1.

The Prototyping/Incremental model of development reduces total expected post-

deployment error correction costs.
A) True
B) False

2 A process model for software engineering is chosen based on the .......

A) nature of the project and application
B) the methods and tools to be used
C) the controls and deliverables that are required
D) All of above

3 RAD takes advantage of automated tools and techniques to restructure the process of
building information systems.
A) Waterfall 
B) RAD
C) Incremental
D) None
4 Sometimes called the ......, the linear sequential model suggests a systematic, sequential
approach to software development that begins at the system level and progresses through
analysis, design, coding, testing, and support.
A) classic life cycle B) the waterfall model
C) Incremental D) Both A & B
5 Evolutionary process model resembles iterative enhancement model.
A) True
B) False
6 When your customer has a legitimate need but is clueless about the details, develop a .......
as a first step
A) dummy
B) Incremental model 
C) prototype
D) All of above
7 Rapid application development (RAD) is an incremental software development process
model that emphasizes an extremely long development cycle.
A) True
B) False
8 The development of a prototype might involve extra cost, but overall cost might turnout
to be lower than that of an equivalent system developed using the waterfall model.
A) True
B) False
9 The ........ combines elements of the linear sequential model (applied repetitively) with the
iterative philosophy of prototyping.
A) sequential model
B) Incremental model 
C) prototype model
D) RAD model
10 A spiral model is divided into a number of framework activities, also called ...... regions.
A) task
B) work
C) model
D) frame
11 The goal is to identify risk and focus on it early.
A) RAD
B) Spiral
C) Incremental
D) Sequential

12. What are prototypes ?

a) Prototypes is a working model of part or all of a final product

b) Prototypes does not represent any sort of models
c) Prototype can never consist of full size
d) All of the mentioned
13. What are the types of prototypes ?
a) Horizontal prototypes
b) Vertical Prototypes
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

14. Which of these is true for prototypes?

a) Horizontal Prototypes does some processing apart from the required for presenting the
product’s user interface
b) Vertical Prototype realizes part or all of a product’s user interface
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
15. Which description is inappropriate ?
a) A usecase is a type of agent that interacts with a product
b) An actor is a type of complete interaction between product and its environment
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

16. What are the notations for the Use case Diagrams ?
a) Use case
b) Actor
c) Prototype
d) a and b
e. a,b and c

17. Which among the following can be heuristic for Use case diagram ?
a) Product can be made actor
b) Never name actors with noun phrases
c) Name Use cases with verb phases
d) All of the mentioned
18. What is incorrect among the following ?
a) Make use cases that uniform in size and complexity
b) Organize use cases by actor, problem domain categories or solution categories
c) Use cases can last for more than one session
d) Achieve a stakeholder goal in a usecase

19. Which of these is true ?

a) Use case diagram is a dynamic model of interaction between product and actors in a use case
b) Use case Description is a static model of usecase supported by a product
c) Both a and b
d) None of the mentioned

20. Use case models can be summarized under which of these category ?
a) Usecase Diagram
b) Usecase Description
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

21. The incremental model of software development is

A) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined

b) A good approach when a working core product is required quickly.

c) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams

d) A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products

22. The rapid application development model is

A) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined

b) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly

c) A high speed adaptation of the linear sequential model

d) All of the above

23. The prototyping model of software development is

a) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined

b) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly

c) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.

d) A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.

24. The spiral model of software development

a) Ends with the delivery of the software product

b) Is more chaotic than the incremental model

c) Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration

d) All of the above

25. The waterfall model of software development is

a) A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined

b) A good approach when a working program is required quickly

c) The best approach to use for projects with large development teams

d) An old fashioned model that is rarely used any more

26. Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary Process Model?

a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Incremental Model
c) Concurrent Development Model
d) Spiral Model
e) All are Evolutionary Software Models
27. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
b) Linear Model & RAD Model
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model

28.What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?

a) Customer can respond to each increment
b) Easier to test and debug
c) It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
d) Both b & c

29.The spiral model was originally proposed by

a) IBM
b) Barry Boehm
c) Pressman
d) Royce

30 The spiral model has two dimensions namely _____________ and ____________.
a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular
c) radial, angular
d) diagonal, perpendicular

 31.How is WINWIN Spiral Model different from Spiral Model?

a) It defines tasks required to define resources, timelines, and other project related information.
b) It defines a set of negotiation activities at the beginning of each pass around the spiral.
c) It defines tasks required to assess both technical and management risks.
d) It defines tasks required to construct, test, install, and provide user support.

