MMUNICATION SYTEMS 11.

Distortion is caused by:

a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies
The theory of radio waves was originated by: b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other
a. Marconi c. Maxwell c. shift in phase relationships between baseband frequencies
b. Bell d. Hertz d. all of the above

The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was: 12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its:
a. Marconi c. Maxwell a. frequency-domain representation c. spectrum
b. Bell d. Hertz b. Fourier series d. all of the above

The transmission of radio waves was first done by: 13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is:
a. Marconi c. Maxwell a. approximately 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz
b. Bell d. Hertz b. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above

A complete communication system must include: 14. Noise in a communication system originates in:
a. a transmitter and receiver a. the sender c. the channel
b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel b. the receiver d. all of the above
c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer
d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel 15. "Man-made" noise can come from:
a. equipment that sparks c. static
Radians per second is equal to: b. temperature d. all of the above
a. 2  f c. the phase angle
b. f  2 d. none of the above 16. Thermal noise is generated in:
a. transistors and diodes c. copper wire
The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on: b. resistors d. all of the above
a. the carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio
b. the signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range 17. Shot noise is generated in:
a. transistors and diodes c. copper wire
When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called: b. resistors d. none of the above
a. sub-channeling c. SINAD
b. signal switching d. Multiplexing 18. The power density of "flicker" noise is:
a. the same at all frequencies c. greater at low frequencies
TDM stands for: b. greater at high frequencies d. the same as "white" noise
a. Time-Division Multiplexing c. Time Domain Measurement
b. Two-level Digital Modulation d. none of the above 19. So called "1/f" noise is also called:
a. random noise c. white noise
FDM stands for: b. pink noise d. partition noise
a. Fast Digital Modulation c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing
b. Frequency Domain Measurement d. none of the above 20. "Pink" noise has:
a. equal power per Hertz c. constant power
The wavelength of a radio signal is: b. equal power per octave d. none of the above
a. equal to f  c
b. equal to c   21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is:
c. the distance a wave travels in one period a. VT = sqrt(V1  V1 + V2  V2) c. VT = sqrt(V1  V2)
d. how far the signal can travel without distortion b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 d. VT = V1 + V2
 Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: 7. The Miller Effect can be avoided by:
a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage a. using a common-emitter amplifier c. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit
b. signal power divided by noise power b. using a common-base amplifier d. it cannot be avoided
c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power
d. none of the above 8. In a BJT, the Miller Effect is due to:
a. inductance of collector lead c. base-to-emitter capacitance
SINAD is calculated as: b. collector-to-emitter capacitance d. base-to-collector capacitance
a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage
b. signal power divided by noise power 9. In RF amplifiers, impedance matching is usually done with:
c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power a. RC coupling c. direct coupling
d. none of the above b. transformer coupling d. lumped reactance

Noise Figure is a measure of: 10. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by:
a. how much noise is in a communications system a. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback
b. how much noise is in the channel b. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane
c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal c. decoupling it
d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB d. none of the above

The part, or parts, of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are: 11. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it requires:
a. its amplitude c. its amplitude, frequency, and direction a. a nonlinear circuit
b. its amplitude and frequency d. its amplitude, frequency, and phase angle b. a linear amplifier
c. a signal containing harmonics
CIRCUITS d. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency

The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called: 12. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires:
a. base time c. charge time a. loop gain equal to unity
b. transit time d. Miller time b. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees
c. both a and b, but at just one frequency
A real capacitor actually contains: d. none of the above
a. capacitance and resistance only c. capacitance, inductance, and resistance
b. capacitance and inductance only d. reactance only
13. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called:
Bypass capacitors are used to: a. the loop-gain criteria c. the Bode criteria
a. remove RF from non-RF circuits c. neutralize amplifiers b. the Hartley criteria d. the Barkhausen criteria
b. couple RF around an amplifier d. reduce the Miller effect 14. The Hartley oscillator uses:
a. a tapped inductor c. an RC time constant
A resonant circuit is: b. a two-capacitor divider d. a piezoelectric crystal
a. a simple form of bandpass filter c. both a and b
b. used in narrowband RF amplifiers d. none of the above 15. The Colpitts VFO uses:
a. a tapped inductor c. an RC time constant
Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will: b. a two-capacitor divider d. a piezoelectric crystal
a. raise the Q of the tuned circuit c. "multiply" the Q
b. lower the Q of the tuned circuit d. have no effect on Q 16. The Clapp oscillator is:
a. a modified Hartley oscillator c. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator
The "Miller Effect" can: b. a modified Colpitts oscillator d. only built with FETs
a. cause an amplifier to oscillate c. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier
b. cause an amplifier to lose gain d. all of the above
A varactor is:
a. a voltage-controlled capacitor c. used in tuner circuits 4.The equation for full-carrier AM is:
b. a diode d. all of the above a. v(t) = (Ec + Em)  sin(ct) c. v(t) = (Ec  Em)  sin(mt)  sin(ct)
b. v(t) = (Ec + Em)  sin(mt) + sin(ct) d. v(t) = (Ec + Em sin(mt))  sin(ct)
Crystal-Controlled oscillators are:
a. used for a precise frequency 5. Overmodulation causes:
b. used for very low frequency drift (parts per million) a. distortion c. both a and b
c. made by grinding quartz to exact dimensions b. splatter d. none of the above
d. all of the above
6. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. The modulation index, m, is:
If two signals, Va = sin(at) and Vb = sin(bt), are fed to a mixer, the output: a. m = Emin / Emax c. m = (Emax – Emin) / (Emax + Emin)
a. will contain 1 = a + b and 2 = a – b b. m = Emax / Emin d. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax – Emin)
b. will contain 1 = a / b and 2 = b / a
c. will contain  = (a + b ) / 2 7. If Va sin(at) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(ct), it will produce the frequencies:
d. none of the above a. c + a and c – a c. c + a and 2c + 2a
b. (c + a)/2 and (c – a)/2 d. none of the above
In a balanced mixer, the output:
a. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies 8. At 100% modulation, the total sideband power is:
b. contains the input frequencies a. equal to the carrier power c. half the carrier power
c. does not contain the input frequencies b. twice the carrier power d. 1.414  carrier power
d. is a linear mixture of the input signals
9. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier, the bandwidth of the AM signal will be:
"VFO" stands for: a. 5 kHz c. 1.005 MHz
a. Voltage-Fed Oscillator c. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator b. 10 kHz d. none of the above
b. Variable-Frequency Oscillator d. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator
10. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index, you would expect:
A "frequency synthesizer" is: a. the audio to get louder at the receiver c. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase
a. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency b. the received RF signal to increase d. all of the above
b. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency
c. a fixed-frequency RF generator 11. The modulation index can be derived from:
d. same as a mixer a. the time-domain signal c. both a and b
b. the frequency-domain signal d. none of the above
LITUDE MODULATION
12. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be:
AM stands for: a. requires too much bandwidth c. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios
a. Audio Modulation c. Angle Modulation b. requires too much power d. all of the above
b. Amplitude Modulation d. Antenna Modulation
13. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM:
The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to: a. is more efficient
a. the baseband signal c. the amplitude signal b. requires a more complex demodulator circuit
b. the carrier signal d. none of the above c. requires less bandwidth
d. all of the above
If the audio Va sin(at) modulates the carrier Vc sin(ct), then the modulation index, m, is:
a. m = a / c c. m = (Va / Vc)2 14. The SC in SSB SC stands for:
b. m = Va / Vc d. m = Va / a a. single-carrier c. sideband-carrier
b. suppressed-carrier d. none of the above
 4. Mathematically, the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of:
PEP stands for: a. ordinary trigonometry and algebra c. Taylor series
a. Peak Envelope Power c. Peak Envelope Product b. Bessel functions d. fractals
b. Peak Efficiency Power d. none of the above
If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation, what will it radiate with no modulation? 5. FM bandwidth can be approximated by:
a. 1000 watts c. 250 watts a. Armstrong's Rule c. Carson's Rule
b. 500 watts d. 0 watts b. Bessel's Rule d. none of the above

Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because: 6. NBFM stands for:

a. AM is susceptible to noise a. National Broadcast FM c. Near Band FM
b. commercial AM stations use low power b. Non-Broadcast FM d. Narrowband FM
c. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth
d. all of the above 7. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise, it is called:
a. the capture effect c. the noise effect
The type of information that can be sent using AM is: b. the threshold effect d. the limit effect
a. audio c. digital data
b. video d. all of the above 8. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called:
a. the capture effect c. the "two-station" effect
Two tones modulate an AM carrier. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a b. the threshold effect d. none of the above
modulation index of m2. The total modulation index is:
a. m1 + m2 c. sqrt(m1  m2 + m2  m1) 9. Pre-emphasis is used to:
b. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. sqrt(m1  m1 + m2  m2) a. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies
b. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies
To demodulate a USB SSB signal, the receiver must: c. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies
a. be set to USB mode c. both a and b d. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations
b. reinsert the carrier d. none of the above
10. A pre-emphasis of 75 s refers to:
QUENCY MODULATION / PHASE MODULATION a. the time it takes for the circuit to work
b. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs
The FM modulation index: c. the time delay between the L and R channels
a. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency d. the time-constant of the filter circuits used
b. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency
c. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation frequency 11. FM stereo:
d. is equal to twice the deviation a. uses DSBSC AM modulation c. has a higher S/N than mono FM
b. is implemented using an SCA signal d. is not compatible with mono FM
One way to derive FM from PM is:
a. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator 12. An SCA signal:
b. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator a. can use amplitude modulation c. is monaural
c. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator b. can use FM modulation d. all of the above
d. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator
13. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily:
The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because: a. using measurements at points where J0 equals one
a. there can only be a finite number of sidebands b. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero
b. it is equal to the frequency deviation c. using measurements at points where the deviation equals zero
c. it is band-limited at the receiver d. only by using Bessel functions
d. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible
 b. the RF amplifier d. the carrier

