Biochem Question Bank
Biochem Question Bank
Biochem Question Bank
Biochemistry
UAG 2017
69. Nitric Oxide acts as smooth muscle relaxant upon activation of which of the
following enzymes?
Directions: Match the lettered enzymes involved in DNA replication with the
numbered activities most closely related
70. This protein separates the two strands of the DNA helix which is required for the
synthesis of daughter strands, causing a strain ahead of the moving fork (C)
(A) Adenine
(B) Inosine
(C) Uracil
(D) Guanine
(E) Hypoxanthine
81. Which of the following is the most important sequence for binding bacterial RNA
polymerase in order to initiate transcription
(A) hnRNA
(B) snRNP
(C) primer RNA
(D) rRNA
(E) tRNA
(A) the part of mRNA which codes for termination of protein synthesis
(B) a specific sequence of 16S rRNA which interacts with Shine-Dalgarno sequence
on mRNA
(C) a protein of the 30S ribosomal subunit which interacts with an aminoacyl-tRNA
molecule
(D) a nucleotide triplet of all tRNA molecules which interacts in an antiparallel way
with a specific codon sequence in mRNA *
(E) the part of mRNA which codes for initiation of protein synthesis
91. Which one of the following molecules serves to stabilize the unwound DNA helix at
the replication fork during DNA replication?
93. A scientist uses RFLP analysis with Southern blotting to identify a mutation in
codon 408 located at the exon 9 of the LDL receptor gene. This mutation has
resulted in the change of the codon GUG (Val) to AUG (Met). This type of
mutation may be referred as
(A) Envelope
(B) Lamina
(C) Matrix
(D) Nucleolus *
(E) Pores
95. A polysome is actively involved in translation. During the translation process, the
ribosomes are attached to which of the following?
(A) Helicase
(B) Histone protein
(C) Primase
(D) Restriction endonuclease
(E) RNA polymerase
97. How many high-energy phosphate-bond equivalents are utilized in the process of
activation of amino acids for protein synthesis?
(A) Zero
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
02. The lack of nutritional essential amino acids may lead to negative nitrogen
balance. Which one of the following amino acids must be supplied to the
normal adult human diet in order to maintain nitrogen balance?
(A) Glycine
(B) Alanine
(C) Lysine
(D) Tyrosine
(E) Serine
04. Enzyme analysis in cultured cells is most likely to show defective activity of which of the following
enzymes?
(A) Hexosaminidase A
(B) Ceramidase
(C) Sphigomyelinase
(D) N-Acetylneuraminidase
(E) Fucosidase
05. The defective enzyme is normally located in which of the following cellular organelles of this patient?
(A) Plasma membrane
(B) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(C) Mitochondrial matrix
(D) Nucleoplasm
(E) Lysosomes
(A) Progesterone
(B) Insulin
(C) Glucagon
(D) Somatostatin
(E) Cortisol
07. Which of the following occur during the mitochondrial electron transport chain for
the generation of ATP by oxidative phosphorylation?
09. Ingestion of protein rich in which of the following amino acids would be expected to
increase the excretion of Homogentisic acid in this young patient?
(A) Cysteine
(B) Methionine
(C) Histidine
(D) Homoserine
(E) Tyrosine
11. Activation of lipoprotein lipase by Apoprotein CII (apoCII) results in enzymatic attack
of which of the following lipoproteins?
17. After molecular analysis of intestinal cells, activity of which of the following proteins is
most likely to be inhibited upon NAD+ dependent ADP-ribosylation in both patients?
19. If radiolabeled [32P]ATP at the terminal gamma (g) phosphate group is injected to
a
rat, which of the following molecules subsequently isolated from hepatocytes is
the least likely to exhibit the radiolabel?
(A) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
(B) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
(C) 3’,5’-cAMP
(D) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP)
(E) Glucose-6-P
(A) Ketogenesis
(B) De novo synthesis of purines
(C) Synthesis of urea
(D) Transamination of amino acids and gluconeogenesis
(E) Catabolism of purines
25. The most likely enzyme deficiency afflicting this young patient is
29. During the mitochondrial electron transport chain, the heme portion of cytochrome
molecules are able to transfer electrons among themselves because of its redox
potential E°’(v). Which of the following exhibits the most electropositive redox
potential and consequently the highest affinity for electrons?