32.  Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.

a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects
b) High amount of risk analysis
c) Strong approval and documentation control
d) Additional Functionality can be added at a later date

33.Spiral Model has user involvement in all its phases.

a) True
b) False

34. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?

a) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model.
b) Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model.
c) Users can see the system early in Incremental Model.

35. If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Spiral Model
c) Concurrent Model
d) Incremental Model

36.  Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
a) Waterfall & RAD
b) Prototyping & Spiral
c) Prototyping & RAD
d) Waterfall & Spiral

37. Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less
experience on similar projects?
a) Spiral
b) Waterfall
c) RAD
d) Iterative Enhancement Model

38. If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a
project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would
you select?
a) Waterfall
b) Spiral
c) RAD
d) Incremental

39. Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome if user’s
participation is not involved?
a) Waterfall & Spiral
b) RAD & Spiral
c) RAD & Waterfall
d) RAD & Prototyping

40. A company is developing an advance version of their current software available in the
market, what model approach would they prefer ?
a) RAD
b) Iterative Enhancement
c) Both a & b
d) Spiral

41. One can choose Waterfall Model if the project development schedule is tight.
a) True
b) False

42. Choose the correct option from given below:

a) Prototyping Model facilitates re-usability of components

b) RAD    Model facilitates re-usability of components
c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates re-usability of components
d) none
43.  Spiral Model has high reliability requirements.
a) True
b) False

44. RAD Model has high reliability requirements.

a) True
b) False

45.  Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile Software Development
a) Individuals and interactions
b) Working software
c) Customer collaboration
d) Responding to change
e) All of the mentioned

46.  Agile Software Development is based on

a) Incremental Development
b) Iterative Development
c) Linear Development
d) Waterfall Model
e) Both a and b

47. Which on of the following is not an agile method?

a) XP
b) 4GT
c) AUP

48. Agility is defined as the ability of a project team to respond rapidly to a change.
a) True
b) False

49.  How is plan driven development different from agile development ?

a) Outputs are decided through a process of negotiation during the software development
process.
b) Specification, design, implementation and testing are interleaved
c) Iteration occurs within activities

50. How many phases are there in Scrum ?

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases.

51. Agile methods seem to work best when team members have a relatively high skill level.
a) True
b) False

52. Which of the following does not apply to agility to a software process?
a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
b) Only essential work products are produced
c) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing

53. Which three framework activities are present in Adaptive Software

Development(ASD) ?
a) analysis, design, coding
b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development
c) speculation, collaboration, learning

54. In agile development it is more important to build software that meets the customers’
needs today than worry about features that might be needed in the future.
a) True
b) False

55. What is “V” Model?

A) Test level
b) SDLC Model

c) Test Type

d) Test Design Technique

56. ------------ is not a software Development Life Cycle Phase?

a) Requirements Gathering

b) Coding

c) Test Closure

d) Testing

57. ---------- is not a Software Test Life Cycle Phase?

a) Requirements Gathering

b) Test Planning

c) Test Closure

d) Test Design

58. --------- is not a Test Level?

a) System Testing

b) Acceptance Testing

c) Functional Testing

d) Integration Testing
59. Which Test Document Describes the Exit Criteria of Testing?

a) Test Case

b) Test Plan

c) Test Summary Report

d)Defect Report

60. __________ are the Testers of System Testing?

a) Developers

b) Business Analyst

c) Independent Testers

d) Customers

61. _________ are the Testers of Unit Testing

a) Developers

b) Business Analyst

c) Independent Testers

d) Customers

62. _________ is not a Test Type?

a) Database Testing

b) Security Testing

c) Functional Testing

d) Statement Testing
63) _________ is not a Test Document?

a) Test Policy

b) Test Case

c) PIN (Project Initiation Note)

d) RTM (Requirements Traceability Matrix)

