Anatomy

Contents
Chapter 1 HEAD & NECK 1-33

Chapter 2 NEURO 34-50
Chapter 3 THORAX 51-71
Chapter 4 UPPER LIMB 72-91
Chapter 5 LOWER LIMB 92-108
Chapter 6 ABDOMEN 109-139
Chapter 7 GENERAL EMBRYOLOGY 140-144
Chapter 8 HISTO 145-166
HEAD & NECK
Foramen of Skull
6 | ANATOMY WORKBOOK 2024
Foramen Structure
Cribriform plate
Optic Canal
Superior Orbital Fissure
F. Rotundum
F. Ovale M
F. Spinosum M
Internal Acoustic Meatus
Jugular F.
Hypoglossal Canal
F. Magnum
F. Lacerum Through F.
(contributed by
3 Bones)
Crossing Upper part

ANATOMY WORKBOOK 2024 | 7
Q. A patient recovering from a traumatic injury to the face now finds himself unable to
chew his food. On physical examination, his jaw deviates to the right side. The nerve
that has been injured in this patient exits the skull through which of the following
foramina?
A. Foramen rotundum B. Foramen ovale C. Foramen spinosum D. Jugular foramen
Q. A sharp instrument passing through the superior orbital fissure would most likely
sever which of the following structures?
(A) Abducens nerve
(B) Facial nerve
(C) Mandibular nerve
(D) Maxillary nerve
Cranial Nerves:
Brainstem Cranial nerve nuclei
Midbrain
Pons
Medulla
3rd Cranial Nerve:

Q. A 55-year-old, right-handed man comes to the emergency department because of recent
onset of severe, throbbing, right-sided orbitofrontal headache and diplopia. His other
medical problems include poorly controlled hypertension and chronic tobacco use.
Neurologic examination shows that he is awake, alert, and oriented and follows both
simple and complex commands. Testing of the cranial nerves reveals intact visual acuity
bilaterally. Visual fields and optic fundi are normal. Examination shows anisocoria,
with the right pupil being dilated and nonreactive to both light and accommodation. He
has evidence of both vertical and horizontal binocular diplopia. The right eye is down
and out with ipsilateral ptosis. The rest of the neurologic examination is within normal
limits. CT angiography of the head reveals a large aneurysm in the posterior fossa.
A normal CT angiogram of the head is show below. Which of the following identifiers
from the angiogram indicates the cerebral vessel most likely to have an aneurysm
causing this patient's neurologic deficits?
A. A B. B C. C D. D
4th & 6th Cranial Nerves

Q. Examine the following pic. Which of the following is damaged depending on these
findings?
A. Abducent nerve B. Facial nerve

C. Trochlear nerve D. Occulomotor nerve
Q. Examine the given pic and diagnose.

5th Nerve
Q. Which nerve lesion could produce the condition where stimulation of right cornea
results in blinking of the left eye but not the right eye?
a. Left trigeminal
b. Left facial
c. Right trigeminal
d. Right facial
Mandibular Nerve
7th Nerve

Q. Schirmer’s test evaluates the function of:

a. Greater petrosal nerve b. Lesser petrosal nerve
c. Chorda tympani nerve d. Auriculotemporal nerve
UMN LMN
9th Nerve
Q. When removing an impacted mandibular third molar, the oral surgeon must warn the
patient of possible lasting numbness of tip of the tongue. This loss of general sensation
is due to the damage to the
a. Auriculotemporal N. b. Chorda tympani N.
c. Lingual N. d. Mental N.
Q. Match Column A with B

Column A Column B
Parasympathetic ganglia preganglionic parasympathetic nerve
Pterygopalatine ganglion a. Lesser Petrosal nerve
Otic ganglion b. Greater Petrosal nerve
Submandibular ganglion c. Deep Petrosal nerve
Ciliary ganglion d. Lingual nerve
e. Chorda Tympani
f. Nerve to inferior Oblique
g. Nerve to inferior Rectus
Nucleus Functional N. Ganglion Topographical N. Target
Ciliary
Pterygopalatine
Submandibular
Otic
10th & 11th Nerve
Q. A 35-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining that he has

food stuck in his throat. His symptoms started 2 hours ago after eating fish at a local
seafood restaurant. He has tried coughing and swallowing multiple times in an attempt
to clear the food, but has so far been unsuccessful. The patient denies any difficulty
with breathing He does not appear to be in any distress on physical examination.
Laryngoscopy reveals a fish bone lodged in the left piriform recess. While trying to
retrieve the fish bone, a nerve is injured deep to the mucosa overlying the recess.
Which of the following is most likely to be impaired in this patient?
a. Cough reflex b. Gag reflex c. Mastication d. Salivation
Q. A 65 year old women with a known history of lung cancer comes to hospital due to
hoarseness & difficulty in swallowing. She has no disturbance in vision & hearing. On
examination there is loss of gag reflex on left side, when the patient is prompted to
say “ah”, the uvula deviates to right side. Her left shoulder is drooped & strength is
reduced during left shoulder shrug testing. Chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe lung
mass & several osteolytic rib lesions. MRI of head also demonstrates multiple lesions
consistent with metastasis. A lesion involving which of the anatomical structure is
most likely responsible for this patients' symptoms?
a. Foramen magnum b. Foramen ovale
c. Foramen rotundum d. Jugular foramen
12th Nerve
All Muscles Supplied by Except
Palate
Pharynx
Larynx
Tongue
Infrahyoid
Nerve Part Deviation towards
Q. Palsy of right genioglossus causes:

a. Deviation of tongue to right side
b. Deviation of tongue to left side
c. Deviation of soft palate to right side
d. Deviation of soft palate to left side
Dural Venous Sinus

Tributaries of the Cavernous Sinus
From orbit From meninges From brain
1. Superior ophthalmic vein. 1. Sphenoparietal sinus. 1. S

uperficial middle cerebral
2. Inferior ophthalmic vein. vein.
2. Anterior (frontal) trunk of
3.
Central vein of retina 2. Inferior cerebral veins
the middle meningeal
(sometimes)
vein.
Communications of Cavernous Sinus
1. Transverse sinus via superior petrosal sinus.

2.
Internal jugular vein via inferior petrosal
sinus.
3. Pterygoid venous plexus via emissary veins
4. Facial vein via dangerous connection
5. O pposite cavernous sinuses via anterior and
posterior intercavernous sinuses.
6. S uperior sagittal sinus via superficial middle
cerebral vein and superior anastomotic vein.
7. I nternal vertebral venous plexus, via basilar
venous plexus.
Q. Tributaries of cavernous sinus are all EXCEPT:

a. Inferior cerebral vein b. Central vein of retina
c. Sphenoparietal sinus d. Superior cerebral vein
Deep Cervical Fascia
In the upper part of sheath, there are IX, XI, XII nerves also.
These nerves pierce the sheet at different points.
Q. Dura is supplied by all cranial nerves EXCEPT:

