1721903259phpsmmiWg
1721903259phpsmmiWg
1721903259phpsmmiWg
PART – A (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1. A fair die is thrown until 2 appears. Then the probability, that 2 appears in even number of throws,
is
6 1
(1) (2)
11 6
5 5
(3) (4)
11 6
Ans. (3)
5 1 5 5 5 1
Sol. Required Probability = .........
6 6 6 6 6 6
2 4
5 5 5 5 1 5
= 1 ......... =
36 6 6 36 25 11
1
36
*2. If in a G.P. of 64 terms, the sum of all the terms is 7 times the sum of the odd terms of the G.P.
then the common ratio of the G.P. is equal to
(1) 4 (2) 7
(3) 6 (4) 5
Ans. (3)
Sol. Let the G.P. is a, ar, ar2, ………
a r 64 1 a r 64 1
7
r 1 r2 1
r+1=7 r=6
2 2x, 1 x 0
x, 3 x 0
3. If f x x ; g x , then range of (fog)(x) is
1 , 0 x 3 x, 0 x 1
3
(1) [0, 3) (2) [0, 1]
(3) [0, 1) (4) (0, 1]
Ans. (2)
2 2x, 1 x 0
x, 3 x 0
Sol.
f x x and g x
1 3 , 0 x 3 x, 0 x 1
x
1 3 , 3 x 0
f g x
1 x , 0 x 1
3
Range of f(g(x)) is [0, 1].
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*4. In an A.P., the sixth term a6 = 2. If the product a1a4a5 is the greatest, then the common difference
of the A.P. is equal to
2 8
(1) (2)
3 5
5 3
(3) (4)
8 2
Ans. (2)*
Sol. Let the A.P. is a, a + d, a + 2d, ……..
a + 5d = 2
a1.a4.a5 = a(a + 3d) (a + 4d)
a1.a4.a5 = (2 5d) (2 2d) (2 d) = f(d)
3 2
f(d) = 10d + 34d 32d + 8
2
f'(d) = 30d + 68d 32
2 8
f'(d) = 0 d = and
3 5
8 2
f"(d) < 0 for d = and f"(d) > 0 for d =
5 3
8
* Note : f(d) attains local maximum at d = and not the absolute maximum value.
5
1
5. Consider the function f : ,1 R defined by f(x) = 4 2x3 3 2x 1 . Consider the statements
2
:
(I) The curve y = f(x) intersects the x-axis is exactly at one point.
(II) The curve y = f(x) intersects the x-axis at x = cos
12
Then
(1) Both (I) and (II) are correct (2) Both (I) and (II) are incorrect
(3) Only (I) is correct (4) Only (II) is correct
Ans. (1)
1
Sol. f : ,1 R , f x 4 2x 3 3 2x 1
2
1
f x 3 2 2x 1 2x 1 0 x ,1
2
1
f(x) is strictly increasing in ,1
2
1
f 0 , f(1) > 0
2
1
f(x) = 0 has exactly one solution in ,1
2
3 1
Also f(x) = 0 4x 3x =
2
1
Now put x = cos cos3 =
2
x = cos .
12
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1 2 2
A A A T A A T is equal to
T
6. Let A be a square matrix such that AA = I. Then
2
(1) A2 + I (2) A2 + AT
(3) A3 + I (4) A3 + AT
Ans. (4)
Sol. A.AT = I (A + AT)2 = A2 + (AT)2 + 2I
(A AT)2 = A2 + (AT)2 2I
1 2 2
A A A T A A T = A + A
3 T
2
Ans. (3)
Sol. (a, b) I I, ab ba = 0 (a, b) R(a, b) R is reflexive
(a, b) R(c, d) ad bc is divisible by 5 cb da is divisible by 5
(c, d) R(a, b) R is symmetric
If (a, b) R(c, d) and (c, d) R (e, f) ad bc = 5 and cf de = 5
af be is not necessarily a multiple of 5 R is not transitive.
