The Basics of Capital Budgeting: Solutions To End-Of-Chapter Problems
The Basics of Capital Budgeting: Solutions To End-Of-Chapter Problems
The Basics of Capital Budgeting: Solutions To End-Of-Chapter Problems
Discounted @12%
Cash Flows
($52,125.00)
10,714.80
9,566.40
8,541.60
7,626.00
6,808.80
6,079.20
5,427.60
4,846.80
Cumulative
($52,125.00)
(41,410.20)
(31,843.80)
(23,302.20)
(15,676.20)
(8,867.40)
(2,788.20)
2,639.40
7,486.20
$2,788.20
years, or 6.51 years.
$5,427.60
Alternatively, since the annual cash flows are the same, one can divide $12,000 by 1.12
(the discount rate = 12%) to arrive at CF1 and then continue to divide by 1.12 seven more
times to obtain the discounted cash flows (Column 3 values). The remainder of the
analysis would be the same.
c. NPV = -$52,125 + $12,000[(1/i)-(1/(i*(1+i)n)]
= -$52,125 + $12,000[(1/0.12)-(1/(0.12*(1+0.12)8)]
= -$52,125 + $12,000(4.9676) = $7,486.20.
Financial calculator: Input the appropriate cash flows into the cash flow register, input I
= 12, and then solve for NPV = $7,486.68.
d. Financial calculator: Input the appropriate cash flows into the cash flow register and
then solve for IRR = 16%.
12,000
52,125
FV
8
Truck:
NPV = -$17,100 + $5,100(PVIFA14%,5)
= -$17,100 + $5,100(3.4331) = -$17,100 + $17,509
= $409.
(Accept)
Financial calculator: Input the appropriate cash flows into the cash flow register, input I
= 14, and then solve for NPV = $409.
Financial calculator: Input the appropriate cash flows into the cash flow register and then
solve for IRR = 14.99% 15%.
MIRR: PV Costs = $17,100.
FV Inflows:
PV
0 14%
|
5,100
17,100
5,100
5,100
5,100
FV
5
|
5,100
5,814
6,628
7,556
8,614
33,712
14%
1
|
7,500
22,430
2
|
7,500
3
|
7,500
4
|
7,500
FV
5
|
7,500
8,550
9,747
11,112
12,667
49,576
10-16 a. Using a financial calculator, input the following: CF0 = -190000, CF1 = 87000, Nj =
3, and I = 14 to solve for NPV190-3 = $11,981.99 $11,982 (for 3 years).
Adjusted NPV190-3 = $11,982 + $11,982/(1.14)3 = $20,070.
Using a financial calculator, input the following: CF0 = -360000, CF1 = 98300, Nj =
6, and I = 14 to solve for NPV360-6 = $22,256.02 $22,256 (for 6 years).
Both new machines have positive NPVs, hence the old machine should be
replaced. Further, since its adjusted NPV is greater, choose Model 360-6.
Chapter 11
Cash Flow Estimation and Risk Analysis
SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER PROBLEMS
11-4
$65,000
(19,798)
5,500
$50,702
12%
-126,000
42,518
47,579
34,926
50,702
85,628
With a financial calculator, input the appropriate cash flows into the cash flow
register, input I = 12, and then solve for NPV = $10,841.
11-5
($70,000)
(15,000)
(4,000)
($89,000)
Notes:
1. The after-tax cost savings is $25,000(1 T) = $25,000(0.6)
= $15,000.
2. The depreciation expense in each year is the depreciable basis, $85,000, times the
MACRS allowance percentage of 0.33, 0.45, and 0.15 for Years 1, 2 and 3,
respectively. Depreciation expense in Years 1, 2, and 3 is $28,050, $38,250, and
$12,750. The depreciation shield is calculated as the tax rate (40%) times the
depreciation expense in each year.
c. The additional end-of-project cash flow is $24,380:
Salvage value
Tax on SV*
Return of NWC
$30,000
(9,620)
4,000
$24,380
Alternatively, with a financial calculator, input the following: CF0 = -89000, CF1 =
26220, CF2 = 30300, CF3 = 44480, and I = 10 to solve for NPV = -$6,703.83.
Chapter 16
Capital Structure Decisions: The Basics
SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER PROBLEMS
16-5
16-6
FCF
( EBIT)(1 T ) ($14.933)(1 0.4)
= $103.188 million.
=
=
WACC
WACC
0.08683
rRF = 5.0%
rM rRF = 6.0%
From data given in the problem and table we can develop the following table:
0.00
0.20
0.40
0.60
0.80
D/A
E/A
D/E
1.00
0.80
0.60
0.40
0.20
0.0000
0.2500
0.6667
1.5000
4.0000
7.00%
8.00
10.00
12.00
15.00
rd
4.20%
4.80
6.00
7.20
9.00
rd(1 T)
1.20
1.38
1.68
2.28
4.08
Leveraged
betaa
12.20%
13.28
15.08
18.68
29.48
rsb
WACCc
12.20%
11.58
11.45
11.79
13.10
Notes:
a
These beta estimates were calculated using the Hamada equation,
b = bU[1 + (1 T)(D/E)].
b
These rs estimates were calculated using the CAPM, rs = rRF + (rM rRF)b.
c
These WACC estimates were calculated with the following equation:
WACC = wd(rd)(1 T) + (wc)(rs).
The firms optimal capital structure is that capital structure which minimizes the firms
WACC. Elliotts WACC is minimized at a capital structure consisting of 40% debt and
60% equity. At that capital structure, the firms WACC is 11.45%.
Chapter 23
Derivatives and Risk Management
If Carter issues floating rate debt and then swaps, its net cash flows will be: -(LIBOR +
2%) 7.95% + LIBOR = -9.95%. This is less than the 10% rate at which it could
directly issue fixed rate debt, so the swap is good for Carter.
If Brence issues fixed rate debt and then swaps, its net cash flows will be: -11% + 7.95%
- LIBOR = -(LIBOR + 3.05%). This is less than the rate at which it could directly issue
floating rate debt (LIBOR + 3%), so the swap is good for Brence.
Chapter 26
Multinational Financial Management
SOLUTIONS TO END-OF-CHAPTER PROBLEMS
26-1
Yen
Dollar
Yen
.
=
Peso
Peso Dollar
Note that an indirect quotation is given for Mexican; however, the cross rate formula
requires a direct quotation. The indirect quotation is the reciprocal of the direct
quotation. Since $1 = 9 pesos, then 1 peso = $0.1111.
Yen/Peso = 0.1111 dollars per peso 111.23 yen per dollar
= 12.358 yen per peso.
26-2
rNom, 6-month T-bills = 7%; rNom of similar default-free 6-month Japanese bonds = 5.5%;
Spot exchange rate: 1 Yen = $0.009; 6-month forward exchange rate = ft = ?
ft
(1 + rh )
=
e 0 (1 + rf )
rf = 5.5%/2 = 2.75%.
rh = 7%/2 = 3.5%.
e0 = $0.009.
ft
$0.009
1.0275 ft
= $0.00932
ft
= $0.00907.
1.035
1.0275
U. S. T.V. = $500; French T.V. = 550 euros; Spot rate between euro and dollar = ?
Ph = Pf(e0)
$500 = 550 euros(e0)
500/550 = e0
$0.9091 = e0.
1 euro = $0.9091 or $1 = 1 / 0.9091 = 1.1000 euros.
26-4
26-8
a. The automobiles value has increased because the dollar has declined in value relative
to the yen.
b. 245/108 = 2.2685, so $8,000 2.1491 = $18,148.00.
Note that this represents a 4.9% compound annual increase over 17 years.
26-9