Test Booklet Code

No. :
HAKAN
F4 This Booklet contains 24 pages.

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F4 2
1. The quantities of heat required to raise the 6. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is :
temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii
r1 and r2 (r1=1.5 r2) through 1 K are in the
ratio :
3
(1)
2
(1) A B Y
5
(2) 0 0 1
3
0 1 1
27
(3) 1 0 1
8
9 1 1 0
(4)
4 (2) A B Y
0 0 1
2. Find the torque about the origin when a force of
∧ 0 1 0
3 j N acts on a particle whose position vector is 1 0 0
∧
2k m . 1 1 0
∧ (3) A B Y
(1) −6 i N m
∧ 0 0 0
(2) 6k N m
0 1 0
∧
(3) 6i N m 1 0 0
∧ 1 1 1
(4) 6j Nm
(4) A B Y
3. For transistor action, which of the following 0 0 0
statements is correct ? 0 1 1
(1) Both emitter junction as well as the collector 1 0 1
junction are forward biased.
1 1 1
(2) The base region must be very thin and lightly
doped. 7. The solids which have the negative temperature
(3) Base, emitter and collector regions should coefficient of resistance are :
have same doping concentrations. (1) semiconductors only
(4) Base, emitter and collector regions should (2) insulators and semiconductors
have same size.
(3) metals
4. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a (4) insulators only
velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits
the ground after some time with a velocity of 8. The increase in the width of the depletion region
80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g=10 m/s2) in a p-n junction diode is due to :
(1) 320 m (1) both forward bias and reverse bias
(2) 300 m (2) increase in forward current
(3) 360 m (3) forward bias only
(4) 340 m (4) reverse bias only

5. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be : 9. Dimensions of stress are :

(1) 458 < ib < 908 (1) [ M L0T−2 ]
(2) ib = 908 (2) [ M L−1 T−2 ]
(3) 08 < ib < 308 (3) [ M L T−2 ]
(4) 308 < ib < 458 (4) [ M L2 T−2 ]
 3 F4
10. Taking into account of the significant figures, what 15. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and
is the value of 9.99 m−0.0099 m ? there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
(1) 9.980 m
The pitch of the screw gauge is :
(2) 9.9 m
(3) 9.9801 m (1) 0.5 mm
(4) 9.98 m (2) 1.0 mm
(3) 0.01 mm
11. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same
material are slightly out of tune and produce beats (4) 0.25 mm
of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly
decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. 16. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation
If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original between coherent sources is halved and the
frequency of B will be : distance of the screen from the coherent sources is
(1) 536 Hz doubled, then the fringe width becomes :
(2) 537 Hz (1) four times
(3) 523 Hz
(2) one-fourth
(4) 524 Hz
(3) double
12. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one (4) half
surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism
A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface. 17. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a
If the refractive index of the material of the prism magnetising field of 1200 A m −1 . The
is µ, then the angle of incidence is nearly equal permeability of the material of the rod is :
to : (µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1)
(1) µA (1) 2.4π×10−5 T m A−1
µA (2) 2.4π×10−7 T m A−1
(2)
2
A (3) 2.4π×10−4 T m A−1
(3) (4) 8.0×10−5 T m A−1
2µ
2A
(4) 18. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field
µ
and magnetic field components to the intensity of
13. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with an electromagnetic wave is : (c=speed of
air as medium is 6 µF. With the introduction of a electromagnetic waves)
dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 µF.
(1) 1:c
The permittivity of the medium is :
(e0=8.85×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2) (2) 1 : c2
(1) 0.44×10−10 C2 N−1 m−2 (3) c:1
(2) 5.00 C2 N−1 m−2 (4) 1:1
(3) 0.44×10−13 C2 N−1 m−2
(4) 1.77×10−12 C2 N−1 m−2 19. The phase difference between displacement and
14. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic
are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length motion is :
1 m with negligible mass.
π
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg (1) rad
2
particle is nearly at a distance of : (2) zero
(1) 67 cm
(3) π rad
(2) 80 cm
(3) 33 cm 3π
(4) rad
(4) 50 cm 2
F4 4
20. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging 25. A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz
from a fixed support. The length of the wire ac supply. The rms value of the current in the
circuit is, nearly :
changes to L1 when mass M is suspended from its
free end. The expression for Young’s modulus is : (1) 2.5 A
MgL (2) 25.1 A
(1) AL1 (3) 1.7 A
MgL
(2) (4) 2.05 A
A(L1 − L)
MgL1
(3) 26. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas
AL
Mg(L1 − L) is : (kB is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute
(4) temperature)
AL
21. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular 5
(1) kB T
diameter d and number density n can be expressed 2
as : 7
(2) kB T
1 2
(1)
2 n2 πd2 1
1 (3) kB T
(2) 2
2 2 2
2n π d
3
1 (4) kB T
(3) 2
2 n πd
1
(4) 27. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the
2 n πd2
ends of a massless string. The string passes over
22. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is :
a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The
(1) 1.5×1013 J
(2) 0.5×1013 J acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration
(3) 4.5×1016 J due to gravity (g) is :
(4) 4.5×1013 J
23. An electron is accelerated from rest through a
potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie
wavelength of the electron is 1.227×10−2 nm, the
potential difference is :
(1) 103 V
(2) 104 V
(3) 10 V (1) g/5
(4) 102 V
(2) g/10
24. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of
(3) g
16×10−9 C m. The electric potential due to the
dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the (4) g/2
centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an
28. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming
angle of 608 with the dipole axis is :
from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope
 1  whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is :
 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
 4 π0  (1) 7.32×10−7 rad
(1) 400 V
(2) 6.00×10−7 rad
(2) zero
(3) 50 V (3) 3.66×10−7 rad
(4) 200 V (4) 1.83×10−7 rad
 5 F4
29. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of 32. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are
249 kPa and temperature 278C. connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains
an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure.
Its density is : (R=8.3 J mol−1 K−1) B is completely evacuated. The entire system is
(1) 0.1 kg/m3 thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly
opened. The process is :
(2) 0.02 kg/m3
(1) isochoric
(3) 0.5 kg/m3 (2) isobaric
(4) 0.2 kg/m3 (3) isothermal
(4) adiabatic
30. The color code of a resistance is given below :
235
33. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded with
a neutron, it generates 89
36 Kr , three neutrons
and :
101
(1) 36 Kr
103
(2) 36 Kr
The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively,
144
are : (3) 56 Ba
91
(1) 4.7 kΩ, 5% (4) 40 Zr

