Test Booklet Code-B

Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur, 760 002

www.svmberhampur.com

Date : 15-SEPT-2024 Total Marks : 720 Time : 08:00 - 11:20 AM

PHYSICS : Ray Optics : (a) Reflection, (b) Refraction , A.C, Rotational Motion
CHEMISTRY : 16th group, 17th group, 18th group, Periodic Classification (full chapter), Halo alkanes only
BOTANY : Cell : Unit of Life - Cell Organelles, Nucleus, Microbes in Human Welfare, Pollution Attributes
Population Growth, Population Growth Models
ZOOLOGY : Human Health and Diseases, ,Locomotion and Movement (Skeletal System),
Neural Control and Coordination

INSTRUCTION
1. The test is of 3 Hours 20 Minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in
each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to
135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to
150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen)
in each subject.
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, ONE Mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

03. A vehicle travels half the distance L with speed v1

and the other half with speed v2, then its average
Attempt All 35 Questions speed is :
v v
(1) 1 2
01. The ratio of the numerical values of the average 2
2v  v
velocity and the average speed of a body is always : (2) 1 2
v1  v2
(1) unity
(2) unity or less 2v1v2
(3)
(3) unity or more v1  v2
(4) less than unity L(v1  v2 )
(4)
v1v2
02. A particle starts from reset at the point A (1, 2, –3)m
and reaches at the point B(3, 4, 5)m. the magnitude 04. A clerk–1 starts from his house with a speed of
of displacement of man is : 2 km h and reaches the office 3 min late. Next day
he increases speed 1 km h–1 and reaches the office 3
(1) 7.1 m min earlier. Find the distance between his house and
(2) 3.7 m office.
(3) 3.4 m (1) 1 km (2) 0.6 km
(4) 8.5 m (3) 2 km (4) 3 km
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 1
Test Booklet Code-B
05. The three initial and final position of man on the 11. The displacement if a particle is given by
x-axis are given as : 4s  m  2nt 4 where m and n are constants. The
(i) (–8m, 7m) (ii) (7m, –3m) velocity of the body at any instant is :
(iii) (–7 m, 3m) m  2nt 2
Which pair gives the negative displacement ? (1) (2) 2n
4
(1) (i) (2) (ii) m  2n
(3) (iii) (4) (i) and (iii) (3) (4) 2nt 3
4
12. If the velocity of a particle is v  At  Bt 2 , where A
06. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it
radius R in 40 sec. What will be his displacement at between 1s and 2s is :
the end of 2 min. 20 sec ? 3 7 A B
(1) zero (2) 2R (1) A  B (2) 
2 3 2 3
(3) 2R (4) 7R 3
(3) A  4 B (4) 3 A  7 B
2
07. Assertion :
A body can have an acceleration even if its velocity 13. Assertion :
is zero at a given instant of time. Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity.
Reason : Reason :
A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses its A body having non-zero acceleration can have a
direction of motion. constant velocity.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion. Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True, but Reason (2) Both Assertion and Reason are True, but Reason
is not correct explanation of the Assertion is not correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false. (3) The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
(4) The Assertion is false and Reason is True. (4) The Assertion is false and Reason is True.

14. Match the column I with Column II :

08. Statement-1
Column-I Column II
A car moving with a sped of 25 ms–1 takes U turn in
(Physical quantity) (Formula)
5 seconds, without changing its speed. The average
A Instantaneous P x
acceleration during these 5 seconds is 5 ms–2.
Statement-2
velocity, v is t
B Average Q v
change in velocity lim
Acceleration = velocity, v is t  0 t
time taken
C Instantaneous R v
(1) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation of
acceleration, a is t
Statement-1 D Average S x
lim
acceleration, a t  0 t
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true;
Statement-2 is not a correct explanation of (1) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
statement-1 (2) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
(3) Statement-1 is true; Statement-2 is false. (3) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(4) Statmeent-1 is false; Statement-2 is true. (4) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P

15. A particle moves with a uniform velocity. Which of

09. An aeroplane moves 400 m towards north, 300 m
the following statements about the motion of particle
towards west and then 1200 m vertically upwards.
is correct ?
Then its displacement from the initial position is : (1) its acceleration is zero
(1) 1300 m (2) 1400 m (2) its speed is zero
(3) 1500 m (4) 1600 m (3) its sped may be variable
(4) its acceleration is opposite to the velocity
10. A car moves along a straight line, whose equation of
motion is given by s  12t  3t 2  2t 3 . 16. The displacement of a particle is given by
Where s is in metres and t in seconds. The velocity y  a  bt  ct 2  dt 4 . The initial velocity and
of the cart at the start will be : acceleration are respectively :
(1) 7 ms–1 (2) 9 ms–1 (1) b, –4d (2) –b, 2c
(3) 12 ms–1 (4) 16 ms–1 (3) b, 2c (4) 2c, –4d
2 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-B
17. A man goes 10m towards North, then 20m towards 24. An engine of a train moving with uniform
east then displacement is acceleration passes an electric pole with velocity u
(1) 22.4m (2) 25m and the last compartment with velocity v. the middle
(3) 25.5m (4) 30m part of the train passes past the same pole with a
velocity of
18. The velocity of a body depends on time according to uv u 2  v2
(1) (2)
the equation v  20  0.1t 2 . The body is undergoing 2 2
(1) Uniform acceleration u 2  v2 v2  u 2
(3) (4)
(2) Uniform retardation 2 2
(3) Non-uniform acceleration
(4) Zero acceleration 25. Consider the motion of the tip of the minute hand of
a clock. In one hour :
(a) the displacement is zero
19. The displacement is given by x  2t 2  t  5 , the
(b) the distance covered is zero
acceleration at t  2 s is :
(c) the average speed is zero
(1) 4 m / s 2 (2) 8 m / s 2 (d) the average velocity is zero
(3) 10 m / s 2 (4) 15 m / s 2 (1) a & b are correct (2) a, b & c are correct
(3) a & d are correct (4) b, c & d are correct

20. A body moves from rest with a constant acceleration 26. A person moving on a motor cycle in a ground takes
of 5 m / s 2 . Its instantaneous speed (in m / s) at the a turn through 60° on his left after every 50 m. Then
end of 10 sec is : find the magnitude of displacement suffered by him
(1) 50 (2) 5 after 9th turn : D 60° C
(1) 100 m 60°
(3) 2 (4) 0.5
60°
(2) 50 m E
21. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate  for B
some time after which it deaccelerates at a constant 60°
(3) 50 3 m
rate  to come to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, 60°
O 60° A
the maximum velocity acquired by the car is given
(4) 20 m
by :
2  2  2  2  27. A semicircle of radius R = 5m with diameter AD is
(1)   t (2)   t
    shown in figure. Two particles 1 and 2 are at points
   
