10th Grade Question Bank[1]

GRADE X
Question Bank (MATHEMATICS)

Chapter-1 Real Numbers
1 marks:
1. If two positive integers p and q can be expressed as 𝑝 = 𝑎𝑏2 and 𝑞 = 𝑎3 𝑏, where a

and b are prime numbers then 𝐿𝐶𝑀 (𝑎, 𝑏) = [BOARD 2024]
a) 𝑎𝑏 b) 𝑎 𝑏
2 2
c) 𝑎 𝑏
3 2
d) 𝑎 𝑏
3 3
2. If p and q are natural numbers and ‘p’ is the multiple of ‘q’, then what is the HCF
of ‘p’ and ‘q’? [BOARD 2023]
a) 𝑝𝑞 b) 𝑝 c) 𝑞 d) 𝑝 + 𝑞
3. Let a and b be two positive integers such that 𝑎 = 𝑝3 𝑞4 and 𝑏 = 𝑝2 𝑞3 , where p and q
are prime numbers. If 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (𝑎, 𝑏) = 𝑝𝑚 𝑞𝑛 and 𝐿𝐶𝑀 (𝑎, 𝑏) = 𝑝𝑟 𝑞 𝑠 , then (𝑚 + 𝑛)(𝑟 + 𝑠) =
a) 15 b) 30 c) 35 d) 72
4. The sum of exponents of prime factors in the prime factorization of 196 is
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 2
5. The sum of exponents of prime factors in the prime factorization of 1764 is
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
6. The values of x and y in the given figure are
a) 7, 13 b) 13, 7 c) 9, 12 d) 12, 9
7. The total number of factors of prime number is
a) 1 b) 0 c) 2 d) 3
8. The HCF and LCM of 12, 21, 15 respectively are
a) 3, 140 b) 12, 420 c) 3, 420 d) 420, 3
9. The HCF and LCM of 378, 180, 420 are [BOARD 2024]
a) 6, 3980 b) 12, 3780 c) 6, 3780 d) 12, 3980
10. If the product of two co-prime numbers is 553, then their HCF is [BOARD 2024]
a) 1 b) 553 c) 7 d) 79
11. The LCM of smallest two digit composite number and smallest composite number
is
a) 12 b) 4 c) 20 d) 44
Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

12. The ratio of LCM and HCF of the least composite and the least prime numbers is
[BOARD 2023]
a) 1: 2 b) 2: 1 c) 1: 1 d) 1: 3
13. If 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (336, 54) = 6, 𝐿𝐶𝑀 (336, 54) is
a) 2024 b) 3024 c) 1012 d) 1512
14. The value of ‘a’, if 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (𝑥, 18) = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐿𝐶𝑀 (𝑥, 18) = 36, is
a) 2 b) 5 c) 7 d) 4
15. HCF of two numbers is 27 and their LCM is 162. If one of the numbers is 54 then
the other number is
a) 36 b) 35 c) 9 d) 81
16. The LCM of two numbers is 14 times their HCF. The sum of LCM and HCF is 600.
If one number is 280 then the other number is
a) 20 b) 28 c) 60 d) 80
17. HCF of 144 and 198 is
a) 9 b) 18 c) 6 d) 12
18. 225 can be expressed as
a) 5 × 32 b) 52 × 3 c) 52 × 32 d) 53 × 3
19. 108 can be expressed as a product of its prime as
a) 23 × 32 b) 23 × 33 c) 22 × 32 d) 22 × 33
20. When 2120 is expressed as the product of its prime factors we get
a) 2 × 53 × 53 b) 23 × 5 × 53 c) 5 × 72 × 31 d) 52 × 7 × 33
21. 2√3 is _______ number.
a) Integer b) rational c) irrational d) whole
22. If a and b are two positive integers such that the least prime factor of a is 3 and the
least prime factor of b is 5. Then the least prime factor of (𝑎 + 𝑏) is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
23. Select the least number that is divisible by all numbers between 1 and 10 (both
inclusive)
a) 2520 b) 5040 c) 1010 d) 2020
24. If ‘n’ is a natural number then which of the following numbers end with zero?
[BOARD 2023]
a) (3 × 2)𝑛 b) (2 × 5)𝑛 c) (6 × 2)𝑛 d) (5 × 3)𝑛
32
25. If 𝑝2 = then p is_________ number. [BOARD 2023]
50
a) Whole b) integer c) rational d) irrational
26. If the 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (2520, 6600) = 40 and 𝐿𝐶𝑀 (2520, 6600) = 252 × 𝑘 then the value of k is
[BOARD 2024]
a) 1650 b) 1600 c) 165 d) 1625

27. If 𝑎 = 22 × 3𝑥 , 𝑏 = 22 × 3 × 5, 𝑐 = 22 × 3 × 7 and 𝐿𝐶𝑀 (𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐) = 3780 then x is
[BOARD 2024]
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
28. If 3825 = 3𝑥 × 5𝑦 × 17𝑧 then the value of 𝑥 + 𝑦 − 2𝑧 is [BOARD 2024]
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
29. A pair of irrational numbers whose product is a rational number is [BOARD 2024]
a) (√16, √4) b) (√5, √2) c) (√3, √27) d) (√36, √2)
30. The smallest irrational number by which √20 should be multiplied so as to get a
rational number, is [BOARD 2024]
a) √20 b) √2 c) 5 d) √5
31. The greatest number which divides 281 and 1249, leaving remainder 5 and 7
respectively, is [BOARD 2024]
a) 23 b) 276 c) 138 d) 69
Options for Assertion and Reasoning Questions:
a) Both assertion(A) and reason(R) are true and reason(R) is the correct
explanation of assertion(A)
b) Both assertion(A) and reason(R) are true but reason(R) is not the correct
c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false
d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true
32. Assertion (A): If HCF of 510 and 92 is 2 then their LCM is 32460.
Reason (R): 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (𝑎, 𝑏) × 𝐿𝐶𝑀 (𝑎, 𝑏) = 𝑎 × 𝑏
33. Assertion (A): If the product of two numbers is 5780 and their HCF is 17, then
their LCM is 340.
Reason (R): HCF is always factor of LCM.
34. Assertion (A): If 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (90, 144) = 18, 𝐿𝐶𝑀 (90, 144) = 720
35. Assertion (A): The HCF of two numbers is 5 and their product is 150 then their
LCM is 30.
Reason (R): 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (𝑎, 𝑏) + 𝐿𝐶𝑀 (𝑎, 𝑏) = 𝑎 × 𝑏
36. Assertion (A): The HCF of two numbers is 9 and their LCM is 2016. If one number
is 54 then the other number is 336.
37. Assertion (A): The number 6𝑛 never end with digit 0 for any natural number n.
Reason (R): The number 9𝑛 never end with digit 0 for any natural number n.

38. Assertion (A): The number 5𝑛 never ends with digit 0 for any natural number n.
Reason (R): Prime factorisation of 5 has only two factors, 1 and 5. [BOARD 2023]
39. Assertion (A): The largest number that divides 70 and 125 which leaves remainder
5 and 8 is 13.
Reason (R): 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (65, 117) = 13
2 marks:
1. Explain why (7 × 13 × 11) + 11 and (7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1) + 3 are composite
numbers. [BOARD 2024]
2. Explain whether (3 × 12 × 101) + 4 is a prime number or a composite number.
3. Given that 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (306, 1314) = 18. Find 𝐿𝐶𝑀(306, 1314).
4. Check whether 4𝑛 can end with the digit 0 for any natural number n.
[BOARD 2023 & BOARD 2024]
5. Show that 5√6 is an irrational number.
6. If two positive integers p and q are written as 𝑝 = 𝑎2 𝑏3 and 𝑞 = 𝑎3 𝑏 where a and b
are prime numbers then verify 𝐿𝐶𝑀(𝑝, 𝑞) × 𝐻𝐶𝐹 (𝑝, 𝑞) = 𝑝𝑞.
7. Prove that 3 + √5 is an irrational number. [BOARD 2023]
8. Prove that 6 − √7 is an irrational number. [BOARD 2023]
9. Two numbers are in the ratio 2:3 and their LCM is 180. What is the HCF of these
numbers? [BOARD 2023]
10. Using prime factorization find HCF and LCM of 96 and 120. [BOARD 2023]
11. Find the greatest number which divides 85 and 72 leaving remainders 1 and 2
respectively. [BOARD 2023]
12. Find the greatest 3-digit number which is divisible by 18, 24 and 36.
[BOARD 2023]
13. Find the least number which when divided by 12, 16 and 24 leaves remainder 7 in
each case. [BOARD 2023]
14. Find the smallest natural number by which 1200 should be multiplied so that the
square root of the product is a rational number.
15. In a school, there are two sections of class X. There are 40 students in the first
section and 48 students in the second section. Determine the minimum number of
books required for their class library so that they can be distributed equally among
students of both sections. [BOARD 2024]
16. Complete the following factor tree and find the composite number x.

17. Complete the following factor tree and find the composite number x.
3 marks:
1. Prove that √5 is an irrational number. [BOARD 2023]

2. Given that √3 is an irrational, prove that 5 + 2√3 is an irrational number.
[BOARD 2024]
3. Given that √5 is an irrational, prove that 2√5 − 3 is an irrational number.
2−√3
4. Given that √3 is an irrational, prove that 5
is an irrational number.
[BOARD 2024]
5. Given that √2 is an irrational, prove that 5 + 3√2 is an irrational number.
2
6. Prove that (√2 + √3) is irrational number, given that √6 is an irrational number.
[BOARD 2024]
7. Write the smallest number which is divisible by both 306 and 657.
8. Find HCF and LCM of 16 and 36 by prime factorization and check your answer.
9. Find HCF and LCM of 26, 65 and 117 using prime factorization. [BOARD 2023]
10. Find HCF and LCM of 378, 180 and 420 by prime factorization. Verify that 𝐻𝐶𝐹 ×
𝐿𝐶𝑀 = product of two numbers.
11. Find by prime factorization the LCM of the numbers 18180 and 7575. Also find
the HCF of two numbers. [BOARD 2023]
12. 144 cartons of Coke cans and 90 cartons of Pepsi cans are to be stacked in a
canteen. If each stack is of the same height and if it equal contain cartons of the
same drink, what would be the greatest number of cartons each stack would have?
13. Three bells toll at intervals of 9, 12, 15 minutes respectively. If they start tolling
together, after what time will they next toll together? [BOARD 2024]
14. Three bells ring at intervals of 6, 12 and 18 minutes. If all the three bells rang at 6
a.m., when will they ring together again? [BOARD 2023]
15. Four bells toll at an interval of 8, 12, 15 and 18 seconds respectively. All the four
begin to toll together. Find the number of times they toll together in one hour
excluding the one at the start.

16. The length, breadth and height of a room are 8m 50cm, 6m 25cm and 4m 75cm
respectively. Find the length of the longest rod that can measure the dimensions of
the room exactly.
17. On a morning walk, three persons step off together and their steps measure 40 cm,
42 cm and 45 cm respectively. Find the minimum distance each should walk so
that each can cover the same distance in complete steps.
18. The traffic lights at three different road crossings change after every 48 seconds, 72
seconds and 108 seconds respectively. If they change simultaneously at 7 a.m, at
what time will they change together next? [BOARD 2023]
19. National Art convention got registrations from students from all parts of the
country, of which 60 are interested in music, 84 are interested in dance and 108
students are interested in handicrafts. For optimum cultural exchange, organisers
wish to keep them in minimum number of groups such that each group consists of
students interested in the same artform and the number of students in each group
is the same. Find the number of students in each group. Find the number of
groups in each art form. How many rooms are required if each group will be
allotted a room?
20. In a teacher’s workshop the number of teacher teaching French, Hindi and English
are 48, 80 and 144 respectively. Find the minimum number of rooms required if in
each room the same numbers of teachers are seated and all of them are of same
subject. [BOARD 2024]
Case Based Questions:
1. February 14 is celebrated as International Book Giving Day and many countries in

the world celebrate this day. Some people in India also started celebrating this day
and donated the following number of books of various subjects to a public library:
History = 96, Science = 240, Mathematics = 336.
These books have to be arranged in minimum number of stacks such that
each stack contains books of only one subject and the number of books on
each stack is the same. [BOARD 2023]
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) How many books are arranged in each stack? 1
(ii) How many stacks are used to arrange all the Mathematics books? 1
(iii) (a) Determine the total number of stacks that will be used for arranging all
the books. 2
OR
(b) If the thickness of each book of History, Science and Mathematics is
1·8 cm, 2·2 cm and 2·5 cm respectively, then find the height of each stack of
History, Science and Mathematics books. 2

2. Three sets of English, Hindi and Mathematics
books have to be stacked in such a way that all
the books are stored topic wise and the height of
each stack is the same. The number of English
books is 96, the number of Hindi books is 240
and the number of Mathematics books is 336.
Assuming that the books are of the same
thickness.
(i) Find the number of stacks of Hindi books? 1

(ii) Find the number of stacks of English books? 2
OR
Find the number of stacks of Mathematics books? 2
(iii) What is the number of books that can be stored in each stack? 1
3. Teaching Mathematics through activities is a powerful approach that enhances

students’ understanding and engagement. Keeping this in mind, Ms. Muktha
planned a prime number game for class 5 students. She announces the number
2in her class and asked the first student to multiply it by a prime number and
then pass it to second student. Second student also multiplied it by a prime
number and passed it to third student. In this way by multiplying to a prime
number, the last student got 173250. [BOARD 2024]
Now, Muktha asked some questions as given below to the students:
(i) What is the least prime number used by students? 1
(ii) How many students are in the class? 2
OR
What is the highest prime number used by students? 2
(iii) Which prime number has been used maximum times? 1

GRADE X
Chapter-2 Polynomials
1 marks:
1. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial 𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 𝑘 is 2 then the value of k is
[BOARD 2023]
a) 10 b) -10 c) 5 d) -5
2. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial 𝑘𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 𝑘 is 2 then the value of k is
a) 5/6 b) -5/6 c) 6/5 d) -6/5
3. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial (𝑘 − 1)𝑥 2 + 𝑘𝑥 + 1 is -3 then the value of k is
a) 4/3 b) -4/3 c) 2/3 d) -2/3
4. If -1 is a zero of the polynomial 𝑘𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 𝑘, the value of k is
a) -4 b) -2 c) 2 d) 4
5. If -1 is a zero of the polynomial 𝑥 − 7𝑥 − 8 then other zero is,
2
a) 4 b) 8 c) 1 d) -4
6. If one zero of the polynomial 3𝑥 2 + 8𝑥 + 𝑘 is the reciprocal of the other, then value of
k is
a) 3 b) -3 c) 1/3 d) -1/3
7. If one zero of the polynomial 6𝑥 2 + 37𝑥 − (𝑘 − 2) is the reciprocal of the other, then
value of k is [BOARD 2023]
a) -4 b) -6 c) 4 d) 6
8. If one zero of the polynomial 𝑥 2 − 3𝑘𝑥 + 4𝑘 be twice the other, then the value of k is
[BOARD 2023]
1 1
a) -2 b) 2 c) d) −
2 2
9. If sum of the zeros of the quadratic polynomial 2𝑥 2 − 𝑘√2𝑥 + 1 is √2 then the value
of k is [BOARD 2024]
1
a) √2 b) 2 c) 2√2 d)
2
10. The sum of zeros of the polynomial √2𝑥 2 − 17 are [BOARD 2023]
17√2 17√2
a) b) − c) 0 d) 1
2 2
11. If the zeros of the quadratic polynomial 𝑥 2 + (𝑎 + 1)𝑥 + 𝑏 are 2 and -3 then
a) 𝑎 = −7, 𝑏 = −1 b) 𝑎 = 5, 𝑏 = −1 c) 𝑎 = 2, 𝑏 = −6 d) 𝑎 = 0, 𝑏 = −6

12. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 𝑥 2 − 1 then the value of 𝛼 + 𝛽 is
[BOARD 2023]
a) 2 b) 1 c) -1 d) 0
13. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 (𝛼 > 𝛽) are the zeros of a polynomial – 𝑥 2 + 8𝑥 + 9 then (𝛼 − 𝛽) is
[BOARD 2024]
a) -10 b) 10 c) ±10 d) 8
14. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 𝑝𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 3𝑝 and 𝛼 + 𝛽 = 𝛼𝛽 then p is
[BOARD 2024]
a) -2/3 b) 2/3 c) 1/3 d) -1/3
15. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 𝑎𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 𝑐 and 𝛼 + 𝛽 = 𝛼𝛽 = 10 then
[BOARD 2023]
1 5 5 1
a) 𝑎 = 5, 𝑐 = 2 b) 𝑎 = 1, 𝑐 = 2 c) 𝑎 = 2 , 𝑐 = 1 d) 𝑎 = 2 , 𝑐 = 5
16. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 𝑥 2 − 4√3𝑥 + 3 then the value of 𝛼 + 𝛽 − 𝛼𝛽 is
a) √3(2 − √3) b) √3(2 + √3) c) √3(4 + √3) d) √3(4 − √3)
1 1
17. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 1 then 𝛼
+ 𝛽 is [BOARD 2023]
a) -2 b) 2 c) 0 d) 1
1 1
18. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 4𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 7 then 𝛼
+ 𝛽 is [BOARD 2024]
7 7 3 3
a) 3
b) − 3 c) 7
d) − 7
19. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 2𝑥 2 − 13𝑥 + 6, then 𝛼 + 𝛽 is

a) -3 b) 3 c) 13/2 d) -13/2
20. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 2𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 5, the value of (𝛼 − 𝛽)2 is
a) 2 b) 1 c) -1 d) -6
21. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 2𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 5, the value of 𝛼 2 + 𝛽2 is
a) -7 b) 1 c) -1 d) -6
22. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 𝑥 − 𝑎𝑥 − 𝑏 then the value of 𝛼 2 + 𝛽2 is
2
[BOARD 2023]
a) 𝑎2 − 2𝑏 b) 𝑎2 + 2𝑏 c) 𝑏2 − 2𝑎 d) 𝑏2 + 2𝑎
1 1
23. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 2𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 5, the value of + is
𝛼2 𝛽2
4 4 4 4
a) b) − c) d) −
25 25 5 5

1 1
24. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 𝑥 2 − 𝑥 − 4 then the value of 𝛼
+ 𝛽 − 𝛼𝛽 is
a) 15/4 b) -15/4 c) 4 d) 15
25. If 𝑝 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑞 are the zeros of a polynomial 2𝑥 2 − 7𝑥 + 3 the value of 𝑝2 + 𝑞2 will be
39 5 37 4
a) 5
b) 39
c) 4
d) 37
26. If 𝑝 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑞 are the zeros of a polynomial 2𝑥 2 − 7𝑥 + 3 the value of 𝑝 + 𝑞 − 𝑝𝑞 will be

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
𝑚 𝑛
27. If 𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑛 are the zeros of a polynomial 3𝑥 2 + 11𝑥 − 4 then the value of 𝑛
+ 𝑚 will be
12 12 145 145
a) 145
b) − 145 c) − 12
d) 12
28. If a and b are the zeros of a polynomial 𝑥 + 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏, the value of a and b are
2
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and -2 c) -2 and 1 d) 2 and 1

29. If the sum of the zeros of the quadratic polynomial 𝑘𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 3𝑘 is equal to their
product then k
a) 1/3 b) -1/3 c) 2/3 d) -2/3
30. The sum and product of zeros of a quadratic polynomial are 2√3 and 3 respectively,
the quadratic polynomial will be [BOARD 2024]
2
a) 𝑥 2 + 2√3𝑥 − 3 b) (𝑥 − √3) c) 𝑥 2 − 2√3𝑥 − 3 d) 𝑥 2 + 2√3𝑥 + 3
31. The quadratic polynomial, the sum of whose zeros is -5 and their product is 6, is
a) 𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 + 6 b) 𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 6 c) 𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 6 d) −𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 + 6
2
32. The quadratic polynomial p(x) with 3 and − as sum and product of its zeros
5
2 2
a) 𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − b) 𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 2 c) 5𝑥 2 − 15𝑥 − 2 d) 15𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 +
5 5
33. The sum and product of the zeros of a quadratic polynomial are 3 and -10
respectively. The quadratic polynomial is
a) 𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 10 b) 𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 − 10 c) 𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 10 d) 𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 10
21 5
34. The quadratic polynomial whose sum and product of the zeros are 8
𝑎𝑛𝑑 16
, is
1 1 1
a) 16𝑥 2 − 42𝑥 + 5 b) 16
(16𝑥 2 − 42𝑥 + 5) c) 12
(16𝑥 2 + 42𝑥 + 5) d) 12
(16𝑥 2 + 42𝑥 − 5)
35. A quadratic polynomial whose zeros are -3 and 4, is

𝑥2 𝑥
a) 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 12 b) 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 12 c) 2
−2−6 d) 2𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 24
36. The maximum number of zeros a cubic polynomial can have, is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

2 2
37. Which of the following is a quadratic polynomial having zeros − 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3.
[BOARD 2023]
4 9
a) 4𝑥 2 − 9 b) 9 (9𝑥 2 + 4) c) 𝑥 2 + 4 d) 5(9𝑥 2 − 4)
1 1
38. Write a quadratic polynomial whose sum of zeros is − 4 and product of zeros is 4
a) 4𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 1 b) 𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 − 1 c) 2𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 − 1 d) 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 1
39. The quadratic polynomial whose zeros are reciprocals of the zeros of the polynomial
𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐, 𝑎 ≠ 0, 𝑐 ≠ 0
a) 𝑏𝑥 2 + 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑐 b) 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑐𝑥 + 𝑏 c) 𝑐𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑎 d) 𝑏𝑥 2 + 𝑐𝑥 + 𝑎
40. The zeros of the polynomial 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 are
a) 2, 4 b) 1, 3 c) 0, 2 d) 0, 4
41. The zeros of the polynomial 𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 𝑚(𝑚 + 3) are
a) 𝑚, 𝑚 + 3 b) −𝑚, 𝑚 + 3 c) 𝑚, −(𝑚 + 3) d) −𝑚, −(𝑚 + 3)
42. The zeros of the polynomial √3𝑥 2 − 8𝑥 + 4√3 are [BOARD 2023]
1 1 2
a) 2√3 , √3 b) 2√3 , c) , √3 d) , 2√3
√3 √3 √3
43. The zeros of the polynomial 4𝑥 2 − 12𝑥 + 9 will be [BOARD 2023 & BOARD 2024]
3 3 2 1 3 1 1 1
a) 2
,2 b) 3
,3 c) 2
,3 d) 3
,3
44. The zeros of polynomial 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 are reciprocal of each other if

a) 𝑏 = 2𝑎 b) 𝑐 = 𝑏 c) 𝑏 = 𝑎 d) 𝑐 = 𝑎
2
45. If zeros of the polynomial 𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 2𝑎 are 𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑎
then the value of a is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
46. If the zeros of the polynomial 𝑥 2 + (𝑎 + 1)𝑥 + 𝑏 are 2 and -3 then [BOARD 2023]
a) 𝑎 = −7, 𝑏 = −1 b) 𝑎 = 5, 𝑏 = −1 c) 𝑎 = 2, 𝑏 = −6 d) 𝑎 = 0, 𝑏 = −6
47. The zeros of the polynomial 𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 + 𝑞 are twice the zeros of the polynomial 4𝑥 2 −
5𝑥 − 6. The value of p is [BOARD 2024]
−5 5
a) 2
b) 2
c) -5 d) 10
48. If the square of difference of the zeros of the quadratic polynomial 𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 + 45 is

equal to 144 then the value of p is
a) ±9 b) ±12 c) ±15 d) ±18
49. The number of polynomials having zeros as -3 and 5 is [BOARD 2023]
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) more than 3

50. What should be the subtracted from the polynomial 𝑥 2 − 16𝑥 + 30 so that 15 is the
zero of the resulting polynomial? [BOARD 2024]
a) 30 b) 14 c) 15 d) 16
51. What should be the added from the polynomial 𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 4 so that 3 is the zero of
the resulting polynomial? [BOARD 2024]
b) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 5
52. If a polynomial p(x) is given by 𝑝(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 6 then the value of 𝑝(1) + 𝑝(4) is
[BOARD 2024]
a) 0 b) 4 c) 2 d) -4
53. A quadratic polynomial, one of whose zeros is 2 + √5 and the sum of whose zeros is
4, is [BOARD 2024]
a) 𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 − 1 b) 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 − 1 c) 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 1 d) 𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 1
54. Which of the following is not the graph of a quadratic polynomial?
55. The graph of 𝑦 = 𝑝(𝑥) where 𝑝(𝑥) is a polynomial in variable x, is as follows:
The number of zeros of p(x) is

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

56. In the given figure, the graph of a polynomial p(x) is shown. The number of zeros of
p(x) will be
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
57. The graph of 𝑦 = 𝑝(𝑥) is given for a polynomial 𝑝(𝑥). The number of zeros of 𝑝(𝑥)
from the graph is [BOARD 2023]
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
58. The graph of 𝑦 = 𝑝(𝑥) is given for a polynomial 𝑝(𝑥). The number of zeros of 𝑝(𝑥)
from the graph are [BOARD 2023]
5 7 5 7
a) -5, 7 b) − 2 , − 2 c) -5, 0, 7 d) −5, − 2 , 2 , 7


59. Assertion (A): If one zero of the polynomial (𝑘 2 + 4)𝑥 2 + 13𝑥 + 4𝑘 is reciprocal of
other then 𝑘 = 2.
Reason (R): If (𝑥 − 𝛼) is a factor of 𝑝(𝑥) then 𝑝(𝛼 ) = 0.
60. Assertion (A): The polynomial 𝑝(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 3 has two real zeros.
Reason (R): A quadratic polynomial can have at most two real zeros.
[BOARD 2023]
61. Assertion (A): If the graph of a polynomial touches x-axis at only one point then
the polynomial cannot be a quadratic polynomial. [BOARD 2024]
Reason (R): A polynomial of degree 𝑛 (𝑛 > 1) can have at most n zeros.
62. Assertion (A): Degree of zero polynomial is not defined.
Reason (R): Degree of a non-zero constant polynomial is 0. [BOARD 2024]
2 marks:
1. Find the zeros of the quadratic polynomial √3𝑥 2 − 8𝑥 + 4√3.
2. Find a quadratic polynomial the sum and product of whose zeros are 6 and 9
respectively. Hence find the zeros.
3. Find a quadratic polynomial the sum and product of whose zeros are -3 and 2
respectively. Hence find the zeros.
2
4. Form a quadratic polynomial p(x) with 3 and − 5 as sum and product of its zeros
respectively.
𝛼 𝛽
5. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of the polynomial 5𝑥 2 − 7𝑥 + 1 then find the value of + .
𝛽 𝛼
6. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of the polynomial 𝑥 2 − 4√3𝑥 + 3, then find the value of 𝛼 +
𝛽 − 𝛼𝛽. [BOARD 2024]
7. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of the polynomial 𝑥 2 − (𝑘 − 6)𝑥 + 2(2𝑘 − 1) find the value of k
1
if 𝛼 + 𝛽 = 2 𝛼𝛽
8. If one of the zeros of the quadratic polynomial 14𝑥 2 − 42𝑘 2 𝑥 − 9 is negative of the
other, find the value of ‘k’.
1
9. If one zero of the polynomial 2𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 𝜆 is find the value of 𝜆 and the other zero.
2

10. Find the value of k such that the polynomial 𝑥 2 − (𝑘 + 6)𝑥 + 2(2𝑘 + 1) has sum of its
zeros equal to half of their product.
3 marks:
1. Find the zeros of the quadratic polynomial 6𝑥 2 − 3 − 7𝑥 and verify the relationship
between zeros and coefficients.
1
2. Find the zeros of the quadratic polynomial 𝑥 2 + 6 𝑥 − 2 and verify the relationship
between zeros and coefficients.

3. Find the zeros of the quadratic polynomial 𝑥 2 − 15 and verify the relationship
between zeros and coefficients. [BOARD 2024]
4. Find the zeros of the quadratic polynomial 2𝑥 − 𝑥 − 6 and verify the relationship
2
between zeros and coefficients. [BOARD 2024]

5. If the zeros of the polynomial 𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 + 𝑞 are double in value to the zeros of the
polynomial 2𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 3 then find the values of p and q.
6. If a, b are the zeros of the polynomial 2𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 7 then find a polynomial whose
zeros are 2𝑎 + 3𝑏 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3𝑎 + 2𝑏.
7. Find a quadratic polynomial whose zeros are reciprocals of the zeros of the
polynomial 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐, 𝑎 ≠ 0, 𝑐 ≠ 0.
8. Find the quadratic polynomial sum and product of whose zeros are -1 and -20
respectively. Also find the zeros of the polynomial so obtained.
9. Verify whether 2, 3 and 1/2 are the zeros of the polynomial 2𝑥 3 − 11𝑥 2 + 17𝑥 − 6.
10. If the sum and product of the zeroes of the polynomial 𝑎𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 𝑐 are equal to 10
each, find the value of ‘a’ and ‘c’.
11. If one zero of the polynomial 3𝑥 2 − 8𝑥 + 2𝑘 + 1 is seven times the other, find the
value of k.
12. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 2𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 1 then find the quadratic
polynomial whose zeros are 3𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3𝛽.
13. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 − 5 the find the value of 𝛼 2 + 𝛽2 .
𝛼 𝛽
14. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 − 2 then find the value of 𝛽
+ 𝛼.
[BOARD 2024]
15. What number should be added to the polynomial 𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 4 so that 3 is the zero of
the polynomial?

5 marks:
1. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 3𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 1 find the polynomial whose
1−𝛼 1−𝛽
zeroes are 1+𝛼 and 1+𝛽
.
2. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 2𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 + 𝑘 satisfying the relation

21
𝛼 2 + 𝛽2 + 𝛼𝛽 = 4
then find the value of k.
1
3. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 6𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 𝑘 such that 𝛼 − 𝛽 = 6 then find
the value of k.
1
4. If 𝛽 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽
are zeros of the polynomial (𝑎2 + 𝑎)𝑥 2 + 61𝑥 + 6𝑎 find the value of 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽.
11 2
5. Find the zeros of the quadratic polynomial 7𝑦 2 − 3
𝑦 − 3 and verify the relationship
between the zeros and the coefficients.

6. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 2𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 5, find the values of
(i) 𝛼 2 + 𝛽2
1 1
(ii) 𝛼
+𝛽
(iii) (𝛼 − 𝛽)2
1 1
(iv) +
𝛼2 𝛽2
(v) 𝛼 3 + 𝛽3
1. In a pool at an aquarium, a dolphin jumps out of the water travelling at 20 cm per
second. Its height above water level after t seconds is given by ℎ = 20𝑡 − 16𝑡 2 .
[BOARD 2023]
Based on the above, answer the following questions :

(i) Find zeroes of polynomial 𝑝(𝑡) = 20𝑡 − 16𝑡 2 . 1
(ii) Which of the following types of graph represents p(t)? 1

3
(iii) What would be the value of h at 𝑡 = ? Interpret the result. 2
2
OR
How much distance has the dolphin covered before hitting the water level
again? 2
2. While playing in a garden, Samaira saw a honeycomb and asked her mother what
is that. Her mother replied that it’s a honeycomb made by honey bees to store
honey. Also, she told her that the shape of the honeycomb formed is mathematical
structure. The mathematical representation of the honeycomb is shown in the
graph. [BOARD 2023]

(i) How many zeros are there for the polynomial represented by the graph
given? 1
(ii) Write the zeros of the polynomial. 1
(iii) If the zeros of the polynomial 𝑥 + (𝑎 + 1)𝑥 + 𝑏 are 2 and -3 then determine
2
the values of a and b. 2

OR
If the square of the difference of the zeros of the polynomial 𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 + 45 is
144 then find the values of p. 2

3. A ball is thrown in the air so that t seconds after it is shown, its height h meter
above its starting point is given by the polynomial ℎ = 25𝑡 − 5𝑡 2 . [BOARD 2024]
Observe the graph of the polynomial and answer the following questions:
(i) Write zeros of the given polynomial. 1
(ii) Find the maximum height achieved by the ball. 1
(iii) After throwing upward, how much time did the ball take to reach to the
height of 30 m? 2
OR
Find two different values of t when the height of the ball was 20m. 2

GRADE X
Chapter-3 Pair of linear equations in two variables
1 marks:
1. If the system of equations 3𝑥 + 𝑦 = 1 and (2𝑘 − 1)𝑥 + (𝑘 − 1)𝑦 = 2𝑘 + 1 is
inconsistent then k is
a) -1 b) 0 c) 1 d) 2
2. The value of k for which the system of linear equations 𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 3, 5𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 + 7 = 0 is
inconsistent, is
a) -14/3 b) 2/5 c) 5 d) 10
3. The value of k for which the system of equations 𝑥 + 𝑦 − 4 = 0, 2𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 = 3 has no
solution, is
a) -2 b) ≠ 2 c) 3 d) 2
4. For what value of k, the system of equations 𝑘𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 1, 12𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 = 2 has no
solution
a) 𝑘 = −6 b) 𝑘 ≠ −6 c) 𝑘 = 4 d) 𝑘 = −4
5. The value of c for which the pair of equations 𝑐𝑥 − 𝑦 = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 6𝑥 − 2𝑦 = 3 will have no
solution, is
a) 3 b) -3 c) -12 d) 12
6. For what value of p the system of equations have no solution
(2𝑝 − 1)𝑥 + (𝑝 − 1)𝑦 = 2𝑝 + 1, 𝑦 + 3𝑥 − 1 = 0
a) 𝑝 = 2 b) 𝑝 ≠ 2 c) 𝑝 = 4 d) 𝑝 ≠ 4
7. For which value(s) of p, will the lines represented by the following pair of linear
equations be parallel 3𝑥 − 𝑦 − 5 = 0 and 6𝑥 − 2𝑦 − 𝑝 = 0
a) All real values except 10 c) 10
b) 5/2 d) 1/2
8. If the lines given by 3𝑥 + 2𝑘𝑦 = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝑥 + 5𝑦 + 1 = 0 are parallel then value of k is
a) -5/4 b) 2/5 c) 15/4 d) 3/2
9. The pair of equations 𝑎𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 9 & 3𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 = 18 represent parallel lines, where a, b
are integers if [BOARD 2023]
a) 𝑎 = 𝑏 b) 3𝑎 = 2𝑏 c) 2𝑎 = 3𝑏 d) 𝑎𝑏 = 6
10. The pair of equations 2𝑘𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 7, 6𝑥 − 5𝑦 = 11 has a unique solution, if
2 2
a) 𝑘 ≠ −3 b) 𝑘 ≠ 3 c) 𝑘 ≠ 5 d) 𝑘 ≠ 9
11. Which of the following value of k should be selected so that the pair of equations
𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 5 and 3𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 + 15 = 0 has a unique solution?
a) 𝑘 ≠ 5 b) 𝑘 ≠ 6 c) 𝑘 = 5 d) 𝑘 = 6

12. If the equations 𝑘𝑥 − 2𝑦 = 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3𝑥 + 𝑦 = 5 represent two intersecting lines at unique
point then the value of k is
a) 𝑘 = −6 b) 𝑘 ≠ −6 c) 𝑘 = 4 d) 𝑘 ≠ 4
13. The value of k for which the pair of equations 𝑘𝑥 − 𝑦 = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 6𝑥 − 2𝑦 = 3 has unique
solution
a) 𝑘 = 3 b) 𝑘 ≠ 3 c) 𝑘 ≠ 0 d) 𝑘 = 0
14. For what value of p does the pair of linear equations given below has unique
solution 4𝑥 + 𝑝𝑦 + 8 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 2 = 0
a) 𝑝 = 1 b) 𝑝 = 2 c) 𝑝 ≠ 4 d) 𝑝 ≠ 2
15. The condition for the system of linear equations 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 = 𝑐 & 𝑙𝑥 + 𝑚𝑦 = 𝑛 to have a
unique solution is [BOARD 2023]
a) 𝑎𝑚 ≠ 𝑏𝑙 b) 𝑎𝑙 ≠ 𝑏𝑚 c) 𝑎𝑙 = 𝑏𝑚 d) 𝑎𝑚 = 𝑏𝑙
16. For what value of k, the equations 3𝑥 − 𝑦 + 8 = 0, 6𝑥 − 𝑘𝑦 = −16 represent coincident
lines [BOARD 2023]
a) 1/2 b) -1/2 c) 2 d) -2
17. The value of k for which the pair of equations 𝑘𝑥 = 𝑦 + 2 & 6𝑥 = 2𝑦 + 3 has infinitely
many solutions, is [BOARD 2023]
a) 𝑘 = 3 b) 𝑘 = −3 c) 𝑘 = 4 d) doesn’t exist
18. For what value of k, the equations 𝑘𝑥 + 𝑦 = 𝑘 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 = 1 have infinitely many
solutions. [BOARD 2024]
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
19. The value of k for which the lines 5𝑥 + 7𝑦 = 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 15𝑥 + 21𝑦 = 𝑘 coincide is
a) 9 b) 5 c) 7 d) 18
20. The value of k for which the lines represented by the following pair of linear
equations are coincident is 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 7 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 8𝑥 + 12𝑦 + 𝑘 = 0
a) All real values except 14 c) 8
b) 28 d) 14
21. For what value of k, the pair of linear equations 𝑘𝑥 − 4𝑦 = 3, 6𝑥 − 12𝑦 = 9 has an
infinite number of solutions?
a) 𝑘 = 2 b) 𝑘 ≠ 2 c) 𝑘 ≠ 3 d) 𝑘 = 4
22. One equation of a pair of dependent linear equation −5𝑥 + 7𝑦 = 2. The second
equation can be
a) 10𝑥 + 14𝑦 + 4 = 0 c) −10𝑥 − 14𝑦 + 4 = 0
b) −10𝑥 + 14𝑦 + 4 = 0 d) 10𝑥 − 14𝑦 + 4 = 0
23. Two lines are given to be parallel. The equation of one of the lines is 4𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 14
then the equation of the second line will be [BOARD 2024]
a) 12𝑥 + 9𝑦 = 42 c) 12𝑥 + 9𝑦 = 5
b) 12𝑥 + 8𝑦 = 15 d) 12𝑥 + 8𝑦 = 42

24. Given the linear equation 3𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 9, select another linear equation in these two
variables such that the geometrical representation of the pair so formed is
intersecting lines
a) 3𝑥 − 5𝑦 = 10 c) 6𝑥 + 8𝑦 = 18
b) 8𝑥 + 12𝑦 = 18 d) above all
25. If 3𝑥 + 4𝑦 ∶ 𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 9 ∶ 4 then 3𝑥 + 5𝑦 ∶ 3𝑥 − 𝑦 is
a) 4 ∶ 1 b) 1 ∶ 4 c) 7 ∶ 1 d) 1 ∶ 7
26. If 𝑥 = 𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = 𝑏 is the solution of the equation 𝑥 − 𝑦 = 2 and 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 4 then the
values of a and b are, respectively
a) 3 and 5 b) 5 and 3 c) 3 and 1 d) -1 and -3
27. What are the values of x and y for the following pair of linear equations?
3𝑥 + 2𝑦 − 7 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 4𝑥 + 𝑦 − 6 = 0
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 2 c) 1 and 1 d) -1 and -1
2𝑥 − 𝑦 = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 15
a) 4 and 5 b) 3 and 4 c) 5 and 4 d) 4 and 4
29. The solution of the following pair of linear equations:
𝑥 − 3𝑦 = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3𝑥 − 𝑦 = 14
a) 𝑥 = 5, 𝑦 = 1 b) 𝑥 = 2, 𝑦 = 3 c) 𝑥 = 1, 𝑦 = 2 d) 𝑥 = 1, 𝑦 = 4
30. The solutions of the pair of equations 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 𝑎 + 𝑏 & 𝑎𝑥 − 𝑏𝑦 = 𝑎2 − 𝑏2 is
[BOARD 2023]
a) 𝑥 = 𝑏, 𝑦 = 𝑎 b) 𝑥 = −𝑎, 𝑦 = 𝑏 c) 𝑥 = 𝑎, 𝑦 = 𝑏 d) 𝑥 = 𝑎, 𝑦 = −𝑏
31. If 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 = 𝑎2 − 𝑏2 and 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑎𝑦 = 0 then the value of 𝑥 + 𝑦 is [BOARD 2024]
a) 𝑎2 − 𝑏2 b) 𝑎 + 𝑏 c) 𝑎 − 𝑏 d) 𝑎2 + 𝑏2
99𝑥 + 101𝑦 = 499 𝑎𝑛𝑑 101𝑥 + 99𝑦 = 501
𝑦
33. If 2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 23 𝑎𝑛𝑑 4𝑥 − 𝑦 = 19 the value of (5𝑦 − 2𝑥) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (𝑥 − 2) will be
5 5 2 2
a) − , 31 b) 31, − c) 37, d) , 37
7 7 7 7
34. In the given figure, ABCD is a rectangle. The values of x and y will be

35. In the figure, ABCDE is a pentagon with 𝐵𝐸 ∥ 𝐶𝐷 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵𝐶 ∥ 𝐷𝐸. BC is perpendicular
to CD. 𝐴𝐵 = 5 𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝐸 = 5 𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝐸 = 7 𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝐶 = 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶𝐷 = 𝑥 + 𝑦. If the perimeter of
ABCDE is 27 cm. The value of x and y will be

36. The pair of equations 𝑥 = 𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = 𝑏 graphically represents lines which are
[BOARD 2023]
a) Parallel c) intersecting at (a, b)
b) coincident d) intersecting at (b, a)
37. If a pair of linear equations is consistent then the lines will be
a) Parallel c) always coincident
b) Intersecting or coincident d) always intersecting
38. What do you say about the lines represented by 2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 4𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 6?
[BOARD 2023]
a) Parallel c) coincident
b) Intersecting d) none of these
39. What do you say about the lines represented by 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 − 9 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 4𝑥 + 6𝑦 − 18 = 0
a) Parallel c) coincident
b) Intersecting d) none of these
40. If 𝑎𝑑 ≠ 𝑏𝑐 then what do you say about the solution of the pair of linear equations
𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 = 𝑝 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐𝑥 + 𝑑𝑦 = 𝑞?
a) Unique solution c) two solution
b) Infinitely many solution d) no solution
41. If 𝑎𝑚 = 𝑏𝑙 then what do you say about the solution of the pair of linear equations
𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑙𝑥 + 𝑚𝑦 = 𝑛?
42. What do you say about the solution of the pair of linear equations 𝑦 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = −5
43. The pair of equations 𝑦 = 0 and 𝑦 = 7 has [BOARD 2024]
44. The pair of equations 𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 5 = 0 and −3𝑥 − 6𝑦 + 1 = 0 has [BOARD 2024]
a) Unique solution c) exactly two solutions
b) Infinitely many solutions d) no solution

45. The pair of equations 3𝑥+𝑦 = 81, 81𝑥−𝑦 = 3 has
a) No solution c) unique solution
1 7
b) infinitely many solutions d) 𝑥 = 2 8 , 𝑦 = 1 8
46. The pair of linear equations 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 5 𝑎𝑛𝑑 4𝑥 + 6𝑦 = 10 is

a) Inconsistent c) dependent consistent
b) Consistent d) none of these
5𝑡ℎ
47. The two digit number which becomes 6
of itself when its digits are reversed. The
difference in the digits of the number being 1, then the two digit number is
a) 45 b) 54 c) 36 d) 63
48. In a number of two digits, unit’s digit is twice the tens digit. If 36 be added to the
number, the digits are reversed then the number is
a) 36 b) 63 c) 48 d) 84
49. x and y are 2 different digits. If the sum of the two digit numbers formed by using
both the digits is a perfect square, then the value of 𝑥 + 𝑦 is
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13
50. A fraction becomes 4 when 1 is added to both the numerator and denominator and
it becomes 7 when 1 is subtracted from both the numerator and denominator. The
numerator of the given fraction is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 15
1 1
51. A fraction becomes 3
when 2 is subtracted from the numerator and it becomes 2
when 1 is subtracted from the denominator. The fraction will be
7 8 6 9
a) 15
b) 15
c) 15
d) 15
52. The father’s age is six times his son’s age. Four years hence, the age of the father
will be four times his son’s age. The present ages (in year) of the son and the father
are, respectively
53. Aruna has only Re 1 and Rs 2 coins with her. If the total number of coins that she
has is 50 and the amount of money with her is Rs 75, then the number of Re 1 and
Rs 2 coins are, respectively
54. Half the perimeter of a rectangular garden, whose length is 4 m more than its
width, is 36 m. The dimensions of garden will be
a) 20 m by 16 m b) 36 m by 10 m c) 16 m by 30 m d) 20 m by 16 m
55. 3 chairs and 1 table cost Rs 900, whereas 5 chairs and 3 tables cost Rs 2100. If
the cost of 1 chair is Rs x and the cost of 1 table is Rs y then the situation can be
represented algebraically as [BOARD 2023]
a) 3𝑥 + 𝑦 = 900, 3𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 2100 c) 𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 900, 3𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 2100
b) 3𝑥 + 𝑦 = 900, 5𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 2100 d) 𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 900, 5𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 2100

56. In the given figure, graphs of two linear equations are shown. The pair of these
linear equations is [BOARD 2024]
a) Consistent with unique solution

b) Consistent with infinitely many solutions
c) Inconsistent
d) Inconsistent but can be made consistent by extending these lines.
a) Both assertion(A) and reason(R) are true but reason(R) is not the correct
b) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false
c) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true
57. Assertion (A): 𝑥 + 𝑦 − 4 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 − 3 = 0 has no solution if 𝑘 = 2.
𝑎1 𝑏1
Reason (R): 𝑎1 𝑥 + 𝑏1 𝑦 + 𝑐1 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑎2 𝑥 + 𝑏2 𝑦 + 𝑐2 = 0 are consistent if ≠ .
𝑎2 𝑏2
58. Assertion (A): Pair of linear equations 9𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 12 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑

8𝑥 + 6𝑦 + 24 = 0 have infinitely many solution.
Reason (R): Pair of linear equations 𝑎1 𝑥 + 𝑏1 𝑦 + 𝑐1 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑
𝑎1 𝑏 𝑐
𝑎2 𝑥 + 𝑏2 𝑦 + 𝑐2 = 0 have infinitely many solutions if 𝑎2
= 𝑏1 = 𝑐1.
2 2
2 marks:
1. For what values of k will the following pair of linear equations have infinitely many
solutions? 𝑘𝑥 + 3𝑦 − (𝑘 − 3) = 0 and 12𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 − 𝑘 = 0.
2. For what value of k for which the following pair of linear equations have infinitely
many solutions? 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 7, (𝑘 − 1)𝑥 + (𝑘 + 2)𝑦 = 3𝑘.
3. For what value of k for which the following pair of linear equations have infinitely
many solutions? 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 = 7, (𝑘 + 2)𝑥 − (2𝑘 + 1)𝑦 = 3(2𝑘 − 1).
4. For what value of k will the following pair of linear equations have no solution?
3𝑥 + 𝑦 = 1, (2𝑘 − 1)𝑥 + (𝑘 − 1)𝑦 = 2𝑘 + 1.
5. Find the value of m for which the pair of linear equations.
2𝑥 + 3𝑦 − 7 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (𝑚 − 1)𝑥 + (𝑚 + 1)𝑦 = (3𝑚 − 1) has infinitely many solutions.

6. For what value of p will the following pair of linear equations have infinitely many
solutions? (𝑝 − 3)𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 𝑝 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑝𝑥 + 𝑝𝑦 = 12.
7. Determine the values of a and b for which the following system of linear equations
has infinite number of solutions: 2𝑥 − (𝑎 − 4)𝑦 = 2𝑏 + 1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 4𝑥 − (𝑎 − 1)𝑦 = 5𝑏 − 1.
8. If the system of equations 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 7 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (𝑎 + 𝑏)𝑥 + (2𝑎 − 𝑏)𝑦 = 21 has infinitely
many solutions, then find a and b.
9. If 49𝑥 + 51𝑦 = 499, 51𝑥 + 49𝑦 = 501 then find the values of x and y.
10. If 217𝑥 + 131𝑦 = 913, 131𝑥 + 217𝑦 = 827 then find the values of x and y.
[BOARD 2023]
11. In figure, ABCD is a rectangle. Find the values of x and y.
12. Sumit is 3 times as old as his son. Five years later, he shall be two and a half time
as old as his son. How old is Sumit at present?
13. Solve the pair of equations 𝑥 = 3 & 𝑦 = −4 graphically. [BOARD 2023]
14. Using graphical method, find whether following system of linear equations is
consistent or not 𝑥 = 0 & 𝑦 = −7. [BOARD 2023]
15. Solve 7𝑥 − 2𝑦 = 5 & 8𝑥 + 7𝑦 = 15 and verify your answer. [BOARD 2024]
16. Sum of two numbers is 105 and their difference is 45. Find the numbers.
[BOARD 2024]
3 marks:
𝑥 2𝑦 𝑦
1. Solve for x and y: 2 + 3
= −1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 − 3 = 3.
2. Solve the pair of linear equations: 8𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 9 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 4.
𝑥+1 𝑦−1 𝑥−1 𝑦+1
3. Solve for x and y: 2
+ 3
= 9 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3
+ 2
= 8.
𝑎+𝑏
4. Solve for x and y: 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 = 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 4.
2
5. Solve graphically: 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 + 13 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 12 = 0.
6. Solve graphically: 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 − 2𝑦 = 8.
7. Find whether the following pair of linear equations has a unique solution. If yes,
find the solution: 7𝑥 − 4𝑦 = 49 𝑎𝑛𝑑 5𝑥 − 6𝑦 = 57.
8. Solve: 152𝑥 − 378𝑦 = −74 𝑎𝑛𝑑 − 378𝑥 + 152𝑦 = −604.
9. Given the linear equation 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 − 8 = 0, write another linear equation in two
variables such that the geometrical representation of the pair so formed is:
a) Intersecting lines
b) Parallel lines
c) Coincident lines
10. Represent the following pair of linear equations graphically and hence comment on
the condition of consistency of this pair. 𝑥 − 5𝑦 = 6 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝑥 − 10𝑦 = 12.
11. Determine the values of m and n so that the following system of linear equation
have infinite number of solutions: (2𝑚 − 1)𝑥 + 3𝑦 − 5 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3𝑥 + (𝑛 − 1)𝑦 − 2 = 0.

12. For what value of p will the following system of equations have no solution?
(2𝑝 − 1)𝑥 + (𝑝 − 1)𝑦 = 2𝑝 + 1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 + 3𝑥 − 1 = 0
13. If the system of equations 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 7 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝑎𝑥 + (𝑎 + 𝑏)𝑦 = 28 has infinitely many
solutions, then find a and b. [BOARD 2023]
1 1
14. A fraction becomes when 2 is subtracted from the numerator and it becomes
3 2
when 1 is subtracted from the denominator. Find the fraction. [BOARD 2023]
15. Half of the difference between two numbers is 2. The sum of the greater number
and twice the smaller number is 13. Find the numbers. [BOARD 2023]
16. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 9. Also 9 times this number is twice
the number obtained by reversing the order of the digits. Find the number.
17. A number consists of two digits. Where the number is divided by the sum of its
digits, the quotient is 7. If 27 is subtracted from the number, the digits interchange
their places, find the number.
18. A 2-digit number is seven times the sum of its digits. The number formed by
reversing the digits is 18 less than the given number. Find the given number.
[BOARD 2023]
19. The sum of the digits of a 2-digit number is 14. The number obtained by
interchanging its digits exceeds the given number by 18. Find the number.
[BOARD 2024]
20. Two numbers are in the ratio of 1: 3. If 5 is added to both the numbers, the ratio
becomes 1: 2. Find the numbers.
21. Students of a class are made to stand in rows. If 4 students are extra in a row,
there would be two rows less. If 4 students are less in a row, there would be four
more rows. Find the number of students in the class.
22. A part of monthly hostel charges in a college is fixed and the remaining depends on
the number of days one has taken food in the mess. When a student ‘A’ takes food
for 22 days, he has to pay Rs.1380 as hostel charges. Whereas a student ‘B’ who
takes food for 28 days, pays Rs. 1680 as hostel charges. Find the fixed charges and
the cost of food per day. [BOARD 2024]
23. The ratio of income 2 persons is 9:7 and the ratio of their expenditure is 4:3, if
each of them manage to save Rs.2000/ month. Find their monthly incomes.
24. A shop keeper gives books on rent for reading. She takes a fixed charge for first two
days and an additional charge for each day thereafter. Latika paid Rs 22 for a book
kept for six days, while Anand paid Rs 16 for the book kept for four days. Find the
fixed charge and the charge for each extra day.
25. Places A and B are 100 km apart on a highway. One car starts from A and another
from B at the same time. If the cars travel in the same direction at different speeds,
they meet in 5 hours. If they travel towards each other, they meet in 1 hour. What
are the speeds of the two cars? [BOARD 2023]
26. A train covered a certain distance at a uniform speed. If the train would have been
6 km/hr faster, it would have taken 4 hours less than the scheduled time. And if
the train were slower by 6 km/hr, it would have taken 6 hours more than the
scheduled time. Find the length of the journey.

27. Anuj had some chocolates and he divided them into two lots A and B. He sold the
first lot at the rate of Rs 2 for 3 chocolates and the second lot at the rate of Re 1
per chocolate and got a total of Rs 400. If he had sold the first lot at the rate of Re
1 per chocolate and the second lot at the rate of Rs 4 for 5 chocolates, his total
collection would have been Rs 460. Find the total number of chocolates he had.
28. Meena went to a bank to withdraw Rs.2000. She asked the cashier to give her
Rs.50 and Rs. 100 notes only. Meena got 25 notes in all. How many notes of Rs. 50
and Rs.100 she received? [BOARD 2024]
29. A man wished to give Rs.12 to each person and found that he fell short of Rs. 6
when he wanted to give to all the persons present. He therefore, distributed Rs.9 to
each person and found that Rs.9 were left over. How much money did he have and
how many persons were there?
30. A father’s age is three times the sum of the ages of his children. After 5 years, his
age will be two times the sum of their ages. Find the present age of the father.
[BOARD 2023]
31. Three years ago, Rashmi was thrice as old as Namza. Ten years later, Rashmi will
be twice as old as Namza. How old are Rashmi and Namza now? [BOARD 2024]
32. In a chemistry lab, there is some quantity of 50% acid solution and some quantity
of 25% acid solution. How much of each should be mixed to make 10 liters of 40%
acid solution? [BOARD 2024]
5 marks:
1. For what value of k, which the following pair of linear equations have infinitely
many solutions: 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 7 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (𝑘 + 1)𝑥 + (2𝑘 − 1)𝑦 = 4𝑘 + 1.
2. Find c if the system of equations 𝑐𝑥 + 3𝑦 + (3 − 𝑐) = 0, 12𝑥 + 𝑐𝑦 − 𝑐 = 0 has infinitely
many solutions.
3. For what value of a and b does the following pair of linear equations have infinitely
many solutions: 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 7, 𝑎(𝑥 + 𝑦) − 𝑏(𝑥 − 𝑦) = 3𝑎 + 𝑏 − 2.
4. Find the value of p and q for which the system of equations represent coincident
lines 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 7 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (𝑝 + 𝑞 + 1)𝑥 + (𝑝 + 2𝑞 + 2)𝑦 = 4(𝑝 + 𝑞) + 1.
5. Solve for x and y: 2𝑥 − 𝑦 + 3 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3𝑥 − 5𝑦 + 1 = 0.
6. Solve graphically: 𝑥 − 𝑦 = 1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 8.
7. Solve graphically: 2𝑥 − 𝑦 = 1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 13.
8. Solve graphically: 3𝑥 − 4𝑦 + 3 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3𝑥 + 4𝑦 − 21 = 0. [BOARD 2024]
9. Solve graphically: 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 12 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 − 𝑦 − 1 = 0.
10. Determine graphically whether the following pair of linear equations:
3𝑥 − 𝑦 = 7 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝑥 + 5𝑦 + 1 = 0 has
a) Unique solution
b) Infinitely many solutions or
c) No solution.
11. Draw the graph of the equations 𝑥 − 𝑦 + 1 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 − 12 = 0. Determine the
coordinates of the vertices of the triangle formed by these lines and the X-axis and
shade the triangular region.

12. Solve the pair of linear equations graphically:
𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 12, 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 = 12
Also shade the region bounded by the line 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 = 2 and both the coordinate axes
13. Solve the pair of linear equations graphically:
𝑥 − 𝑦 = 1, 2𝑥 + 𝑦 = 8
Also find the coordinates of the points where the lines represented by the above
equation intersect y-axis.
14. Aftab tells his daughter, ‘7 years ago, I was seven times as old as you were then.
Also, 3 years from now, I shall be three times as old as you will be’. Represent this
situation algebraically and graphically.
15. The cost of 2 kg apples and 1 kg of grapes on a day was found to be Rs 160. After a
month, the cost of 4 kg of apples and 2 kg of grapes is Rs 300. Represent the
situations algebraically and geometrically.
16. For Uttarakhand flood victims two sections A and B of class contributed Rs 1500.
If the contribution of X-A was Rs 100 less than that of X-B, find graphically the
amounts contributed by both the sections.
17. The area of rectangle gets reduced by 80 square units, if its length is reduced by 5
units and breadth is increased by 2 units. If we increase the length by 10 units
and decrease the breadth by 5 units, the area increases by 50 square units. Find
the dimensions of the rectangle. [BOARD 2024]
18. Yash scored 40 marks in a test, getting 3 marks for each right answer and losing 1
mark for each wrong answer. Had 4 marks been awarded for each correct answer
and 2 marks been deducted for each incorrect answer, then Yash would have
scored 50 marks. How many questions were there in the test?
19. If three times the greater of two numbers is divided by the smaller one, we get 4 as
the quotient and 3 as the remainder. Also, if seven times the smaller number is
divided by greater one, we get 5 as the quotient and 1 as the remainder. Find the
Case based questions:

1. Two schools ‘P’ and ‘Q’ decided to award prizes to their students for two games of
Hockey Rs x per student and Cricket Rs y per student. School ‘P’ decided to award
a total of Rs 9,500 for the two games to 5 and 4 students respectively; while school
‘Q’ decided to award Rs 7,370 for the two games to 4 and 3 students respectively.
[BOARD 2023]

(i) Represent the following information algebraically (in terms of x and y). 1
(ii) (a) What is the prize amount for hockey? 2
OR
(b) Prize amount on which game is more and by how much? 2
(iii) What will be the total prize amount if there are 2 students each
from two games? 1
2. A coaching institute of Mathematics conducts classes in two batches I and II and

fees for rich and poor children are different. In batch I, there are 20 poor and 5 rich
children, whereas in batch II, there are 5 poor and 25 rich children. The total
monthly collection of fees from batch I is Rs 9000 and from batch II is Rs 26000.
Assume that each poor child pays Rs x per month and each rich child pays Rs y
per month. Based on the above information answer the following questions:
[BOARD 2023]
(i) Represent the situation in terms of x and y. 1

(ii) Find the monthly fee paid by a poor child. 2
OR
Find the difference in the monthly fee paid by a poor child and a rich child.2
(iii) If there are 10 poor and 20 rich children in batch II, what is the total
monthly collection of fees from batch II? 1
3. MASK: Masks are an additional step to help prevent people from getting and
spreading COVID-19. They provide a barrier that keeps respiratory droplets from
spreading. Wear a mask and take every day preventive actions in public settings.
Due to ongoing Corona virus outbreak, Wellness Medical store has started selling
masks of decent quality. The store is selling two types of masks currently type A
and type B.