(2) 470 Ω, 5%
34. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a
(3) 470 kΩ, 5% metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the
right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire
(4) 47 kΩ, 10%
in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance
wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the
31. Which of the following graph represents the resistance wire is :
variation of resistivity (ρ) with temperature (T) for (1) 1.5×10−1 m
copper ? (2) 1.5×10−2 m
(3) 1.0×10−2 m
(4) 1.0×10−1 m
(1)
35. A charged particle having drift velocity of
7.5×10 −4 m s −1 in an electric field of
3×10−10 Vm−1, has a mobility in m2 V−1 s−1
of :

(2) (1) 2.5×10−6

(2) 2.25×10−15
(3) 2.25×1015
(4) 2.5×106

(3) 36. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a

non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having
surface area 20 cm2. The energy received by the
surface during time span of 1 minute is :
(1) 24×103 J
(2) 48×103 J
(4)
(3) 10×103 J
(4) 12×103 J
F4 6
37. For which one of the following, Bohr model is not 42. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold
valid ? frequency is incident on a photosensitive material.
What will be the photoelectric current if the
(1) Deuteron atom
frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ?
(2) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+) (1) one-fourth
(3) Hydrogen atom (2) zero
(4) Singly ionised helium atom (He+) (3) doubled
(4) four times
38. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge
of 3.2×10−7 C distributed uniformly. What is 43. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in water
the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm and water rises in it to a height h. The mass of
from the centre of the sphere ? the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary
tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass
 1  of water that will rise in this tube is :
 = 9× 109 N m2 /C2 
 4 π 0  (1) 10.0 g
(1) 1.28×106 N/C (2) 20.0 g
(2) 1.28×107 N/C (3) 2.5 g
(3) 1.28×104 N/C (4) 5.0 g