A and B on shown diameter at t = 0 and move along
       segments AC and BC with constant speeds u1 and u2
(3)  t (4)  t
       u1
respectively. Then the value of for both particles
u2
22. The motion of a particle and t in second. The is
to reach point C simultaneously will be
described by equation. X = 8+12t – t3.
Where, x is in metre and t in second. The retardation 5 2
(1)
of the particle when its velocity becomes zero is : 4
(1) 24 ms–2 (2) zero 2 2
–2 (2)
(3) 6 ms (4) 12 ms–2 5
(3) 2 2
23. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same time
in a straight line and their positions are represented 5
(4)
by x p (t )  at  bt 2 and xQ (t )  ft  t 2 . AT what time 4
do the cars have the same velocity ?
28. A particle covers one half of a circle of radius r. Then
a f f a
(1) (2) the distance and displacement of the particle are :
2(1  b) 2(1  b)
(1) 2r, r (2) r, 2r
a f a f r
(3)
1 b
(4)
2(b  1) (3) r, r (4) ,r
2
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Test Booklet Code-B
29. Displacement is :
(1) vector quantity
(2) it magnitude is may be zero This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these
(3) it magnitude is may be positive
15 questions.
(4) all of these
36. A body starts from rest, the ratio of distances
30. If the body moving along straight line then distance travelled by the body during 3rd and 4th seconds is :
and magnitude of displacement are
(1) 7/5 (2) 5/7
(1) equal
(3) 7/3 (4) 3/7
(2) different
(3) perpendicular
37. A particle moves from the position of rest and attains
(4) none a velocity of 30 m/sec after 10sec. The acceleration
will be
31. Train travels with uniform speed 5 m/s. Find (1) 9 m/sec2 (2) 18 m/sec2
velocity after 10s. (3) 3 m/sec2
(4) 4 m/sec2
(1) 5 m/s
(2) 50m/s 38. A particle starts moving from rest with uniform
(3) 2 m/s acceleration. It travels a distance x in the first 2 sec
(4) zero and a distance y in the next 2 sec. Then
(1) y = x
32. A ball is thrown vertically upwards and it reaches a (2) y = 2x
height of 45m. After sometime catches the ball. Find (3) y = 3x
distance and displacement. (4) y = 4x
(1) 90m, 0
(2) 0, 90m 39. The position x of a particle varies with time t as
(3) 0, 0 x  at 2  bt 3 . The acceleration of the particle will be
(4) 90m, 90m zero at time t equal to :
a 2a
33. A 150 m long train is moving with a uniform (1) (2)
b 3b
velocity of 45 km/h. the time taken by the trains to
a
cross a bridge of length 850 m is : (3) (4) Zero
3b
(1) 56 s
(2) 68 s
40. If the acceleration equal to zero then the body
(3) 80 s
moving with :
(4) 92 s
(1) uniform velocity
(2) uniform acceleration
34. A point transversed half a circle of radius r during a
(3) variable acceleration
time interval t0. Its mean speed and magnitude of
(4) none
mean velocity are :
r r 41. If a train travelling at 20 m/s is to be brought to rest
(1) ,
t 0 t0 in a distance of 200m, then its retardation should be
2 r 2r (1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2
(2) , (3) 10 m/s 2
(4) 20 m/s2
t0 t0
 r 2r 42. A body starts from rest and travels ‘s’ m in 2nd
(3) ,
t0 t0 second, then acceleration is
2 r r (1) 2s m/s2 (2) 3s m/s2
(4) , 2 3
t0 t 0 (3) s m/s2 (4) s m/s2
3 2
35. If a body losses half of its velocity on penetrating 3
cm in a wooden block, then how much will it 43. Choose the correct equation to determine distance in
a straight line for a body with uniform motion.
penetrate more before coming to rest ?
(1) 1 cm v
(1) s = (2) s = vt
(2) 2 cm t
(3) 3 cm 1
(3) s = ut + gt2 (4) s = v  t2
(4) 4 cm 2
4 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-B
44. The negative acceleration is called
(1) deceleration
(2) speed Attempt All 35 Questions
(3) constant velocity
(4) none 51. Molecules Empirical formula
A) Glucose 1) BNH2
45. A train travels from city A to city B with a constant B) Oxalic acid 2) CH2O
speed of 10 ms–1 and returns back to city A with a C) Inorganic Benzene 3) CH
constant speed of 20 ms–1. Find its average velocity
D) Oxygenated water 4) CHO2
during its entire journey.
(1) zero 5) HO
40 The correct match is
(2) m/s (1) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-4 (2) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-5
3
(3) 30 m/s (3) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (4) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(4)15 m/s
52. A compound contains carbon and hydrogen in the
46. A drunkard is walking along a straight road. He takes mass ratio 3:1. The formula of the compound is
5 steps forward and 3 steps backward and so on. (1) CH2 (2) CH3
Each step is 1 m long and takes 1s. There is a pit on (3) CH4 (4) C2H6
the road 11 m away from the starting point. The
drunkard will fall into the pit after : 53. An organic compound on analysis was found to
(1) 29 s
contain 0.032% of sulphur. The molecular mass of
(2) 21 s
the compound. If its molecule contains two sulphur
(3) 37 s
(4) 31 s atoms, is
(1) 200 (2) 2000
47. Which of the following is the correct definition for (3) 20000 (4) 200000
average speed :
total displacement 54. The empirical formula of acetic acid is the same as
(1) average speed =
total time that of
total distance (1) Sucrose (2) Glucose
(2) average speed =
total time (3) Oxalic acid (4) Formic acid
change in speed
(3) average speed =
total time 55. A compound contains 90% C and 10% H. The
sum of the all speeds empirical formula of the compound is
(4) average speed = (1) C8H10 (2) C15H30
total time
(3) C3H4 (4) C15H40
48. The direction of average acceleration is in the
direction of : 56. Two elements X (At. Mass = 75) and Y (At. Mass =
(1) velocity 16) combine to give a compound having 75.8% of
(2) change in velocity X. The formula of the compound is
(3) change in speed (1) XY (2) X2Y
(4) none of these (3) X2Y2 (4) X2Y3