64. What is Sanity Testing?

a) Test level

b) Test Type

c) Test Design technique

d) Test    Execution Level

65. What is Exploratory Testing?

a) Black Box Test Design Technique

b) White Box Test Design Technique

c) Gray Box Test Design Technique

d) Experience based Testing Design Technique

66. The testing which is done by going thro' the code is known as,
A. Unit Testing
B. Blackbox testing
C. White box Testing
D. Regression testing
67.  Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation is known as
A. adHoc Testing
B. Unit Testing
C. Regression testing
D. Functional testing.
68.  The process that deals with the technical and management issues of software
development called as?
A. Delivery Process
B. Testing Process
C. Software Process
69.  Executing the same test case on a modified build called as
A. Regression Testing
B. Retesting
C. Ad hoc Testing
D. Sanity Testing

70. Business Risk affects The Organization developing or Procuring the software.
A. True
B. False

71. Stratification is a Technique used to analyze/divide a universe of data into homogeneous

groups(stratA..
A. True
B. False

72. Automation Testing should be done before starting Manual testing.

Is the above statement correct?
A. Yes
B. No
73. Earlier a defect is found the cheaper it is to fix it.
Is the above statement correct?
A. Yes
B. No
74. Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as
A. Severity
B. Priority
C. Fix ability
D. Traceability
75. Software Testing is a process of evaluating a system by manual or automatic means and
verify that it satisfies specified requirements or identity differences between expected and
actual results.
A. True
B. False
76. Retesting modules connected to the program or component after a change has been
made?
A. Full Regression Testing
B. Unit Regression
C. Regional Regression
D. Retesting.
77. An Important metric is the number of defects found in internal testing compared to the
defects found in customer tests, Status of test activities against the plan, Test coverage
achieved so far, comes under
A. Process Metric
B. Product Metric
C. Test Metric

78. Alpha testing will be done at,

A. User's site
B. Developers' site
79. SPICE Means
A. Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination
B. Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination.
C. Software Process Invention and Compatibility Determination.
D. Software Process Improvement and Control Determination
80. Requirements Specification, Planning, Test case Design, Execution,
Bug Reporting & Maintenance This Life Cycle comes Under
A. SDLC
B. STLC
C. SQLC
D. BLC
81. It provides a set of levels and an assessment model, and presents a set of recommended
practices that allow organizations to improve their testing processes.
A. TIM (Testing Improving Model)
B. TMM (Testing Maturity Model)
C. TQM(Total Quality Management)
82. Standards and procedures for managing changes in an evolving software product is
called?
A. Confirmation Management
B. Confederation Mangement
C. Configuration Management
D. Compartability Management
83. Path Tested = Number of Path Tested / Total Number of Paths
A. True
B. False

84. This Testing Technique examines the basic program structure and it derives the test
data from the program logic; Ensuring that all statements and conditions executed at least
once. It is called as
A. Block box Testing
B. White box Testing
C. Grey Box Testing
D. Closed Box Testing
85. This type of test include, how well the user will be able to understand and interact with
the system?
A. Usability Testing
B. User Acceptance Testing
C. Alpha Testing
D. Beta Testing.
86. Defects generally fall into the following categories?
A. WRONG
B. MISSING
C. EXTRA
D. All the above
87. What is correct Software Process Cycle?
A. Plan(P)------>Check(C)------>Act(A)----->Do(D)
B. Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Check(C)----->Act(A)
C. Plan(P)------>Do(D)------>Act(A)----->Check(C)
88. Conducted to validate that the application, database, and network they may be running
on can handle projected volumes of users and data effectively. The test is conducted jointly
by developers, testers, DBA’s and network associates after the system Testing called as
A. Functional Testing
B. Stress/Load Testing
C. Recovery Testing
D. Integration Testing

89.  How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as

A. Severity
B. Priority
C. Fix ability
D. Traceability
90. The name of the testing which is done to make sure the existing features are not affected
by new changes
A. Recursive testing
B. Whitebox testing
C. Unit testing
D. Regression testing
91.  Cost of Production = Right The First time cost(RTF. + Cost of Quality.
A. True
B. False
92.  ------------- means under what test environment(Hardware, software set up. the
application will run smoothly
A. Test Bed
B. Checkpoint
C. Code Walk through
D. Checklist
93. Optimization, Defect Prevention, and Quality Control. Its come under the
A. CMM Level 2
B. CMM Level 3
C. CMM Level 4
D. CMM Level5
94.  A Plan to overcome the risk called as
A. Migration Plan
B. Master plan
C. Maintenance plan
D. Mitigation Plan

95. The Test Language usually used in Selenium is____________

a) PHP

b) Python

c) JavanScript

d) None of the Above

96. Out id the following which can only Test Web applications

a) QTP

b) Selenium

97. Select the Operating System which is NOT supported by Selenium IDE.

a) Unix

b) Linux

c) Windows

d) Solaris

98.The Selenium RC is Used

A) To run your test against different browsers(except HtmlUnit) on different operating systems.

b) To create tests with little or no prior knowledge in programming.

c) To test a web application against firefox only.

d)To run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines.