(4) 1.28×105 N/C

44. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth.
What is the gravitational force on it, at a height
39. The energy required to break one bond in DNA is equal to half the radius of the earth ?
10−20 J. This value in eV is nearly :
(1) 30 N
(1) 0.06
(2) 24 N
(2) 0.006
(3) 48 N
(3) 6
(4) 32 N
(4) 0.6
45. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage
40. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3, source. When L is removed from the circuit, the
the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout.
The magnitude of electric field in this region is : phase difference between current and voltage
π
(1) 1 N/C is . If instead C is removed from the circuit,
3
π
(2) 5 N/C the phase difference is again between current
3
(3) zero and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is :

(4) 0.5 N/C (1) 1.0

(2) −1.0
41. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns (3) zero
carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at
the centre of the solenoid is : (4) 0.5

(µ0=4π×10−7 T m A−1)
46. The ovary is half inferior in :
(1) 6.28×10−5 T (1) Sunflower
(2) 3.14×10−5 T (2) Plum
(3) 6.28×10−4 T (3) Brinjal
(4) 3.14×10−4 T (4) Mustard
 7 F4
47. Identify the wrong statement with regard to 52. Match the following concerning essential elements
Restriction Enzymes. and their functions in plants :
(1) They are useful in genetic engineering. (a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water
(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination
(2) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
ligases. (c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll
biosynthesis
(3) Each restriction enzyme functions by
inspecting the length of a DNA sequence. (d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
Select the correct option :
(4) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
sites. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
48. Identify the wrong statement with reference to (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
transport of oxygen. (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(1) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
(2) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation 53. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle
of oxyhaemoglobin. at :
(1) Nucellus
(3) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
mainly related to partial pressure of O2. (2) Chalaza
(3) Hilum
(4) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with
O2 binding with haemoglobin. (4) Micropyle

54. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net

49. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes
primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one
place by :
of the following statements is correct ?
(1) wind and water (1) Gross primary productivity and Net primary
(2) insects and water productivity are one and same.
(2) There is no relationship between Gross
(3) insects or wind
primary productivity and Net primary
(4) water currents only productivity.
(3) Gross primary productivity is always less
50. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs than net primary productivity.
is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a (4) Gross primary productivity is always more
DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is than net primary productivity.
6.6×109 bp, then the length of the DNA is
approximately : 55. Which of the following refer to correct example(s)
(1) 2.2 meters of organisms which have evolved due to changes
in environment brought about by anthropogenic
(2) 2.7 meters action ?
(3) 2.0 meters (a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
(4) 2.5 meters (b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
51. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs
during : (d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals
like dogs.
(1) Diplotene
(1) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Leptotene
(2) only (d)
(3) Pachytene
(3) only (a)
(4) Zygotene (4) (a) and (c)
F4 8
56. Identify the correct statement with reference to 61. Which of the following is not an attribute of a
human digestive system. population ?
(1) Ileum is a highly coiled part. (1) Mortality

(2) Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum. (2) Species interaction

(3) Sex ratio
(3) Ileum opens into small intestine.
(4) Natality
(4) Serosa is the innermost layer of the
alimentary canal. 62. Embryological support for evolution was
disapproved by :
57. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase (1) Charles Darwin
in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are : (2) Oparin
(1) Ammonia and oxygen (3) Karl Ernst von Baer
(2) Ammonia and hydrogen (4) Alfred Wallace
(3) Ammonia alone
63. Which one of the following is the most abundant
(4) Nitrate alone protein in the animals ?
(1) Lectin
58. The transverse section of a plant shows following (2) Insulin
anatomical features :
(3) Haemoglobin
(a) Large number of scattered vascular bundles (4) Collagen
surrounded by bundle sheath.
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground 64. Match the following columns and select the
tissue. correct option.

