025ae666d703c-Mock CLAT 28 Questions

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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2021

MOCK CLAT #28
Candidate Name : _________________

Duration : 120 Minutes
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Centre Name : __________
Date of Exam : _________________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 150multiple choice objective type questions.
3. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 150.
4. There is a negative marking of 0.25 marks for every incorrect answer.
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a
BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the TajMahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The candidate has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below :
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered
incorrect and no marks will be awarded for the same.
7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and in
the spaces provided for.
9. After the Test is over, the candidate has to return the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator. The
candidate should take the Test Paper along with them.
10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal
prosecution.
12. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, pagers or calculators are strictly not permitted inside the Test
Centre/Hall.
13. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the Test is over.
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.28): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): Probably, if I had lately left a good home and kind parents, this would have been the
hour when I should most keenly have regretted the separation; that wind would then have saddened my
heart; this obscure chaos would have disturbed my peace! as it was, I derived from both a strange
excitement, and reckless and feverish, I wished the wind to howl more wildly, the gloom to deepen to
darkness, and the confusion to rise to clamour.
Jumping over forms, and creeping under tables, I made my way to one of the fire-places; there, kneeling
by the high wire fender, I found Burns, absorbed, silent, abstracted from all round her by the
companionship of a book, which she read by the dim glare of the embers.
And in five minutes more she shut it up. I was glad of this.
"Do you come a long way from here?"
"I come from a place on the borders of Scotland."
"Will you ever go back?"
"I hope so; but nobody can be sure of the future."
"You must wish to leave Lowood?"
"No! why should I? I was sent to Lowood to get an education; and it would be of no use going away until I
have attained that object."
"But that teacher, Miss Scatcherd, is so cruel to you?"
"Cruel? Not at all! She is severe: she dislikes my faults."
"And if I were in your place I should dislike her; I should resist her."
"Probably you would do nothing of the sort: but if you did, Mr. Brocklehurst would expel you from the
school; that would be a great grief to your relations. It is far better to endure patiently a smart which
nobody feels but yourself, than to commit a hasty action whose evil consequences will extend to all
connected with you; and besides, the Bible bids us return good for evil."
"But then it seems disgraceful to be flogged, and to be sent to stand in the middle of a room full of
people; I could not bear it."
"Yet it would be your duty to bear it, if you could not avoid it: it is weak and silly to say you cannot bear
what it is your fate to be required to bear."
I heard her with wonder: I could not comprehend this doctrine of endurance; and still less could I
understand or sympathise with the forbearance she expressed for her chastiser. Still I felt that Helen
Burns considered things by a light invisible to my eyes. I suspected she might be right and I wrong; but I
would not ponder the matter deeply; like Felix, I put it off to a more convenient season.
(Source: Excerpt from Jane Eyre by Charlotte Bronte

https://www.shmoop.com/jane-eyre/volume-1-chapter-6-full-text-3.html)
1. Which of the following can we conclude about the narrator?

(a) She was separated from her good home and family
(b) She is not happy with the place she is in and would resist the treatment if she could.
(c) The place where she is at, is new to her.
(d) All of the above
2. What does “both” refer to in “I derived from both a strange excitement”?

(a) good home and kind parents
(b) reckless and feverish
(c) gloom and clamour
(d) wind and obscure chaos
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-9111555433|www.legaledge.in Page 2 of 40

3. “It is far better to endure patiently a smart which nobody feels but yourself, than to commit a hasty action
whose evil consequences will extend to all connected with you” On the basis of the quote mentioned
above, which of the following statements is Burns most likely to agree with?
(a) Patience is the key to all matters of the ego.
(b) It is better that one suffers than five.
(c) When one acts, he or she is acting for all.
(d) No suffering is worse than a disgrace to one’s person.
4. Who is the narrator calling “her chastiser”?

(a) Mr. Brocklehurst (b) Miss Scatcherd
(c) Lowood (d) Felix
5. What did the narrator mean when she said “Helen Burns considered things by a light invisible to my
eyes”?
(a) She does not see what Helen Burns can see.
(b) She is unable to understand Helen Burns perspective on the issue.
(c) She thinks Helen Burns is wrong in her views.
(d) None of the above
Passage (Q.6-Q.10): One Hundred Years of Solitude begins with: “Many years later, as he faced the
firing squad, Colonel Aureliano Buendía was to remember that distant afternoon when his father took him
to discover ice.”
“Time,” my teacher at a writing course said, “goes in one direction. Forward, not back.” She continued,
“We only have to look at the seasons to be reminded of that.” And then it occurred to me. “Time is
different for us in the tropics.” García Márquez was from the tropics, like me.
In a temperate climate, the world is constantly shifting before your eyes: a constant reminder of the
passing of time. But it isn’t so everywhere. Consider where I come from, there is no lengthening and
shortening of the day: either it is day or night. There’s no widespread shedding of leaves, no sense of
death or rebirth. The only real variation is the rain. For half of the year, it is very dry, for the other, very
rainy. And then, of course, at our perimeter, is the sea, coming in, then going out. Thus our rhythm is a
simple never-ending one-two like ticking of a metronome: in-out, dry-wet, or day-night. Our landscape
suggests the never-endingness of time.
‘Many years later’ connects two points in time. Point X, in the past, and the time many years later, Y. The
phrase “many years later” is not in itself a stroke of genius. ‘when he was to face the firing squad’—here’s
where it gets crazy as the opening line of a novel presents us with knowledge of something which is
usually unknowable, the moment of one’s own death. Immediately, we move into the slightly surreal
territory of omniscience.
Next, we come to the ‘was to remember’. Where are we in time? Are we at X or Y? The moment when
the character does the remembering happens at time Y, but was to remember seems to suspend us
outside time altogether.
At the end of the sentence, we find the X. The fact that it is the father taking the son to “discover”
something hints at something ancient, something further past even than the “distant afternoon,” and gives
the impression of knowledge of previous generations rippling through time.
All this is captured in this single elegant sentence, this brief moment when the character is able to see
the whole stretch of his life, from end to end. García Márquez manages to present an alternative notion of
time. He writes as if there were a kind of parity to past and future, almost as if there were no forward
arrow of time at all.
(Source: https://lithub.com/on-the-iconic-first-line-of-one-hundred-years-of-solitude/)