NSMITTERS 12. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation, the voltage of the final RF stage will be:
a. approximately half the DC supply voltage
The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called: b. approximately twice the DC supply voltage
a. agility c. VFO c. approximately four times the DC supply voltage
b. expansion d. spread-spectrum d. none of the above

The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out: 13. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of:
a. is a measure of efficiency c. may require water cooling a. 50 ohms resistive c. 300 ohms resistive
b. heats the transmitter d. all of the above b. 75 ohms resistive d. 600 ohms resistive

Baseband compression produces: 14. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching?
a. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high a. pi network c. both a and b
b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud b. T network d. a bridge circuit
c. a smaller number of signals
d. none of the above 15. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor is called:
a. a heavy load c. a temporary load
ALC stands for: b. a dummy load d. a test load
a. Amplitude Level Control c. Accurate Level Control
b. Automatic Level Control d. none of the above 16. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor must be:
a. wire-wound c. 1% tolerance or better
In an AM transmitter, ALC is used to: b. noninductive d. all of the above
a. keep the modulation close to 100% c. maximize transmitted power
b. keep the modulation below 100% d. all of the above 17. A Class D amplifier is:
a. very efficient c. essentially pulse-duration modulation
With high-level AM: b. essentially pulse-width modulation d. all of the above
a. all RF amplifiers can be nonlinear c. minimum RF power is required
b. minimum modulation power is required d. all of the above 18. To generate a SSB signal:
a. start with full-carrier AM c. start with a quadrature signal
With high-level AM: b. start with DSBSC d. all of the above
a. the RF amplifiers are typically Class A c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C
b. the RF amplifiers are typically Class B d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB 19. The carrier is suppressed in:
a. a balanced modulator c. a frequency multiplier
With low-level AM: b. a mixer d. none of the above
a. the RF amplifiers must be Class A c. the RF amplifiers must be linear
b. the RF amplifiers must be Class B d. the RF amplifiers must be low-power 20. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use:
a. a mechanical filter c. both a and b
Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that: b. a crystal filter d. none of the above
a. is complex c. has variable frequency
b. has variable amplitude d. all of the above 21. A direct FM modulator:
a. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator
In high-level AM, "high-level" refers to: b. integrates the modulating signal
a. the power level of the carrier c. the power level of the final RF amplifier c. both a and b
b. the power level of the modulation d. none of the above d. none of the above

In high-level AM, the power in the sidebands comes from: 22. An indirect FM modulator:
a. the modulating amplifier c. the driver stage a. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator d. none of the above
b. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator a. Audio Gain Control c. Active Gain Control
c. both a and b b. Automatic Gain Control d. Active Gain Conversion

AFC stands for: 8. The frequency of the local oscillator:

a. Amplitude to Frequency Conversion c. Automatic Frequency Control a. is above the RF frequency
b. Automatic Frequency Centering d. Audio Frequency Control b. is below the RF frequency
c. can be either above of below the RF frequency
Frequency multipliers are: d. is fixed, typically at 455 kHz.
a. essentially balanced modulators c. essentially mixers
b. essentially Class C amplifiers d. none of the above 9. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because:
a. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses
With mixing: b. it increases sensitivity
a. the carrier frequency can be raised c. it increases selectivity
b. the carrier frequency can be lowered d. it is cheaper
c. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required value
d. the deviation is altered 10. Basically, sensitivity measures:
a. the weakest signal that can be usefully received
EIVERS b. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received
c. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier
The two basic specifications for a receiver are: d. none of the above
a. the sensitivity and the selectivity
b. the number of converters and the number of IFs 11. Basically, selectivity measures:
c. the spurious response and the tracking a. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select
d. the signal and the noise b. with two signals close in frequency, the ability to receive one and reject the other
c. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator
The superheterodyne receiver was invented by: d. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer
a. Foster c. Armstrong
b. Seeley d. Hertz 12. When comparing values for shape factor:
a. a value of 1.414 dB is ideal c. a value of 1.0 is ideal
Trimmers and padders are: b. a value of 0.707 is ideal d. there is no ideal value
a. two types of adjusting tools c. small adjustable inductors
b. small adjustable resistors d. small adjustable capacitors 13. When comparing values for shape factor:
a. a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 c. both values are basically equivalent
"Skin effect" refers to: b. a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 d. none of the above
a. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface
b. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal 14. Distortion in a receiver can occur in:
c. the increase of wire resistance with frequency a. the mixer c. the IF amplifiers
d. none of the above b. the detector d. all of the above

The "front end" of a receiver can include: 15. Phase distortion is important in:
a. the tuner c. the mixer a. voice communications systems c. monochrome video receivers
b. the RF amplifier d. all of the above b. color video receivers d. all of the above

"IF" stands for: 16. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by:
a. intermediate frequency c. indeterminate frequency a. the AGC c. the dynamic range of the receiver
b. intermodulation frequency d. image frequency b. noise generated in the receiver d. the type of detector circuit being used

AGC stands for:

 b. coherent detection d. ratio detection

Image frequencies occur when two signals: 27. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is:
a. are transmitted on the same frequency a. Foster-Seeley detector c. a PLL detector
b. enter the mixer, with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency b. a quadrature detector d. all of the above
c. enter the mixer, one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the IF
d. enter the mixer, and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF 28. The function of a limiter is:
a. to remove amplitude variations c. to limit dynamic range
An image must be rejected: b. to limit spurious responses d. to limit noise response
a. prior to mixing c. prior to detection
b. prior to IF amplification d. images cannot be rejected 29. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called:
a. AGC c. AFC
Image frequency problems would be reduced by: b. squelch d. limiting
a. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor
b. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer 30. LNA stands for:
c. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer a. Limited-Noise Amplifier c. Low-Noise Audio
d. none of the above b. Low-Noise Amplifier d. Logarithmic Noise Amplification

A common AM detector is the: 31. AFC stands for:

a. PLL c. ratio detector a. Audio Frequency Compensator c. Automatic Frequency Control
b. envelope detector d. all of the above b. Autodyne Frequency Compensation d. Autonomous Frequency Control

An FM detector is the: 32. The function of AFC is:

a. PLL c. quadrature detector a. maintain a constant IF frequency
b. ratio detector d. all of the above b. match the local oscillator to the received signal
c. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency
Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because: d. none of the above
a. they are faster than silicon diodes
b. they are cheaper than silicon diodes 33. SAW stands for:
c. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity a. Symmetrical Audio Wave c. Silicon-Activated Wafer
d. all of the above b. Surface Acoustic Wave d. Software-Activated Wave

A common SSB detector is: 34. The important property of a SAW is:
a. a PLL c. a BFO a. it stabilizes the audio in a receiver c. it is a stable bandpass filter
b. a diode d. a product detector b. it allows software radios to be built d. none of the above

BFO stands for: 35. The main function of the AGC is to:
a. Beat Frequency Oscillator c. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator a. keep the gain of the receiver constant
b. Barrier Frequency Oscillator d. Bistable Frequency Oscillator b. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant
c. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude
To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC, you need to: d. all of the above
a. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator
b. reinject the carrier 36. DSP stands for:
c. use double conversion a. Dynamic Signal Properties c. Distorted Signal Packet
d. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC b. Direct Signal Phase d. Digital Signal Processor

Which would be best for DSBSC:

a. carrier detection c. envelope detection
 b. You can have one or the other, but not both.
c. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion.
SINAD stands for: d. They are the same thing.
a. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion
b. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion 10. Foldover distortion is caused by:
c. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio a. noise c. too few samples per second
d. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio b. too many samples per second d. all of the above

TRF stands for: 11. The immediate result of sampling is:

a. Tuned Radio Frequency c. Transmitted Radio Frequency a. a sample alias c. PCM
b. Tracking Radio Frequency d. Tuned Receiver Function b. PAM d. PDM