a. 12 b. 10
c. 5 d. 4
Neck Triangles
Q. A 37 year old previously healthy man comes to the office for evaluation of enlarged
lymph nodes. He has an 8 week history of progressively enlarging cervical lymph
nodes associated with subjective fever, fatigue & drenching night sweat. After initial
assessment the patient undergoes excisional biopsy of enlarged lymph nodes in the
posterior triangle of neck. Two weeks later during a follow up visit, he describe difficulty
in overhead activities such as combing his hair or placing dishes in the overhead
shelves. Examination shows a left shoulder droop with weakness of left arm abduction
above the horizontal position. Other shoulder movements are normal & there is no
sensory loss. Which of the following muscle is most likely paralyzed in this patient –
a. Deltoid b. Levator scapulae
c. Serratus anterior d. Trapezius
Q. Lesion of which of the following will lead to paradoxical respiration

a. A b. B
c. C d. D
Subclavian Artery: 3 parts by Scalenus Anterior
Q. A 60-year-old man presents with history of headache, vertigo, ataxia and intermittent
pain and weakness in his left arm initiate by using the left arm for daily activities. On
examination, the left radial pulse is weak and the systolic BP on the left side is reduced
by 30 mm HG. Doppler Ultrasound reveals reversal of flow in the left vertebral artery.
What is likely underlying pathology which would explain the patient’s condition:
a. Critical stenosis of Right middle Cerebral artery
b. Critical stenosis of Left middle Cerebral artery
c. Critical stenosis of First part of Subclavian artery
d. Critical stenosis of Third part of Subclavian artery
Q. Common carotid artery divides at the level of:

a. Hyoid bone b. Cricoid cartilage
c. Superior border of thyroid cartilage d. Inferior border of thyroid cartilage
MAXILLARY ARTERY
• DIVIDED INTO 3 PARTS BY LATERAL PTERYGOID
1ST PART 2nd PART 3rd PART

Post . Sup. Alveolar A.
ACCESSORY MENINGEAL 1. Deep Temporal A
InfraOrbital A.
ANTERIOR TYMPANIC 2. Masseteric A.
DEEP AURICULAR 3. Pterygoid A. Greater Palatine A.
MIDDLE MENINGEAL 4. Buccal Pharyngeal A.
INFERIOR ALVEOLAR A. to Pterygoiod Canal
Sphenopalatine A.
TYMPANIC
MEMBRANE
Temporo Mandibular Joint

MOVEMENT MUSCLE
PROTRUSION
RETRUSION
ELEVATION
DEPRESSION
SIDE TO SIDE
Q. Which of the following is the function of the marked muscles?
a. Protraction b. Retraction
c. Depression d. Elevation

Q. Artery lying deep to marked area in the given Pic is branch of which of the following
artery.?
a. Ophthalmic Artery b. Maxillary Artery

c. Internal Carotid Artery d. External Carotid Artery
Q. Protrusion of tongue NOT possible in damage of:
a. Styloglossus b. Hyoglossus
c. Palatoglossus d. Genioglossus
Q. Structure NOT injured in submandibular gland excision:

a. Inferior alveolar nerve b. Lingual nerve
c. Hypoglossal nerve d. Marginal mandibular branch of facial nerve
Q. All of the following structures are pierced by the parotid duct except:
a. Buccal pad of fat b. Buccinator muscle
c. Masseter d. Buccopharyngeal fascia
Following Structures Pierce Buccinator Muscle:-
a. Parotid Duct
b. Buccal branch of mandibular nerve
c. Molar mucous glands
Q. Sternocleidomastoid is supplied by all of the following arteries except:

a. Occipital b. Posterior auricular
c. Thyrocervical trunk d. Superior thyroid
NEURO
Spinal Cord
Brown Sequard Syndrome:

Lemniscus Sensation Tract
Medial
Spinal
Lateral
Trigeminal
Brainstem

Midbrain
Pons
Medulla
Q. A 68-year-old woman presents in the emergency room with dizziness and nystagmus.
Examination reveals a loss of pain and temperature sensation over the right side of
the face and the left side of the body. The patient exhibits ataxia and intention tremor
on the right in both the upper and lower extremities and is unable to perform either
the finger-to-nose or heel to-shin tasks on the right. In addition, she is hoarse and
demonstrates pupillary constriction and drooping of the eyelid on the right. Finally, the
right side of her face is drier than the left. Which of the following artery block would
explain the patient’s condition:
a. Right posterior inferior cerebellar artery
b. Left posterior inferior cerebellar artery
c. Right anterior inferior cerebellar artery
d. Basilar artery
Lateral Medullary Syndrome (Wallenberg

Lateral Pontine Syndrome
Syndrome)
AICA
PICA
• Middle cerebellar peduncle: ipsilateral ataxia
• Vestibular nuclei: vertigo, nausea and vomiting, • Inferior cerebellar peduncle: ipsilateral limb ataxia
nystagmus • Vestibular nuclei: vertigo, nausea/vomiting,
• Spinal trigeminal nucleus/tract: ipsilateral nystagmus
pain/temperature loss (face) • Spinal N: ipsilateral pain/temperature loss (face)
• Spinothalamic tract: contralateral • Spinothalamic tract: Contralateral pain/temperature
pain/temperature loss (body) loss (body)
• Descending hypothalamics: ipsilateral Horner • Descending hypothalamics: ipsilateral Horner
syndrome syndrome
• Facial nucleus and fibers: ipsilateral facial • Nucleus ambiguus (CN IX, X): ipsilateral
paralysis; ipsilateral loss of taste (anterior two- paralysis of larynx, pharynx, palate →
thirds of tongue), lacrimation, salivation, and dysarthria, dysphagia, loss of gag reflex
corneal reflex; hyperacusis
• Cochlear nucleus/VIII fibers: ipsilateral hearing

loss
GSE SVE GVE GVA/SVA GSA SSA
MID
BRAIN
PONS
MEDULLA
Functional Column of cranial N. nuclei
Q. All of the following nerves have general visceral fibers EXCEPT:

a. Olfactory b. Oculomotor
c. Facial d. Glossopharyngeal
Q. All of the following cranial nerves contains General somatic efferents EXCEPT:
a. VII nerve b. III nerve
c. IV nerve d. VI nerve
Q. Nucleus ambiguus doesn’t include:

a. 7th nerve nucleus b. 9th nerve nucleus
c. 10th nerve nucleus d. 11th nerve nucleus
Cerebellum
Name Archae Paleo Neo

Cerebellum Cerebellum Cerebellum
Connection
Function
Deep Cerebellar Nuclei

OUTPUT cell from
▫ Cerebellar Cortex –
▫ Cerebellum –
Only Excitatory cell in cerebellar cortex –

Basal Nuclei
Afferent
a.
b.
c.
Q. The marked structure in the diagram is involved with motor activites.It receives
afferents from all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Spinal cord b. Thalamus

c. Cerebral cortex d. Substantia nigra
Q. Which of the alphabeta denote insula in the cross section of the brain:
a. A b. B c. C d. D
Internal Capsule
Q. A 45-year-old male presents with left arm clumsiness. Physical examination reveals
motor weakness and increased muscle tone in the left arm. Specifically, with passive
extension of the left arm there is initial resistance then sudden release when maximum
extension is reached. Pathology within which of the following brain structures is most
likely responsible?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Thalamus

Q. Which of the following is not projected to

ventral posterior nucleus of thalamus?
a. Lateral lemniscus b. Medial lemniscus
c. Spinal lemniscus d. Trigeminal lemniscus
Q. Which of the following thalamic nuclei does