99.The term AJAX expands to ____________

a) Asynchronous Java and XML

b) Asynchronous JavaScript and XML

c) Accumulated Java and XML

d) None of the above

100. The term JSON refers to ____________

a) JavaScript Object notation

b) Java Object Notation

c) Java Object Naming

d) None of the above

101. White Box Testing is not concern with _________.

a. Statement Coverage

b. Decision Coverage

c. Cause and Effect Coverage

d. Multiple Condition Coverage

102. Which Testing is performed first?

a. Black box testing

b. White box testing

c. Dynamic testing

d. Static testing

103. Testing beyond normal operational capacity is __________.

a. Load testing

b. Performance testing

c. Stress testing

d. All of these.
104. Which testing cannot be performed on first build of the software?

a. Regression testing

b. Retesting.

c. Sanity testing

d. Only A and B.

e. All of these

105. Which is not Data Driven Testing?

a. Fuzz Testing

b. Ramp Testing

c. Negative Testing

d. Retesting

106. Confidence Testing refers to ________.

a. Smoke Testing

b. Retesting

c. Regression Testing

d. All of these.

107. Which is not true in case of Sanity Testing?

a. Sanity test is a narrow regression testing.

b. Sanity test is usually unscripted.

c. Sanity testing is a cursory testing.

d. Sanity testing is High Level Testing.

108. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:
A) New
B) Open
C) Verified
D) Deferred
E) Critical

109. Defect ....... is a technique that was developed to estimate the number of
defects resident in a piece of software.
A) Density
B) Seeding
C) Age
D) Latency

110. Defect ............ is a defect which is caused by another defect. One defect
triggers the other defect.
A) smoothing
B) cascading
C) tracking
D) massaging

111. Which of the following is not a state of a Bug in Bug Life Cycle:

A. New

B. Open

C. Verified

D. Deffered
E. Critical

112._________ happens when defect introduced in one phase passes to another phase
without getting caught in the phase-end verification or validation activities.
A) Defect Cascading
B) Defect Prevention
C) QC
D) Defect Leakage

113. Analyze defects or errors to trace the root causes. Suggest preventive actions to
eliminate the defect root causes. Implement the preventive actions.
A) Defect Prevention
B) Defect Tracking
C) Defect Age
D) Defect Risks

114. DRE () is a powerful metric used to measure

test effectiveness.
A) Defect Removal Efficiency
B) Spoilage
C) Age
D) Latency

115. If a defect is delayed for later phases it proves more costly.

A) True
B) False

116. A ___________is an existing defect that hasn’t yet caused a failure just because another
defect has prevented that part of the code from being executed.
A) mutant defect B) masked defect
C) latent defect D) delayed defect

117. What do you verify in White Box Testing?

a. Testing of each statement, object and function on an individual basis.

b. Expected output.

c. The flow of specific inputs through the code.

d. All of the above.

118.  ________ verifies that all elements mesh properly and overall system
functions/performance is achieved.

a. Integration testing

b. Validation testing

c. Unit testing

d. System Testing

119. When should company stop the testing of a particular software?

a. After system testing done

b. It depends on the risks for the system being tested

c. After smoke testing done

d. None of the above

120. Choose the correct option according to the given statements.

Statement 1: Unit Testing focuses verification effort on the smallest unit of Software
Design.
Statement 2: In general Unit Testing is done by Software Developer. 
Statement 3: Unit Testing comes under White Box Testing.
Statement 4: Unit Testing comes under Black Box Testing.

a. Statement 1, 2, 3, are correct.

b. Only statement 1 and 2 are correct.

c. Only statement 3 is correct.

d. Only statement 4 is correct.

121. Suggest an alternative for requirement traceability matrix

A. Test Coverage matrix

B. Average defect aging
C. Test Effectiveness
D. Error discovery rate

122. Coverage based analysis is best described as:

A. A metric used to show the logic covered during a test session providing insight to the extent of
testing.
B. A tool for documenting the unique combinations of conditions and associated results in order
to derive unique test cases for validation testing.

