DATE: 11/11/2024

SPECTRUM INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL

BYE PASS ROAD, OPP. IBP PETROL PUMP, HODAL
EXAM : NEET(11th )MAJOR TEST
___________________________________________________________________________________________________
MAX.MARK: 720 TIME: 3 HRS
INSTRUCTIONS:
i. Each question is followed by 4 answers out of which only one is correct.
ii. Physics 1 to 50, Chemistry 51 to 100, Biology 101 to 200.
iii. Each correct response carries 4 Marks and for each incorrect response 1 mark will be
deducted.
iv. The question should be answered in the OMR sheet only by darkening the bubble
completely with blue or black ball point pen only.
SUBJECT TOPICS
Physics
Chemistry
Biology
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PHYSICS (a) are not equal to each other in magnitude

1. A vector of magnitude 30 and direction eastwards is (b) cannot be predicted

added with another vector of magnitude 40 and
(c) are equal to each other
direction Northwards. Find the magnitude and
direction of resultant with the east. (d) are equal to eah other in magnitude

(a) 45, 50º with East 4. The dimensions of the coefficient of viscosity are -

(b) 53, 75º with East

(a) ML–1T–1 (b) MLT
(c) 53, 50º with East (c) M–1L–1T–1 (d) M0L0T0

(d) 50, 53º with East

2. Find a unit vector perpendicular to both the vectors 5. Force F = + C is a dimensionally correct
^
(2 ^i +3 ^j+ k) ^ ^ ^ relation, then X will have dimensions -
and ( i – j+2 k)

1 (a) MLT–2 (b) MLT–3

n^ =± (7 ^i +3 ^j+5 k^ )
(a) √ 83 (c) ML2T–3 (d) M2L–2T–2
1
n^ =± ( – 7 ^i – 3 ^j +5 k^ ) 6. Which of the following represents a volt-
(b) √83
(a) Joule / second
1
n^ =± (7 ^i – 3 ^j – 5 k^ ) (b) Watt / Ampere
(c) √83 (c) Watt / Coulomb
1 (d) Coulomb / Joule
n^ =± (7 ^i – 3 ^j – 5 k^ ) 7. If the unit of force is 100 N, unit of length is 10 m and
(d) √58 unit of time is 100 s, what is the unit of mass in this
system of units?
3. The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to their
(a) 103 kg (b) 104 kg (c) 105 kg (d) 106 kg
vector differences. In that case, the forces :

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8. Which of the following physical quantities has a unit 15. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of
but no dimensions? 20 m s-1 from the top of a multistory building of 20 m
(a) Relative velocity (b) Relative density high. How high will the ball rise? (Take g = 10 m s-2)
(c) Strain (d) Angle (a) 10 m (b) 15 m (c) 20 m (d) 25 m
16. Two cars A and B are running at velocities of 60 km h -
1
and 45 km h-1. What is the relative velocity of car A
with respect to car B, if both are moving eastward?
9. The length and breadth of a rectangular sheet are (a) 15 km h-1 (b) 45 km h-1
16.2 cm and 10.1 cm, respectively. The area of the (c) 60 km h-1 (d) 105 km h-1
sheet in appropriate significant figures and error is
164±3 cm 2 (b) 163 . 62±2 .6 cm2
(a)
2 2 17. A car accelerated from initial position and then
(c) 163 . 6±2 . 6 cm (d) 163 . 62±3 cm
returned at initial point, then
10. In an experiment, the following observation's were (a) Velocity is zero but speed increases
recorded : L = 2.820 m, M = 3.00 kg, l = 0.087 cm,
2
Diameter D = 0.041 cm Taking g = 9.81 m / s using the (b) Speed is zero but velocity increases
4 Mg
2 (c) Both speed and velocity increase
formula , Y= πD l , the maximum permissible error in Y is
(a) 7.96% (b) 4.56% (c) 6.50% (d) 8.42% (d) Both speed and velocity decrease
11. If force F = at + bt 2 where t denotes time, the 18. Figure shows the displacement time graph of a body.
dimensions of a and b shall be - What is the ratio of the speed in the first second and
that in the next two seconds
(a) MLT–3, ML2T4 (b) MLT–3, MLT–4 Y
30
Displacement

(c) MLT–1, MLT0 (d) MLT–4, MLT1 20

10
12. If the time period (T) of vibration of a 0
1 2 3
X
liquid drop depends on surface tension (S) , Time
radius (r) of the drop and density (p) of the
liquid, then the expression of T is (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
(a) T =k √ ρ r 3 / S (b) T =k √ ρ1 /2 r 3 /S
19. A boat takes two hours to travel 8 km and back in still
(c) T =k √ ρ r 3 /S 1/ 2 (d)None of these
water. If the velocity of water is 4 km/h, the time
taken for going upstream 8 km and coming back is -
13. A drunkard is walking along a straight road. He takes
5 steps forward and 3 steps backward and so on. (a) 2h
Each step is 1 m long and takes 1 s. There is a pit on
the road 11 m away from the starting point. The (b) 2h 40 min
drunkard will fall into the pit after
(c) 1h 20 min
(a) 21 s (b) 29 s (c) 31 s (d) 37 s
(d) Cannot be estimated with the information
given
−1
14. The velocity of a particle at an instant is10 m s . 20. Rain seems to be falling to a person sitting in a bus
−1
After 3 s its velocity will becomes16 m s . The moving uniformly eastwards with 10 m/s. It appears
velocity at 2 s, before the given instant will be to come from vertical and hit the bus windows at a
6 m s−1 (b) 4 m s−1 (c) 2 m s−1 (d) 1 m s−1 velocity 20 m/s. Find the velocity of rain drops w.r.t.
(a) ground.
(a) m/s (b) m/s