2x 2 x tan x tan1 x2 x 1
8. Suppose f x . Then the value of f'(0) is equal to
7x2 3x 13
(1) (2)
2
(3) 0 (4)
Ans. (4)
2x 2 x tan x tan1 x2 x 1
Sol. f x
7x2 3x 13
1
ln tan1 x 2 x 1 3ln 7x 2 3x 1
ln f x ln 2x 2 x ln tan x
2
f x 2 x 2 x ln 2 sec 2 x 2x 1 3 14x 3
2
f x x
2 2 x
tan x
2 tan1 x2 x 1 1 x 2 x 1
2
7x 3x 1
f'(0) =
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Ans. (3)
cosecx sin x
Sol. yx dx
cosecx sec x tan x sin 2 x
1 sin2 x cos x
yx dx
1 sin4 x
Put sinx = t cosx dx = dt
1
1 t2 dt 1 1
t t
tan c
1 t4 2 2
1 cos2 x
yx tan1 c
2 2 sin x
lim y x 0 c = 0
x
2
1 cos2 x 1 1
yx tan1 y tan1
2 2 sin x 4 2 2
10. A function y = f(x) satisfies f(x) sin2x + sinx (1 + cos2x) f'(x) = 0 with condition f(0) = 0. Then,
f is equal to
2
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 0 (4) 1
Ans. (1)
Sol. f(x) . sin2x + sinx (1 + cos2x) f'(x) = 0
(1 + cos2x) f'(x) (sin2x) f(x) = sinx
d
(f(x) (1 + cos2x)) = sinx
dx
f(x) (1 + cos2x) = cosx + c, As f(0) = 0 c = 1
1 cos x
f x 2
f 1
1 cos x 2
*11. In a ABC, suppose y = x is the equation of the bisector of the angle B and the equation of the
side AC is 2x y = 2. If 2AB = BC and the points A and B are respectively (4, 6) and (, ), then
+ 2 is equal to
(1) 42 (2) 45
(3) 39 (4) 48
Ans. (1)
Sol. Let BD is angle bisector of B A(4, 6)
D is (2, 2) 1
AD 1 D(2,2)
Also
CD 2 y=x 2
C is (2, 6) 2xy=2
Also (slope of AB) (slope of BC) = 1
6 6
1 B(,) 2 C(2,6)
4 2
Also = = = 14
+ 2 = 42
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*12. If , is the solution of 4cos + 5sin = 1, then the value of tan is
2 2
10 10 10 10
(1) (2)
6 12
10 10 10 10
(3) (4)
12 6
Ans. (2)
Sol. 4cos 5sin = 1 has a solution = , ,
2 2
4 + 5tan = sec
2 2
16 + 25tan + 40tan = sec
2
24tan + 40tan + 15 = 0
10 10 10 10
tan = ,
12 12
10 10
tan = is rejected.
12
3
1 2
13. lim 2 cos t
1/3 dt is equal to
x
2 x
x 3
2
3 3 2
(1) (2)
8 4
3 32
(3) (4)
4 8
Ans. (4)
/2 3
cos t1/3 dt
x3
Sol. Let lim 2
L
x
2 x
2
Applying L-Hospital's Rule
sin x 3x 2
cos x 3x 2 2
L lim lim
x
x
2 2 x 2 2 x
2 2
32
L=
8
a a
*14. Let 5, be the circumcenter of a triangle with vertices A(a, 2), B(a, 6) and C , 2 . Let
4 4
denote the circumradius, denote the area and denote the perimeter of the triangle. Then
+ + is
(1) 30 (2) 53
(3) 62 (4) 60
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-7
1 0 0
15. Let A = 0 and |2A|3 = 221 where , Z. Then a value of is
0
(1) 5 (2) 9
(3) 3 (4) 17
Ans. (1)
1 0 0
Sol. A = 0 |2A| = 23|A|
0
|2A|3 = 29.|A|3 = 221
|A| = 16 2 2 = 16
can be 5 for = 3.
16. Let PQR be a triangle with R (1, 4, 2). Suppose M (2, 1, 2) is the mid point of PQ. The distance
x2 y z3
of the centroid of PQR from the point of intersection of the lines and
0 2 1
x 1 y 3 z 1
is
1 3 1
(1) 99 (2) 9
(3) 69 (4) 69
Ans. (3)
Sol. G is centroid of PQR l1
2 2 1 2 1 4 2 2 2 P
G , ,
3 3 3
(2,1,2)
G (1, 2, 2)
Let x is the point of intersection of lines M 1
x2 y z3 G l2
l1 : 2
0 2 1
x 1 y 3 z 1 Q R
l2 : , then x (2, 6, 0) (1,4,2)
1 3 1
distance between G and x = 69
17. Let a,b and c be three non-zero vectors such that b and c are non-collinear. If a 5b is collinear
with c,b 6c is collinear with a and a b c 0 , then + is equal to
(1) 25 (2) 35
(3) 30 (4) 30
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Ans. (2)
Sol. 2 a 5b 1c …(1)
b 6c 2a …(2)
Add (1) and (2)
5 2 1 b 1 2 6 c
b and c are non-collinear
1
2 = and 1 = 30
5
a 5b 30c 0 = 5, = 30 + = 35
1
*18. If z = 2i is such that |z + 1| = z + (1 + i), i = 1 and , R, then + is equal to
2
(1) 1 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 3
Ans. (4)
1
Sol. z = 2i , |z + 1| = z + (1 + i) ; , R
2
(2) + = 0 …(i)
2
2
and z 1
2
2 2
3 2 5
2 1
2 2
= 1 and = 2 + = 3.