6. What was so peculiar about the opening line of One Hundred Years of Solitude that stuck out to the
author?
(a) The very first sentence of the novel throws the reader into quite an emotionally shocking situation
where he is side by side the character facing a firing squad.
(b) The line presents time in a manner peculiar to one part of the world.
(c) The line suggests passing of time using the symbolism of ice and summer, even though the
combination of ice and summer is unusual.
7. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

(a) A writer’s conceptions and expressions depend on the landscape he or she comes from.
(b) García Márquez is a genius and does not conform to rules of writing.
(c) The transient nature of the world is something that cannot be escaped
(d) That sentence is García Márquez’s greatest work.
8. Why does the author compare the tropics to a ‘never ending ticking of a metronome’?
(1) The tropics are known for their connection to rhythm and music
(2) There is no significant change in the environment akin to the seasonal changes in temperate climates
(3) The tropics have a constant one-two environmental rhythm
(a) 1 and 2. (b) 2 and 3. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3
9. Why, according to the author, is the usage of the word “discover’ significant?
(a) It seems to suggest the exploration of something older than would otherwise have been anticipated.
(b) It lets the reader know that something as common as ice is unknown to the character.
(c) The word discover is a mistranslation from the original Spanish expression, and yet works quite well
to add meaning to the sentence.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
10. Which of the following words from the passage mean the same as “dreamlike”?
(a) elegant (b) parity (c) surreal (d) omniscience
Passage (Q.11-Q.16): It was Monday and my grandmother was sitting by the fire. Today her Sunday
skirt was one layer closer to her person, while the one that had basked in the warmth of her skin on
Sunday swathed her hips in Monday gloom. She coaxed the first cooked potato out of the ashes with her
branch and gazed wide-eyed across the field toward the nearby horizon, sectioned by telegraph poles
and the brickworks chimney.
Three men were darting between the poles, they made for the chimney, then round in front, then one
doubled back. Short and wide he seemed, he took a fresh start and made it across the brickyard, the
other two, long and thin, just behind him. Short and Wide seemed to be in more of a hurry than Long and
Thin. Suddenly they were gone and the little one disappeared too, behind the horizon, in the middle of his
jump from the chimney.
Taking advantage of the intermission, my grandmother tried to spit another potato, but missed it.
Because Short and Wide climbed up over the horizon as if it were a fence. He was still in a hurry. My
grandmother missed her potato again; because it’s not every day that you see this kind of thing. Three
full-grown men, though they hadn’t grown in exactly the same directions, hopping around telegraph
poles, leaping through the field that Vincent had plowed two days before.
Then all three of them disappeared into the narrow lane and my grandmother ventured to spit another
potato, which by this time was almost cold. They must be from the brickworks, she thought if she thought
anything. She was still chewing with a circular motion when one of them jumped out of the lane, wild eyes
over a black mustache, reached the fire in two jumps. He hit his knees, panting, his whole face a tremble.
He ventured to crawl closer, towards my grandmother’s boots, peering up at her like a little animal.
Heaving a great sigh, which made her stop chewing on her potato, my grandmother lifted high all her four
skirts, high enough so that Short and Wide, who was not from the brickworks, could crawl underneath. All
was as still as on the first day of Creation or the last; and my grandmother smoothed down her

uppermost skirt neatly and sensibly over the second one; she scarcely felt him under her fourth skirt, and
her third skirt wasn’t even aware that there was anything new and unusual next to her skin. What else
could she have done? Then Long and Thin popped out of the lane. They were indeed long and thin and
they wore the uniform of the rural constabulary.
(Excerpt from The Tin Drum by Günter Grass.

Source: https://www.nobelprize.org/prizes/literature/1999/grass/prose/)
11. How many characters in total appear in this extract?