49. A car accelerates from 8 m/s to 14 m/s in 3s. The 57. An organic compound made of C, H and N contains
acceleration of car is : 20% nitrogen. What will be its molecular mass if it
(1) 2/3 m/s2 contains only one nitrogen atom in it?
(2) 2 m/s2 (1) 70 (2) 140
(3) 7/12 m/s2 (3) 100 (4) 65
(4) 6 m/s2
58. 5.6 g of an organic compound on burning with
50. If the distance covered is zero, then displacement :
(1) Must be zero excess of oxygen gave 17.6g of CO2 and 7.2g H2O.
(2) May or may not be zero The organic compound is:
(3) Cannot be zero (1) C6H6 (2) C4H8
(4) Depends upon the particle (3) C3H8 (4) CH3COOH
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 5
Test Booklet Code-B
59. The mass of CO2 obtained when 2g of pure 69. Aluminium reacts with hydrogen chloride to
limestone is calcined is produce H2 according to the equation
(1) 44g (2) 0.22g 2Al + 6HCl  2AlCl3 + 3H2
(3) 0.88g (4) 8.8g Then 2grams of H2 would be produced from
(1) 1 mole of Al (2) 2 moles of Al
60. 100 mL of PH3 when decomposed produces (3) 2/3 mole of Al (4) 3/2 mole of Al
phosphorus(s) and hydrogen(g). The change in
volume is: 70. A peroxidase enzyme contains 2% selenium
(1) 50 mL increase (2) 500 mL decrease (Se = 80). The minimum molecular weight of the
(3) 900 mL decrease (4) none of these enzyme is
(1) 1000 (2) 2000
(3) 4000 (4) 800
61. Xg of Ag was dissolved in HNO3 and the solution
was treated with excess of NaCl when 2.87g of
71. The molality of 2% (W/W) NaCl solution nearly
AgCl was precipitated. The value of X is
(1) 0.02m (2) 0.35 m
(1) 0.08 g (2) 2.16 g
(3) 0.25 m (4) 0.45 m
(3) 7.20 g (4) 9.62 g
72. The modern atomic weight scale is based on
62. 1.2g of Mg (At. Mass 24) will produce MgO equal (1) 12C (2) 16O
to (3) 18O (4) 1H
(1) 0.05 mol (2) 1 mole
(3) 2 moles (4) 5 moles 73. 1 amu is equal to
(1) 1.66  1024 gm (2) 6.023  1023gm
63. 30 g of marble stone on heating produced 11g of (3) 1.66  1025gm (4) None of these
CO2. The percentage of CaCO3 in marble is
(1) 75% (2) 80% 74. The number of ions is present in 1 ml of 0.1M CaCl2
(3) 83.3% (4) 86.6% solution is
(1) 1.8 × 1020 (2) 6.0 × 1020
64. The weight of oxygen required to completely react (3) 1.8 × 1019 (4) 1.8 × 1021
with 27g of Al is
(1) 8g (2) 16g 75. In the formation of Al2O3 from Al and O2. If 1.5
(3) 32g (4) 24g mole of oxygen is used up, the mass of aluminium
that reacted is
65. The number of moles of CO2 produced when (1) 27g (2) 54g
3 moles of HCl react with excess of CaCO3 is (3) 108g (4) 81g
(1) 1 (2) 1.5
(3) 2 (4) 2.5 76. A giant molecule contains 0.25% of a metal whose
atomic weight is 59. Its molecule contains one atom
of that metal. Its minimum molecular weight is
66. 6g of Mg reacts with excess of an acid. The amount
(1) 11800 (2) 23600
of hydrogen produced would be
100  59
(1) 0.5g (2) 1g (3) 5900 (4)
0.4
(3) 2g (4) 4g

77. Caffeine has a molecular weight of 194. It contains

67. What volume of H2 at NTP is required to convert
28.9% by mass of nitrogen. Number of atoms of
2.8g of N2 in to NH3?
nitrogen in one molecule of it is
(1) 2240 ml (2) 22400 ml
(1) 6 (2) 3
(3) 6.72 lit (4) 224 lit (3) 4 (4) 5

68. The volume of CO2 obtained by the complete

78. Calculate the mass percent of oxygen present in
decomposition of one mole of NaHCO3 at STP is
Na2SO4.
(1) 22.4 L (2) 11.2 L (1) 32.4 (2) 22.5
(3) 44.8 L (4) 4.48 L (3) 45 (4) 43.2
6 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-B
79. Insulin contains 3.4% sulphur, the minimum
molecular weight of insulin is
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
(1) 944.328 choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these
(2) 941.176 15 questions.
(3) 946.278
(4) 943.265 86. 10 mL of concentrated H2SO4 (18 M) is diluted to
one litre. The approximate strength of the dilute acid
80. The molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving is
(1) 180 M (2) 18 M
4 g NaOH in enough water to form 250 mL of the
(3) 0.18 M (4) 1.8 M
solution is
(1) 0.2 M 87. 26 mL of CO2 are passed over red hot coke. The
(2) 0.4 M volume of CO evolved is
(3) 0.6 M (1) 26 mL (2) 10 mL
(4) 1 M (3) 20 mL (4) 52 mL

