTH to treat adrenal carcinoma.
C. Estrogen antagonists to treat breast cancer.
D. Glucagon to treat pancreatic carcinoma.
9) What does regional refer to in relation to breast cancer?
A. Metastases
B. Lymph nodes
C. A tumor within the breast
D. A tumor is within both breasts
10) A client with breast cancer is returned to the room following a right total mastectomy. The
nurse should:
A. Elevate the client’s right arm on pillows
B. Place the client’s right arm in a dependent sling
 C. Keep the client’s right arm on the bed beside her
D. Place the client’s right arm across her body
11) The community health nurse implemented a new program about effective breast cancer
screening technique for the female personnel of the health department of Valenzuela. Which of
the following technique should the nurse consider to be of the lowest priority?
A. Yearly breast exam by a trained professional
B. Detailed health history to identify women at risk
C. Screening mammogram every year for women over age 50
D. Screening mammogram every 1-2 years for women over age of 40.
12) The nurse is speaking to a group of women about early detection of breast cancer. The
average age of the women in the group is 47. Following the American Cancer Society (ACS)
guidelines, the nurse should recommend that the women:
A. perform breast self-examination annually
B. have a mammogram annually
C. have a hormonal receptor assay annually
D. have a physician conduct a clinical evaluation every 2 years
13) What is the purpose of using hormonal therapy for patients with breast cancer cells?
A. To replace the hormones and add testosterone.
B. To produce more hormones by adding testosterone along with estrogen and
progesterone.
C. To block the supply of estrogen or pregesterone to the cells.
14) Breast Cancer is most likely to spread to your ____________area.
A. Face
B. Stomach
C. Underarm
D. Leg
15) Which of the following are used in diagnosing breast cancer?
A. Mammogram
B. Ultrasound
 C. MRI
D. Biopsy
E. All of the above
16) A female client is receiving chemotherapy to treat breast cancer. Which assessment finding
indicates a fluid and electrolyte imbalance induced by chemotherapy?
A. Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours
B. Serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg
D. Dry oral mucous membranes and cracked lips
17) Maria refuses to acknowledge that her breast was removed. She believes that her breast is
intact under the dressing. The nurse should
A. call the MD to change the dressing so Kathy can see the incision
B. recognize that Kathy is experiencing denial, a normal stage of the grieving process
C. reinforce Kathy’s belief for several days until her body can adjust to stress of surgery.
D. remind Kathy that she needs to accept her diagnosis so that she can begin rehabilitation
exercises.
18) Nina, an oncology nurse educator is speaking to a women’s group about breast cancer.
Questions and comments from the audience reveal a misunderstanding of some aspects of the
disease. Various members of the audience have made all of the following statements. Which
one is accurate?
A. Mammography is the most reliable method for detecting breast cancer.
B. Breast cancer is the leading killer of women of childbearing age.
C. Breast cancer requires a mastectomy.
D. Men can develop breast cancer.
19) The community health nurse implemented a new program about effective breast cancer
screening technique for the female personnel of the health department of Valenzuela. Which of
the following technique should the nurse consider to be of the lowest priority?
A. Yearly breast exam by a trained professional
B. Detailed health history to identify women at risk
C. Screening mammogram every year for women over age 50
 D. Screening mammogram every 1-2 years for women over age of 40
20) The 2000 NIH Consensus Development Conference Statement states that what percentage
of women with invasive breast cancer should consider the option of systemic chemotherapy,
not just women whose tumors are greater than 1cm in size?
A. 100% (all)
B. 75%
C. 50%
D. 25%
21) The statistics decrease for getting breast cancer as one gets older in age.
A. True
B. False
22) Can men get breast cancer?
A. Yes, always
B. No, never
C. Yes, but not likely
D. I don’t know
23) What does local breast cancer refer to?
A. Metastases
B. The chest wall
C. The breast
D. Lymph nodes
24) What is the percentage of breast tissue that can be removed and rearranged to have the
breast still looking like a breast?
A. 60%
B. 15%
C. 30%
D. 45%
25) Breast reconstruction is done after_____________surgery.
 A. Lumpectomy
B. Mastectomy
26) Breast Cancer is the most common reason for death in what ages?
A. 0-4
B. 85-99
C. 55-84
D. 15-54
27) Ductal lavage is used for
A. women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast disease.
B. women at low risk for breast cancer.
C. screening women over age 65.
D. women with breast implants.
28) Maria Sison, 40 years old, single, was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Breast
Cancer. She was scheduled for radical mastectomy. Nursing care during the preoperative period
should consist of
A. assuring Maria that she will be cured of cancer
B. assessing Maria’s expectations and doubts
C. maintaining a cheerful and optimistic environment
D. keeping Maria’s visitors to a minimum so she can have time for herself
29) What is a symptom of Breast Cancer?
A. Itchy throat
B. Lump in underarm or breast area.
C. Pain in the arm
30) A 37-year-old client with uterine cancer asks the nurse, “Which is the most common type of
cancer in women?” The nurse replies that it’s breast cancer. Which type of cancer causes the
most deaths in women?
A. Breast cancer
B. Lung cancer
 C. Brain cancer
D. Colon and rectal cancer
31) Is early detection of breast cancer your best chance of survival?
A. No
B. Yes
C. Sometimes
D. I Don’t Know
32) A 34-year-old female client is requesting information about mammograms and breast
cancer. She isn’t considered at high risk for breast cancer. What should the nurse tell this client?
A. She should have had a baseline mammogram before age 30.
B. She should eat a low-fat diet to further decrease her risk of breast cancer.
C. She should perform breast self-examination during the first 5 days of each menstrual
cycle.