NOT project to neocortex?
a. Intralaminar nuclei b. Reticular nuclei
c. Pulvinar nuclei d. Anterior thalamic nuclei
Q. A 62-year-old female comes to the ER complaining of difficulty walking that started
three hours ago. She also says that she cannot feel her right side. Physical examination
reveals loss of touch sensation affecting the right upper and lower extremities and the
right side of the face. Her muscle strength is 5/5 in all extremities. This patient has
most likely suffered a stroke affecting which of the following brain structure?
a. Intralaminar nuclei b. Reticular nuclei
c. Pulvinar nuclei d. Anterior thalamic nuclei
Hypothalamus

Q. A 5-year-old male demonstrates persistent food-seeking behavior. He is obese, and his

mother reports that he sometimes exhibits aggressive and bizarre behaviors. These
clinical findings may be explained by a lesion in which of the following hypothalamic
nuclei?
A. Lateral B. Suprachiasmatic
C. Supraoptic D. Anterior
E. Ventromedial
Ventricles
Areas devoid of BBB

Q. A 77-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after he was found
unresponsive at home. The patient has a history of poorly controlled hypertension.
Blood pressure is 260/140 mm Hg and pulse is 108/min He has extensor posturing
and pinpoint pupils. CT scan of the head without contrast reveals an acute pontine
hemorrhage with associated mass effect. The patient dies several hours later. Autopsy
reveals disruption of all pigmented neurons in the posterior rostral pons at the lateral
floor of the fourth ventricle. These neurons normally produce which of the following?
A. Dopamine B. Norepinephrine
C. Oxytocin D. Histamine
Q. Floor of 4th ventricle has:

a. Infundibulum b. Vagal triangle
c. Mammillary body d. Tuber cinerium
Q. Damage to the structure producing the elevation marked leads to paralysis of which of
the following muscle?
a. Lateral rectus
b. Risorius
c. Levator palpebrae Superioris
d. Superior oblique
Blood supply
Branches:
ICA VERTEBRAL BASILAR
Type of Haemorrhage MC vessel involved
Q. A man comes with aphasia, is unable to name things and repetition is poor. However,
comprehension, fluency and articulation is unaffected. He is probably suffering from:
a. Anomic aphasia
b. Transcortical sensory aphasia
c. Conduction aphasia
d. Broca’s aphasia
Q. A highly agitated 54-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his

family because he is unable to effectively communicate. He speaks clearly and with
conviction but his sentences are incomprehensible. He does not appear to understand
the doctor's questions, does not follow oral or written instructions, and cannot repeat
simple phrases. Branch occlusion of which of the following arteries is most likely
responsible for this patient's condition?
A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
C. Middle cerebral artery
D. Posterior cerebral artery
E. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
THORAX
Q. Atrophy of intrinsic muscles of hand, sensory deficit on medial side of forearm and
hand, and diminished radial pulse on turning the head on the affected side could be
because of :
a. Carpal tunnel syndrome
b. Cervical rib
c. Enlarged axillary lymph nodes
d. Supracondylar fracture of humerus
Thoracic wall
Q. When tapping a pleural effusion, it is important to pass the needle immediately

________the rib to prevent damage to which of the following structures in subcostal
groove?
a. Intercostal artery & Vein
b. Intercostal Nerve & artery
c. Intercostal Nerve & Vein
d. Intercostal Nerve, Vein & artery
Intercostal N.
No. supplies
T1
T2
T3-T6
T7-T11
Anterior Intercostal A. ( ) Posterior Intercostal A. ( )
Spaces Branch of Spaces Branch of
1-6 1-2
7-9 3-11
Anterior Intercostal V. ( )
Spaces Tributary of
1-6
7-9
Right posterior intercostal veins Left posterior intercostal veins
1st (highest) drains into the right brachiocephalic 1st (highest) drains into left brachiocephalic vein
vein
2nd, 3rd, and 4th join to form right superior 2nd, 3rd, and 4th join to form left superior intercostal
intercostal vein, which vein, which in turn drains vein, which in turn drains into
into
5th–11th drain into • 5th–8th drain into
• 9th–11th drain into
Subcostal vein drains into Subcostal vein drains into
Q. Left superior intercostal vein drains into:

a. Azygous vein
b. Hemiazygous vein
c. Left brachiocephalic vein
d. Innominate vein
Q. Which of the following does not drain into azygos vein:

a. Hemi-azygos vein
b. Posterior intercostal vein
c. Left superior intercostal vein
d. Right superior intercostal vein
Q. Hemiazygous vein crosses left to right at the level of:

a. T8
b. T10
c. T12
d. T6
Name Level Structures During Inspiration

IVC
Oesophageal
Aortic
Q. The following diagram depicts the various parts from which the diaphragm develops.
Defects in which part most commonly leads to congenital diaphragmatic hernia:
a. A b. B
c. C D. D
Mediastinum
Posterior Superior
Q. Superior vena cava opens into right atrium at the level of:
a. T1 b. T3
c. T4 d. T5
Q. NOT true about superior vena cava:

a. Opens into right atrium
b. Pierces pericardium at 3rd costal cartilage
c. Enters the heart of level of 3rd costal cartilage
d. Receives azygos vein behind sternal angle
Pleura
Root
Bronchopulmonary segments
Q. Carina is situated at which level:

a. T3 b. T4
c. T6 d. T9
Q. 63 years old man is admitted to hospital after suffering cerebral infaction. A swallow
study performed during acute recovery period shows oropharyngeal dysphagia.
Despite being maintained on adequate dietary restrictions, the patient experiences
an episode of vomiting while lying on his back and subsequently develops
pneumonia. Which of the following lung regions is most likely to be affected .
a. Anterior segment of left lower lobe
b. Posterior segment of right upper lobe.
c. Lingular segments of left lung
d. Middle lobe segments of right lung
Q. A frantic mother brings her 3 year old into the Emergency Department because he
aspirated a small metal button off of his shirt. The button is most likely located in the
following place:
a. Left inferior lobe b. Right middle lobe
c. Right inferior lobe d. Carina
Part Mid Mid Post.

Clavicular Axillary Scapular
LUNG
PLEURA
Q. During Deep inspiration,the lung extends upto which level of liver?
a. AB b. BC
c. CD d. ABC
Pericardium

Q. A 53 year old man is brought to emergency department for evaluation of fever, chills &
malaise. Cardiac examination reveals a new holo-systolic heart murmur that radiates
towards the axilla. Blood cultures are obtained & he undergoes transesophageal
echocardiography. The ultrasound probe is placed in the mid-esophagus facing
anteriorly & cardiac chambers are interrogated.
Anatomically which of the following chambers is closest to the probe –

a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle
c. Right atrium d. Right ventricle.
Q. The structure present anterior to transverse pericardial sinus is:

a. Inferior vena cava b. Superior venae cava
c. Aorta d. Pulmonary artery
Q. Posterior to transverse pericardial sinus is:

a. Aorta b. Pulmonary trunk
c. SVC d. Left atrium
Q. Posterior to sternum is:

a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle
c. Right atrium d. Right ventricle
Heart
Dominance:
Widow maker Artery