19. Let O be the origin and the position vectors of A and B be 2iˆ 2jˆ kˆ and 2iˆ 4ˆj 4kˆ
respectively. If the internal bisector of AOB meets the line AB at C, then the length of OC is
3 3
(1) 34 (2) 31
2 2
2 2
(3) 34 (4) 31
3 3
Ans. (3)
Sol. OC bisects AOB B(2,4,4)
C divides AB in the ratio of 1 : 2 2
C
2 2 2 4 2 2 4 2 1
C , , 6 1
3 3 3 A(2,2,1)
8
C 2, ,2 3
3
2 O
OC = 34
3
/2
x 2 cos x 1 sin2 x
20. If the value of the integral 1 x 1 esin x2023 dx 4 a 2 , then the value of a is
/2
3
(1) 2 (2)
2
3
(3) (4) 3
2
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-9
Ans. (4)
/2
x 2 cos x 1 sin2 x
Sol. Let I = 1 x 1 esin x2023 dx 4 a 2
/2
/2 /2
x 2 cos xdx 1 sin x dx
2
I=
0 0
2
3
I= 2 3 2 a 3
4 4 4
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
21. A line with direction ratio 2, 1, 2 meets the lines x = y + 2 = z and x + 2 = 2y = 2z respectively at
the points P and Q. If the length of the perpendicular from the point (1, 2, 12) to the line PQ is l,
then l2 is _____ .
Ans. 65
Sol. L1 : x = y + 2 = z
L2 : x + 2 = 2y = 2z
P (, 2, )
P
Q 2, ,
2 2 Q
+ 2 = 2k
(2,1,2)
2 = k = 6, = 4
2
L1
L2
= 2k
2
x6 y4 z6
Equation of PQ is
2 1 2
Now length of perpendicular from the point (1, 2, 12) to the line PQ = 52 22 62 65 = l
l2 = 65
22. The area (in sq. units) of the part of the circle x2 + y2 = 169 which is below the line 5x y = 13 is
65 1 12
sin , where , are coprime number. Then + is equal to ____ .
2 2 13
Ans. 171
Sol. Area of shaded region = Area of sector AOB
2 2
x +y =169 B(5,12)
area of AOB
13 2 13
2
= sin O
2 2 2 2
169 65 169 12 12 (0,0)
= sin1 sin
2 2 2 2 13 13
= 169, = 2 + = 171
A
5x y=13
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23. If the solution curve y = y(x) of the differential equation (1 + y2) (1 + logex) dx + x
3
tan
dy = 0, x > 0 passes through the point (1, 1) and y(e) = 2 , then + 2 is _____ .
3
tan
2
Ans. 3
2
Sol. (1 + y ) (1 + lnx) dx + x dy = 0
1 ln x dx dy
x 1 y2
1 ln x 2
tan1 y c
2
curve passes through (1, 1)
1
c=
2 4
2
1 1 ln x
tan1 y
4 2 2
1 tan 3 / 2
y e ==1
1 tan 3 / 2
+ 2 = 3.
*24. If the mean and variance of the data 65, 68, 58, 44, 48, 45, 60, , , 60 where > are 56 and
66.2 respectively, then 2 + 2 is equal to ______ .
Ans. 6344
Sol. Mean of 10 observations (65, 68, 58, 44, 48, 45, 60, , , 60) is 56
i.e. x 56
xi2
variance (2) = x2
n
a2 + b2 = 6344
11 11 11
C1 C2 C9 n
*25. If ...... with gcd(n, m) = 1, then n + m is equal to _____ .
2 3 10 m
Ans. 2041
11 11 11
C1 C2 C9 n
Sol. ..... , gcd(n, m) = 1
2 3 10 m
n n 1
Cr Cr 1
r 1 n 1
9 11C 1 9
212 26 2035 n
r 1r 12 12 Cr 1 12
6
m
r 1 r 1
n + m = 2041
x2 y 2
*26. If the points of intersection of two distinct conics x 2 + y2 = 4b and 1 lie on the curve
16 b2
2 2
y = 3x , then 3 3 times the area of the rectangle formed by the intersection points is _____ .