(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed. Column - I Column - II

(d) Phloem parenchyma absent. (a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response

Identify the category of plant and its part : (b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
(1) Dicotyledonous stem (c) Neutrophils (iii) Release
(2) Dicotyledonous root histaminase,
destructive
(3) Monocotyledonous stem
enzymes
(4) Monocotyledonous root
(d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules
containing
59. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals
are exemplified by : histamine

(1) Aschelminthes (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) Annelida
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) Ctenophora
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) Platyhelminthes (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

60. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified 65. Which of the following hormone levels will cause
from : release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian
follicle ?
(1) Chondrocytes
(1) Low concentration of LH
(2) Compound epithelial cells
(2) Low concentration of FSH
(3) Squamous epithelial cells (3) High concentration of Estrogen
(4) Columnar epithelial cells (4) High concentration of Progesterone
 9 F4
66. The sequence that controls the copy number of the 70. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
linked DNA in the vector, is termed : the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups.
(1) Palindromic sequence (1) When IA and IB are present together, they
(2) Recognition site express same type of sugar.
(3) Selectable marker (2) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar.
(4) Ori site (3) The gene (I) has three alleles.

67. The plant parts which consist of two generations - (4) A person will have only two of the three
one within the other : alleles.

(a) Pollen grains inside the anther

71. Which of the following would help in prevention of
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male diuresis ?
gametes
(1) Atrial natriuretic factor causes
(c) Seed inside the fruit vasoconstriction

(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule (2) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells

(1) (c) and (d) (3) More water reabsorption due to

undersecretion of ADH
(2) (a) and (d)
(3) (a) only (4) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal
tubules due to aldosterone
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

68. Match the following columns and select the 72. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control
correct option. of :

Column - I Column - II (1) Release of Green House gases

(a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A (2) Disposal of e-wastes

butylicum (3) Transport of Genetically modified organisms
from one country to another
(b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid
polysporum (4) Emission of ozone depleting substances

(c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid

73. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is
purpureus
completed :
(d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol
(1) After zygote formation
lowering agent
(2) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an
(a) (b) (c) (d) ovum
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (3) Prior to ovulation
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) At the time of copulation
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 74. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’ of
sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and Marino
69. The roots that originate from the base of the stem rams ?
are :
(1) Cross breeding
(1) Prop roots
(2) Inbreeding
(2) Lateral roots
(3) Fibrous roots (3) Out crossing
(4) Primary roots (4) Mutational breeding
F4 10
75. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for 79. Match the following columns and select the
few days because : correct option.

(1) the head holds a small proportion of a nervous Column - I Column - II

system while the rest is situated along the
ventral part of its body. (a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy

(2) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system (b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence
while the rest is situated along the dorsal deaminase
part of its body.
deficiency
(3) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the
cockroach are situated in ventral part of (c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV
abdomen. infection

(4) the cockroach does not have nervous system. (d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
thuringiensis

76. Identify the incorrect statement. (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
and is lighter in colour.
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc.,
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
heart wood is dark in colour.
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives
mechanical support.
80. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(4) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water
and minerals from root to leaf. (1) Adenine pairs with thymine through three
H-bonds.

77. Select the option including all sexually transmitted (2) Adenine does not pair with thymine.
diseases. (3) Adenine pairs with thymine through two
H-bonds.
(1) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(4) Adenine pairs with thymine through one
(2) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis H-bond.
(3) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
81. According to Robert May, the global species
(4) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
diversity is about :
(1) 50 million
78. Identify the wrong statement with reference to
immunity. (2) 7 million

(1) Active immunity is quick and gives full (3) 1.5 million
response. (4) 20 million
(2) Foetus receives some antibodies from
mother, it is an example for passive 82. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine
immunity. and caffeine are produced by plants for their :
(3) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) (1) Defence action
antibodies are produced in the host’s body.
It is called “Active immunity”. (2) Effect on reproduction
(3) Nutritive value
(4) When ready-made antibodies are directly
given, it is called “Passive immunity”. (4) Growth response
 11 F4
83. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular 88. Match the following columns and select the
algae ? correct option.
(1) Anabaena and Volvox
Column - I Column - II
(2) Chlorella and Spirulina
(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between
(3) Laminaria and Sargassum
second and
(4) Gelidium and Gracilaria
seventh ribs

84. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of : (b) Acromion (ii) Head of the
(1) caseinogen into casein Humerus
(2) pepsinogen into pepsin
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
(3) protein into polypeptides
(4) trypsinogen into trypsin (d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect
with the sternum
85. Match the following columns and select the
(a) (b) (c) (d)
correct option.
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Column - I Column - II

