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Biochem Question Bank

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1st Semester Sample Questions of

Biochemistry

Cuauhtémoc Lozano-De La Rosa, QFB, RB


Dept. of Biochemistry and Molecular Biology
International Program, School of Medicine
cuauhtemoc.lozano@mail.uag.mx

UAG 2017

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66. Synthesis of bacterial RNA (Transcrption) requires a DNA template and the core
enzyme RNA polymerase. Participation of sigma factor in transcription is required
to

(A) recognize the initiation site of transcription


(B) add a poly(A) sequence to 3' end of polycistronic mRNA
(C) recognize the termination site of transcription
(D) splice the exons
(E) add the Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA

67. Telomere sequences

(A) prevent degradation of coding regions of linear chromosomes *


(B) Escherichia. coli has two of them because it only has one chromosome
(C) function as fast transit motor molecules over cytoskeleton proteins
(D) bind vitamin A to prevent blindness
(E) exist only in prokaryotic cells

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68. A double stranded inverted repeats sequence present in DNA structure is
referred to as

(A) Telomeric sequence


(B) Policistronic sequence
(C) Palindromioc sequence
(D) Monocistronic sequence
(E) Loop and stem sequence

69. Nitric Oxide acts as smooth muscle relaxant upon activation of which of the
following enzymes?

(A) Glutathione peroxidase


(B) Guanylate cyclase
(C) Superoxide dismutase
(D) Proteinkinase C
(E) Proteinkinase A

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Items 70 - 71

Directions: Match the lettered enzymes involved in DNA replication with the
numbered activities most closely related

(A) DNA pol I


(B) DNA pol III
(C) Helicase
(D) Primase
(E) Topoisomerase II

70. This protein separates the two strands of the DNA helix which is required for the
synthesis of daughter strands, causing a strain ahead of the moving fork (C)

71. It catalyzes the addition of deoxyribonucleosides triphosphate (dNTPs) to the


3’-OH end of the growing DNA leading strand with the concomitant release of
inorganic pyrophosphate (PPi) (B)

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72. Hypercholesterolemia may affect the normal cholesterol content of some
biological membranes. Increased cholesterol content in the erythrocyte
membrane may affect which of the following?

(A) Membrane fluidity


(B) Fatty acid composition of triacylglycerides
(C)The hemoglobin content
(D) The antigenic activity of blood groups
(E) It has no effect

73. If a uniformly radiolabelled 15N-[DNA] molecule undergoes two cycles (F2) of


synthesis in a solution of unlabelled 2'-deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
(2'-dNTPs), what will be obtained in the four daughter DNA molecules?

(A) Half should contain radioactivity in both strands


(B) All should contain radioactivity
(C) Half should contain no radiactivity
(D) Only one should contain radiactivity in both starnds
(E) None should contain radiactivity

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80. DNA can be damaged by exposure to chemicals and radiation. Nitrous acid
formed from ingested nitrosamine derivatives is known to cause deamination of
cytosine in DNA. Which of the following bases would be produced upon
deamination of cytosine?

(A) Adenine
(B) Inosine
(C) Uracil
(D) Guanine
(E) Hypoxanthine

81. Which of the following is the most important sequence for binding bacterial RNA
polymerase in order to initiate transcription

(A) Shine-Dalgarno sequence


(B) Splice donor sequence
(C) Promoter sequence
(D) Untranslated sequence
(E) Regulatory gene

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82. Thymidine is considered to be the hallmark of DNA structure. Nevertheless
Thymidine is also found as one of the minor nucleotides in one of the loops of
which of the following types or RNA?

(A) hnRNA
(B) snRNP
(C) primer RNA
(D) rRNA
(E) tRNA

83. The term anticodon refers to as

(A) the part of mRNA which codes for termination of protein synthesis
(B) a specific sequence of 16S rRNA which interacts with Shine-Dalgarno sequence
on mRNA
(C) a protein of the 30S ribosomal subunit which interacts with an aminoacyl-tRNA
molecule
(D) a nucleotide triplet of all tRNA molecules which interacts in an antiparallel way
with a specific codon sequence in mRNA *
(E) the part of mRNA which codes for initiation of protein synthesis

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84. Activation of an amino acid by the enzyme Aminoacyl-tRNA Synthetase involves

(A) Transient formation of a phosphoacyl high-energy bond between the


amino acid and AMP
(B) Binding of GTP to the enzyme active site
(C) Ionic bonding of the amino acid to the anticodon sequence
(D) Several initiation factors
(E) A ribosomal protein of large subunit 50S

85. An ADP-ribosylated form of eEF-2 is histochemically shown to be present in the


leukocytes of a 3-year-old boy presented to the emergency room with respiratory
problems and fever. This young patient is most likely to be infected with

(A) Escherichia coli


(B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(C) Corynebacterium diphteriae
(D) Vibrio cholerae
(E) Candida albicans

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86. Which of the following proteins is a potential target for an antibiotic that inhibits
protein synthesis?

(A) Peptidyl transferase


(B) Topoisomerase I
(C) Gyrase (Topoisomerase II)
(D) Primase
(E) Sigma factor

87. Okazaki fragments are formed during DNA replication because

(A) DNA polymerase is only capable of synthesizing DNA in short segments


(B) DNA restriction enzymes cleave new strands as they are being synthesized
(C) DNA polymerase can synthesize new DNA only if there is a free 3’-OH
group on the terminal ribose of the RNA primer
(D) DNA proceeds from 3’ to 5’ on the lagging strand
(E) DNA polymerase doesn’t require a RNA Primer

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88. Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding initiation of DNA
replication?

(A) It occurs at multiple sites of orgin on individual chromosomes of eukayotic


cells
(B) It occurs bidirectionally on chromosomes
(C) It occurs in G2 phase of cell cycle
(D) It requires disassembly of chromatin and nucleosomes
(E) It requires both Ribonucleosides triphosphate and 2’deosxiribonucleosides
triphosphate

89. Which one of the following molecules/complexes is NOT directly involved in


bacterial DNA replication?

(A) synthesis of RNA primers


(B) restriction endonucleases
(C) DNA polymerases I and III
(D) primosome complex
(E) Ligase

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90. Which one of the following molecules serves to separate and unwind the double-
stranded DNA helix at the replication fork during bacterial DNA replication?

