TECHNICAL GENERAL

POF
1) By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane’s
A— lift, airspeed, and drag.
B— lift, airspeed, and CG.
C— lift and airspeed, but not drag.

2) An aircraft airfoil is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the

A— negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the airfoil’s surface.
B— vacuum below the airfoil’s surface and greater air pressure above the airfoil’s surface.
C— higher air pressure below the airfoil’s surface and lower air pressure above the airfoil’s
surface

3) The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the

A— angle of incidence of the wing.
B— amount of airflow above and below the wing.
C— distribution of pressures acting on the wing

4) When the angle of attack of a symmetrical airfoil is increased, the center of pressure will
A— have very limited movement.
B— move aft along the airfoil surface.
C— remain unaffected.

5) In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the
lift produced at the higher speed will be
A— the same as at the lower speed.
B— two times greater than at the lower speed.
C— four times greater than at the lower speed.

6) Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an airplane in steady-state level
flight?
A— These forces are equal.
B— Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal.
C— Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight.

7) To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an airplane must be flown at
A— the same true airspeed regardless of angle of attack.
B— a lower true airspeed and a greater angle of attack.
C— a higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.

8) What changes in airplane longitudinal control must be made to maintain altitude while the
airspeed
is being decreased?
A— Increase the angle of attack to produce more lift than drag.
B— Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing lift.
C— Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the increasing drag.

9) In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become
A— twice as great.
B— half as great.
C— four times greater.

10) In theory, if the airspeed of an aircraft in level flight is cut in half, parasite drag will become
A— one-third as much.

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 B— one-half as much.
C— one-fourth as much.

11) As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an
airplane
A— decreases because of lower parasite drag.
B— increases because of increased induced drag.
C— increases because of increased parasite drag.

12) During the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased and
lift
A— is momentarily decreased.
B— remains the same.
C— is momentarily increased.

13) To hold an airplane in level flight at airspeeds from very slow to very fast, a pilot must coordinate
thrust and
A— angle of incidence.
B— gross weight.
C— angle of attack.

14) Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the

A— force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.
B— differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing.
C— reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an airfoil, which
acts perpendicular to the mean camber.

15) An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the
A— negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing’s surface.
B— vacuum below the wing’s surface and greater air pressure above the wing’s surface.
C— higher air pressure below the wing’s surface and lower air pressure above the wing’s
surface.

16) Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases?

A— Altitude.
B— Airspeed.
C— Angle of attack.

17) What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum lift/drag ratio in a propeller-driven

airplane?
Maximum
A— gain in altitude over a given distance.
B— range and maximum distance glide.
C— coefficient of lift and minimum coefficient of drag.

18) In small airplanes, normal recovery from spins may become difficult if the
A— CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis.
B— CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG.
C— spin is entered before the stall is fully developed.

19) A swept wing airplane with weak static directional stability and increased dihedral causes an
increase in
A— Mach tuck tendency.
B— Dutch roll tendency.

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 C— longitudinal stability.

20) If an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range,it will tend to be unstable about its
A— vertical axis.
B— lateral axis.
C— longitudinal axis.

21) An airplane will stall at the same

A— angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon.
B— airspeed regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon.
C— angle of attack and attitude with relation to the horizon.

22) Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its
A— rudder.
B— elevator.
C— ailerons.

23) If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is
pressed forward and released, the airplane displays
A— positive dynamic stability.
B— positive static stability.
C— neutral dynamic stability.

24) If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and
released, the airplane displays
A— neutral longitudinal static stability.
B— positive longitudinal static stability.
C— neutral longitudinal dynamic stability.

25) Longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by

A— bank oscillations becoming progressively steeper.
B— pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper.
C— Trilatitudinal roll oscillations becoming progressively steeper.

26) Which is correct with respect to rate and radius of turn for an airplane flown in a coordinated turn
at a constant altitude?
A— For a specific angle of bank and airspeed, the rate and radius of turn will not vary.
B— To maintain a steady rate of turn, the angle of bank must be increased as the airspeed is
decreased.
C— The faster the true airspeed, the faster the rate and larger the radius of turn regardless of the
angle of bank.

27) Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To
compensate for the
A— loss of the vertical component of lift.
B— loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force.
C— rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn.