(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 5
12. Narrator’s grandmother seems to wear skirts in a unique manner. Which of the following can be
ascertained as true about the same?
1. She has one skirt for each day of the week, as known through the expression “her Sunday skirt”.
2. She wore multiple skirts at the same time.
3. There was a cyclic pattern to her wardrobe.
4. She must be in regular habit of hiding things under her skirt.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
13. The short and wide man disappeared and emerged several times from different places. Which of the
following is not one of the places he disappeared in?
(a) Behind the horizon (b) Into the chimney
(c) Into the narrow lane (d) Under grandmother’s skirt
14. How is grandmother’s response to the scene significant for the reader?
(a) She barely reciprocates the chaos of the scene with mild distant interest. It makes the incident seem
insignificant and theatrical.
(b) It is only through grandmother’s eyes that the reader is able to see the scene. She watches keenly
and eagerly and plays an active role in helping the man.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
15. Which of the following words from the passage mean the same as “put a long, thin stick through
something in order to hold”?
(a) peer (b) section (c) spit (d) coax
16. Which of the following is the exact opposite to word ‘Gloom’?

(a) Sadness (b) Shadow (c) Bright (d) Melancholic
Passage (Q.17-Q.22): Among other things, in The Great Derangement, Amitav Ghosh notes, medieval
texts across language and region have a wide-ranging engagement with nature. The illustrations aren’t
static accessories; they are essential to the ‘grammar’ of these texts.
Ghosh’s Jungle Nama is an illustrated verse retelling of a Sunderban legend of the forest deity, Bon Bibi.
The pre-existing versions of the story call it Bon Bibi Johuranama.
Jungle Nama introduces us to a cunning merchant who enlists his nephew in a honey-gathering mission
into the Sunderban mangrove forest. Led by greed, he ends up invading the territory of a “mighty spirit
feared by all under the sky” who “preyed on humans in a tiger avatar”. The beautiful, idiosyncratic
illustrations of the book subtly drive home the story’s finer points.
Ghosh says: “Modern literature has become completely logocentric. If you look at the Persian epics or
even something like Charles Dickens’ serialised novels, the images that they use are very distinctive.
They add a dimension to the text that cannot be achieved by words alone. I wanted Jungle Nama to tap
into those modes of creation that were not completely bound up with words.”

In a interview, Ghosh describes how premodern texts like the Johuranama have been on his mind since
the writing of The Great Derangement. “When I wrote The Great Derangement, I was thinking about a lot
of premodern texts from around the world that seemed to share certain concerns about natural resources
and human greed. To my mind, their understanding of these issues was often more humane and
sophisticated than books written hundreds of years afterwards.”
Jungle Nama, like the existing Johuranamas, is written in the form of an epic poem in dwipodi-payar, the
‘two-footed’ metre used in Bengali folk literature over hundreds of years. The metre is designed for
chants and songs, meant to be read aloud. Ghosh points out that reading or chanting these works was a
community experience. “Reading alone and silently only started in 18th century Europe and has now
become universal to the point where people subconsciously associate these acts with solitude.”
Moreover, working your ideas into verse was the linguistic equivalent of a preservative; it made sure that
the core of your message survived transport and localised variations. As Ghosh says, “Verse is a way of
harnessing the power of language. Because verse makes you concentrate what you’re saying. It makes
you channel your message through very rigorous forms of expression and in doing so, makes it
memorable.”
Jungle Nama ends with a couplet that encapsulates the book’s ecological message perfectly: “A world of
endless appetite is a world possessed, is what your munshi’s learned, by way of this quest.”
(Source:https://www.thehindu.com/books/modern-literature-has-become-completely-logocentric-amitav-
ghosh/article34221754.ece)
17. Which of the following seems to be the central point of discussion in the passage?
(a) The legend of the Sunderban diety Bon Bibi.
(b) Amitav Ghosh’s rendition of Bon Bibi’s tale.
(c) The evolution of literature from pre-modern times to now.
(d) Amitav Ghosh’s concerns for the environment from his book ‘The Great Derangement’
18. What did Ghosh mean when he called a verse a ‘linguistic equivalent of a preservative’?
(a) Dwipodi-payar, the ‘two-footed’ metre, has been in use since time immemorial in Bengali literature
(b) Before the use of verses in literature, all literary affairs were a community experience where reciting
to each other was the norm.
(c) Literature composed in verses have a way of surviving the test of travel.
19. How, according to the passage, was pre-modern literature different from modern literature?
(1) Illustrations were a major contributor to the value of the work in pre-modern times.
(2) Modern literature doesn’t engage with legends and folklore as much as it was done in pre-modern
times.
(3) Pre-modern literature engaged with nature in a profound way.
(a) 1 and 2. (b) 2 and 3. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3
20. Which of the following cannot be concluded about Amitav Ghosh from the reading of this passage?
(a) Ecological themes are important to him in his work.
(b) He has made significant contribution to history of literature through his study.
(c) He has authored at least two books.
(d) He has faith in music as a literary device.
21. Which of the following words from the passage mean the same as “developed to a high degree of
complexity”?
(a) Logocentric (b) Idiosyncratic (c) Modern (d) Sophisticated