(A) DNA ligase


(B) DNA helicase
(C) single-stranded binding proteins
(D) DNA polymerase III
(E) DnaG Primase

91. Which one of the following molecules serves to stabilize the unwound DNA helix at
the replication fork during DNA replication?

(A) DNA ligase


(B) DNA helicase
(C) single-stranded binding proteins (ssbp)
(D) Topisomerase
(E) DnaG Primase

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92. Which one of the following molecules serves to prevent supercoiling of the DNA
molecule ahead of the replication fork?

(A) DNA ligase


(B) DNA polymerase
(C) single-stranded binding proteins
(D) Topisomerase
(E) DNA gyrase

93. A scientist uses RFLP analysis with Southern blotting to identify a mutation in
codon 408 located at the exon 9 of the LDL receptor gene. This mutation has
resulted in the change of the codon GUG (Val) to AUG (Met). This type of
mutation may be referred as

(A) Silent mutation


(B) Neutral mutation
(C) Nonsense mutation
(D) Missense mutation
(E) Frameshift mutation

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94. In which of the following nuclear structures is DNA actively transcribed to
rRNA?

(A) Envelope
(B) Lamina
(C) Matrix
(D) Nucleolus *
(E) Pores

95. A polysome is actively involved in translation. During the translation process, the
ribosomes are attached to which of the following?

(A) Single-stranded DNA


(B) Double-stranded DNA
(C) mRNA *
(D) rRNA
(E) tRNA

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96. Which of the following binds to specific nucleotide sequences referred to as the
promoter that are upstream of the start site of transcription?

(A) Helicase
(B) Histone protein
(C) Primase
(D) Restriction endonuclease
(E) RNA polymerase

97. How many high-energy phosphate-bond equivalents are utilized in the process of
activation of amino acids for protein synthesis?

(A) Zero
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four

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1st Semester Biochemistry Sample Questions
01. In untreated diabetic patients, the increased production of ketone
bodies is primarily a result of which of the following?

(A) increased hepatic metabolism of cholesterol to ketone bodies


(B) a substantially increased rate of hepatic fatty acid oxidation and
production of Acetyl~SCoA
(C) increased rate of Acetyl~SCoA oxidation in the TCA cycle
(D) increased storage of triacylglycerides in the adipocyte
(E) increased hepatic and skeletal muscle glycogen storage

02. The lack of nutritional essential amino acids may lead to negative nitrogen

balance. Which one of the following amino acids must be supplied to the
normal adult human diet in order to maintain nitrogen balance?

(A) Glycine
(B) Alanine
(C) Lysine
(D) Tyrosine
(E) Serine

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His mother presents a 1-year-old baby boy to the pediatrician. Physical examination shows liver and
spleen enlargement and mental retardation. Molecular analysis reveals that his neuronal cells are
unable to hydrolyze sphingomyelin.

03. The most likely diagnosis is


(A) Lipoprotein lipase deficiency
(B) Familial hypercholesterolemia
(C) Metachromatic leukodystrophy
(D) Farber's disease
(E) Niemann-Pick disease

04. Enzyme analysis in cultured cells is most likely to show defective activity of which of the following
enzymes?
(A) Hexosaminidase A
(B) Ceramidase
(C) Sphigomyelinase
(D) N-Acetylneuraminidase
(E) Fucosidase

05. The defective enzyme is normally located in which of the following cellular organelles of this patient?
(A) Plasma membrane
(B) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(C) Mitochondrial matrix
(D) Nucleoplasm
(E) Lysosomes

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06. During her 24 hrs. shift at the hospital a young nurse is unable to have
lunch and dinner. Nevertheless her blood glucose levels are normal.
Which of the following hormones is responsible for helping to maintain
normoglycemia by releasing free glucose from hepatic storages?

(A) Progesterone
(B) Insulin
(C) Glucagon
(D) Somatostatin
(E) Cortisol

07. Which of the following occur during the mitochondrial electron transport chain for
the generation of ATP by oxidative phosphorylation?

(A) ubiquinone can be reduced by both complex I and complex II


(B) cytochrome c is directly reduced by cytochrome oxidase
(C) FMN exhibits a more electropositive redox potential than O2
(D) cytochrome c is part of complex I
(E) none of the above is correct

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His mother presents a 2-year-old boy to the pediatrician. The patient exhibits darkening
of tendons and cartilage and urinalysis reveal the presence of Homogentisic acid.
Genetic analysis reveals decreased activity of Homogentisic acid oxidase.

08. The most likely diagnosis is

(A) methylmalonic aciduria


(B) alkaptonuria
(C) homocystinuria
(D) Hartnup’s disease
(E) Phenylketonuria

09. Ingestion of protein rich in which of the following amino acids would be expected to
increase the excretion of Homogentisic acid in this young patient?

(A) Cysteine
(B) Methionine
(C) Histidine
(D) Homoserine
(E) Tyrosine

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10. During a hunting trip in Congo-Brazzaville, Mr. Hemmingway fell in a deep ravine
breaking his left leg. He spent two days with no food or water, trying to get out of the
ravine. Potential sources of blood glucose during the early starvation period includes
all of the following EXCEPT

(A) hepatic glycogenolysis


(B) lactate from muscle
(C) hepatic oxaloacetate
(D) glycerol from adipocytes
(E) muscle glycogenolysis

11. Activation of lipoprotein lipase by Apoprotein CII (apoCII) results in enzymatic attack
of which of the following lipoproteins?

(A) LDL and HDL


(B) LDL and VLDL
(C) HDL and IDL
(D) IDL and LDL
(E) Chylomicrons and VLDL

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12. Some w-3 fatty acid present in salmon oil such as Docosahexaenoic acid (22:6w3)
decreases both VLDL and triglycerides plasma levels. Taking into account the energy
required for initial activation, the number of high energy phosphate bonds produced
upon its complete oxidation is
(A) 268
(B) 198
(C) 168
(D) 128
(E) can’t be calculated from the given data

13. Concerning cholesterol, which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) It’s the metabolic precursor of both testosterone and progesterone


(B) It’s an important constituent of red blood cell plasma membrane
(C) It’s an intracellular allosteric effector of HMG~SCoA Reductase activity
(D) It’s a normal component of hepatic bile
(E) It’s synthesized in the liver from cholic acid

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14. A newborn baby boy is afflicted with a rare form of phenylketonuria. The enzyme
activity of phenylalanine hydroxylase is normal. His condition is caused by a
deficiency in the enzyme that regenerates the cofactor required by the enzyme
phenylalanine hydroxylase to make tyrosine. What is the activity of this defective
enzyme?