(A) Tryptophan
(B) Glutamic acid
(C) Glutamine
(D) Tyrosine
(E) Serine
35. The plasma obtained from the blood of this patient, allowed to stand, will exhibit a
surface creamy layer. Eruptive xanthomas are present. Enzyme analysis reveals
low activity of lipoprotein lipase. (B)
36. This patient presents with hepatomegaly, ketosis and fasting hypoglycemia.
Enzyme analysis reveals low levels of hepatic glucose-6-phosphatase (D)
38. This 12-year-old male patient presents with hyperuricemia, mental retardation,
aggressive behavior and uncoordinated movements (A)
39. This 48-year-old obese patient presents with hyperglycemia, that responds to a
dietary approach and hypoglycemic drugs (E)
(A) Pyruvate
(B) Phosphoenol pyruvate
(C) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(D) Glyceraldehyde-3-phospahate
(E) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
41. Fatty acids are major fuels for animals and may be oxidized by several metabolic
processes. Concerning the b-oxidation of fatty acids, which of the following
statements is NOT correct?
(A) oxidation of unsaturated fatty acids produces more NADH than produces FADH2
(A) 2,4-Dinitrophenol
(B) Atractyloside
(C) Azide
(D) Rotenone
(E) Oligomycin
45. The phosphate ion (PO43-) is a highly regulated ion that constitutes about 1%
of the body mass. It can be found in the body as a free phosphate ion or as a
phosphoester of sugars. Which of the following enzymes incorporates an
inorganic phosphate (Pi) to an hexose to form a phosphoester derivative?
(A) ATP energy is used to drive protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane
(B) a proton gradient provides power for electron transfer from substrate to oxygen
(C) ATP energy supplies power for the transfer of electrons from substrate to oxygen
(D) electron transfer from substrate to oxygen provides energy to create a proton
gradient, which then powers synthesis of ATP
(E) phosphorylation of FAD creates a pH gradient across the inner mitochondrial
membrane
48. Based on the clinical picture and laboratory analysis, this patient is afflicted with
which of the following conditions?
(A) Primary carnitine deficiency
(B) Refsum’s disease
(C) Short-chain Acyl~SCoA dehydrogenase deficiency
(D) Pompe’s disease
(E) McArdle disease
49. An enzyme involved in which of the following metabolic pathways is most likely to be
defective in this patient?
(A) b-Oxidation of short chain fatty acids
(B) Peroxisomal a-oxidation of branched long chain fatty acids
(C) w-oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids
(D) Activation of fatty acids to Fattyacyl~SCoA
(E) Isomerization of Methylmalonyl~SCoA to Succinyl~SCoA
50. Which of the following enzymes is most likely to be deficient in this patient?
(A) Fatty acyl-CoA synthetase
(B) Fatty acyl-CoA dehydrogenase
(C) Enoyl-CoA hydratase
(D) b-Ketoacyl-CoA thiolase
(E) Phytanoyl-CoA hydroxylase
(A) zero
(B) one
(C) two
(D) three
(E) Four
(A) Carboxypeptidase A
(B) Elastase
(C) Trypsin
(D) Chymotrypsin
(E) Pepsin
54. A hypertensive patient is advised by his cardiologist to take one aspirin per day as
a prophylactic measure that would help to "thin the blood". Aspirin inhibits platelet
activity by
56. It has been determined in healthy volunteers that the chloride content of
erythrocytes is much lower in arterial blood than in venous blood. Which of the
following integral proteins in the erythrocyte membrane is an anion channel
responsible for the chloride exchange against H2CO3-?
(A) Glycophorin
(B) Band 3 protein
(C) a-Spectrin
(D) Ankyrin
(E) Band 4.1 protein
58. The difference between glycolysis under aerobic and anaerobic conditions is that
anaerobically, the pathway preferentially generates
(A) Acetyl~SCoA
(B) ATP
(C) Succinyl~SCoA
(D) FADH2
(E) Lactate
Directions: For each lettered component of the mitochondrial electron transport system
(ETS), select the most appropriated numbered description
(A) Complex I
(B) Complex II
(C) Complex III
(D) Complex IV
(E) Coenzyme Q
63. This complex contains bound copper atoms and has a heme group that reacts with
molecular oxygen to produce metabolic water (H2OM) (D)
65. A small lipophilic component of the electron transport system that can be directly
reduced by both complex I and complex II (E)
(A) 0%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 75%
(E) 100%
(A) NAD+ is the last electron acceptor during the oxidative decarboxylation of
(C) Two moles of CO2 are released by the oxidation of one mole of Acetyl~SCoA
(D) FAD is required for the formation of fumarate from succinate
(E) GTP is formed during the cycle upon substrate level phosphorylation
A 15- year-old girl is presented to the medical center complaining of excessive fatigue that
prevents her participation in gym class. The internist finds muscle weakness in both of her
arms and legs. Laboratory exams show increased serum triglycerides esterified with long-
chain fatty acids and borderline low glucose levels. A muscle biopsy shows increased
numbers of lipid vacuoles.