Ans. 432
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Sol. x2 + y2 = 4b …(1)
x2 y 2
1 …(2)
16 b2
and y2 = 3x2 …(3)
Solving equation (1), (2), (3)
for point of intersection, we get
2 2
x = b and b 16b + 48 = 0
b = 4 or 12
b = 4 is rejected as conics are distinct
x = 2 3 , y = 6 (vertices of rectangle)
Area(A) = 4 3 12
now 3 3 A 48 9 432
*27. Let , be the roots of the equation x 2 x + 2 = 0 with Im() > Im(). Then 6 + 4 + 4 52 is
equal to _______ .
Ans. 13
Sol. x2 x + 2 = 0, Im() > Im()
now, 2 + 2 = 0 2 = 2 and 2 = 2 …(1)
and + = 1, = 2 …(2)
6 + 4 + 4 52 = 3( + ) + 16 (using equation (1) and (2))
= 16 3 = 13
*28. Equations of two diameters of a circle are 2x 3y = 5 and 3x 4y = 7. The line joining the points
22 1
, 4 and ,3 intersects the circle at only one point P(, ). Then, 17 is equal
7 7
to _______ .
Ans. 2
Sol. Given L1 : 2x 3y = 5
L2 : 3x 4y = 7
c (1, 1) P(,) L1
Equation of line L passing through
22 1
, 4 and ,3 is 3y 7x = 10
7 7
L
Now point P(, ) is the point of contact C
3 7 = 10 …(1) (1,1)
L2
1 3
and 7 + 3 = 4 …(2)
1 7
Equation (1) + 2 Equation (2)
17 = 2 4 + 10
17 = 2
*29. All the letters of the word "GTWENTY" are written in all possible ways with or without meaning
and these words are written as in a dictionary. The serial number of the word "GTWENTY"
is______ .
Ans. 553
Sol. Rank of GTWENTY
6! 5!
= 1 1 4! 1 1 1 1 553
2! 2!
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-12
30. Let f(x) = 2x x2, x R. If m and n are respectively the number the number of points at which the
curves y = f(x) and y = f'(x) intersect the x-axis, then the value of m + n is ______ .
Ans. 5
x 2
Sol. f(x) = 2 x , x R
y = f(x) cuts x-axis at 3 points m = 3
x
and y = f'(x) = 2 ln2 2x cuts x-axis at 2 points
n=2 m+n=5
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-13
PART – B (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
31. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron is the same as that of a photon. If velocity of electron is
25% of the velocity of light, then the ratio of K.E. of electron and K.E. of photon will be:
1 1
(1) (2)
4 1
8 1
(3) (4)
1 8
Ans. (4)
*32. If the radius of curvature of the path of two particles of same mass are in the ratio 3 : 4, then in
order to have constant centripetal force, their velocities will be in the ratio of:
(1) 1: 3 (2) 3 : 1
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3
Ans. (3)
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-14
Pressure (Dyne/cm2)
figure. It’s volume is then reduced to the original value from B
to C by an isobaric process. The total work done by the gas 4000 B
from A to B and B to C would be: C
(1) 2200 J (2) 1200 J
(3) 33800 J (4) 600 J
3 7
3
Volume (m )
Sol. Work done by the gas from A to B and B to C = Area of triangle ABC
1
W (800 400) (7 3) 800 J
2
*34. A body starts moving from rest with constant acceleration covers displacement S1 in first (p – 1)
seconds and S2 in first p seconds. The displacement S1 + S2 will be made in time.
(1) 2p 2
2p 1 s (2) 2p2 2p 1 s
(3) 2p 1 s (4) 2p 1 s
Ans. (1)
1
Sol. S1 a(p 1)2 …(i)
2
1
S2 ap2 …(ii)
2
1 2
and S1 + S2 = at …(iii)
2
Putting S1 and S2 in equation (iii), we get
t 2p2 2p 1
Ans. (3)
2T cos
Sol. h
gr
and surface tension decreases with the increase of temperature
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-15
Ans. (3)
Sol. Maxwell’s equations of electromagnetism
37. The explosive in a Hydrogen bomb is a mixture of 1H2 , 1H3 and 3Li6 in some condensed form. The
chain reaction is given by:
6 1 4 3
3 Li 0 n 2He 1H
*38. Two vessels A and B are of the same size and are at same temperature. A contains 1g of
hydrogen and B contains 1g of oxygen. PA and PB are the pressures of the gases in A and B
P
respectively, then A is:
PB
(1) 8 (2) 16
(3) 32 (4) 4
Ans. (2)
Sol. Given that
VA = VB and TA = TB
PV = nRT
P
cons tant
n
PA nA 1/ 2
16
PB nB 1/ 32
39. A galvanometer having coil resistance 10 shows a full scale deflection for a current of 3mA. For
it to measure a current of 8A, the value of the shunt should be:
(1) 4.85 103 (2) 3 103
3
(3) 3.75 10 (4) 2.75 10 3
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-16
Ans. (3)