TAL COMMUNICATIONS 12. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique:

a. PDM c. PPM
The first digital code was the: b. PWM d. PPS
a. ASCII code c. Morse code
b. Baudot code d. none of the above 13. Quantizing noise (quantization noise):
a. decreases as the sample rate increases
In digital transmission, signal degradation can be removed using: b. decreases as the sample rate decreases
a. an amplifier c. a regenerative repeater c. decreases as the bits per sample increases
b. a filter d. all of the above d. decreases as the bits per sample decreases

TDM stands for: 14. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of:
a. Time-Division Multiplexing c. Ten-Digital Manchester a. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal
b. Time-Domain Multiplexing d. Ten Dual-Manchester b. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion
c. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample
Hartley's Law is: d. none of the above
a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N)
b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax 15. Companding is used to:
a. compress the range of base-band frequencies
The Shannon-Hartley theorem is: b. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates
a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) c. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low
b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax d. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission

The Shannon Limit is given by: 16. In North America, companding uses:
a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) a. the Logarithmic Law c. the  Law (alpha law)
b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax b. the A Law d. the  Law (mu law)

The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as: 17. In Europe, companding uses:
a. I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/N) a. the Logarithmic Law c. the  Law (alpha law)
b. C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2fmax b. the A Law d. the  Law (mu law)

Natural Sampling does not use: 18. Codec stands for:

a. a sample-and-hold circuit c. a fixed sample rate a. Coder-Decoder c. Code-Compression
b. true binary numbers d. an analog-to-digital converter b. Coded-Carrier d. none of the above

Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? 19. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives:
a. They are two types of sampling error. a. 4-bit numbers c. 12-bit numbers
b. 8-bit numbers d. 16-bit numbers a. 1.544 MB/s c. 56 kb/s
b. 64 kb/s d. 8 kb/s
Compared to PCM, delta modulation:
a. transmits fewer bits per sample c. can suffer slope overload 32. A T-1 cable uses:
b. requires a much higher sampling rate d. all of the above a. Manchester coding c. NRZ coding
b. bipolar RZ AMI coding d. pulse-width coding
In delta modulation, "granular noise" is produced when:
a. the signal changes too rapidly c. the bit rate is too high 33. The number of frames in a superframe is:
b. the signal does not change d. the sample is too large a. 6 c. 24
b. 12 d. 48
Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice:
a. with a lower bit rate but reduced quality c. only over shorter distances 34. A typical T-1 line uses:
b. with a lower bit rate but the same quality d. only if the voice is band-limited a. twisted-pair wire c. fiber-optic cable
b. coaxial cable d. microwave
Which coding scheme requires DC continuity:
a. AMI c. unipolar NRZ 35. "Signaling" is used to indicate:
b. Manchester d. bipolar RZ a. on-hook/off-hook condition c. ringing
b. busy signal d. all of the above
Manchester coding:
a. is a biphase code 36. A vocoder implements compression by:
b. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period a. constructing a model of the transmission medium
c. provides strong timing information b. constructing a model of the human vocal system
d. all of the above c. finding redundancies in the digitized data
d. using lossless techniques
The number of framing bits in DS-1 is:
a. 1 c. 4 37. Compared to standard PCM systems, the quality of the output of a vocoder is:
b. 2 d. 8 a. much better c. about the same
b. somewhat better d. not as good
Framing bits in DS-1 are used to:
a. detect errors c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver TELEPHONE SYSTEMS
b. carry signaling d. all of the above
1. DTMF stands for:
So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to: a. Digital Telephony Multiple Frequency c. Dual-Tone Multifrequency
a. detect errors c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver b. Dial Tone Master Frequency d. Digital Trunk Master Frequency
b. carry signaling d. all of the above
2. PSTN stands for:
The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is: a. Public Switched Telephone Network c. Primary Service Telephone Network
a. 1 c. 4 b. Private Switched Telephone Network d. Primary Service Telephone Numbers
b. 2 d. 8
3. POTS stands for:
The number of samples per second in DS-1 is: a. Private Office Telephone System c. Primary Operational Test System
a. 8 k c. 64 k b. Primary Office Telephone Service d. Plain Old Telephone Service
b. 56 k d. 1.544  106
The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is: 4. LATA stands for:
a. 1.544 Mb/s c. 56 kb/s a. Local Access and Transport Area c. Local Area Telephone Access
b. 64 kb/s d. 8 kb/s b. Local Access Telephone Area d. Local Area Transport Access

In DS-1, bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at: 5. A LATA is a:

a. a local calling area c. a way of accessing a tandem office b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC
b. a type of digital local network d. a way of accessing a central office
Central offices are connected by: 17. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is:
a. local loops c. both a and b a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC
b. trunk lines d. none of the above b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC

Local loops terminate at: 18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to:
a. a tandem office c. a central office a. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. allow signals to be multiplexed
b. a toll station d. an interexchange office b. prevent "singing" d. all of the above

Call blocking: 19. VNL stands for:

a. cannot occur in the public telephone network a. voltage net loss c. via net loss
b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure b. volume net loss d. voice noise level
c. occurs only on long-distance cables
d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded 20. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to:
a. eliminate reflections c. improve signal-to-noise ratio
In telephony, POP stands for: b. prevent oscillation d. reduce power consumption
a. Post Office Protocol c. Power-On Protocol
b. Point Of Presence d. none of the above 21. The reference noise level for telephony is:
a. 1 mW c. 1 pW
The cable used for local loops is mainly: b. 0 dBm d. 0 dBr
a. twisted-pair copper wire c. coaxial cable
b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire d. fiber-optic 22. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is:
a. 6 c. 24
FITL stands for: b. 12 d. 60
a. Framing Information for Toll Loops c. Framing In The Loop
b. Fiber In the Toll Loop d. Fiber-In-The-Loop 23. Basic FDM groups can be combined into:
a. supergroups c. jumbogroups
Loading coils were used to: b. mastergroups d. all of the above
a. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data
b. reduce the attenuation of voice signals 24. In telephone system FDM, voice is put on a carrier using:
c. reduce crosstalk a. SSB c. PDM
d. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop b. DSBSC d. PCM

DC current flows through a telephone: 25. PABX stands for:

a. when it is on hook c. as long as it is attached to a local loop a. Power Amplification Before Transmission
b. when it is off hook d. only when it is ringing b. Private Automatic Branch Exchange
c. Public Automated Branch Exchange
The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is: d. Public Access Branch Exchange
a. 20 A to 80 A c. 2 mA to 8 mA
b. 200 A to 800 A d. 20 mA to 80 mA 26. SLIC stands for:
a. Single-Line Interface Circuit c. Subscriber Line Interface Card
The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as: b. Standard Line Interface Card d. Standard Local Interface Circuit
a. step-by-step switching control c. common control
b. crossbar control d. ESS 27. In DS-1, bits are "robbed" in order to:
a. provide synchronization c. cancel echoes
The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: b. carry signaling d. check for errors
a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC
 b. American Standard Code for Information Interchange

Bit-stuffing" is more formally called: c. American Standard Code 2

a. compensation c. justification d. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange
b. rectification d. frame alignment
7. BS, FF, and CR are examples of:
ISDN stands for: a. nonstandard character codes c. control characters
a. Integrated Services Digital Network c. Integrated Services Data Network b. escape characters d. none of the above
b. Information Services Digital Network d. Information Systems Digital Network
8. LF stands for:
Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because: a. Line Feed c. Line Forward
a. it took to long to develop b. Link Feed d. Link Forward
b. it is too slow
c. it has been surpassed by newer technologies 9. UART stands for:
d. all of the above a. Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter
b. Unidirectional Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter
ADSL stands for: c. Unaltered Received Text
a. All-Digital Subscriber Line c. Allocated Digital Service Line d. Universal Automatic Receiver for Text
b. Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line d. Access to Data Services Line
10. In asynchronous transmission, the transmitter and receiver are:
Compared to ISDN, internet access using ADSL is typically: a. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits
a. much faster c. much more expensive b. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock
b. about the same speed d. none of the above c. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits
d. not synchronized at all, hence the name "asynchronous"
A TRANSMISSIONS
11. In asynchronous transmission, the time between consecutive frames is:
In practical terms, parallel data transmission is sent: a. equal to zero c. equal to the start and stop bit-times
a. over short distances only c. over any distance b. equal to one bit-time d. not a set length
b. usually over long distances d. usually over a coaxial cable
12. In synchronous transmission, the frames are:
The five-level teletype code was invented by: a. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames
a. the Morkum Company c. Western Union b. much longer than asynchronous frames
b. the Teletype Company d. Emile Baudot c. 128 bytes long
d. 1024 bytes long
Data codes are also called:
a. character codes c. they do not have any other name 13. Synchronous transmission is used because:
b. character sets d. both a and b a. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency
b. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required
Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called: c. it is easier to implement than asynchronous
a. FIGS data c. numerical data d. all of the above
b. binary data d. all of the above
14. In synchronous transmission, the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using:
Character codes include: a. the clock bits c. the CRC bits
a. alphanumeric characters c. graphic control characters b. the data bits d. a separate clock line
b. data link control characters d. all of the above
15. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission:
ASCII stands for: a. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed
a. American Standard Character-set 2
b. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization
c. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted
d. the channel must be noise-free
BISYNC: 27. SDLC stands for:
a. is an IBM product c. requires the use of DLE a. Synchronous Data Link Control c. Synchronous Data Link Character
b. is a character-oriented protocol d. all of the above b. Synchronous Data Line Control d. Synchronous Data Line Character