22. What is the meaning of the term ‘encapsulate’ used in the above passage?
(a) Sum up (b) Conclude (c) Surround (d) All of the above
Passage (Q.23-Q.28): I was born a small city (medium by Spanish standards) called Las Palmas
de Gran Canaria, the Canary Islands, a group of islands that belong to Spain but are
geographically located very close to the coast of northwestern Africa.
People have always simply called this place Las Palmas, a name well known in Sindhi circles as it is one
of the enclaves around the world where a sizeable Sindhi diaspora somehow ended up settling, and with
one of the biggest Indian communities in Spain. I don’t think I’d be wrong if I said that any Sindhi around
the globe has probably at some point had a relative, friend or acquaintance living in Spain, and good
chances are that that person was living in Las Palmas.
Surprisingly, over 95% of Indians here are Sindhis and we now have even third and fourth generation
Sindhis here; however, statistics may not really portray the true picture of how many Sindhis or Indians
live in Spain or the Canaries, as a majority have obtained Spanish citizenship, or were even born
Spanish by law if their parents had already nationalised themselves beforehand.
My identity has a lot to do with my origins; with what and who I feel I am; with where I come from; with to
where I feel a sense of belonging. Perhaps one of the reasons for this is because I was born and raised
in a country and culture-of-the-land totally different to that of my parents’.
Among people of my generation or circumstances, however, it may not necessarily be same; weight of
their or their parents’ origin in their identities can be weaker or stronger. Some people feel closer to the
land where they have been born and raised, others feel closer to their parent’s places of origin. And
some, like me, are somewhere in the middle, in between two poles, where the shades of grey are infinite
yet equally valid.
Today, being in the grey areas is a good feeling but it wasn’t so easy when I was a teenager and into my
early twenties to figure out where I actually belonged. I felt divided between India and Spain. Sometimes I
even had these crazy passing thoughts like, “If there was a war between India and Spain, which side
would I be on?” or “Which side would I support in a hockey or football match between Spain and India?”
Questions I could not answer.
23. Choose the option representing the correct order of omitted prepositions in the bold and underlined
sentence of the passage.
(a) At, in (b) In, in (c) In, at (d) At, at
24. The main theme of the passage revolves around:

(a) Describing the life of almost every Sindhi kid growing up with their parents in a foreign land.
(b) Portraying the importance of paying heed to one’s culture and heritage.
(c) Portraying deep emotional turmoils the author went through while being born and brought up in a
Sindhi household abroad.
(d) All of the above.
25. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct according to the passage?
Statement 1: The author is still not content with how he feels about his identity.
Statement 2: Statistics can’t portray the true picture of how many Sindhis or Indians live in Spain or the
Canaries, as a majority have obtained Spanish citizenship.
(a) Statement 1 (b) Statement 2 (c) Both (d) Neither statement 1 nor 2.
26. Which of the following options represents the correct order of articles in the italicized sentence of the
passage?
(a) the, a (b) a, the (c) a, the, the (d) the, the

27. ‘And some, like me, are somewhere in the middle, in between two poles, where the shades of grey are
infinite yet equally valid.’
Which of the following literary devices has been used in the above sentence?
(a) Dramatic Irony (b) Extended Metaphor
(c) Allegory (d) Anachronism
28. What is the meaning of the word ‘Diaspora’ used in the passage?
(a) A group of people from one country, spreading into another.
(b) A group of natives who are in minority in their own original country.
(c) A group of indigenous tribes.
(d) None of the above.

SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS
Directions (Q.29–Q.63): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.29-Q.33): “From our point of view, we encourage both Russia and the United States to use
these next five years to negotiate further reductions in their nuclear weapons, as well as new agreements
that can address the emerging nuclear weapons challenges of our time and make the world a better
place,” he told a daily press briefing.
The spokesman expressed the hope that more countries that have nuclear weapons will join nuclear
disarmament efforts.
“It is clear that the more countries that have nuclear weapons engage in disarmament talks and move
towards a world free of nuclear weapons, the better we will all be,” he said.
The New Treaty, signed in April 2010 by the US and Russia, limits the number of deployed strategic
nuclear warheads to 1,550 and deployed missiles and bombers to 700 for each country.
The US and Russia on Wednesday officially announced a five-year extension of the treaty, the maximum
period allowed by the treaty, two days before expiration.
The former US administration led by Donald Trump tried to conclude a shorter extension of the treaty last
year after rounds of negotiation with Russia. But the two sides failed to finalize a formal agreement.
Immediately after taking office, US President Joe Biden proposed a full five-year extension, a move
welcomed by the Kremlin.
29. Which treaty is being discussed in the above passage?

(a) STAR (b) TARS (c) START (d) RATS
30. Which of the following statements is not correct about the treaty?
(a) It entered into force on 5th February, 2011.
(b) It is a successor to the START framework of 1991 (at the end of the Cold War) that limited both sides
to 1,600 strategic delivery vehicles and 6,000 warheads.
(c) It continues the bipartisan process of verifiably reducing U.S. and Russian strategic nuclear arsenals
by limiting both sides to 700 strategic launchers and 1,550 operational warheads.
(d) It will lapse in February 2022 unless extended for a five-year period.
31. This step by Russia is a welcome move after suspension of the Intermediate-Range Nuclear Force
Treaty (INF Treaty) in 2019 and withdrawal of USA and Russia from which treaty?
(a) Strategic Offensive Reductions Treaty
(b) Open Skies Treaty
(c) UN Arms Treaty
(d) START II Treaty
32. The term ‘strategic offensive arms’ applies to nuclear warheads deployed by
(a) Strategic Nuclear Delivery Vehicles (b) Special Atomic Demolition Munition
(c) Hypersonic Glide Vehicles (d) Medium Atomic Demolition Munition
33. Consider following statement about New treaty