81. 1000 g aqueous solution of CaCO3 contains 10g of 88. A compound possess 8% sulphur by mass. The least
calcium carbonate. Concentration of solution is molecular mass is
(1) 10 ppm (1) 200 (2) 400
(2) 100 ppm (3) 155 (4) 355
(3) 1000 ppm
89. 0.4 mol of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mol of Na3PO4.
(4) 10000 ppm
The maximum number of moles of Ba3(PO4)2 that
can be formed is
82. In a reaction container, 100 g of hydrogen and 100 g
3BaCl2 + 2Na3PO4  Ba3(PO4)2 + 6NaCl
of Cl2 are mixed for the formation of HCl gas. What (1) 0.7 (2) 0.5
is the limiting reagent and how much HCl is formed (3) 0.3 (4) 0.1
in the reaction?
(1) H2 is limiting reagent and 36.5 g of HCl is formed. 90. Equal weights of ethane and hydrogen are mixed in
(2) Cl2 is limiting reagent and 102.8 g of HCl is formed. an empty vessel at 25°C. The fraction of the total
(3) H2 is limiting reagent and 142 g of HCl is formed. pressure exerted by hydrogen is
(4) Cl2 is limiting reagent and 73 g of HCl is formed. (1) 1/2 (2) 1
(3) 1/16 (4) 15/16
83. For the reaction A  2 B  C , 6 mol of A and 8 mol
91. Which property of an element is not variable?
of B will produce
(1) Valency (2) Atomic weight
(1) 5 mol of C
(3) Equivalent weight (4) All of these
(2) 4 mol of C
(3) 8 mol of C 92. Statement-I: At STP, 1 mL of ideal gas contains
(4) 13 mol of C 2.69 × 1019 molecules.
Statement-II: One mole of a gas is the amount of
84. Volume of O2 at STP required to burn completely gas which has a volume of 22.4 litres at STP.
70 mL of acetylene is (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
(1) 100 mL (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
(2) 150 mL (3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
(3) 175 mL (4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true.
(4) 200 mL
93. Statement-I: Element and compound are the
examples of pure substances.
85. In the reaction 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)  4NO(g) + 6H2O(l), Statement-II: Element contains one kind of atoms
when 1 mol of ammonia and 1 mol of O2 are made while a compound contains more than one kind of
to react to completion elements or atoms.
(1) all the oxygen is consumed (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
(2) 1.5 mol of NO is produced (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
(3) 1.5 mol of H2O is produced (3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
(4) all the ammonia is consumed. (4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true.
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Test Booklet Code-B
94. Statement-I: Molecular mass = 2 × vapour density.
Statement-II: Vapour density is the mass ratio of
1 mole of vapour to that of hydrogen. Attempt All 35 Questions
(1) If both Statement 1 and Statement II are true and
Statement II is the correct explanation of 101. Which of the following kingdoms has no well
statement I. defined boundaries?
(2) If both Statement I and Statement II are true but (1) Monera
Statement II is not the correct explanation of (2) Protista
Statement I. (3) Fungi
(3) If Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (4) Plantae
(4) If both Statement I and Statement II are false.
102. Members of Protista are primarily
95. Match the prefixes present in column I with their (1) Parasites
multiples in column II and mark the appropriate (2) Terrestrial
choice. (3) Aquatic
Column I (Prefixes) Column II (Multiples)
(4) Photosynthetic
(A) pico (i) 109
(B) femto (ii) 103
103. Based upon the modes of nutrition, protists are
(C) milli (iii) 1012
grouped into:
(D) giga (iv) 1015 (1) Plant-like protists (algae); ingestive animal-
(1) (A)  (i), (B)  (ii), (C)  (iii), (D)  (iv) like protists (protozoa) and absorptive fungus
(2) (A)  (ii), (B)  (i), (C)  (iv), (D)  (iii) like protists
(3) (A)  (iv), (B)  (iii), (C)  (i), (D)  (ii) (2) Chrysophytes, Dinoflagellates and Euglenoids
(4) (A)  (iii), (B)  (iv), (C)  (ii), (D)  (i) only
(3) Slime moulds and fungi only
96. Match the List I with List II. (4) Flagellated protozoans and sporozoans Only
List-I List-II
(A) 16 g of CH4(g) (I) Weight 28 g 104. Locomotory structures in protists are :
(B) 1 g of H2(g) (II) 60.2 × 1023 electron (1) Flagella
(C) 1 mole of N2(g) (III)Weighs 32 g (2) Cilia
(D) 0.5 mol of SO2(g) (IV) Occupies 11.2 L
(3) Pseudopodia
volume at STP
(4) All
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV 105. Protista form a link with
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (1) Plants only
(2) Animals only
97. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two (3) Fungi only
compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole of XY2 (4) Plants, animals and fungi
weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the
atomic weights of X and Y are 106. Chrysophytes include
(1) 40, 30 (2) 60, 40 (1) Diatoms and desmids (golden algae)
(3) 20, 30 (4) 30, 20 (2) Euglenoids
(3) Dinoflagellates
98. The maximum number of molecules is present in (4) Slime moulds
(1) 15 L of H2 gas at STP (2) 5 L of N2 gas at STP
(3) 0.5 g of H2 gas (4) 10 g of O2 gas. 107. The diatoms do not easily decay like most of the
other algae because
99. The molecular weight of O2 and SO2 are 32 and 64
(1) They have highly siliceous wall
respectively. At 15°C and 150 mm Hg pressure, one
(2) They have water proof cells
litre of O2 contains ‘N’ molecules. The number of
molecules in two litres of SO2 under the same (3) Their cell wall are mucilaginous
conditions of temperature and pressure will be (4) Cell wall is virus-resistant
(1) N/2 (2) N
(3) 2N (4) 4N 108. Dinoflagellates are mostly
(1) Marine
100. Avogadro’s number is (2) Fresh water
(1) 6.023  1023 (2) 6.023  1024 (3) terrestrial
(3) 6.023  1025 (4) 6.023  1026 (4) Saprophytes
8 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-B
109. Red tides in warm coastal water develop due to 117. Which of the following is correct about the slime
super abundance of mould?
(1) Dinoflagellates I. Its thalloid body, plasmodium, has pseudopodia
(2) Euglenoid forms for locomotion and engulfing organic matter
(3) Diatoms and desmids II. During unfavourable conditions plasmodium
(4) Chlamydomonas nivalis differentiates and produces fruiting bodies,
sporangium
III. Spores possess no true cell wall.
110. In which of the following the cell wall has stiff
IV. They are dispersed by air current.
cellulose plate on the outer surface:
V. Being extremely resistant, spores survive for
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Desmids many years
(3) Diatoms (4) Euglenoids VI. Plasmodium can grow upto several feet.
(1) I, II, IV, V, VI (2) I, II , III
111. Which of the following releases toxins that may (3) I, II , III, VI (4) II, III , VI
even kill other marine animals like fishes
(1) Gonyaulax (2) Paramecium 118. Which of the following is considered to be primitive
(3) Euglenoids (4) Sporozoans relatives of animals -?
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Slime moulds
112. Euglenoids e.g. Euglena are found – (3) Protozoa (4) Protochordata
(1) In fresh running water
(2) In fresh stagnant water 119. Which of the following are protozoans?
(3) In marine environment (1) Diatoms, flagellates, ciliates
(4) In both fresh and marine water (2) Desmids, flagellates, ciliates
(3) Amoeboid, flagellates, ciliates, sporozoans
113. Which of the following statements about Euglena is (4) Amoeba, Paramecium, dinoflagellates,
true? Plasmodium
(1) Euglenoids are flagellates
(2) Euglena placed in continuous darkness loses 120. Which of the following statements is wrong about
the amoeboid protozoans?
their photosynthetic activity and die
(1) They live in freshwater, sea water or moist soil
(3) The pigments of Euglena are quite different
(2) Amoeba has pseudopodia for locomotion and
from those of green plants
capture prey
(4) Euglena is a marine protist (3) Entamoeba is a free living protozoan
(4) Marine forms are shelled with silica
114. i. Instead of a cell wall they have a protein rich
pellicle making their body flexible. 121. Flagellated protozoans are:
ii. They have 2 flagella, a short and a long one. (1) Free living
iii. They have mixotrophic nutrition (2) Parasites
iv. In light they are photosynthetic, but act as (3) Either free living or parasites
heterotroph (predating other smaller organism) (4) Pseudopodia
when they are in dark.
v. They are connecting link between plants and 122. Which one is correct about Trypanosoma?
animals. (1) They are flagellated protozoan
The above statements are assigned to (2) They are parasite
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Slime mould (3) They cause sleeping sickness
(3) Desmids and Diatoms (4) Euglena (4) All of these