Venous drainage:
Q. Base of the heart is formed by:

a. Left atrium b. Right atrium
c. Left ventricle d. Right ventricle
Q. A 55 years old male presents with complaints of periodic, burning substernal chest
pain A thallium stress test shows hypoperfusion of the cardiac muscle forming the
diaphragmatic surface of the heart Which of the following coronary arteries is most
likely occluded in this patient?
a. Left anterior descending coronary artery
b. Left circumflex coronary artery
c. Left main coronary artery
d. Right coronary artery
e. Acute marginal branches
Q. Occlusion of the LAD will lead to infarction of which area:

a. Posterior part of the interventricular septum
b. Anterior wall of the left ventricle
c. Lateral part of the heart
d. Inferior surface of right ventricle
Q. Coronary dominance is determined by:

a. Posterior interventricular artery
b. Anterior interventricular artery
c. Circumflex artery
d. Right coronary artery
Q. If the circumflex artery gives off the posterior interventricular artery, then the arterial
supply is called:
a. Right dominance b. Left dominance
c. Balanced dominance d. Co-dominance
Q. Arterial supply of ventral 2/3rd of interventricular septum of heart is:
a. Right coronary artery
b. Left coronary artery
c. Posterior interventricular artery
d. Marginal artery
Q. All open into coronary sinus EXCEPT:

a. Middle cardiac vein b. Small cardiac vein
c. Anterior cardiac vein d. Great cardiac vein

Q. Which of the following is situated in the upper part of crista terminalis?

a. AV node b. Bundle of His
c. Right bundle branch d. SA node
Q. As viewed from the right atrium, the floor of the fossa ovalis is formed by:
a. Septum primum b. Septum secundum
c. Endocardial cushions d. Tricuspid valve orifice
Heart Tube:
Part Derivative
Truncus
Arteriosus
Bulbus Conus
Cordis
Prox 1/3rd
Ventricle
Atrium
Sinus Venosus
Absorption of Pulmonary V.
Atrial Septum
Truncus Arteriosus
Pharyngeal arch arteries derivatives
Arch Derivative
1st
2nd
3rd Prox:
Distal:
New Bud:
4th (Left): Arch of Aorta: Left horn of aortic sac + Left 4th Arch A. + Left Dorsal Aorta
(Right): Right Subclavian Artery: Right 7th cervical intersegmental A. + Right 4th Arch A. + Right Dorsal Aorta
6th Prox:
Distal (Left):
Brachiocephalic Trunk: Right horn of aortic sac
Left Subclavian Artery: Left 7th cervical intersegmental A.
A B

Supracardinal veins with a little contribtution from posterior cardinal veins form:
Azygos system of veins
Q. Unequal division of the conus cordis resulting from anterior displacement of the cono-
truncal septum gives rise to:
a. Persistent truncus arteriosus
b. Coarctation of aorta
c. Tetralogy of Fallot
d. Transposition of great vessels
Q. As shown in the figure abnormal subclavian artery develops by?
a. Persistanceof B
b. Persistence of A
c. Obliteration of A with persistence of B
d. Obliteration of B with persistence of A
Q. Sinus venosus receives blood from all EXCEPT:

a. Vitelline vein
b. Umbilical vein
c. Common cardinal vein
d. Subcardinal vein
Q. Portal Vein develops from which of these structures :
a. A b. B
c. C d. D
UPPER LIMB
AXILLA
SUPRA SCAPULAR N.
SUBSCAPULAR N. SUPRA SCAPULAR N.

SUBSCAPULAR N.
DORSAL SCAPULAR N.
Q. Not a boundary of Triangle of Auscultation:

a. Scapula b. Trapezius
c. Latissimus dorsi d. Serratus anterior
Brachial Plexus
FROM ROOT VALUE NAME SUPPLIES

ROOTS
UPPER
TRUNK
Lateral cord Medial cord
Posterior cord
Q: Which of the following nerves carries fibres from all the roots of brachial plexus?
a. Axillary b. Ulnar c. Median d. Musculocutaneous
Q. A 46 years old patient came with the h/o injection around shoulder following which he
observed change in contour of left shoulder. You suspect injury to axillary nerve. All
the following features can be observed in this patient except –
a. Loss of rounded contour of shoulder b. Loss of sensation on upper lateral aspect of arm
c. Atrophy of deltoid muscle. d. Loss of sensation on lateral aspect of forearm.
ERBs palsy Klumpkes Palsy

Q. Injury to the upper trunk of brachial plexus results in:
a. Supination of forearm b. External rotation of arm
c. Inability to initiate abduction d. Decreased sensation on medial side of hand
Q. FALSE regarding Klumpke’s paralysis is:

a. Claw hand deformity b. Intrinsic muscles of hand involved
c. Horner’s syndrome d. Upper trunk of brachial plexus involved
Q. While driving a motorcycle a young boy collided with a tree & was thrown on right
shoulder. There was no fracture. His arm was medially rotated & forearm pronated. The
following facts are correct except –
a. Injury was at Erbs point.
b. Lesion of C5 & C6 is present.
c. Median & ulnar nerves are affected.
d. Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Biceps & Subclavius are paralysed.
Axillary Artrery
Q. If occlusion occurs at second part of axillary artery, blood flow is maintained by

anastomosis between –
a. Anterior & posterior circumflex humeral artery
b. Circumflex scapular & posterior circumflex humeral artery
c. Deep branch of transverse cervical & subscapular artery.
d. Anterior circumflex artery & subscapular artery.
Q. A 10 years old boy falls and fractures his humerus. Fracture causes laceration of a
nerve, which results in weakness in the ability to extend the hand at the wrist. There
is also numbness in the skin over the anatomical snuffbox. Which of the following
arteries that shares the course with the affected nerve?
A. Axillary
B. Profunda Brachii
C. Posterior circumflex humeral
D. Anterior circumflex humeral
ROTATOR CUFF
Q. A 45 years old man presents to clinic with a chronic history of shoulder pain that is
especially bothersome at night. Over the weekend he "strained his shoulder" during
a pick-up basketball game and reports an acute exacerbation of his pain symptoms.
On exam, he complains of pain to palpation just below the acromion. You suspect he
has torn his supraspinatus. If correct, which of these functional maneuvers would you
expect to be deficient on physical exam.
a. Initiation of adduction b. Initiation of abduction
c. Internal rotation d. External rotation
Q. Following structures pierce the Clavipectoral fascia except-

a) Acromiothoracic artery
b) Cephalic vein
c) Lateral pectoral nerve
d) Medial pectoral nerve
ARM
Q. A person developed numbness along lateral aspect of the forearm. The cutaneous
nerve affected is a branch of
a. Deep branch of radial N. b. Axillary
c. Musculocutaneous d. Superficial branch of radial
CUBITAL FOSSA