(a) 6 - 15 pairs of (i) Trygon (2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

gill slits (3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes (4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
caudal fin

(c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes 89. Select the correct statement.
(d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes (1) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
adipocytes.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (2) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (3) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (4) Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

90. Presence of which of the following conditions in

86. The process responsible for facilitating loss of water
urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus ?
in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night
and in early morning is : (1) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(1) Imbibition
(2) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
(2) Plasmolysis
(3) Uremia and Ketonuria
(3) Transpiration
(4) Root pressure (4) Uremia and Renal Calculi

87. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge 91. Which of the following is correct about viroids ?
digester for further sewage treatment ?
(1) They have DNA with protein coat.
(1) Effluents of primary treatment
(2) Activated sludge (2) They have free DNA without protein coat.

(3) Primary sludge (3) They have RNA with protein coat.
(4) Floating debris (4) They have free RNA without protein coat.
F4 12
92. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did 96. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples
Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except of :
in one character with contrasting traits ?
(1) Industrial melanism
(1) 14
(2) Natural selection
(2) 8
(3) Adaptive radiation
(3) 4
(4) 2 (4) Convergent evolution

93. Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits 97. The number of substrate level phosphorylations
highest species diversity ? in one turn of citric acid cycle is :
(1) Himalayas (1) Two
(2) Amazon forests
(2) Three
(3) Western Ghats of India
(3) Zero
(4) Madagascar
(4) One
94. Match the following columns and select the
correct option. 98. Which of the following statements is not
Column - I Column - II correct ?
(1) The functional insulin has A and B chains
(a) Placenta (i) Androgens
linked together by hydrogen bonds.
(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic
(2) Genetically engineered insulin is produced
Gonadotropin in E-Coli.
(hCG)
(3) In man insulin is synthesised as a
(c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum proinsulin.
glands (4) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the C-peptide.
Penis
99. Match the following columns and select the
(a) (b) (c) (d) correct option.
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Column - I Column - II
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle
(4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) ear and pharynx

(b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the

95. Match the trophic levels with their correct species
examples in grassland ecosystem. labyrinth

(a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow (c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the
(b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture oval window

(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit (d) Stapes (iv) Located on the
basilar
(d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass
membrane
Select the correct option :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
 13 F4
100. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter 106. Name the plant growth regulator which upon
vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length
stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of : of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane
crop.
(1) S phase
(1) Ethylene
(2) G2 phase
(2) Abscisic acid
(3) M phase (3) Cytokinin
(4) G1 phase (4) Gibberellin

101. The process of growth is maximum during : 107. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
(1) Senescence
Column - I Column - II
(2) Dormancy
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous (i) Asterias
(3) Log phase pest
(4) Lag phase (b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion
symmetry and larva
with bilateral symmetry
102. The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents :
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
(1) Depolarisation of ventricles
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
(2) Repolarisation of ventricles (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Repolarisation of auricles (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) Depolarisation of auricles (2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
103. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis
(Bt) is resistant to : 108. Which of the following statements are true for
(1) Plant nematodes the phylum-Chordata ?
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from
(2) Insect predators
head to tail and it is present throughout
(3) Insect pests their life.
(4) Fungal diseases (b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during
the embryonic period only.

104. In which of the following techniques, the embryos (c) Central nervous system is dorsal and
are transferred to assist those females who cannot hollow.
conceive ? (d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :
Hemichordata, Tunicata and
(1) ICSI and ZIFT
Cephalochordata.
(2) GIFT and ICSI (1) (a) and (b)
(3) ZIFT and IUT (2) (b) and (c)
(4) GIFT and ZIFT (3) (d) and (c)
(4) (c) and (a)
105. Floridean starch has structure similar to :
109. The first phase of translation is :
(1) Mannitol and algin
(1) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(2) Laminarin and cellulose
(2) Recognition of an anti-codon
(3) Starch and cellulose (3) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
(4) Amylopectin and glycogen (4) Recognition of DNA molecule
F4 14
110. Identify the basic amino acid from the following. 116. Match the following :
(1) Lysine (a) Inhibitor of catalytic (i) Ricin
(2) Valine activity