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(c) m/s (d) m/s
21. The ceiling of a hall is 40 m high. For maximum (c) (d)
horizontal distance, the angle at which the ball may
be thrown with a speed of 56 m s -1 without hitting the
ceiling of the hall is 26. The maximum range of a gun horizontal terrain is 16
0 o o o km. If g = 10 m/s2 what must be the muzzle velocity of
(a)
25 (b) 30 (c) 45 (d) 60
the shell
22. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) A scalar quantity is the one that is conserved in a (a) 400 m/s (b) 200 m/s
process (c) 100 m/s (d) 50 m/s
(b) A scalar quantity is the one that can never take 27. A bomb is fired from a cannon with a velocity of 1000
negative values m/s making an angle of 30º with the horizontal. What
(c) A scalar quantity is the one that does not vary from is the time taken by the bomb to reach the highest
one point to another in space point-
(d) A scalar quantity has the same value for observers (a) 11 sec (b) 23 sec
(c) 38 sec (d) 50 sec

23. A wheel is subjected to uniform angular acceleration

about its axis. Initially its angular velocity is zero. In
28. A constant force acting on a body of mass of 5 kg
the first 2 sec , it rotates through an angle θ1 . In the −1 −1
change its speed from 5 m s to 10 m s in 10 s
next 2 sec , it rotates through an additional angle θ2 . without changing the direction of motion. The force
The ratio of θ1 / θ2 is acting on the body is :
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5 (a) 1.5 N (b) 2 N (c) 2.5 N (d) 5 N

24. The ratio of velocities at points A, B and C in vertical 29. A body subjected to three concurrent forces is found
circular motion is to be in equilibrium. The resultant of any two forces :
A (a) Is equal to third force
(b) Is opposite to third force
O B
(c) Is collinear with the third force
(d) All of these

30. A block of mass 5 kg is suspended by a massless rope

(a) 1 : 9 : 25 (b) 1 : 2: 3
of length 2 m from the ceiling. A force of 50 N is
applied in the horizontal direction at the midpoint P
(c)
1 : 3: 5 (d) 1 : √ 3 : √ 5 of the rope, as shown in the figure :
The angle made by the rope with the vertical in

equilibrium is (Take g=10 m s−2 )

25. When a body is thrown with a velocity u making an
angle  with the horizontal plane, the maximum
distance covered by it in horizontal direction is-

(a) (b)
(a)
30o (b) 40
o
(c) 60
o
(d) 45
o

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31. Two blocks A and B of masses 10 kg and 15 kg are 35. A 50kg man with 20kg load on his head climbs up 20 steps
placed in contact with each other rest on a rough of 0.25m height each. The work done in climbing is
horizontal surface as shown in the figure. The (a) 5 J (b) 350 J
coefficient of friction between the blocks and surface (c) 100 J (d) 3430 J
is 0.2. A horizontal force of 200 N is applied to block
A. The acceleration of the system is :
36. A body of mass 5 kg is placed at the origin, and can move
(Take g=10 m s−2 ) only on the x-axis. A force of 10 N is acting on it in a
o
direction making an angle of 60 with the x-axis and
displaces it along the x-axis by 4 metres. The work done by
the force is
(a) 2.5 J (b) 7.25 J
4 m s−2 (b) 6 m s−2 (c) 8 m s−2 (d) (c) 40 J (d) 20 J
(a)
10 m s−2 37. The potential energy of a certain spring when stretched
through a distance ‘S’ is 10 joule. The amount of work (in
joule) that must be done on this spring to stretch it through
an additional distance ‘S’ will be
32. Two blocks of masses 10 kg and 20 kg are connected
(a) 30 (b) 40
by a massless string and are placed on a smooth
(c) 10 (d) 20
horizontal surface as shown in the figure. If a force F =
600 N is applied to 10 kg block, then the tension in
the string is : m1 m2
38. Two bodies of different masses and have equal
E1 E2
momenta. Their kinetic energies and are in the ratio

(a) √ m1 : √ m2 (b)
m1 : m2

m2 : m1 m 21 : m 22
(c) (d)
(a) 100 N (b) 200 N (c) 300 N (d) 400 N

39. A body is moving with a velocity v, breaks up into two

4
equal parts. One of the part retraces back with velocity v.
33. A rocket with a lift-off mass 3 .5×10 kg is blasted Then the velocity of the other part is
2
upwards with an initial acceleration of 10 m/s . Then (a) v in forward direction (b) 3v in forward direction
the initial thrust of the blast is (c) v in backward direction (d) 3v in backward direction
5 5
(a) 1 .75×10 N (b) 3 .5×10 N

' '
40. Two solid rubber balls A and B having masses 200 and 400
(c) T =0 (d) T =47 . 2 N gm respectively are moving in opposite directions with
velocity of A equal to 0.3 m/s. After collision the two balls
come to rest, then the velocity of B is
(a) 0.15 m/sec (b) 1.5 m/sec
34. A monkey of mass 20 kg is holding a vertical rope. The (c) – 0.15 m/sec (d) None of the above
rope will not break when a mass of 25 kg is suspended
from it but will break if the mass exceeds 25 kg. What
m m
is the maximum acceleration with which the monkey 41. Two equal masses 1 and 2 moving along the same
can climb up along the rope ? (g = 10 m/s2) straight line with velocities + 3 m/s and – 5 m/s respectively
collide elastically. Their velocities after the collision will be
(a) 25 m/s2 (b) 2.5 m/s2
respectivel
(c) (a) + 4 m/s for both (b) – 3 m/s and +5 m/s
5 m/s2 (d) 10 m/s2
(c) – 4 m/s and + 4 m/s (d) – 5 m/s and + 3 m/s