115. Slime moulds 123. Paramecium-

(1) Are parasite (1) Is a ciliated protozoan
(2) Do not produce fruiting bodies (2) Shows water current movement by cilia which
(3) Do not produce spores helps the food to be steered into gullet
(3) Has a cavity (gullet) that opens to the outside of
(4) Saprophytic protists
the cell surface
(4) All of these
116. The slimy mass of protoplasm with nuclei forms the
body of slime moulds is called 124. Plasmodium (malarial parasite)
(1) Plasmodium (1) Is a ciliated protozoan
(2) Myxamoeba (2) A free living protozoan
(3) Sporocytes (3) Causes malaria
(4) Periplasmodium (4) All of these
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 9
Test Booklet Code-B
125. Which of the following always produce an
infectious spore like stage in their life cycles?
(1) Ciliated protozoans This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these
(2) Flagellated protozoans 15 questions.
(3) Sporozoans
(4) None 136. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
3 steps in the sexual cycle of fungi
126. Mode of nutrition in fungi is not (1) Mitosis ----. Meiosis ----. Fertilization
(1) Parasitic (2) Saprophytic (2) Plasmogamy----. Karyogamy----. Meiosis
(3) Autotrophic (4) Heterotrophic
(3) Meiosis ----. Plasmogamy ----. Karyogamy
(4) Karygamy----. Plasmogamy----. Meiosis
127. The cells of the body of a multicellular fungus are
organised into rapidly growing individual filaments
137. The correct matching is
called
Column I Column II
(1) Mycelium (2) Rhizoids
(3) Hyphae (4) Dikaryon A. Phycomycetes I. Sac fungi
B. Ascomycetes II. Algal fungi
128. Which one is unicellular fungus? C. Basidiomycetes III. Fungi imperfecti
(1) Puccinia (2) Toad stool D. Deuteromycetes IV. Club fungi
(3) Penicillium (4) Yeast (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
129. Coenocytic hypha is (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(1) Uninucleate hypha (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) Multicellular hypha
(3) Multinucleate hypha without septae 138. All of the following are fungi except
(4) Hypha in coelom (1) Yeast (2) Penicillium
(3) Plasmodium (4) Puccinia
130. Many fungi are in ____ association with
photosynthetic organisms to form mycorrhizae or 139. Fungi occur
lichens (1) In air and soil (2) In water
(1) Parasitic (2) Symbiotic (3) On plants and animals (4) All
(3) Photosynthetic (4) Saprobic
140. Choose the correctly stated statement
131. Fungi can be parasites on (1) Bacterial structure and behaviour are complex.
(1) Animals (2) Human being (2) Bacterial structure and behaviour are simple
(3) Plants (4) All (3) Bacterial structure is complex while behaviour is
simple
132. Fungi prefer to grow in (4) Bacterial structure is simple while behaviour is
(1) Cold and dry places
complex
(2) Hot and dry places
(3) Sea water
141. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having
(4) Warm and humid places
(1) Definite nuclear structure
(2) Cell wall structure
133. Fungi show a great diversity in
(3) Adaptability cytoplasmic concentration
(1) Morphology (2) Habitat
(4) Some membranous cell organelles
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Nutrition

134. Fungi show asexual reproduction by all of the 142. Choose the correct about blue green algae
following spores except i. Also known as cyanobacteria
(1) Conidia (2) Oospore ii. Presence of chlorophyll a, b similar to green
(3) Sporangiospore (4) Zoospores plants
iii. Photosynthetic autotroph
135. Sexual reproduction in fungi is by all of the iv. May be unicellular, colonial or filamentous
following except v. Occur in aquatic as well as terrestrial
(1) Oospores (2) Ascopores (1) i), iii), iv), v) (2) i), ii), iii), iv), v)
(3) Zoospores (4) Basidiospores (3) i), ii), iv), v) (4) None of these
10 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-B
143. Choose the wrong statement for chemosynthetic
autotroph bacteria
(1) They oxidise various inorganic substrate such as Attempt All 35 Questions
nitrates, nitrites & ammonia and use the released
energy for their ATP production 151. The taxon which includes related classes in plant
(2) They play great role in recycling nutrient like classification is
nitrogen phosphorous, iron & sulphur (1) Order (2) Phylum
(3) For their energy production they utilize solar energy (3) Family (4) Division
(4) They can prepare their food from inorganic
substrate.
152. Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic categories
hierarchial arrangement in descending order
144. Citrus canker is
(1) Plant disease cause by bacteria (1) Kingdom  Division  Order  Class
(2) Human disease cause by bacteria (2) Phylum  Family  Order  Class
(3) Pet disease cause by bacteria (3) Division  Kingdom  class  Order
(4) None of these (4) Division  Class  Order  Family
145. Choose the incorrect option about bacterial
153. Which scientist used the Latin word systema as the
reproduction
(1) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission title of the of his publication?
(2) Under unfavourable condition they produce (1) Ernst mayr (2) Darwin
spores (3) John Ray (4) Carolus Linnaeus
(3) They also reproduce by sexual reproduction
(4) They show a sort of sexual reproduction 154. Generic name denotes
(1) Organism quality (2) Organism name
146. Here are few statement given below, Identify (3) Organism origin (4) Organism habitat
organism on basis of statement
i. Lack cell wall
155. Select the incorrect statement about scientific names
ii. Smallest living cell known
iii. Can survive without oxygen (1) They are binomial
iv. Pathogenic in animal & plants. (2) They are nondepictive
(1) Nostoc (2) Anabaena (3) They are universally acceptable
(3) Mycoplasma (4) Chlorella (4) None of these

147. Identify the diagram. 156. Statement-A Generally, order and other higher
taxonomic categories are indentified based on the
aggregates of characters.
Statement –B Plant orders are characterized on the
basis of vegetative features.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(1) (i) Dinoflagellates (ii) Euglena (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(2) (i) Dinoflagellates (ii) Paramoceium (3) Statement A is correct and statement B is
(3) (i) Euglena (ii) Dinoflagellates incorrect
(4) (i) Slime mould (ii) Paramecium (4) Statement A is incorrect and statement B is correct