C. Tools for documenting defects as they are found during testing and for tracking their status
through to resolution.

D. The most traditional means for analyzing a system or a program

123. As a tester, what is your main objective in reviewing a requirement document?

A. To ascertain that each requirement is traceable to a business need

B. To ascertain that each requirement is both testable and uniquely identifiable

C. To ascertain that each requirement is traceable to a business need, testable, and uniquely
identifiable

D. To ascertain that each requirement is uniquely identifiable

124.The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when
writing test cases

A.Test Matrix

B.Checklist

C.Test bed

D.Traceability matrix

125. It measures the quality of processes used to create a quality product. It is a system of
management activities, It is a preventive process, It applies for entire life cycle & Deals
with Process.
A. Validation
B. Verification
C. Quality Assurance
D. Quality Control

126.  A metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as
A. Process metric
B. Product Metric
C. Test metrics

127. Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as

A. Severity
B. Priority
C. Fix ability
D. Traceability

128. Defects generally fall into the following categories?

A. WRONG
B. MISSING
C. EXTRA
D. All the above

129. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as

A. Severity
B. Priority
C. Fix ability
D. Traceability

130. A Plan to overcome the risk called as

A. Migration Plan
B. Master plan
C. Maintenance plan
D. Mitigation Plan

131. Flood guns bombard the phosphor surface of the tube in which one of the following
types of CRT technology?

a) Direct view storage tube

b) Raster scan CRT

c) Stroke CRT

d) None of the above

132. The toolbar enables you to view the details of an individual action or the entire test
flow is
a) Testing toolbar
b) None of the above
c) Action toolbar
d) Test Pane

133. Autamated Testing is?

a) To automate the manual testing process

b) To assure quality of software

c) To increase costs

d) None of the above

134.Which of these can be used for testing as a tool

a) Rational Robot

b)Waterfall Model

c)MS-WORD

d) None of the above.

135. Which of the following is a debugging approach

a) Brute-Force method

b) Inheritance

c) Data flow Diagrams

d) None of the above.

136. The command used to retrieve data from excel sheet is

a) Set ab = Connection("srcfilepath ") , Set ws = ab.getdata(sheetid)
b) Set ab = CreateObject("srcfilepath ") , Set ws = ab.getsheet(sheetid)
c) Set ab = GetObject("srcfilepath") , Set ws = ab.worksheets(sheetid)

137. The command used to invoke other application from QTP,

a) InvokeApplication
b) SystemUtil.Run
c) Run
d) Both b & c
e) Both a & b
138) In Batch Test process, the test list are saved in file format as,
a) *.mtb
b) *.mts
c) *.mbt
d) *.mtr

139) QuickTest can detects an application crash and activate a defined recovery scenario to
continue the run session.
a) True
b) false

140)  Can we add external library files in QTP ?

a) No
b) Yes
141.The file which is used for recovering from the run time errors has an extension
A. QRS 
B. TSR 
C. PNG 
D. DAT 

142. Method to To count the no of rows in a table

A. getrowcount 
B. getlinecoun 
C. Getcount 
D. Count 
143. By default, the all actions in QTP are
A. non – reusable 
B. reusable 
C. external 
D. None 
144.  Which scripting language is used in QTP ?
A.  Test Script Language (TSL) 
B.  Java Script 
C.  ASP 
D.  VB Script 
145. Does QTP support Data Driven Framework ?
A.  YES 
B.  QTP supports only Modular Framework 
C.  QTP is only Keyword Driven Framework 
D.  No 
146.  Select the Browsers NOT Supported by QTP ?
A.  IE 
B.  Netscape 
C.  Safari 
D.  AOL 
147.  What is the correct order of events in Test Script Creation ?
A. Plan, Record , Debug, Enhance 
B.  Plan , Record , Enhance , Debug 
C.  Record, Debug , Plan , Enhance 
D.  Record, Enhance, Debug , Plan 

148. To terminate the script execution, during running, QTP uses

A.  Exit run 
B.  Stop run 
C.  Quit 
D.  None 
149.  BITMAP Checkpoint checks the property values of an image ?
A.  YES 
B.  NO 
150. Select the valid types of Actions in QTP
a) Nested Actions 
b) Shared Actions
c) External Actions
d) Reusable Actions
A.  both b & c 
B.  both b & d 
C.  both a & d 
D.  both a & c