Final Exam - MD2140E Virology, mycology and parasitology

Version 3

Closed Question – 0.4 point, total: 20 points; True / False – 0.25 point, total: 10 points;
Missing words – 0.4 point, total: 10 points. Total score – 40 points

1. Which of the following is NOT true regarding viruses ?

A) May contain DNA, RNA, Single, or Double-
stranded
B) All are obligate intracellular parasites
C) All have a protein capsid and envelope
D) Release virions during cell lysis or budding
E) All are true

2. An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?

A) penetration; B) adsorption; C) uncoating; D) biosynthesis; E) release

3. Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion to classify viruses?

A) biochemical tests ; B) morphology; C) nucleic acid; D) size
E) number of capsomers

4. A common polyhedral capsid shape of viruses is a :

A) Pentagon; B) Cube; C) Icosahedron ; D) Pyramid; E) Sphere

5. What types of viruses contain the enzyme lysozyme to aid in their infection?
A) Bacteriophage ; B) Animal Viruses; C) Plant Viruses;
D) Fungal Viruses ; E) Human Viruses

6. Which of the following is not an DNA virus?

A)Herpesvirus ; B)Poxvirus ; C)Papillomavirus
D)Adenovirus E)Rubella virus

7. The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called

A) transduction; B) budding; C) abduction
D) lysogeny; E) penetration.

8. The mechanism whereby an enveloped virus leaves a host cell is called

A) transduction; B) budding; C) abduction
D) lysogeny; E) penetration

9. Which of the following is not a cytopathic effect of viruses?

A) Cell death ; B) Increased cell growth
D) Inclusion bodies form in the cytoplasm or nucleus
C) Host cells fuse to form multinucleated syncytia
E) None of the above
10. Which adenovirus protein serves as primer for initiation of viral DNA synthesis
A) Fiber; B) Hexon; C)Penton; D,terminal
D)Terminalprtein
protein; E) E1 region protein

11. Which of the following is most likely a product of an early gene?

A) capsid proteins; B) DNA polymerase; C) envelope proteins
D) spike proteins ; E) lysozyme

12. Viruses range by size in length from

A) 10 to 100 nm ; B) 5 to 500 nm ;
C) 20 to 1000 nm: D) 100 to 1000 nm ;

13. What is cell deterioration due to viral infections termed?

A)transformation; B) transduction; C) cytopathic effect ; D) plaque

14. Adenoviridae and Poxviridae are similar by content of :

A) Single-stranded RNA; B) Double-stranded DNA
C) Double-stranded RNA ; D) Single-stranded DNA

15. What cancer can be associated with the Epstein Barr virus (EBV)?
A) Chronic myelogenous leukemia; B) Burkitt's lymphoma
C) Squamous cell carcinoma ; D) Melanoma

16. Naked" viruses lack which of the following?

A)nucleocapsid ; B)envelope; C) DNA; D)RNA; E) Helical capsid

17. What enzyme is responsible for making a DNA copy of the virus genome in a retrovirus?
A)DNA polymerase; B) DNA polymerase II; C) RNA polymerase
D) Reverse transcriptase; E) Reverse polymerase

18. Regarding parvovirus B19, which one of the following statements is most accurate?
A) A vaccine is available that contains killed virus as the immunogen.m
B) Patients infected by parvovirus B19 can be diagnosed in the laboratory
using the cold agglutinin test.
C) Parvovirus B19 causes a severe anemia because it preferentially infects
erythrocyte precursors such as erythroblasts.
D) It commonly infects neutrophils, resulting in an immunodeficiency that
predisposes to infections by pyogenic bacteria.
E) Parvoviruses have a double-stranded DNA genome but require a DNA
polymerase in the virion because they replicate in the cytoplasm.

19. Which of the following is NOT true about Viruses?

A) May have envelope
B) contain DNA or RNA
 D) may contain enzymes for replication
E) have cell walls and have their own metabolism

20. Which of the following is an infectious particle that does not contain nucleic acid?
A)virion particles with some form of nucleic acid; B) all infectious molecules;
C) retroviruses; D)prion; E) viroid

21. Which of the following statements about spikes is FALSE?

A) They are used for attachment to the host cells
B) they are used for nucleic acid replication
C) they are Glycoproteins
D) They are found mainly on enveloped viruses.
E) They may cause hemagglutination

22. Adenoviruses spread by:

A) direct contact; B)respiratory droplets; C) fecal-oral route; D) All of the above

23. Which statement regarding the poxviruses is incorrect?

A)They are the largest and most complex of all the animal viruses;
B) They have the largest genome of all viruses;
C) They multiply in the cytoplasm;
D) They are non-enveloped DNA viruses;
E) Their sites of multiplication within infected cells appear as inclusion bodies