I At the United Nation’s virtual meeting, the President of Russia hailed the decision to extend the treaty
as “a step in the right direction,” but also warned about the rising global rivalries and threats of new
conflicts.
II The pact’s extension doesn’t require congressional approval in the USA, but Russian lawmakers
must ratify the move and its President has to sign the relevant Bill into law.
Which of the following statement is/are true?
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) None of these

Passage (Q.34-Q.38): The treaty, due to its very provisions, did not find much support from the P-5
countries of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) despite being party to the Nuclear Non-
Proliferation Treaty (NPT). This is since it prevents countries from participating in any nuclear weapons-
related activities, including development, testing, possession, stockpile, use, or threat of use of nuclear
weapons.
India had refused to be a party to the talks, which concluded in New York on 7 July 2017, when the treaty
was being negotiated at the UN. Earlier in March that year, New Delhi had abstained on this resolution
and provided a detailed ‘Explanation of Vote’. Further, India expressed its position on the issue of its non-
participation in these negotiations at a Plenary of the Conference on Disarmament, also held in March
2017.
However, it was due to Honduras that the treaty finally came into effect as it completed the required 50
ratifications in October 2020.
34. Which treaty is being discussed in the above passage?

(a) Anti-Nuclear Weapons Treaty (b) Humanity Against Nuclear Treaty
(c) Prohibition of Nuclear Weapon (d) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty\
35. Which of the following statements are not correct about the Treaty discussed in the above passage?
(a) India remains committed to the policy of No First Use (NFU) against nuclear weapon states and non-
use against non-nuclear-weapon states.
(b) India is a key partner in global efforts towards disarmament and strengthening the non-proliferation
order.
(c) India believes that nuclear disarmament can be achieved through a step-by-step process
underwritten by a universal commitment and an agreed multilateral framework after meaningful
dialogues among all States possessing nuclear weapons, for building trust and confidence.
(d) However, India didn’t show its support to the commencement of negotiations on a “comprehensive
Nuclear Weapons Convention in the Conference on Disarmament”. It is the only multilateral
disarmament negotiating forum that works on the basis of consensus.
36. Consider the following statement about the Treaty

I The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) had approved the “Treaty on the Prohibition of
Nuclear Weapons” in the year 2017.
II The treaty was supported by the NATO alliance as well.
Which of the following statement is/are true?
(a) Only II (b) Only I (c) Both I and II (d) None of these
37. Which of the following country is not the part of The recognized “Nuclear weapon States”
(a) USA (b) France (c) North Korea (d) China
38. Which of the following is a proposed international agreement that prohibits the production of two main
components of nuclear weapons: highly-enriched Uranium and Plutonium?
(a) Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty
(b) Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons
(c) Comprehensive Nuclear Weapons Convention
(d) Fissile Material Cut-off Treaty

Passage (Q.39-Q.43): The final version of the must-pass annual defense policy bill unveiled Thursday
mandates the U.S. president sanction [1] for its acquisition of the S-400 air missile defense system.
Though President Donald Trump has held off sanctioning [1] for the purchase under the 2017 Act, the
defense bill would order that five or more sanctions under the Act be imposed within 30 days.
The duty would fall to the Trump administration unless the bill is signed after next week. Otherwise it
would fall to President-elect Joe Biden, who is due to be inaugurated Jan. 20.
NATO says the S-400s pose a threat to the military alliance and particularly endanger the technical
secrets of the F-35 aircraft.
The language, sought by Democrats and the Republican chairman of the Senate Foreign Relations
Committee, Sen. Jim Risch, would determinethat [1] $2.5 billion purchase of the S-400 constitutes a
“significant transaction” under the ACT, which offers a range of sanctions against any nation procuring a
major defense article from Russia.
39. Which Act is being discussed in the above passage?

(a) CAASAT (b) CAATAS (c) CAATSA (d) CAAATS
40. Which of these has been replaced by [1] in the above passage?
(a) Iran (b) Iraq (c) Turkey (d) Solvenia
41. Which of the following statement is not correct about the Sanction?
(a) Sanctions were imposed on country’s main defence procurement agency, the Presidency of Defense
Industries (SSB).
(b) These sanctions comprise a ban on granting specific U.S. export licenses and authorisations for any
goods or technology.
(c) Also, a ban on loans or credits by U.S. financial institutions totaling more than 10 million USD in any
15-month period.
(d) A ban on U.S. Export-Import Bank assistance for exports and mandated U.S. opposition to loans by
international financial organisations to SSB.
42. How many types of Sanctions does the Act contains?