(3) Tyrosine (b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate

(4) Glutamic Acid (c) Cell wall material in (iii) Chitin

fungi

111. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters (d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen
the human body is : Choose the correct option from the following :
(1) Female gametocytes (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Male gametocytes (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) Trophozoites
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) Sporozoites
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
112. Identify the correct statement with regard to
117. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and
G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
peptide bond, respectively in their structure :
(1) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does
(1) Cellulose, lecithin
not replicate its DNA.
(2) Inulin, insulin
(2) Nuclear Division takes place.
(3) Chitin, cholesterol
(3) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.
(4) Glycerol, trypsin
(4) Reorganisation of all cell components takes
place. 118. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
theory of inheritance was done by :
113. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the (1) Boveri
transfer of electrons from :
(2) Morgan
(1) PS-I to NADP+ (3) Mendel
(2) PS-I to ATP synthase (4) Sutton
(3) PS-II to Cytb6f complex
119. The specific palindromic sequence which is
(4) Cytb6f complex to PS-I recognized by EcoRI is :
(1) 5' - CTTAAG - 3'
114. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in
photorespiration leads to the formation of : 3' - GAATTC - 5'

(1) 1 molecule of 6-C compound (2) 5' - GGATCC - 3'

3' - CCTAGG - 5'
(2) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule
of 2-C compound (3) 5' - GAATTC - 3'
(3) 2 molecules of 3-C compound 3' - CTTAAG - 5'
(4) 5' - GGAACC - 3'
(4) 1 molecule of 3-C compound
3' - CCTTGG - 5'
115. Which is the important site of formation of
glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells ? 120. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA
helix during transcription.
(1) Golgi bodies
(1) DNA polymerase
(2) Polysomes
(2) RNA polymerase
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum (3) DNA ligase
(4) Peroxisomes (4) DNA helicase
 15 F4
121. Select the correct match. 126. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to :
(1) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal (1) High reflection of light from snow
recessive trait,
chromosome-11 (2) Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays

(2) Thalassemia - X linked (3) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low

temperature
(3) Haemophilia - Y linked
(4) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of
(4) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal UV-B radiation
dominant trait

127. Match the following diseases with the causative

122. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino
organism and select the correct option.
acids by mixing the following in a closed flask :
(1) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C Column - I Column - II
(2) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 6008C (a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
(3) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 8008C
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
(4) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 8008C
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
123. Match the following columns and select the (d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Column - I Column - II
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease
(a) (b) (c) (d) 128. Choose the correct pair from the following :

(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (1) Nucleases - Separate the two strands
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) of DNA

(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (2) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) positions within DNA

(3) Ligases - Join the two DNA

124. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli
molecules
is found in :
(1) proximal convoluted tubule of nephron (4) Polymerases - Break the DNA into
(2) eustachian tube fragments

(3) lining of intestine

129. Which of the following statements about inclusion
(4) ducts of salivary glands bodies is incorrect ?
(1) They lie free in the cytoplasm.
125. Strobili or cones are found in :
(1) Marchantia (2) These represent reserve material in
cytoplasm.
(2) Equisetum
(3) They are not bound by any membrane.
(3) Salvinia
(4) These are involved in ingestion of food
(4) Pteris particles.
F4 16
130. Select the correct events that occur during 134. Match the following with respect to meiosis :
inspiration.
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization
(a) Contraction of diaphragm
(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles (c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases (d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases Select the correct option from the following :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) only (d)
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) (a) and (b)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (c) and (d)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

131. Ray florets have : 135. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments
(1) Hypogynous ovary can be visualized with the help of :
(1) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(2) Half inferior ovary
(2) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(3) Inferior ovary
(3) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
(4) Superior ovary
(4) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation

132. Match the organism with its use in biotechnology. 136. Which of the following is a natural polymer ?
(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector (1) polybutadiene
thuringiensis (2) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)
(3) cis-1,4-polyisoprene
(b) Thermus (ii) Construction of
aquaticus first rDNA (4) poly (Butadiene-styrene)
molecule
137. On electrolysis of dil.sulphuric acid using
(c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at
anode will be :
tumefaciens
(1) H2S gas
(d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins (2) SO2 gas
typhimurium
(3) Hydrogen gas
Select the correct option from the following : (4) Oxygen gas
(a) (b) (c) (d)
138. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc)
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The atomic
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
radius is :
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
4
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (1) × 288 pm
3