24. Which of the following DNA viruses is not a naked virus?

A)Parvo - Linear, ssDNA; B)Polyoma – circular, dsDNA; C) Papilloma - ciruclar, dsDNA;
D)Adeno - Linear, dsDNA; E) Herpes - Linear, dsDNA

25. Since 2000s the use of oral polio vaccine (OPV) has been replaced by inactivated Polio
vaccine ( IPV) in developing countries. Which of the following is the primary reason ?
A) It is more cost effective to use inactivated vaccine;
B) There is a greater risk of vaccine –induced disease then wild virus-induced disease in the
areas where the poliovirus is not endemic or has been eradicated
C) Only a single dose of inactivated vaccine is necessary comnared to to multiple doses of the
oral vaccine
D) Circulating poliovirus strains have changed and live vaccine is no longer available in many
countries

26. Which of the following viruses is not a cause of acute respiratory disease ?
A) Influenza virus; B) Adenovirus; C) Respiratory Syncitial virus;
D) Coronavirus; E) Rotavirus
27. Which signs are commonly present in a patient with measles except
A)Fever ; B)Runny nose and cough; C) Diahhrea
D) Conjunctivitis; E) Macropapular rash spreading from face to extremities

28. What is the incubation period for Hepatitis A ?

A) 15-30 Days; B)15-50 Days; C) Average 90 days; D) 14-180 Days

29. When a patient is HBsAg-negative and anti-HBs-positive, what is the status of his or her
hepatitis B infection?
A)Resolved; B)Chronic carrier; C)Early acute; D)Chronic hepatitis.

30. In the EU countries, medical professionals performing invasive procedures need to be up-to-
date with their immunizations, particularly
A) hepatitis B ; B) hepatitis E ; C) Hepatitis A; D) Hepatitis C

31. Which of following viruses belong to the Flaviviridae

family? A)Yellow fever; B)Dengue Fever;
C)West Nile Fever;
E) Japanese encephailitis virus
F)All of them belong to Flaviviridae
G)None of them belongs to Flavivuridae

32. Which of the following diseases lacks a known arthropod vector?

A)Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
B) West Nile fever; C) Colorado tick Fever
D) St. Louis encephalitis

33. Following virus is known to establish mainly latent infections:

A) Adenovirus ; B) Varicella-zoster virus;
C) Cytomegalovirus; D) Herpes simplex virus; E) All of these

34. Which virus was first described as filterable agent?

A) Hepatitis Virus; B) Tobacco Mosaic Virus ;
C) Cauliflower mossaic virus; D) None of these

35. All the following statements about herpesviruses are true, EXCEPT
A) Infections by herpesviruses are very common
B)Herpesviruses cause a wide variety of diseases.
C) FDA-approved vaccines are available for most herpesviruses.
D) Herpesviruses may persist indefinitely in the host after recovery from acute infection
E) Some herpesvirus diseases are responsive to antiviral therapy

36. What is the best characteristic for Varicella zoster virus

A) will only cause shingles.
B)can develop as a latent disease
 C)can only be transmitted from shingles lesions is considered one of the "highly infectious"
(contagious) herpesviruses.

37. The clinical manifestation of HCV infection are all the following except
A)chronic persistent hepatitis, B) chronic active hepatitis
C) cirrhosis; D) hepatocellular carcinoma; E) All are clinical manifestations of HCV

38. In the summer 10 yr old child was hospitalized with a sore throat with herpangina (vesicular
enanthem) in his mouth and a papulovesicular rash on his hands and feet. What was most
probably the causative agent?
A)Hepatatis A Virus ( HAV); B) Varizella- zoster virus ( VZV)
C) Polioma virus; D) Coxsackie virus B

39. Enteroviruses can cause a wide range of diseases except

A)aseptic meningitis: B) encephalitis; C)maculopapular skin rashes,
D) poliomyelitis; E)myocarditis; F) None is exception

40. The birds are implicated as animal reservoirs for which of the following diseases
A) Japaneese encephalitis; B) Yellow fever;
C)Venezuelan Equine encephalitis; D) Russian spring-summer encephalitis

41. Vaccines are available for a number of arboviral infections. Vaccine against which disease will
be launched in nearest future?
A) Yellow fever; B) Japanese encephalitis;
C)Russian tick born encephalitis; D) Dengue

42. Cancer viruses are classified in several families. Which of the following families contain
cancer viruses with an RNA genome:
A) Adenoviridae; B) Herpesviridae; C) Retroviridae;
D) Papilomaviridae; D) Poxviridae

43. Which pairs doesn’t match

A) Entamoeba histolytica - Amoebic dysentery
B) Giardia Lamblia - Campers diarrhea
C) Leishmaania donovani – neural disorders
D) Toxoplasma gondii- toxoplasmosis
E) Plasmodium species - Malaria

44. Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE?