The cost of type A mask is Rs. 15 and of type B mask is Rs. 20. In the month of
April, 2020, the store sold 100 masks for total sales of Rs. 1650.
(i) How many masks of each type were sold in the month of April? If the store
had sold 50 masks of each type, what would be its sales in the month of
April? 1
(ii) Due to great demand and short supply, the store has increased the price of
each type by Rs. 5 from May 1, 2020. In the month of May, 2020, the store
sold 310 masks for total sales of Rs. 6875. How many masks of each type
were sold in the month of May? 1
(iii) What percent of masks of each type sale was increased in the month of May,
compared with the sale of month April? 2
OR
What extra profit did store earn by increasing price in May month. 2
4. Varsha is a licensed architect and design very innovative house. She has made a
house layout for her client which is given below. In the layout, the design and
measurements has been made such that area of two bedrooms and kitchen
together is 95 sq. m.
(i) Which pair of linear equations does describe this situation? 1

(ii) What is the length of the outer boundary of the layout. 1
(iii) What is the area of bedroom 1? What is the area of living room in the layout? 2
OR
What is the cost of laying tiles in Kitchen at the rate of Rs. 50 per sq. m? 2
5. Mr. RK Agrawal is owner of a famous amusement park in Delhi. The ticket charge
for the park is Rs 150 for children and Rs 400 for adult. Generally he does not go
to park and it is managed by team of staff. One day Mr Agrawal decided to random
check the park and went there. When he checked the cash counter, he found that
480 tickets were sold and Rs 134500 was collected. [BOARD 2024]

(i) Let the number of children visited be x and the number of adults visited be y.
Which of the following is the correct system of equations that model the
problem? 1
(ii) How many children visited the park? How many adults visited the park? 1
(iii) How much amount collected if 300 children and 350 adults visited the park?2
OR
One day total visited children and adults together are 750 and the total
amount collected is Rs 212500. What are the number of children and adults
visited the park? 2
6. Dipesh bought 3 notebooks and 2 pens for Rs. 80. His friend Ramesh said that
price of each notebook could be Rs. 25. Then three notebooks would cost Rs.75,
the two pens would cost Rs. 5 and each pen could be for Rs. 2.50. Another friend
Amar felt that Rs. 2.50 for one pen was too little. It should be at least Rs. 16. Then
the price of each notebook would also be Rs.16.
Aditya also bought the same types of notebooks and pens as Dipesh. He paid 110
for 4 notebooks and 3 pens.
(i) Whether the estimation of Ramesh and Amar is applicable for Aditya? 1
(ii) Let the cost of one notebook be x and that of pen be y. Which of the following
set describe the given problem? 1
(iii) What is the exact cost of the notebook? 2
OR
What is the exact cost of the pen? What is the total cost if they purchase the
same type of 15 notebooks and 12 pens. 2

GRADE X
Chapter-4 Quadratic Equation
1 marks:
1. The quadratic equation (𝑥 2 + 1)2 − 𝑥 2 = 0 has
a) Four real roots c) two real roots
b) No real roots d) one real root
2. The quadratic equation 2𝑥 2 − √5𝑥 + 1 = 0 has
a) Two distinct real roots c) two equal real roots
b) No real roots d) more than 2 real roots
9
3. The quadratic equation 2𝑥 2 − 3√2𝑥 + 4 = 0 has
4. The quadratic equation 𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 2√2 = 0 has
5. The quadratic equation 5𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 1 = 0 has [BOARD 2024]
6. Nature of roots of quadratic equations 2𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 3 = 0 is
a) Real b) equal c) not real d) none of them
7. The roots of the quadratic equation 𝑥 2 − 0.04 = 0 are [BOARD 2023]
a) ± 0.2 b) ± 0.02 c) 0.4 d) 2
8. What is the positive real root of 64𝑥 2 − 1 = 0?
a) 1/8 b) 1/4 c) 1/2 d) 1/6
2 1
9. The real roots of the equation 𝑥 + 𝑥 − 2 = 0 are
3 3
a) 1, 8 b) -1, -8 c) -1, 8 d) 1, -8
5
10. If ½ is a root of the equation 𝑥 2 + 𝑘𝑥 − 4 = 0, then the value of k is [BOARD 2024]
a) 2 b) -2 c) ¼ d) ½
11. If 𝑟 = 3 is a root of quadratic equation 𝑘𝑟 2 − 𝑘𝑟 − 3 = 0 then the value of k is
a) 1/2 b) 3 c) 1/3 d) 1/4
12. If 𝑥 = 0.3 is a root of the equation 𝑥 2 − 0.9𝑘 = 0 then k is [BOARD 2023]
a) 1 b) 10 c) 0.1 d) 100
13. If p is the root of the equation 𝑥 2 − (𝑝 + 𝑞)𝑥 + 𝑘 = 0 then the value of k is
a) p b) q c) p+q d) pq

14. If the roots of the equation 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0, 𝑎 ≠ 0 are real and equal then which of
the following relation is true? [BOARD 2024]
𝑏2 𝑏2 𝑏2
a) 𝑎 = 𝑐
b) 𝑏2 = 𝑎𝑐 c) 𝑎𝑐 = 4
d) 𝑐 = 𝑎
15. If the quadratic equation 𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 𝑘 = 0 has real and equal roots, then
a) 𝑘 < 4 b) 𝑘 > 4 c) 𝑘 = 4 d) 𝑘 ≥ 4
16. Value(s) of k for which the quadratic equation 2𝑥 2 − 𝑘𝑥 + 𝑘 = 0 has equal roots
is/are
a) 0 b) 4 c) 8 d) 0, 8
17. Find the value of k for which the equation 𝑥 2 + 𝑘 (2𝑥 + 𝑘 − 1) + 2 = 0 has real and
equal roots. [BOARD 2023]
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
18. If 𝑥 2 + 𝑘(4𝑥 + 𝑘 − 1) + 2 = 0 has equal roots, then k is
2 2 3 1 3 1
a) − 3 , 1 b) 3
, −1 c) 2
,3 d) 2
,−3
19. If the quadratic equation 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 has two real and equal roots then c is
−𝑏 𝑏 –𝑏 2 𝑏2
a) b) c) d)
2𝑎 2𝑎 4𝑎 4𝑎
20. The quadratic equations 𝑥 − 4𝑥 + 𝑘 = 0 has distinct real roots if

2
a) 𝑘 = 4 b) 𝑘 > 4 c) 𝑘 = 16 d) 𝑘 < 4
21. The least positive value of k for which the quadratic equation 2𝑥 2 + 𝑘𝑥 − 4 = 0 has
rational roots, is [BOARD 2023]
a) ±2√2 b) 2 c) ±2 d) √2
22. Let p be a prime number. The quadratic equation having its roots as factors of p is
a) 𝑥 2 − 𝑝𝑥 + 𝑝 = 0 c) 𝑥 2 − (𝑝 + 1)𝑥 + 𝑝 = 0
b) 𝑥 + (𝑝 + 1)𝑥 + 𝑝 = 0
2
d) 𝑥 2 − 𝑝𝑥 + 𝑝 + 1 = 0
23. Which of the following equation has 2 as a root?
a) 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 5 = 0 c) 𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 − 12 = 0
b) 2𝑥 2 − 7𝑥 + 6 = 0 d) 3𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 − 2 = 0
24. Which of the following equations has the sum of its roots as 4? [BOARD 2023]
a) 2𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 8 = 0 c) – 𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 4 = 0
4
b) √2𝑥 2 − 𝑥 + 1 = 0 d) 4𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 4 = 0
√2
25. A quadratic equation whose roots are 2 + √3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2 − √3 is [BOARD 2023]

a) 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 + 1 = 0 c) 𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 1 = 0
b) 4𝑥 2 − 3 = 0 d) 𝑥 2 − 1 = 0
26. Each root 𝑥 2 − 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 is decreased by 2. The resulting equation is 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 1 = 0
then
a) 𝑏 = 6, 𝑐 = 9 b) 𝑏 = 3, 𝑐 = 5 c) 𝑏 = 2, 𝑐 = −1 d) 𝑏 = −4, 𝑐 = 3

27. If one root of the equation 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 is the reciprocal of the other, then
a) 𝑏 = 𝑐 b) 𝑎 = 𝑏 c) 𝑎𝑐 = 1 d) 𝑎 = 𝑐
28. If one root of the equation (𝑘 − 1)𝑥 2 − 10𝑥 + 3 = 0 is the reciprocal of the other then
the value of k is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
29. The linear factors of the quadratic equation 𝑥 2 + 𝑘𝑥 + 1 = 0 are
a) 𝑘 ≥ 2 b) 𝑘 ≤ 2 c) 𝑘 ≥ −2 d) 2 ≤ 𝑘 ≤ −2
30. The condition for one root of the quadratic equation 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 to be twice the
other, is
a) 𝑏2 = 4𝑎𝑐 b) 2𝑏2 = 9𝑎𝑐 c) 𝑐 2 = 4𝑎 + 𝑏2 d) 𝑐 2 = 9𝑎 − 𝑏2
31. The equation 2𝑥 2 + 2(𝑝 + 1)𝑥 + 𝑝 = 0 where p is real, always has roots that are
a) Equal c) equal in magnitude but opposite in sign
b) Irrational d) real
32. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are roots of 𝑎𝑥 2 − 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0(𝑎 ≠ 0) then value of 𝛼 + 𝛽 is
𝑏 𝑎 2𝑎 𝑎
a) 𝑎
b) 𝑏
c) 𝑏
d) 2𝑏
33. If the discriminant of the quadratic equation 3𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 is 16, then the value
of c is [BOARD 2024]
a) 1 b) 0 c) -1 d) √2
34. The ratio of the sum and product of the roots of the quadratic equation 5𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 +
21 = 0 is [BOARD 2024]
a) 5:21 b) 2:7 c) 21:5 d) 7:2
a) Both assertion(A) and reason(R) are true but reason(R) is not the correct
b) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false
c) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true
35. Assertion (A): 4𝑥 2 − 12𝑥 + 9 = 0 has repeated roots.
Reason (R): The quadratic equation has repeated roots if
discriminant 𝐷 > 0.
36. Assertion (A): The equation 𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 + 1 = (𝑥 − 2)2 has repeated roots.
Reason (R): Any equation of the form 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 where 𝑎 ≠ 0, is called a
quadratic equation.

−𝑎
37. Assertion (A): The value of x are 2
, a for a quadratic equation 2𝑥 2 + 𝑎𝑥 − 𝑎2 = 0.
−𝑏±√𝑏 2 −4𝑎𝑐
Reason (R): For quadratic equation 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 where ≠ 0 𝑥 = 2𝑎
.
38. Assertion (A): The equation 8𝑥 2 + 3𝑘𝑥 + 2 = 0 has equal roots then the value of k is
8
± 3.
Reason (A): The equation 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 has equal roots if 𝐷 = 𝑏2 − 4𝑎𝑐 = 0.
39. Assertion (A): The roots of the quadratic equation 𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 2 = 0 are imaginary.
Reason (R): If discriminant 𝐷 = 𝑏2 − 4𝑎𝑐 < 0 then the roots of the quadratic
equation 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0 are imaginary.
40. Assertion (A): If 5 + √7 is a root of a quadratic equation with rational co-efficient
then its other root is 5 − √7.
Reason (R): Surd roots of the quadratic equation with rational
coefficient occur in conjugate pairs. [BOARD 2023]
2 marks:
1. Find the sum and product of the roots of the quadratic equation 2𝑥 2 − 9𝑥 + 4 = 0.
[BOARD 2023]
2. Find the discriminant of the quadratic equation 4𝑥 − 5 = 0 and hence comment on
2
the nature of roots of the equation. [BOARD 2023]

3. A natural number when increased by 12 equals 160 times the reciprocal. Find the
number. [BOARD 2023]
4. If one root of the quadratic equation 𝑥 + 12𝑥 − 𝑘 = 0 is thrice the other root, then
2
find the value of k. [BOARD 2023]

3 marks:
1 1
1. Solve: 𝑥 − 𝑥−2 = 3, 𝑥 ≠ 0, 2.
1 2 1 2
2. Solve: 𝑥 + 2𝑥−3 = 𝑥−2 , 𝑥 ≠ 0, 3 , 2.
1 1 11
3. Solve: 𝑥+4
− 𝑥+7 = 30 , 𝑥 ≠ −4, −7.
𝑥+1 𝑥−2 2𝑥+3
4. Solve: 𝑥−1
+ 𝑥+2 = 4 − 𝑥−2
, 𝑥 ≠ 1, −2, 2.
2𝑥 1 3𝑥+9 −3
5. Solve: + + (𝑥−3)(2𝑥+3) = 0, 𝑥 ≠ 3, .
𝑥−3 2𝑥+3 2
𝑎 𝑎+𝑏
6. Solve: 𝑥 2 + (𝑎+𝑏 + 𝑎
) 𝑥 + 1 = 0.
1 1 2
7. Solve: (𝑥−1)(𝑥−2)
+ (𝑥−2)(𝑥−3) = , 𝑥 ≠ 1, 2, 3.
3
8. Find the value of p for which the quadratic equation 𝑝𝑥 (𝑥 − 2) + 6 = 0 has two equal
real roots. [BOARD 2023]
9. Find the value of p for which one root of the quadratic equation 𝑝𝑥 − 14𝑥 + 8 = 0
2
is 6 times the other.

3
10. The sum of two numbers is 15. If the sum of their reciprocals is 10
find the two
11. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are roots of the quadratic equation 𝑥 − 7𝑥 + 10 = 0 find the quadratic
2
equation whose roots are 𝛼 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽2 . [BOARD 2023]

12. In a 2-digit number, the digit at the unit’s place is 5 less than the digit at the ten’s
place. The product of the digits is 36. Find the number. [BOARD 2024]
13. Three consecutive integers are such that sum of the square of second and product
of other two is 161. Find the three integers. [BOARD 2024]
14. A dealer sells an article for Rs 75 and gains as much percent as the cost price of
the article. Find the cost price of the article. [BOARD 2024]
5 marks:
2𝑥 2 2𝑥
1. Solve: (𝑥−5) + (𝑥−5) − 24 = 0, 𝑥 ≠ 5.
𝑥+3 1−𝑥 17
2. Solve: − = , 𝑥 ≠ 0, 2.
𝑥−2 𝑥 4
1 2 4
3. Solve: 𝑥+1
+ 𝑥+2 = 𝑥+4 , 𝑥 ≠ −1, −2, −4.
4. Solve: 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑏𝑥 − (𝑎2 − 𝑏2 ) = 0.

𝑎 𝑏 2𝑐
5. Find x in terms of a, b and c: + = , 𝑥 ≠ 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐.
𝑥−𝑎 𝑥−𝑏 𝑥−𝑐
𝑥−1 2𝑥+1 −1
6. Solve: 2𝑥+1
+ 𝑥−1
= 2 where 𝑥 ≠ 2
, 1.
1 2 6
7. Solve: 𝑥−2
+ 𝑥−1 = 𝑥 , 𝑥 ≠ 0, 1, 2.
8. Solve: √3𝑥 2 + 10𝑥 + 7√3 = 0

9. If 𝑥 = −2 is a root of the equation 3𝑥 2 + 7𝑥 + 𝑝 = 0 find the value of k so that the
roots of the equation 𝑥 2 + 𝑘 (4𝑥 + 𝑘 − 1) + 𝑝 = 0 are equal.
10. Find the values of k for which the equation (3𝑘 + 1)𝑥 2 + 2(𝑘 + 1)𝑥 + 1 has equal
roots. Also find the roots. [BOARD 2024]
11. Find the value of p for which the quadratic equation 𝑝 + 1 𝑥 2 − 6(𝑝 + 1)𝑥 +
( )
3(𝑝 + 9) = 0, 𝑝 ≠ −1 has equal roots. [BOARD 2024]
12. Find the positive values of k for which the quadratic equations 𝑥 + 𝑘𝑥 + 64 = 0 and
2
𝑥 2 − 8𝑥 + 𝑘 = 0 both will have the real roots.

13. Write all values of p for which the quadratic equation 𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 + 16 = 0 has equal
roots. Find the roots of the equation so obtained.
14. If the roots of the quadratic equation (𝑥 − 𝑎)(𝑥 − 𝑏) + (𝑥 − 𝑏)(𝑥 − 𝑐) + (𝑥 − 𝑐)(𝑥 − 𝑎) =
0 are equal. Then show that 𝑎 = 𝑏 = 𝑐.
15. A two digit number is such that product of its digits is 14. If 45 is added to the
number, the digits interchange their places. Find the number. [BOARD 2024]
16. An express train takes 1 hour less than a passenger train to travel 132 km between
Mysore and Bangalore (without taking into consideration the time they stop at
intermediate stations). If the average speed of the express train is 11 km/hr more
than that of the passenger train, find the average speed of the two trains.

17. A fast train takes 3 hours less than a slow train for a journey of 60 km. If the speed
of the slow train is 10 km/hr less than that of the fast train, find the speed of each
train.
18. A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 54 km and then travels
at a distance of 63 km at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than its original
speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete total journey, what is the original average
speed? [BOARD 2023]
19. A train travels a distance of 90 km at a constant speed. Had the speed been 15
km/hr more, it would have taken 30 minutes less for the journey. Find the original
speed of the train. [BOARD 2024]
20. A motor boat whose speed is 18 km/hr in still water takes 1 hour more to go 24
km upstream than to return downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the
stream.
21. A motor boat whose speed in still water is 9 km/hr, goes 15 km downstream and
comes back to the same spot, in a total time of 3 hours 45 minutes. Find the speed
of the stream.
22. A motor boat whose speed is 15 km/hr in still water goes 30 km downstream and
comes back in 4 hours 30 minutes. Find the speed of the stream.
23. To fill a swimming pool two pipes are used. If the pipe of larger diameter used for 4
hours and the pipe of smaller diameter for 9 hours, only half of the pool can be
filled. Find, how long it would take for each pipe to fill the pool separately, if the
pipe of smaller diameter takes 10 hours more than the pipe of larger diameter to fill
the pool?
24. In a flight of 600 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average
speed for the trip was reduced by 200 km/hr from its usual speed and the time of
the flight increased by 30 minutes. Find the scheduled duration of the flight.
[BOARD 2024]
25. A person on tour has Rs.4200 for his expenses. If he extends his tour for 3 days,
he has to cut down his daily expenses by Rs70. Find the original duration of tour.
26. A person on tour has Rs.360 for his expenses. If he extends his tour for 4 days, he
has to cut down his daily expenses by Rs.3. Find the original duration of the tour.
27. If the price of the book is reduced by Rs. 5, a person can buy 4 more books for Rs.
600. Find the original price of the book.
15
28. Two water taps together can fill a tank in 8
hours. The tap of larger diameter takes
2 hours less than the smaller one to fill the tank separately. Find the time in which
each tap can separately fill the tank. [BOARD 2023]
1
29. Two pipes running together can fill a cistern in 3 13 hours. If one pipe takes 3 hours
more than the other to fill it, find the time in which each pipe would fill the cistern.
30. A rectangular park is to be designed whose breadth is 3 m less than its length. Its
area is to be 4 square meters more than the area of a park that has already been
made in the shape of an isosceles triangle with its base as the breadth of the
rectangular park and of altitude 12 m. Find its length and breadth.

31. Some students planned a picnic. The total budget for food was Rs. 2,000. But 5
students failed to attend the picnic and thus the cost of food for each member
increased by Rs. 20. How many students attended the picnic and how much did
each student pay for the food?
32. If Zeba was younger by 5 years than what she really is, then the square of her age
(in years) would have been 11 more than five times her actual age. What is her age
now?
33. The age of a man is twice the square of the age of his son. Eight years hence, the
age of the man will be 4 years more than three time the age of his son. Find their
present ages. [BOARD 2024]
34. Rs.6500 were divided equally among a certain number of persons. Had there been
15 more persons, each would have got Rs. 30 less. Find the original number of
persons.
35. A takes 6 days less than the time taken by B to finish a piece of work. If both A and
B together can finish it in 4 days, find the time taken by B to finish the work.
36. The denominator of a fraction is one more than twice the numerator. If the sum of
16
the fraction and its reciprocal is 2 , find the fraction. [BOARD 2024]
21
37. The side of a square exceeds the side of another square by 4 cm and the sum of the
areas of the two squares is 400 𝑐𝑚 2. Find the sides of the squares. [BOARD 2024]
1. While designing the school year book, a teacher asked the student that the length
and width of a particular photo is increased by x units each to double the area of
the photo. The original photo is 18 cm long and 12 cm wide. [BOARD 2023]
(i) Write an algebraic equation depicting the above information. 1
(ii) Write the corresponding quadratic equation in standard form. 1
(iii) What should be the new dimensions of the enlarged photo? 2
OR
Can any rational value of x make the new area equal to 220𝑐𝑚 2 ? 2
2. In an auditorium, seats are arranged in rows and columns. The number of rows
are equal to the number of seats in each row. When the number of rows are
doubled and the number of seats in each row is reduced by 10, the total number of
seats increases by 300.

Based on the above information answer the following:
(i) If x is taken as number of row in original arrangement, write the quadratic
equation that describes the situation? 1
(ii) How many number of rows are there in the original arrangement? 1
(iii) How many number of seats are there in the auditorium in original
arrangement ? How many number of seats are there in the auditorium after
re-arrangement. 2
OR
How many number of columns are there in the auditorium after
re-arrangement? 2
3. A rectangular floor area can be completely tiled with 200 square tiles. If the side
length of each tile is increased by 1 unit, it would take only 128 tiles to cover the
floor. [BOARD 2024]
(i) Assuming the original length of each side of a tile be x units, makes a
quadratic equation from the above information. 1
(ii) Write the corresponding quadratic equation in standard form. 1
(iii) Find the values of x, the length of side of a tile by factorization. 2
OR
Solve the quadratic equation for x, using quadratic formula. 2

GRADE X
Chapter-5 Arithmetic Progression
1 marks:
1. In an AP, if 𝑑 = −4, 𝑛 = 7, 𝑎𝑛 = 4 then 𝑎 is equal to
a) 6 b) 7 c) 20 d) 28
2. In an AP, if 𝑎 = 3.5, 𝑑 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑛 = 101 then 𝑎𝑛 will be
a) 0 b) 3.5 c) 103.5 d) 104.5
3. The 𝑛𝑡ℎ term of the AP 𝑎, 3𝑎, 5𝑎, … is
a) 𝑛𝑎 b) (2𝑛 − 1)𝑎 c) (2𝑛 + 1)𝑎 d)2𝑛𝑎
4. Which term of an AP 21, 42, 63, 84, … is 210? [BOARD 2024]
a) 9th b) 10th c) 11th d) 12th
5. If the common difference of an AP is 5, then what is 𝑎18 − 𝑎13 ?
a) 5 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30
6. What is the common difference of an AP in which 𝑎18 − 𝑎14 = 32? [BOARD 2024]
a) 8 b) -8 c) -4 d) 4
1 1−𝑝 1−2𝑝
7. The common difference of the AP 𝑝
, 𝑝
, 𝑝
, … is [BOARD 2024]
1 1
a) 1 b) c) − d) -1
𝑝 𝑝
8. The common difference of the A.P whose 𝑛𝑡ℎ term is given by 𝑎𝑛 = 3𝑛 + 7 is

a) 7 b) 3 c) 3n d) 1
9. The common difference of the A.P whose 𝑛𝑡ℎ term is given by 𝑎𝑛 = 5𝑛 − 7 is
[BOARD 2023]
a) -7 b) 7 c) 5 d) -2
10. The first term of AP is p and the common difference is q, then its 10 th term is
a) 𝑞 + 9𝑝 b) 𝑝 − 9𝑞 c) 𝑝 + 9𝑞 d) 2𝑝 + 9𝑞
11. The 4th term from the end of an AP −11, −8, −5, … , 49 is
a) 37 b) 40 c) 43 d) 58
12. The 11th term from the end of the A.P 10, 7, 4, … , −62 is [BOARD 2023]
a) 25 b) 16 c) -32 d) 0
13. The 13th term from the end of the A.P 20, 13, 6, -1,…, -148 is [BOARD 2023]
a) 57 b) -57 c) 64 d) -64

−5 5
14. The 11th term of an AP −5, 2
, 0, 2 , … is
a) -20 b) 20 c) -30 d) 30
15. There are 60 terms is an AP of which the first term is 8 and the last term is 185.
The 31st term is
a) 56 b) 94 c) 85 d) 98
16. The 11th and 13th terms of an AP are 35 and 41 respectively, its common difference
is
a) 38 b) 32 c) 6 d) 3
17. The next term of the A.P √6, √24, √54, … is [BOARD 2023]
a) √60 b) √96 c) √72 d) √216
18. The next term of the A.P √7, √28, √63, … is [BOARD 2023]
a) √70 b) √80 c) √97 d) √112
19. The two APs have the common difference. The first term of one of these is -1 and
that of the other is -8. Then the difference between their 4 th terms is
a) -1 b) -8 c) 7 d) -9
20. The first four terms of an AP whose first term is -2 and the common difference is -2
are
a) −2, 0, 2, 4 b) −2, 4, −8, 16 c) −2, −4, −6, −8 d) −2, −4, −8, −16
21. If the first term of an AP is -5 and the common difference is 2, then the sum of the
first 6 terms is [BOARD 2024]
a) 0 b) 5 c) 6 d) 15
22. The sum of first 16 terms of the AP 10, 6, 2, … is
a) -320 b) 320 c) -352 d) -400
23. Sum of first 200 natural numbers [BOARD 2024]
a) 2010 b) 2000 c) 20100 d) 21000
24. In an AP, if 𝑎 = 1, 𝑎𝑛 = 20, 𝑆𝑛 = 399 then n is equal to [BOARD 2024]
a) 19 b) 21 c) 38 d) 42
25. If the 𝑛𝑡ℎ term of an AP is given by 𝑎𝑛 = 5𝑛 − 3 then the sum of first 10 terms if
a) 225 b) 245 c) 255 d) 270
26. An AP starts with a positive fraction and every alternate term is an integer. If the
sum of the first 11 terms is 33, then the fourth term is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6

27. If the sum of the first 2n terms of 2, 5, 8, … is equal to the sum of the first n terms of
57, 59, 61, … then n is equal to
a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13
28. If the sum of the first n terms of an AP is 3𝑛2 + 𝑛 and its common difference is 6,
then its first term is [BOARD 2023]
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
29. If 𝑝 − 1, 𝑝 + 1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝑝 + 3 are in A.P then the value of p is [BOARD 2023]
a) -2 b) 4 c) 0 d) 2
30. If 𝑘 + 2, 4𝑘 − 6 𝑎𝑛𝑑 3𝑘 − 2 are three consecutive terms of an A.P then the value of k
a) 3 b) -3 c) 4 d) -4
31. If a, b, c form an A.P with common difference d, then the value of 𝑎 − 2𝑏 − 𝑐 is
[BOARD 2023]
a) 2𝑎 + 4𝑑 b) 0 c) −2𝑎 − 4𝑑 d) −2𝑎 − 3𝑑
32. Three numbers in A.P have the sum 30. What is its middle term? [BOARD 2024]
a) 4 b) 10 c) 16 d) 8
33. The number of terms of an A.P 3, 6, 9, … 111 is [BOARD 2024]
a) 36 b) 40 c) 37 d) 30
34. Assertion (A): Common difference of the AP −5, −1, 3, 7, … is 4.
Reason (R): Common difference of the AP 𝑎, 𝑎 + 𝑑, 𝑎 + 2𝑑, … is given by 𝑑 = 𝑎2 − 𝑎1 .
35. Assertion (A): Sum of first 10 terms of the AP −0.5, −1.0, −1.5, … is 31.
𝑛
Reason (R): Sum of n terms of the AP is 𝑆𝑛 = 2 [2𝑎 + (𝑛 − 1)𝑑].
36. Assertion (A): 𝑎𝑛 − 𝑎𝑛−1 is not independent of n then the given sequences is an AP.
Reason (R): Common difference 𝑑 = 𝑎𝑛 − 𝑎𝑛−1 is constant or independent of n.

37. Assertion (A): If 𝑛𝑡ℎ term of an AP is 7 − 4𝑛 then its common difference is -4.
Reason (R): Common difference of an AP is 𝑑 = 𝑎𝑛+1 − 𝑎𝑛 .
38. Assertion (A): If sum of the first n terms of an AP is 𝑆𝑛 = 3𝑛2 − 4𝑛. Then its 𝑛𝑡ℎ term
is 𝑎𝑛 = 6𝑛 − 7.
Reason (R): 𝑛𝑡ℎ term of an AP, whose sum to n terms is 𝑆𝑛 is given by, 𝑎𝑛 = 𝑆𝑛 −
𝑆𝑛−1 .
39. Assertion (A): 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 are in A.P if and only if 2𝑏 = 𝑎 + 𝑐.
Reason (R): The sum of first n odd natural numbers is 𝑛2 . [BOARD 2023]
5 5
40. Assertion (A): −5, − 2 , 0, 2 , … is an AP.
Reason (R): The terms of an AP cannot have both positive and negative rational
numbers.
2 marks:
1. If the number 𝑥 + 3, 2𝑥 + 1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 − 7 are in AP find the value of 𝑥.
2. Find the values of a, b and c such that the numbers 𝑎, 10, 𝑏, 𝑐, 31 are in AP.
1 1
3. Find the 21st term of the AP −4 2 , −3, −1 2 , …
4. Find the 7th term from the end of AP 7, 10, 13, … , 184.
5. Find the middle term of the AP 213, 205, 197, … , 37.
6. Find, 100 is a term of the AP 25, 28, 31, … or not.
7. Is 184 a term of the sequence 3, 7, 11, … ?
8. How many two digits numbers are divisible by 3?
9. If the 𝑛𝑡ℎ term of an AP −1, 4, 9, 14, … is 129. Find the value of 𝑛?
1 1+𝑚 1+2𝑚
10. Write the 𝑛𝑡ℎ term of an AP 𝑚
, 𝑚
, 𝑚
,…
11. Which term of the AP 3, 15, 27, 39, … will be 120 more than its 21st term?
12. The 8th term of an AP is zero. Prove that its 38 th term is triple of its 18th term.
13. For AP show that 𝑎𝑝 + 𝑎𝑝+2𝑞 = 2𝑎𝑝+𝑞 .
14. In an AP, 32nd term is twice the 12th term. Prove that 70th term is twice the 31st
term.
15. The seventeenth term of an AP exceeds its 10 th term by 7. Find the common
difference.
16. If five times the fifth term of an AP is equal to eight times its eighth term, show that
its 13th term is zero.