FOREARM
Q. A football player presents to your clinic with a swollen index finger. When told to make
a fist the young man can bend his index finger at the PIP but not at the DIP joint. Which
tendon likely ruptured in the injury?
A. Distal insertion of the extensor tendon.
B. Flexor Digitorum Profundus
C. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
D. Long Extensor Tendon
CARPAL TUNNEL
Q. The Carpel Tunnel contains all the following structures EXCEPT–

a. Median Nerve
b. Flexor Pollicis Longus
c. Flexor Carpi Radialis
d. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis.
Q. A 53 y/o man with a history of depression presents to the ER with having cut deeply
into the flexor surface of his wrist at the level of the carpal tunnel after he had fight with
his wife. Ḥe has no sensation on the palmar or dorsal aspects of the distal parts of his
middle and index fingers and half of his ring finger. Which of the following has been
compromised?
A. Flexor carpi radialis tendon
B. Median nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Radial nerve
ANATOMICAL SNUFF BOX
Q. Regarding Anatomical Snuff box which of the following is true –

a. AbPL forms posterior wall
b. AbPL & EPB form anterior wall
c. Basilic vein forms roof
d. Ulnar A is the content.
Q. A teenager presents to the emergency department complaining of wrist pain after

falling off his skateboard. He has snuff-box tenderness. This concerns you because
this bone is sometimes slow to heal because of its poor blood supply. What fracture
do you suspect?
a. Scaphoid b. Trapezoid
c. Capitate d. Trapezuim
POSTERIOR FOREARM
PALM

Q . Identify the marked muscle

A. Opponens pollicis
B. Abductor pollicis brevis
C. Flexor pollicis longus
D. First palmar interossei
Tendons of flexor digitorum

profundus
Abductor pollicis brevis
Abductor digiti minimi Flexor pollicis brevis
lumbricals
Flexor digiti minimi brevis


A felon is
an infection
that occurs
within the
closed-space
compartments
of the fingertip
pulp
A, thenar space; B,
midpalmar space; C, ulnar
bursa; D, radial bursa; E,
digital synovial sheath; F,
pulp space; G, space of
Parona
Radial N.
ELBOW WRIST MCP SENSATIONS LOST

(FINGER)
D
Median N.
A (HIGH/ PROXIMAL) B(LOW/DISTAL)

Ulnar N.
A (LOW/DISTAL) B (HIGH/ PROXIMAL)
Q. Ulnar nerve injury in the arm leads to all except –

a. Sensory loss in the medial 1/3 of hand
b. Weakness of hypothenar eminence
c. Claw hand
d. Adduction of thumb.
Q. A 42 years old woman suffering from myxedema, suddenly woke up one night by a
severe bout of pain in her right wrist and middle finger. The pain seems to move up her
forearm. After a thorough neurological check up she is diagnosed to have condition as
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome. It causes all the following except –
a. Thenar atrophy b. Weakness of first & second lumbricals
c. Loss of Palmar sensation d. Weakness of adductor pollicis
Q: Finger drop with no wrist drop is caused by lesion of:

a. Radial nerve in the radial groove b. Posterior interosseous nerve
c. Anterior interosseous nerve d. Ulnar nerve behind medial epicondyle
Q. Ulnar prardox means:

a. High level injury- less severe claw hand b. Low level injurey- Less severe claw hand
c. High level injury- more severe claw hand d. Low level- more severe claw hand
Q Intracapsular but extrasynovial is:

a. Long head of triceps brachii b. Long head of biceps brachii
c. Short had of biceps brachii d. Medial head of biceps brachii
Q. Intracapsular but extrasynovial is:

a. Long head of triceps brachii b. Long head of biceps brachii
c. Short had of biceps brachii d. Medial head of biceps brachii
Q. Flexion of MCP joint and extension of IP joints is the major action of:
a. Palmar interossei b. Dorsal interossei
c. Lumbricals d. FDS
Q. False about clavicle:

a. Ossifies in membrane
b. Horizontal bone
c. No medullary cavity
d. Most common site of fracture is the junction of medial 1/3rd with lateral 2/3rd
Q. Which of the following structures in the scapula is palpable in the infraclavicular fossa?
a. A b. B
c. C d. D
LOWER LIMB
Q: A 36 years old patient reports her condition characterized by tingling, numbness and
burning pain in her outer thigh. The diagnosis of meralgia paresthetica is made by you.
Which of the following nerve is involved in this condition:-
a. Ilioinguinal n.
b. Iliohypogastric n
c. Lateral cutaneous n. of thigh
d. Genitofemoral
MNEMONIC NAME ROOT VALUE

Q. Which structure lies midway between the anterior superior iliac spine and pubic
symphysis:
a. Femoral artery
b. Deep inguinal ring
c. Superior epigastric artery
d. Inguinal ligament
Femoral Nerve
Obturator Nerve
SARTORIUS GRACILIS
HIP
KNEE
GLUTEAL REGION

Inferior Gluteal N.
Superior Gluteal N.
Q. A 43-year-old male received a deep intramuscular injection two days ago and now
presents with difficulty walking. You note that his right hip drops every time he raises
his right foot. At which location did this patient most likely receive his injection?
A. Superomedial quadrant of the buttock
B. Superolateral quadrant of the buttock
C. Inferomedial quadrant of the buttock
D. Inferolateral quadrant of the buttock
E. Posterior thigh
Q. Which of the following structure(s) pass through adductor hiatus?

a. Femoral vessels
b. Femoral nerve
c. Tibial nerve
d. Saphenous nerve
HAMSTRINGS
Origin
Insertion
Nerve supply
Action
Semi Membranosus
Semi Tendinosus
Adductor magnus
Biceps Femoris
Long head
Biceps Femoris
Short head
POPLITEAL FOSSA
Q. When the femur is fractured, the broken distal end often turns posteriorly to enter the
popliteal fossa due to muscle traction. Because of its position deepest in the fossa,
which structure is most vulnerable to laceration?
a. Common fibular n.
b. Lesser saphenous v.
c. Popliteal a.
d. Popliteal v.
e. Tibial n.
Q. A 56-year-old male with advanced bladder carcinoma suffers from compression of a

nerve that passes through the obturator foramen. Which of the following functions
would be most affected in this patient?
A. Abduction of the thigh
B. Adduction of the thigh
C. Flexion of the thigh
D. Extension of the thigh
E. Extension of the leg
Q. When, in some people, the common fibular nerve passes through the piriformis muscle,
the nerve may be compressed. This would affect part of which muscle?
a. Adductor magnus
b. Biceps femoris
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Semimembranosus
e. Semitendinosus
Q. Neurovascular bundle of anterior compartment of leg passes between the tendons of:
a. Tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus
b. Extensor hallucis longus and extensor digitorum longus
c. Extensor hallucis longus and peroneus tertius
d. Extensor digitorum longus and peroneus tertius
LEG
ANT/ EXT. POST./ FLEXOR LAT/ PERONEAL
TOM
DICK
HARRY


SOLE
ARCHES OF FOOT
INVERSION & EVERSION TAKES PLACE AT:

ANKLE
FEATURES GREAT SAPHENOUS VEIN SHORT SAPHENOUS VEIN
ORIGIN
PASSES
COURSE
ACCOMPANIED BY
TERMINATION
LYMPHATICS
Q. All are true about short saphenous vein EXCEPT:
a. Runs behind lateral malleolus
b. Runs on lateral side of leg
c. Accompanied by sural nerve
d. Achilles tendon is medial to vein
Q. TRUE statement about great saphenous vein:

a. It begins at lateral end of dorsal venous arch
b. It runs anterior to medial malleolus
c. It is accompanied by sural nerve
d. Terminates into popliteal vein
Q. Skin and facia covering the ball of the big toe drain the lymphatics into:
a. Vertical group of superficial inguinal lymph nodes
b. Horizontal group of superficial inguinal lymph nodes
c. Popliteal lymph nodes
d. Deep inguinal lymph nodes
Q. A 7-year-old male has a right leg cast after a bicycle accident. After wearing the cast
for some time, he complains of paresthesia and numbness of the dorsum of his right
foot and cannot dorsiflex his right ankle. Which of the following is the most likely site
of nerve compression in this patient?
A. Popliteal fossa
B. Fibular neck
C. Lateral compartment of the leg
D. Anterior compartment of the leg
E. Medial malleolus
Q. A 54-year-old alcoholic who has been sober for 6 months "falls off the wagon" and
imbibes a large amount of isopropyl alcohol. After an unknown period of time she is
found by her neighbor and brought to the emergency room. The patient eventually
arouses but is troubled by a persistent right foot drop. Prolonged compression of what
nerve most likely accounts for her symptoms?
A. Common peroneal
B. Femoral
C. Tibial
D. Radial
E. Pudendal
ABDOMEN
Transpyloric plane (L1)

Q. Transpyloric plane separates:

a. Hypogastrium from lumbar region
b. Hypochondrium from lumbar region
c. Iliac fossa from lumbar region
d. Umbilical region from lumbar region
Q:-Fundus of gallbladder at which vertebral level:

a. L1 b. L3
c. S1 d. S3
Q. Iliac crest at the level of (highest point):

a. L3 b. L4
c. L5 d. S1

Spermatic cord
Q: inguinal ligament forms the boundary of:
a. Femoral triangle
b. Hessalbach’s triangle
c. both
d. None of the above
Q. A 55-year-old man comes to the physician because of swelling in his groin that he first
noticed 2 weeks ago Physical examination shows a bulge above the inguinal ligament
that increases in size when the patient is asked to cough. He is referred to a surgeon
and scheduled to undergo elective laparoscopic hernia repair. Which of the following
landmarks will best aid the surgeon in distinguishing an indirect from a direct inguinal
hernia?
A Inferior epigastric vessels
B Cooper's ligament
C Femoral vein
D Spermatic cord
Q. TRUE about deep inguinal ring is:

a. A defect in fascia transversalis
b. Lies an inch above the mid-inguinal point
c. Present medial to inferior epigastric artery
d. Commonest site of direct hernia
Q. Which of the following is not associated with external oblique muscles:

a. Poupart’s ligament
b. Lacunar ligament
c. Superficial inguinal ring
d. Conjoint tendon

Rectus sheath

Terminal (2)
Ant (3)
Lateral (4) Inf
MS
Ruins
Gonads
Post (5)
IVC TRIBUTARIES:

SUP. MESENTERIC A. INF. MESENTERIC A.

Q. A 45 years old patient presents with vague abdominal pain and undergoes CT imaging
of the abdomen (see below). Which of the following labeled organs is supplied by an
artery of the foregut although it is not a foregut derivative?
a. A b. B
c. C d. D
Q. All are branches of inferior mesenteric artery EXCEPT:
a. Left colic b. Sigmoidal artery
c. Middle rectal d. Superior rectal
Q. Which of the following arteries is a direct branch of the gastroduodenal artery:

a. Right gastric artery
b. Left gastric artery
c. Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
d. Right gastroepiploic artery
Q. All of the following statements about the splenic artery are true except that it:
a. Has a tortuous course
b. Is a branch of the celiac trunk
c. Has branches that anastomose freely within the spleen
d. Supplies the greater curvature of stomach
Q: Stomach is supplied by:

a. Coeliac trunk
b. Splenic artery
c. Gastroduodenal artery
d. All of the above
Q. A 28 years old male presents to your office complaining of lower abdominal discomfort.
Physical examination reveals right-sided testicular enlargement that feels like a 'bag of
worms' when the patient stands up The venous blood from the affected testicle drains
directly into the:
a. Right internal iliac vein
b. Inferior mesenteric vein
c. Renal vein
d. Hemiazygous vein
e. Inferior vena cava
Q. Vein that doesn’t cross the midline is:

a. Left brachiocephalic vein
b. Hemiazygous vein
c. Left renal vein
d. Left gonadal vein

Posterior Relations of Kidneys

Peritoneum

Epiploic Foramen

PERITONEAL RETROPERITONEAL
Q. Structures injured while resecting the free edge of lesser omentum will be all except?:
a. Hepatic artery proper b. Portal vein
c. Hepatic vein d. Common bile duct
Q. The mesentery of small intestine, along its attachment to the posterior abdominal wall,
crosses all or the following structures EXCEPT:
a. Left gonadal vessels
b. Third part of duodenum
c. Aorta
d. Right ureter
STOMACH BED
DR
(S4) S
KILLS
PT.
MERCILESSLY
Q. The bed of stomach is not formed by:

a. Left kidney
b. Left suprarenal
c. Splenic vein
d. Tail of pancreas
Duodenum

Q. A 52-year-old man is brought to the emergency department for repeated vomiting

that began 2 hours ago. His vomit is dark brown and has a granular consistency. The
patient has a history of dyspepsia after meals, for which he takes over-the-counter
antacids. Physical examination reveals mild epigastric tenderness. Endoscopy shows
a deep, bleeding ulcer on the posterior wall of the duodenal bulb This ulcer has most
likely penetrated which of the following arteries?
A Common hepatic
B Right gastroepiploic
C Left gastric
D Gastroduodenal
Colon
Q. Appendix epiploicae present in:

a. Appendix b. Caeccum
c. Rectum d. Sigmoid colon
Q. The shortest part of colon is:

a. Transverse colon b. Ascending colon
c. Descending colon d. Sigmoid colon
Q. The commonest anatomical position of appendix is:

a. Retrocaecal b. Pelvic
c. Paracaecal d. Preileal
Q. Appendicular artery is a branch of:

a. Ileocolic b. Right colic
c. Inferior mesenteric d. Marginal artery
Q. Downward enlargement of spleen prevented by?

a. Lienorenal ligament b. Phrenicocolic ligament
c. head of pancreas d. left renal artery
Q. A 52 years old female with a long history of gallstones presents to the emergency room
complaining of cramping mid-abdominal pain, abdominal distention and vomiting for
the last 12 hours. Abdominal X-ray reveals air in the gallbladder and biliary tree. In
which of the following sites is a gallstone most likely lodged?
a. Cystic duct b. Common bile duct
c. Duodenum d. Jejunum
e. Ileum
Rectum
Blood supply Lymphatic drainage
Anal canal
Features Development Nerve supply Pain sensitive Artery Vein Lymphatic Epithelial lining
Above
pectinate
line
Below
pectinate
line
Thoracolumbar fascia.
1. Skin.
2. Superficial fascia.
3. Posterior layer of
the thoraco-
lumbar fascia
4. E
rector spinae
(sacrospinalis)
muscles.
5. M
iddle layer of the
thoraco-lumbar
fascia.
6. Q
uadratus
lumborum
muscle.
7. Anterior layer of
the thoraco-
lumbar fascia.
Q. All are true about Thoracolumbar facia EXCEPT:

a. Attached to spinus process of lumbar vertebra
b. Attached to transverse process of lumbar vertebra
c. The fascia lies only posterior to posterior abdominal wall muscles.
d. Gives attachment to Transverse abdominal and internal oblique
Ureter
A) 3 Anatomical Constrictions:
1. Pelviureteric junction
2. Pelvic brim (Crossing of iliac vessels)
3. Ureterovesical junction
B) 5 Surgical Constrictions:
1. Pelviureteric junction
2. Pelvic brim (Crossing of iliac vessels)
3. Crossing of Vas deferens / Broad ligament
4. Ureterovesical junction
5. Ureteric orifice (Intravesical)
Branches of Internal Iliac Artery
Anterior Division Posterior Division