A) Fungi are eukaryotic heterotrophs
B) Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.
C) Fungi reproduce by forming asexual or sexual spores.
D) Most fungi grow well in acidic culture condition.
 45. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) dinoflagellates - paralytic shellfish poisoning; B) brown algae - algin
C) red algae - agar D) diatoms - petroleum; E) green algae - prokaryotic
46. Which is the correct order of events for sexual reproduction in fungi?
A)meiosis, plasmogamy, karyogamy
B) plasmogamy, karyogamy, meiosis
C) karyogamy, plasmogamy, meiosis
D) karyogamy, meiosis, plasmogamy

47. The vegetative or growing stage of a protozoan is called

A)merozoite; B)microspore; C )trophozoite; D)sporozoite.

48. All of the following are characteristic of the Platyhelminthes EXCEPT that they
A) are hermaphroditic; B) are flattened.
C) have highly developed digestive and nervous systems.
D) can be divided into flukes and tapeworms.
E) are multicellular animals.

49. Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by

A) respiratory route; B) genitourinary route.
C) gastrointestinal route; D) vectors; E) aerosols.

50. In the exo-erythrocytic phase of infection, Plasmodium invades the

A) Blood cells; B) Heart muscle; C) salivary glands; D, liver

True/ False

51. All enveloped viruses bud through the plasma membrane

A) True B) False
52. The ability of a virus to infect an animal cell depends primarily upon the virion morphology.
A) True B) False
53. During the phage infection and replication bacteriophage derives amino acids and nucleotides from
the host cell
A) True A) False
54. Immunization with tetravaccine is the most reliable mode of influenza prevention
A) True B) False
55.A persistent viral infection is one in which the disease process occurs over a long period.
A) True B) False
56. The rabies virus and herpes simplex virus both are spread by way of nerves
A) True B) false
57. G+C content of the DNA is one of the criterions used in grouping of human adenoviruses
A) True B) False
58. The last naturally occurring case of smallpox occur in 1977 in Somalia.
A) True B) false
59. Flu viruses change constantly that requires a new vaccine to be produced each year
A) True B) False
60. Paramyxoviruses do not undergo Genetic reassortment –they have nin-segmented genome.
A)True B) False
61.The M proteins of paramyxoviruses are part of the viral spikes glycoproteins (0.2)
A)True B) False
62. All togaviruses and flaviviruses are arboviruses
A)True B) False
63. Since 2013, quadrivalent flu vaccines contains two A strains and two B strains
A)True B) False
64. In the jungle (sylvatic) cycle of Yellow fever the virus is transmitted by mosquitoes from monkeys
to humans when humans are visiting or working in the jungle.
A) true B) False
65. Hepatatis A virus (HAV) in infected material can be easily destroyed by short exposure to UV
irradiation and treatment with diluted chlorine
A) true B) False
66. HDV ( delta agent) only occurs in the patients who have acute or chronic infections with HBV .
A) true B) False
67. DNA Viruses have more genes than RNA viruses and lead to more complicated replication life
cycles then RNA viruses
A) true B) False
68. The host immune system does not respond to the prion infection, since the prion protein is derived
from self proteins.
A) True B) False
69. In the patients with Hepatitis C jaundice can occur only in 30% of cases in average.
A) True B) False
70. Picornavirus virions have a helical symmetry.
A) true B) False
71. There are seven serotypes of poliovirus.
A) true B) False
72. Some arboviruses are maintained in nature by transovarian transmission in arthropods.
A) True B) False
73. Flaviriuses are non- enveloped viruses with negative sense single stranded RNA
A) true B) False
74. Viral carcinogenesis theory states that not all infections with human cancer viruses lead to tumor
formation
A) True B) False
75. Fungal spores are used in identification of fungi.
A) True B) False
76. Normal T-cell (CD4) count is 500-1500 . HIV converts to AIDS when T-cell counts are below 200.
A) True B) False
77. Helminths are unicellular heterotrophic animals
A) True; B) False
78. Amebiasis symptoms include bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss
A) True B) False
79. Contact with cats or ingesting rare or raw meat is the primary mode of transmission of toxoplasmosis.
A) True B) False
80. Amphotericin B Binds to ergosterol in fungal membrane causing membrane to become leaky
A) True B) False
81. The Mycetoma develops when soil fungi enter through wounds in the feet, hands, or back and
cause abscesses, with pus discharged through sinuses.
A) True B) False
82. Within the lungs, Histoplasma spores differentiate into yeasts or other specialized forms. This is not
characteristic for dimorphic fungus.
A) True B) False
83. Humans are the only host for hookworms
A) True B) False
84.Arthropod vectors are blood-sucking animals such as ticks, lice, and fleas that transmit microbial
pathogens.
A) True B) False
85. The fungal cell membrane contains ergosterol, whereas the human cell membrane contains cholesterol
A) True B) False
86. As most fungi are anaerobic, they should be cultured under anaerobic conditions in the clinical
laboratory
A) True B) False
87. In helminth life cycles, the organism that harbors the sexually reproductive phase of the adult
parasite is called the intermediate host.
A) True B) False
88. The sporozoite, merozoite, gametocyte, and ring stages are all part of the Plasmodium life cycle.
A) True B) False
89. The Platyhelminthes group includes roundworms, tapeworms, and flukes.
A) True B) False
90. Antifungal drugs Polyens are cell membrane disrupting agents , while Azols target the cell
membrane synthesis.
A) True B) False