Sol. Given that i ig
G = 10 G
ig = 3mA
i = 8A
igG = (i ig)S
S = 3.75 103 i ig
S
40. A convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm forms an image that is half the size of the object.
The object distance is:
(1) –15 cm (2) – 45 cm
(3) 45 cm (4) 15 cm
Ans. (1)
Sol. Given that
R
f = + 15 cm
2
v
m = + 1/2
u
u
v
2
using mirror formula
1 1 1
f v u
1 1 1
15 u u / 2
u = 15 cm
41. A biconvex lens of refractive index 1.5 has a focal length of 20 cm in air. Its focal length when
immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.6 will be:
(1) – 16 cm (2) + 16 cm
(3) + 160 cm (4) – 160 cm
Ans. (4)
1 1 1 1
Sol. (1.5 1)
fa R
1 R 2 20
1 1 1
R1 R2 10
1 L 1 1
1
fm m R1 R2
1 1.5 1.6 1
fm 1.6 10
fm 160 cm
42. The electric current through a wire varies with time as I I0 t, where I0 20A and 3A / s.
The amount of electric charge crossed through a section of the wire in 20 s is:
(1) 1600 C (2) 800 C
(3) 80 C (4) 1000 C
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-17
Ans. (4)
dQ
Sol. I
dt
Given that
I = I0 + t = (20 + 3t)
Q 20
dQ
0
(20 3t)dt
0
20
20 3t 2
Q 20t 0
2 0
3 20 20
Q (20 20)
2
Q = 1000 C
43. The deflection in moving coil galvanometer falls from 25 divisions to 5 division when a shunt of
24 is applied. The resistance of galvanometer coil will be:
(1) 100 (2) 48
(3) 12 (4) 96
Ans. (4)
Ig 5 1 1 I Ig
Sol. Ig I G
I 25 5 5
In case of shunted galvanometer (S = 24 )
(I Ig)S = Ig G
1 1
I 5 I 24 5 I G I Ig
S
5 1 1
5 24 5 G
G = 96
*44. A block of mass 100 kg slides over a distance of 10 m on a horizontal surface. If the co-efficient
of friction between the surfaces is 0.4, then the work done against friction (in J) is:
(1) 4000 (2) 3900
(3) 4200 (4) 4500
Ans. (1)
Sol. F = N N
N = mg
W=Fx
= 0.4 100 10 10
W = 4000 J
Mg
45. Two charges of 5Q and –2Q are situated at the points (3a, 0) and (–5a, 0) respectively. The
electric flux through a sphere of radius ‘4a’ having center at origin is:
3Q 5Q
(1) (2)
0 0
7Q 2Q
(3) (4)
0 0
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-18
Ans. (2)
qenclosed
Sol.
0
2Q 5Q
5Q
(5a, 0) (3a,0) (4a,0)
0
47. In the given circuit, the breakdown voltage of the Zener 1k
A C
diode is 3.0 V. What is the value of Iz ?
Iz
(1) 7 mA (2) 5.5 mA 2k
V 10V
(3) 10 mA (4) 3.3 mA
B D
Ans. (2)
10 3
Sol. Ibattery 7 mA
1000
3
I2k 1.5mA
2000
Iz (7 1.5) mA
Iz = 5.5 mA
*48. At what distance above and below the surface of the earth a body will have same weight. (take
radius of earth as R.)
R
(1) (2) 5 R R
2
3R R 5R R
(3) (4)
2 2
Ans. (4)
Sol. Given, d = h
g d
2
g 1
h R
1 R
g h
2
g 1
h R
1 R
h2 Rh R2 0
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-19
5R R
h
2
V
49. The resistance R where V (200 5) V and I (20 0.2) A, the percentage error in the
I
measurement of R is:
(1) 3.5 % (2) 5.5%
(3) 7% (4) 3%
Ans. (1)
Sol. R = V/I
R V I
100 100 100
R V I
5 0.2
100 100
= 200 20
3.5%
*50. The potential energy function (in J) of a particle in a region of space is given as
U (2x 2 3y 3 2z) . Here x, y and z are in meter. The magnitude of x-component of force (in N)
acting on the particle at point P(1, 2, 3) m is:
(1) 6 (2) 2
(3) 8 (4) 4
Ans. (4)
Sol. U (2x 2 3y 3 2z)
U
Fx = 4x
x
at x = 1
|Fx| = 4 N
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
*51. When the displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator is one third of its amplitude, the ratio of
x
total energy to the kinetic energy is , where x = __________ .