148. Moneran cell wall is composed by 157. Read the statements given below and identify the
(1) Polysaccharide (Non cellulose) only
incorrect one
(2) Polysaccharide (cellulose)
(1) Scientific names are neither Latin words nor
(3) Polysaccharide (chitin)
(4) Amino acid and Non cellulosic polysaccharide Latinized words
(2) Scientific name has two words i.e genus and
149. Chemosynthetic mode of nutrition is found is species epithet
(1) Monera (2) Protist (3) Very few organisms have two scientific names
(3) Plantae (4) Fungi (4) Both (1) and (3)
150. Fungi has cell wall composed of
(1) Cellulose 158. Which is basic and fundamental unit of
(2) Polysaccharides and amino acids classification
(3) Chitin and polysaccharides (1) Genus (2) Family
(4) Chitin only (3) Subspecies (4) Species
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 11
Test Booklet Code-B
159. Read the following taxa, find out how many are 169. More suitable term used for all these - ‘Dogs’,
genera (G) and species (S) ‘Cats’, ‘Mammals’, ‘Wheat’, ‘Rice’, ‘Plants’,
Solanum, Nigrum, Panther, Pardus, Leo, Datura ‘Animals’, etc :
Homo, Aestirum, Triticum , Indica, Domestica, (1) Classification (2) Systematics
Musca, Sapiens, Tigris, Magnifera, Felis, Catus, (3) Taxa (4) Both (1) and (3)
Canis, Lupus, Petunia
(1) G-7, S-13 (2) G-8, S-12 170. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to :
(3) G-9, S-11 (4) G-10, S-10 (1) Stepwise arrangement of all categories for the
classification of plants and animals.
160. Select the mismatched pair (2) A group of senior taxonomists who decide the
(1) Man - Order primata (2)Housefly - Class muscidae nomenclature of plants and animals.
(3) Mango - Order spindales (4)Wheat - Order poales (3) A list of botanists or zoologists who have
worked on the taxonomy of a species or group.
161. Order carnivora include families (4) The classification of the species based on fossil
(1) Muscidae and hominidae record.
(2) Poaceae and canidae
(3) Felidae and Anacardiaceae 171. The study of different kinds of organisms and their
(4) Canidae and Felidae diversities and their comparative and evolutionary
relationship is called :
162. Which category is reproductively isolated (1) Ecology (2) Phylogeny
(1) Genus (2) Family (3) Biodiversity (4) Systematics
(3) Species (4) Order
172. Full form of ICBN is
163. Classification is a (1) Indian Centre for Botanical News.
(1) Describing the morphology and other features of (2) International Centre for Botanical News.
an organism (3) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature.
(2) Correct description of an organism (4) International Concept of Bionomial Nomenclature.
(3) Grouping the organism in convenient categories
based on its characters 173. Biodiversity can be best defined as
(4) All of the above (1) The number and types of organisms on earth
(2) Species and ecosystem of a region
164. Which of the categories are highest and least (3) Variety of life in an ecosystem
similarities respectively (4) Totality of genes, species and ecosystem of a
(1) Phylum and genus (2) Species and division given region
(3) Kingdom and species (4) Species and kingdom
174. The bionomial nomenclature system was given by
165. The scientific name Mangifera indica Linn. (1) Ernst mayr (2) Carolus Linnaeus
Whereas Linn. Represents (3) Aristotle (4) Whittaker
(1) Genus (2) Species
(3) Author name (4) Subspecies 175. All the given options represent the basic processes
of taxonomy except
166. Assertion: Genus Panthera, comprising lion, tiger leopard (1) Nomenclature (2) Identification
is put along with genus, Felis in the family Felidae. (3) Speciation (4) Classification
Reason: Families like Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae
are included in the genera solanum mainly based on 176. Species is considered as
the floral characters. (1) The largest taxon of taxonomy/ classification
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason (2) The smallest category of taxonomy / classification
is correct explanation of assertion (3) Both smallest and the largest unit of
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is taxonomy/classification
not correct explanation of assertion (4) None of the above
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong 177. Which obligatory taxon is not used to plants
167. Identify the organisms that belongs to same family (1) Class (2) Family
(1) Cat, Dog, Rat (2) Tiger, Leopard, Cat (3) Division (4) Phylum
(3) Tiger, Dog, Cat (4) Cat, Dog, Leopard
178. Higher taxa share
168. From the following, identify the scientific name (1) Least common characters
which is not properly written : (2) Maximum common characters
(1) Homo sapiens (2) Solanum Melongena (3) No common characters
(3) Panthera leo (4) Solanum tuberosum (4) Exactly similar common characters
12 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-B
179. Choose the incorrect match
(1) Order  a group of related families
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
(2) Genus  a group of related species choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these
(3) Class  a group of related orders 15 questions.
(4) Division  a group of related phyla
186. Match the following columns:
180. Which taxonomic category of mango and wheat is Column - I Column -II
similar? (A) Potato (I) Class
(1) Order and Family (2) Only Division
(B) Datura (II) Plantae
(3) Division and Class (4) Division, Class and Order
(C) Mammalia (III) Genus
181. Assertion (A): Lower the taxa, less are the (D) Kingdom (IV) tuberosum
characteristics that the members within the taxa share. (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D -II
Reason (R) : Higher the category, lesser is the (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D -IV
difficulty of determaining the relationship to other (3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D –II
taxa of the same level. (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D -II
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is a correct explanation of the assertion. 187. The taxon Division placed between
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is (1) Kingdom and class (2) Phylum and class
not a correct explanation of the assertion. (3) Class and order (4) Order and family
(3) The assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false. 188. Which taxon has more general characters as
compared to family
182. Consider the following statements
(1) Species (2) Kingdom
I. In binomial nomenclature, the name of an
organism consists of two components. (3) Order (4) Both (2) and (3)
II. The first name of organism represents the specific
name and the second name is generic name 189. Which is the odd one in the following series?
Choose the correct option. (1) Diptera (2) Primata
(1) I is true, but II is false (2) Both I and II are false (3) Insecta (4) Carnivora
(3) I is false, but II is true (4) Both I and II are true 190. Monocotyledonae is a
(1) Order (2) Division
183. Match the following columns (3) Class (4) Phylum
Column I Column II
(Taxonomic hierarchy) (Examples) 191. How many statements are correct w.r.t to
A. Family 1. Diptera systematics
B. Order 2. Arthropoda (a) Study of different kinds of organisms and their
C. Class 3. Muscidae diversities
D. Phylum 4. Insecta (b) An account of evolutionary relationship between
(1) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 (2) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 organisms
(3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (4) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(c) Systematic arrangement of only animals and
184. The basis of modern taxonomic studies is : microorganisms
(1) External and Internal structure (d) The scope later enlarged to include identification,
(2) Structure of cell nomenclature and classification
(3) Development process and ecological information (1) 2 (2) 1
(4) All of these (3) 4 (4) 3
185. Assertion : All organisms, including those in the
192. Statement  A Biological names, when printed in
plant and animal kingdoms have species as the
lowest category in taxonomic hierarchy. italics to indicate their Latin origin .
Statement B Taxonomic groups / categories are
Reason: Taxonomic studies starts with a group of
distinct biological entities and not merely
individual organisms with fundamental similarities
as a species morphological aggregates.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason
is correct explanation of assertion (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is
(3) Statement A is correct and statement B is
not correct explanation of assertion incorrect
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong(4) Statement A is incorrect and statement B is
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong correct
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 13
Test Booklet Code-B
193. The characters in common maximum between 197. Select incorrect match with respect to mango :
melongena and makoi (1) Family – Anacardiaceae
(1) Genus (2) Order – Sapindaceae
(2) Speices (3) Class – Dicotyledonae
(3) Family (4) Division – Angiospermae
(4) Order
198. Branch connected with nomenclature, identification
194. Which of the following is correct sequence of and classification is :
taxonomic hierarchy of cat? (1) Ecology (2) Taxonomy
(1) Felis  Felidae  Carnivora  Mammalia  (3) Morphology (4) Physiology
Chordata
(2) Panthera  Felidae  Carnivora  Mammalia 199. Assertion: Families are characterized on the basis
Chordata of both vegetative and reproductive features of plant
(3) Canis  Canidae  Carnivora  Mammalia species
 Chordata Reason: Three different genera Solanum, Petunia
(4) Chordata  Felidae  Felis  Carnivora  and Datura are placed in the family Solanaceae.
Mammalia (1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason
is correct explanation of assertion
195. No. of species identified till now is : (2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is
(1) 1.7 – 1.8 million (2) 0.5 – 1 million not correct explanation of assertion
(3) 3.7 – 4.7 million (4) 4.7 – 6.7 million (3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong
196. Which of the following is highest in hierarchy?
(1) Order 200. Scientific names or nomenclature of animals are
(2) Species based on rules provided by:
(3) Class (1) ICZN (2) ICBN
(4) Genus (3) ICVN (4) All of these