17. The ninth term of an AP is -32 and the sum of its eleventh and thirteenth term is
-94. Find the common difference of the AP.
18. How many terms of AP 3, 5, 7, 9, … must be taken to get the sum 120?
19. Find the sum of first ten multiple of 5.
20. Find the sum of first 15 multiples of 8.
21. What is the sum of five positive integer divisible by 6?
22. Find the sum of first 16 terms of the AP 10, 6, 2…
23. If 𝑆𝑛 the sum of first n terms of an AP is given by 𝑆𝑛 = 3𝑛2 − 4𝑛. Find the 𝑛𝑡ℎ term.
24. If the sum of n terms of an AP is 2𝑛2 + 5𝑛 then find the 4th term.
25. If the sum of first n terms of an AP is 𝑛2 , then find its 10th term.
26. If the sum of first k terms of an AP is 3𝑘 2 − 𝑘 and its common difference is 6. What
is the first term?
27. The fifth term of an AP is 20 and the sum of its seventh and eleventh terms is 64.
Find the common difference.
28. The fourth term of an AP is 11. The sum of the fifth and seventh terms of the AP is
34. Find the common difference.
29. If the sum of first m terms of an AP is the same as the sum of its first n terms,
show that the sum of its first (𝑚 + 𝑛) terms is zero.
30. If 𝑆𝑛 denotes the sum of n terms of an AP whose common difference is d and first
term is a, find 𝑆𝑛 = 2𝑠𝑛−1 + 𝑆𝑛−2 .
3 marks:
1. The sum of four consecutive number in AP is 32 and the ratio of the product of the
first and last term to the product of two middle terms is 7: 15. Find the numbers.
2. The sum of the first 7 terms of an AP is 63 and that of its next 7 terms is 161. Find
the AP.
3. The sum of the 5th and the 9th terms of an AP is 30. If its 25 th term is three times
its 8th term find the AP.
4. If the ratio of the sum of first n terms of two AP’s is (7𝑛 + 1): (4𝑛 + 27) find the ratio
of their 𝑚 𝑡ℎ terms.
1 1 3
5. Which term of the AP 20, 19 4 , 18 2 , 17 4 , … is the first negative term.
6. Which term of the AP 65, 61, 57, 53, … is the first negative term. [BOARD 2023]
7. Find the middle term of the AP 7, 13, 19, … , 247.

8. Show that the sum of all terms of an AP whose first term is a, the second term is b
(𝑎+𝑐)(𝑏+𝑐−2𝑎)
and the last term is c, is equal to .
2(𝑏−𝑎)
9. If in an AP, the sum of first m terms is n and the sum of its first n terms is m, then
prove that the sum of its first (𝑚 + 𝑛) terms is – (𝑚 + 𝑛).
10. If the sum of first m terms of an A.P is same as sum of its first n terms (𝑚 ≠ 𝑛)
then show that the sum of its first (𝑚 + 𝑛) terms is zero. [BOARD 2024]
11. The 17th term of an AP is 5 more than twice its 8 th term. If 11th term of AP is 43,
then find its 𝑛𝑡ℎ term.
12. How many terms are there in an A.P whose first and fifth terms are -14 and 2
respectively and the last term is 62. [BOARD 2023]
13. The sum of first 15 terms of an A.P is 750 and its first term is 15. Find its 20 th
term and 𝑛𝑡ℎ term. [BOARD 2023 & BOARD 2024]
14. Rohan repays his total loan of Rs 1,18,000 by paying every month starting with the
first installment of Rs 1,000. If he increases the installment by Rs 100 every
month, what amount will be paid by him in the 30 th installment? What amount of
loan has he paid after 30 th installment? [BOARD 2023]
15. If 𝑝𝑡ℎ term of an A.P is q and 𝑞𝑡ℎ term is p, then prove that its 𝑛𝑡ℎ term is (𝑝 + 𝑞 − 𝑛)
[BOARD 2023]
16. In an A.P the sum of the first n terms is given by 𝑆𝑛 = 6𝑛 − 𝑛2. Find its 30th term.
[BOARD 2023]
17. Find the common difference of an A.P whose first term is 8, the last term is 65 and
the sum of all its terms is 730. [BOARD 2023]
18. Find the sum of all integers between 50 and 500, which are divisible by 7.
[BOARD 2023]
19. How many numbers lie between 10 and 300, which when divided by 4 leave a
remainder 3? Also find their sum. [BOARD 2023]
20. In an A.P, the sum of three consecutive terms is 24 and the sum of their squares is
194. Find the numbers. [BOARD 2024]
21. If the sum of first 7 terms of an A.P is 49 and that of first 17 terms is 289, find the
sum of its first 20 terms. [BOARD 2024]
22. The first term of an A.P is 5, the last term is 45 and the sum of all the terms is
400. Find the number of terms and the common difference. [BOARD 2024]

23. The ratio of the 10th term to its 30th term of an A.P is 1:3 and the sum of its first six
terms is 42. Find the first term and the common difference of A.P. [BOARD 2024]
24. A man starts his job with a certain monthly salary and earns a fixed increment
every year. If his salary was Rs 15,000 after 4 years of service and Rs 18000 after
10 years of service, what was his starting salary and what was the annual
increment? [BOARD 2024]
5 marks:
1. The ratio of 11th term to 17th term of an A.P is 3:4. Find the ratio of 5 th term to 21st
term of the same A.P. Also find the ratio of the sum of first 5 terms to that of first
21 terms. [BOARD 2023]
2. How many terms of an A.P 45, 39, 33, … must be taken so that their sum is 180?
Explain the double answer. [BOARD 2023]
3. 200 logs are stacked in the following manner: 20 logs in the bottom row, 19 in the
next row, 18 in the row next to it and so on (see below figures). In how many rows
are the 200 logs placed and how many logs are in the top row? [BOARD 2023]
4. The sum of the third and the seventh terms of an AP is 6 and their product is 8.
Find the sum of first sixteen terms of an AP. [BOARD 2023]
5. The sum of first and eighth terms of an A.P is 32 and their product is 60. Find the
first term and common difference of the A.P. Hence, also find the sum of its first 20
terms. [BOARD 2024]
6. Solve the equation for x: 1 + 4 + 7 + 10 + ⋯ + 𝑥 = 287. [BOARD 2023]
7. Solve the equation: −4 + (−1) + 2 + 5 + ⋯ + 𝑥 = 437. [BOARD 2023]
8. If the sum of first 6 terms of an AP is 36 and that of the first 16 terms is 256 then
find the sum of first 10 terms. [BOARD 2023]

9. Poorna saves Rs 32 during the first month, Rs 36 in the second month and Rs 40
in the third month. If she continues to save in this manner, in how many months
will she save Rs 2000? [BOARD 2023]
10. The sum of first seven terms of an AP is 182. If its 4 th term and the 17th term are in
the ratio 1:5, find the A.P. [BOARD 2023]
11. The sum of first q terms of an AP is 63𝑞 − 3𝑞2 . If its 𝑝𝑡ℎ term is -60, find the value of
p. Also find the 11th term of this AP. [BOARD 2023]
12. Find the sum of integers between 100 and 200 which are
(i) Divisible by 9
(ii) Not divisible by 9. [BOARD 2023]
13. In an A.P of terms, the sum of first 9 terms is 153 and the sum of last 6 terms is
687. Determine the first term and common difference of A.P. Also, find the sum of
all the terms of the A.P. [BOARD 2024]
1. The school auditorium was to be constructed to accommodate at least 1500 people.
The chairs are to be placed in concentric circular arrangement in such a way that
each succeeding circular row has 10 seats more than the previous one.
(i) If the first circular row has 30 seats, how many seats will be there in the
10th row? 1
(ii) For 1500 seats in the auditorium, how many rows need to be there? 2
OR
If 1500 seats are to be arranged in the auditorium, how many seats are still
left to be put after 10th row? 2
(iii) If there were 17 rows in the auditorium, how many seats will be there in the
middle row? 1

2. Manpreet Kaur is the national record holder for
women in the shot-put discipline. Her throw of
18.86m at the Asian Grand Prix in 2017 is the
biggest distance for an Indian female athlete.
Keeping her as a role model, Sanjitha is
determined to earn gold in Olympics one day.
Initially her throw reached 7.56m only. Being an
athlete in school, she regularly practiced both in
the mornings and in the evenings and was able to
improve the distance by 9cm every week. During
the special camp for 15 days, she started with 40
throws and every day kept increasing the number
of throws by 12 to achieve this remarkable
progress.
(i) How many throws Sanjitha practiced on 11th day of the camp? 1
(ii) What would be Sanjitha’s throw distance at the end of 6 months? 2
OR
When will she be able to achieve a throw of 11.16 m? 2
(iii) How many throws did she do during the entire camp of 15 days? 1
3. Salary : In investigating different job opportunities, you find that firm A will start
you at Rs 25,000 per year and guarantee you a raise of Rs 1,200 each year
whereas firm B will start you at Rs 28,000 per year but will guarantee you a raise
of only Rs 800 each year.
(i) Over a period of 15 years, how much would you receive from firm A? 1
(ii) Over a period of 15 years, how much would you receive from firm B? 1
(iii) What would be your annual salary at firm A for the tenth year? 2
OR
What would be your annual salary at firm B for the tenth year? 2

4. Bequests to Charity: At the time our mother left this Earth, she gave Rs 90000 to
her children of birth. This we kept and each year added Rs 30000 more, as a
lasting memorial from the children she bore. When Rs 4,20,000 is thusly attained,
all goes to charity that her memory be maintained.
(i) What was the balance in the sixth year? 1

(ii) In what year was the goal of Rs 420,000 met? 2
5. It takes 5 toothpicks to build the top trapezoid shown at below. You need 9
toothpicks to build 2 adjoined trapezoids and 13 toothpicks for 3 trapezoids.
(i) If 1000 toothpicks are available, how many trapezoids will be in the last
complete row? 1
(ii) How many complete rows will there be? 1
(iii) How many toothpicks will you use to construct these rows? 1
6. A manufacturer of TV sets produced 600

sets in the third year and 700 sets in the
seventh year. Assuming that the
production increases uniformly by a fixed
number every year.
(i) What is the production in the 1st year? 1

(ii) What is the production in the 10th year? 1
(iii) What is the total production in first 7 years? 2
7. Treasure Hunt is an exciting and adventurous game where participants follow a

series of clues/numbers/maps to discover hidden treasures. Players engage in a
thrilling quest, solving puzzles and riddles to unveil the location of the coveted
prize. While playing a treasure hunt game, some clues (numbers) are hidden in

various spots collectively forming an A.P. If the number on the nth spot is 20 + 4𝑛,
then answer the following questions to help the players in spotting the clues :
[BOARD 2024]
(i) Which number is on first spot? 1

(ii) Which spot is numbered as 112? 2
OR
What is the sum of all the numbers on the first 10 spots? 2
(iii) Which number is on the (𝑛 − 2)𝑡ℎ spot? 1

GRADE X
Chapter-6 Triangles
1 marks:
1. In the given figure, 𝐷𝐸 ∥ 𝐵𝐶, 𝐴𝐸 = 𝑎 units, 𝐸𝐶 = 𝑏 units, 𝐷𝐸 = 𝑥 units and 𝐵𝐶 = 𝑦
units. Which of the following is true?
𝑎+𝑏 𝑎𝑥 𝑎𝑦 𝑥 𝑎
a) 𝑥 = b) 𝑦 = c) 𝑥 = d) =
𝑎𝑦 𝑎+𝑏 𝑎+𝑏 𝑦 𝑏
2. In ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶, 𝐷𝐸 ∥ 𝐴𝐵. If 𝐴𝐵 = 𝑎, 𝐷𝐸 = 𝑥, 𝐵𝐸 = 𝑏, 𝐸𝐶 = 𝑐 then express 𝑥 in terms of 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐
𝑎𝑐 𝑎𝑐 𝑎𝑏 𝑎𝑏
a) b) c) d)
𝑏 𝑏+𝑐 𝑐 𝑏+𝑐
3. In the given figure, 𝐷𝐸 ∥ 𝐵𝐶. The value of x is [BOARD 2023]
9
a) 2 cm b) 3 cm c) 5 cm d) cm
2
4. In the given figure, 𝑃𝑄 ∥ 𝐴𝐶. If 𝐵𝑃 = 4 𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝑃 = 2.4 𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝑄 = 5 𝑐𝑚 then find the length
of BC. [BOARD 2023]
25
a) 8 cm b) 3 cm c) 0.3 cm d) 3
𝑐𝑚

5. In the given figure, 𝐷𝐸 ∥ 𝐵𝐶. The value of x is [BOARD 2023]
a) 6 cm b) 12.5 cm c) 8 cm d) 10 cm
6. ABCD is a trapezium with 𝐴𝐷 ∥ 𝐵𝐶 and 𝐴𝐷 = 4 𝑐𝑚. If the diagonals AC and BD
𝐴𝑂 𝐷𝑂 1
intersect each other at O such that 𝐶𝑂
= 𝐵𝑂 = 2 then BC is [COMPARTMENT 2023]
a) 6 cm b) 7 cm c) 8 cm d) 9 cm
7. It is given that, ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶~∆𝐸𝐷𝐹 such that 𝐴𝐵 = 5 𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝐶 = 7 𝑐𝑚, 𝐷𝐹 = 15 𝑐𝑚 and 𝐷𝐸 =
12 𝑐𝑚 then the sum of the remaining sides of the triangles is
a) 23.05 cm b) 16.8 cm c) 6.25 cm d) 24 cm
8. In figure, 𝑃𝑄 ∥ 𝐵𝐶. Find the length of side AC, given that 𝑃𝐵 = 6 𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝑃 = 4 𝑐𝑚 and
𝐴𝑄 = 8 𝑐𝑚. [BOARD 2023]
a) 12 cm b) 20 cm c) 6 cm d) 14 cm
𝐴𝐵 𝐵𝐶
9. If in triangles ABC and DEF, 𝐷𝐸
= 𝐹𝐷 then they will be similar when [BOARD 2023]
a) ∠𝐵 = ∠𝐸 b) ∠𝐴 = ∠𝐷 c) ∠𝐵 = ∠𝐷 d) ∠𝐴 = ∠𝐹
10. In the given figure, 𝐷𝐸 ∥ 𝐵𝐶. If 𝐴𝐷 = 3𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝐵 = 7 𝑐𝑚, 𝐸𝐶 = 3 𝑐𝑚 then length of AE is
[BOARD 2023]
a) 2 cm b) 2.25 cm c) 3.5 cm d) 4 cm

11. In ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶, 𝐷𝐸 ∥ 𝐵𝐶, find the value of x.
a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 4
12. The perimeters of two similar triangles are 25 cm and 15 cm respectively. If one
side of the first triangle is 9 cm, then the corresponding side of second triangle is
a) 5.4 cm b) 5.2 cm c) 4.9 cm d) 5.1 cm
13. If ∆𝑃𝑅𝑄~∆𝑋𝑌𝑍 then
𝑃𝑅 𝑅𝑄 𝑃𝑄 𝑃𝑅 𝑃𝑄 𝑄𝑅 𝑄𝑅 𝑃𝑅
a) 𝑋𝑍
= 𝑌𝑍
b) 𝑋𝑌
= 𝑋𝑍 c) 𝑋𝑍
= 𝑌𝑍
d) 𝑋𝑍
= 𝑋𝑌
14. If ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 ~ ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅 with ∠𝐴 = 32° and ∠𝑅 = 65° then ∠𝐵 is [BOARD 2023]
a) 32° b) 65° c) 83° d) 97°
15. If ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶~∆𝐷𝐸𝐹 such that 2𝐴𝐵 = 𝐷𝐸 and 𝐵𝐶 = 8 𝑐𝑚 then find EF.
a) 16 cm b) 14 cm c) 12 cm d) 15 cm
16. In the given figure, if ∠𝐴 = 90°, ∠𝐵 = 90°, 𝑂𝐵 = 4.5 𝑐𝑚, 𝑂𝐴 = 6 𝑐𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐴𝑃 = 4 𝑐𝑚 then
find QB.
a) 3 cm b) 6 cm c) 4.5 cm d) 3.5 cm
17. In the given figure, ∠𝐴 = ∠𝐶, 𝐴𝐵 = 6 𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝑃 = 12 𝑐𝑚, 𝐶𝑃 = 4 𝑐𝑚. Then length of CD is
[BOARD 2023]
a) 2 cm b) 6 cm c) 8 cm d) 18 cm

18. In the given figure, ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 ~ ∆𝑄𝑃𝑅. If 𝐴𝐶 = 6 𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝐶 = 5 𝑐𝑚, 𝑄𝑅 = 3 𝑐𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑃𝑅 = 𝑥 then
the value of x is [BOARD 2023]
a) 3.6 cm b) 2.5 cm c) 10 cm d) 3.2 cm

19. In the given figure, 𝐴𝐵 ∥ 𝑃𝑄. If 𝐴𝐵 = 6 𝑐𝑚, 𝑃𝑄 = 2 𝑐𝑚, 𝑂𝐵 = 3 𝑐𝑚 then length of OP is
[BOARD 2023]
a) 9 cm b) 3 cm c) 4 cm d) 1 cm
20. The area of right angled triangle is 40 𝑐𝑚 and its perimeter is 40 cm. The length of
2
its hypotenuse is
a) 16 cm b) 18 cm c) 17 cm d) 19 cm
𝑂𝐴 𝑂𝐶
21. In the figure, if 𝑂𝐷
= 𝑂𝐵 then which pair of angles are equal?
a) ∠𝐴 = ∠𝐶, ∠𝐵 = ∠𝐷 c) ∠𝐴 = ∠𝐵, ∠𝐶 = ∠𝐷
b) ∠𝐶 = ∠𝐵, ∠𝐴 = ∠𝐷 d) None of these

22. In ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 and ∆𝐷𝐸𝐹, ∠𝐵 = ∠𝐸, ∠𝐹 = ∠𝐶 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐴𝐵 = 3𝐷𝐸. Then the two triangles are
a) Congruent but not similar c) similar but not congruent
b) Neither congruent nor similar d) congruent as well as similar
23. ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶~∆𝑃𝑄𝑅. If AM and PN are altitudes of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 𝑎𝑛𝑑 ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅 respectively and
𝐴𝐵2 : 𝑃𝑄2 = 4: 9 then 𝐴𝑀: 𝑃𝑁 is
a) 16: 81 b) 4: 9 c) 3: 2 d) 2: 3
24. In the ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶, D and E are points on side AB and AC respectively such that 𝐷𝐸 ∥ 𝐵𝐶.
If 𝐴𝐸 = 2 𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝐷 = 3 𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝐷 = 4.5 𝑐𝑚 then CE equals
a) 1 cm b) 2 cm c) 3 cm d) 4cm
25. ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 is such that 𝐴𝐵 = 3𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝐶 = 2 𝑐𝑚, 𝐶𝐴 = 2.5 𝑐𝑚. 𝐼𝑓 ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶~∆𝐷𝐸𝐹 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐸𝐹 = 4 𝑐𝑚
then perimeter of ∆𝐷𝐸𝐹
a) 7.5 cm b) 15 cm c) 22.5 cm d) 30 cm
26. If ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶~∆𝑃𝑄𝑅, 𝑃𝑄 = 6 𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝐵 = 8 𝑐𝑚 and perimeter of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 is 36 cm then perimeter
of ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅 is [BOARD 2023]
a) 20.25 cm b) 27 cm c) 48 cm d) 64 cm
27. If ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶~∆𝐸𝐷𝐹 and ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 is not similar to ∆𝐷𝐸𝐹 then which of the following is not
true?
a) 𝐵𝐶. 𝐸𝐹 = 𝐴𝐶. 𝐹𝐷 c) 𝐴𝐵. 𝐸𝐹 = 𝐴𝐶. 𝐷𝐸
b) 𝐵𝐶. 𝐷𝐸 = 𝐴𝐵. 𝐸𝐹 d) 𝐵𝐶. 𝐷𝐸 = 𝐴𝐵. 𝐹𝐷
28. In the given figure, 𝐴𝐷 = 3 𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝐸 = 5 𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝐷 = 4 𝑐𝑚, 𝐶𝐹 = 2 𝑐𝑚, 𝐶𝐸 = 4 𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝐹 = 2.5 𝑐𝑚
then
a) 𝐷𝐸 ∥ 𝐵𝐶 b) 𝐷𝐹 ∥ 𝐴𝐶 c) 𝐸𝐹 ∥ 𝐴𝐵 d) none of these
29. In the given figure ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 is shown. 𝐷𝐸 ∥ 𝐵𝐶, 𝐴𝐷 = 5 𝑐𝑚, 𝐷𝐵 = 2.5 𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝐶 = 12 𝑐𝑚 then
DE is [BOARD 2024]
a) 10 cm b) 6 cm c) 8 cm d) 7.5 cm

30. The perimeters of two similar triangles ABC & PQR are 56 cm and 48 cm
𝑃𝑄
respectively. is [BOARD 2024]
𝐴𝐵
7 6 7 8
a) 8
b) 7
c) 6
d) 7
31. If the diagonals of a quadrilateral divide each other proportionally then it is a

[BOARD 2024]
a) Parallelogram b) rectangle c) square d) trapezium

32. Assertion(A): In the ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶, 𝐴𝐵 = 24 𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝐶 = 10 𝑐𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐴𝐶 = 26 𝑐𝑚 then ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 is a
right angle triangle.
Reason(R): If in two triangles, their corresponding angles are equal then the
triangles are similar.
33. Assertion(A): If the co-ordinates of the mid-points of the sides AB and AC of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶
are 𝐷(3, 5) and 𝐸(−3, −3) respectively then 𝐵𝐶 = 20 units
Reason(R): The line joining the mid-points of two sides of a triangle is parallel to
the third side and equal to half of it.
34. Assertion(A): ABCD is a trapezium with 𝐷𝐶 ∥ 𝐴𝐵. E and F are points on AD and BC
𝐴𝐸 𝐵𝐹
respectively such that 𝐸𝐹 ∥ 𝐴𝐵. Then 𝐸𝐷
= 𝐹𝐶 .
Reason(R): Any line parallel to parallel sides of a trapezium divides the non-parallel
sides proportionally. [BOARD 2024]
2 marks:
1. ABCD is a parallelogram. Point P divides AB in the ratio 2: 3 and point Q divides DC
in the ratio 4: 1. Prove that OC is half of OA.

2. ABCD is a parallelogram. AE divides the line segment BD in the ratio 1:2. If 𝐵𝐸 =
1.5 𝑐𝑚 then find the length of BC. [BOARD 2023]
3. ABCD is a trapezium with 𝐴𝐵 ∥ 𝐶𝐷 and its diagonals AC and BD intersect each

𝐴𝑂 𝐶𝑂
other at O. Show that 𝐵𝑂
= 𝐷𝑂. [BOARD 2023]
2
4. In a rectangle ABCD, E is a point on AB such that 𝐴𝐸 = 3 𝐴𝐵. If 𝐴𝐵 = 6 𝑘𝑚 and 𝐴𝐷 =
3 𝑘𝑚, then find DE.

𝐴𝐷 𝐴𝐸
5. In figure, ∠𝐷 = ∠𝐸 and 𝐷𝐵
= 𝐸𝐶 prove that ∆𝐵𝐴𝐶 is an isosceles triangle.
𝐴𝐷 𝐴𝐶
6. In the given figure, = and ∠1 = ∠2. Show that ∆𝐵𝐴𝐸~∆𝐶𝐴𝐷.
𝐴𝐸 𝐵𝐷
7. In the given figure, G is the mid-point of the side PQ of ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅 and 𝐺𝐻 ∥ 𝑄𝑅. Prove
that H is the mid-point of the side PR.
8. In the given figure, ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶, 𝐷𝐸 ∥ 𝐴𝐵. If 𝐴𝐷 = 2𝑥, 𝐷𝐶 = 𝑥 + 3, 𝐵𝐸 = 2𝑥 − 1 and 𝐶𝐸 = 𝑥 then

find the value of x.

9. In the given figure, ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶~∆𝑃𝑄𝑅 find the value 𝑦 + 𝑧.
10. In the given figure, PQRS is a trapezium in which 𝑃𝑄 ∥ 𝑅𝑆. On 𝑃𝑄 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑅𝑆 there are
points E and F respectively such that EF intersects SQ at G. Prove that 𝐸𝑄 × 𝐺𝑆 =
𝐺𝑄 × 𝐹𝑆.
11. In the given figure, PQR is a triangle right angled at Q and 𝑋𝑌 ∥ 𝑄𝑅. If 𝑃𝑄 =
6 𝑐𝑚, 𝑃𝑌 = 4 𝑐𝑚 and 𝑃𝑋: 𝑋𝑄 = 1: 2. Calculate the length of PR and QR.
12. In the given figure, ∠𝐴 = ∠𝐵 and 𝐴𝐷 = 𝐵𝐸. Show that 𝐷𝐸 ∥ 𝐴𝐵.
13. In the given figure, 𝑂𝐴 × 𝑂𝐵 = 𝑂𝐶 × 𝑂𝐷 show that ∠𝐴 = ∠𝐶 and ∠𝐵 = ∠𝐷.
14. In the given figure, if 𝐴𝐵 ∥ 𝐷𝐶, find the value of x.

15. In the given figure, find the measure of ∠𝑋.
16. In the given figure, if ABCD is a trapezium in which 𝐴𝐵 ∥ 𝐶𝐷 ∥ 𝐸𝐹 then prove that
𝐴𝐸 𝐵𝐹
𝐸𝐷
= 𝐹𝐶 .
17. ABC is a right triangle right angled at C. Let 𝐵𝐶 = 𝑎, 𝐶𝐴 = 𝑏, 𝐴𝐵 = 𝑐 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑝 be the

length of perpendicular from C to AB. Prove that 𝑐𝑝 = 𝑎𝑏.
18. In the given figure, 𝐶𝐵 ∥ 𝑄𝑅 and 𝐶𝐴 ∥ 𝑃𝑅. If 𝐴𝑄 = 12 𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝑅 = 20 𝑐𝑚, 𝑃𝐵 = 𝐶𝑄 = 15 𝑐𝑚,
calculate PC and BR.
𝐴𝑋 3
19. In ∆ 𝐴𝐵𝐶, if X and Y are points on AB and AC respectively such that 𝑋𝐵
= 4 , 𝐴𝑌 =
5 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑌𝐶 = 9 then state whether XY and BC are parallel or not.

20. If ∆ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 ~ ∆ 𝐷𝐸𝐹 such that 2𝐴𝐵 = 𝐷𝐸 and 𝐵𝐶 = 8 𝑐𝑚 then find EF.
𝐾𝑃 4
21. In the figure, PQ is parallel to MN, if = and 𝐾𝑁 = 20.4 𝑐𝑚 then find KQ.
𝑃𝑀 13

22. In the given figure, in ∆ 𝐴𝐵𝐶, 𝐷𝐸 ∥ 𝐵𝐶 such that 𝐴𝐷 = 2.4 𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝐵 = 3.2 𝑐𝑚 and 𝐴𝐶 =
8 𝑐𝑚, then what is the length of AE?
23. In the given figure, 𝐴𝐵 ∥ 𝐷𝐸 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵𝐷 ∥ 𝐸𝐹 then prove that 𝐷𝐶 2 = 𝐶𝐹 × 𝐴𝐶.
24. In the given figure, 𝐴𝑃 = 3𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝑅 = 4.5 𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝑄 = 6 𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝐵 = 5 𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝐶 = 10 𝑐𝑚. Find the
length of AD
25. In the given figure, 𝑍 ∥ 𝐵𝐶. 𝐴𝑍 = 3 𝑐𝑚, 𝑍𝐶 = 2𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝑀 = 3 𝑐𝑚, 𝑀𝐶 = 5 𝑐𝑚. Find the
length of XY. [BOARD 2023]
26. In the given figure, 𝐴𝐵 ⊥ 𝐵𝐶, 𝐷𝐸 ⊥ 𝐴𝐶. Prove that ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 ~ ∆𝐴𝐸𝐷.
[COMPARTMENT 2023]

27. X is a point on the side BC of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶. XM and XN are drawn parallel to AB and AC
respectively meeting AB in N and AC in M. MN produced meets CB produced at T.
Prove that 𝑇𝑋 2 = 𝑇𝐵 × 𝑇𝐶.
28. In the given figure, ABCD is a quadrilateral. Diagonal BD bisects ∠𝐵 & ∠𝐷 both.
Prove that [BOARD 2024]
(i) ∆𝐴𝐵𝐷 ~ ∆𝐶𝐵𝐷

(ii) 𝐴𝐵 = 𝐵𝐶.
𝐷𝑂 1
29. Diagonals AC & BD of a trapezium ABCD intersect at O, where 𝐴𝐵 ∥ 𝐷𝐶. If =
𝐵𝑂 2
then show that 𝐴𝐵 = 2 𝐶𝐷. [BOARD 2024]

30. In ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶, altitudes AD and BE are drawn. If 𝐴𝐷 = 7 𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝐸 = 9 𝑐𝑚, 𝐸𝐶 = 12 𝑐𝑚 then
find the length of CD. [BOARD 2024]
𝐸𝐴 𝐸𝐵
31. In the given figure, = prove that ∆𝐸𝐴𝐵 ~ ∆𝐸𝐶𝐷. [BOARD 2024]
𝐸𝐶 𝐸𝐷
32. In the given figure, ∆𝐴𝐻𝐾 ~ ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶. If 𝐴𝐾 = 8 𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝐶 = 3.2 𝑐𝑚, 𝐻𝐾 = 6.4 𝑐𝑚 then find the
length of AC. [BOARD 2024]

3 marks:
1. Two right triangles ABC and DBC are drawn on the same hypotenuse BC and on
the same side of BC. If AC and BD intersect at P, prove that 𝐴𝑃 × 𝑃𝐶 = 𝐵𝑃 × 𝐷𝑃.
2. In the given figure, two triangles ABC and DBC lie on the same side of BC such
that 𝑃𝑄 ∥ 𝐵𝐴 and 𝑃𝑅 ∥ 𝐵𝐷. Prove that 𝑄𝑅 ∥ 𝐴𝐷.
3. In the given figure, if ∠𝐴𝐶𝐵 = ∠𝐶𝐷𝐴, 𝐴𝐶 = 6 𝑐𝑚 and 𝐴𝐷 = 3 𝑐𝑚 then find the length of
AB.
4. In the given figure, 𝐵𝐶 ∥ 𝑃𝑄 and 𝐵𝐶 = 8 𝑐𝑚, 𝑃𝑄 = 4 𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝐴 = 6.5 𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝑃 = 2.8 𝑐𝑚. Find
CA and AQ.
5. In the given figure, find the value of x in terms of a, b and c.
6. In the given figure, P and Q are the points on the sides AB and AC respectively of
∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 such that 𝐴𝑃 = 3.5 𝑐𝑚, 𝑃𝐵 = 7 𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝑄 = 3 𝑐𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑄𝐶 = 6 𝑐𝑚. If 𝑃𝑄 = 4.5 𝑐𝑚 find
BC.