(A) Tyrosine hydroxylase


(B) Tyrosinase
(C) Dihydrobiopterin reductase
(D) DOPA decarboxylase
(E) Dihydrofolate reductase

15. A 18 years-old patient presents with painless splenohepatomegaly and anemia.


Because pathological and genetical antecedents of this patient's family the resident
suspects Gaucher's disease. A tentative diagnosis may be established by
measuring the leukocyte levels of which of the following enzymes?
(A) Ceramidase
(B) b-Galactosidase
(C) b-Glucosidase (Glucocerebrosidase)
(D) Hexosaminidase A
(E) Sphingomyelinase

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An American tourist and her sister take a trip to Ethiopia to spend their summer vacation.
They both drink from the local water supply, and shortly thereafter both begin to pass
copious watery stools almost hourly. Vomiting follows and they are admitted to a local
hospital. The physician in charge starts rehydration therapy.

16. After bacteriological analysis of stools, which of the following is most


likely to be the identified bacteria which toxin is affecting the patients?

(A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae


(B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(D) Candida albicans
(E) Vibrio cholerae

17. After molecular analysis of intestinal cells, activity of which of the following proteins is
most likely to be inhibited upon NAD+ dependent ADP-ribosylation in both patients?

(A) a subunits of Insulin receptor


(B) a subunit of Gs protein
(C) b subunit of Na+,K+-ATPase
(D) regulatory subunits of Protein Kinase A
(E) b-subunit of Gi protein

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18. If a patient is afflicted with a congenital condition characterized by impaired the
ability to synthesize apoB-48, which of the following would be most likely to
occur?

(A) There would be an elevated blood chylomicron concentration


(B) There would be an elevated blood VLDL concentration
(C) Lipid droplets would accumulate within the endoplasmic reticulum of intestinal
cells after a fatty meal
(D) Hepatic LDL secretion would be dramatically impaired
(E) An increased number of hepatic LDL receptors

19. If radiolabeled [32P]ATP at the terminal gamma (g) phosphate group is injected to
a
rat, which of the following molecules subsequently isolated from hepatocytes is
the least likely to exhibit the radiolabel?

(A) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
(B) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
(C) 3’,5’-cAMP
(D) Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP)
(E) Glucose-6-P

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Directions: Match the lettered molecules which biological activity
is most likely to be inhibited by the respective numbered inhibitor.
Each lettered heading may be selected once, more than once, or
not at all.

(A) cAMP phosphodiesterase


(B) 5-Lipoxigenase (5-LOX)
(C) cGMP phosphodiesterase 5
(D) Hydroxymethylglutaryl~SCoA Reductase
(E) Mitochondrial ADP/ATP translocator

20. Zileuton (B)

21. Simvastatin (Zocor) (D)

22. Sildenafil (Viagra) (C)

23. Caffeine (A)

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A 6-month-old baby boy began to vomit and ceased to gain weight. He became
habitually drowsy and had hyperthermia and increased pulse rate. An
electroencephalogram showed abnormalities and clinical analysis revealed abnormal
amounts of glutamine and ammonia in blood

24. What metabolic pathway is most likely to be impaired, leading to hyperammonemia


and glutaminemia in this patient?

(A) Ketogenesis
(B) De novo synthesis of purines
(C) Synthesis of urea
(D) Transamination of amino acids and gluconeogenesis
(E) Catabolism of purines

25. The most likely enzyme deficiency afflicting this young patient is

(A) Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)


(B) Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
(C) Glutaminase
(D) Carbamoylphosphate synthetase I
(E) L-amino acid oxidase

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26. Which of the following statements about phenylketonuria (PKU) is correct?

(A) The diagnosis relies on the presence of tyrosine in the blood


(B) Newborn screening must occur before the infant has ingested protein
(C) Hyperphenylalaninemia and the presence of phenylpyruvate in the urine are
observed
(D) Treatment involves a diet that is void of protein
(E) Treatment involves a diet that is void of phenylalanine

27. Hemolytic anemia induced by antimalarial drugs such as Pamaquine is associated


with deficiency of
(A) Glucokinase
(B) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(C) Glucose-6-P dehydrogenase
(D) Phosphoglucomutase
(E) Phosphohexose isomerase

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28. The pentose phosphate pathway in the erythrocyte is considered to be an
important source of which of the following?

(A) Acetyl~SCoA for oxidation in TCA cycle


(B) NADPH for the reduction of oxidized glutathione (GSSG)
(C) reducing power as NADH to feed the respiratory chain
(D) CO2 for carboxylation of pyruvate
(E) Succinyl~SCoA for the synthesis of the Heme group

29. During the mitochondrial electron transport chain, the heme portion of cytochrome
molecules are able to transfer electrons among themselves because of its redox
potential E°’(v). Which of the following exhibits the most electropositive redox
potential and consequently the highest affinity for electrons?

(A) Fe.S proteins


(B) Cytochrome b
(C) Cytochrome c1
(D) Cytochrome c
(E) Cytochrome a3

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Directions: Match the numbered biomolecules with the lettered metabolic
precursor or component most likely to be associated. Each lettered heading
may be selected once, more than once, or not at all.

(A) Tryptophan
(B) Glutamic acid
(C) Glutamine
(D) Tyrosine
(E) Serine

30. Melatonin (A)

31. g-aminobutyrate (GABA) (B)

32. Epinephrine (D)

33. Serotonin (A)

34. Purine ring (C)

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Directions: For each numbered clinical condition, select the lettered laboratory
finding or clinical sign most likely to be used as a diagnostic tool.

(A) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome


(B) Hyperchilomicronemia
(C) Diabetes mellitus type I
(D) Von Gierke's disease
(E) Diabetes mellitus type II

35. The plasma obtained from the blood of this patient, allowed to stand, will exhibit a
surface creamy layer. Eruptive xanthomas are present. Enzyme analysis reveals
low activity of lipoprotein lipase. (B)

36. This patient presents with hepatomegaly, ketosis and fasting hypoglycemia.
Enzyme analysis reveals low levels of hepatic glucose-6-phosphatase (D)

37. This 25-year-old female untreated patient presents with hyperglycemia,


ketoacidosis and increased plasma levels of glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) (C)

38. This 12-year-old male patient presents with hyperuricemia, mental retardation,
aggressive behavior and uncoordinated movements (A)

39. This 48-year-old obese patient presents with hyperglycemia, that responds to a
dietary approach and hypoglycemic drugs (E)

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40. Healthy volunteers are given a solution containing glucose radiolabeled
at C2 . The liver initially takes glucose and incorporates it to glycolysis.
Which of the following glycolytic intermediates will be the very first to
show the radiolabel in carbon 2’?