(a) 14 (b) 12 (c) 10 (d) 15
43. The Act was Enacted in 2017, it is a US federal law that imposed sanctions on which of the following
Country
(a) Iran (b) North Korea (c) Russia (d) All of the above
Passage (Q.44-Q.48): Approximately two years after country passed its controversial nation state law,
the country’s Supreme Court assembled on Tuesday this week for a special session to hear a petition by
citizens and rights groups asking for the scrapping of this law. The petition asks for a declaration that
articles in this law are unconstitutional, specifically those pertaining to Country’s official language and
land allocation laws, which petitioners claim are discriminatory towards non-Jewish citizens.
It has been a tumultuous year for country’s President Benjamin Netanyahu’s government and for the
leader himself. Country is scheduled to hold its fourth elections in two years after the country’s two main
parties in its unity government failed to meet a deadline in a dispute over government budgets.
In the midst of this, Netanyahu, who is on trial for corruption, has been aiming for a sixth term in the
country’s highest office, while simultaneously facing mass protests this year from citizens calling for his
resignation. The coronavirus pandemic has exacerbated the leader’s problems, with protesters also
accusing him of mishandling the outbreak.
44. Which country is being discussed in the above passage?

(a) Turkey (b) Iran (c) Kazakhstan (d) Israel

45. Which of the following statement is not correct about the legislation?
(a) Lays down that Israel, with the ‘whole and united’ Jerusalem as its ‘capital’ is the historic homeland of
the Islamic people and they have an exclusive right to national self-determination in it.
(b) Defines the promotion, encouragement, establishment and consolidation of Jewish communities as
being in the national interest.
(c) Stripping Arabic, the first language of 1.8 million citizens, of its national language status and only
granting it a ‘special status’ while making Hebrew the country’s national language.
(d) None of these
46. In which year, the six-day war took place between Israel and Palestine?
(a) 1967 (b) 1970 (c) 1979 (d) 1975
47. How many Constitutional laws are there in the Country?

(a) Twelve (b) Thirteen (c) Fourteen (d) Fifteen
48. In which year the law was enacted?

(a) 2016 (b) 2017 (c) 2018 (d) 2019
Passage (Q.49-Q.53): Mt. Everest, the highest mountain above sea level on Earth, has seen a revision
in its height, which makes it even higher than before. The joint announcement by China and Nepal, who
had previously disagreed on the actual height of the peak, came on Tuesday. Interestingly, both nations
agreed on one point in that they had pegged the height of Mt. Everest to be higher than the past recorded
measurements.
Foreign ministers of China and Nepal - Wang Yi and Pradeep Gyawali, respectively - had simultaneously
pressed buttons during a virtual conference, post which the new measurement was displayed on the
screens.
Surveyors from Nepal had measured the peak back in 2019, with Chinese surveyors also scaling the
mountain in 2020. The unanimous agreement on the current figure was based on these readings.
After a major earthquake hit Nepal in 2015, there had been debates regarding the height of the mountain.
The natural calamity that had destroyed about a million structures in Nepal and caused 9,000 fatalities,
was also believed to have shrunk Mt. Everest owing to an avalanche on the mountain, which also took 19
lives.
49. Nepal and China have announced the revised height of Mount Everest as
(a) 8,844.66 metres (b) 8,848.76 metres
(c) 8,848.86 metres (d) 8,846.96 metres
50. By which of the following name does Everest is known in Nepal

(a) Annapurna Himal (b) Sagarmatha Himal
(c) Lhotse Himal (d) Makalu Himal
51. In which year the first survey of Everest was carried out
(a) 1847 (b) 1947 (c) 1858 (d) 1958
52. It was first scaled in 1953 by the Indian-Nepalese Tenzing Norgay and New Zealander
(a) Mark Woodward (b) Mike Roberts
(c) Ang Karma Sherpa (d) Edmund Hillary
53. Which Country’s government provided Global Navigation satellite and trained technicians to Nepal to
measure the mountain?
(a) India (b) Australia (c) New Zealand (d) France

Passage (Q.54-Q.58): President Ram Nath Kovind on Sunday, March 28, gave his assent to the GNCTD
Bill (Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Bill), 2021, which vests more power
in the hands of Delhi's Lieutenant Governor (L-G). It accords primacy to the national capital's L-G over
the elected government.The Centre announced about the presidential assent to the GNCTD Bill, 2021 via
a gazette notification. As per the legislation, the "government" in Delhi means the "Lieutenant Governor"
and the city government will now have to seek L-G's opinion before taking any executive decision. The
GNCTD Bill was passed in the Lok Sabha on March 22 and the Rajya Sabha on March 24.Union Minister
G Kishan Reddy said the amendments would lead to transparency and clarity in governance in the NCT
of Delhi and enhance public accountability.Explaining the rationale behind the bill, he said the
amendments had been brought in to remove ambiguities in the existing Act.He stressed that changes in
the law have been sought in the spirit of what has been said in a Supreme Court judgment.Reddy said
there was no political angle, and the amendments are on "technical" grounds."The proposed bill does not
curtail in any manner any of the powers enjoyed by the government of NCT Delhi which are already
provided in the Constitution," he said.
Source: Excerpt from Business Today (dated 29 March 2021).
54. When was Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act introduced?
(a) 1995 (b) 1992 (c) 1991 (d) 1990
55. The Elected Government will now seek the opinion of Lieutenant General for any
(a) Legislative action. (b) Executive action.
(c) Administrative Action. (d) None of the above.
56. Which amendment made Delhi, a Union Territory with an elected Legislative Assembly?
(a) 69th Amendment (b) 70th Amendment
(c) 63rd Amendment (d) 64th Amendment
57. Which of the following is not a Union Territory with a Legislative Assembly?
(a) National Capital Territory of Delhi
(b) Puducherry
(c) Ladakh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
58. Which of the following statements are incorrect about the NCT of Delhi (Amendment) Bill-
(a) The bill is against the federalism. It gives more powers to the Centre.
(b) The Bill aims to hand over the accountability of Delhi to an elected, centrally appointed government
functionary.
(c) The Bill gives more power to the directly appointed administrators.
(d) The Bill is against the provisions of Representative Democracy.