7. Two right triangles ABC and DBC are drawn on the same hypotenuse BC and on
the same side of BC. If AC and BD intersect at P, prove that 𝐴𝑃 × 𝑃𝐶 = 𝐵𝑃 × 𝐷𝑃.
8. In the given figure, 𝐴𝐵 = 𝐴𝐶. E is a point on CB produced. If AD is
perpendicular to BC and EF perpendicular to AC prove that ∆ 𝐴𝐵𝐷 ~ ∆ 𝐶𝐸𝐹.
[BOARD 2023 & COMPARTMENT 2023]
9. In the given figure, ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶~∆𝐷𝐸𝐹. AP bisects ∠𝐶𝐴𝐵 and DQ bisects ∠𝐹𝐷𝐸.
Prove that:
𝐴𝑃 𝐴𝐵
(i) 𝐷𝑄
= 𝐷𝐸
(ii) ∆ 𝐶𝐴𝑃 ~ ∆ 𝐹𝐷𝑄.

𝐵𝐸 𝐵𝐸
10. In the given figure, 𝐷𝐸 ∥ 𝐴𝐶 and 𝐷𝐹 ∥ 𝐴𝐸. Prove that = .
𝐹𝐸 𝐸𝐶
𝐵𝐸 𝐴𝐶
11. In the given figure, 𝐷𝐵 ⊥ 𝐵𝐶, 𝐷𝐸 ⊥ 𝐴𝐵 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐴𝐶 ⊥ 𝐵𝐶. Prove that 𝐷𝐸 = 𝐵𝐶
12. A 6m high tree cast a 4 m long shadow. At the same time, a flag pole cast a shadow
50 m long. How long is the flag pole?
13. In the given figure, 𝐷𝐸 ∥ 𝐵𝐶. Find the length of side AD, given that 𝐴𝐸 = 1.8 𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝐷 =
7.2 𝑐𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶𝐸 = 5.4 𝑐𝑚

14. In ∆ 𝐴𝐵𝐶, 𝐷𝐸 ∥ 𝐵𝐶, find the value of x. [BOARD 2023]
5 marks:
1. Prove that if a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle intersecting the other
two sides in distinct points, then the other two sides are divided in the same ratio.
[BOARD 2023, COMPARTMENT 2023 & BOARD 2024]
Using the above theorem prove that a line through the point of intersection
of the diagonals and parallel to the base of the trapezium divides the non parallel
sides in the same ratio.
2. In the given figure, DEFG is a square and ∠𝐵𝐴𝐶 = 90°. Show that 𝐹𝐺 2 = 𝐵𝐺 × 𝐹𝐶.
3. In the given figure, if ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶~∆𝐷𝐸𝐹 and their sides of lengths (in cm) are marked
along them, then find the lengths of sides of each triangle.
4. In ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶, 𝐴𝐷 is a median and O is any point on AD. BO and CO on producing meet

AC and AB at E and F respectively. Now AD is produced to X such that 𝑂𝐷 = 𝐷𝑋 as
shown in figure.
Prove that
(i) 𝐸𝐹 ∥ 𝐵𝐶

(ii) 𝐴𝑂: 𝐴𝑋 = 𝐴𝐹: 𝐴𝐵
𝐴𝐹 𝐴𝐷
5. In the given figure, ∠𝐵𝐸𝐷 = ∠𝐵𝐷𝐸 and E is the mid-point of BC. Prove that 𝐶𝐹
= 𝐵𝐸 .
[BOARD 2023]
6. In ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶, 𝐴𝐷 is the median to BC and in ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅, 𝑃𝑀 is the median to QR. If

𝐴𝐵 𝐵𝐶 𝐴𝐷
𝑃𝑄
= 𝑄𝑅 = 𝑃𝑀 . Prove that ∆ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 ~ ∆ 𝑃𝑄𝑅.
7. PA, QB and RC are each perpendicular to AC. If 𝐴𝑃 = 𝑥, 𝑄𝐵 = 𝑧, 𝑅𝐶 = 𝑦,

1 1 1
𝐴𝐵 = 𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵𝐶 = 𝑏 then prove that + = . [BOARD 2023 & BOARD 2024]
𝑥 𝑦 𝑧
8. Sides AB and AC and median AM of a triangle ABC are respectively proportional to

sides DE and DF and median DN of another triangle DEF. Show that
∆ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 ~ ∆ 𝐷𝐸𝐹. [BOARD 2023 & BOARD 2024]
9. Find the length of the second diagonal of a rhombus, whose side is 5 cm and one of
the diagonal is 6 cm.
10. In the given figure, ∠1 = ∠2 and ∆ 𝑁𝑆𝑄 ~ ∆ 𝑀𝑇𝑅 then prove that ∆ 𝑃𝑇𝑆 ~ ∆ 𝑃𝑅𝑂.
[BOARD 2024]

11. ABCD is a parallelogram, P is a point on side BC and DP when produced meets AB
produced at L. Prove that
𝐷𝑃 𝐷𝐶
(i) 𝑃𝐿
= 𝐵𝐿
𝐷𝐿 𝐴𝐿
(ii) 𝐷𝑃
= 𝐷𝐶
(iii) If 𝐿𝑃: 𝑃𝐷 = 2: 3 then find 𝐵𝑃: 𝐵𝐶. [BOARD 2023]
12. Through the mid-point M of the side CD of a parallelogram ABCD, the line BM is
drawn intersecting AC in L and AD (produced) in E. Prove that 𝐸𝐿 = 2 𝐵𝐿.
13. D is a point on the side BC of a triangle ABC such that ∠𝐴𝐷𝐶 = ∠𝐵𝐴𝐶 then prove
that 𝐶𝐴2 = 𝐶𝐵. 𝐶𝐷. [BOARD 2023]
14. If AD and PM are medians of triangles ABC and PQR respectively, where
𝐴𝐵 𝐴𝐷
∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 ~ ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅 then prove that 𝑃𝑄
= 𝑃𝑀 . [BOARD 2023]
15. In the given figure, ∠𝐴𝐷𝐶 = ∠𝐵𝐶𝐴 prove that ∆𝐴𝐶𝐵 ~ ∆𝐴𝐷𝐶. Hence find BD if 𝐴𝐶 =
8 𝑐𝑚 & 𝐴𝐷 = 3𝑐𝑚. [BOARD 2023]

16. In a ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅, N is a point on PR such that 𝑄𝑁 ⊥ 𝑃𝑅. If 𝑃𝑁 × 𝑁𝑅 = 𝑄𝑁 2 then prove that
∠𝑃𝑄𝑅 = 90°. [BOARD 2023 & BOARD 2024]
17. In the given figure, ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 and ∆𝐷𝐵𝐶 are on the same base BC. If AD intersects BC at
𝑎𝑟(∆𝐴𝐵𝐶) 𝐴𝑂
O prove that = . [BOARD 2023]
𝑎𝑟(∆𝐷𝐵𝐶) 𝐷𝑂
18. In the given figure, CD is the perpendicular bisector of AB. EF is perpendicular to

𝐶𝐹 𝐹𝐺
CD. AE intersects CD at G. Prove that = . [BOARD 2023]
𝐶𝐷 𝐷𝐺
19. In the given figure, CD and RS are respectively the medians of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 & ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅. If
∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 ~ ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅 then prove that
(i) ∆𝐴𝐷𝐶 ~ ∆𝑃𝑆𝑅.

(ii) 𝐴𝐷 × 𝑃𝑅 = 𝐴𝐶 × 𝑃𝑆. [BOARD 2023]
20. E is a point on the side AD produced of a parallelogram ABCD and BE intersects
CD at F. Show that ∆𝐴𝐵𝐸 ~ ∆𝐶𝐹𝐵. [BOARD 2024]

GRADE X
Chapter-7 Co-ordinate Geometry
1 marks:
1. If the distance between the points 𝐴(4, 𝑝) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵(1, 0) is 5 units then the value(s) of p
is(are)
a) 4 only b) −4 only c) ±4 d) 0
2. The distance between the points (𝑎 cos 𝜃 + 𝑏 sin 𝜃, 0) and (0, 𝑎 sin 𝜃 − 𝑏 cos 𝜃) is
a) 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 b) 𝑎2 − 𝑏2 c) √𝑎2 + 𝑏2 d) √𝑎2 − 𝑏2
3. The point P on x-axis equidistant from the points 𝐴(−1, 0), 𝐵(5, 0) is
a) (2, 0) b) (0, 2) c) (3, 0) d) (−3, 5)
4. The point on x-axis which is equidistant from the points 𝐴(−2, 3), 𝐵(5, 4) is
a) (0, 2) b) (2, 0) c) (3, 0) d) (−2, 0)
5. If the points 𝐴(4, 3) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵(𝑥, 5) are on the circle with centre 𝑂(2, 3) then the value of
x is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
6. If points 𝐴(−3, 12), 𝐵(7, 6), 𝐶(𝑥, 9) are collinear then the value of x is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
7. The point which divides the line segment joining the points (8, −9)𝑎𝑛𝑑 (2, 3) in the
ratio 1: 2 internally lies in the
a) I quadrant b) II quadrant c) III quadrant d) IV quadrant
8. The coordinate of the point dividing the line segment joining the points
𝐴(1, 3), 𝐵(4, 6) in the ratio 2: 1 is
a) (5, 3) b) (3, 5) c) (4, 6) d) (6, 4)
9. The line segment joining the points A(5, 3), B(-3, 11) is divided by the point
C(3, 5) in the ratio
a) 1: 3 b) 3:1 c) 2: 3 d) 3: 2
10. If the point 𝑃(6, 2) divides the line segment joining 𝐴(6, 5) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵(4, 𝑦) in the ratio 3: 1
then the value of y is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

11. The ratio in which the point (2, 𝑦) divides the join of (−4, 3) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (6, 3) hence the
value of y is
a) 2: 3, 𝑦 = 3 b) 3: 2, 𝑦 = 4 c) 3: 2, 𝑦 = 3 d) 3: 2, 𝑦 = 2
12. If the point 𝑃(𝑘, 0) divides the line segment joining the points 𝐴(2, −2), 𝐵(−7, 4) in
the ratio 1: 2 then the value of k is
a) 1 b) 2 c) -1 d) -2
13. If the point 𝐶(𝑘, 4) divides the line segment joining two points 𝐴(2, 6), 𝐵(5, 1) in ratio
2: 3 then the value of k is
5 16 9 5
a) 16
b) 5
c) 5
d) 9
14. C is the mid-point of PQ, if 𝑃 (4, 𝑥), 𝐶 (𝑦, −1), 𝑄(−2, 4) then x and y respectively are
a) -6 and 1 b) -6 and 2 c) 6 and -1 d) 6 and -2
𝑚
15. If 𝐴 ( 3 , 5) is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points 𝑄(−6, 7), 𝑅(−2, 3)
then the value of m is

a) -12 b) -4 c) 12 d) -6
16. If the centre of a circle is (3, 5) and end points of a diameter are (4, 7) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (2, 𝑦)
then the value of y is
a) 3 b) -3 c) 7 d) 4
17. If the mid-point of the line segment joining the points 𝐴(3, 4), 𝐵 (𝑘, 6) is 𝑃(𝑥, 𝑦) and
𝑥 + 𝑦 − 10 = 0 the value of k will be
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7
18. Points 𝐴(3, 1), 𝐵 (5, 1), 𝐶 (𝑎, 𝑏) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐷(4, 3) are vertices of a parallelogram. The values of
a and b are
a) 6 and 3 b) 2 and 1 c) 4 and 2 d) none of these
19. The co-ordinates of the point which is reflection of point (−3, 5) in x-axis are
a) (3, 5) b) (3, − 5) c) (−3, −5) d) (−3, 5)
20. The centroid of the triangle whose vertices are (3, −7), (−8, 6) and (5, 10) is
a) (0, 9) b) (0, 3) c) (1, 3) d) (3, 5)
21. If 𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 𝑘 = 0 is a median of the triangle whose vertices are at points
𝐴(−1, 3), 𝐵(0, 4), 𝐶(−5, 2) then the value of k is
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
22. The coordinates of a point A on y-axis at a distance of 4 units from x-axis and
below it are
a) (4, 0) b) (0, 4) c) (−4, 0) d) (0, −4)

23. In what ratio, does x-axis divide the line segment joining the points
𝐴(3, 6), 𝐵 (−12, −3)? [BOARD 2023]
a) 1:2 b) 1:4 c) 4:1 d) 2:1
24. The distance between the points (0, 2√5) & (−2√5, 0) is [BOARD 2023]
a) 2√10 units b) 4√10 units c) 2√20 units d) 0
11 2
25. The distance between the points 𝑃 (− 3
, 5) , 𝑄 (− 3 , 5) is [BOARD 2023]
a) 6 units b) 4 units c) 2 units d) 3 units

26. The end points of a diameter of a circle are (2, 4), (−3, −1). The radius of the circle is
[BOARD 2023]
5 5
a) 2√5 b) 2 √5 c) 2 √2 d) 5√2
27. The coordinates of the vertex A of a rectangle ABCD whose three vertices are given
as 𝐵(0, 0), 𝐶 (3, 0) & 𝐷(0, 4) are [BOARD 2023]
a) (4, 0) b) (0, 3) c) (3, 4) d) (4, 3)
28. The distance of the point (−1, 7) from x-axis is [BOARD 2023]
a) -1 b) 7 c) 6 d) √50
29. The distance of the point (−6, 8) from origin is [BOARD 2023]
a) 6 b) -6 c) 8 d) 10
30. The points (−4, 0), (4, 0), (0, 3) are the vertices of a [BOARD 2023]
a) Right triangle b) isosceles c) equilateral d) scalene
31. The point of intersection of the line represented by 3𝑥 − 𝑦 = 3 and y-axis is given by
[BOARD 2023]
a) (0, −3) b) (0, 3) c) (2, 0) d) (−2, 0)
32. The coordinates of the point where the line 2𝑦 = 4𝑥 + 5 crosses x-axis is
[BOARD 2023]
5 5 5 5
a) (0, − ) b) (0, ) c) (− , 0) d) (− , 0)
4 2 4 2
33. If AB is a chord of a circle with centre at 𝑂(2, 3), where the coordinates of A and B
are (4, 3), (𝑥, 5) respectively, then the value of x is [BOARD 2023]
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
34. AD is a median of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 with vertices 𝐴(5, −6), 𝐵(6, 4)& 𝐶(0,0) length of AD is
[BOARD 2024]
a) √68 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 b) 2√15 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 c) √101 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 d) 10 units

35. The centre of a circle is at (2, 0). If one end of a diameter is at (6, 0) then the other
end is at [BOARD 2024]
a) (0, 0) b) (4, 0) c) (−2, 0) d) (−6, 0)
36. If the distance between the points (3, −5) and (𝑥, −5) is 15 units, then the values of
x are [BOARD 2024]
a) 12, -18 b) -12, 18 c) 18, 5 d) -9, -12
37. Point P divides the line segment joining the points 𝐴(4, −5) & 𝐵(1, 2) in the ratio 5:2.
Co-ordinates of P are [BOARD 2024]
5 −3 11 13 13
a) ( , ) b) ( , 0) c) ( , 0) d) (0, )
2 2 7 7 7
38. XOYZ is a rectangle with vertices 𝑋(−3, 0), 𝑂(0, 0), 𝑌(0, 4)& 𝑍(𝑥, 𝑦). The length of its
each diagonal is [BOARD 2024]
a) 5 units b) √5 units c) 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 units d) 4 units
39. The distance between the points (𝑎 cos 𝜃, −𝑎 sin 𝜃) and ( 𝑎 sin 𝜃, 𝑎 cos 𝜃) is
[BOARD 2024]
a) a b) 𝑎√2 c) 0 d) 2a
40. If the vertices of the parallelogram PQRS taken in order are
𝑃 (3, 4), 𝑄 (−2, 3) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑅(−3, −2) then the co-ordinates of its fourth vertex S are
[BOARD 2024]
a) (−2, −1) b) (−2, −3) c) (2, −1) d) (1, 2)

a) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true
41. Assertion (A): The value of y is 6, for which the distance between the points
𝑃 (2, −3) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑄(10, 𝑦) is 10.
Reason (R): Distance between two given points 𝐴(𝑥1 , 𝑦1 )𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵(𝑥2 , 𝑦2 ) is given 𝐴𝐵 =
√(𝑥2 − 𝑥1 )2 + (𝑦2 − 𝑦1 )2.

42. Assertion (A): The point (−1, 6) divides the line segment joining the points
(−3, 10) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (6, −8) in the ratio 2: 7 internally.

Reason (R): Given three points A, B and C form an equilateral triangle then 𝐴𝐵 =
𝐵𝐶 = 𝐴𝐶.
43. Assertion (A): The point (0, 4) lies on y-axis.
Reason (R): The x coordinate on the point on y-axis is zero.
44. Assertion (A): The point (3, 0) lies on x-axis.
Reason (R): The x coordinate on the point on y-axis is zero.
45. Assertion (A): Point 𝑃(0, 2) is the point of intersection of y-axis with the line 3𝑥 +
2𝑦 = 4.
Reason (R): The distance of point 𝑃(0, 2) from x-axis is 2 units. [BOARD 2023]
46. Assertion (A): If the points 𝐴(4, 3), 𝐵(𝑥, 5) lie on a circle with centre 𝑂(2, 3) then the
value of x is 2.
Reason (R): Centre of a circle is the mid-point of each chord of the circle.
[BOARD 2023]
47. Assertion (A): The point which divides the line segment joining the points
−1 5
𝐴(1, 2) & 𝐵(−1, 1) internally in the ratio 1:2 is ( 3 , 3).
Reason (R): The coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the
𝑚1𝑥2 +𝑚2𝑥1 𝑚1 𝑦2 +𝑚2 𝑦1
points 𝐴(𝑥1 , 𝑦1 ) & 𝐵(𝑥2 , 𝑦2 ) in the ratio 𝑚1 : 𝑚2 are ( , ).
𝑚1 +𝑚2 𝑚1 +𝑚2
[BOARD 2024]
48. Assertion (A): Mid-point of a line segment divides the line segment in the ratio 1:1.
Reason (R): The ratio in which the point (−3, 𝑘) divides the line segment joining the
points (−5, 4) & (−2, 3) is 1:2. [BOARD 2024]
2 marks:
1. What is the distance of the point 𝑃(3, 4) from x-axis?
2. The ordinate of a point A on y-axis is 5 and B has coordinates (−3, 1). Find the
length of AB?
3. If the distance between the points 𝐴(4, 𝑝), 𝐵(1, 0) is 5 units then what are the values
of p?
4. If 𝐴(5, 2), 𝐵 (2, −2)𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶(−2, 𝑡) are the vertices of a right angled triangle with ∠𝐵 = 90°
then find the value of t.
5. If three points (0,0), (3, √3) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (3, 𝜆) form an equilateral triangle, then what is the
value of 𝜆?
6. Find the coordinate of the point dividing the line segment joining the points
𝐴(1, 3) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵(4, 6) in the ratio 2: 1?

7. The x coordinate of a point P is twice its y coordinate. If P is equidistant from
𝑄(2, −5), 𝑅(−3, 6), find the coordinates of P.
8. If the point 𝑃(𝑥, 𝑦) is equidistant from the points 𝑄(𝑎 + 𝑏, 𝑏 − 𝑎), 𝑅(𝑎 − 𝑏, 𝑎 + 𝑏) then
prove that 𝑏𝑥 = 𝑎𝑦.
3 5
9. Find the ratio in which the point 𝑃 (4 , 12) divides the line segment joining the points
1 3
𝐴 (2 , 2) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (2, −5).
𝑚
10. If 𝐴 ( , 5) is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points 𝑄(−6, 7), 𝑅(−2, 3)
3
then what is the value of m?

11. The mid-point of the line segment AB is 𝑃(0, 4), if the coordinates of B are (−2, 3)
then find the coordinates of A.
12. If the points 𝐴(4, 3), 𝐵(𝑥, 5) are on the circle with centre 𝑂(2, 3) then what is the
value of x?
13. If the centre of a circle is (3, 5) and end points of a diameter are (4, 7) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (2, 𝑦).
What is the value of y?
14. Show that the points (−2, 3), (8, 3), (6, 7) are the vertices of a right angled triangle.
[BOARD 2023]
15. Show that the points (−3, −3), (3, 3), (−3√3, 3√3) are the vertices of an equilateral
triangle. [BOARD 2023]
16. Prove that 𝐴(4, 3), 𝐵 (6, 4), 𝐶 (5, 6), 𝐷(3, 5) are the vertices of a square. [BOARD 2023]
17. Show that 𝐴(0, −1), 𝐵(6, 7), 𝐶 ( −2, 3), 𝐷(8, 3) are the vertices of a rectangle ABCD.
[BOARD 2023]
18. Show that the points 𝐴(6, 4), 𝐵 (5, −2), 𝐶(7, −2) are the vertices of an isosceles
triangle. Also, find the length of the median through point A. [BOARD 2023]
19. The line segment joining the points 𝐴(4, −5), 𝐵(4, 5) is divided by the point P such
that 𝐴𝑃: 𝐴𝐵 = 2: 5. Find the coordinates of P. [BOARD 2023]
20. The point 𝑃(𝑥, 𝑦) is equidistant from points 𝐴(5, 1), 𝐵(1, 5). Prove that 𝑥 = 𝑦.
[BOARD 2023]
21. Find the ratio in which y-axis divides the line segment joining the points
(5, −6), (−1, −4). [BOARD 2023]
22. Find the ratio in which line 𝑦 = 𝑥 divides the line segment joining the points
(6, −3), (1, 6). [BOARD 2023 & BOARD 2024]

23. A line intersects y-axis and x-axis at point P and Q respectively. If 𝑅(2, 5) is the
mid-point of line segment PQ, then find the coordinates of P and Q. [BOARD 2023]
24. Find the points on the x-axis, each of which is at a distance of 10 units from the
point 𝐴(11, −8). [BOARD 2023]
25. Find the ratio in which the point (−1, 𝑘) divides the line segment joining the points
(−3, 10), (6, −8). Also find the value of k. [BOARD 2023]
26. If 𝐴(−2, −1), 𝐵(𝑎, 0), 𝐶 (4, 𝑏), 𝐷(1, 2) are the vertices of a parallelogram ABCD then find
the values of a and b. [BOARD 2023]
27. The three vertices of a parallelogram ABCD taken in order, are 𝐴(−1, 0), 𝐵(3, 1),
𝐶(2, 2). Find the coordinates of the fourth vertex D. [BOARD 2023]
28. Find the type of triangle ABC formed whose vertices are 𝐴(1, 0), 𝐵(−5, 0) & 𝐶(−2, 5).
[BOARD 2024]
29. 𝐴(3, 0), 𝐵 (6, 4), 𝐶(−1, 3) are vertices of a triangle ABC. Find length of its median BE.
[BOARD 2024]
30. Find a relation between x and y such that the point 𝑃(𝑥, 𝑦) is equidistant from the
points 𝐴(7, 1)𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵(3, 5). [BOARD 2024]
31. Points 𝐴(−1, 𝑦) & 𝐵(5, 7) lie on a circle 𝑂(2, −3𝑦) such that AB is a diameter of the
circle. Find the value of y. Also, find the radius of the circle. [BOARD 2024]
3 marks:
1. If the distance of 𝑃(𝑥, 𝑦) from 𝐴(6, 2)𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵(−2, 6) are equal. Prove that 𝑦 = 2𝑥.
2. Show that 𝐴(−1, 0), 𝐵(3, 1), 𝐶 (2, 2) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐷(−2, 1) are the vertices of a parallelogram.
3. Prove that the diagonals of a rectangle ABCD with vertices 𝐴(2, −1), 𝐵 (5, −1), 𝐶(5, 6)
and 𝐷(2, 6) are equal and bisect each other.
4. In the given figure, ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 is an equilateral triangle of side 3 units. Find the co-
ordinates of the other two vertices.

5. Find the ratio in which 𝑃(4, 𝑚) divides the segment joining the points
𝐴(2, 3)𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵(6, −3). Hence find m.
6. Find the ratio in which the line 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 − 5 = 0 divides the line segment joining the
points (8, −9)𝑎𝑛𝑑 (2, 1). Also find the coordinates of the point of division.
7. If the point 𝐶(−1, 2) divides internally the line segment joining the points
𝐴(2, 5), 𝐵(𝑥, 𝑦) in the ratio 3: 4. Find the coordinates of B.
8. If the point 𝐶(−1, 2) divides internally the line segment joining the points
𝐴(2, 5), 𝐵(𝑥, 𝑦) in the ratio 3: 4 then find the value of 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 .
9. If the co-ordinates of points A and B are (−2, −2)𝑎𝑛𝑑 (2, −4) respectively. Find the
3
coordinates of P such that 𝐴𝑃 = 𝐴𝐵 where P lies on the line segment AB.
7
10. Find the coordinates of the points of trisection of the line segment joining the
points 𝐴(1, −2)𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵(−3, 4).
11. The vertices of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 are 𝐴(6, −2), 𝐵(0, −6), 𝐶(4, 8). Find the co-ordinates of mid-
points of AB, BC and AC.
12. If (𝑎, 𝑏) is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points 𝐴(10, −6)𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵(𝑘, 4)
and 𝑎 − 2𝑏 = 18 then find the value of k and the distance AB.
13. The coordinates of the vertices of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 are 𝐴(7, 2), 𝐵(9, 10) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶(1, 4). If E and F are
1
the mid-points of AB and AC respectively. Prove that 𝐸𝐹 = 2 𝐵𝐶.
14. If (−5, 3) & (5, 3) are two vertices of an equilateral triangle then find co-ordinates of
the third vertex given that origin lies inside the triangle. (𝑈𝑠𝑒 √3 = 1.7)
[BOARD 2023]
15. The centre of a circle is (2𝑎, 𝑎 − 7). Find the values of ‘a’ if the circle passes through
the point (11, −9). Radius of the circle is 5√2 𝑐𝑚. [BOARD 2023]
16. If 𝑄(0, 1) is equidistant from 𝑃(5, −3) & 𝑅(𝑥, 6) find the values of x. [BOARD 2023]
17. Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points 𝐴(6, 3), 𝐵(−2, −5) is
divided by x-axis. [BOARD 2023]
8
18. Find the ratio in which the point (5 , 𝑦) divides the line segment joining the points
(1, 2)& (2, 3). Also find the value of y. [BOARD 2024]
19. ABCD is a rectangle formed by the points 𝐴(−1, −1), 𝐵(−1, 6), 𝐶 (3, 6), 𝐷(3, −1). P, Q, R
and S are mid-points of sides AB, BC, CD & DA respectively. Show that diagonals
of the quadrilaterals PQRS bisect each other. [BOARD 2024]

20. Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points 𝐴(5, 3) & 𝐵(−1, 6) is
divided by y axis. [BOARD 2024]
21. 𝑃 (−2, 5) & 𝑄(3, 2) are two points. Find the coordinates of the point R on line segment
PQ such that 𝑃𝑅 = 2𝑄𝑅. [BOARD 2024]
22. In what ratio does the x-axis divides the line segment joining the points
(2, −3) & (5, 6)? Also find the coordinates of the point of intersection. [BOARD 2024]
23. Find the length of the median AD of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 having vertices 𝐴(0, −1), 𝐵(2, 1) & 𝐶(0, 3).
[BOARD 2024]
24. Show that 𝐴(6, 4), 𝐵 (5, −2) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶(7, −2) are the vertices of an isosceles triangle.
[BOARD 2024]
5 marks:
1. Show that the points (𝑎, 𝑎), (−𝑎, −𝑎), (−√3𝑎, √3𝑎) are the vertices of an equilateral
triangle.
2. Show that the points 𝑃 (2, −1), 𝑄(3, 4), 𝑅(−2, 3) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑆(−3, −2) are vertices of a
rhombus but not a square.
3. Point A lies on the line segment XY joining 𝑋(6, −6), 𝑌(−4, −1) in such a way that
𝑋𝐴 2
𝑋𝑌
= 5. If point A also lies on the line 3𝑥 + 𝑘(𝑦 + 1) = 0 find the value of k.
4. The ratio in which the line 𝑥 − 3𝑦 = 0 divides the line segment joining the points
(−2, −5)𝑎𝑛𝑑 (6, 3). Find the coordinates of the point of intersection.
5. Find the ratio in which the y axis divides the line segment joining the points
(−1, −4), (5, −6). Also find the coordinates of the point of intersection.
6. Find the ratio in which the point (−3, 𝑘) divides the line segment joining the points
(−5, −4) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (−2, 3). Also find the value of k.
3 5
7. Find the ratio in which the point 𝑃 (4 , 12) divides the line segment joining the point
1 3
𝐴 (2 , 2) and (2, −5).
𝑥 𝑦+1
8. If the midpoint of the line segment joining 𝐴 ( , ) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵(𝑥 + 1, 𝑦 − 3) is 𝐶(5, −2)
2 2
find the value of x and y.

1. A tiling or tessellation of a flat surface is the covering of a plane using one or more
geometric shapes, called tiles, with no overlaps and no gaps. Historically,
tessellations were used in ancient Rome and in Islamic art. You may find

tessellation patterns on floors, walls, paintings etc. Shown below is a tiled floor in
the archaeological Museum of Seville, made using squares, triangles and hexagons.
A craftsman thought of making a floor pattern after being inspired by the above
design. To ensure accuracy in his work, he made the pattern on the Cartesian
plane. He used regular octagons, squares and triangles for his floor tessellation
pattern
Use the above figure to answer the questions that follow:

(i) What is the length of the line segment joining points B and F? 1
(ii) The centre ‘Z’ of the figure will be the point of intersection of the diagonals of
quadrilateral WXOP. Then what are the coordinates of Z? 1
(iii) What are the coordinates of the point on y axis equidistant from A and G? 2
OR
What is the area of Trapezium AFGH? 2
2. Tharunya was thrilled to know that the football tournament is fixed with a monthly
timeframe from 20th July to 20th August 2023 and for the first time in the FIFA
Women’s World Cup’s history, two nations host in 10 venues. Her father felt that
the game can be better understood if the position of players is represented as
points on a coordinate plane.