(A) Pyruvate
(B) Phosphoenol pyruvate
(C) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(D) Glyceraldehyde-3-phospahate
(E) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate

41. Fatty acids are major fuels for animals and may be oxidized by several metabolic
processes. Concerning the b-oxidation of fatty acids, which of the following
statements is NOT correct?

(A) oxidation of unsaturated fatty acids produces more NADH than produces FADH2

(B) oxidation of palmitate (16:0) yields 8 molecules of Acetyl~SCoA


(C) oxidation of palmitate yields more NADH than oxidation of arachidonate (20:4w6)
(D) activation of fatty acids prior to oxidation requires the expenditure to two high
energy bonds as ATP
(E) oxidation of fatty acids is a mitochondrial metabolic process

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A 28-year-old overweight student of African folklore is admitted to the emergency room
complaining of nausea, malaise and palpitations. A physical exam reveals flushed,
sweaty, hot skin, tachycardia, rapid respiration and a body temperature of 105.8°F.
Upon questioning, he admits taking a “purely natural” weight reduction supplement
obtained from an Internet source.

42. The active ingredient of that supplement is most likely

(A) 2,4-Dinitrophenol
(B) Atractyloside
(C) Azide
(D) Rotenone
(E) Oligomycin

43. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of this drug?

(A) It covalently binds to iron-sulfur clusters


(B) It enhances ATP synthase activity
(C) It binds OSCP and thus inhibits ATP synthase
(D) It dissipates the proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane
(E) It inhibits the antiport nucleotide translocator system ATP/ADP

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44. A 24-years-old mountain climber is stranded for a week without food supplies
before being rescued. On medical evaluation, he has high plasma concentration of
ketone bodies. Which of the following cannot use ketone bodies as a source of
energy?

(A) skeletal muscle


(B) heart muscle
(C) erythrocytes
(D) brain tissue
(E) renal tissue

45. The phosphate ion (PO43-) is a highly regulated ion that constitutes about 1%
of the body mass. It can be found in the body as a free phosphate ion or as a
phosphoester of sugars. Which of the following enzymes incorporates an
inorganic phosphate (Pi) to an hexose to form a phosphoester derivative?

(A) Phosphohexose isomerase


(B) Glycogen synthase
(C) Glycogen phosphorylase
(D) Hexokinase
(E) Pyruvate kinase

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46. In 1978, P.D. Mitchell was awarded with the Nobel Prize for his discovery of the
chemiosmotic mechanism of ATP synthesis. The term oxidative phosphorylation
refers to a process which

(A) ATP energy is used to drive protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane

(B) a proton gradient provides power for electron transfer from substrate to oxygen
(C) ATP energy supplies power for the transfer of electrons from substrate to oxygen
(D) electron transfer from substrate to oxygen provides energy to create a proton
gradient, which then powers synthesis of ATP
(E) phosphorylation of FAD creates a pH gradient across the inner mitochondrial
membrane

47. Which of the following reactions is impaired in a patient diagnosed with


von Gierke’s disease ?

(A) Glucose + ATP Glucose-6-P + ADP


(B) Glucose-6-P + H2O Glucose + Pi
(C) Glucose-1-P + UTP UDP-Glucose + 2Pi
(D) Glycogen + Pi Glucose-1-P
(E) UDP-Glucose + Glycogen primer Glycogen + UDP

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Cultured fibroblasts taken from a 12-years-old boy suffering from peripheral neuropathy, cerebral
ataxia and seizures show an impaired ability to oxidized Phytanic acid and very long chain fatty
acids. Analysis of the cerebrospinal fluid reveals elevated protein levels.

48. Based on the clinical picture and laboratory analysis, this patient is afflicted with
which of the following conditions?
(A) Primary carnitine deficiency
(B) Refsum’s disease
(C) Short-chain Acyl~SCoA dehydrogenase deficiency
(D) Pompe’s disease
(E) McArdle disease

49. An enzyme involved in which of the following metabolic pathways is most likely to be
defective in this patient?
(A) b-Oxidation of short chain fatty acids
(B) Peroxisomal a-oxidation of branched long chain fatty acids
(C) w-oxidation of odd-chain fatty acids
(D) Activation of fatty acids to Fattyacyl~SCoA
(E) Isomerization of Methylmalonyl~SCoA to Succinyl~SCoA

50. Which of the following enzymes is most likely to be deficient in this patient?
(A) Fatty acyl-CoA synthetase
(B) Fatty acyl-CoA dehydrogenase
(C) Enoyl-CoA hydratase
(D) b-Ketoacyl-CoA thiolase
(E) Phytanoyl-CoA hydroxylase

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51. Among the many molecules of high-energy phosphate (~P) compounds formed
as a result of the functioning of the citric acid cycle, one molecule is synthesized
at the substrate level. In which of the following reactions does this occur?

(A) Citrate a-ketoglutarate


(B) Citrate Isocitrate
(C) Succinate fumarate
(D) Fumarate malate
(E) Succinyl~SCoA succinate

52. In an erythrocyte of a patient with a complete deficiency of Pyruvate Kinase, how


many net moles of ATP are generated in the conversion of one mole of glucose
to one mole of pyruvate through the glycolytic pathway?

(A) zero
(B) one
(C) two
(D) three
(E) Four

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53. A patient afflicted with gastritis is prescribed with an inhibitor of the gastric
H+/K+ATPase such as Omeprazole, making the gastric juice less acidic. Which of
the following digestive enzymes will indirectly reduce its digestive activity?

(A) Carboxypeptidase A
(B) Elastase
(C) Trypsin
(D) Chymotrypsin
(E) Pepsin

54. A hypertensive patient is advised by his cardiologist to take one aspirin per day as
a prophylactic measure that would help to "thin the blood". Aspirin inhibits platelet
activity by

(A) preventing the release of arachidonic acid from membrane phospholipids


(B) acetylation of Cyclooxygenase 1 (COX1), causing irreversible inhibition
(C) acetylation of Lipoxygenase, causing irreversible inhibition
(D) preventing the synthesis of Serotonin from Tryptophan
(E) acting as a prostacyclin analog

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55. Ligands like Epinephrine binds to a1 receptors to stimulate the Phosphatidyl
Inositol Bisphosphate (PIP2) second messenger system. Which of the following
is LEAST LIKELY to be produced from activation of this second messenger
system?