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42. A uniform chain of length L and mass M is lying on a (b) depends on the masses of the two balls
smooth table and one third of its length is hanging vertically
down over the edge of the table. If g is acceleration due to (c) depends on the speeds of the two balls
gravity, the work required to pull the hanging part on to the
table is (d) is equal to g
(a) MgL (b) MgL/3
48. A ball of mass 50 gm is dropped from a height h = 10
(c) MgL/9 (d) MgL/18
m. It rebounds losing 75 percent of its kinetic energy.
If it remains in contact with the ground for t = 0.01
43. A system consists of 3 particles each of mass m and sec., the impulse of the impact force is :
located at (1, 1) (2, 2) (3, 3). The co-ordinate of the
centre of mass are (a) 1.3 N–s (b) 1.05 N-s
(a) (6, 6) (b) (3, 3)
(c) 1300 N–s (d) 105 N–s
(c) (2, 2) (d) (1, 1)
49. Two blocks A and B are connected by a massless
string (shown in figure) A force of 30 N is applied on
44. A particle starts rotating from rest. Its angular
displacement is expressed by the following equation block B. The distance travelled by centre of mass in
θ=0 .025 t 2 −0 .1 t where θ is in radian and t is in 2s starting from rest is :
seconds. The angular acceleration of the particle is
(a) 0.5 rad/sec2 at the end of 10 sec
(b) 0.3 rad/sec2 at the end of 2 sec
(c) 0.05 rad/sec2 at the end of 1 sec
(d) Constant 0.05 rad/sec2

(a) 1m (b) 2m
45. Three particles are situated on a light and rigid rod
along Y axis as shown in the figure. If the system is (c) 3m (d) none of these

rotating with an angular velocity of 2 rad /sec about X 50. The centre of mass of the shaded portion of the disc
axis, then the total kinetic energy of the system is is : (The mass is uniformly distributed in the shaded
(a) 92 J portion) :
4 kg (0, 3m)
(b) 184 J
O X
(c) 276 J 2 kg (0, – 2m)
3 kg (0, – 4m)
(d) 46 J

46. We have two spheres, one of which is hollow and the

other solid. They have identical masses and moment of
inertia about their respective diameters. The ratio of
their radius is given by
(a) 5 : 7 (b) 3 : 5

(c) √ 3 : √5 (d) √ 3 : √7 (a) to the left of A (b) to the left of A

47. Two balls are thrown in air. The acceleration of the (c) to the right of A (d) to the right of A
centre of mass of the two balls while in air(neglectair
resistance)

(a) depends on the direction of the motion of the balls

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5. In the balanced equation of the following reaction,
a
the ratio of is a
b

a CaCO 3+ b H 3 PO 4 ⟶ p Ca3 ( PO 4 )2 +q CO 2+ r H 2 O

2 3
(a) 3 (b) 2
1 7
(c) 2 (d) 5

40
6. In the nucleus of 20 Ca there are
(a) 40 protons and 20 electrons
(b) 20 protons and 40 electrons
(c) 20 protons and 20 neutrons
(d) 20 protons and 40 neutrons

CHEMISTRY 7. Na+ ion is isoelectronic with

+ +2
CH 4 (a) Li (b) Mg
1. 1 mol of contains +2 +2
23 (c) Ca (d) Ba
(a) 6 . 02×10 atoms of H
8. The element used by Rutherford in his famous
(b) 4 g atom of Hydrogen
scattering experiment was
(c) 1 .81×10 molecules of CH 4
23
(a) Gold (b) Tin
(d) 3.0 g of carbon (c) Silver (d) Lead

2. On electrical decomposition of 150 ml dry and pure

O2 O 9. According to heisenberg uncertainty principle
, 10% of 2 gets changed to O, then the volume of
h
gaseous mixture after reaction and volume of 2 Δx×Δp≥
(a) E=mc (b) 4π
remaining gas left after passing in turpentine oil will
be h h
λ= Δx×Δp=
(c) p (d) 6π
(a) 105 ml (b) 149 ml
(c) 128 ml (d) 125 ml
3. A mixture of sand and iodine can be separated by 10. Which set of quantum numbers are not possible from
(a) Crystallisation (b) Sublimation the following
(c) Distillation (d) Fractional distillation 1
n=3 , l=2 , m=0 , s=−
(a) 2
4. Which of the following sets of components form
1
homogeneous mixture? n=3 , l=2 , m=−2 , s=−
(b) 2
(a) Phenol + Water
1
(b) Sugar + Benzene n=3 , l=3 , m=−3 , s=−
(c) 2
(c) Silver chloride + Water
1
n=3 , l=0 , m=0 , s=−
(d) Ethyl alcohol + Water (d) 2

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11. Group comprising of all metals is
(d) and
(a) IIIA (b) IVA
(c) VIIA (d) IIA

17. Which of the following structures is

12. The ionization energy of an element is the most preferred and hence of lowest
(a) The same as the electron affinity of the element
(b) Equal in magnitude but of opposite sign to the energy for ?
electron affinity of the element
(c) The energy released when an electron is added
to an atom of the element
(d) The energy required to remove the outermost
electron of an atom of the element (a) (b)

13. With reference to concept of ionisation potential,

which one of the following sets are correct
(a) U > K >Cs (b) B>U > K
(c) Cs>U > B (d) Cs<U < K (c) (d)

14. Which is correct about ionisation potential

(a) It is independent of atomic radii 18. Given below are two statements : one is
(b) It increases with increase in atomic radii labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R.
(c) It remains constant with increase in atomic radii
(d) It decreases with increase in atomic radii Assertion A : Dipole-dipole interactions
are the only non-covalent interactions,
resulting in hydrogen bondformation
15. Assertion: The elements become more metallic as we go
from left to right across the periodic table. Reason R : Fluorine is the most
Reason: The elements become more non‐metallic as we electronegative element and hydrogen
go down a group. bonds in HF are symmetrical In thelight
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. of the above statements, choose the
(b)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of
most appropriate answer from the
A.
options given below :
(c)A is true but R is false.
(d)Both A and R are false. (a) A is false but R is true

(b) Both A and R are true and R is the

16. Which one of the following pairs is correct explanation of A
isostructural (i.e., having the same
shape and hybridization)? (c) A is true but R is false

(d) Both A and R are true and R is not

(a) and
the correct explanation of A

(b) and

19. In the following the correct bond order

(c) and
sequence is:

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(d) Reduction by 5 electrons
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
28. In the chemical reaction Cl 2 + H 2 S →2 HCl+ S , the
oxidation number of sulphur changes from
20.Bonding in which of the following diatomic
molecule(s) become(s) stronger, on the basis of (a) 0 to 2 (b) 2 to 0
MO Theory, by removal of an electron ? (c) – 2 to 0 (d) – 2 to – 1
(a) NO (b) N2
(c) O2 (d) C2
H C O
29. Oxidation number of carbon in 2 2 4 is
21. Identify the molecule which has one lone pair of electrons, (a) + 4 (b) + 3
tetrahedral geometry and trigonal pyramidal shape.
(c) + 2 (d) – 2
(a)

(b) −
30. The oxidation state of I in H 4 IO6 is
(c) (a) + 7 (b) + 5
(c) + 1 (d) – 1
(d)

22. Which of the following molecule has the maximum 31. The equilibrium constant of the reaction H 2 (g )+I 2 ( g)
dipole moment? ⇌ 2 HI ( g) is 64. If the volume of the container is
(a) NH 3 (b) CS2 reduced to one fourth of its original volume, the value
(c) C 2 H 6 (d) NCl3 of the equilibrium constant will be
23. Which of the following is the correct order of (a) 16 (b) 32
increasing number of lone pair of electrons on the (c) 64 (d) 128
central atom?
(a) IF 5 < XeF 2< IF 7< ClF3 32. For the reaction PCl 5 ( g ) ⇌ PCl 3 ( g )+Cl 2 (g ) , the
forward reaction at constant temperature is favoured
(b) IF 7 <ClF 3 < XeF 2< IF 5
by
(c) IF 7 < XeF 2 <ClF 2< IF 5
(a) Introducing an inert gas at constant volume
(d) IF 7 < IF 5 <ClF 3< XeF 2
24. The hybridizations of the central atom in the (b) Introducing chlorine gas at constant volume
molecules BF3 , BeF 2 , BrF3 are respectively (c) Introducing an inert gas at constant pressure
(a) sp2 , sp , sp3 d (b) sp , sp 2 , sp3 (d) Decreasing the volume of the container
(c) sp3 , sp , sp3 d (d) sp2 , sp 3 , dsp 2
25. Identify the molecule in which the arrangement of
electron pairs around the central atom is octahedral 2 SO 3 2 SO 2 +O 2 K c =100 , α=1
33. ⇌ . If , half of the
and shape is not octahedral. SO 3
(a) SF6 (b) XeF 6 reaction is completed, the concentration of and
BrF XeO SO2 O2
(c) 5 (d) 2 F4 are equal, the concentration of is
H 2 S+ NO 2 → H 2 O+ NO+ S . H 2 S 1
26. In the reaction is SO 2
(a) Oxidised (b) Reduced (a) 0.001 M (b) 2
(c) Precipitated (d) None of these SO2
(c) 2 times of (d) Data incomplete

− 2+
27. In acid solution, the reaction MnO 4 → Mn involves 34.
(a) Oxidation by 3 electrons
(b) Reduction by 3 electrons
(c) Oxidation by 5 electrons

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−¿(aq) ¿

(i) H 3 PO 4 (aq) ⇌ H +¿(aq)+H 2 PO4 ¿ (d) 1-Fluoro-1-iodo-2-bromo-2-ethyl-2-

+ ¿(aq)+ HPO 4
2−¿ (aq )¿
¿ nitroethane.
(ii) H 2 PO −¿(aq)⇌
4
H ¿

39. Which structure is incorrect as per the given name :

3−¿ (aq )¿
+¿( aq)+ PO4 ¿
¿
(iii) HPO2−¿(aq)⇌
4
H

The equilibrium constants for the above reactions at a

certain temperature are K 1 , K 2 and K 3 respectively. The (a) 2,3-Dimethylpentane
equilibrium constant for the reaction
−¿(aq) ¿

H 3 PO 4 (aq) ⇌ 3 H +¿(aq) PO 4 ¿
in terms of K 1 , K 2 and
K 3 is
K1 (b) 3-Ethyl-4-methylhexane
(a) K 1 + K 2 + K 3 (b)
K 2+ K 3
K3
(c) (d) K 1 K 2 K 3
K1 K2
(c) 3-Ethyl-2,2-dimethylhexane
35. pH of an aqueous solution of NH 4 Cl is
(a) 7 (b) ¿ 7 (d)4-Methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)octane
(c) ¿ 7 (d) 1
36. Which is not the homologue of the propene.

(a) Ethene (b) But-2-ene

(c) Pent-1-ene (d) Cyclopropane

40. The correct IUPAC name of the given compound is :
37. IUPAC name of (CH3)2CHCH(CH3)2is :

(a) 2,2-Dimethylbutane

(b) 2,3-Dimethylbutane (a) 3–Chloro–1–fluoro–1–iodo–4–methoxybut–1–

en–3–yne
(c) 2,4-Dimethylbutane
(b)4–Methoxy–2–chloro–1–fluoro–1–
(d) 1-Methylpentane
iodobutenyne
38. The correct IUPAC name of the following
(c)3–Chloro–4–fluoro–4–iodo–1–
compound is :
methoxybutenyne

(d) 2-Chloro-1-fluoro-1-iodo-4-methoxybut-1-en-
3-yne

41. The correct IUPAC name of is :

(a)1-Bromo-1-ethyl-2-fluoro-2-iodo-1-nitroethane.
(a) 1-Cyclopentyl-1, 1-dimethylbutane
(b) 3-Bromo-4-fluoro-4-iodo-3-nitrobutane. (b) 2-Cyclopentyl-2-methylpentane

(c) 2-Bromo-1-fluoro-1-iodo-2-nitrobutane. (c) 2-Methyl-2-cyclopropylpentane

(d) 1, 1-Dimethyl-1-cyclopentylbutane

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46. Indicate the wrongly named compound :

(a) (4–Methyl–1–
42. has the IUPAC name-
pentanal)
(a) 1- Ethyl-3,3-dimethyl cyclohexane
(b) 3- Ethyl-1,3-dimethyl cyclohexane
(c) 3- Ethyl-1,1-dimethyl cyclohexane (b) (4–Methyl–2–
(d) 3,3-Dimethyl -1-ethyl cyclohexane pentyn–1–oic acid)