(i) At an instance, the midfielders and forward formed a parallelogram. Find the
position of the central midfielder (D) if the position of other players who
formed the parallelogram are :- A(1,2), B(4,3) and C(6,6). 1
(ii) Check if the Goal keeper G(-3,5), Sweeper H(3,1) and Wing-back K(0,3) fall
on a same straight line. 2
OR
Check if the Full-back J(5,-3) and centre-back I(-4,6) are equidistant from
forward C(0,1) and if C is the mid-point of IJ. 2
(iii) If Defensive midfielder A(1,4), Attacking midfielder B(2,-3) and Striker E(a,b)
lie on the same straight line and B is equidistant from A and E, find the
position of E. 1
3. Resident Welfare Association (RWA) of a Gulmohar Society in Delhi have installed

three electric poles A, B and C in a society’s common park. Despite these three
poles, some parts of the park are still in dark. So, RWA decides to have one more
electric pole D in the park.
The park can be modelled as a coordinate systems given below.
(i) What is the distance of the pole B from the corner O of the park? 1
(ii) Find the position of the fourth pole D so that four points A, B C and D form a
parallelogram. 1
(iii) What is the distance between poles A and C? 2
OR
What is the distance between poles B and D? 2

4. Satellite Images: Satellite images are images of Earth collected by imaging satellites
operated by governments and businesses around the world. Satellite imaging
companies sell images by licensing them to governments and businesses such as
Apple Maps and Google Maps. It should not be confused for astronomy images
collected by space telescope.
Barun lives in Jaipur in Vaishali. Satellite image of his colony is shown in given
figure. In this view, his house is pointed out by a flag, which is situated at the
point of intersection of x and y - axes. If he goes 2 cm east and 3 cm north from the
house, then he reaches to a grocery store, If he goes 4 cm west and 6 cm south
from the house, then he reaches to his office. If he goes 6 cm east and 8 cm south
from the house, then he reaches to a food court. If he goes 6 cm west and 8 cm
north from the house, he reaches to a his kid’s school.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

(i) Find the distance between grocery store and food court. 1
(ii) Find the distance of the school from the house. 1
(iii) If the grocery store and office lie on a line, what is the ratio of distance of
house from grocery store to that from office? 2
OR
What shape is formed by the coordinates of positions of school, grocery
store, food court and office? 2
5. Morning assembly is an integral part of the school’s schedule. Almost all the
schools conduct morning assemblies which include prayers, information of latest
happenings, inspiring thoughts,
speech, national anthem, etc. A good
school is always particular about their
morning assembly schedule. Morning
assembly is important for a child’s
development. It is essential to
understand that morning assembly is
not just about standing in long queues
and singing prayers or national
anthem, but it’s something beyond just

prayers. All the activities carried out in morning assembly by the school staff and
students have a great influence in every point of life. The positive effects of
attending school assemblies can be felt throughout life.
Have you noticed that in school assembly you always stand in row and column and
this make a coordinate system. Suppose a school have 100 students and they all
assemble in prayer in 10 rows as given below.
Here A, B, C and D are four friend Amar, Bharat, Colin and Dravid.
(i) What is the distance between A and B? 1
(ii) What is the distance between C and D? 1
(iii) What is the distance between A and C? 2
OR
What is the distance between D and B? 2
6. Carpooling: It is the sharing of car journeys so that more than one person travels
in a car, and prevents the need for others to have to drive to a location themselves.
By having more people using one vehicle, carpooling reduces each person’s travel
costs such as: fuel costs, tolls, and the stress of driving. Carpooling is also a more
environmentally friendly and sustainable way to travel as sharing journeys reduces
air pollution, carbon emissions, traffic congestion on the roads, and the need for
parking spaces.
Three friends Amar, Bandhu and Chakradev lives in societies represented by the
points A, B and C respectively. They all work in offices located in a same building
represented by the point O. Since they all go to same building every day, they

decided to do carpooling to save money on petrol. Based on the above information,
answer the following questions.
(i) Which society is nearest to the office? 1

(ii) What is the distance between A and C? 1
(iii) Find the least distance between AB, OA and BC? 2
OR
If Bandhu and Chakradev planned to meet at a club situated at the mid-
point of the line joining the points B and C , find the coordinates of this
point. 2
7. To conduct sports day activities, in a rectangular shaped school ground ABCD,

lines have been drawn with chalk powder at a distance of 1 m each. 100 flower
pots have been placed at a distance of 1 m from each other along AB, as shown in
1𝑡ℎ
figure. Nishtha runs of the distance AB on the 2nd line and posts a green flag.
4
1𝑡ℎ
Suman runs 5
of the distance AB on the 8th line and posts a red flag.
(i) What is the position of green flag? 1

(ii) What is the position of red flag? 1
(iii) What is the distance between both the flags? 2
OR
What is the distance of red flag from point A? 2
8. A garden is in the shape of rectangle. Gardener grew sapling of Ashoka tree on the
boundary of garden at the distance of 1 meter from each other. He want to decorate
the garden with rose plants. He choose triangular region inside the park to grow
rose plants. On the above situation, gardener took help from the students of class
10th. They made a chart for it which looks as the above figure.
[BOARD 2024]

(i) If A is taken as origin, what are the coordinates of triangle PQR? 1
(ii) Find out if ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅 is an isosceles triangle. 1
(iii) Find distances PQ & QR? 2
OR
Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the
points P and R in the ratio 2:1 internally. 2
9. Jagdish has a field which is in the shape of a right angled triangle AQC. He wants
to leave a space in the form of a square PQRS inside the field for growing wheat
and the remaining for growing vegetables (as shown in the figure). In the field,
there is a pole marked as O. [BOARD 2023]

(i) Taking O as origin, coordinates of P are (−200, 0) and of Q are (200, 0). PQRS
being a square, what are the coordinates of R and S? 1
(ii) What is the area of square PQRS? 2
OR
What is the length of diagonal PR in square PQRS? 2
(iii) If S divides CA in the ratio K:1, what is the value of K, where point A is
(200, 800)? 1

10. Ryan, from a very young age, was fascinated by the twinkling of stars and the
vastness of space. He always dreamt of becoming an astronaut one day. So he
started to sketch his own rocket designs on the graph sheet. One such design is
given below: [BOARD 2024]
Based on the above, answer the following questions:

(i) Find the mid-point of the segment joining F and G. 1
(ii) What is the distance between the points A and C? 2
OR
Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the
points A and B in the ratio 1:3 internally. 2
(iii) What are the coordinates of the point D? 1

GRADE X
Chapter-8 TRIGONOMETRY
1 marks:
4 sin 𝐴+3 cos 𝐴

1. If 2 tan 𝐴 = 3, then the value of is [BOARD 2023]
4 sin 𝐴−3 cos 𝐴
7 1
a) b) c) 3 d) doesn’t exist
√13 √13
5 sin 𝜃+cos 𝜃
2. If tan 𝜃 = 12 then the value of is [BOARD 2023]
sin 𝜃−cos 𝜃
−17 17 17 −7
a) 7
b) 7
c) 13
d) 13
𝑥
3. If tan 𝜃 = then cos 𝜃 is [BOARD 2023]
𝑦
𝑥 𝑥 𝑦 𝑦
a) b) c) d)
√𝑥 2+𝑦 2 √𝑥 2−𝑦 2 √𝑥 2+𝑦 2 √𝑥 2−𝑦 2
2
4. If sin 𝐴 = 3 then value of cot 𝐴 is [BOARD 2024]
√5 3 5 2
a) 2
b) 2
c) 4
d) 3
5. If sin 𝜃 = cos 𝜃, (0° < 𝜃 < 90°) then the value of sec 𝜃 sin 𝜃 is [BOARD 2024]
1
a) b) √2 c) 1 d) 0
√2
1
6. If sec 𝜃 − tan 𝜃 = 3, then the value of (sec 𝜃 + tan 𝜃) is [BOARD 2023]
4 2 1
a) 3
b) 3
c) 3
d) 3
7. If sec 𝜃 − tan 𝜃 = 𝑚, then the value of (sec 𝜃 + tan 𝜃) is [BOARD 2024]

1 1
a) 1 − 𝑚 b) 𝑚 2 − 1 c) 𝑚
d) – 𝑚
𝛼+𝛽
8. If cos(𝛼 + 𝛽) = 0 then the value of 𝑐𝑜𝑠 ( 2
) is [BOARD 2024]
1 1
a) b) c) 0 d) √2
√2 2
9. If ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 is a right triangle at C, then the value of cos⁡(𝐴 + 𝐵) is

1 √3
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2
d) 2
√3 1
10. If cos 𝜃 = ⁡and sin 𝜑 = ⁡ then tan⁡(𝜃 + 𝜑) is [BOARD 2024]
2 2
1
a) √3 b) c) 1 d) not defined
√3
11. If sin 𝜃 + cos 𝜃 = √2 then tan 𝜃 + cot 𝜃 =

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

3
12. [4 tan2 30° − sec 2 45° + sin2 60°] is equal to [BOARD 2023]
5 −3 1
a) -1 b) 6
c) 2
d) 6
5
13. [ 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 60° − tan2 60° + cos2 45°] is equal to [BOARD 2023]
8
−5 −1 −1
a) 0 b) 3
c) 2
d) 4
2 tan 30°
14. ( ) is equal to [BOARD 2023]
1+tan2 30°
a) sin 60° b) cos 60° c) tan 60° d) sin 30°

1−tan2 30°
15. ( ) is equal to [BOARD 2023]
1+tan2 30°
a) sin 60° b) cos 60° c) tan 60° d) cos 30°

16. If 𝑥 tan 60° cos 60° = sin 60° cot 60°, then x is
a) cos 30° b) tan 30° c) sin 30° d) cot 30°
cos2 𝜃 1
17. Simplified form of − sin2 𝜃 is [BOARD 2023]
sin2 𝜃
a) tan2 𝜃 b) sec 2 𝜃 c) 1 d) -1
18. Simplified form of (cos4 𝐴 − sin4 𝐴) is [BOARD 2023]
a) 2 sin2 𝐴 − 1 b) 2 sin2 𝐴 + 1 c) 2 cos2 𝐴 + 1 d) 2 cos2 𝐴 − 1
19. sec 𝜃 when expressed in terms of cot 𝜃 is equal to [BOARD 2023]
1+cot2 𝜃 √1+cot2 𝜃 √1−cot2 𝜃
a) b) c) √1 + cot 2 𝜃 d)
cot 𝜃 cot 𝜃 cot 𝜃
20. Which of the following is true for all values of 𝜃⁡(0° ≤ 𝜃 ≤ 90°)? [BOARD 2023]
a) cos2 𝜃 − sin2 𝜃 = 1 c) 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝜃 − sec 2 𝜃 = 1
b) sec 2 𝜃 − tan2 𝜃 = 1 d) cot 2 𝜃 − tan2 𝜃 = 1
21. If 𝜃 is an acute angle of a right angled triangle, then which of the following
equation is not true? [BOARD 2023]
a) sin 𝜃 cot 𝜃 = cos 𝜃 c) cos 𝜃 tan 𝜃 = sin 𝜃
b) 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝜃 − cot 2 𝜃 = 1 d) tan2 𝜃 − sec 2 𝜃 = 1
22. If 𝑥 = 𝑝 sec 𝜃 ⁡and⁡y = q tan θ then
a) 𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 = 𝑝 2 𝑞2 c) 𝑥 2 𝑞2 − 𝑦 2 𝑝2 = 𝑝𝑞
1
b) 𝑥 2 𝑞2 − 𝑦 2 𝑝 2 = 𝑝2 𝑞2 d) 𝑥 2 𝑞2 − 𝑦 2 𝑝2 = 𝑝2 𝑞2
23. (sec 2 𝜃 − 1)(𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝜃 − 1) is equal to [BOARD 2023]

a) -1 b) 1 c) 0 d) 2

24. 2 cos2 𝜃⁡(1 + tan2 𝜃) is equal to [COMPARTMENT 2023]
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
𝑥 𝑦
25. If = 2 sin 𝐴,⁡⁡⁡ = 2 cos 𝐴 then the value of 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 is [BOARD 2024]
3 3
a) 36 b) 9 c) 6 d) 18
26. If 𝑥 sin3 𝜃 + 𝑦 cos3 𝜃 = sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃⁡and⁡⁡𝑥 sin 𝜃 = 𝑦 cos 𝜃 then 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 is
1 3
a) 0 b) 2
c) 1 d) 2
27. If 𝑥 = 𝑎 cos 𝜃⁡and⁡𝑦 = 𝑏⁡𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃⁡⁡then the value of 𝑏 𝑥 + 𝑎 𝑦 is 2 2 2 2

[BOARD 2024]
a) 𝑎2 𝑏2 b) 𝑎𝑏 c) 𝑎4 𝑏4 d) 𝑎2 + 𝑏2

28. Assertion (A): For 0 < 𝜃 ≤ 90°, 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝜃 − cot 𝜃⁡and⁡𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝜃 + cot 𝜃⁡ are reciprocal of each
other.
Reason (R): 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝜃 − cot 2 𝜃 = 1. [BOARD 2023]
1 2√2
29. Assertion (A): If sin 𝐴 = 3 (0° < 𝐴 < 90°) then the value of cos 𝐴 is 3
.
Reason (R): For every angle 𝜃, sin2 𝜃 + cos2 𝜃 = 1. [BOARD 2024]
2 marks:
cos 𝜃−sin 𝜃 1−√3

1. Find an acute angle 𝜃 when = 1+ 3.
cos 𝜃+sin 𝜃 √
2. Find the value of cos 2𝜃 if 2 sin 2𝜃 = √3.

3. If √3 sin 𝜃 − cos 𝜃 = 0⁡and⁡0° < 𝜃 < 90°, find the value of 𝜃.
4. If sin 𝜃 + cos 𝜃 = √3, then find the value of sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃. [BOARD 2023]
5. If 𝜃 is an acute angle and sin 𝜃 = cos 𝜃, find the value of tan2 𝜃 + cot 2 𝜃 − 2.
[BOARD 2023]
6. If sin 𝜃 − cos 𝜃 = 0 then find the value of sin4 𝜃 + cos4 𝜃. [BOARD 2023]
1
7. If sin 𝛼 = ⁡and cot 𝛽 = √3, then find the value of 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝛼 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝛽. [BOARD 2023]
2
8. If sin 𝜃 + sin2 𝜃 = 1, then prove that cos2 𝜃 + cos4 𝜃 = 1. [BOARD 2023]

9. If cos 𝐴 + cos2 𝐴 = 1, then find the value of sin2 𝐴 + sin4 𝐴. [BOARD 2023]
1 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2𝜃−sec2 𝜃 3
10. If tan 𝜃 = then show that = 4. [BOARD 2023]
√7 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2𝜃+sec2 𝜃
3
11. If 4 cot 2 45° − sec 2 60° + sin2 60° + 𝑝 = 4, then find the value of p. [BOARD 2023]
3
12. Find the value of x: 2⁡𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 30° + 𝑥 sin2 60° − 4 tan2 30° = 10.
5 cos2 60°+4 sec2 30°−tan2 45°
13. Evaluate: . [BOARD 2023 & BOARD 2024]
sin2 30°+cos2 30°
5 1
14. Evaluate: + sin2 60° − cot 2 45° + 2 sin2 90°. [BOARD 2023]
cot2 30°
15. Evaluate: 2 sec 2 𝜃 + 3⁡𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝜃 − 2 sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃⁡if⁡𝜃 = 45°. [BOARD 2023]
16. Evaluate: 2√2 cos 45° sin 30° + 2√3 cos 30°. [BOARD 2024]
17. If A and B are acute angles such that sin(𝐴 − 𝐵) = 0⁡and⁡2 cos(𝐴 + 𝐵) − 1 = 0, then
find the angles A and B. [BOARD 2023]
18. If 2 sin(𝐴 + 𝐵) = √3 ⁡and cos(A − B) = 1 then find A and B. [BOARD 2024]
19. If 𝑎 cos 𝜃 + 𝑏 sin 𝜃 = 𝑚⁡and⁡𝑎 sin 𝜃 − 𝑏 cos 𝜃 = 𝑛, then prove that 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 = 𝑚 2 + 𝑛2 .
[BOARD 2023]
sec 𝐴−1 sec 𝐴+1
20. Prove that √ + √sec 𝐴−1 = 2⁡𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝐴. [BOARD 2023]
sec 𝐴+1
21. If 𝐴 = 60°⁡and⁡𝐵 = 30°⁡, verify that sin(𝐴 + 𝐵) = sin 𝐴 cos 𝐵 + cos 𝐴 sin 𝐵. [BOARD 2024]
3 marks:
tan 𝜃+sec 𝜃−1 1+sin 𝜃

1. Prove that = . [BOARD 2023]
tan 𝜃−sec 𝜃+1 cos 𝜃
1+sec 𝜃−tan 𝜃 1−sin 𝜃
2. Prove that = . [BOARD 2024]
1+sec 𝜃+tan 𝜃 cos 𝜃
sin 𝜃−cos 𝜃+1 1
3. Prove that = sec 𝜃−tan 𝜃 . [BOARD 2024]
sin 𝜃+cos 𝜃−1
cot 𝜃+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝜃−1 1+cos 𝜃
4. Prove that = .
cot 𝜃−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝜃+1 sin 𝜃
5. Prove that (1 + cot 𝐴 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝐴)(1 + tan 𝐴 + sec 𝐴) = 2.

1
6. Prove that (𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝐴 − sin 𝐴)(sec 𝐴 − cos 𝐴) = .
cot 𝐴+tan 𝐴

7. Prove that 2(sin6 𝜃 + cos 6 𝜃 ) − 3(sin4 𝜃 + cos 4 𝜃) + 1 = 0. [BOARD 2023]
8. Prove that sin6 𝜃 + cos6 𝜃 = 1 − 3 sin2 𝜃 cos2 𝜃⁡. [BOARD 2024]
1 1 1
9. Prove that ( − cos 𝜃) (sin 𝜃 − sin 𝜃) = tan 𝜃+cot 𝜃 . [BOARD 2023]
cos 𝜃

sin 𝜃 1+cos 𝜃
10. Prove that + = 2⁡𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝜃 . [BOARD 2023 & BOARD 2024]
1+cos 𝜃 sin 𝜃
cos2 𝜃 sin3 𝜃
11. Prove that + sin 𝜃−cos 𝜃 = 1 + sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃 . [BOARD 2023]
1−tan 𝜃
tan3 𝜃 cot3 𝜃
12. Prove that 1+tan2 𝜃
+ 1+cot2 𝜃 = sec 𝜃⁡𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝜃 − 2 sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃.
tan 𝜃−cot 𝜃
13. Prove that = sec 2 𝜃 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝜃. [BOARD 2024]
sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃
sin 𝐴−2 sin3 𝐴
14. Prove that = tan 𝐴. [BOARD 2023 & BOARD 2024]
2 cos3 𝐴−cos 𝐴
sin 𝐴+cos 𝐴 sin 𝐴−cos 𝐴 2
15. Prove that + sin 𝐴+cos 𝐴 = 2 sin2 𝐴−1. [BOARD 2024]
sin 𝐴−cos 𝐴
16. Prove that sec 𝐴⁡(1 − sin 𝐴)(sec 𝐴 + tan 𝐴) = 1. [BOARD 2023]
17. Prove that (sin 𝜃 + cos 𝜃)(tan 𝜃 + cot 𝜃) = sec 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝜃. [BOARD 2023]
18. Prove that (sin 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝜃)2 + (cos 𝜃 + sec 𝜃)2 = 7 + tan2 𝜃 + cot 2 𝜃.
tan 𝜃 cot 𝜃
19. Prove that + 1−tan 𝜃 = 1 + sec 𝜃⁡𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝜃. [BOARD 2023 & BOARD 2024]
1−cot 𝜃
tan 𝐴 tan 𝐴
20. Prove that − = 2⁡𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝐴. [BOARD 2023]
1+sec 𝐴 1−sec 𝐴
tan2 𝐴 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2𝐴 1
21. Prove that + = .
tan2 𝐴−1 sec2 𝐴−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝐴 1−2 cos2 𝐴
1+sec 𝐴 sin2 𝐴
22. Prove that = 1−cos 𝐴. [BOARD 2023]
sec 𝐴
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2𝜃−sec2 𝜃 3 1
23. Prove that 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2𝜃+sec2 𝜃
= 4 if tan 𝜃 = . [BOARD 2024]
√7
1−cos 𝐴
24. Prove that √1+cos 𝐴 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝐴 − cot 𝐴.
25. If sin 𝜃 + cos 𝜃 = 𝑝⁡and sec 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝜃 = 𝑞⁡, then prove that 𝑞(𝑝2 − 1) = 2𝑝.
[BOARD 2023]
1
26. If 1 + sin2 𝜃 = 3 sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃, then prove that tan 𝜃 = 1⁡𝑜𝑟⁡ 2.
27. If sin 𝜃 + cos 𝜃 = √2 then prove that tan 𝜃 + cot 𝜃 = 2.
5 marks:
1. (a) Prove that √sec 2 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝜃 = tan 𝜃 + cot 𝜃 .

cos 45°
(b) Evaluate: . [COMPARTMENT 2023 & BOARD 2024]
sec 30°+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡30°
2. If 𝑥 sin3 𝜃 + 𝑦 cos3 𝜃 = sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃⁡and ⁡𝑥 sin 𝜃 = 𝑦 cos 𝜃 then prove that 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 1.
[COMPARTMENT 2023]
1+sin 𝜃 1−sin 𝜃
3. Prove that − 1+sin 𝜃 = 4 tan 𝜃 sec 𝜃. [COMPARTMENT 2023]
1−sin 𝜃

sin 𝜃 sin 𝜃
4. Prove that = 2 + cot 𝜃−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝜃.
cot 𝜃+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝜃
tan2 60°+4 sin2 45°+3 sec2 60°+5 cos2 90°
5. Evaluate: . [COMPARTMENT 2023]
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡30°+sec 60°−cot2 30°
6. If tan 𝜃 + sin 𝜃 = 𝑚⁡and tan 𝜃 − sin 𝜃 = 𝑛, then show that (𝑚 2 − 𝑛2 ) = 4√𝑚𝑛.

[COMPARTMENT 2023]
1
7. If in an acute angle ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶, sec(𝐵 + 𝐶 − 𝐴) = 2⁡and tan(𝐶 + 𝐴 − 𝐵) = ⁡then find the
√3
three angles of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶. [COMPARTMENT 2023]

1
8. If sec 𝜃 = 𝑥 + 4𝑥 ⁡, 𝑥 ≠ 0 then find (sec 𝜃 + tan 𝜃).
9. If 15 tan2 𝜃 + 4 sec 2 𝜃 = 23, then find the value of (sec 𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐⁡𝜃)2 − sin2 𝜃.
10. If √3 cot 2 𝜃 − 4 cot 𝜃 + √3 = 0 then find the value of cot 2 𝜃 + tan2 𝜃.

GRADE X
Chapter-9 APPLICATIONS OF TRIGONOMETRY
1 marks:
1. From a point on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of the vertical tower,
the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is found to be 60°. The height (in
metres) of the tower is: [BOARD 2024]
a) 10√3 b) 30√3 c) 60 d) 30
2. At some time of the day, the length of the shadow of a tower is equal to its height.
Then, the Sun’s altitude at the time is [BOARD 2024]
a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 90°
3. If a vertical pole of length 7.5 m casts a shadow 5m long on the ground and at the
same time, a tower casts a shadow 24m long, then the height of the tower is:
[BOARD 2024]
a) 20m b) 40m c) 60m d) 80m
4. The ratio of the length of the pole and its shadow on the ground is 1: √3. The angle
of elevation of the Sun is: [BOARD 2024]
a) 90° b) 60° c) 45° d) 30°
5. The length of the shadow of a tower on the plane ground is √3 times the height of
the tower. The angle of elevation of the Sun is: [BOARD 2024]
a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 90°
6. If a pole 6m high casts a shadow 2√3𝑚 long on the ground, then Sun’s elevation is
[BOARD 2023]
a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 90°
7. If the angle of depression of an object from a 75m high tower is 30° then the
distance of the object from the tower is
a) 25√3𝑚 b) 50√3𝑚 c) 75√3𝑚 d) 150 𝑚
8. A tree casts a shadow 15m long on the level of ground, when the angle of elevation
of the Sun is 45°. The height of a tree is
a) 10 m b) 14 m c) 8 m d) 15 m

9. A circus artist is climbing a 20 m long rope, which is tightly stretched and tied
from the top of a vertical pole to the ground, then the height of the pole, if the angle
made by the rope with the ground level is 30°, is
a) 5 m b) 10 m c) 15 m d) 20 m
10. An observer, 1.5 m tall is 20.5 m away from a tower 22 m high, then the angle of
elevation of the top of the tower from the eye of the observer is
a) 10 m b) 14 m c) 8 m d) 15 m
11. From the top of 7 m high building the angle of elevation of the top of a cable tower
is 60° and the angle of depression of its foot is 45°, then the height of the tower is
a) 14.124 m b) 17.124 m c) 19.124 m d) 15.124 m
12. A tree is broken by the wind. The top stuck the ground at an angle of 30° and at a
distance of 10 m from its foot. The whole height of the tree is
a) 10√3 𝑚 b) 3√10 𝑚 c) 20√3 𝑚 d) 3√20 𝑚
2 marks:
1. The length of the shadow of a tower on the plane ground is √3 times the height of
the tower. Find the angle of elevation of the Sun. [BOARD 2023]
2. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground is 30m away
from the foot of the tower, is 30°. Find the height of the tower. [BOARD 2023]
3. Find the length of the shadow on the ground of a pole of height 18m when angle of
6
elevation 𝜃 of the Sun is such that tan 𝜃 = 7. [BOARD 2023]
3 marks:
1. The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of the tower is 30° and
the angle of elevation of the top of a tower from the foot of the building is 60°. If the
tower is 50 m high, then find the height of the building.
2. The top of two poles of height 16 m and 10 m are connected by a length ‘ l’ meter. If
the wire makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal, then find ‘ l’.
3. An electric pole is 10 m high. A steel wire tied to top of the pole is affixed at a point
on the ground to keep the pole up right. If the wire makes an angle of 45° with the
horizontal through the foot of the pole, find the length of the wire. (𝑈𝑠𝑒 √2 = 1.414)
4. A boy, flying a kite with a string of 85 m long, which is making an angle 𝜃 with the
15
ground. Find the height of the kite. (Given tan 𝜃 = )
8

5 marks:
1. A pole of 6m high is fixed on the top of the tower. The angle of elevation of the top
of the pole observed from a point P on the ground is 60° and the angle of
depression of the point P from the top of the tower is 45°. Find the height of the
tower and the distance of the point P from the foot of the tower. (𝑈𝑠𝑒 √3 = 1.73)
[BOARD 2024]
2. From the top of a building 60m high, the angles of depression of the top and
bottom of the vertical lamp post are observed to be 30° and 60° respectively.
(i) Find the horizontal distance between the building and the lamp post.
(ii) Find the distance between the tops of the building and the lamp post.
[BOARD 2024]
3. From the top of a 15m high building, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is
found to be 30°. From the bottom of the same building, the angle of elevation of the
top of the tower is found to be 60°. Find the height of the tower and the distance
between tower and the building. [BOARD 2024]
4. As observed from the top of a 75m high lighthouse from the sea-level, the angles of
depression of two ships are 30° and 60°. If one ship is exactly behind the other on
the same side of the lighthouse, find the distance between two ships.
(𝑈𝑠𝑒 √3 = 1.73) [BOARD 2023]
5. From the top of 45m high light house, the angles of depression of two ships, on the
opposite side of it, are observed to be 30° and 60°. If the line joining the ships
passes through the foot of the light house, find the distance between the ships.
(𝑈𝑠𝑒 √3 = 1.73) [BOARD 2024]
6. The angle of elevation of an aircraft from a point A on the ground is 60°. After a
flight of 30 seconds, the angle of elevation changes to 30°. The aircraft is flying at a
constant height of 3500√3𝑚 at a uniform speed. Find the speed of the aircraft.
[BOARD 2024]
7. A person standing on the bank of a river observes that the angle of elevation of the
top of a tower on the opposite bank is 60°. When he moves 30m away from the
bank, he finds the angle of elevation to be 30°. Find the height of the tower and
width of the river. (𝑈𝑠𝑒 √3 = 1.732) [BOARD 2024]

8. From a point on the ground, the angles of elevation of the bottom and the top of a
transmission tower fixed at the top of a 20m high building are 45° and 60°
respectively. Find the height of the tower. [BOARD 2024]
9. Two pillars of equal lengths stand on either side of a road which is 100m wide,
exactly opposite to each other. At a point on the road between the pillars, the
angles of elevation of the tops of the pillars are 60° and 30°. Find the length of each
pillar and distance of the point on the road from the pillars. (𝑈𝑠𝑒 √3 = 1.732)
[BOARD 2024]
10. The angles of depression of the top and the bottom of a 50 m high building from
the top of a tower are 45° and 60°, respectively. Find the height of the tower.
(𝑈𝑠𝑒 √3 = 1.73) [BOARD 2024]
11. From a top of 7m high building, the angle of elevation of the top a cable tower is 60°
and the angle of depression of its foot is 30°. Find the height of the tower.
[BOARD 2023]
12. The angles of depression of the top and the bottom of a 8m tall building from the
top of a multi-storied building are 30° and 45° respectively. Find the height of the
multi-storied building and the distance between the two buildings. [BOARD 2024]
13. From a point on a bridge across the river, the angles of depressions of the banks on
opposite sides of the river are 30° and 60° respectively. If the bridge is at a height of
4m from the banks, find the width of the river. [BOARD 2024]
14. From a window 15 m high above the ground in a street, the angles of elevation and
depression of top and the foot of another house on the opposite side of the street
are 30° and 45° respectively. Find the height of the opposite house. (𝑈𝑠𝑒 √3 = 1.732)
[BOARD 2024]
15. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower 24m high from the foot of another tower
in the same plane is 60°. The angle of elevation of the top of second tower from the
foot of the first tower is 30°. Find the distance between two towers and the height of
the other tower. Also, find the length of wire attached to the tops of both the
towers. [BOARD 2023]
16. A spherical balloon of radius ‘r’ subtends an angle of 60° at the eye of an observer.
If the angle of elevation of its centre is 45° from the same point, then prove that
height of the centre of the balloon is √2 times its radius. [BOARD 2023]

17. A ladder set against a wall at angle 45° to the ground. If the foot of the ladder is
pulled away from the wall through a distance of 4m, its top slides a distance of 3m
down the wall making an angle 30° with the ground. Find the final height of the top
of the ladder from the ground and length of the ladder. [BOARD 2023]
18. An aeroplane when flying at a height of 3000m from the ground passes vertically
above another aeroplane at an instant when the angles of elevation of the two
planes from the same point on the ground are 60° and 45° respectively. Find the
vertical distance between the aeroplanes at that instant. Also, find the distance of
the first plane from the point of observation. (𝑈𝑠𝑒 √3 = 1.73) [BOARD 2023]
19. A straight highway leads to the foot of the tower. A man standing on the top of the
75m high tower observes two cars at angles of depression of 30° and 60°, which are
approaching the foot of the tower. If one car is exactly behind the other on the
same side of the tower, find the distance between the two cars. (𝑈𝑠𝑒 √3 = 1.73)
[BOARD 2023]
20. One observer estimates the angle of elevation to the basket of a hot air balloon to
be 60°, while another observer 100m away estimates the angle of elevation to be
30°. Find:
(i) The height of the basket from the ground.
(ii) The distance of the basket from the first observer’s eye.
(iii) The horizontal distance of the second observer from the basket.
[BOARD 2023]
21. Amit standing on a horizontal plane, find a bird flying at a distance of 200m from
him at an elevation of 30°. Deepak standing on the roof of a 50 m high building,
find the angle elevation of the same bird to be 45°. Amit and Deepak are on
opposite sides of the bird. Find the distance of the bird from Deepak.