99. Because of the metabolic deficiency, which of the follwing pathways is defective in
this patient
(A) Binds to and intercalate between DNA Template G-C base pairs
(B) Delete purine nucleotides during DNA replication
(C) Inhibit DNA gyrase during DNA replication (*)
(D) Inhibit bacterial cell-wall synthesis binding to peptidoglycan
transpeptidase
(E) Interfere with attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA to mRNA-ribosome
complex
UAG 2017
Directions: Match the lettered blood clotting factors with the numbered
features more likely to be associated. Each letter heading may be selected
once, more than once, or not at all.
01. This factor exhibits transglutaminase activity that stabilizes the fibrin polymer
by cross-linking specific lysine residues between fibrin monomers (E)
02. This factor is a substrate for Thrombin (Factor IIa). The product then
polymerizes to form a soluble clot (A)
03. This factor binds and activates platelet’s glycoproteins GPIIb/IIIa to promote
platelet aggregation (A)
05. Several of the blood clotting factors are synthesized as inactive precursors
referred to as zymogens. Those zymogens are converted into active clotting
factors by which of the following mechanisms?
(A) Collagen
(B) Glycogen
(C) Hemoglobin
(D) Blood clotting factors
(E) Glycosaminoglycans
07. A 73-year-old homeless alcoholic man was found on the railroads tracks passed
out. Under physical examination, he presented a distended abdomen that is
equivalent in size to a full-term pregnant woman’s belly (ascites). Defective
hepatic synthesis of which of the following plasma proteins causes this finding?
(A) Albumin
(B) Ceruloplasmin
(C) Fetprotein
(D) Chylomicrons
(E) IgG
11. During blood coagulation, the intrinsic and the extrinsic pathways
converge at the tep involving the conversion of
15. Patients afflicted with Amyothrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS, Lou Gerhig's Disease)
present with progressive motor neuron degeneration. This condition is
associated with a missense mutation in the gene for the antioxidant enzyme
(A) The extrinsic pathway involves the activation of High Molecular Weight
Kininogen (HMWK) upon contact with collagen
(B) The intrinsic pathway involves Tissue factor (III) released by platelets
(C) Activated Protein C in the presence of Protein S degrades Factors Xa and
XIIa to keep intravascular blood fluidity
(D) Fibrinogen is a substrate for Thrombin at the common pathway
Questions 19 - 20
(A) Warfarin
(B) Heparin
(C) Both
(D) Neither
Directions: For each numbered inhibitor, select the lettered affected function
Directions: Match the lettered blood clotting factors with the numbered features
more likely to be associated. Each letter heading may be selected once, more than
once, or not at all.
24. This factor functions as an ionic enzyme cofactor at several steps of the coagulation
cascade, binding to phospholipid surfaces (C)
25. This is an extrinsic pathway factor that contains several gamma-glutamate (Gla)
residues as a result of co-tranlationally vitamin K-dependent carboxylation reactions
(D)
26. The function of this protein is the degradation of fibrin clots. It is a serine protease
that circulates as the inactive zymogen (E)
A 36-year-old taxi driver is jaundiced and presents with cough, sputum production
and dyspnea under strenuous exertion. He stopped smoking tobacco a year ago
because a history of chronic bronchitis and progressive shortness of breath and
hypertension. A microscopic analysis for acid-alcohol resistant bacilli (BAAR) was
negative
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Emphysema
(C) Whooping cough
(D) Silicosis
(E) Athsma
28. Molecular analysis of which of the following genes is most likely to show a
mutation Glu342Lys at chromosome 14 and the consequent deficiency of the
coded protein?
30. Which of the following groups of molecules prevents the deleterious effects of
oxygen and reactive oxygen species (ROS) causing peroxidation of unsaturated
fatty acids?
(A) Cholesterol
(B) Triacylglycerides
(C) Eicosanoids
(D) Sphingolipids
(E) Glycerophosphatides
32. Aspirin, actually Acetylsalicylate (ASA) is one of the most commonly used
analgesic and cardio protective drugs. This drug
(A) Copper
(B) Chromium
(C) Fluoride
(D) Magnesium
(E) Selenium
38. Collagen isolated from the fontanel of new born rats is completely hydrolyzed and
the hydrolysate submitted to ion-exchange chromatography to know amino acid
composition. The amino acid whose peak exhibits the largest area under the peak
and consequently the greatest concentration in collagen is
(A) N-methyllysine
(B) hydroxylysine
(C) 4-hydroxyproline
(D) proline
(E) glycine
(A) Rickets
(B) Down syndrome
(C) Alzheimer's disease
(D) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
(E) Ehler-Danlos syndrome
(A) Heme
(B) Intrinsic factor
(C) Phosphatidylcholine
(D) Protein
(E) Triglyceride *
(A) Chief
(B) G (gastrin)
(C) Goblet
(D) Mucous neck
(E) Parietal *
(A) Alkaptonuria
(B) Hartnup’s disease
(C) Joseph’s syndrome
(D) Cystinuria
(E) Phenylketonuria
46. Which of the following amino acid pathway is defective in this patient
48.