43. The IUPAC name of (c) (2–Methyl–1–

Br pentanoic acid)
|
CH 3  CH  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2  C  CH 3
| | (d) (3–Hexen–5–one)
OH Br is :

(a) 6, 6-Dibromoheptan-2-ol
(b) 2, 2-Dibromoheptan-6-ol 47. The IUPAC name of CH3–CH2–NH–CH3 is :-

(a) Methylethylamine
(c) 6, 6-Dibromoheptan-2-al
(b) 1-methylaminoethane
(d) None of these
(c) N-methylethanamine
(d) N-ethylmethanamine

44. The IUPAC name of the

CH 3 CH CH  CH 2  CH  CH 2COOH 48. Which of the following homologous series has
|
NH 2 incorrect general formula :-
is :
(a) Alkyne CnH2n–2
(a) 3-Aminohept-5-enoic acid
(b) Alkanol CnH2n+2O
(b) 5-Aminohex-2-enecarboxylic acid
(c) Alkanal CnH2n+1O
(c) 3-Aminohept-4-enoic acid
(d) Carboxylic acid CnH2nO2
(d) 5-Aminohept-2-enoic acid

49. How many structure isomers could be obtained from

the alkane C6H14 ?
45. The IUPAC name of the is :
(a) Four (b) Five
(a) 3-Formylbutan-1-ol (b) 2-
Methylbutane-4-ol-1-al (c) Six (d) Seven

(c) 4-Hydroxy-2-methylbutanal (d) 2-

Methyl-4-hydroxybutanal

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50. The correct IUPAC name of the compound 3. Which of the following groups belong to protozoans?
(a) Amoeboid, flagellates, ciliates, sporozoans
(b) Diatoms, amoeboid, ciliates, sporozoans
(c) Desmids, ciliates, flagellates, amoebiod
(d) Dinoflagellates, ciliates, Plasmodium, amoeboid
is :
4. In Basidiomycetes, the mycelium is
(a) 4-Ethyl-3-propylhex-1-ene (a) branched and aseptate (b) branched and septate
(c) unbranched and septate (d) None of these
(b) 3-Ethyl-4-ethenylheptane
5. In Deuteromycetes, the mycelium is
(c) 3-Ethyl-4-propylhex-1-ene (a) septate and branched (b) septate and unbranched
(c) coenocytic (d) multinucleated
(d) 3-(1-ethylpropyl)hex-1-ene
6. The genetic material of rabies virus is
(a) double-stranded RNA (b) single-stranded RNA
(c) double-stranded DNA (d) None of these

7. Which of the statement(s) given below is/are correct?

(a) Kingdom–Protista forms a link between monerans and the
other organisms like plants, animal and fungi
(b) Protists reproduce asexually and sexually by a process
involving cell fusion and zygote formation
(c) Being eukaryotes, the protistan cell body contains a well-
defined nucleus and other membrane bound organelles
(d) All of the above

8. Analyse the following statements about class–

Ascomycetes.
I. Mycelium is branched and septate.
II. The asexual spores are conidia, produced on the special
myceliumcalled conidiophores.
III. Sexual spores are called ascospores, which are produced
in sac-like asci.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II (b) I and III

(c) II and III (d) All of these

9. Select the correctly written scientific name of mango

which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus.
(a) Mangiferaindica Linn
(b) Mangiferaindica
(c) Mangifera Indica
(d) Mangiferaindica Car. Linn.
10. In hierarchical classification, class is placed between
(a) kingdom and phylum (b) order and family
(c) phylum and order (d) family and genus

11. The Indian Botanical Garden is located at

BIOLOGY (a) Howrah (b) London

1. Mycoplasma are classified under which of the following (c) Lucknow (d) Kew
kingdoms?
(a) Animalia (b) Protista 12. Match the following columns.
(c) Monera (d) Fungi Column I Column II
A. Family 1. tuberosum
2. In which of the following groups, the cell wall has stiff B. Kingdom 2. Polymoniales
cellulose plate on the outer surface? C. Order 3. Solanum
(a) Diatoms (b) Red algae D. Species 4. Plantae
(c) Dinoflagellates (d) Slime moulds E. Genus 5. Solanaceae

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Codes (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the
A B C D E correct explanation of Assertion
(a) 5 4 2 1 3 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct
(b) 5 4 1 3 2 explanation of Assertion.
(c) 1 23 5 4
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(d) 2 1 3 4 5
(d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
13. Classification on the basis of all observed characters is 22. In …A… type of inflorescence, main axis terminates in
known as a flower, hence is limited in growth and flowers are
(a) number and codes taxonomy born in …B… succession. Choose the correct option to
(b) numerical taxonomy replace A and B.
(c) countable taxonomy A B
(d) numerical information taxonomy (a) racemose acropetal
(b) racemose basipetal
14. Algae occur in/on (c) cymose acropetal
(a) fresh and marine water (b) moist stones (d) cymose basipetal
(c) moist soil and wood (d) All of these
23. In marginal placentation, the ovules are arranged
15. Algae include unicellular forms like ...A..., filamentous (a) along the inner wall of carpel in a syncarpous ovary
forms like ...B... and colonial forms like ...C... . Here, A, (b) along the margin of single carpel
B and C refer to (c) in the middle of the ovary
(a) A–Chlamydomonas, B–Volvox, C–Ulothrix (d) to the base of the ovary
(b) A–Ulothrix, B–Volvox, C–Chlamydomonas
(c) A–Volvox, B–Ulothrix, C–Chlamydomonas 24. Which floral family has (9) +1arrangement of anthers in
(d) A–Chlamydomonas, B–Ulothrix, C–Volvox the androecium?
(a) Malvaceae (b) Rutaceae
16. In pteridophytes, spore germinates to give rise to (c) Fabaceae (d) None of these
(a) thalloid gametophyte called prothallus
(b) thalloid sporophyte called prothallus 25. Study carefully the given floral diagram and select the
(c) thalloid sporocarp option, which correctly represents the related Floral
(d) thalloid, photosynthetic sporophyte Formula (FF).