8
Ans. 9
1
Sol. x A
3
1
m2 A 2
T.E. 2 A2 A2 9
2 2
2
K.E. 1 8
m2 (A 2 x 2 ) A x A2
A
2 9
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52. A square loop of side 10 cm and resistance 0.7 is placed vertically in east-west plane. A
uniform magnetic field of 0.20 T is set up across the plane in north east direction. The magnetic
field is decreased to zero in 1 s at a steady rate. Then, magnitude of induced emf is x 103 V.
The value of x is __________ .
Ans. 2
Sol. 1 BA cos
2
10 3
0.20 cos 45 2 10 Wb
100
2 = 0
e 2 103 V , x = 2
t
*53. In a test experiment on a model aeroplane in wind tunnel, the flow speeds on the upper and lower
surfaces of the wings are 70 ms–1 and 65 ms–1 respectively. If the wing area is 2 m2, the lift of the
wing is _______ N.
(Given density of air = 1.2 kg m –3)
Ans. 810
54. A 16 wire is bend to form a square loop. A 9V battery with internal resistance 1 is connected
across one of its sides. If a 4F capacitor is connected across one of its diagonals, the energy
x
stored by the capacitor will be J, where x = _________ .
2
Ans. 81
V 9 9 9V
Sol. i A 1
Req 12 4 4
1
12 4
4i2 = 12i1 …(i) i I2 4
A
9 i1
and i1 + i2 = …(ii) 4F
4
Solving (i) and (ii) 4 4
9 4
i1 A
16 B
9
VA VB i1 8 V
2
1
U CV 2
2
2
1 9 81
U 4 J
2 2 2
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-21
55. The magnetic potential due to a magnetic dipole at a point on its axis situated at a distance of
–5 2
20 cm from its center is 1.5 × 10 T m. The magnetic moment of the dipole is ______ Am
(Given: 0 107 T m A 1 )
4
Ans. 6
Mcos
Sol. V 0
4 r 2
10 7 M cos0
1.5 10 5
(0.2)2
2
M = 6 Am
*56. A ball rolls off the top of a stairway with horizontal velocity u. The steps are 0.1 m high and 0.1 m
wide. The minimum velocity u with which that ball just hits the step 5 of the stairway will be
x ms1 where x = ________ [use g = 10 m/s2]
Ans. 2
Sol. For minimum velocity ball needs to just cross 4th step u
to just hit 5th step 0
In vertical 1
1 2
0.4 gt …(i) 2
2
In horizontal 3
0.4 = ut …(ii) 4
Solving (i) and (ii)
u 2 m/s 5
57. An electron is moving under the influence of the electric field of a uniformly charged infinite plane
sheet S having surface charge density . The electron at t = 0 is at a distance of 1 m from S
and has a speed of 1 m/s. The maximum value of if the electron strikes S at t = 1 s is
m 0 C
2 , the value of is ________ .
e m
Ans. 8
e
Sol. E , a
20 2m 0
given u = 1 m/s and t = 1 sec
using
1
S ut at 2
2
1 e 2
1 1(1) 1
2 2m0
m 0 2
8 C/m
e
*58. A cylinder is rolling down on an inclined plane of inclination 60°. It’s acceleration during rolling
x 2
down will be m/s2 , where x = _________ (use g = 10 m/s )
3
Ans. 10
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-22
g sin
Sol. a
I
1 cm 2 a
mR
= 60
2 10
a gsin60 m/s2
3 3
Ans. 17
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-23
PART – C (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
*61. Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: The first ionization enthalpy decreases across a period
Reason R : The increasing nuclear charge outweighs the shielding across the period.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below:
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Ans. (1)
Sol. Assertion (A) is false
The first ionization enthalpy increases across a period.
Reason is correct.
*62. The difference in energy between the actual structure and the lowest energy resonance structure
for the given compound is
(1) electromeric energy (2) ionization energy
(3) hyperconjugation energy (4) resonance energy
Ans. (4)
Sol. Resonance Energy: A compound with delocalized electron is more stable than if it would be if all
its electron were localized. The extra stability of compound gains from having delocalized
electrons is called Resonance Energy.
*63. The arenium ion which is not involved in the bromination of Aniline is _______.
NH2
NH 2
(1) H (2)
Br
H Br
NH 2
NH2 H
(3) (4) Br
Br
Ans. (3)
Sol. NH2 group being ortho and para directing. Bromination is not possible at meta position.