HDLC: 28. HDLC is:

a. is an IBM product c. is identical to SDLC a. a bit-oriented protocol c. an ISO standard
b. is a bit-oriented protocol d. all of the above b. based on SDLC d. all of the above

The use of flags in SDLC requires: LOCAL AREA NETWORK

a. "bit-stuffing" c. FEC
b. different flags at either end of a frame d. ARQ 1. CSMA stands for:
a. Client-Server Multi-Access c. Carrier Server Master Application
The initials ARQ are used to designate: b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access d. none of the above
a. automatic request for resynchronization c. automatic receiver queue
b. automatic request for retransmission d. automatic request for queue 2. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for:
a. Carrier Detection c. Collision Detection
ARQ is used to: b. Carrier Delay d. Collision Delay
a. correct bit errors c. put data into a temporary buffer
b. correct synchronization problems d. none of the above 3. The Internet is:
a. a network of networks c. a very large CSMA/CD network
FEC stands for: b. a very large client-server network d. not really a network at all
a. Fixed Error Control c. Forward Error Correction
b. Forward Error Control d. False Error Condition 4. Most LANs:
a. are based on Ethernet c. use UTP cable
VRC is another name for: b. use CSMA/CD d. all of the above
a. FEC c. LRC
b. ARQ d. parity 5. Dumb terminals are still used:
a. in token-passing networks
CRC stands for: b. in networks requiring central monitoring
a. Control Receiver Code c. Cyclic Redundancy Check c. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring
b. Correct Received Character d. Cycle Repeat Character d. none of the above

Huffman codes: 6. In a circuit-switched network:

a. allow errors to be detected but not corrected a. communication is half-duplex only
b. allow errors to be detected and corrected b. each channel carries only one data stream
c. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected c. connection is usually done using a bus topology
d. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed d. all of the above

Run-length encoding is used to: 7. Each computer on a network is called a:

a. encrypt data c. correct data a. hub c. node
b. compress data d. none of the above b. token d. circuit

Public-key encryption: 8. Compared to CSMA/CD systems, token-passing rings are:

a. allows the use of digital signatures c. avoids the "password problem" a. slower c. not as widely used
b. is used to convey symmetric keys d. all of the above b. more expensive d. all of the above
 a. fiber-optic cable c. RG-58U coaxial cable
b. twisted-pair copper wires d. 50-ohm coaxial cable

The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to: 21. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means:
a. a central ring c. a node a. the cable carries baseband signals
b. a central bus d. none of the above b. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps
c. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system
On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called: d. none of the above
a. packets c. carriers
b. nodes d. tokens 22. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is:
a. to increase the data rate
When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called: b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission
a. a collision c. excess traffic c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress
b. contention d. multiple access d. all of the above

When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called: 23. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is:
a. a collision c. excess traffic a. to increase the data rate
b. contention d. multiple access b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress
One type of network that never has a collision is: d. all of the above
a. CSMA c. token-passing
b. Ethernet d. all networks have collisions 24. NIC stands for:
a. Network Interface Card c. Network Interface Code
In an Ethernet-based network, a switch can be used to reduce the number of: b. Network Interface Cable d. Network Internal Code
a. nodes c. packets
b. users d. collisions 25. 10BaseT cable typically uses:
a. a BNC connector c. an RJ45 connector
The effect of too many collisions is: b. a T connector d. an RS11 connector
a. the network goes down c. the cable overheats
b. the network slows down d. data is lost 26. UTP stands for:
a. Untwisted-Pair copper wire c. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet
MAU stands for: b. Unshielded Twisted-Pair copper wire d. Unicode Text Packet
a. Multistation Access Unit c. Multiple Auxiliary Units
b. Multiple Access Unit d. none of the above 27. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables, CAT-5 cables:
a. are cheaper c. allow faster bit rates
The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is: b. are easier to crimp connectors onto d. all of the above
a. EIA 232 c. IEEE 802.3
b. IEEE 488.1 d. CCITT ITU-E 28. A hub:
a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it
Ethernet was invented by: b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports
a. IBM c. Xerox c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network
b. INTEL d. Digital Equipment Corporation d. are more common in token-passing networks

An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses: 29. A switch:

a. Manchester encoding c. NRZ encoding a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it
b. Three-Level encoding d. AMI encoding b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports
c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network
A 100BaseT cable uses: d. are more common in token-passing networks
 a. 3 c. 7
b. 5 d. 8

An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is: 5. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the:
a. it is cheaper when used in large networks a. physical layer c. cable layer
b. it is faster when used in large networks b. link layer d. transport layer
c. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks
d. all of the above 6. Bad frames are usually detected by the:
a. frame layer c. error-check layer
Broadband LANs: b. physical layer d. link layer
a. modulate the data onto a carrier
b. use coaxial cables 7. A virtual circuit is set up by the:
c. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access a. user c. network
d. all of the above b. link layer d. frame

Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in: 8. Frame Relay:
a. peer-to-peer networks c. both a and b a. is faster than X.25 c. allows for variable length packets
b. client-server networks d. none of the above b. does less error checking than X.25 d. all of the above

Record locking is used to: 9. ATM stands for:

a. store records securely on a server a. Asynchronous Transfer Mode c. Asynchronous Transmission Model
b. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously b. Asynchronous Transmission Mode d. Automatic Test Mode
c. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to
d. none of the above 10. A bridge:
a. separates a network into "collision domains"
The software that runs a client-server network must be: b. looks at the address of each packet
a. UNIX-based c. multitasking c. operate at the data-link level
b. WINDOWS-based d. Novell certified d. all of the above

A "thin" client is: 11. IP stands for:

a. basically, a PC with no disk drives c. same as a "dumb" terminal a. Internet Process c. Interconnect Protocol
b. a node that rarely sends data d. all of the above b. Internet Protocol d. Interconnect Procedure

WIDE-AREA NETWORKS AND THE INTERNET 12. TCP stands for:

a. Transmission Control Process c. Transfer Connection Protocol
MAN stands for: b. Transmission Control Protocol d. none of the above
a. Manchester Access Network c. Metropolitan-Area Network
b. Multiple-Area Network d. Multiple Access Network 13. Together, TCP/IP consists of:
a. 5 layers c. an application and a process
Packet switching is based on: b. 7 layers d. datagrams
a. store-and-forward c. real-time delivery
b. switched circuits d. all of the above 14. IP is a:
a. connection-oriented protocol c. connectionless protocol
SNA stands for: b. virtual circuit d. non-robust protocol
a. Standard Network Access c. Standard Network Architecture
b. Small Network Access d. Systems Network Architecture 15. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network:
a. is essentially forever
The number of layers in ISO OSI is: b. depends on elapsed time since transmission
c. depends on number of "hops" between nodes a. Domain Name Server c. Domain Numbering System
d. is approximately 200 milliseconds b. Domain Name System d. Domain Naming System

UDP stands for: 27. A DNS:

a. User Datagram Protocol c. User Data Packet a. has become obsolete on the Internet
b. User Data Protocol d. Universal Data Packet b. translates words to numbers
c. stores all domain addresses
HTTP stands for: d. describes the Internet address-naming procedure
a. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure
b. High-Level Transfer Test Procedure 28. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by:
c. Hypertext Transmission and Transport Procedure a. a DNS c. a "firewall"
d. Hypertext Transport Protocol b. a "brick wall" d. the use of "spoofing" protocols

HTTP allows the use of: 29. OSI stands for:

a. dumb terminals c. browsers a. Open Systems Interconnection c. Open Systems Internet
b. file transport d. none of the above b. Open Standard Interconnection d. none of the above

HTML stands for:

a. Hypertext Markup Language c. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer DIGITAL MODULATION & MODEMS
b. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Level d. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language
1. FSK stands for:
HTML allows: a. Full-Shift Keying c. Full-Signal Keying
a. telneting c. web page layout b. Frequency-Shift Keying d. none of the above
b. high-speed file transfer d. all of the above
2. PSK stands for:
FTP stands for: a. Pulse-Signal Keying c. Phase-Signal Keying
a. File Transfer Protocol c. File Test Procedure b. Pulse-Shift Keying d. Phase-Shift Keying
b. File Transport Protocol d. Fast Transport Packet
3. QAM stands for:
FTP is used to: a. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation c. Quadrature Amplitude Marking
a. transfer files between a server on the network and a user b. Quadrature Amplitude Masking d. none of the above
b. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted"
c. transport packets at maximum speed through the network 4. In the equation I = ktB, I is measured in:
d. none of the above a. amperes c. bits
b. amperes per second d. bits per second
SMTP stands for:
a. Short Message Transport Protocol c. Simple Mail Transport Protocol 5. In the equation C = 2Blog2M, M is the:
b. Simple Message Transport Protocol d. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure a. margin of noise c. number of possible states per symbol
b. modulation index d. maximum number of symbols per second
ISP stands for:
a. Internet Service Protocol c. Internet Service Procedure 6. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when:
b. Internet Service Provider d. none of the above a. the eye is maximally open c. the eye is half open
b. the eye is maximally closed d. the eye alternately opens and closes
The standard Internet address (or URL) is:
a. a 32-bit binary number c. running out of available values 7. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of:
b. four groups of base-ten numbers d. all of the above a. too many bits high c. intermodulation distortion
b. too many bits low d. intersymbol interference
DNS stands for:
High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use:
a. FSK c. PSK
b. AFSK d. QAM
Instead of a single bit, a QPSK symbol contains: 20. MNP5 and V.42 bis are both:
a. a byte c. a dibit a. data-compression schemes c. both a and b
b. 4 bits d. a Q-bit b. error-correction protocols d. none of the above