(A) Activation of Gq protein


(B) Activation of Phsopholipase C (PLC)
(C) Production of Inositol-1,4,5 triphosphate (IP3)
(D) Release of Ca++ from endoplasmic reticulum storages
(E) Activation of Adenyl Cyclase (AC)

56. It has been determined in healthy volunteers that the chloride content of
erythrocytes is much lower in arterial blood than in venous blood. Which of the
following integral proteins in the erythrocyte membrane is an anion channel
responsible for the chloride exchange against H2CO3-?
(A) Glycophorin
(B) Band 3 protein
(C) a-Spectrin
(D) Ankyrin
(E) Band 4.1 protein

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57. Which of the following of the TCA cycle is an integral protein of the inner
mitochondrial membrane as a component of the electron transport chain, referred
to as Complex II?

(A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase


(B) a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex
(C) Succinate Thiokinase
(D) Succinate dehydrogenase
(E) Malate dehydrogenase

58. The difference between glycolysis under aerobic and anaerobic conditions is that
anaerobically, the pathway preferentially generates

(A) Acetyl~SCoA
(B) ATP
(C) Succinyl~SCoA
(D) FADH2
(E) Lactate

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59. The mechanism for cyanide poisoning depends on the cellular hypoxia produced by
the formation of an inactive covalent complex of cyanide and

(A) Succinate dehydrogenase (Complex II)


(B) NADH dehydrogenase (Complex I)
(C) Cytochrome oxidase (Complex IV)
(D) ATP synthetase (Complex V)
(E) CoQ-cytochrome c reductase (Complex III)

60. An overweight secretary suffering hypothermia is presented to the emergency room


intoxicated with Dinitrophenol (DNP), an uncoupler of mitochondrial oxidative
phosphorylation that was used once as a weight-reducing drug until its toxicity was
discovered. This drug

(A) covalently binds to iron-sulfur clusters


(B) enhances ATP synthase activity
(C) binds OSCP and thus inhibits ATP synthase
(D) dissipates the proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane
(E) only works in brown adipose tissue

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61. TCA cycle involves a wide variety of enzymes including dehydrogenases, etc.,
The enzymes of the TCA cycle will catalyze all of the following reactions
EXCEPT

(A) Oxidation of Acetyl~SCoA to two moles of CO2


(B) Oxidation of a-ketoglutarate to one mole of CO2 and one mole of
Succinyl~SCoA
(C) Oxidation of Succinate to FADH2 and fumarate
(D) Generation of a mole of GTP for each Acetyl~SCoA oxidized
(E) Generation of 4 moles of CO2 and 2 moles of NADH(H+) for each turn of the
cycle

62. Phosphatidyl inositol (PI) is an important cell membrane component because it

(A) contains two essential fatty acid residues


(B) is the precursor of diacylglycerol and 1,4,5-inositol triphosphate, two very
important second messengers
(C) lacks electric charges
(D) is the most abundant phopholipid in biological membranes
(E) is the precursor of phosphatidyl choline

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Items 63 - 65

Directions: For each lettered component of the mitochondrial electron transport system
(ETS), select the most appropriated numbered description

(A) Complex I
(B) Complex II
(C) Complex III
(D) Complex IV
(E) Coenzyme Q

63. This complex contains bound copper atoms and has a heme group that reacts with
molecular oxygen to produce metabolic water (H2OM) (D)

64. It’s an inner mitochondrial membrane-bound integral flavoenzyme which cofactor is


FAD (B)

65. A small lipophilic component of the electron transport system that can be directly
reduced by both complex I and complex II (E)

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74. The second messenger 3', 5-cAMP

(A) it combines with the catalytic subunits of a cAMP-dependent protein kinase A


(B) It is the product of adenylate cyclase activity acting on ATP
(C) Phosphorylates and thereby activates Gs proteins
(D) is degraded to 5'AMP by adenylate cyclase in a reversible reaction
(E) None of the above are correct

75. If [14C]oxaloacetate radiolabeled in all four carbons is condensed with unlabeled


Acetyl~SCoA, what percentage of the radiolabeled carbons will be present in
the Succinyl~CoA produced during the first turn of the TCA cycle?

(A) 0%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 75%
(E) 100%

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76. Which of the following is least likely to occur during specific steps of the TCA
cycle as described below

(A) NAD+ is the last electron acceptor during the oxidative decarboxylation of

a-Ketoglutarate to generate Succinyl~CoA


(B) Oxaloacetate is formed upon condensation of two molecules of Acetyl~SCoA

(C) Two moles of CO2 are released by the oxidation of one mole of Acetyl~SCoA
(D) FAD is required for the formation of fumarate from succinate
(E) GTP is formed during the cycle upon substrate level phosphorylation

77. Protein Kinases

(A) transfer a phosphate group from one protein to another


(B) require AMP as a substrate
(C) use Thr, Ser or Tyr as the acceptor group phosphate transfer
(D) transfer the a-phosphate atom of ATP
(E) are located on the external face of cells

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Items 98 – 99

A 15- year-old girl is presented to the medical center complaining of excessive fatigue that
prevents her participation in gym class. The internist finds muscle weakness in both of her
arms and legs. Laboratory exams show increased serum triglycerides esterified with long-
chain fatty acids and borderline low glucose levels. A muscle biopsy shows increased
numbers of lipid vacuoles.

98. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Lipoprotein lipase deficiency


(B) LDL receptor deficiency
(C) Carnitine deficiency
(D) Fatty acid synthetase complex deficiency
(E) Biotin deficiency

99. Because of the metabolic deficiency, which of the follwing pathways is defective in
this patient

(A) Intestinal absorption of glucose


(B) Transport of long-chain fatty acids across the inner mitochondrial membrane
(C) Intestinal absorption of Cobalamin
(D) Intestinal synthesis of chylomicrons
(E) Intestinal absorption of neutral amino acids

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100. A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic because of a painful ulcer on his
penis for the past week. He has had multiple sexual partners, including
commercial sex workers. Physical examination shows lymphadenopathy
in the inguinal region and a 1-cm tender ulcer with no induration located
on the frenulum. A culture of the ulcer grows colonies on supplemented
chocolate agar. A Gram stain of the colonies shows Gram-negative
Coccobacilli. The patient is treated with a single doses of the
fluoroquinolone Cipro XR 500 (Ciprofloxacin). Which of the following is
the mechanism of action of Fluoroquinolones?