D. When she begins having yearly mammograms, breast self-examinations will no longer be
necessary.
33) Nurse Amy is speaking to a group of women about early detection of breast cancer. The
average age of the women in the group is 47. Following the American Cancer Society guidelines,
the nurse should recommend that the women:
A. perform breast self-examination annually.
B. have a mammogram annually.
C. have a hormonal receptor assay annually.
D. have a physician conduct a clinical examination every 2 years.
34) The nurse recognizes which of the following statements as accurately reflecting a risk factor
for breast cancer?
A. Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age
B. Onset of menses before 14 years of age
C. Multiparity
D. No alcohol consumption
35) Only women can get Breast Cancer.
 A. True
B. False
36) What is Breast Cancer?
A. A tumor that developes in the breast area
B. A very common disease among women
C. A deadly disease
D. All of the above
37) A male client with a nagging cough makes an appointment to see the physician after reading
that this symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer. What is another warning sign of
cancer?
A. Persistent nausea
B. Rash
C. Indigestion
D. Chronic ache or pain
38)A client receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer has an order for Zofran (ondansetron)
8mg PO to be given 30 minutes before induction of the chemotherapy. The purpose of the
medication is to:
A. Prevent anemia
B. Promote relaxation
C. Prevent nausea
D. Increase neutrophil counts
39) During a breast examination, which finding most strongly suggests that the Luz has breast
cancer?
A. Slight asymmetry of the breasts.
B. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying skin
C. Bloody discharge from the nipple
D. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrual cycle
40) 1 in ____ women get Breast Cancer.
A. 7
 B. 2
C. 8
D. 4
41) Nurse Lucia is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American
Cancer Society recommends that women get mammograms:
A. yearly after age 40.
B. after the birth of the first child and every 2 years thereafter.
C. after the first menstrual period and annually thereafter.
D. every 3 years between ages 20 and 40 and annually thereafter.
42) A female client was diagnosed with breast cancer. It is found to be stage IV, and a modified
mastectomy is performed. After the procedure, what behaviors could the nurse expects the
client to display?
A. Denial of the possibility of carcinoma.
B. Signs of grief reaction.
C. Relief that the operation is over.
D. . Signs of deep depression.
43) A 52 yr-old female tells the nurse that she has found a painless lump in her right breast
during her monthly self-examination. Which assessment finding would strongly suggest that this
client’s lump is cancerous?
A. eversion of the right nipple and a mobile mass
B. nonmobile mass with irregular edges
C. mobile mass that is oft and easily delineated
D. nonpalpable right axillary lymph nodes
44) Nurse April is teaching a group of women to perform breast self-examination. The nurse
should explain that the purpose of performing the examination is to discover:
A. cancerous lumps.
B. areas of thickness or fullness.
C. changes from previous self-examinations.
D. fibrocystic masses.
45) Nurse April is teaching a client who suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The nurse
instructs the client that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by:
A. breast self-examination.
B. mammography.
C. fine needle aspiration.
D. chest X-ray.
Gastric cancer
1. A male patient, diagnosed with a Peptic ulcer, presents with a high concentration of
Helicobacter pylori bacteria as revealed by laboratory tests. Can you identify the most accurate
interpretation of this information?
A. The patient’s management plan will likely incorporate both ranitidine and antibiotic therapy.
B. This finding points to the organism inducing gastric carcinoma.
C. The ulcer will likely heal on its own without any medical intervention.
D. An operation is necessitated by these findings.
2. The diagnosis of stomach cancer may not be accompanied by noticeable symptoms for an
extended period.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
3. In reference to gastric cancer, can you determine which statement holds true?
A. The majority of gastric cancer fatalities are reported in individuals under the age of 40.
B. The rate of stomach cancer cases has been consistently falling in the United States.
C. Women are more frequently diagnosed with stomach cancers than men.
D. A diet abundant in smoked foods and lacking in fruits and vegetables could potentially reduce
the risk of stomach cancer.
4. Is it possible to prevent the onset of stomach cancer?
A. Affirmative
B. Negative
5. What signs might a person initially exhibit if they are developing stomach cancer?
A. Digestive issues such as indigestion, discomfort in the stomach, or heartburn.
B. Persistent feelings of fatigue.
C. Feelings of nausea or a decreased desire to eat.
D. All of the choices.
6. What other symptoms might be indicative of stomach cancer?
A. Feeling persistently bloated after meals.
B. Vomiting or finding blood in the stools.
C. Unaccounted for stomach pain.
D. All of the symptoms provided.
7. Which type of cancer is believed to have a connection with the bacterium Helicobacter
pylori?
A. Cancer of the stomach.
B. Prostate cancer.
C. Cancer of the vagina.
D. Kidney cancer.
8. Which of the following could potentially increase the likelihood of developing stomach
cancer?
A. Habitual cigarette smoking.
B. Progressing age.
C. Overconsumption of salted or pickled foods.
D. All of the choices.
9. A patient suffering from persistent indigestion is hospitalized and later diagnosed with
stomach cancer. Which item from the following list is associated with a heightened risk of
developing this type of cancer?
A. Consuming high amounts of fruit on a daily basis.
B. Processed sugars.
C. Processed meats, such as those often used in sandwiches.
D. Fizzy drinks.
10. Which symptom might suggest that an enlarging cancer is causing stomach drainage?
A. Intense feelings of nausea followed by vomiting.
B. Change in bowel habits, such as constipation or diarrhea.
C. Pain in the abdomen.
D. Unexplained weight loss.