To reduce the need for linearity, /4 DQPSK uses: 21. In RS-232, flow control is done using:
a. angles of 0, 90, 180, and 270 degrees c. angles of /4, 2/4, 3/4, and 4/4 a. RTS/CTS handshake c. both a and b
b. angles of 45, 135, 225, and 315 degrees d. double phase-shift angles b. XON/XOFF characters d. none of the above

For QAM, a "constellation diagram" shows: 22. The official name for RS-232C is:
a. location of symbols in "symbol space" c. effects of noise on symbols a. RS-232C c. ISO-232C/D
b. separation of symbols in "symbol space" d. all of the above b. EIA-232D d. ANSI-232C

For QAM, the two dimensions of its symbol space are: 23. In RS-232, a modem would be:
a. amplitude and frequency c. frequency and phase angle a. a DTR c. a DCE
b. amplitude and phase angle d. I-bits and Q-bits b. a DSR d. a DTE

The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were: 24. In RS-232, a personal computer would be:
a. 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK c. 1200 bps, full-duplex, FSK a. a DTR c. a DCE
b. 600 bps, full-duplex, FSK d. 1200 bps, half-duplex, FSK b. a DSR d. a DTE

ITU is an abbreviation for: 25. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin:
a. International Telephony Unit c. International Telecommunications Union a. 1 c. 5
b. International Telephony Union d. International Telecommunications Units b. 3 d. 7

The ITU is under the auspices of: 26. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin:
a. CCITT c. IEEE a. 1 c. 5
b. the U.N. d. ANSI b. 3 d. 7

High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for: 27. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are:
a. noise and interference a. TD and RD c. TD, RD, DSR, and signal ground
b. uneven phase and frequency response b. TD, RD, and signal ground d. TD, RD, RTS, CTS, and signal ground
c. low SNR
d. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel 28. Hardware flow control uses:
a. XON and XOFF c. RTS and CTS
The bits sent to allow equalization are called: b. TD and RD d. DSR and DCD
a. Gaussian bits c. a training sequence
b. random bits d. a random sequence 29. Software flow control uses:
a. XON and XOFF c. RTS and CTS
The V.90 standard is issued by: b. TD and RD d. DSR and DCD
a. the EIA c. the ITU
b. the TIA d. the ISO 30. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin:
a. +15 volts c. +9 volts
MNP2, MNP3, MNP4, and MNP10 are all: b. +12 volts d. all of the above
a. data-compression schemes c. both a and b
b. error-correction protocols d. none of the above 31. DSL stands for:
 a. Data Signal Line c. Digital Subscriber Line a. timing bit c. signaling bit
b. Digital Signal Line d. Double-Speed Loop b. T-bit d. framing bit
8. In DS-1, a bit is "stolen" out of each channel:
ADSL stands for: a. every frame c. every sixth frame
a. Asynchronous DSL c. Analog DSL b. every other frame d. every twelfth frame
b. Asymmetrical DSL d. All DSL
9. Moving signals from one line to another is called:
In a CATV system, HFC stands for: a. time switching c. line switching
a. Head Frequency Control c. Hybrid Fiber-Coax b. space switching d. cross-point switching
b. Hybrid Frequency Control d. Hybrid Fiber Control
10. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called:
In a CATV system, CMTS stands for: a. time switching c. signal switching
a. Cable Modem Terminal Server c. Cable Modem Terminal System b. space switching d. crosspoint switching
b. Cable Modem Transmission System d. Cable Modem Transmission Server
11. A digital space switch is a:
A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for: a. multiplexer c. computerized Strowger switch
a. Any DSL scheme c. ADSL Lite b. TDM switch d. crosspoint switch
b. ADSL d. none of the above
12. Spread-spectrum can be done by using:
LTIPLEXING & MULTIPLE-ACCESS TECHNIQUES a. computer-controlled frequency reuse c. direct-sequence method
b. frequency-hopping d. all of the above
TDMA stands for:
a. Time Domain Multiple Access c. Tone Division Multiple Access 13. The term "chip rate" is used in describing:
b. Time-Division Multiple Access d. none of the above a. computer-controlled frequency reuse c. direct-sequence method
b. frequency-hopping d. all of the above
CDMA stands for:
a. Code-Division Multiple Access c. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement 14. For a given data rate, direct-sequence systems, compared to standard RF systems, use:
b. Carrier Division Multiple Access d. none of the above a. about the same bandwidth c. much less bandwidth
b. much more bandwidth d. approximately double the bandwidth
TDMA is used instead of TDM when:
a. all the signals come from the same source 15. "Processing gain" is another term for:
b. the signals come from different sources a. RF gain c. spreading gain
c. TDM is used in RF communications b. computer speed d. improved signal-to-noise ratio
d. they mean the same thing
16. To calculate processing gain, divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by:
When calculating the maximum number of users, a limiting factor in FDM is: a. the digital data bit rate c. the S/N ratio
a. the type of media used c. the bandwidth of each signal b. bandwidth of original baseband d. the chip size
b. the length of the channel d. all of the above
17. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be:
A DS-1 signal contains: a. a narrowband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver
a. 12 channels c. 32 channels b. a wideband receiver d. a CDMA receiver
b. 24 channels d. 64 channels
18. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be:
The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is: a. a narrowband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver
a. 64 kbps c. 1.536 Mbps b. a wideband receiver d. a "chip-rate" receiver
b. 256 kbps d. 1.544 Mbps
19. CDMA:
Besides data bits, a DS-1 frame contains a: a. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum
b. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum a. increases with length c. increases with voltage
c. cannot be used on an RF channel b. increases with frequency d. none of the above
d. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously
For optimal performance, CDMA requires the use of: 11. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on:
a. orthogonal PN sequences c. true-random PN sequences a. the wire resistance c. the inductance per foot
b. non-orthogonal PN sequences d. none of the above b. the dielectric constant d. all of the above

NSMISSION LINES 12. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit:
a. would reflect as a positive pulse
SWR stands for: b. would reflect as a negative pulse
a. Shorted Wave Radiation c. Shorted Wire Region c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
b. Sine Wave Response d. none of the above d. would not reflect at all

TDR stands for: 13. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance:
a. Total Distance of Reflection c. Time-Domain Response a. would reflect as a positive pulse
b. Time-Domain Reflectometer d. Transmission Delay Ratio b. would reflect as a negative pulse
c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
An example of an unbalanced line is: d. would not reflect at all
a. a coaxial cable c. an open-wire-line cable
b. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable d. all of the above 14. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit:
a. would reflect as a positive pulse
When analyzing a transmission line, its inductance and capacitance are considered to be: b. would reflect as a negative pulse
a. lumped c. equal reactances c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
b. distributed d. ideal elements d. would not reflect at all

As frequency increases, the resistance of a wire: 15. The optimum value for SWR is:
a. increases c. stays the same a. zero c. as large as possible
b. decreases d. changes periodically b. one d. there is no optimum value

The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called: 16. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause:
a. I2R loss c. the skin effect a. standing waves c. higher voltage peaks on cable
b. the Ohmic effect d. there is no such effect b. loss of power to load d. all of the above

As frequency increases, the loss in a cable's dielectric: 17. VSWR stands for:
a. increases c. stays the same a. variable SWR c. voltage SWR
b. decreases d. there is no loss in a dielectric b. vacuum SWR d. none of the above

The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on: 18. The impedance "looking into" a matched line:
a. the resistance per foot of the wire used a. is infinite c. is the characteristic impedance
b. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot b. is zero d. 50 ohms
c. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot
d. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot 19. A Smith Chart is used to calculate:
a. transmission line impedances c. optimum length of a transmission line
For best matching, the load on a cable should be: b. propagation velocity d. transmission line losses
a. lower than Z0 c. equal to Z0
b. higher than Z0 d. 50 ohms 20. Compared to a 300-ohm line, the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power:
a. would be less c. would be the same
The characteristic impedance of a cable: b. would be more d. cannot be compared
 b. perpendicular to the direction of travel d. none of the above

A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable: 7. TEM stands for:

a. directly c. by using a "balun" a. Transverse Electromagnetic c. True Electromagnetic
b. by using a filter d. cannot be connected b. Transmitted Electromagnetic d. none of the above