1. Radio towers are used for transmitting a range of communication services
including radio and television. The tower will either act as an antenna itself or
support one or more antennas on its structure. On a similar concept, a radio
station tower was built in two sections A and B. Tower is supported by wires from a
point O.

Distance between the base of the tower and point O is 36 cm. From point O,
the angle of elevation of the top of the section B is 30° and the angle of the elevation
of the top of section A is 45°. [BOARD 2023]

(i) Find the length of the wire from the point O to the top of section B. 1
(ii) Find the distance AB. 2
OR
Find the area of ∆𝑂𝑃𝐵. 2
(iii) Find the height of the section A from the base of the tower. 1
2. One evening, Karthi was in a park. Children were playing cricket. Birds were
singing on a nearby tree of height 80m. He observed a bird on the tree at an angle
of elevation of 45°.
When a sixer was hit, a ball flew through the tree frightening the bird to
fly away. In 2 seconds, he observed the bird flying at the same height at an angle of
elevation of 30° and the ball flying towards him at the same height at an angle of
elevation of 60°.

(i) At what distance from the foot of the tree was he observing the bird sitting
on the tree? 1
(ii) How far did the bird fly in the mentioned time? 2
OR
After hitting the tree, how far did the ball travel in the sky when Karthi saw
the ball? 2
(iii) What is the speed of the bird in m/min if it had flown 20(√3 + 1)m? 1
3. We all have seen the airplanes flying in the sky but might have not thought of how
they actually reach the correct destination. Air Traffic Control (ATC) is a service
provided by ground-based air traffic controllers who direct aircraft on the ground
and through a given section of controlled airspace, and can provide advisory
services to aircraft in non-controlled airspace. Actually, all this air traffic is
managed and regulated by using various concepts based on coordinate geometry
and trigonometry.
At a given instance, ATC finds that the angle of elevation of an airplane from a
point on the ground is 60°. After a flight of 30 seconds, it is observed that the angle
of elevation changes to 30°. The height of the plane remains constantly as 3000√3𝑚.
Use the above information to answer the questions that follows:
(i) Draw neat labeled figure to show the above situation diagrammatically. 1
(ii) What is the distance travelled by the plane in 30 seconds? 2
OR
Keeping the height constant, during the above flight, it was observed that
after 15(√3 − 1) seconds, the angle of elevation changed to 45°. How much is
the distance travelled in that duration. 2

(iii) What is the speed of the plane in km/hr. 1
4. Height of a Climber: Himalayan trekking Club has just hiked to the south rim of a
large canyon, when they spot a climber attempting to scale the taller northern face.
Knowing the distance between the sheer walls of the northern and southern faces
of the canyon is approximately 150 m, they attempt to compute the distance
remaining for the climbers to reach the top of the northern rim.
Using a homemade transit, they sight an angle of depression of 60° to the
bottom of the north face and angles of elevation of 30° and 45° to the climbers and
top of the northern rim respectively.
Based on the above information answer the following questions:

(i) How high is the southern rim of the canyon? 1
(ii) How high is the northern rim? 2
(iii) How much farther until the climber reaches the top? 1

GRADE X
Chapter-10 CIRCLES
1 marks:
1. AB and CD are two chords of a circle intersecting at P. Choose the correct
statement from the following: [BOARD 2024]
a) ∆𝐴𝐷𝑃~∆𝐶𝐵𝐴 b) ∆𝐴𝐷𝑃~∆𝐵𝑃𝐶 c) ∆𝐴𝐷𝑃~∆𝐵𝐶𝑃 d) ∆𝐴𝐷𝑃~∆𝐶𝐵𝑃

2. In the given figure, tangents PA and PB to the circle centered at O, from point P are
perpendicular to each other. If 𝑃𝐴 = 5 𝑐𝑚 then length of AB is [BOARD 2024]
a) 5 cm b) 5√2 𝑐𝑚 c) 2√5 𝑐𝑚 d) 10 cm
3. In the given figure, AT is tangent to a circle centered at O. If ∠𝐶𝐴𝑇 = 40° then ∠𝐶𝐵𝐴
is equal to [BOARD 2024]
a) 70° b) 50° c) 65° d)40°

4. In the given figure, PT is tangent to a circle with centre O. Chord PQ subtends an
angle of 65° at the centre. The measure of ∠𝑄𝑃𝑇 is [BOARD 2023 & BOARD 2024]
a) 65° b) 57.5° c) 67.5° d) 32.5°

5. The maximum number of common tangents that can be drawn to two circles
intersecting at two distinct points is [BOARD 2024]
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
6. In the given figure, if PT is a tangent to a circle with centre O and ∠𝑇𝑃𝑂 = 35° then
the measure of ∠𝑥 is [BOARD 2024]
a) 110° b) 115° c) 120° d) 125°

7. In the given figure, PT is a tangent at T to the circle with centre O. If ∠𝑇𝑃𝑂 = 25°
then x is [BOARD 2023]
a) 25° b) 65° c) 90° d) 115°

8. In the given figure, PA is a tangent from an external point P to a circle with centre
O. If ∠𝑃𝑂𝐵 = 115° then ∠𝐴𝑃𝑂 is
9. In the given figure, AC and AB are tangents to a circle centered at O. If ∠𝐶𝑂𝐷 = 120°
then ∠𝐵𝐴𝑂 is [BOARD 2023]
a) 30° b) 60° c) 45° d) 90°

10. In the given figure, PT is a tangent at a point C to the circle with centre O. If
∠𝐴𝐶𝑃 = 118° then ∠𝑥 is
a) 28° b) 32° c) 42° d) 38°

11. In the given figure, three circles with centres P, Q and R are drawn, such that the
circles with centres Q and R touch each other externally and they touch the circle
with centre P internally. If 𝑃𝑄 = 10 𝑐𝑚, 𝑃𝑅 = 8 𝑐𝑚 and 𝑄𝑅 = 12 𝑐𝑚 then the diameter
of the largest circle is
a) 30 cm b) 20 cm c) 10 cm d) 40 cm
12. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. MN is the chord and the tangent
ML at point M makes an angle of 70° with MN. The measure of ∠𝑀𝑂𝑁 is
[BOARD 2024]
a) 120° b) 140° c) 70° d) 90°

13. If an arc subtends an angle of 90° at the centre of a circle, then the ratio of its
length to the circumference of the circle is [BOARD 2024]
a) 2:3 b) 1:4 c) 4:1 d) 1:3

14. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle and PQ is the chord. If the tangent
PR at P makes an angle of 50° with PQ, then the ∠𝑃𝑂𝑄 is [BOARD 2023]
a) 50° b) 40° c) 100° d) 130°

15. In the given figure, AB and AC are tangents to the circle. If ∠𝐴𝐵𝐶 = 42° then the
measure of ∠𝐵𝐴𝐶 is [BOARD 2024]
a) 96° b) 42° c) 106° d) 86°

16. In the given figure, QR is the common tangent to the two given circles touching
externally at A. The tangent at A meets QR at P. If 𝐴𝑃 = 4.2 𝑐𝑚 then the length of
QR is [BOARD 2024]
a) 4.2 𝑐𝑚 b) 2.1 𝑐𝑚 c) 8.4 𝑐𝑚 d) 6.3 𝑐𝑚

17. The area of the square inscribed in a circle of radius 5√2 𝑐𝑚 is [BOARD 2024]
a) 50 𝑐𝑚2 b) 100 𝑐𝑚2 c) 25 𝑐𝑚2 d) 200 𝑐𝑚2
18. A chord of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends a right angle at its centre. The length
of the chord (in cm) is [BOARD 2024]
5
a) 5√2 b) 10√2 c) d) 5
√2

19. In the given figure, 𝐴𝐵 = 𝐵𝐶 = 10 𝑐𝑚. If 𝐴𝐶 = 7 𝑐𝑚, then the length of BP is
[BOARD 2023]
a) 3.5 cm b) 7 cm c) 6.5 cm d) 5 cm
20. In the given figure, the quadrilateral PQRS circumscribes a circle. Here PA+CS is
equal to [BOARD 2023]
a) QR b) PR c) PS d) PQ
21. In the given figure, PQ is a tangent to the circle with centre O.If ∠𝑂𝑃𝑄 = 𝑥, ∠𝑃𝑂𝑄 = 𝑦
then 𝑥 + 𝑦 is [BOARD 2023]
a) 45° b) 90° c) 60° d) 180°

22. The length of tangent drawn to a circle of radius 9 cm from a point 41 cm from the
centre is: [BOARD 2023]
a) 40 cm b) 9 cm c) 41 cm d) 50 cm
23. In the given figure, TA is a tangent to the circle with centre O such that 𝑂𝑇 =
4 𝑐𝑚, ∠𝑂𝑇𝐴 = 30° then length of TA is [BOARD 2023]
a) 2√3 𝑐𝑚 b) 2 𝑐𝑚 c) 2√2 𝑐𝑚 d) √3 𝑐𝑚

24. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents from an external point P to circle with
centre C and Q is any point on the circle. Then the measure of ∠𝐴𝑄𝐵 is
[BOARD 2023]
a) 62.5° b) 125° c) 55° d) 90°

25. In the given figure, if ∠𝐴𝑂𝐵 = 125° then ∠𝐶𝑂𝐷 is equal to
a) 62.5° b) 45° c) 35° d) 55°
26. Assertion (A): The tangents drawn at the end points of a diameter of a circle, are
parallel.
Reason (R): Diameter of a circle is the longest chord. [BOARD 2024]
27. Assertion (A): A tangent to a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point
of contact.
Reason (R): The length of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are
equal. [BOARD 2023]

28. Assertion (A): If PA and PB are tangents drawn from an external point P to a circle
with centre O, then the quadrilateral AOBP is cyclic.
Reason (R): The angle between two tangents drawn from an external point to a
circle is supplementary to the angle subtended by the line segment joining the
points of contact at the centre. [BOARD 2023]
2 marks:
1. In the given figure, AB and CD are tangents to a circle centered at O.
Is ∠𝐵𝐴𝐶 = ∠𝐷𝐶𝐴? Justify your answer. [BOARD 2024]
2. In the given figure, a circle centered at O has radius 7 cm, OC is median of ∆𝑂𝐴𝐵.
Find the length of median OC. [BOARD 2024]
3. From an external point P, two tangents PA and PB are drawn to the circle with
centre O. Prove that OP is the perpendicular bisector of chord AB. [BOARD 2024]
4. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If ∠𝐴𝑂𝐵 = 145° then find the value
of x. [BOARD 2024]

5. In the given figure, AB is the diameter of a circle with centre O and AT is a tangent.
If ∠𝐴𝑂𝑄 = 58° then find ∠𝐴𝑇𝑄.
6. In the given figure, PQ is a chord of the circle centered at O. PT is a tangent to a

circle at P. If ∠𝑄𝑃𝑇 = 55° then find ∠𝑃𝑅𝑄. [BOARD 2023]
7. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. PT and PQ are tangents to the
circle from an external point P. If ∠𝑇𝑃𝑄 = 70° find ∠𝑇𝑅𝑄.
8. In the given figure, ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 is circumscribing a circle. Find the length of BC, if 𝐴𝑅 =
4 𝑐𝑚, 𝐵𝑅 = 3 𝑐𝑚 and 𝐴𝐶 = 11 𝑐𝑚. [BOARD 2024]
9. If two tangents inclined at an angle of 60° are drawn to a circle of radius 3 cm, then
find the length of each tangent. [BOARD 2024]

10. Prove that the tangents drawn at the ends of a diameter of a circle are parallel.
11. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. AB and AC are tangents drawn to
the circle from point A. If ∠𝐵𝐴𝐶 = 65°, then find the measure of ∠𝐵𝑂𝐶.
[BOARD 2023]
12. In the given figure, PT is a tangent to the circle centered at O. OC is the

perpendicular to chord AB. Prove that 𝑃𝐴. 𝑃𝐵 = 𝑃𝐶 2 − 𝐴𝐶 2 . [BOARD 2023]
13. In the given figure, PA is a tangent to the circle drawn from the external point P
and PBC is the secant to the circle with BC as diameter. If ∠𝐴𝑂𝐶 = 130° then find
∠𝐴𝑃𝐵. [BOARD 2023]
14. In the given figure, from a point P, two tangents PT and PS are drawn to a circle
with centre O such that ∠𝑆𝑃𝑇 = 120°, prove that 𝑂𝑃 = 2 𝑃𝑆.
15. In the given figure, two tangents RQ and RP are drawn from an external point R to
the circle with centre O. If ∠𝑃𝑅𝑄 = 120° then prove that 𝑂𝑅 = 𝑃𝑅 + 𝑅𝑄.

16. In the given figure, common tangents AB and CD to the two circle with centres
𝑂1 and O2 intersect at E. Prove that 𝐴𝐵 = 𝐶𝐷.
17. If a quadrilateral circumscribing a circle with centre O then prove that

𝐴𝐵 + 𝐶𝐷 = 𝐵𝐶 + 𝐴𝐷
3 marks:
1. In the given figure, AB is a diameter of the circle with centre O. AQ, BP and PQ are
tangents to the circle. Prove that ∠𝑃𝑂𝑄 = 90°. [BOARD 2024]
2. A circle with centre O and radius 8 cm is inscribed in a quadrilateral ABCD in

which P, Q, R, S are the points of contact as shown. If AD is perpendicular to DC,
𝐵𝐶 = 30 𝑐𝑚 and 𝐵𝑆 = 24 𝑐𝑚 then find the length DC. [BOARD 2024]

3. In the given figure, PQ is tangent to a circle centered at O and ∠𝐵𝐴𝑄 = 30°. Show
that 𝐵𝑃 = 𝐵𝑄. [BOARD 2024]
4. In the given figure, AB, BC, CD and DA are tangents to the circle with centre O
forming a quadrilateral ABCD. Show that ∠𝐴𝑂𝐵 + ∠𝐶𝑂𝐷 = 180°. [BOARD 2024]
5. Prove that the tangents drawn at the end points of a chord of a circle makes equal
angles with the chord. [BOARD 2024]
6. Prove that parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus. [BOARD 2024]
7. Two tangents TP and TQ are drawn to a circle with centre O from an external point
T. Prove that ∠𝑃𝑇𝑄 = 2∠𝑂𝑃𝑄. [BOARD 2023]
8. In the given figure, a circle is inscribed in a quadrilateral ABCD in which ∠𝐵 = 90°.

If 𝐴𝐷 = 17 𝑐𝑚, 𝐴𝐵 = 20 𝑐𝑚 and 𝐷𝑆 = 3 𝑐𝑚 then find the radius of the circle.
[BOARD 2023]

9. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle and QPR is a tangent to it at P.
Prove that ∠𝑄𝐴𝑃 + ∠𝐴𝑃𝑅 = 90°. [BOARD 2023]
10. Prove that the angle between the two tangents drawn from an external point to a
circle is supplementary to the angle subtended by the line segment joining the
points of contact at the centre. [BOARD 2023]
11. Two concentric circles are of radii 5 cm and 3 cm. Find the length of the chord of
the larger circle which touches the smaller circle. [BOARD 2023]
12. In the given figure, two circles touch each other at the point C. Prove that the
common tangent to the circles at C, bisects the common tangent at P and Q.
13. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to a circle from an external point P
such that 𝑃𝐴 = 4 𝑐𝑚 and ∠𝐵𝐴𝐶 = 135°. Find the length of the chord AB.

5 marks:
1. A triangle ABC is drawn to circumscribe a circle of radius 4 cm such that the
segments BD and DC are of lengths 10 cm and 8 cm respectively. Find the lengths
of the sides AB and AC, if it is given that area ∆ 𝐴𝐵𝐶 = 90 𝑐𝑚2 . [BOARD 2023]
2. Two circles with centres O and O’ of radii 6 cm and 8 cm respectively intersect at

two points P and Q such that OP and O’P are tangents to the two circles. Find the
length of the common chord PQ. [BOARD 2023]
3. Two tangents TP and TQ are drawn to a circle with centre O from an external point
T. Prove that ∠𝑃𝑇𝑄 = 2∠𝑂𝑃𝑄. [BOARD 2023]
4. A circle touches the side BC of ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 at a point P and touches AB and AC when
1
produced at Q and R respectively. Show that 𝐴𝑄 = (Perimeter of ∆ABC).
2
[BOARD 2023]

5. Prove that parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus. [BOARD 2023]
6. Prove that rectangle circumscribing a circle is a square.
7. In the given figure, tangents PQ and PR are drawn to a circle such that ∠𝑅𝑃𝑄 = 30°.
A chord RS is drawn parallel to the tangent PQ. Find the ∠𝑅𝑄𝑆. [BOARD 2023]
8. In the given figure, PQ is a chord of length 8 cm of circle of radius 5 cm with centre

O. The tangents at P and Q intersect at a point T. Find the length of TP.
9. PB is a tangent to the circle with centre O to B. AB is a chord of length 24 cm at a

distance of 5 cm from the centre. If the tangent is length 20 cm, then find the
length of PO.
10. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm. T is a point such that
𝑂𝑇 = 13 𝑐𝑚 and OT intersects circle at E. If AB is a tangent to the circle at E, find
the length of AB, where TP and TQ are two tangents to the circle.

11. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. Determine ∠𝐴𝑃𝐶, if DA and DC are
tangents and ∠𝐴𝐷𝐶 = 50°.

1. A backyard is in the shape of a triangle ABC with right angle at B. 𝐴𝐵 =
7 𝑐𝑚 and 𝐵𝐶 = 15 𝑐𝑚. A circular pit was dug inside it such that it touches the walls
AC, BC and AB at P, Q and R respectively such that 𝐴𝑃 = 𝑥 𝑚.
[BOARD 2024]
(i) Find the length of AR in terms of x. 1

(ii) (a) Find the length PC in term of x and hence find the value of x. 2
OR
(b) Find x and hence find the radius r of the circle. 2
(iii) Write the type of quadrilateral BQOR. 1

GRADE X
Chapter-11 AREA RELATED TO CIRCLES
1 marks:
1. Perimeter of a sector of a circle whose central angle is 90° and radius 7 cm is
[BOARD 2024]
a) 35 cm b) 11 cm c) 22 cm d) 25 cm
2. The perimeter of the sector of a circle of radius 21 cm which subtends an angle of
60° at the centre of circle is [BOARD 2024]
a) 22 cm b) 43 cm c) 64 cm d) 462 cm
7
3. If the area of the sector of a circle is of the area of the circle, then the angle at
20
the centre is equal to [BOARD 2024]

a) 110° b) 130° c) 100° d) 126°
4. The area of the sector of a circle of radius 12 cm is 60𝜋 𝑐𝑚 2. The central angle of
this sector is [BOARD 2024]
a) 120° b) 6° c) 75° d)150°
5. The length of an arc of a circle with radius 12 cm is 10𝜋 𝑐𝑚. The angle subtended
by the arc at the centre of the circle is [BOARD 2024]
a) 120° b) 6° c) 75° d)150°
6. In the given figure, ∠𝐶 = ∠𝐷 = 90°, ∠𝐵 = 60° and 𝐴𝑃 = 3 𝑐𝑚 then the area of the
shaded region is [BOARD 2024]
a) 3𝜋 𝑐𝑚 2 b) 6𝜋 𝑐𝑚 2 c) 7𝜋 𝑐𝑚 2 d) 9𝜋 𝑐𝑚 2
7. What is the length of the arc of the sector of a circle with radius 14 cm and of
central angle 90°? [BOARD 2023]
a) 22 cm b) 44 cm c) 88 cm d) 11 cm
8. The hour hand of a clock is 6 cm long. The angle swept by it between 7:20 a.m
and 7:55 a.m is [BOARD 2023]
35 35
a) ( 4 ) ° b) ( 2 ) ° c) 35° d) 70°

9. The circumferences of two circles are in the ratio 4:5. What is the ratio of their
radii? [BOARD 2023]
a) 16: 25 b) 25: 16 c) 2: √5 d) 4: 5
10. A sector is cut from a circular sheet of radius 100 cm, the angle of the sector being
240°. If another circle of the area same as the sector is formed, then the radius of
the new circle is
a) 79.5 cm b) 81.5 cm c) 83.4 cm d) 88.5 cm
11. The area of the circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 6 cm is
a) 36𝜋 𝑐𝑚 2 b) 18𝜋 𝑐𝑚 2 c) 12𝜋 𝑐𝑚 2 d) 9𝜋 𝑐𝑚 2
12. Assertion (A): If the circumference of a circle is 176 cm, then its radius is 28 cm.
Reason (R): Circumference = 2𝜋 × radius of a circle. [BOARD 2024]
2 marks:
1. The minute hand of a clock is 14 cm long. Find the area on the face of the clock
described by the minute hand is 5 minutes. [BOARD 2024]
2. Find the length of the arc of a circle which subtends an angle of 60° at the centre of
the circle of radius 42 cm. [BOARD 2024]
3 marks:
1. An arc of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends a right angle at the centre of the circle.
Find the area of the corresponding major sector. (Use 𝜋 = 3.14) [BOARD 2024]
2. A sector is cut from a circle of radius 21 cm. The central angle of the sector is 150°.
Find the length of the arc of this sector and the area of the sector. [BOARD 2024]
3. In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. Find the
area of the sector formed by the arc. Also, find the length of the arc. [BOARD 2023]

4. A car has two wipers which do not overlap. Each wiper has a blade of length 21 cm
sweeping through an angle of 120°. Find the total area cleaned at each sweep of the
two blades. [BOARD 2023]
5. Reeti prepares a Rakhi for her brother Ronit. The Rakhi consists of a rectangle of
length 8 cm and breadth 6 cm inscribed in a circle as shown in the figure. Find the
area of the shaded region. (Use 𝜋 = 3.14 ) [BOARD 2023]
6. In the given figure, AB and CD are diameters of a circle with centre O

perpendicular to each other. If 𝑂𝐴 = 7 𝑐𝑚 find the area of shaded region.
[BOARD 2023]
7. In the given figure, PQ and AB are two arcs of concentric circles of radii 7 cm and
3.5 cm respectively, with centre O. If ∠𝑃𝑂𝑄 = 30° then the area of shaded region.
8. Three horses are tied each with 7 cm long rope at three corners of a triangular field
having sides 20 m, 34 m and 42 m. Find the area of the plot which can be grazed
by the horses.

9. In the given figure, AOB is a sector of angle 60° of a circle with centre O and radius
17 cm. If 𝐴𝑃 ⊥ 𝑂𝐵 and 𝐴𝑃 = 15 𝑐𝑚 find the area of the shaded region.
10. In the given figure, a chord AB of the circle with centre O and radius 10 cm, that
subtends a right angle at the centre of the circle. Find the area of the minor
segment AQBP. Hence find the area of major segment ALBQA. (Use π = 3.14).
11. Find the area of shaded region shown in the figure, where a circular arc of radius 6
cm has been drawn with vertex O of an equilateral triangle OAB of side 12 cm as
centre.
12. In the given figure, find the area of shaded region enclosed between two concentric
circles of radii 7 cm and 14 cm where ∠𝐴𝑂𝐶 = 40°.

13. In the given figure, ∆𝑃𝑄𝑅 is an equilateral triangle of side 8 cm and D, E, F are
centres of circular arcs each of radius 4 cm. Find the area of shaded region.
(Use π = 3.14 and √3 = 1.732)
5 marks:
1. An arc of circle of radius 21 cm subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. Find the
length of an arc and the area of the minor segment of the circle made by the
corresponding chord. [BOARD 2024]
2. A chord of circle of radius 14 cm subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. Find the
area of the corresponding minor segment of the circle. Also find the area of major
segment of the circle. [BOARD 2023]
3. In the given figure, diameters AC and BD of the circle intersect at O. If ∠𝐴𝑂𝐵 = 60°
and 𝑂𝐴 = 10 𝑐𝑚 then find the length of the chord AB and find the area of the
shaded region. (Use 𝜋 = 3.14 and √3 = 1.73) [BOARD 2024]
4. The perimeter of a certain sector of a circle of radius 5.6 m is 20 m. Find the area
of the sector. [BOARD 2024]
5. A horse is tied to a beg at one corner of a square shaped grass field of side 15 m
by means of a 5 m long rope. Find the area of that part of the field in which the
horse can graze. Also, find the increase in grazing area if length of the rope is
increased to 10 m. (Use 𝜋 = 3.14) [BOARD 2023]

6. In the given figure, a square OABC is inscribed in a quadrant OPBQ. If 𝑂𝐴 = 15 𝑐𝑚
find the area of the shaded region. (Use π = 3.14).