14 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.

 Test Booklet Code-B

Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur, 760 002

www.svmberhampur.com

Date : 15-SEPT.-2024 Total Marks : 720 Time : 08:00 - 11:20 AM

ANSWER KEY
Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A
01 2 26 1 51 2 76 2 101 2 126 3 151 4 176 2
02 4 27 4 52 3 77 3 102 3 127 3 152 4 177 4
03 3 28 2 53 4 78 3 103 1 128 4 153 4 178 1
04 2 29 4 54 2 79 2 104 4 129 3 154 2 179 4
05 2 30 1 55 3 80 2 105 4 130 2 155 2 180 2
06 2 31 1 56 4 81 4 106 1 131 4 156 3 181 4
07 1 32 1 57 1 82 2 107 1 132 4 157 4 182 1
08 4 33 3 58 4 83 2 108 1 133 3 158 4 183 1
09 1 34 3 59 3 84 3 109 1 134 2 159 4 184 4
10 3 35 1 60 1 85 1 110 1 135 3 160 2 185 1
11 4 36 2 61 2 86 3 111 1 136 2 161 4 186 1
12 1 37 3 62 1 87 4 112 2 137 1 162 3 187 1
13 3 38 3 63 3 88 2 113 1 138 3 163 3 188 4
14 3 39 3 64 4 89 4 114 4 139 4 164 4 189 3
15 1 40 1 65 2 90 4 115 4 140 4 165 3 190 3
16 3 41 1 66 1 91 2 116 1 141 2 166 3 191 4
17 1 42 3 67 3 92 1 117 1 142 1 167 2 192 1
18 3 43 2 68 2 93 1 118 3 143 3 168 2 193 1
19 1 44 1 69 3 94 3 119 3 144 1 169 3 194 1
20 1 45 1 70 3 95 4 120 3 145 3 170 1 195 1
21 4 46 1 71 2 96 4 121 3 146 3 171 4 196 3
22 4 47 2 72 1 97 1 122 4 147 1 172 3 197 2
23 2 48 2 73 1 98 1 123 4 148 4 173 1 198 2
24 3 49 2 74 1 99 3 124 3 149 1 174 2 199 2
25 3 50 1 75 2 100 1 125 3 150 3 175 3 200 1

SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 15

 Test Booklet Code-B

HINT. SOLUTION
JM-NEET Batch: Weekly Test- 2, Date: 15 - SEPT. - 2024
01. Answer (2) 22. Answer (4)
02. Answer (4) 23. Answer (2)
  
s  rf  ri 24. Answer (3)
 u a vm v
s  2iˆ  2ˆj  8kˆ
 A x B x C
| s |  22  22  82  8.5m
AB
03. Answer (3) v 2m  u 2  2ax 
 (1)
04. Answer (2) BC
05. Answer (2) v 2  v 2m  2ax 
 (2)
06. Answer (2)
25. Answer (3)
07. Answer (1)
26. Answer (1)
08. Answer (4) f
09. Answer (1)

S  400ˆj  300(ˆi)  1200kˆ s

(S)  4002  3002  12002  1300 m i
10. Answer (3)
S  12t  3t 2  2t 3 s = 100 m
dv 27. Answer (4)
V  12  6t  6t 2
dt 28. Answer (2)
Initial velocity Vt  0  12m / s 29. Answer (4)
11. Answer (4) 30. Answer (1)
m n 4 31. Answer (1)
S  t 32. Answer (1)
4 2
dv n4t 3
33. Answer (3)
V 0 34. Answer (3)
ds 2
35. Answer (1)
V  2nt 3
u u/2 v0
12. Answer (1)
A 3cm B x C
V  At  Bt 2
AB
dx
 At  Bt 2 u
2
dt    u  2(a)(3cm) 
 (1)
2

x 2  
2
 dx   (At  Bt BC
2
)dt
0 1
2
u
x
A[t 2 ]12 B[t 3 ]12
 o 2     2(a)x 
 (2)
2 3 2
3 7 36. Answer (2)
x A B 37. Answer (3)
2 3
13. Answer (3) 38. Answer (3)
14. Answer (3) u0 2sec 2sec
15. Answer (1) A B C
x y
16. Answer (3)
17. Answer (1) AB
  1 2
S  10ˆj  20ˆj S  ut  2 at 
 