(A) Binds to and intercalate between DNA Template G-C base pairs
(B) Delete purine nucleotides during DNA replication
(C) Inhibit DNA gyrase during DNA replication (*)
(D) Inhibit bacterial cell-wall synthesis binding to peptidoglycan
transpeptidase
(E) Interfere with attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA to mRNA-ribosome
complex

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Take it easy, I’m working on more Qs!!!

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2nd Semester Sample Questions of
Biochemistry

Cuauhtémoc Lozano-De La Rosa, QFB, RB


Dept. of Biochemistry and Molecular Biology
International Program, School of Medicine
cuauhtemoc.lozano@mail.uag.mx

UAG 2017

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2nd Semester Biochemistry Sample Questions
Items 01 - 03

Directions: Match the lettered blood clotting factors with the numbered
features more likely to be associated. Each letter heading may be selected
once, more than once, or not at all.

(A) Fibrinogen (Factor I)


(B) Prothrombin (Factor II)
(C) Factor IXa
(D) Factor VIIa
(E) Factor XIIIa

01. This factor exhibits transglutaminase activity that stabilizes the fibrin polymer
by cross-linking specific lysine residues between fibrin monomers (E)

02. This factor is a substrate for Thrombin (Factor IIa). The product then
polymerizes to form a soluble clot (A)

03. This factor binds and activates platelet’s glycoproteins GPIIb/IIIa to promote
platelet aggregation (A)

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04. Which of the following group of eicosanoids are the components of the so called
Slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis (SRS-A), involved in allergic reactions?

(A) LTC4, LTD4 and LTE4


(B) PGE2, PGF2 and PGI2
(C) 5-HETE, 12-HETE and 15-HETE
(D) 19-HETE and 20-HETE
(E) TXA1, TXA2 and TXB2

05. Several of the blood clotting factors are synthesized as inactive precursors
referred to as zymogens. Those zymogens are converted into active clotting
factors by which of the following mechanisms?

(A) Limited proteolysis


(B) decarboxylation of the side chain of glutamic acid residues
(C) Phosphorylation of tyrosine residues
(D) Glycosylation of threonine residues
(E) Hydroxylation of lysine residues

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06. A 15-year-old boy is seen for bruises on his hips and forearms owed to capillary
fragility. Vitamin C deficiency is diagnosed. The most likely cause of the
bruising is a defective synthesis of

(A) Collagen
(B) Glycogen
(C) Hemoglobin
(D) Blood clotting factors
(E) Glycosaminoglycans

07. A 73-year-old homeless alcoholic man was found on the railroads tracks passed
out. Under physical examination, he presented a distended abdomen that is
equivalent in size to a full-term pregnant woman’s belly (ascites). Defective
hepatic synthesis of which of the following plasma proteins causes this finding?

(A) Albumin
(B) Ceruloplasmin
(C) Fetprotein
(D) Chylomicrons
(E) IgG

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08. Treatment of inflammatory conditions such as arthritis requires the
prescription of analgesic and anti-inflammatory drugs. Both Aspirin (ASA)
and Indomethacin block eicosanoids formation from arachidonate by
irreversible inhibition of

(A) Glutathione peroxidase


(B) Cyclooxygenase (COX-1)
(C) 5-Lipooxygenase (LOX)
(D) Phospholipase A2
(E) Phospholipase C

09. In order to keep intravascular fluidity, Thrombomodulin and Thrombin activates


Protein C that in the presence of Protein S degrade

(A) extrinsic factors


(B) fibrin clots
(C) factors XIIa and XIIIa
(D) Antithrombin III
(E) factors Va and VIIIa

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10. a-Tocopherol is the most active form of vitamin E. This vitamin

(A) it is structurally considered to be a secosteroid molecule


(B) its dietary deficiency leads to night blindness
(C) it is synthesized upon UV irradiation of a specific provitamin
(D) it functions as a free radical scavenger preventing lipid
peroxidation *
(E) it functions as a structural component of retinal photoreceptors

11. During blood coagulation, the intrinsic and the extrinsic pathways
converge at the tep involving the conversion of

(A) prothrombin to thrombin


(B) plasminogen to plasmin
(C) fibrinogen to fibrin
(D) factor X to factor Xa
(E) factor XIII to factor XIIIa

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12. Molecular analysis of DNA from a patient afflicted with Marfan syndrome
is most likely to exibit a mutation affecting the gene(s) of which of the
following proteins?
(A) Fibrillin
(B) light chains of myosin
(C) Hemoglobin
(D) Chain A of insulin
(E) Type I procollagen
13. A patient is diagnosed with Ehler-Danlos syndrome and the diagnostic is
then confirmed by Southern blot analysis of DNA. Mutation(s) of which
of the following genes is more likely to be detected?
(A) gene for a-globin chains
(B) gene for insulin
(C) gene(s) for type I procollagen
(D) genes for light immunoglobulin G (IgG) chains
(E) gene for myoglobin

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14. A homless malnourished 74-year-old man is diagnosed with vitamin C deficiency.
The nutritional deficiency afflicting this patient would impair the activity of which
of the following enzymes involved in procollagen synthesis?

(A) Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)


(B) Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH)
(C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH)
(D) Creatine Kinase (CK)
(E) Lysyl Hydroxylase

15. Patients afflicted with Amyothrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS, Lou Gerhig's Disease)
present with progressive motor neuron degeneration. This condition is
associated with a missense mutation in the gene for the antioxidant enzyme

(A) glutathione reductase


(B) glutathione peroxidase
(C) catalase
(D) Cu/Zn-superoxide dismutase (Cu/Zn-SOD)
(E) nitric oxide synthase

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/Sample%20Qs.ppt?token=AWxdFbAAYNzdDAnyiUVbhGT…gKMHwXTGHZ69oToBATDD_ECKLSA6GvJE5QiXCqUYth5s0UFIOX9p_zON_kbRYMpA46nA 2/19/18, 5c53 PM


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16. Nitric oxide (.N=O) is a reactive nitrogen specie (RNS) that acting as a second
messenger

(A) raises the blood pressure by vasoconstriction


(B) enhances blood clotting by activating 4Ca++-Calmodulin
(C) activates Guanylate cyclase, which increases cGMP levels causing
vasodilation
(D) activates cAMP Phosphodiesterase, which decreases cAMP levels
(E) inhibits Protein Kinase C

17. Vitamin K (from German: Koagulationsvitamin) plays an essential role in

(A) Preventing thrombosis by decreasing platelet aggregation


(B) The posttranslational modificaction of Prothrombin (II) and
Proconvertin (VII)
(C) Maintaining endotelium integrity of capillary vesels
(D) Preventing peroxidation of phospholipids in platelets membrane
(E) Inhibiting Thromboxane synthesis

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18. Concerning blood coagulation, which of the following statements is correct?