Q. A surgeon transplants a donor kidney into a 45-year-old patient with end-stage renal
disease. The upper 1/3 of the ureter of the transplanted kidney is retained and attached
to the recipient patient's bladder. However, soon after transplantation, the ureter
becomes necrotic. Which of the following arteries is the major source of blood supply
to the upper ureter?
A Common iliac artery
B. Phrenic artery
C. Internal iliac artery
D. Renal artery
Q. All of these structures lie in relation to the left ureter except :

a. Mesentery of sigmoid colon
b. bifurcation of common iliac artery
c. Quadratus lumborum
d. Gonadal vessels
Urinary Bladder
Q. All are true about the trigone of the urinary bladder EXCEPT:
a. Mucosa is loosely associated to the underlying musculature
b. Mucosa is smooth
c. It is lined by transitional epithelium
d. It is derived from the absorbed part of the mesonephric duct
Q. FALSE regarding trigone of bladder:

a. Lined by transitional epithelium
b. Mucosa smooth and firmly adherent
c. Internal urethral orifice lies at lateral angle of base
d. Developed from mesonephric duct
Prostate

Surgery Prostate Thyroid

True capsule
Urethra
Q. A 50-year-old man suffering from carcinoma of prostate showed areas of sclerosis and
collapse of T10 and T11 vertebrae in X-ray. The spread of this cancer to the above
vertebrae was must probably through:
a. Sacral canal b. Lymphatic vessels
c. Internal vertebral plexus of veins d. Superior rectal veins
Perineum

Deep Perineal pouch Superficial Perineal pouch

Q. Superficial perineal space contains all EXCEPT:
a. Root of penis
b. Urethral artery
c. Great vestibular glands (Bartholin glands)
d. Membranous urethra
Q. Urogenital diaphragm is contributed by all EXCEPT:

a. Sphincter urethra
b. Perineal body
c. Colles’ fascia
d. Perineal membrane

Development

VPB If VPB is Bifid-
MIDGUT Development
Ophalocoele Gastroschisis
Cause
Site
Amnion cover
Prognosis

Uro Genital Sinus

Development of urinary system

Q. Identify the Pelvic diaphragm in the below pic given picture
a. A b. B
c. C d. D
Q: Prostatic artery is a branch of :

a. Superior vesical artery
b. Middle vesical artery
c. Inferior vesical artery
d. Superior rectal artery
Q: Colon is supplied by all EXCEPT:
a. Inferior mesenteric artery
b. ILieocolic artery
c. Middle colic artery
d. Internal iliac artery
Q: True about nervi erigentes are all EXCEPT:

a. An autonomic nerve
b. Parasympathetic outflow
c. Arise from ventral rami of S2, 3, 4
d. Joins superior hypogastric plexus
Q: Anal canal NOT supplied by:

a. Superior rectal artery
b. Inferior rectal artery
c. Median sacral artery
d. Middle rectal artery
Q. All are content of sphincter of vagina EXCEPT:

a. Pubovaginalis
b. External urethral sphincter
c. Internal urethral sphincter
d. Bulbospongiosus
GENERAL EMBRYOLOGY
Penetration of Corona Radiata
Primitive Streak
Neurulation:
Notochord Remnants:
Neuropore Closes on If Not
Tympanic Membrane:
MY
MAST
AuNT DIGEST
TENSION
M Melanocytes
Meninges
O Odontoblasts
P PNS ganglia (cranial, dorsal root, autonomic),

Parafollicular ‘C’ cells
A Adrenal medulla
S Schwann Cells
S Spiral septum
E Endocardial cushions
Enterochromaffin cells
S Skull bones
Surface ectoderm Endoderm

• Epidermis, Hair & Nails Forms epithelial lining of:
• Enamel of teeth GI track: foregut, midgut, and hindgut
• Lens of eye Lower respiratory system: larynx, trachea, bronchi,
• Anterior pituitary (Rathke’s pouch) and lung
• Anal canal below pectinate line Genitourinary system: urinary bladder, urethra, and
lower vagina
Mesoderm
Pharyngeal pouches:
• Muscle – Smooth, Cardiac & Skeletal
• Auditory tube and middle ear
• Connective tissue
• Palatine tonsils
• All serous membranes
• Parathyroid glands
• Bone and cartilage
• Thymus
• Blood, lymph, cardiovascular organs
• Adrenal cortex Forms parenchyma of:
• Gonads and internal reproductive organs • Liver
• Spleen • Pancreas
• Kidney and ureter
Development of Tongue
Development of Face
Q. Choose the correct sequence of the following embryonic events:

1.Cortical reaction
2.Zona reaction
3. Acrosome reaction
4. Penetration of corona radiata
a. 1,2,3,4 b. 4,1,2,3
c. 4,3,1,2 d. 3,1,4,2
Q: Extra embryonic mesoderm is derived from:

a. Epiblast b. Primary yolk sac
c. Secondary yolk sac d. Hypoblast
Q: From which of the following does nucleus pulposus is formed
a. A b. B
c. C d. D
Q. A young patient with absent thymus and presented with hypoparathyroidism and
tetany. Which of the following marked area in the picture is defective in this condition?
a. A b. B
c. C d D
HISTO
Q. Area marked by the arrow in the given figure contain all the following except:
a. Zonula occludens
b Fascia adherens
c Macula adherens
d. Gap junction
Merocrine secretion
• pancreatic acinar cells.
Apocrine secretion.
• Lactating mammary gland
• ciliary (Moll’s) glands of the eyelid,
• Ceruminous glands of the external
auditory meatus.
Holocrine secretion.
• Sebaceous glands of skin
• Tarsal (Meibomian) glands of the
eyelid.
Q. Which type of gland is depicted here:
a. Apocrine glands
b. Merocrine glands
c. Holocrine glands
d. Endocrine glands
Cells –
Fibers
Hyaline cartilage
Cells –
Fibers
Elastic cartilage
Cells –
Fibers
Fibro cartilage
LUNG
Cartilage –
BRONCHUS
Cartilage –
BRONCHIOLE
Q. Bronchi are lined with pseudostratified epithelium. As the airways continue distally,
the epithelium changes. Which of the following features is last to disappear as the
epithelium changes along the respiratory tube?
a. Cilia b. Goblet cells
c. Mucous glands d. Serous glands
e. Cartilage
Subcapsular sinus – present

Whole tissue – cortex & Medulla
LYMPH NODE
Whole tissue – lobules – cortex & Medulla

Hassalls corpuscles– present
THYMUS
Subcapsular sinus – absent

Red and While pulp – present
Lymphatic nodules with central
arteriole(eccentric) – present
SPLEEN
Stratified epithelium – present