Fill gaps

1. Pox viruses are the largest viruses with the -------------- morphology. Host range varies by
specific virus; Although --------- is common, small pox only infects ------------.

2. Yellow fever virus is transmitted to people primarily through the bite of infected -------------
------------- mosquitoes. Mosquitoes acquire the virus by feeding on infected -------------

3. Hepatitis Type A( HAV) is a member of the ---------------- family and initially was classified
as ------------------ 72 . Disease is known as ------------ hepatitis.

4. ---------------- are the smallest infectious agents known, consisting of----------------- and all of them
 inhabit
-------------- .

5. VZV ( --------------- virus), a causative agent of chicken pox, leads to disseminated disease
with potential latency in neural -------------, and can reactivate, causing -------------

6. Prion disease can lead to formation of numerous ----------------in the cerebellar cortex . The
disease called ----------------encephalopathy.
7. HBV is partially------------ stranded DNA virus, 3200 bp in length, with full length DNA
--------------- strand, and not completed ----------------strand.

8. Rotavirus is #1 cause of GI disease outbreaks world wide ( responsible for 70-80%

of outbreaks). The virus causes diahrreal disease both in --------------- and ---------------- .

9. Family Paramyxoviridae contains --------------- viruses with --------------- symmetry and negative
sense ---------------- stranded RNA.

10. Prevention of Japanese encephalitis by local control measures often fails because the vector
culex -------------- has a flight range of-------- km.

11. There are--------- subtypes of Ebola virus : Ebola- Zaire, Ebola – ---------- , Ebola – Ivory
Coast and Ebola- ------------, which differ by size ( mainly by -------------) of virions.

12. Two major filoviruses are named after geographical locations: Ebola – river in the
------------, and Marburg – city in -----------.

13. The selective toxicity of amphotericin B and the azole group of drugs is based on the presence of
------------- in fungal cell membranes, in contrast to the -----------found in human cell membranes and the
absence of ------------- in majority of bacterial cell membranes.

14. The 4th Stage of HIV infection is when --------------infections, such as ---------- and
-------------, also Kaposi sarcoma and nuerological diseases (dementia) appear.

15. In condition of limited access to ------------, Yeasts ferment --------- and produce -----------
and carbon dioxide. This is called ------------------ and is used in the brewing, wine-making, and
baking industry

16. ---------------- leishmaniosis is most severe disease caused by Leishmania ------------. This disease
can be by up to 90% ------------ if untreated.

17. Trypanosoma cruzi causes ---------- disease which is transmitted by ----------------. Mostly spread in
--------------- and -----------America.

18. Adenoviruses are ------------------- viruses with -------------- stranded linear DNA and an
nucleocapsid of -----------------morphology. Characteristic for these viruses are --------------
protruding from each of the 12 vertices of the capsid and serving for --------------- .

19. Canidida albicans is an ---------------- pathogen. Predisposing factors include reduced cellular
-------------, altered skin and Mucous membrane, suppression of ---------------- flora. Trush is most
common in persons receiving -------------- therapy.

20. Dermatophits ( such as Tinea capitis and Tinea ---------- ) grow only in the superficial layer of
the skin. They use ------------ as a nutritional source. The lesions are due to the hosts’s
----------------- inflammatory response to the fungi.
21. Humans are infected when hookworms larvae ( specifically, -------------- duodenale) in moist
------------------ penetrate the --------------of walking person , usually the bare feet. They develop
into adult warms in the --------------intestine, attaching to the wall.

22. Humans are infected by Ascaris ---------------- by ingesting worm eggs in food or water
contaminated with human --------------. The eggs hatch in the ---------------, and the larvae migrate
through the -----------------wall into the bloodstream and then to the -------------, to the alveoli.

23. Malaria is subdivided into --------------- malaria, caused by -------------- falciparum, and
----------------- malaria, caused by P. vivax and P. ovale. P. falciparum causes a high level
of parasitemia because it can infect -------------- blood cells of all ages.

24. The malaria in humans begins with the introduction of -------------- into the --------------- from
the ---------- of the biting ----------------

25. the ----------- family. It is an ----------- virus containing a ----------- -stranded,

---------------- - polarity RNA.