(A) The extrinsic pathway involves the activation of High Molecular Weight
Kininogen (HMWK) upon contact with collagen
(B) The intrinsic pathway involves Tissue factor (III) released by platelets
(C) Activated Protein C in the presence of Protein S degrades Factors Xa and
XIIa to keep intravascular blood fluidity
(D) Fibrinogen is a substrate for Thrombin at the common pathway

(E) Factor IV functions as a serine protease at several steps of coagulation

Questions 19 - 20

(A) Warfarin
(B) Heparin
(C) Both
(D) Neither

19. Inhibit(s) blood coagulation in vitro (C)

20. Inhibit(s) platelet Cyclo-oxygenase (D)

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•Items 21 – 23

Directions: For each numbered inhibitor, select the lettered affected function

21. Zeiluton (D)

22. Zafirlukast (E)

23. Prednisone (A)

(A) An Inhibitor of Phosphodiesterase A2 blocking the release of Arachidonate


from membrane phospholipids
(B) An inhibitor of both Cyclooxygenase-1 and Cyclooxynase-2 required for the
synthesis of PGG2
(C) A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug inhibitor of the Vitamin K cycle
(D) An inhibitor of 5-Lipooxigenase and FLAP required for the synthesis of
Leukotrienes
(E) A selective antagonist of Leukotriene receptors

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Items 24 - 26

Directions: Match the lettered blood clotting factors with the numbered features
more likely to be associated. Each letter heading may be selected once, more than
once, or not at all.

(A) Fibrinogen (Factor I)


(B) Proaccelerin (Factor V)
(C) Factor IV
(D) Factor VIIa
(E) Plasmin

24. This factor functions as an ionic enzyme cofactor at several steps of the coagulation
cascade, binding to phospholipid surfaces (C)

25. This is an extrinsic pathway factor that contains several gamma-glutamate (Gla)
residues as a result of co-tranlationally vitamin K-dependent carboxylation reactions
(D)
26. The function of this protein is the degradation of fibrin clots. It is a serine protease
that circulates as the inactive zymogen (E)

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Items 27 - 28

A 36-year-old taxi driver is jaundiced and presents with cough, sputum production
and dyspnea under strenuous exertion. He stopped smoking tobacco a year ago
because a history of chronic bronchitis and progressive shortness of breath and
hypertension. A microscopic analysis for acid-alcohol resistant bacilli (BAAR) was
negative

27. Based in the clinical picture, your most likely diagnosis is

(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Emphysema
(C) Whooping cough
(D) Silicosis
(E) Athsma

28. Molecular analysis of which of the following genes is most likely to show a
mutation Glu342Lys at chromosome 14 and the consequent deficiency of the
coded protein?

(A) Fibrillin gene


(B) Elastase gene
(C) Trypsin gene
(D) a 1-Antitrypsin gene
(E) a-Procollagen gene

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/Sample%20Qs.ppt?token=AWxdFbAAYNzdDAnyiUVbhGT…gKMHwXTGHZ69oToBATDD_ECKLSA6GvJE5QiXCqUYth5s0UFIOX9p_zON_kbRYMpA46nA 2/19/18, 5c53 PM


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29. Christmas factor (Factor IX) is an intrinsic vitamin K-dependent blood
clotting factor that requires which of the following post-translational
modifications?

(A) phosphorylation of a specific serine residue


(B) formation of pyroglutamate at the amino terminal residue
(C) gamma-carboxylation of specific glutamate residues an the
protein N-termini
(D) addition of Pyridoxal phosphate as prosthetic group
(E) acetylating specific lysine residues

30. Which of the following groups of molecules prevents the deleterious effects of
oxygen and reactive oxygen species (ROS) causing peroxidation of unsaturated
fatty acids?

(A) vitamin D, thiamine and calcium


(B) vitamin E, glutathione, and selenium
(C) vitamin A, riboflavin, and selenium
(D) vitamin K, heparin, and calcium
(E) vitamin C, biotin, and lithium

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31. A nutritionist is evaluating the effects of an essential fatty acids-free diet. The
absence of arachidonic acid (20:4w6) would impair the synthesis of

(A) Cholesterol
(B) Triacylglycerides
(C) Eicosanoids
(D) Sphingolipids
(E) Glycerophosphatides

32. Aspirin, actually Acetylsalicylate (ASA) is one of the most commonly used
analgesic and cardio protective drugs. This drug

(A) potentiates collagen-mediated platelet aggregation


(B) combines with platelet serotonin storage granules
(C) blocks the physical interaction between platelets and thrombin
(D) Acetylates and thus inhibits adenylate cyclase
(E) Inhibits the synthesis of prostaglandins from arachidonate upon
irreversible acetylation of cyclooxygenase I (COX-I)

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33. A 50-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain, low grade fever,
tachycardia, and mild hypotension. He relates a history of moderate to heavy
social drinking. The resident suspects acute pancreatitis. Confirmation of the
clinical diagnosis of acute pancreatitis would be

(A) fasting hyperglycemia


(B) increased serum alkaline phosphatase
(C) increased serum amylase
(D) decreased aspartate aminotransferase (AST) plasma levels
(E) low cholesterol plasma levels

34. Which of the following is a necessary component of the glutathione peroxidase-


glutathione reductase system to prevent deleterious effects of fatty acid
peroxidation in biological membranes?