On a Smith Chart, you "normalize" the impedance by: 8. In free space, radio waves travel at a speed of:
a. assuming it to be zero c. multiplying it by 2 a. 3  106 meters per second c. 3  106 miles per second
b. dividing it by 2 d. dividing it by Z0 b. 300  106 meters per second d. 300  106 miles per second

The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents: 9. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave:
a. the voltage c. the impedance a. vertical c. circular
b. the current d. none of the above b. horizontal d. all of the above

The center of the Smith Chart always represents: 10. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna:
a. zero c. the characteristic impedance a. vertical c. circular
b. one d. none of the above b. horizontal d. all of the above

A TDR is commonly used to: 11. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is:
a. measure the characteristic impedance of a cable a. 1 c. 3
b. find the position of a defect in a cable b. 2 d. many
c. replace a slotted-line
d. all of the above 12. An antenna has "gain" as compared to:
a. an isotropic radiator c. a ground-wave antenna
IO WAVE PROPAGATION b. a vertically polarized radiator d. none of the above

Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by: 13. EIRP stands for:
a. Armstrong c. Maxwell a. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power
b. Hertz d. Marconi b. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
c. the Effective Internal Reflected Power
Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by: d. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power
a. Armstrong c. Maxwell
b. Hertz d. Marconi 14. The "attenuation of free space" is due to:
a. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space
The technology that made cell phones practical was: b. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere
a. the microprocessor chip c. high-power microwave transmitters c. the decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront
b. the miniature cell-site d. all of the above d. the decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront

Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with: 15. Ground waves are most effective:
a. high power levels c. reuse of frequencies a. below about 2 MHz c. at microwave frequencies
b. high antennas d. all of the above b. above about 20 MHz d. when using horizontally polarized waves

Which of the following are electromagnetic: 16. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off:
a. radio waves c. gamma waves a. a flat insulating surface of the right size c. a flat metallic surface of the right size
b. light d. all of the above b. a flat dielectric surface of the right size d. a flat body of water

The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are: 17. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of:
a. perpendicular to each other c. both a and b a. reflection c. refraction
b. diffusion d. diffraction b. a "rake" receiver d. none of the above

Space waves are: 28. The troposphere is the:

a. line-of-sight a. highest layer of the atmosphere c. lowest layer of the atmosphere
b. reflected off the ionosphere b. middle layer of the atmosphere d. the most ionized layer of the atmosphere
c. same as sky waves
d. radio waves used for satellite communications 29. Meteor-trail propagation is:
a. used for radio telephony c. also called "ducting"
Sky waves: b. used to send data by radio d. not possible
a. are line-of-sight
b. "bounce" off the ionosphere ANTENNA
c. are same as space waves
d. are radio waves used for satellite communications 1. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to:
a. the radiated signal c. the SWR
Sky waves cannot be "heard": b. the reflected signal d. all of the above
a. close to the transmitter c. in the "silent" zone
b. far from the transmitter d. in the "skip" zone 2. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called:
a. a Marconi antenna c. a Yagi antenna
A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called: b. a Hertz antenna d. none of the above
a. fading c. frequency diversity
b. diffraction d. spatial diversity 3. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually:
a. one wavelength c. slightly longer than a half-wavelength
"Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of: b. one half-wavelength d. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength
a. fading c. multipath distortion
b. diffraction d. cancellation due to reflection 4. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the:
a. standing wave pattern around the antenna c. radiation resistance of the antenna
A "repeater" is used to: b. SWR along the feed cable d. I2R loss of the antenna
a. send a message multiple times over a channel
b. send a message over multiple channels at the same time 5. Measured on the ground, the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is strongest:
c. extend the range of a radio communications system a. in one direction c. in all directions
d. cancel the effects of fading b. in two directions d. depends on the number of elements

Cellular phone systems rely on: 6. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called:
a. high power c. the radio horizon a. directivity c. active antenna
b. repeaters d. the reuse of frequencies b. selectivity d. resonance

If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit: 7. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is:
a. the cell area is increased c. the power levels are increased a. 0 dB c. 10 dB
b. the cell area is split d. the number of channels is reduced b. 3 dB d. infinite

8. An antenna's beamwidth is measured:

a. from +90 to –90 c. between half-power points
As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another: b. from front to back d. between the minor side-lobes
a. a "handoff" process occurs c. both cells will handle the call
b. a "sectoring" process occurs d. nothing occurs 9. ERP stands for:
a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern c. Equivalent Radiated Power
To receive several data streams at once, a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses: b. Effective Radiation Pattern d. Effective Radiated Power
a. a "funnel" receiver c. multiple receivers
"Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by: 21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is:
a. radio signals reflecting off the ground a. collimated c. dispersed
b. buildings and other structures on the ground b. phased d. none of the above
c. fading
d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground 22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the:
a. center c. focus
A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be: b. edges d. horn
a. mounted vertically c. at least one half-wavelength long
b. mounted horizontally d. at least one wavelength long 23. Antennas are often tested in:
a. an echo chamber c. a vacuum chamber
The typical antenna in an AM radio is a: b. an anechoic chamber d. an RF reflective chamber
a. dipole c. ferrite "loop-stick"
b. folded dipole d. none of the above 24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with:
a. a slotted line c. an EIRP meter
The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by: b. a dipole d. a field-strength meter
a. gamma rays c. helical rotation
b. Faraday Rotation d. the distance traveled MICROWAVE DEVICES

A nonresonant antenna: 1. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at:

a. will not transmit c. will cause SWR on the feed cable a. 100 MHz c. 10 GHz
b. will not receive d. all of the above b. 1 GHz d. 100 GHz

At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be: 2. The UHF range is:
a. resistive c. capacitive a. below the microwave range c. above the microwave range
b. inductive d. infinite b. inside the microwave range d. same as the microwave range

An antenna can be matched to a feed line using: 3. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on:
a. a shorted stub c. an LC network a. the shape of the waveguide c. the point of signal injection
b. a loading coil d. all of the above b. the power level of the signal d. none of the above

As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased: 4. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is:
a. the number of lobes increases c. efficiency decreases a. TE 01 c. TE 10
b. the number of nodes decreases d. none of the above b. TM 01 d. TM10

Arrays can be: 5. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is:

a. phased c. parasitic a. TE 01 c. TE 11
b. driven d. all of the above b. TM 01 d. TM11

An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a: 6. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because:
a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole a. it is dominant c. it is the only mode possible
b. Yagi d. stacked array b. of its circular symmetry d. it is more efficient

LPDA stands for: 7. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide:

a. Low-Power Dipole Array c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array a. is fixed
b. Low-Power Directed Array d. Log Power Dipole Array b. depends on the frequency it carries
c. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section
d. both b and c
Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide: 19. A YIG can be tuned by applying:
a. with a magnetic field probe c. through a hole in the waveguide a. an electric field c. mechanical pressure
b. with an electric field probe d. all of the above b. a magnetic field d. an "exciter" signal

Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by: 20. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the:
a. their insertion loss c. their directivity a. TWT c. magnetron
b. their coupling specification d. all of the above b. klystron d. YIG

Striplines and microstrips are used to: 21. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the:
a. couple sections of waveguide c. couple components on a circuit board a. TWT c. magnetron
b. couple waveguides to antennas d. none of the above b. klystron d. YIG

A resonant cavity is a type of: 22. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the:
a. tuned circuit c. antenna a. TWT c. magnetron
b. defect in a waveguide d. none of the above b. klystron d. YIG

A TEE connector used with waveguides is: 23. A microwave phased array is often made using:
a. an H-plane TEE c. a "magic" TEE a. slots c. Fresnel lenses
b. an E-plane TEE d. all of the above b. Yagis d. all of the above

TWT stands for: 24. RADAR stands for:

a. Transverse Wave Transmission c. Traveling-Wave Tube a. radio ranging c. radio detection and ranging
b. Transverse-Wave Tube d. Traveling-Wave Transmission b. radio depth and ranging d. remote detection and ranging

An "isolator" is a device that: 25. RADAR uses:

a. isolates frequencies in a waveguide a. pulsed transmission c. the Doppler effect
b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only b. continuous transmission d. all of the above
c. separates signals among various ports
d. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide 26. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar:
a. increases with increasing repetition rate c. decreases with increasing pulse period
A "circulator" is a device that: b. decreases with increasing repetition rate d. none of the above
a. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide
b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only 27. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar:
c. separates signals among various ports a. increases with increasing pulse duration c. is always a tenth of the maximum range
d. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide b. decreases with increasing pulse duration d. none of the above

GaAs stands for:

a. gallium arsenide c. gallium astenite
b. gallium assembly d. none of the above

IMPATT stands for:

a. impact avalanche and transit time c. implied power at transmission terminal
b. induced mobility at transmission time d. none of the above