Passage (Q.59-Q.63): PM Modi’s first foreign visit after the COVID-19 pandemic to Bangladesh is,
therefore, a reiteration of his government’s focus on the neighbourhood. Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur
Rahman gave the leaders of the subcontinent a worldview based on the principle of equitable distribution
of wealth and resources as well as development at the grassroots. This theme is close to Modi’s heart as
well.The neighbours came together to ink the historic Land Boundary Agreement in 2015. Rahman
dreamed of a united Bay of Bengal, which more than four decades after his martyrdom has been made
possible by his daughter, Bangladesh Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina, and India’s Prime Minister Narendra
Modi.As Bangladesh celebrates two momentous events — 50 years of its independence, and the
centenary of Bangabandhu — PM Modi’s visit to Dhaka, that concluded last week, assumes great
significance. The visit is not just an acknowledgement of the sacrifices made by the people in both
countries to gain freedom, but also a commitment to advance the visionary worldview of Bangabandhu. It
is an endeavour to realise his dreams for the subcontinent. Connectivity is the core principle of PM Modi’s
outreach to Bangladesh. It will energise people-to-people contact. India restored four out of the six pre-
1965 cross-border rail links with Bangladesh and the remaining two shall be completed soon. The
development of three other rail links is also on the anvil.
Source: Excerpt from The Indian Express, written by Anil Baluni (dated 29 March 2021)
59. The Father of the Nation of Bangladesh Sheikh Mujibur Rahman is awarded with-
(a) Bhagwan Mahavir World Peace
(b) Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration
(c) Gandhi Peace Prize
(d) Indira Gandhi Prize
60. Which day will be recognised as MaitriDiwas?

(a) 6th December (b) 5th September (c) 17th February (d) 6th January
61. How many common rivers does India and Bangladesh share?
(a) 53 (b) 50 (c) 6 (d) 54
62. Which body will Bangladesh assume its chairmanship for working towards Maritime Safety and Security
in 2021?
(a) Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)
(b) Baltic and International Maritime Council (BIMCO)
(c) International Maritime Organisation (IMO)
(d) International Labour Organisation (ILO)
63. What is the total length of India-Bangladesh border?

(a) 4000 km (b) 4068 km (c) 4096.70 km (d) 4018.50 km

SECTION – C: LEGALREASONING
Directions (Q.64 – Q.102): Read the comprehensions carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.64-Q.67):Necessity as a defence is defined under section 81 in Indian Penal Code as:
“Act likely to cause harm, but done without criminal intent, and to prevent other harm. Nothing is an
offence merely by reason of its being done with the knowledge that it is likely to cause harm, if it be done
without any criminal intention to cause harm, and in good faith for the purpose of preventing or avoiding
other harm to person or property.”
The explanation of the same is that it is a question of fact in such a case whether the harm to be
prevented or avoided was of such a nature and so imminent as to justify or excuse the risk of doing the
act with the knowledge that it was likely to cause harm.
The defence of necessity requires the defendant to prove on his part that the unlawful act committed by
him satisfies the following elements:
 It was not a result of his own negligence;
 S/he acted to avoid a significant risk of harm;
 No other alternative lawful means were available;
 Harm avoided was greater than the harm which resulted due to his act;
 The harm was imminent and the act was reasonable.
[Extracted with revisions from ‘Necessity – public and private’ by Shantanu Rathore
https://www.lawctopus.com/academike/necessity-public-and-private/]
64. Ram Lorry Services was a company which provided transport services for goods all over the country.
Pyare Lal was a truck driver employed with Ram Lorry Services and he was transporting a consignment
of bananas from Kerala to Punjab. The shelf life of bananas is very limited and so they must reach the
seller within 10 days of being dispatched. Pyare Lal was scheduled to make a timely delivery but on the
way he encountered a large traffic jam. All roads from Haryana onwards were blocked due to a religious
procession. Since the bananas would have become rotten by the time Pyare Lal reached Punjab, he
decided to sell the consignment to the nearest seller he could find in Haryana. When his employer came
to know he got angry at Pyare Lal because the seller in Punjab was scheduled to get the consignment
and he would've paid a higher price. Can Pyare Lal take the plea of necessity?
(a) Yes, because it was reasonable and necessary to sell the consignment of bananas to save them from
getting rotten
(b) Yes, because the traffic jam was long and would have wasted a lot of time
(c) No, because there was no imminent risk to the consignment if the bananas were not sold
(d) No, because there was a contract to sell the bananas only to the seller in Punjab
65. Shyam Lal was also a truck driver employed by Ram Lorry Services. He was carrying a consignment of
winter clothes from Uttar Pradesh to Srinagar. On the way he encountered a cold weather storm and as a
result, the temperature suddenly dropped to minus degrees. When he was about to reach the retailer
who had contracted to buy the winter clothes, Shyam Lal saw several poor and destitute people sitting on
the road, many of whom were women and children. Shyam Lal decided to distribute half of the winter
clothes to them. In doing so, he violated the contract with the retailer. Can Shyam Lal take the defence of
necessity to justify his acts?
(a) Yes, because he distributed the clothes in good faith without any criminal intention
(b) Yes, because the harm avoided by distributing warm clothes to the needy was greater than the harm
which resulted to the contracting parties due to his act
(c) No, because it was neither necessary nor reasonable to distribute clothes which had already been
contracted to someone else due to a change in temperature
(d) No because although the harm was imminent due to the cold weather, the act of distributing half of
the consignment of winter clothes for free was reasonable