133. Which of the following is not an inhibitory 4

(2) × 288 pm
substance governing seed dormancy ? 2
(1) Phenolic acid 3
(3) × 288 pm
(2) Para-ascorbic acid 4
(3) Gibberellic acid 2
(4) × 288 pm
(4) Abscisic acid 4
 17 F4
139. The correct option for free expansion of an ideal 143. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives :
gas under adiabatic condition is :
(1) q < 0, ∆T=0 and w=0
(2) q > 0, ∆T > 0 and w > 0
(3) q=0, ∆T=0 and w=0 (1)

(4) q=0, ∆T < 0 and w > 0

140. Which of the following set of molecules will have

zero dipole moment ?
(1) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
(2)
water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
(2) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
(3) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water,
1,4-dichlorobenzene
(4) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon (3)
dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene

141. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a cylinder contains

7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total pressure of the
mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the
partial pressure of N2 is :
(4)
[Use atomic masses (in g mol−1) : N=14, Ar=40]

(1) 15 bar
(2) 18 bar 144. The mixture which shows positive deviation from
Raoult’s law is :
(3) 9 bar
(1) Acetone+Chloroform
(4) 12 bar (2) Chloroethane+Bromoethane
(3) Ethanol+Acetone
(4) Benzene+Toluene
142. Identify the correct statements from the
following : 145. Which of the following is the correct order of
(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream increasing field strength of ligands to form
and frozen food. coordination compounds ?
(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six (1) F− < SCN− < C2O42−< CN−
carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(2) CN− < C2O42−< SCN− < F−
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert (3) SCN− < F− < C2O42− < CN−
alcohols into gasoline.
(4) SCN− < F− < CN− < C2O42−
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.
146. Which one of the followings has maximum number
(1) (b) and (c) only of atoms ?
(2) (c) and (d) only (1) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O=16]
(2) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li=7]
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (3) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag=108]
(4) (a) and (c) only (4) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg=24]
F4 18
147. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in 152. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following
good yield by Wurtz reaction ? reaction.
(1) n-Heptane
(2) n-Butane Sucrose+H2O ⇌ Glucose+Fructose
(3) n-Hexane If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2×1013 at
(4) 2,3-Dimethylbutane 300 K, the value of ∆rGs at the same temperature
will be :
148. Which of the following is not correct about carbon
(1) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(3×1013)
monoxide ?
(1) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin (2) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(4×1013)
bound to CO) is less stable than
(3) −8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)
oxyhaemoglobin.
(2) It is produced due to incomplete combustion. (4) 8.314 J mol−1K−1×300 K×ln(2×1013)
(3) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
(4) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood. 153. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of Cr2+
ion is :
149. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) → Cl2(g), the correct
(1) 5.92 BM
option is :
(1) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0 (2) 2.84 BM
(2) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0 (3) 3.87 BM
(3) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0
(4) 4.90 BM
(4) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS < 0

150. Match the following and identify the correct 154. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining
option. which property of colloidal solution ?

(a) CO(g)+H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2+ (1) Stability of the colloidal particles

Ca(HCO3)2 (2) Size of the colloidal particles
(b) Temporary (ii) An electron
(3) Viscosity
hardness of deficient hydride
water (4) Solubility
(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas
(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar 155. Which of the following is a cationic detergent ?
structure
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (2) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate

(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (3) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) Sodium stearate
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

151. Urea reacts with water to form A which will 156. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH.
decompose to form B. B when passed through Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is
Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed. 2×10−15.
What is the formula of C from the following ?
(1) 1×10−13 M
(1) Cu(OH)2
(2) 1×108 M
(2) CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2
(3) CuSO4 (3) 2×10−13 M
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (4) 2×10−8 M
 19 F4
157. Identify compound X in the following sequence of 160. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
reactions : 4.606×10−3 s−1. The time required to reduce
2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
(1) 500 s
(2) 1000 s
(3) 100 s
(4) 200 s

161. The number of Faradays(F) required to produce

20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 (Atomic mass
of Ca=40 g mol−1) is :
(1) 3
(1) (2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 2

162. Identify the correct statement from the

following :

(2) (1) Vapour phase refining is carried out for

Nickel by Van Arkel method.
(2) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of
shapes.
(3) Wrought iron is impure iron with
4% carbon.
(4) Blister copper has blistered appearance due
(3) to evolution of CO2.