28) To maintain altitude during a turn, the angle of attack must be increased to compensate for the
decrease in the
A— forces opposing the resultant component of drag.
B— vertical component of lift.
C— horizontal component of lift.

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 29) 5210. If airspeed is increased during a level turn, what action would be necessary to maintain
altitude? Theangle of attack
A— and angle of bank must be decreased.
B— must be increased or angle of bank decreased.
C— must be decreased or angle of bank increased.

30) For a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-
altitude turn
A— is constant and the stall speed increases.
B— varies with the rate of turn.
C— is constant and the stall speed decreases.

31) Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the
A— rate of turn.
B— angle of bank.
C— true airspeed.

32) If the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots during a level 60° banked turn, the load
factor will
A— increase as well as the stall speed.
B— decrease and the stall speed will increase.
C— remain the same but the radius of turn will increase.

33) A load factor of 1.2 means the total load on an aircraft’s structure is 1.2 times its
A— gross weight.
B— load limit.
C— gust factor.

34) If the airspeed is decreased from 98 knots to 85 knots during a coordinated level 45° banked turn,
the load factor will
A— remain the same, but the radius of turn will decrease.
B— decrease, and the rate of turn will decrease.
C— remain the same, but the radius of turn will increase

35) If the airspeed is increased from 89 knots to 98 knots during a coordinated level 45° banked turn,
the load factor will
A— decrease, and the radius of turn will decrease.
B— remain the same, but the radius of turn will increase.
C— increase, but the rate of turn will decrease.

36) To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should
A— maintain the bank and decrease airspeed.
B— increase the bank and increase airspeed.
C— increase the bank and decrease airspeed.

37) As the angle of bank is increased, the vertical component of lift

A— decreases and the horizontal component of lift increases.
B— increases and the horizontal component of lift decreases.
C— decreases and the horizontal component of lift remains constant.

38) Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns?
A— The lowering of flaps increases the stall speed.
B— The raising of flaps increases the stall speed.
C— Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick.

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 39) The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an aircraft in
flight is known as
A— load factor and directly affects stall speed.
B— aspect load and directly affects stall speed.
C— load factor and has no relation with stall speed.

40) Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time
A— divided by the total weight of the aircraft.
B— multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft.
C— divided by the basic empty weight of the aircraft.

41) What is the best indicator to the pilot of the load factor on the airplane?
A— How firmly the pilot is pressed into the seat during a maneuver.
B— Amount of pressure required to operate the controls.
C— Airspeed when pulling out of a descent.

42) In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall speed to
A— increase.
B— decrease.
C— not vary.

43) While maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in
airspeed will
A— decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor.
B— decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor.
C— increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor.

44) While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor
would
A— remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector.
B— vary depending upon speed and air density provided the resultant lift vector varies
proportionately.
C— vary depending upon the resultant lift vector.

45) If an airplane category is listed as utility, it would mean that this airplane could be operated in
which of the following maneuvers?
A— Limited acrobatics, excluding spins.
B— Limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved).
C— Any maneuver except acrobatics or spins.

46) Stall speed is affected by

A— weight, load factor, and power.
B— load factor, angle of attack, and power.
C— angle of attack, weight, and air density.

47) The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by

A— changes in air density.
B— variations in flight altitude.
C— variations in airplane loading.

48) Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its
A— center of gravity moves aft.
B— center of gravity moves forward.
C— elevator trim is adjusted nosedown.

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 49) The need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought about by the following weather phenomenon:
A— High density altitude which increases the indicated stall speed.
B— Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed.
C— Turbulence which causes a decrease in stall speed.

50) The angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of
A— weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude.
B— dynamic pressure, but varies with weight, bank angle, and pitch attitude.
C— weight and pitch attitude, but varies with dynamic pressure and bank angle.

51) One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to
A— decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
B— provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed.
C— decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than-normal approach to be made.

52) The primary purpose of wing spoilers is to decrease

A— the drag.
B— landing speed.
C— the lift of the wing.

53) Both lift and drag would be increased when which of these devices are extended?
A— Flaps.
B— Spoilers.
C— Slats.

54) A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the
A— wingtip, with the stall progression toward the wing root.
B— wing root, with the stall progression toward the wing tip.
C— center trailing edge, with the stall progression outward toward the wing root and tip.