1. A stable owner has four horses. He usually tie these horses with 7 m long rope to
pegs at each corner of a square shaped grass field of 20 m length, to graze in his
farm. But tying with rope sometimes results in injuries to his horses, so he decided
to build fence around the area so that each horse can graze. [BOARD 2024]

(i) Find the area of the square shaped grass field. 1
(ii) (a) Find the area of the total field in which these horses can graze. 2
OR
(b) If the length of the rope of each horse is increased from 7 m to 10 m, find
the area grazed by one horse. (Use 𝜋 = 3.14) 2
(iii) What is the area of the field that is left un grazed, if the length of the rope of
each horse is 7 m? 1
2. The discus throw is an event in which an athlete attempts to throw a discus. The
athlete spins anti clockwise around one and a half times through a circle, then
releases the throw. When released, the discus travels along tangent to the circular
spin orbit. [BOARD 2023]

In the given figure, AB is one such tangent to a circle of radius 75 cm. Point O is
centre of the circle and ∠𝐴𝐵𝑂 = 30°. PQ is parallel to OA.
Based on the above information:
(i) Find the length of AB. 1
(ii) (a) Find the length of AP. 2
OR
(b) Find the length of PQ. 2
(iii) Find the length of OB. 1
3. In an annual day function of a school, the organizers wanted to give a cash prize
along with a memento to their best students. Each memento is made as shown in
the figure and its base ABCD is shown from the front side. The rate of silver plating
is Rs 20 per 𝑐𝑚 2. [BOARD 2023]

(i) What is the area of the quadrant ODCO? 1
(ii) (a) What is the total cost of silver plating the shaded part ABCD? 2
OR
(b) What is the length of arc CD? 2
(iii) Find the area of ∆𝐴𝑂𝐵. 1

4. Governing council of a local public development authority of Dehradun decided to
build an adventurous playground on the top of a hill, which will have adequate
space for parking.
After survey, it was decided to build rectangular playground, with a semi-circular

area allotted for parking at one end of the playground. The length and breadth of
the rectangular playground are 14 units and 7 units, respectively. There are two
quadrants of radius 2 units on one side for special seats.
(i) What is the total perimeter of the parking area? 1
(ii) (a) What is the total area of parking and the two quadrants? 2
(OR)
(b) What is the ratio of area of playground to the area of parking area? 2
(iii) Find the cost of fencing the playground and parking area at the rate of Rs 2
per unit. 1

GRADE X
Chapter-13 STATISTICS
1 marks:
1. For some data 𝑥1 , 𝑥2 , 𝑥3 , … 𝑥𝑛 with respective frequencies 𝑓1 , 𝑓2 , 𝑓3 , … , 𝑓𝑛 , the value of
∑𝑛1 𝑓𝑖 (𝑥𝑖 − 𝑥̅ ) is equal to [BOARD 2024]
a) 𝑛𝑥̅ b) 1 c) ∑ 𝑓𝑖 d) 0
2. The middle most observation of every data arranged in order is called
[BOARD 2024]
a) mean b) median c) mode d) deviation
3. If the value of each observation in a data is increased by 2, then median of the new
data [BOARD 2024]
a) Increases by 2 c) increases by 2n
b) Remains same d) decreases by 2
4. If the value of each observation of a statistical data is increased by 3, then mean of
the data [BOARD 2023]
a) Remains unchanged c) increase by 3
b) Increase by 6 d) increase by 3n
5. After an examination, a teacher wants to know the marks obtained by maximum
number of the students in her class. She requires to calculate _____ of marks.
[BOARD 2024]
a) mean b) median c) mode d) range
6. The mean of 5 observations is 15. If the mean of first three observations is 14 and
that of the last three observations is 17, then the third observation is
a) 20 b) 19 c) 18 d) 17
7. If the mean five observations 𝑥, 𝑥 + 2, 𝑥 + 4, 𝑥 + 6 and 𝑥 + 8 is 11, then the value of x is
[BOARD 2024]
a) 4 b) 7 c) 11 d) 6
8. For the data 2, 9, 𝑥 + 6, 2𝑥 + 3, 5, 10, 5 if the mean is 7, then the value of x is
[BOARD 2024]
a) 9 b) 6 c) 5 d) 3
9. The mean of 5 numbers is 15. If we include one more number, the mean of six
numbers becomes 17. The included number is [BOARD 2024]

a) 27 b) 37 c) 17 d) 25s
10. The empirical relation between the mode, median and mean of a distribution is
[BOARD 2023]
a) Mode = 3 Median − 2 Mean c) Mode = 3 Mean − 2 Median
b) Mode = 2 Median − 3 Mean d) Mode = 2 Mean − 3 Median
11. If the difference of mode and median of a data is 24, then the difference of its
median and mean is [BOARD 2024]
a) 12 b) 24 c) 8 d) 36
12. If the mean and mode of a data are 24 and 12 respectively, then its median is
[BOARD 2024]
a) 25 b) 18 c) 20 d) 22
13. If the mean and median of a data are 12 and 15 respectively, then its mode is
[BOARD 2023]
a) 13.5 b) 21 c) 6 d) 14
14. If the mean of 6, 7, p, 8, q, 14 is 9 then [BOARD 2024]
a) 𝑝 − 𝑞 = 19 b) 𝑝 + 𝑞 = 19 c) 𝑝 − 𝑞 = 21 d) 𝑝 + 𝑞 = 21
5𝑛
15. If the mean of the first n natural numbers is then the value of n is
9
[BOARD 2024]
a) 5 b) 4 c) 9 d) 10
16. The distribution below gives the marks obtained by 80 students on a test:
Less than Less than Less than Less than Less than Less than
Marks
10 20 30 40 50 60
Number of
3 12 27 57 75 80
students
The modal class of this distribution is [BOARD 2023]

a) 10-20 b) 20-30 c) 30-40 d) 50-60
17. For the following distribution:
Class 0-5 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25
Frequency 10 15 12 20 9
The sum of lower limits of median class and modal class is: [BOARD 2023]
a) 15 b) 25 c) 30 d) 35

18. In a frequency distribution, the mid value of a class is 10 and the width of the class
is 6. The lower limit of the class is
a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 12
2 marks:
1. The mode of the following frequency distribution is 36. Find the missing frequency
f.
Class 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70
Frequency 8 10 f 16 12 6 7
3 marks:
1. In a test, the marks obtained by 100 students (out of 50) are given below.
Marks obtained 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50
Number of students 12 23 34 25 6
Find the mean marks of the students. [BOARD 2024]

2. Find the mean of the following: [BOARD 2023]
Class 0-15 15-30 30-45 45-60 60-75 75-90
Frequency 17 20 18 21 15 9
3. Find the median of the following data:

Height (in cm) Less than Less than Less than Less than Less than
120 140 160 180 200
Number of students 12 26 34 40 50

4. Find the mean of the following distribution:
Height (in cm) No of students
Less than 75 5
Less than 100 11
Less than 125 14
Less than 150 18
Less than 175 21
Less than 200 28
Less than 225 33
Less than 250 37
Less than 275 45
Less than 300 50
5 marks:
1. The following table shows the ages of the patients admitted in a hospital during a
year.
Age ( in years) 5-15 15-25 25-35 35-45 45-55 55-65
Number of patients 6 11 21 23 14 5
Find the mode and mean of the data given above. [BOARD 2024]
2. Find the mean of the following frequency distribution: [BOARD 2024]
Class 25-30 30-35 35-40 40-45 45-50 50-55 55-60
Frequency 14 22 16 6 5 3 4
3. The following distribution shows the daily pocket allowance of children of a locality.
The mean daily pocket allowance is Rs 36.10. Find the missing frequency f.
[BOARD 2024]
Daily pocket
20-25 25-30 30-35 35-40 40-45 45-50 50-55
allowance (in Rs)
Number of
7 6 9 13 f 5 4
children

4. A student noted the number of cars passing through a spot on a road for 100
periods each of 3 minutes and summarised it in the table given below. Find the
mean and median of the following data. [BOARD 2023]
Number of
0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80
cars
Frequency
7 14 13 12 20 11 15 8
(periods)
5. The mode of the following frequency distribution is 55. Find the missing
frequencies ‘a’ and ‘b’. [BOARD 2023]
Class
0-15 15-30 30-45 45-60 60-75 75-90 Total
Interval
Frequency 6 7 a 15 10 b 51
6. The monthly expenditure on milk in 200 families of a housing society is given

below: [BOARD 2023]
Monthly
1000- 1500- 2000- 2500- 3000- 3500- 4000- 4500-
Expenditure
1500 2000 2500 3000 3500 4000 4500 5000
(in Rs)
Number of
24 40 33 x 30 22 16 7
families
Find the value of x and also find median and mean expenditure on milk.
7. 250 apples of a box were weighed and the distribution of masses of the apples is
given in the following table: [BOARD 2023]
Mass (in grams) 80-100 100-120 120-140 140-160 160-180
Number of Apples 20 60 70 x 60
(i) Find the value of x and the mean mass of the apples. 3
(ii) Find the modal mass of the apples. 2
8. The mean of the following distribution is 48 and sum of all the frequency is 50.
Find the missing frequencies x and y.
Class 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70
Frequency 8 6 x 11 y

9. If the median of the following frequency distribution is 32.5. Find the values of x
and y.
Class 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 Total
Frequency x 5 9 12 y 3 2 40

1. BINGO is game of chance. The host has 75
balls numbered 1 through 75. Each player has
a BINGO card with some numbers written on
it. The participants cancels the number on the
card when called out a number written on the
ball selected at random. Whosoever cancels all
the numbers on his/her card, says BINGO and wins the game. [BOARD 2024]
The table given below, shows the data of one such game where 48 balls were used
before Tara said ‘BINGO’.

(i) Write the median class. 1
(ii) (a) Find the median of the given data. 2
OR
(b) Find the mode of the given data. 2
(iii) When first ball was picked up, what was the probability of calling out an
even number? 1
2. Vocational training complements traditional education by providing practical skills

and hands-on experience. While education equips individuals with a broad
knowledge base, vocational training focuses on job-specific skills, enhancing
employability thus making the student self-reliant. Keeping this in view, a teacher

made the following table giving the frequency distribution of students/adults
undergoing vocational training from the training institute. [BOARD 2024]
Age
15-19 20-24 25-29 30-34 35-39 40-44 45-49 50-54
(in years)
Number of
62 132 96 37 13 11 10 4
participants
From the above answer the following:

(i) What is the lower limit of the modal class of the above data? 1
(ii) (a) Find the median class of the above data? 2
OR
(b) Find the number of participants of age less than 50 years who undergo
vocational training. 2
(iii) Write the empirical relationship between mean, median and mode. 1
3. Activities like running or cycling

reduce stress and the risk of
mental disorders like depression.
Running helps build endurance.
Children develop stronger bones
and muscles and are less prone to
gain weight. The physical
education teacher of a school has
decided to conduct an inter school
running tournament in his school premises. The time taken by a group of students
to run 100 m, was noted as follows. [BOARD 2024]

Time
0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100
(in seconds)
Number of
8 10 13 6 3
students
From the above answer the following:

(i) What is the median class of the above data? 1
(ii) (a) Find the mean time taken by the students to finish the race. 2
OR
(b) Find the mode of the above given data. 2
(iii) How many students took time less than 60 seconds? 1
4. India meteorological department observes seasonal and annual rainfall every year
in different sub divisions of our country. [BOARD 2023]
It helps them to compare and analyze the results. The table given above shows sub
division wise seasonal (monsoon) rainfall (mm) in 2018.
(i) Write the modal class. 1
(ii) (a) Find the median of the given data. 2
OR
(b) Find the mean rainfall in this season. 2
(iii) If subdivision having at least 1000 mm rainfall during monsoon season, is
considered good rainfall subdivision, then how many subdivisions had good
rainfall? 1

GRADE X
Chapter-12 SURFACE AREA AND VOLUMES
1 marks:
1. A solid sphere is cut into two hemispheres. The ratio of the surface areas of sphere
to that of two hemispheres taken together, is [BOARD 2024]
a) 1: 1 b) 1: 4 c) 2: 3 d) 3: 2
2. The volume of the largest right circular cone that can be carved out from a solid
cube of edge 2 cm is [BOARD 2024]
4𝜋 5𝜋 8𝜋 2𝜋
a) 3
𝑐𝑚 3 b) 3
𝑐𝑚 3 c) 3
𝑐𝑚 3 d) 3
𝑐𝑚 3
3. The ratio of total surface area of a solid hemisphere to the square of its radius is
[BOARD 2024]
a) 2𝜋: 1 b) 4𝜋: 1 c) 3𝜋: 1 d)1: 4𝜋
4. Two identical solid cubes of side ‘a’ are joined end to end. The total surface area of
the resulting cuboid is [BOARD 2024]
a) 6𝑎2 b) 10𝑎2 c) 5𝑎2 d) 4𝑎2
5. Curved surface area of a cylinder of height 5 cm is 94.2 𝑐𝑚 2 . Radius of the cylinder
is (Take 𝜋 = 3.14) [BOARD 2023]
a) 2 cm b) 3 cm c) 2.9 cm d) 6 cm
6. The curved surface area of a cone having height 24 cm and radius 7 cm, is
[BOARD 2023]
a) 528 𝑐𝑚 2 b) 1056 𝑐𝑚 2 c) 550 𝑐𝑚 2 d) 500 𝑐𝑚 2
7. The area of metal sheet required to make a closed hollow cylinder of height 2.4 m
and base radius 0.7 m, is [BOARD 2023]
a) 10.56 𝑚 2
b) 13.52 𝑚 2
c) 13.64 𝑚 2
d) 14.08 𝑚 2
8. What is the total surface area of a solid hemisphere of diameter ‘d’? [BOARD 2023]
1 3
a) 3𝜋𝑑2 b) 2𝜋𝑑2 c) 2 𝜋𝑑 2 d) 4 𝜋𝑑2
9. What is the area of a semi circle of diameter ‘d’? [BOARD 2023]

1 1 1 1
a) 16
𝜋𝑑2 b) 4 𝜋𝑑2 c) 8 𝜋𝑑 2 d) 2 𝜋𝑑2
10. If the area of the base of a cone is 51 𝑐𝑚 2 and its volume is 85 𝑐𝑚 3 then the vertical
height of the cone is given as [BOARD 2023]
5 5 5
a) 𝑐𝑚 b) 𝑐𝑚 c) 𝑐𝑚 d) 5 𝑐𝑚
6 3 2

11. Water in a river which is 3 m deep and 40 m wide is flowing at the rate of 2 km/hr.
How much water will fall into the sea in 2 minutes? [BOARD 2023]
a) 800 𝑚 3 b) 4000 𝑚 3 c) 8000 𝑚 3 d) 2000 𝑚 3
12. The volume of right circular cone whose area of the base is 156 𝑐𝑚 2 and the vertical
height is 8 cm, is [BOARD 2023]
a) 2496 𝑐𝑚 3
b) 1248 𝑐𝑚 3
c) 1664 𝑐𝑚 3
d) 416 𝑐𝑚 3
13. If the radius of the sphere is increased by 100% the volume of the corresponding
sphere is increased by
a) 200% b) 500% c) 700% d) 800%
14. If the radius of a circle is diminished by 10% then its area is diminished by
a) 10% b) 19% c) 36% d) 20%
15. The base radii of a cone and a cylinder are equal. If their CSA are also equal, thyen
the ratio of the slant height of the cone to the height of the cylinder is
a) 2:1 b) 1:2 c) 1:3 d) 3:1
16. Assertion (A): Two cubes each of edge length 10 cm are joined together. The total
surface area of newly formed cuboid is 1200 𝑐𝑚 2 .
Reason (R): Area of each surface of a cube of side 10 cm is 100 𝑐𝑚 2. [BOARD 2024]
17. Assertion (A): Total surface area of the top is the sum of the curved surface area of
the hemisphere and the curved surface area of the cone.

Reason (R): Top is obtained by fixing the plane surfaces of the hemisphere and
cone together. [BOARD 2023]
3 marks:
1. The difference between the outer and inner radii of a hollow right circular cylinder
of length 14 cm is 1 cm. If the volume of the metal used in making the cylinder is
176 𝑐𝑚 3, find the outer and inner radii of the cylinder. [BOARD 2024]
2. A wooden toy is made by scooping out a hemisphere of same radius as of cylinder,
from each end of a wooden solid cylinder. If the height of the cylinder is 20 cm and
its base is of radius 7 cm, find the total surface area of the toy. [BOARD 2024]
3. The inner and outer radii of a hollow cylinder surmounted on a hollow hemisphere
of same radii are 3 cm and 4 cm respectively. If height of the cylinder is 14 cm,
then find its total surface area (inner and outer). [BOARD 2024]
4. A room is in the form of cylinder surmounted by a hemispherical dome. The base
radius of hemisphere is one half the height of cylindrical part. Find the total height
1408 22
of the room if it contains ( 21
) 𝑚 3 of air.(Take 𝜋 =
7
) [BOARD 2023]
5. An empty cone of its radius 3 cm and height 12 cm. Ice cream is filled in it so that
1 𝑡ℎ
lower part of the cone which is (6) of the volume of the cone is unfilled but
hemisphere is formed on the top. Find the volume of the ice cream. (Take 𝜋 = 3.14)
[BOARD 2023]
5 marks:
1. A vessel is in the form of hollow hemisphere mounted by a hollow cylinder. The
diameter of the hemisphere is 14 cm and the total height of the vessel is 13 cm.
Find the inner surface area and the volume of the vessel. [BOARD 2024]
2. A solid iron pole consists of a solid cylinder of height 200 cm and base diameter 28
cm, which surmounted by another cylinder of height 50 cm and radius 7 cm. Find
the mass of the pole, given that 1 𝑐𝑚 3 of iron pole has approximately 8 g mass.
[BOARD 2024]

3. A medicine capsule is in the shape of cylinder with two hemispheres stuck to each
of its ends. The length of the entire capsule is 14 mm and the diameter of the
capsule is 4 mm, find its surface area. Also find its volume. [BOARD 2024]
4. A wooden article was made by scooping out a hemisphere from each

end of a solid cylinder, as shown in the figure. If the height of the
cylinder is 5.8 cm and its base is of radius 2.1 cm, find the total
surface area of the article. [BOARD 2023 & BOARD 2024]
5. A tent is in the shape of a cylinder, surmounted by a conical top. If the height and
diameter of the cylindrical part are 3.5 m and 6 m, and slant height of the top is
4.2 m, find the area of canvas used for making the tent. Also, find the cost of
canvas of the tent at the rate of Rs 500 per 𝑚 2. [BOARD 2024]
6. A juice seller was serving his customers using glasses as shown in
the figure. The inner diameter of the cylindrical glass was 5.6 cm,
but the bottom of the glass had a hemispherical raised portion
which reduced the capacity of the glass. If the height of the glass
was 10 cm, find the apparent capacity and the actual capacity of
the glass. [BOARD 2024]
7. A stduents was asked to make a model shaped like a cylinder with two cones
attached to its ends by using a thin aluminium sheet. The diameter of the model is
3 cm and its total length is 12 cm. If each cone has a slant height of 2 cm, find the
volume of air contained in the model. [BOARD 2023]
8. From a solid cylinder of height 20 cm and diameter 12 cm, a conical cavity of
height 8 cm and radius 6 cm is hollowed out. Find the total surface area of the
remaining solid. [BOARD 2023]
9. A solid is in the shape of a right circular cone surmounted on a hemisphere, the
radius of each of them being 7 cm and the height of the cone is equal to its
diameter. Find the volume of the solid. [BOARD 2023]

10. Water is flowing at the rate of 15 km/hr through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a
cuboidal pond which is 50 m long and 44 m wide. In what time will the level of
water in pond rise by 21 cm? What should be the speed of water if the rise in water
level is to be attained in 1 hour?
11. A solid is in the shape of a cone mounted on a hemisphere of same base radius. If
CSA of the hemispherical part and the conical part are equal, then find the ratio of
the radius and the height of the conical part.
12. Water in a canal, 6 m wide and 1.5 m deep, is flowing with a speed of 10 km/hr.
How much area will it irrigate in 30 minutes, if 8 cm standing water is needed?
13. A right triangle whose sides are 20 cm and 15 cm is made to revolve about its
hypotenuse. Find the volume and surface area of the double cone so formed.
(Use π = 3.14).
14. A tent is in shape of cylinder surmounted by a conical top of same diameter. If the
height and diameter of cylindrical part are 2.1 m and 3 m respectively and the
slant height of conical part is 2.8 m, find the cost of canvas needed to make the
tent if the canvas is available at the rate of Rs 500 per square meter.

1. The word ‘circus’ has the same root as ‘circle’. In a closed circular area, various
entertainment acts including human skill and animal training are presented before
the crowd. A circus tent is cylindrical up to a height of 8 m and conical above it.
The diameter of the base is 28 m and total height of tent is 18.5 m. [BOARD 2024]

(i) Find the slant height of the conical part. 1
(ii) (a) Find area of the cloth used for making tent. 2
OR
(b) Find total volume of air inside an empty tent. 2
(iii) Determine the floor area of the tent. 1
2. Tamper proof tetra packed milk guarantees both freshness and security. This milk
ensures uncompromised quality, preserving the nutritional values within and
making it a reliable choice for health conscious individuals. [BOARD 2024]
500 ml milk is packed in a cuboidal container of dimensions 15 𝑐𝑚 × 8 𝑐𝑚 × 5 𝑐𝑚.

These milk packets are then packed in cuboidal cartons of dimensions 30 𝑐𝑚 ×
32 𝑐𝑚 × 15 𝑐𝑚.
Based on the above given information, answer the following questions:
(i) Find the volume of the cuboidal cartion. 1
(ii) (a) Find the total surface area of a milk packet. 2
OR
(b) How many milk packets can be filled in a carton? 2
(iii) How much milk can the cup (as shown in the figure) hold? 1
3. In a coffee shop, coffee is served in two types of cups. One is cylindrical in shape
with diameter 7 cm and height 14 cm and other is hemispherical with diameter 21
cm. [BOARD 2023]

Based on the above information answer the following:
(i) Find the area of the base of the cylindrical cup. 1
(ii) What is the capacity of the hemispherical cup? 2
OR
Find the capacity of cylindrical cup? 2
(iii) What is the curved surface area of the cylindrical cup? 1
4. A golf ball is spherical with about 300-500 dimples that help increase its velocity
while in play. Golf balls are traditionally while but available in colours also. In the
given figure, a golf ball has diameter 4.2 cm and the surface has 315 dimples
(hemi-spherical) of radius 2 mm. [BOARD 2023]

(i) Find the surface area of one such dimple. 1
(ii) Find the volume of the material dug out to make one dimple. 1
(iii) (a) Find the total surface area exposed to the surroundings. 2
(OR)
(b) Find the volume of the gold ball. 2

GRADE X
Chapter-14 PROBABILITY
1 marks:
1. If the probability of the player winning a game is 0.79, then the probability of his
losing the same game is [BOARD 2024]
a) 1.79 b) 0.31 c) 0.21% d) 0.21
2. Two dice are rolled together. The probability of getting sum of numbers on two dice
as 2, 3 or 5 is [BOARD 2024]
7 11 5 4
a) b) c) d)
36 36 36 9
3. Two dice are rolled together. The probability of getting sum of two numbers to be
more than 10 is [BOARD 2024]
1 1 7 1
a) 9
b) 6
c) 12
d) 12
4. Two dice are thrown together. The probability that they show different numbers is
[BOARD 2024]
1 5 1 2
a) 6
b) 6
c) 3
d) 3
5. Two dice are thrown together. The probability of getting the difference of numbers
on their upper faces equals to 3 is [BOARD 2023]
1 2 1 1
a) 9
b) 9
c) 6
d) 12
6. Two dice are tossed simultaneously. The probability of getting odd numbers on
both the dice is [BOARD 2024]
6 3 12 9
a) 36
b) 36
c) 36
d) 36
7. In a single throw of two dice, the probability of getting 12 as a product of two

numbers obtained is: [BOARD 2023]
1 2 4 5
a) 9
b) 9
c) 9
d) 9
8. Which of the following is not a probability of an event? [BOARD 2024]

1 1
a) 0.89 b) 52% c) 13
% d) 0.89
9. One card is drawn at random from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. The probability
that it is a red ace card is [BOARD 2024]

1 1 1 1
a) 13
b) 26
c) 52
d) 2
10. A card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled pack of 52 cards. The probability
that the card drawn is not an ace is [BOARD 2023]
1 9 4 12
a) 13
b) 13
c) 13
d) 13
11. From the data 1, 4, 7, 9, 16, 21, 25 if all the even numbers are removed, then the
probability of getting at random a prime number from the remaining is
[BOARD 2024]
2 1 1 2
a) b) c) d)
5 5 7 7
12. If a digit is chosen at random from the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 then the

probability that this digit is an odd prime number is [BOARD 2024]
1 2 4 5
a) 3
b) 3
c) 9
d) 9
13. A box contains cards numbered 6 to 55. A card is drawn at random from the box.
The probability that the drawn card has a number which is a perfect square is
[BOARD 2024]
7 7 1 5
a) 50
b) 55
c) 10
d) 49
14. One ticket is drawn at random from a bag containing tickets numbered 1 to 40.
The probability that the selected ticket has a number which is a multiple of 7 is
[BOARD 2024]
1 1 1 7
a) 7
b) 8
c) 5
d) 40
15. A bag contains 3 red balls, 5 white balls and 7 black balls. The probability that a
ball drawn from the bag at random will be neither red nor black is [BOARD 2024]
1 1 7 8
a) 3
b) 5
c) 15
d) 15
16. A bag contains 5 red balls and n green balls. If the probability of drawing a green
ball is three times that of a red ball, then the value of n is [BOARD 2023]
a) 18 b) 15 c) 10 d) 20
𝑥
17. The probability of guessing the correct answer to a certain test question is 6. If the
2
probability of not guessing the correct answer to this question is 3
then the value of
x is [BOARD 2024]
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6

18. The probability of getting a bad egg in a lot of 400 eggs is 0.045. The number of
good eggs in the lot is [BOARD 2024]
a) 18 b) 180 c) 382 d) 220
19. A girl calculates that the probability of her winning the first prize in a lottery is
0.08. If 6000 tickets are sold, how many tickets has she bought? [BOARD 2023]
a) 40 b) 240 c) 480 d) 750
20. In a group of 20 people, 5 can’t swim. If one person is selected at random then the
probability that he/she can swim is [BOARD 2023]
3 1 1
a) b) c) d) 1
4 3 4
21. From the letters of the word “MOBILE”, a letter is selected at random. The
probability that the selected letter is vowel is [BOARD 2024]
3 1 1 1
a) 7
b) 6
c) 2
d) 3
22. For an event E, if 𝑃(𝐸) + 𝑃(𝐸̅ ) = 𝑞, then the value of 𝑞 2 − 4 is [BOARD 2024]
a) -3 b) 3 c) 5 d) -5
23. Probability of happening of an event is denoted by p and probability of non-
happening of the event is denoted by q. Relation between p and q is [BOARD 2023]
a) 𝑝 + 𝑞 = 1 b) 𝑝 = 1, 𝑞 = 1 c) 𝑝 = 𝑞 − 1 d) 𝑝 + 𝑞 + 1 = 0
24. In a lottery, there are 5 prizes and 20 blanks. The probability of getting a prize is
[BOARD 2023]
1 1 1 1
a) b) c) d)
4 20 25 5

a) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true
25. Assertion (A): In a cricket match, a batsman hits a boundary 9 times out of 45
balls he plays. The probability that in a given ball, he does not hit the boundary is
4
5
.
Reason (R): 𝑃(𝐸) + 𝑃(𝐸̅ ) = 1. [BOARD 2024]

2
26. Assertion (A): The probability that a leap year has 53 Sundays is 7.
5
Reason (R): The probability that a non-leap year has 53 Sundays is 7.
[BOARD 2023]
2 marks:
1. In a pack of 52 playing cards one card is lost. From the remaining cards, a card is
drawn at random. Find the probability that the drawn card is queen of heart, if the
lost card is a black card. [BOARD 2024]
2. One card is drawn at random from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the
probability that the card drawn
(i) is queen of hearts
(ii) is not a jack. [BOARD 2024]
3. The king, queen and ace of clubs and diamonds are removed from a deck of 52
playing cards and the remaining cards are shuffled. A card is randomly drawn from
the remaining cards. Find the probability of getting
(i) A card of clubs
(ii) A red coloured card. [BOARD 2024]
4. A carton consists of 60 shirts of which 48 are good, 8 have major defects and 4
have minor defects. Nigam, a trader will accept the shirts which are good but
Anmol, another trader will only reject the shirts which have major defects. One
shirt is drawn at random from the carton. Find the probability that it is acceptable
to Anmol. [BOARD 2024]
5. A bag contains 4 red, 3 blue and 2 yellow balls. One ball is drawn at random from
the bag. Find the probability that drawn ball is (i) red (ii) yellow. [BOARD 2023]
6. A fair coin tossed twice, find the probability of getting at most one head?
[BOARD 2023]
3 marks:
1. Three coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability of getting

(i) At least one head?
(ii) Exactly two tails?
(iii) At most one tail? [BOARD 2024]
2. A box contains 90 discs which are numbered 1 to 90. If one disc is drawn at
random from the box, find the probability that it bears a

(i) 2-digit number less than 40.
(ii) Number divisible by 5 and greater than 50.
(iii) A perfect square. [BOARD 2024]
3. Three unbiased coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probability of getting
(i) At least one head
(ii) Exactly one tail
(iii) Two heads and one tail. [BOARD 2024]
4. A jar contains 54 marbles, each of which is blue, green or white. The probability of
1
selecting a blue marble at random from the jar is 3, and the probability of selecting
4
a green marble at random is . How many white marbles does this jar contain?
9
[BOARD 2024]

1. In a survey on holidays, 120 people were asked to state which type of transport
they used on their last holiday. The following pie chart shows the results of the
survey. [BOARD 2024]
Observe the pie chart and answer the following questions:

(i) If one person is selected at random, find the probability that he/she
travelled by bus or ship. 1
(ii) A person is selected at random. If the probability that he did not use train is
4
5
, find the number of people who used train. 2
OR
7
The probability that randomly selected person used aeroplane is . Find the
60
revenue collected by air company at the rate of Rs 5,000 per person. 2

(iii) Which is most favorite mode of transport and how many people used it? 1

2. Computer-based learning (CBL) refers to any teaching methodology that makes use
of computers for information transmission. At an elementary school level,
computer applications can be used to display multimedia lesson plans. A survey
was done on 1000 elementary and secondary schools of Assam and they were
classified by the number of computers they had. [BOARD 2023]
One school is chosen at random. Then:

(i) Find the probability that the school chosen at random has more than 100
computers. 1
(ii) Find the probability that the school chosen at random has 50 or fewer
computers. 2
OR
Find the probability that the school chosen at random has no more than 20
computers. 2
(iii) Find the probability that the school chosen at random has 10 or less than
10 computers. 1
3. A middle school decided to run the following spinner game as a fund-raiser on

Christmas carnival.
Making purple: Spin each spinner once. Blue and red make purple. So, if one
spinner shows Red (R) and another Blue (B) then you ‘win’. One such outcome is
written as ‘RB’. [BOARD 2023]

Based on the above information, answer for the following questions:
(i) List all possible outcomes of the game. 1
(ii) For each win, a particular gets Rs 10, but if he/she loses, he/she has to pay
Rs 5 to the school. If 99 participants played calculate how much fund could
the school have collected. 2
OR
If the same amount of Rs 5 has been decided for winning or losing the game,
then how much fund had been collected by school? (Number of
participants=99). 2
(iii) Find the probability of ‘Making Purple’. 1
4. “Eight Ball” is a game played on a pool table with 15 balls numbered 1 to 15 and a
“cue ball” that is solid and white. Of the 15 numbered balls, eight are solid (non-
white) coloured and numbered 1 to 8 and seven are stripped balls numbered 9 to
15. [BOARD 2023]
The 15 numbered pool balls (no cue ball) are placed in a large bowl and mixed,
then one ball is drawn out at random.
Based on the above information answer the following questions:

(i) What is the probability that the drawn ball bears number 8? 1
(ii) What is the probability that the drawn ball bears an even number? 2
OR
What is the probability that the drawn ball bears a number, which is a
multiple of 3? 2
(iii) What is the probability that the drawn ball is a solid coloured and bears an
even number? 1

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GRADE X

Question Bank (MATHEMATICS)

1. If two positive integers p and q can be expressed as 𝑝 = 𝑎𝑏2 and 𝑞 = 𝑎3 𝑏, where a

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

Options for Assertion and Reasoning Questions:

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

1. Prove that √5 is an irrational number. [BOARD 2023]

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

Case Based Questions:

1. February 14 is celebrated as International Book Giving Day and many countries in

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

(i) Find the number of stacks of Hindi books? 1

3. Teaching Mathematics through activities is a powerful approach that enhances

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

19. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 2𝑥 2 − 13𝑥 + 6, then 𝛼 + 𝛽 is

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

26. If 𝑝 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑞 are the zeros of a polynomial 2𝑥 2 − 7𝑥 + 3 the value of 𝑝 + 𝑞 − 𝑝𝑞 will be

a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and -2 c) -2 and 1 d) 2 and 1

35. A quadratic polynomial whose zeros are -3 and 4, is

36. The maximum number of zeros a cubic polynomial can have, is

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

44. The zeros of polynomial 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 are reciprocal of each other if

48. If the square of difference of the zeros of the quadratic polynomial 𝑥 2 + 𝑝𝑥 + 45 is

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

55. The graph of 𝑦 = 𝑝(𝑥) where 𝑝(𝑥) is a polynomial in variable x, is as follows:

The number of zeros of p(x) is

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

Options for Assertion and Reasoning Questions:

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

between zeros and coefficients.

between zeros and coefficients. [BOARD 2024]

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

2. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeros of a polynomial 2𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 + 𝑘 satisfying the relation

between the zeros and the coefficients.

Based on the above, answer the following questions :

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

the values of a and b. 2

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

a) 3 and 19 b) 19 and 3 c) 4 and 18 d) 18 and 4

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

a) 3 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 6 d) 6 and 1

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

46. The pair of linear equations 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 5 𝑎𝑛𝑑 4𝑥 + 6𝑦 = 10 is

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

a) Consistent with unique solution

58. Assertion (A): Pair of linear equations 9𝑥 + 3𝑦 + 12 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)

Case based questions:

Prepared by: H.Sabareesh (PGT Mathematics)