YIG stands for:

a. Yttrium-Iron-Gallium c. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet
b. Yttrium-Iron-Germanium d. none of the above
RESTRIAL MICROWAVE COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS 11.Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a:
a. low level of transmitted power
Another term for a single microwave link is a: b. high level of ERP
a. section c. skip c. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio
b. hop d. jump d. good energy per bit per noise density ratio

Microwave systems use: 12. Fading is caused by:

a. FM c. QAM a. multipath reception c. ducting
b. SSB d. all of the above b. attenuation due to weather d. all of the above

The typical reliability of a microwave system is: 13. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using:
a. 90% c. 99.9% a. diversity c. high-gain antennas
b. 99% d. 99.99% b. power d. all of the above

A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about: 14. Repeaters are used in a microwave system:
a. 2 watts c. 200 watts a. always c. above 10 GHz
b. 20 watts d. none of the above b. when distance exceeds line-of-sight d. below 10 GHz

In analog microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the: 15. Microwave repeaters can be:
a. reliability c. jitter a. IF type c. regenerative type
b. noise level d. all of the above b. baseband type d. all of the above

In digital microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the: 16. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is:
a. reliability c. jitter a. less bandwidth is required c. it requires less power
b. noise level d. all of the above b. accumulation of noise is reduced d. all of the above

LOS stands for: 17. MMDS stands for:

a. Loss Of Skip c. Line-Of-Sight a. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System
b. Loss Of Signal d. Line-Of-Signal b. Multipoint Microwave Distribution System
c. Multichannel Multipoint Distribution System
Too much antenna gain causes: d. Multiple Microwave Distribution Systems
a. a very narrow microwave beam c. excessive noise
b. a very wide microwave beam d. jitter 18. LMDS stands for:
a. Local Microwave Distribution System
The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least: b. Local Multipoint Distribution System
a. 60% of the Faraday zone c. 60% of the height of the antenna tower c. Local Multichannel Distribution System
b. 60% of the Fresnel zone d. 60% of the highest obstacle height d. Low-power Microwave Distribution System

Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as: 19. LMDS is:
a. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value a. bidirectional c. multidirectional
b. an ERP level that exceeds a given value b. unidirectional d. none of the above
c. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value
d. none of the above
EVISION 11. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of:
a. white c. whiter than white
NTSC stands for: b. black d. blacker than black
a. National Television Systems Commission
b. National Television Systems Committee 12. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of:
c. National Television Systems Council a. white c. whiter than white
d. Nippon Television Systems Commission b. black d. blacker than black
13. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to:
The NTSC specification was drawn up by the: a. maintain horizontal sync c. equalize the DC level
a. FCC c. EIA b. maintain vertical sync d. all of the above
b. IRE d. IEEE 14. When measured in lines, horizontal resolution:
RGB stands for: a. is greater than vertical resolution
a. Red-Green Burst c. Red-Green Bandwidth b. is about the same as vertical resolution
b. Red-Green Brightness d. Red-Green-Blue c. is less than vertical resolution
d. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines
The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is:
a. 525 c. 1024 15. The smallest picture element is called a:
b. 625 d. 1250 a. dot c. pixel
b. pic d. none of the above
The number of NTSC frames sent per second is:
a. 25 c. 50 16. In a color TV receiver, Y I Q refers to:
b. 30 d. 60 a. luminance signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color component
b. composite color signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color component
The number of NTSC fields sent per second is: c. composite video signal, in-phase video component, quadrature video color component
a. 25 c. 50 d. a method of demodulating stereo sound
b. 30 d. 60
17. Compared to the luminance signal, the horizontal resolution for color is:
The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is: a. much greater c. much less
a. 3 : 4 c. 525 : 625 b. about the same d. resolution does not apply to color
b. 4 : 3 d. 625 : 525
18. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
Luminance refers to: a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
a. brightness c. chroma b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM
b. contrast d. raster
19. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
Luminance is measured in: a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
a. foot-candles c. IRE units b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM
b. lumins d. NTSC units
20. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
The maximum luminance level is called:
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM
a. max white c. all white
b. peak white d. whiter than white
 d. is higher close to the earth than far from the earth
The function of the "color burst" is to:
a. detect the presence of a color video signal 5. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called:
b. regenerate the color sub-carrier a. azimuth and elevation c. declination and elevation
b. azimuth and declination d. apogee and perigee
c. to synchronize the color demodulation line by line
d. all of the above 6. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range:
SAP stands for: a. 5 to 25 watts c. 500 to 2500 watts
b. 50 to 250 watts d. depends on its orbit
a. separate audio program c. sync amplitude pulse
b. separate audio pulse d. sync audio pulse 7. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of:
The horizontal output transformer is also called: a. 101 watts c. 103 watts
a. the isolation transformer c. the flyback transformer b. 102 watts d. 104 watts
b. the video transformer d. the yoke
8. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of:
Compared to a monochrome CRT, the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is: a. transponders c. solar cells
a. about the same c. much lower b. batteries d. all of the above
b. much higher d. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration
9. "Station-keeping" refers to:
Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done: a. antenna maintenance c. orbital adjustments
a. magnetically for both vertical and horizontal b. power-level adjustments d. none of the above
b. electrostatically for both vertical and horizontal
10. DBS stands for:
c. electrostatically for vertical and magnetically for horizontal a. decibels of signal c. direct-broadcast system
d. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal b. down-beam signal d. direct-broadcast satellite
AFPC stands for:
11. LNA stands for:
a. allowed full picture chroma c. automatic frequency and picture control a. low-noise amplifier c. low-noise amplitude
b. automatic frequency and phase control d. none of the above b. low north angle d. low-noise array
ELLITE COMMUNICATIONS
12. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called:
The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about: a. backdown c. power-down
a. 3,578 km c. 357,800 km b. backoff d. EIRP drop
b. 35,780 km d. depends on satellite velocity
13. TVRO stands for:
The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called, respectively,: a. television receive only c. television remote origin
a. apogee and perigee c. uplink and downlink b. television repeater only d. none of the above
b. perigee and apogee d. downlink and uplink
14. TDMA stands for:
The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its: a. transponder-directed multiple antennas c. time-division multiple access
a. earth station c. footprint b. television distribution master antenna d. transmit delay minimum aperture
b. downlink d. plate
15. VSAT stands for:
The velocity required to stay in orbit: a. video satellite c. very small antenna terminal
a. is constant b. video signal antenna terminal d. very small aperture terminal
b. is zero (freefall)
c. is lower close to the earth than far from the earth 16. On the uplink from a terminal, a VSAT system uses:
a. high power to a small antenna c. low power to a large antenna
b. low power to a small antenna d. LEO satellites

A typical VSAT system is configured as a: 8. ESN stands for:

a. star c. ring a. Electronic Serial Number c. Emission Strength Number
b. mesh d. repeater b. Emitted Signal Number d. none of the above

LEO stands for: 9. SCM stands for:

a. long elliptic orbit c. lateral earth orbit a. Service Class Mark c. Signal Class Mark
b. low-earth orbit d. longitudinal earth orbit b. Station Class Mark d. Serial-Code Mode

For real-time communication, LEO systems require: 10. SCM identifies the:
a. a constellation of satellites c. very high power a. code number of a cell phone c. signal classification (analog or digital)
b. tracking dish antennas d. all of the above b. base-station class d. maximum power level of a cell phone

The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are: 11. SID stands for:
a. 4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz a. Sequential Interrupt Demand c. System Identification Number
b. 12 GHz and 14 GHz d. none of the above b. Standard Identification Number d. Signal Intensity Descriptor

LULAR RADIO 12. The SID is used by a cell phone to:

a. identify the type of system (analog or digital)
AMPS stand for: b. recognize an AMPS system
a. American Mobile Phone System c. Advanced Mobile Phone System c. set its transmitted power level
b. Analog Mobile Phone Service d. Advanced Mobile Phone Service d. recognize that it is "roaming"

PCS stands for: 13. DCC stands for:

a. Personal Communications Service c. Personal Cell phone Service a. Digital Color Code c. Digital Communications Carrier
b. Personal Communications Systems d. Portable Communications Systems b. Digital Communications Code d. Direct Channel Code

RCC stands for: 14. SAT stands for:

a. Radio Common Carrier c. Regional Cellular Carrier a. Station Antenna Tower c. Supervisory Access Tone
b. Radio Cellular Carrier d. none of the above b. Supervisory Audio Tone d. none of the above

MSC stands for: 15. CMAC stands for:

a. Mobile Switching Center c. Maximum Signal Carrier a. Control Mobile Attenuation Code c. Central Mobile Access Control
b. Mobile Service Cellular d. Minimum Signal Carrier b. Control Mobile Access Code d. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control

MTSO stands for: 16. The CMAC is used to:

a. Minimum Transmitted Signal Output c. Mobile Telephone Switching Office a. control access to the cell site
b. Maximum Transmitted Signal Output d. Mobile Transmission Time-Out b. set the access code of the cell phone
c. set the transmit power of the cell phone
MIN stands for: d. select the transmit channel for the cell phone
a. Manual Identification Number c. Maximum In-band Noise
b. Mobile Identification Number d. Minimum In-band Noise 17. In an AMPS system, voice is sent using:
a. AM c. FSK
NAM stands for: b. FM d. CDMA
a. Numerical Access Mode c. Number Access Module
b. Numerical Assignment Mode d. Number Assignment Module 18. In an AMPS system, control-channel signals are sent using:
a. AM c. FSK
b. FM d. CDMA