Crypts – present
TONSIL
Both light (mucus)

& Dark (Serous)
acini– present
SUB MANDIBULAR
Only Dark (Serous)

acini– present
PAROTID
Both light (mucus) &

Dark (Serous) acini–
present light (mucus)
acini – Dominant
SUB LINGUAL
Striated Duct – absent
Centro acinar cell – present
Size – bigger
Capillary – present
Q. Which of the following is not seen in the Space of Disse?

a. Microvilli b. Blood Plasma
c. Kupffer cells d. Stellate cells
Around sinusoid – Space of Disse
Around portal canal – Space of Mall
LIVER
GIT
Stratified epithelium – present

Submucosal glands – present
OESOPHAGUS
Villi – present
Submucosal
glands(brunner’s) –
present
DUODENUM
Villi – present
Peyers patches– present
ILEUM
Villi – present
Submucosal
glands(brunner’s) / peyer’s
patches – absent
JEJUNUM
Villi – absent
Many goblet cells –
present
LARGE INTESTINE
• Isthmus – Stem cells

• Big, red, round cells – parietal Cells
• Blue, basal cells – Chief cells
INTESTINAL GLAND
GASTRIC GLAND • Stem cell:
• Gastric gland – Isthmus
• Intestinal gland – Basal
ADRENAL
CEREBRUM
CEREBELLUM
Urethra
Prostatic urethra: transitional epithelium (urothelium).
Membranous urethra: stratified or pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Penile (spongy) urethra: pseudostratified columnar epithelium
End: stratified squamous epithelium

KIDNEY
URETER
VAS DEFERENS
UTERUS (PROLIFERATIVE) UTERUS (SECRETORY)
THYROID
Q. Which of the cells labelled below secrete hydrochloric acid :

Q: The following hematoxylin and eosin stained biopsy is form which tissue :
a. Tonsils
b. Spleen
c. Lymph node
d. Peyer’s patches
Q. The following hematoxylin and eosin stained specimen is similar in appearance to which
of the following structures:
a. Articular disc b. Pinna

c. Epiphyseal plate d. Intervertebral disc
Q. In which part of the body is the following type of epithelium found:
a. Small Intestine b. Common bile duct

c. Skin d. Urinary bladder
Q: The following cell is inhibitory to
a. Vestibular nuclei
b. Deep nuclei of cerebellum
c. Anterior horn of spinal
d. Basal ganglia
Q. Which of the following is comprised of Dense irregular tissue:

a. Lamina Propria b. Dermis
c. Ligament d. Aponeurosis
Loose (areolar) connective tissue
• Submucosa in the digestive tract and other viscera lined by mucosae,
• subcutaneous tissue in regions devoid of fat (e.g. eyelids, penis, scrotum and labia),
• supporting layer (lamina propria) of mucosal epithelia
• supporting layer of vascular endothelia,
• in the interior of organs, where it binds together the lobes & lobules of glands
• A variant of loose connective tissue occurs in the choroid and the sclera of the eye, where large
numbers of pigment cells (melanocytes) are also present.
Dense irregular connective tissue

• Reticular layer of the dermis
• Superficial connective tissue sheaths of muscle and nerves
• Adventitia of large blood vessels
• Capsules of various glands and organs (e.g. testis, sclera of the eye, periostea and perichondria).
Regular connective tissues

• ligaments, tendons or Aponeurosis
Although regular connective tissue is predominantly collagenous, some ligaments contain significant
amounts of elastin, e.g. the ligamenta flava of the vertebral laminae and the vocal folds.
Fibrous joints
1. Sutures: These are peculiar to skull, and are immovable.
Schindylesis type e.g. between rostrum of sphenoid and upper border of vomer.
2. Syndesmosis: The bones are connected by the interosseous ligament. Example: inferior tibiofibular
joint
3. Gomphosis (peg and socket joint). Example: root of the tooth in its bony socket
Primary cartilaginous joints (synchondrosis, or hyaline cartilage joints):
Examples:
(a) Joint between epiphysis and diaphysis of a growing long bone
(b) Spheno-occipital joint
(c) First chondrosternal joint
(d) Costochondral joints.
Secondary cartilaginous joints (symphyses or fibrocartilaginous joints):
Examples:
(a) Symphysis pubis
(b) Manubriosternal joint
(c) Xiphiosternal joint
(d) Intervertebral joints between the vertebral bodies

Anatomy

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Anatomy

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Anatomy

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Contents

Chapter 1 HEAD & NECK 1-33

Superior Orbital Fissure

Internal Acoustic Meatus

Crossing Upper part

3rd Cranial Nerve:

4th & 6th Cranial Nerves

A. Abducent nerve B. Facial nerve

Q. Examine the given pic and diagnose.

Q. Schirmer’s test evaluates the function of:

Q. Match Column A with B

Nucleus Functional N. Ganglion Topographical N. Target

10th & 11th Nerve

Q. A 35-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining that he has

All Muscles Supplied by Except

Nerve Part Deviation towards

Q. Palsy of right genioglossus causes:

Dural Venous Sinus

1. Superior ophthalmic vein. 1. Sphenoparietal sinus. 1. S

Communications of Cavernous Sinus

1. Transverse sinus via superior petrosal sinus.

Q. Tributaries of cavernous sinus are all EXCEPT:

Q. Dura is supplied by all cranial nerves EXCEPT:

Q. Lesion of which of the following will lead to paradoxical respiration

Q. Common carotid artery divides at the level of:

• DIVIDED INTO 3 PARTS BY LATERAL PTERYGOID

1ST PART 2nd PART 3rd PART

Temporo Mandibular Joint

Q. Which of the following is the function of the marked muscles?

a. Ophthalmic Artery b. Maxillary Artery

Q. Structure NOT injured in submandibular gland excision:

Q. Sternocleidomastoid is supplied by all of the following arteries except:

Brown Sequard Syndrome:

Lemniscus Sensation Tract

Lateral Medullary Syndrome (Wallenberg

• Cochlear nucleus/VIII fibers: ipsilateral hearing

GSE SVE GVE GVA/SVA GSA SSA

Functional Column of cranial N. nuclei

Q. All of the following nerves have general visceral fibers EXCEPT:

Q. Nucleus ambiguus doesn’t include:

Name Archae Paleo Neo

Deep Cerebellar Nuclei

Only Excitatory cell in cerebellar cortex –

a. Spinal cord b. Thalamus

Q. Which of the following is not projected to

Q. Which of the following thalamic nuclei does

Q. A 5-year-old male demonstrates persistent food-seeking behavior. He is obese, and his

Areas devoid of BBB

Q. Floor of 4th ventricle has:

Type of Haemorrhage MC vessel involved

Q. A highly agitated 54-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his

Q. When tapping a pleural effusion, it is important to pass the needle immediately

Right posterior intercostal veins Left posterior intercostal veins

Q. Left superior intercostal vein drains into:

Q. Which of the following does not drain into azygos vein:

Q. Hemiazygous vein crosses left to right at the level of:

Name Level Structures During Inspiration

Q. NOT true about superior vena cava:

Q. Carina is situated at which level:

Part Mid Mid Post.