163. Identify a molecule which does not exist.

(1) C2
(2) O2
(3) He2
(4) (4) Li2

164. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a

secondary butyl carbocation because of which of
158. The following metal ion activates many enzymes, the following ?
participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce (1) −R effect of −CH3 groups
ATP and with Na, is responsible for the
transmission of nerve signals. (2) Hyperconjugation
(1) Calcium (3) −I effect of −CH3 groups
(2) Potassium (4) +R effect of −CH3 groups
(3) Iron
(4) Copper 165. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2, MgCl2
and NaCl. Which of the following compound(s)
159. An increase in the concentration of the reactants crystallise(s) ?
of a reaction leads to change in :
(1) Only MgCl2
(1) threshold energy
(2) collision frequency (2) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
(3) activation energy (3) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
(4) heat of reaction (4) Only NaCl
F4 20
166. Which of the following amine will give the 169. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :
carbylamine test ? (1) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Fructose
(2) α-D-Fructose+β-D-Fructose
(3) β-D-Glucose+α-D-Fructose
(4) α-D-Glucose+β-D-Glucose

170. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of

(1)
the product. Its structure is :

(1)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(4)

167. Identify the incorrect match.

Name IUPAC Official Name (4)

(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium

(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
(c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium 171. Identify the incorrect statement.
(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium (1) Interstitial compounds are those that are
formed when small atoms like H, C or N
(1) (c), (iii) are trapped inside the crystal lattices of
(2) (d), (iv) metals.
(3) (a), (i) (2) The oxidation states of chromium in CrO24−
(4) (b), (ii)
and Cr2O72− are not the same.
168. Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium
chloride followed by hydrolysis will give : (3) Cr2+(d4) is a stronger reducing agent than
Fe2+(d6) in water.
(1) Tert. butyl alcohol
(4) The transition metals and their compounds
(2) Isobutyl alcohol
are known for their catalytic activity due to
(3) Isopropyl alcohol their ability to adopt multiple oxidation
(4) Sec. butyl alcohol states and to form complexes.
 21 F4
172. Which of the following is a basic amino acid ? 177. Paper chromatography is an example of :
(1) Tyrosine (1) Thin layer chromatography
(2) Lysine (2) Column chromatography
(3) Serine (3) Adsorption chromatography
(4) Alanine (4) Partition chromatography

173. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has 178. What is the change in oxidation number of carbon
−O−O− linkage ? in the following reaction ?
(1) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid CH4(g)+4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l)+4HCl(g)
(2) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
(1) −4 to +4
(3) H2SO3, sulphurous acid
(2) 0 to −4
(4) H2SO4, sulphuric acid
(3) +4 to +4
174. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form (4) 0 to +4
pent-2-ene is :
179. Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone
(a) β-Elimination reaction
in presence of dilute NaOH is known as :
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule
(1) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(2) Cross Aldol condensation
(d) Dehydration reaction
(3) Aldol condensation
(1) (b), (c), (d)
(4) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(2) (a), (b), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c) 180. The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in
(4) (a), (c), (d) 175
71 Lu , respectively, are :

175. Match the following : (1) 71, 71 and 104

Oxide Nature (2) 175, 104 and 71
(3) 71, 104 and 71
(a) CO (i) Basic
(4) 104, 71 and 71
(b) BaO (ii) Neutral
(c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
-o0o-
(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
Which of the following is correct option ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

176. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of

benzene is 5.12 K kg mol−1. The freezing point
depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m
containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is
(rounded off upto two decimal places) :
(1) 0.40 K
(2) 0.60 K
(3) 0.20 K
(4) 0.80 K
F4 22
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 23 F4
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F4 24
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