17. Zooidogamy is found in

(a) Cedrus (b) Pinus
(c) Cycas (d) Both (b) and (c)

18. Endosperm formation begins with

(a) the establishment of the suspensor
(b) the fusion of the antipodals
(c) the fertilization of the polar nuclei
(d) the syncytial development of the embryo

19. Which of the statements given below are incorrect about

pteridophytes?
(a) They are called vascular cryptogams
(b) They produce seeds rather than spores
(c) They are used for medicinal purposes
(d) They are used as soil binders

20. Consider the following statements about the

gametophytic stage. 26. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for a
(I) Generation that produces the gametes. leaf ?
(II) Generation that produces the spores. (a) It is a lateral, flattened structure borne on stem
(III) Generation that produces vascular tissue. (b) Stipule is a lateral appendage of leaf base
(IV) The diploid generation. (c) Leaves develop from node and bear axillary bud in its axil
Choose the correct statements given above. (d) All of the above
(a) I and II (b) Only I
(c) II and III (d) I, II, III and IV 27. Select the incorrect matching:
(a) Ornamental ‒ Tulip, gloriosa, lupin, sweet pea, petunia
21. Assertion: Rhizoids of liverworts are unicellular.
Reason: Liverworts cannot develop multicellular (b) Medicine ‒ Muliathi, belladonna, aloe
rhizoids.
(c) Fodder ‒ Sesbania, trifolium

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(d) Edible oil ‒ Soyabean, groundnut, colchicines (d) Cells involved in energy consumption have large number of
mitochondria.
28. The "Eyes" of the potato tuber are
(a) Axillary buds (b) Root buds 38. Study the names of different cell organelles /structure
(c) Flower buds (d) Shoot buds given below.
29. The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut Lysosome, Mitochondria, Ribosome, Chromosome,
is: Thylakoid, Flagella, Peroxisomes.
(a) Cotyledon (b) Endosperm How many of the above are bound by single membrane?
(c) Pericarp (d) Perisperm (a) Six (b) Two
30. ‘Omnis cellula-e-cellula, (all cells arise from pre-existing (c) Four (d) Three
cells). Who gave this concept and modified the cell 39. Which of the following is the collection of sacks
theory? containing chlorophyll?
(a) Schleiden and Schwann (a) Outer Membrane (b) Inner Membrane
(b) Virchow (c) Stroma (d) Thylakoids
(c) Robert Brown 40. Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll-a and the action
(d) Leeuwenhoek spectrum of photosynthesis is identical because
chlorophyll-a
31. Choose the odd one out with respect to the composition (a) absorbs the maximum light
of plant cell wall. (b) absorbs the minimum light
(a) Cellulose (b) Galactans (c) absorbs the red and blue light
(c) Pectins and proteins (d) Hemicellulose (d) is found most abundantly

32. Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following 41. Select the correct pathway for electron transport during
cells in an ascending order of their size. Choose the photosynthesis.
correct option among the followings.
I. Mycoplasma
II. Ostrich eggs
III. HumanRBC
IV. Bacteria
(a) I, IV, III, II (b) I, II, III, IV
(c) II, I, III, IV (d) III, II, I, IV
42. Plants are divided into two groups based on the
33. Which of the following statements is true for a secretory pathways they use for CO2 assimilation during
cell? biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis. These are
(a) Golgi apparatus is absent (a) C3 plants forming PGA and C4 plants forming OAA,
(b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is easilyobserved in respectively as first products of CO2 fixation
the cell (b) C3 plants forming OAA and C4 plants forming PGA,
(c) Only Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is present respectively as first product of CO2 fixation
(d) Secretory granules are formed in nucleus (c) C3 plants forming PEP and C4 plants forming OAA,
respectively as first product of CO2 fixation
34. Cell wall is - (d) None of the above
(a) Nonliving and impermeable
(b) Dead and permeable
(c) Nonliving, rigid and permeable
(d) Living and selective permeable 43.
(a) Ligase (b) Oxidoreductase
35. Which one of the following is not considered as a part of
(c) PEP carboxylase (d) Lyase
the endomembrane system ?
(a) Golgi complex (b) Peroxisome 44. Fixation of one molecule of CO2 requires how much (in
(c) Vacuole (d) Lysosome C4 plants) ATP and NADPH, respectively?
36. Of the following organelles, which group is involved in (a) 5/2 (b) 2/5
manufacturing substances needed by the cell? (c) 2/3 (d) 3/2
(a) lysosome, vacuole, ribosome
(b) ribosome, rough ER, smooth ER 45. With reference to factors affecting the rate of
(c) vacuole, rough ER, smooth ER photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not
(d) smooth ER, ribosome, vacuole correct?
37. All are correct except (a) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full
(a) Number of membranes separating intrathylakoid space from sunlight
cytoplasm is 3. (b) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration upto 0.05% can
(b) Protoplast includes cell wall enhance CO2 fixation rate
(c) Plasmodesmata connections help in movement of substances (c) C3 plants respond to higher temperature with enhanced
between plant cells. photosynthesis, while C4 plants have much lower temperature
optimum