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64. In chromyl chloride test for confirmation of Cl– ion, a yellow solution is obtained. Acidification of
the solution and addition of amyl alcohol and 10% H2O2 turns organic layer blue indicating
formation of chromium pentoxide. The oxidation state of chromium in that is
(1) +5 (2) +3
(3) +10 (4) +6
Ans. (4)
1 O O 1
(+6)
Cr
Sol. O 1
1 O O
2
65. Match List I with List II
Ans. (2)
Sol. Ziegler catalyst - TiCl4 Al C2H5 3
Blood pigment – Haemoglobin contains Fe2
Ph3P PPh 3
Wilkinson’s catalyst Rh
Ph3P Cl
Vitamin B12 – contain Co2
Ans. (4)
Hydrolysis Hydrolysis
Sol. Proteins Peptides amino acids
*67. The interaction between bond and lone pair of electrons present on an adjacent atom is
responsible for
(1) Resonance effect (2) Electromeric effect
(3) Inductive effect (4) Hyperconjugation
Ans. (1)
Sol. Resonance – The delocalization of electrons is known as resonance. For a compound to show
resonance, compound with unsaturated system would be in conjugation with bond, –ve
charge, positive charge, lone pair or odd electron.
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-25
68. In which one of the following metal carbonyls, CO forms a bridge between metal atoms?
(1) Os3 CO 12 (2) Ru3 CO 12
(3) Co 2 CO 8 (4) Mn2 CO 10
Ans. (3)
O
C
OC CO
Sol. OC Co Co CO
OC CO
C
69. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: Aryl halides cannot be prepared by replacement of hydroxyl group of phenol by
halogen atom.
Reason R : Phenols react with halogen acids violently.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below:
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Ans. (3)
Sol. Aryl halides cannot be prepared by replacement of hydroxyl group of phenol by halogen atom.
*70. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is:
1 1
(1) 5, 1, 0, (2) 5, 1, 1,
2 2
1 1
(3) 5, 0, 1, (4) 5, 0, 0,
2 2
Ans. (4)
Sol. Rubidium Kr 5s1
[At. No. = 37]
1
n 5, 0, m 0, s
2
*72. Appearance of blood red colour, on treatment of the sodium fusion extract of an organic
compound with FeSO4 in presence of concentrated H2SO4 indicates the presence of element/s
(1) N and S (2) N
(3) S (4) Br
Ans. (1)
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-26
Sol. Lassaigne’s filtrate (sodium extract) consist of NaCN and NaOH and when organic compound
contains both ‘N’ and ‘S’. Sodium thiocyanate is formed, which gives red coloration (of ferric
sulphocyanide) with ferric ion.
3NaCNS FeCl3 Fe CNS 3 3NaCl
Blood red
Cl 2
CCl4
Pr oduct B
Cl Cl Cl
Cl
(1) A : B: (2) A : B:
Cl
Cl Cl Cl
Cl
Cl Cl
Cl
(3) A : (4) A : B:
B:
Cl Cl
Cl
Cl
Ans. (2)
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-27
h
Product A
Sol. Cl2
h
Product B
Cl
h
Cl2
free radical mechanism
Cl
Cl
CCl4 Cl
Cl Cl
Cl
Cl
Cl
CH=CH 2
Br OH
(1) (2)
CH2CH2Br CH 2CH2Br
Br OH
(3) (4)
Br CH CH3 Br CH CH3
Ans. (4)
OCH2CH3
conc. HBr excess
Sol.
Heat P
major product
CH=CH2
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-28
H
OCH2CH3
O CH2 CH3
HBr
CH=CH2
CH=CH2
Br
Major
OH
OH OH
Br HBr CH2 CH2 Br
HC CH3
HC CH3 CH=CH2
Br
lost
Sol.
0 1
c ClO aq dCl aq eH2O
a Cl2 g b OH aq
gain
Lost part
0
2Cl 2Cl 2e … (1)
Gain part
0
2e 2Cl 2Cl … (2)
Add Eqn. (1) and (2)
0
2Cl 2Cl 2Cl
4OH 2Cl2 2ClO 2Cl 2H2 O
2OH Cl2 ClO Cl H2 O
Hence, a = 1, b = 2, c = 1, d = 1, e = 1
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78. The final product A formed in the following multistep reaction sequence is
i H2 O, H
ii CrO3
iii H2NNH2 ,KOH A
Heating
N NH2
OH
(1) (2)
O
N
NH2
(3) (4)
Ans. (4)
CH CH3
H2O / H
H2 O
OH
O
CH CH3
Sol. CH2 CH3 C CH3
CrO3
NH2 NH2 /KOH,
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Ans. (2)
Sol. Order of E. N.
C > Pb > Ge > Si Sn
Ans. (2)
Sol. KMnO 4
513 K
K 2MnO 4 MnO2 O 2
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-30
SECTION - B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 Numerical based questions. The answer to each question is rounded off to the
nearest integer value.