| S |  100  400  500  22.4m
1
18. Answer (3) x  a(2) 2   (1)
2
V  20  0.1t 2 AC
a  0.2t  (1) 1
x  y  a(4) 2 
 (2)
The body is undergoing Non uniform acceleration 2
19. Answer (1) 39. Answer (3)
x  2t 2  t  5 40. Answer (1)
v  4t  1 41. Answer (1)
a  4 m / s2 42. Answer (3)
20. Answer (1) 43. Answer (2)
21. Answer (4) 44. Answer (1)
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 16
 Test Booklet Code-B
45. Answer (1) 68. Answer (2)
46. Answer (1) 2NaHCO3  Na 2CO3  H 2O  CO 2
47. Answer (2) 69. Answer (3)
48. Answer (2) 70. Answer (3)
49. Answer (2) 71. Answer (2)
v  u 14  8 72. Answer (1)
a   2m / s 2
t 3 73. Answer (1)
50. Answer (1) 74. Answer (1)
51. Answer (2) wt
Mole 
Oxygenated water H2O2 GMW
52. Answer (3) 75. Answer (2)
C H 76. Answer (2)
3 1 77. Answer (3)
12 1 78. Answer (3)
CH4 79. Answer (2)
53. Answer (4) 80. Answer (2)
100 0.032 wt 1000
M 
x 32 GMW V
3200 81. Answer (4)
x
0.032 82. Answer (2)
54. Answer (2) 83. Answer (2)
CH2O EF Based on limiting reagent.
55. Answer (3) 84. Answer (3)
C H 85. Answer (1)
90 10
86. Answer (3)
12 1
M1V1 = M2V2
C3H4 Dilution law.
56. Answer (4) 87. Answer (4)
X Y CO 2  C  2CO
75 16
88. Answer (2)
57. Answer (1)
89. Answer (4)
OC N
90. Answer (4)
100 20 wt B
x 14 B 
GMWB
140
 70 Total moles
2
58. Answer (4) 91. Answer (2)
92. Answer (1)
 y y
C x H y   x   O 2  x CO 2  H 2O 93. Answer (1)
 4 2
94. Answer (3)
59. Answer (3)
CaCO3  CaO  CO 2
95. Answer (4)
96. Answer (4)
60. Answer (1) 97. Answer (1)
4PH 3  P4  6H 2
98. Answer (1)
61. Answer (2) V  n. Avagadro’s law.
Ag  HNO3  AgNO3
99. Answer (3)
62. Answer (1) 100. Answer (1)
1
Mg  O 2  MgO 6  023  1023
2
101. Answer (2)
12 0.05 moles Protista have character like fungi, plant and animal
24g 102. Answer (3)
63. Answer (3) Mainly aquatic
CaCO3  CaO  CO 2
103. Answer (1)
64. Answer (4) Protista are autotrophic, holozoic and absorptive
Al  3O 2  Al2O3
nutrition
65. Answer (2) 104. Answer (4)
CaCO3  2HCl  CaCl2  H 2O  CO 2 All
66. Answer (1) 105. Answer (4)
Mg  2HCl  MgCl2  H 2 All. Follow answer 101.
67. Answer (3) 106. Answer (1)
N 2  3H 2  2NH 3 It includes diatoms and desmid
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 Test Booklet Code-B
107. Answer (1) 136. Answer (2)
Cell wall contain high amount silica Plasmogamy, karyogamy, meiosis
108. Answer (1) 137. Answer (1)
Mostly marine (ncert line) Phycomycetes-algal fungi, basidiomycetes-club
109. Answer (1) fungi
Dinoflagellate gonyaulax 138. Answer (3)
110. Answer (1) Plasmodium
Dinoflagellates 139. Answer (4)
111. Answer (1) All
Gonyaulax release toxin 140. Answer (4)
112. Answer (2) Simple Structure and complex behavior
Fresh stagnant water 141. Answer (2)
113. Answer (1) Cell wall Structure
Euglena have two flagella 142. Answer (1)
114. Answer (4) Chlorophyll a only
All characters belong to Euglena 143. Answer (3)
115. Answer (4) They use chemical energy instead of solar energy
Saprophytic protista 144. Answer (1)
116. Answer (1) Plant disease
Plasmodium 145. Answer (3)
117. Answer (1) No sexual reproduction in bacteria
Spore have true wall 146. Answer (3)
118. Answer (3) Mycoplasma
Protozoa 147. Answer (1)
119. Answer (3) Dinoflagellate, Euglena
Diatoms, desmid, dinoflagellated are not protozoa 148. Answer (4)
120. Answer (3) Non cellulose polysaccharides, amino acids
Entamoeba are parasite 149. Answer (1)
121. Answer (3) Monera
Free living or parasite 150. Answer (3)
122. Answer (4) Chitin and polysaccharides
All 151. Answer (4)
123. Answer (4) In classification of plants, the related classes
All included under Category – Division.
124. Answer (3) 152. Answer (4)
Cause malaria 153. Answer (4)
125. Answer (3) 154. Answer (2)
Sporozoan In Biological name Genus denotes name of the
126. Answer (3) organism.
Fungus are never autotrophic 155. Answer (2)
127. Answer (3) 156. Answer (3)
Hyphae Plant families are characterized on the basis of both
128. Answer (4) vegetative and reproductive characters.
Yeast 157. Answer (4)
129. Answer (3) All organisms have specified with one Biological
Multinucleated hyphae without septa name.
130. Answer (2) 158. Answer (4)
Symbiotic association 159. Answer (4)
131. Answer (4) 160. Answer (2)
All Housefly class – Insecta.
132. Answer (4) 161. Answer (4)
Warm and humid place 162. Answer (3)
133. Answer (3) The individuals of a species reproductively isolated.
In morphology and habitat 163. Answer (3)
134. Answer (2) 164. Answer (4)
Oospore Species has highest similarities, where as kingdom
135. Answer (3) has lowest similarities.
Zoospore 165. Answer (3)
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 Test Booklet Code-B
166. Answer (3) 183. Answer (1)
Under order polymoniales the two families 184. Answer (4)
convolvulaceae, solanaceae included based on floral 185. Answer (1)
characters. 186. Answer (1)
167. Answer (2) 187. Answer (1)
168. Answer (2) In plants the taxon division placed between kingdom
169. Answer (3) and class.
170. Answer (1) 188. Answer (4)
171. Answer (4) 189. Answer (3)
The study of different types of organisms, their Insecta is only the class.
diversities and evolutionary relationships among 190. Answer (3)
them called systematics. 191. Answer (4)
172. Answer (3) Systematic arrangement of all organisms called
173. Answer (1) systematics.
174. Answer (2) 192. Answer (1)
175. Answer (3) 193. Answer (1)
176. Answer (2)
Melongena, Makoi belongs to same Genus –
177. Answer (4)
Solanum.
The category phylum only used to animals.
194. Answer (1)
178. Answer (1)
195. Answer (1)
179. Answer (4)
196. Answer (3)
Division is a group of related classes.
180. Answer (2) 197. Answer (2)
181. Answer (4) Mango tree order is sapindales.
Higher the category, greater is the difficulty of 198. Answer (2)
determining the relationships to other taxa of the 199. Answer (2)
same level. 200. Answer (1)
182. Answer (1) For plants ICBN and animals ICZN.

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