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(d) Tomato is a greenhouse crop, which can be grown in CO2 (b) nature of the substrate
enriched atmosphere for higher yield (c) amount of carbon dioxide released
46. The enzyme that is not found in a C3 plant is (d) amount of oxygen utilized
(a) RuBP carboxylase (b) PEP carboxylase
(c) NADP reductase (d) ATP synthase 56. Maximum amount of energyper molecule is liberated
on oxidation of
47. The initial enzyme of Calvin cycle is (a) fats (b) proteins
(a) Ribulose 1, 5 diphosphate carboxylase (b) Triose (c) starch (d) None of these
phosphate dehydrogenase
(c) Phosphofructokinase (d) Cytochrome 57. Consider the following statements.
oxidase (I) Fermentation can be performed by eukaryotes.
48. In an experiment studying photosynthesis performed (II) Electron transport chain can occur without the presence
during the day, you provide a plant with radioactive of oxygen.
carbon dioxide (14co2) as a metabolic tracer. The 14c is (III) Complete oxidation of glucose does not require the
incorporated first into oxaloacetic acid. The plant is best presence of oxygen.
characterized as a Which one of the following options contain the correct
(a) c4 plant (b) c3 plant statements.
(c) CAM plant (d) Heterotroph (a) Only III (b) I and III
49. How many molecules of H20 would be consumed to
support one Calvin Cycle? (c) I and II (d) Only I
(a)3 (b)2 (c)5 (d)6
58. Ubiquinone transfer its electron to
50. In anaerobic respiration in yeast (a) Complex II (b) Complex I
(a) H O 2 and CO2 are the end products (c) Cytochrome c (d) Matrix
(b) CO2, ethanol and energy are the end products 59. Glycerol enters the respiratory pathway at
(c) CO2 and H O 2 are the end products (a) Glu-6‒phosphate (b) PGA
(d) CO2, acetic acid and energy are the end products (c) PGAL (d) PEP
60. The tracheary elements develop elastic lignocellulosic
51. Which one of the following is the product of aerobic secondary cell walls to
respiration? (a) withstand high temperature
(a) CO2 and H2 O (b) Ethyl alcohol (b) carry water to long distances under extreme tension
(c) Lactic acid (d) Pyruvic acid (c) withstand high light conditions
(d) Both (a) and (b)
52. Which one of the following reactions is an example of
oxidative decarboxylation? 61. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by
(a) Conversion of succinate to fumarate the application of
(b) Conversion of fumarate to malate (a) cytokinin (b) ethylene
(c) Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl Co-A (c) auxins (d) gibberellic acid
(d) Conversion of citrate to isocitrate
62. A long day plant having a critical photoperiod of 13
53. Which of these steps in Krebs’ cycle indicates substrate hours will flower in which condition?
level phosphorylation? Duration of light period Duration of dark period
(a) Conversion of succinyl acid to a-ketoglutaric acid (a) 13 11
(b) Conversion of succinic acid to malic acid (b) 11 13
(c) Conversion of succinyl Co-A to succinic acid (c) 12 12
(d) Conversion of malic acid to oxaloacetic acid (d) 10 14
54. The three boxes in this diagram represent the three 63. Which of the following is/are factor causing seed
major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic respiration. dormancy?
Arrows represent net reactants or products. Arrows (a) Impermeable and hard seed coat
numbered 4, 8 and 12 can all be (b) Chemical inhibitors like abscisic acids, phenolic acids and
para-ascorbic acids
(c) Immature embryos
(d) All of the above

64. The affect of apical dominance can be overcome by

which of the following hormone?
(a) NADH (b) ATP (a) IAA (b) Ethylene
(c) H 2O (d) FAD+ or FADH2 (c) Gibberellin (d) Cytokinin
55. The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration 65.
would depend on the (I) C2 H4 promotes leaf senescence
(a) nature of enzymes involved

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(II) C2 H4 speeds the ripening of fruits (d) None of the above
(Ill) C2 H4 causes apical hook formation
(IV) C2 H4 promotes horizontal growth of seedling and 72. Consider the following statements.
swelling of axis (I) Parathyroid gland regulates calcium and phosphate level
(V) C2 H4 promotes male flowers in cucumber thereby in the blood.
increasing the yield (II) PTHstimulates reabsorption ofCa 2+ by renal tubules and
Which one is false? increasesCa 2+ absorption from digested food.
(a)All (b) I and V Select the correct option.
(c) II and IV (d)V (a) Both I and II are true (b) Both I and II are false
66. Ethephon hastens the fruit ripening in tomatoes and (c) I is true, II is false (d) I is false, II is true
apple and accelerates abscission in flowers and fruits.
Above statement indicates that ethephon must release - 73. Consider the following statements.
(a)ABA (b)C2H4 (I) ACTH, GH,MSHand oxytocin are polypeptide hormones.
(c)IAA (d)GA7 (II) Oestradiol and progesterone are amino acid derivative
67. The below diagram shows the stages of seed germination hormones.
– Select the correct option.
(a) Both I and II are true (b) Both I and II are false
(c) I is true, II is false (d) I is false, II is true

74. Consider the following statements.

(I) Adrenaline increases blood pressure during emergency
situations.
(II) Nor-adrenaline has no role in regulating blood pressure.
Select the correct option.
(a) Both I and II are true
(b) Both I and II are false
(c) I is true, II is false
(d) I is false, II is true

Now identify A, B, C and D respectively - 75. Consider the following statements.

(a) Plumule, Cotyledons, Epicotyl and Hypocotyl (I) Double vision, irritability and hypoglycemia are caused
(b) Radicle, Cotyledons, Epicotyl and Hypocotyl due to hypersecretion of glycogen.
(c) Mesocotyl, Cotyledons, Epicotyl and Hypocotyl (II) In hypoglycemia, there is rapid movement of glucose
(d) Root hair, Cotyledons, Epicotyl and Hypocotyl from blood to hepatocytes and adipocytes.
Select the correct option.
68. Auxins are (a) Both I and II are true
(A) produced by growing apices of roots and shoots. (b) Both I and II are false
(B) used to inhibit rooting in stem cuttings. (c) I is true, II is false
(C) widely applied in tea plantations. Select the most appropriate (d) I is false, II is true
option.
76. _________ acts on the smooth muscles of our body and
(a) A, B and C are correct
stimulate their contraction.
(b) B and C are correct (a) LH (b) FSH
(c) A and C are correct (c) Oxytocin (d) GH
(d) A and B are correct 77. Which is steroid hormone?
69. The cells thriving in the maturation phase are found (a) GH (b) Insulin
(a) at the apex of root tip. (c) Aldosterone (d) Epinephrine
(b) proximal to root and shoot apex. 78. Which of the following factors is responsible for the
(c) more proximal to meristematic phase zone. formation of concentrated urine?
(a) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards inner medullary
(d) farther away from the apex of roots. interstitium in the kidneys
70. Pineal gland is located on the (b) Secretion of erythropoietin by juxtaglomerular complex
(a) ventral side of forebrain (c) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular filtration
(b) lateral side of forebrain (d) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone
(c) dorsal side of forebrain
(d) back side of forebrain 79. The following substances are the excretory products in
animals. Choose the least toxic form among them
71. The peptide hormone, ‘Atrial Natriuretic Factor’ (ANF) (a) urea (b) uric acid
is secreted by (c) ammonia (d) CO2
(a) Graafian follicle
(b) Atrial walls 80. Glomerules along with Bowman’s capsule is called
(c) Both (a) and (b) (a) Renal corpuscle (b) Malpighian tubule