*81. Number of compounds among the following which contains sulphur as heteroatom is________ .
Furan, Thiophene, Pyridine, Pyrrole, Cysteine, Tyrosine
Ans. 2
O
Thiophene , Cysteine HS OH
Sol.
S NH2
and furan, pyridine, pyrrole and tyrosine does not contain sulphur (heteroatom).
82. The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution is 7 105 Pa at 273 K. Osmotic pressure of the same
solution at 283 K is __________ 104 Nm 2
Ans. 73
Sol. Osmotic pressure 7 105 Pa, T 273 K
CRT CR constant
T
7 105 req
273 283
7 105
req 283 72.56
273
*83. The number of species from the following which are paramagnetic and with bond order equal to
one is __________ .
H2 , He2 , O2 , N22 , O22 , F2 ,Ne 2 , B2
Ans. 1
2
Sol. H2 1s2 , Bond order 1, M. B. Diamagnetic
2
1 1
He2 1s2 * 1s2 2s1, Bond order 3 2 2 0.5, M. B. P. M.
2
O 2 Bond order 2.5, M. B. P. M.
N22 Bond order 2.0, M. B. P. M.
1 4
Bond order
2
10 6 2
2
O 22 Bond order 1, M. B. Diamagnetic
F2 Bond order 1.0, M. B. Diamagnetic
Ne2 Bond order 0.5,M. B. Paramagnetic
1 2
B2 Bond order
2
6 4 2 1, M. B. P. M.
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-31
Hence, the number of species from the following which are paramagnetic and with bond order
equal to one = 1.
84. From the compounds given below, number of compounds which give positive Fehling’s test
is _____ .
Benzaldehyde, Acetaldehyde, Acetone, Acetophenone, Methanal, 4-nitrobenzaldehyde,
cyclohexane carbaldehyde.
Ans. 3
O O C H
H3C C H, H C H ,
*85. Number of compounds with one lone pair of electron on central atom amongst following
is ________ .
O3 , H2 O, SF4 , ClF3 , NH3 , BrF5 , XeF4
Ans. 4
Sol. O
O3
O O
F
F
SF4 S
F
F
O
H2 O
H H
F
ClF3 Cl F
F
N
NH3
H H
H
F F
BrF5 Br
F F
F
F F
XeF4 Xe
F F
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-32
Number of compound with one lone pair of electron on central atom = 4 (which are O3, NH3,
BrF5 and SF4)
*86. For the reaction N2 O4 g 2NO2g , K P 0.492atm at 300 K. KC for the reaction at same
temperature is _________ 10 2 .
(Given : R = 0.082 L atom mol–1 K–1)
Ans. 2
Sol.
N2 O 4 g
2NO 2 g , K P 0.492 atm, T 300 K
ng 2 1 1
ng 1
K P K c RT 0.492 K c 0.082 300
0.492 0.492
Kc 2 102
300 0.082 24.6
H3C H
*87. i O
ii Zn H2 O P
3
Pr oduct
H CH3
Consider the given reaction. The total number of oxygen atom/s present per molecule of the
product (P) __________ .
Ans. 1
O O
H3C H
Sol. 3
1 O
2 Zn/H2 O
H3C C H H3C C H
H CH3
*88. A solution of H2SO4 is 31.4 % H2SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.25 g/mL.
The molarity of the H2SO4 solution is __________ M (nearest integer)
[Given molar mass of H2SO4 = 98 g mol–1]
Ans. 4
Sol. 31.4% by mass of H2SO4, dsoln = 1.25 g/mL
MH SO ?
2 4
89. The mass of zinc produced by the electrolysis of zinc sulphate solution with a steady current of
0.015 A for 15 minutes is __________ 10 4 g.
(Atomic mass of zinc = 65.4 amu)
Ans. 46
Sol. Zn2 2e Zn
W Q
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JEE-MAIN-2024 (29th January-First Shift)-MPC-33
W zit
5.4 882.9
0.015 15 60 45.75 10 4 g
2 96500 193000
K 1K 2
*90. For a reaction taking place in three steps at same temperature, overall rate constant K . If
K3
Ea1. Ea2 and Ea3 are 40, 50 and 60 kJ/ mol respectively, the overall Ea is _____ kJ/mole
Ans. 30
Sol. Ea1 40, Ea2 50 and Ea3 60
k 1k 2
k eff
k3
E1 E2
E RT RT
A1 e A 2e
*A eff. e RT E3
A 3 e RT
On differentiating w. r. t. to temperature,
E Ea1 Ea2 Ea3
= 40 + 50 – 60 = 30
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