55) A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream. The spiralling
slipstream, along with torque effect, tends to rotate the airplane to the
A— right around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.
B— left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis.
C— left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis.

56) An airplane leaving ground effect will

A— experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction.
B— experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust.
C— require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient.

57) To produce the same lift while in ground effect as when out of ground effect, the airplane requires
A— a lower angle of attack.
B— the same angle of attack.
C— a greater angle of attack.

58) If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will
A— increase, and induced drag will decrease.
B— decrease, and parasite drag will increase.
C— increase, and induced drag will increase.

59) Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence.

A— Vortex generation begins with the initiation of the takeoff roll.
B— The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll.
C— The greatest vortex strength is produced when the generating airplane is heavy, clean, and
fast.

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 60) During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of
wingtip vortices by
A— being airborne prior to reaching the jet’s flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake.
B— maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout.
C— extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet’s rotation point.

61) Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course
from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude?
A— Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.
B— Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.
C— Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course.

62) To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your
takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne?
A— Past the point where the jet touched down.
B— At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point.
C— Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down.

63) When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
A— Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.
B— Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath.
C— Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.

64) Which is true with respect to vortex circulation in the wake turbulence generated by an aircraft?
A— Helicopters generate downwash turbulence only, not vortex circulation.
B— The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.
C— When vortex circulation sinks into ground effect, it tends to dissipate rapidly and offer little
danger.

65) Before shutdown, while at idle, the ignition key is momentarily turned OFF. The engine continues
to run with no interruption; this
A— is normal because the engine is usually stopped by moving the mixture to idle cut-off.
B— should not normally happen. Indicates a magneto not grounding in OFF position.
C— is an undesirable practice, but indicates that nothing is wrong.

66) A way to detect a broken magneto primary grounding lead is to

A— idle the engine and momentarily turn the ignition off.
B— add full power, while holding the brakes, and momentarily turn off the ignition.
C— run on one magneto, lean the mixture, and look for a rise in manifold pressure.

67) The most probable reason an engine continues to run after the ignition switch has been turned off
is
A— carbon deposits glowing on the spark plugs.
B— a magneto ground wire is in contact with the engine casing.
C— a broken magneto ground wire.

68) If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the
engine
A— will not operate on one magneto.
B— cannot be started with the switch in the BOTH position.
C— could accidentally start if the propeller is moved with fuel in the cylinder.

69) Fouling of spark plugs is more apt to occur if the aircraft

A— gains altitude with no mixture adjustment.

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 B— descends from altitude with no mixture adjustment.
C— throttle is advanced very abruptly.

70) The pilot controls the air/fuel ratio with the

A— throttle
B— manifold pressure
C— mixture control

71) Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the

A— volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
B— weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder.
C— weight of fuel and weight of air entering the carburetor.

72) The mixture control can be adjusted, which

A— prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming too rich at higher altitudes.
B— regulates the amount of air flow through the carburetor’s venturi.
C— prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming lean as the airplane climbs.

73) The best power mixture is that fuel/air ratio at which

A— cylinder head temperatures are the coolest.
B— the most power can be obtained for any given throttle setting.
C— a given power can be obtained with the highest manifold pressure or throttle setting.

74) What will occur if no leaning is made with the mixture control as the flight altitude increases?
A— The volume of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel decreases.
B— The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel increases.
C— The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel remains
constant.

75) Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer with an increase in altitude because the
amount of fuel
A— decreases while the volume of air decreases.
B— remains constant while the volume of air decreases.
C— remains constant while the density of air decreases.

76) The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture control at altitude is to
A— decrease the fuel flow to compensate for decreased air density.
B— decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for increased air density.
C— increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and
density of the air.

77) At high altitudes, an excessively rich mixture will cause the

A— engine to overheat.
B— fouling of spark plugs.
C— engine to operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased.

78) Leaving the carburetor heat on while taking off

A— leans the mixture for more power on takeoff.
B— will decrease the takeoff distance.
C— will increase the ground roll.

79) Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburetor heat?
A— It enriches the fuel/air mixture.
B— It leans the fuel/air mixture.
C— It has no effect on the fuel/air mixture.

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