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(c) Malpighian body (d) Both (a) and (c) (IV) Increase in intrapulmonary pressure.
81. Which one of these is not a part of uriniferous tubule? Choose the correct option.
(a) Loop of Henle (b) Collecting duct (a) IIIIIIIV (b) IVIIIIII
(c) Bowman’s capsule (d) Distal convoluted tubule (c) IVIIIIII (d) IVIIIIII
82. Which of the following segment allows the passage of
small amount of urea into modularly interstitium to 89. On an average, a healthy human breathes how many
keep up the osmolarity? times/minute
(a) PCT (b) DCT (a) 20 to 40 (b) 72 to 75
(c) HL (d) Collecting duct (c) 3 to 5 (d) 12 to 16
83. Select the incorrect statement from the following. 90. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human
(a) Liver is the second largest gland in our body. respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D. Select the
(b) Sebum provides protective oily covering for skin. option which gives correct identification and main
(c) Bile contains substance like bilirubin, biliverdin, cholesterol, function and/or characteristics
degraded steroid hormones,
vitamins and drugs are passed with digestive wastes.
(d) Other than kidneys lungs, liver and skin also helps in the
elimination of excretory wastes.
84. Which is the ultimate method for the correction of acute
renal failure?
(a) Haemodialysis (b) Kidney
transplantation
(c) Blood transfusion (c) Angioplasty
(a) B-pleural membrane-surround ribs on both sides to provide
85. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the cushion against rubbing.
nephron will result in (b) C-Alveoli-thin walled vascular bag like structures for
(a) more concentrated urine exchange of gases.
(b) no change in quality and quality of urine (c) D-Lower end of lungs-diaphragm pulls it down during
(c) no urine formation inspiration
(d) A-trachea-long tube supported by complete cartilaginous
(d) more diluted urine rings for conducting inspired air
86. In the given diagram of mechanism of breathing, what 91. Asthma may be attributed to :
does A, Band Cdepict? (a) bacterial infection of the lungs
(b) allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs
(c) inflammation of the trachea
(d) accumulation of fluid in the lungs
92. Gaseous exchange takes place through diffusion
membrane. Which of the following is not related to
diffusion membrane.
(a) Its total thickness is more than a millimetre
(b) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli
(c) Endothelium of alveolar capillaries
(a) A–Air goes inside to lungs, B–Ribs and sternum returned to
(d) A basement membrane
original position, C– Diaphragm contracted
(b) A–Air expelled from lungs, B–Ribs and sternum returned to
93. The vital capacity of the lung signifies the volume of air
original position, C–Diaphragm relaxed and arched upward
breathed in :
(c) A–Air expelled from lungs, B–Ribs and sternum go upward,
(a) During normal inspiration
C–Diaphragm relaxed and arched upward
(b) With forcible expiration
(d) A–Air goes inside to lungs, B–Ribs and sternum go upward,
(c) With forcible inspiration
C–Diaphragm relaxed and arched upward
(d) With deep inspiration and exhaled out by forcible expiration
87. Human beings have a significant ability to maintain and
94. Schwann cells, form a myelin sheath around the
moderate the respiratory rhythm to suit the demands of
(a) dendrite (b) cell body
the body tissues. This is achieved by
(c) axon (d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) arterial system
(b) systemic vein system
95. Which part constitutes the major part of the brain?
(c) neural system
(a) Cerebrum (b) Hypothalamus
(d) cardiac system
(c) Thalamus (d) None of these
88. Arrange the given steps of expiration in the sequence of
96. Consider the following statements regarding white
event occurring first.
matter of the brain.
(I) Relaxation of the diaphragm and sternum.
(I) White matter of the brain is usually opaque in
(II) Reduction of the pulmonary volume.
appearance.
(III) Expulsion of air from the lungs.

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(II) White matter of the brain is white in colour but
sometimes it is found to be grey.
(III) White matter of the brain is mostly formed of
medullated nerve fibres.
(IV) White matter of the brain is formed of cell bodies of
nerve fibres.
Which of the statement (s) above is/are correct?
(a) I and III (b) II and IV
(c) I and IV (d) II and III

97. Which of the following system relays impulse from CNS

to skeletal muscles?
(a) Somatic neural system
(b) Sympathetic neural system
(c) Parasympathetic neural system
(d) Autonomic neural system
98. In nocturnal birds, the retina mostly contains
(a) Cones (b) Rods
(c) Both in equal numbers (d) None of these
99. Identify A to F in the given figure.

(a) A–Cochlear nerve, B–Incus, C–Eustachian tube, D–Cochlea,

E–External auditory canal, F–Tympanic membrane
(b) A–External auditory canal, B–Eustachian tube, C–Temporal
bone, D–Steps in oval window, E–Tympanic membrane, F–
Cochlear nerve
(c) A–Cochlea, B–Tympanic membrane, C–Incus, D–Cochlear
nerve, E–Eustachian tube, F–External auditory canal
(d) A–Temporal bone, B–Steps in oval window, C–Cochlear
nerve, D–Eustachian tube, E–Tympanic membrane, F–External
auditory canal
100.Tympanic membrane consists of
(a) Skin on outside
(b) Connective tissue in middle part
(c) Mucus membrane on inside
(d) All of these

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