(A) Copper
(B) Chromium
(C) Fluoride
(D) Magnesium
(E) Selenium

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/Sample%20Qs.ppt?token=AWxdFbAAYNzdDAnyiUVbhGT…gKMHwXTGHZ69oToBATDD_ECKLSA6GvJE5QiXCqUYth5s0UFIOX9p_zON_kbRYMpA46nA 2/19/18, 5c53 PM


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35. Which of the following amino acid residues are found in collagen
structure and form key cross links for fiber stabilization upon the action
of Factor XIIIa?
(A) Phenylalanine
(B) Proline
(C) Hydroxyproline
(D) Glycine
(E) Lysine

36 Deficiency of vitamin C results in defective collagen synthesis because


vitamin C

(A) activates collagenase that degrades procollagen chains


(B) together with Fe participates as a cofactor in hydroxylation of lysine
and proline residues *
(C) participates in glycosylation of hydroxylysine residues
(D) decreases activity of lysyl oxidase
(E) promotes the removal of N and C terminal propeptides from
procollagen molecules

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/Sample%20Qs.ppt?token=AWxdFbAAYNzdDAnyiUVbhGT…gKMHwXTGHZ69oToBATDD_ECKLSA6GvJE5QiXCqUYth5s0UFIOX9p_zON_kbRYMpA46nA 2/19/18, 5c53 PM


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37. Extrinsic blood clotting pathway starts with the activation of which of the following
factors in the presence of Tissue Factor (Factor III)

(A) factor VII


(B) factor XII
(C) factor X
(D) conversion of protrhrombin to thrombin
(E) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

38. Collagen isolated from the fontanel of new born rats is completely hydrolyzed and
the hydrolysate submitted to ion-exchange chromatography to know amino acid
composition. The amino acid whose peak exhibits the largest area under the peak
and consequently the greatest concentration in collagen is

(A) N-methyllysine
(B) hydroxylysine
(C) 4-hydroxyproline
(D) proline
(E) glycine

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/Sample%20Qs.ppt?token=AWxdFbAAYNzdDAnyiUVbhGT…gKMHwXTGHZ69oToBATDD_ECKLSA6GvJE5QiXCqUYth5s0UFIOX9p_zON_kbRYMpA46nA 2/19/18, 5c53 PM


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39. A 35.year-old man working in a circus as a contortionist presents to your office
because of poor wound healing. Physical examination reveals hyperextensible skin,
hypermobile joints, large vessel fragility, and vulnerability to retinal detachment. The
most likely diagnosis is

(A) Rickets
(B) Down syndrome
(C) Alzheimer's disease
(D) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
(E) Ehler-Danlos syndrome

40. During the formation of a blood clot?

(A) proteolysis of gamma-carboxyglutamate (Gla) residuessfrom fibrinogen


to form fibrin is required
(B) the clot is stabilized by the covalent cross-linking of fibrin molecules by
the action of factor XIIIa
(C) tissue factor (III) must be inactivated for the process clotting to begin
(D) intrinsic clotting factors are released from injured tissues
(E) vitamin K is released from injured tissues in order to activate
prothrombin

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/Sample%20Qs.ppt?token=AWxdFbAAYNzdDAnyiUVbhGT…gKMHwXTGHZ69oToBATDD_ECKLSA6GvJE5QiXCqUYth5s0UFIOX9p_zON_kbRYMpA46nA 2/19/18, 5c53 PM


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41. A 15-year-old girl limits her diet to carrots, tomatoes, green vegetables,
bread, pasta, rice, and skim milk. She has an increased risk for vitamin A
deficiency because its absorption requires the presence of which of the
following?

(A) Heme
(B) Intrinsic factor
(C) Phosphatidylcholine
(D) Protein
(E) Triglyceride *

42. Failure to bind LDL to its receptor results in uncontrolled synthesis of


cholesterol. This occurs because synthesis of which of the following
enzymes is not repressed?

(A) Acyl CoA cholesterol acyltransferase


(B) 3-Hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl (HMG)-
CoA reductase *
(C) Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase
(D) Lipoprotein lipase
(E) Lysosomal protease

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/Sample%20Qs.ppt?token=AWxdFbAAYNzdDAnyiUVbhGT…gKMHwXTGHZ69oToBATDD_ECKLSA6GvJE5QiXCqUYth5s0UFIOX9p_zON_kbRYMpA46nA 2/19/18, 5c53 PM


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43. A 66-year-old man with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome undergoes a
gastrectomy. He will require treatment with intramuscular vitamin B12
(Cyanocobalamin) for the rest of his life. This therapy is necessary
because this patient lacks which of the following types of cells?

(A) Chief
(B) G (gastrin)
(C) Goblet
(D) Mucous neck
(E) Parietal *

44. A chronic alcoholic develops severe memory loss with marked


confabulation. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins would be
most likely to contribute to the neurologic damage underlying these
symptoms?

(A) Folic acid


(B) Niacin
(C) Riboflavin
(D) Thiamine
(E) Vitamin B12

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/Sample%20Qs.ppt?token=AWxdFbAAYNzdDAnyiUVbhGT…gKMHwXTGHZ69oToBATDD_ECKLSA6GvJE5QiXCqUYth5s0UFIOX9p_zON_kbRYMpA46nA 2/19/18, 5c53 PM


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Items 45 – 46

A 2-week-old baby boy is presented to the emergency room by his parents.


They were fearful that their baby accidentally ingested a poison because they
noticed a black discoloration in the diapers where the urine had collected, a
couple of hours after they removed the diapers

45. What is the more likely diagnosis?

(A) Alkaptonuria
(B) Hartnup’s disease
(C) Joseph’s syndrome
(D) Cystinuria
(E) Phenylketonuria

46. Which of the following amino acid pathway is defective in this patient

(A) Branched side-chain amino acids (Val, Leu and Ile)


(B) Sulfide amino acids (Cys and Met)
(C) Imino acids (Pro)
(D) Aromatic amino acids ( Phe and Tyr)
(E) Basic amino acids (Arg and Lys)

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47. A 5-year-old Egyptian boy receives a sulfonamide antibiotic as
prophylaxis
for recurrent urinary tract infections. Which of the following is the most
likely mechanism of action of sulfonamides?

(A) It inhibits bacterial peptidyl transferase activity


(B) It ADP-ribosylates bacterial EF-Tu during elongation
(C) It inhibits Dihydrofolate reductase acting as a Folate analog
(D) It inhibits Folate synthesis acting as a PABA analog
(E) It inhibits protein synthesis acting as a Tyr-tRNA analog

48.

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Take it easy. I’m constructing more Qs !!!

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