The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is: 5. AMPS was designed for:
a. less than 600 W. c. between 1 and 2 watts a. POTS c. use built into an automobile
b. less than 600 mW. d. 4 watts b. voice d. all of the above

BSC stands for: 6. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is:
a. Base Station Controller c. Basic Service Contract a. 2 c. 4
b. Base Signal Controller d. Basic Service Code b. 3 d. many

The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the: 7. CDMA technology was invented by:
a. BSC c. RF interface a. AT&T c. Bell Labs
b. MTSO d. air interface b. Lucent d. Qualcomm

The optimum cell-site radius is: 8. GSM is used in:

a. 2 km c. as small as possible a. Asia c. North America
b. 0.5 km d. none of the above b. Europe d. all of the above

Phone traffic is measured in: 9. In GSM, voice channels are called:

a. calls c. number of users a. traffic channels c. bearer channels
b. erlangs d. number of blocked calls b. voice channels d. talking channels

One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is: 10. AMPS uses:
a. increase the number of cells c. increase the ERP a. CDMA c. spread-spectrum
b. decrease the number of cells d. decrease the ERP b. TDMA d. none of the above

CDPD stands for: 11. Other things being equal, battery life in a GSM phone should be:
a. Code-Division Packet Data c. Coded Digital Packet Data a. less than in a TDMA phone c. greater than in a TDMA phone
b. Cellular Digital Packet Data d. Cellular Digital Pulse Data b. no better than in an AMPS phone d. no better than a TDMA phone

SONAL COMMUNICATIONS SYSTEMS 12. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in:
a. no PCS system c. TDMA only
Current PCS systems are referred to as: b. GSM only d. both GSM and TDMA
a. first-generation c. third-generation
b. second-generation d. digital-generation 13. GSM uses:
a. frequency hopping c. CDMA
The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is: b. direct-sequence modulation d. all of the above
a. 800 MHz c. 1.9 GHz
b. 900 MHz d. 12 GHz 14. In GSM, SIM stands for:
a. Short Inbound Message c. Subscriber ID Module
The "forward" PCS channel is: b. Subscriber-Initiated Message d. Subscriber ID Method
a. from the base to the mobile c. from mobile to mobile
b. from the mobile to the base d. same as the uplink 15. IMSI stands for:
a. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification
Compared to AMPS, PCS cell sites are: b. International Mobile Subscriber Identification
a. bigger c. distributed c. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification
b. smaller d. higher-power d. Intermodulation System Interference
IS-95 uses: 5. POCSAG stands for:
a. frequency hopping c. CDMA a. Pager Operations Common Standards Advisory Group
b. TDMA d. all of the above b. Pager Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group
c. Post Office Code Standardization Advisory Group
IS-136 uses: d. Post Office Common Standards Advisory Group
a. frequency hopping c. CDMA
b. TDMA d. all of the above 6. A typical pager system does not:
a. require "handoffs" c. require error detection
In CDMA: b. allow "roaming" d. all of the above
a. all frequencies are used in all cells
b. each cell uses half the available frequencies 7. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is:
c. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base a. 802.10 c. 802.12
d. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone b. 802.11 d. 802.13

CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are: 8. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the:
a. common c. rotating a. VHF band c. ISM band
b. unique d. orthogonal b. UHF band d. infrared band

The next generation of PCS is expected to have: 9. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of:
a. faster data rates c. wider roaming area a. CSMA/CA c. CDMA
b. Internet access d. all of the above b. CSMA/CD d. all of the above

ING & WIRELESS DATA NETWORKING 10. BSS stands for:

a. Basic Service Set c. Bluetooth Service System
Pagers use: b. Basic Service System d. none of the above
a. the VHF band only
b. the UHF band only 11. Bluetooth uses:
c. both the VHF and UHF bands a. CDMA c. QPSK
d. the VHF band, the UHF band, and the ISM band b. frequency hopping d. all of the above

ISM stands for: 12. Bluetooth uses the:

a. IEEE Standard Message c. Industrial, Scientific, and Messaging a. VHF band c. ISM band
b. IEEE Secure Message d. Industrial, Scientific, and Medical b. UHF band d. infrared band

CAPCODE is: 13. TDD stands for:

a. an encryption scheme used for pagers a. Time-Division Duplex c. Time Delay Difference
b. an addressing scheme used for pagers b. Time-Delayed Duplex d. Total Distance Delay
c. an error-detection scheme used for pagers
d. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers 14. A Bluetooth "piconet" has:
a. 2 nodes c. 2 to 8 nodes
In a one-way pager system: b. 2 to 4 nodes d. 2 to 16 nodes
a. all pages are sent from all transmitters
b. each transmitting antenna covers a wide area 15. Two or more connected piconets forms a:
c. transmitters use relatively high power a. micronet c. TDD net
d. all of the above b. multinet d. scatternet
 b. dispersion d. all of the above

The basic range of a Bluetooth device is: 7. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about:
a. 10 cm to 1 meter c. 10 cm to 100 meters a. 40 dB per km c. 0.4 dB per km
b. 10 cm to 10 meters d. within 10 feet b. 4 db per km d. zero loss

IRDA stands for: 8. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about:
a. Infrared Data Association c. Infrared Restricted Data Area a. 0.02 dB c. 1 dB
b. Infrared Digital Association d. Infrared Roaming Data Area b. 0.2 db d. 3 dB

The range of an IRDA system is: 9. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about:
a. 1 meter c. 1 foot a. 0.02 dB c. 1 dB
b. 10 meters d. 10 feet b. 0.2 db d. 3 dB

Infrared networks: 10. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector:

a. cannot penetrate walls c. can use reflected infrared beams a. ST c. SMA
b. can use diffused infrared beams d. all of the above b. SC d. all of the above

The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is: 11. The quantum of light is called:
a. 1 meter c. several hundred meters a. an erg c. a photon
b. several meters d. several thousand meters. b. an e-v d. a phonon

ER OPTICS 12. LASER stands for:

a. Light Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation
Compared to the core, the index of refraction of the cladding must be: b. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
a. the same c. less c. Light Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays
b. greater d. doesn't have an index of refraction d. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays

Fiber-optic cables do not: 13. APD stands for:

a. carry current c. generate EMI a. Avalanche Photodiode c. Avalanche Photo Detector
b. cause crosstalk d. all of the above b. Advanced Photodiode d. Advanced Photo Detector

Single-mode fiber is made from: 14. In a PIN diode, leakage current in the absence of light is called:
a. glass c. both a and b a. baseline current c. dark current
b. plastic d. none of the above b. zero-point current d. E-H current

Fiber-optic cable cannot be used: 15. For a light detector, responsivity is measured in:
a. in an explosive environment a. amps per watt c. mA per joule
b. to connect a transmitter to an antenna b. W per amp d. sec per W
c. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard
d. none of the above

A single-mode cable does not suffer from:

a. modal dispersion c. waveguide dispersion
b. chromatic dispersion d. all of the above

Scattering causes:
a. loss c. intersymbol interference
ER OPTIC SYSTEMS 11. In SONET, STS stands for:
a. Synchronous Transport Signal c. Synchronous Transmission Signal
FDDI stands for: b. Synchronous Transport System d. Synchronous Transmission System
a. Fiber Digital Data Interface c. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface
b. Fiber Distributed Data Interface d. Frequency-Division Data Interface 12. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is:
a. FDDI c. gigabit Ethernet
FITL stands for: b. high-speed Ethernet d. all of the above
a. Fiber In The Loop c. Frequency Input to The Loop
b. Fiber Input Timing Loss d. Fiber Input Timing Loop 13. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is:
a. common c. obsolete
FTTC stands for: b. experimental d. not possible
a. Fiber Transmission Timing Constraint
b. Fiber Transmission Technology Committee 14. OTDR stands for:
c. Fiber Telephone Transmission Cable a. Optical Time-Delay Response c. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer
d. Fiber To The Curb b. Optical Timing Delay Requirement d. Optical Time-Division Relay

SONET stands for: 15. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called:
a. Simple Optical Network c. Synchronous Optical Network a. FDDI c. FITL
b. Standard Optical Network d. none of the above b. FTTC d. SONET

DWDM stands for:

a. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation
b. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation
c. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation
d. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing

A Soliton is a:
a. defect in the glass c. type of pulse
b. type of particle d. type of optical network

Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called:

a. bit stuffing c. SDH
b. bit-synch d. WDM

Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called:

a. gain margin c. excess gain
b. system margin d. overdrive

Typically, repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to:
a. 1000 miles c. 100 km
b. 100 miles d. 10 km

In SONET, OC-1 stands for:

a. Optical Carrier level one c. Optical Channel one
b. Optical Coupler unidirectional d. Optical Cable type 1