66. A ship was carrying passengers on board as well a batch of COVID-19 vaccines. Before reaching its
destination, the ship had a minor accident and started to sink. In order to stop it from sinking, it was
important to reduce some of the load it was carrying otherwise everyone on board could have died. The
captain decided to unload the precious COVID-19 vaccines off the ship by throwing large crates of the
vaccines into open sea. This caused a loss of tremendous amount of money, resources and already
limited vaccines along with causing environmental damage. However, with this move the ship finally
became light enough to restart the engine and get it moving to reach the nearest port. Can the captain
take the defence of necessity?
(a) Yes, because it was necessary to throw the vaccines into water even though the harm was not
imminent in this case
(b) Yes, because the harm to human lives was greater than the harm which resulted as a consequence
of throwing the vaccines into water
(c) No, because the harm to be prevented was not of such a nature and so imminent as to justify the
unloading of precious vaccines
(d) No, because alternative lawful means were available and he could have waited for rescue ships to
save all the passengers as well as the vaccines
67. Lakhan lived in a hut next to a big mansion which had an attached well. The owner of the well did not
allow anyone to step foot on his property. One day, Lakhan’s hut caught on fire and all his valuable and
precious material was inside. The nearby well in the mansion was the closes source of water. Without
giving it a second thought, Lakhan hurriedly drew several buckets of water from that well to douse the fire
and save his hut. When the fire was finally put out, the owner of the mansion charged Lakhan with
“trespass of property” because he used water from his well without his permission. Can Lakhan plead the
defence of necessity?
(a) No, because lawful alternatives were available and it is irrelevant that the well was the closest source
of water
(b) Yes, because Lakhan acted to draw water from the well to avoid a significant harm
(c) Yes, because there was no alternative available as the well was the closest fsource of water which
could be used to douse the fire
(d) Both b and c
Passage (Q.68-Q.71): Section 4 of the Contract Act, 1872 deals with the completion of a proposal,
acceptance and revocation of a contract and states:
The communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is
made. The communication of an acceptance is complete, as against the proposer, when it is put in a
course of transmission to him so as to be out of the power of the acceptor; as against the acceptor, when
it comes to the knowledge of the proposer. The communication of a revocation is complete, as against
the person who makes it, when it is put into a course of transmission to the person to whom it is made, so
as to be out of the power of the person who makes it; as against the person to whom it is made, when it
comes to his knowledge.
In the case of postal service, the communication becomes complete when the letter is posted from the
offeror and the offeree is bounded by it. But, electronic modes such as fax and telephonic
communications become complete when the acceptance is received by the offeror.
In the Entores case it was held that the postal rule cannot be applied to instantaneous mode of
communications, such as telephone and telex. If a phone line “went dead” just before the offeree said
“yes”, it would be absurd to assume that the contract was formed and the parties would not have to call
each other back. Therefore, the contract could only be formed when the telex was received.
[Extracted with revisions from ‘is section 4 of contract act, 1872 in pace with 21st century’ by
AyushPandia, published on scconline blog
https://www.scconline.com/blog/post/2018/03/13/is-section-4-of-contract-act-1872-in-pace-with-21st-
century/]

68. X sends a letter to Y on 2nd January 2021 offering to sell his cow for Rs10,000. Y receives the letter on 3rd
January 2021 proposing to buy the cow for Rs7000 instead of Rs10,000. X received Y’s letter on 4 th
January 2021 and send his acceptance via mail on 5th January 2021. The acceptance reaches Y on 6th
January 2021. When is the acceptance of the offer complete against Y?
(a) On 3rd January when Y received X’s letter
(b) On 4th January when X received Y’s letter
(c) On 5th January when it was sent by X to Y via mail
(d) On 6th January when it came to the knowledge of Y via mail
69. Sonu and Monu were discussing an offer over the phone. Sonu called Monu to ask him if he would sell
his car to him for Rs 1 lakh. At that time, Monu was at the metro station but he was interested in selling
his car so he continued to discuss the offer with Monu. Monu heard Sonu’s offer loud and clear and was
willing to sell his car to him in exchange for this amount. However, just as he was confirming his
acceptance, a metro train arrived on the station creating a lot of noise and Sonu could not hear Monu. Is
the acceptance of the offer complete?
(a) Yes, because Monu was willing to accept the offer and he was about to verbally confirm the same so
the noise created by the metro does not matter
(b) No, because the noise created by the metro did not allow Monu to properly communicate the
acceptance to Sonu
(c) No, because the acceptance was not put in the course of transmission to be received by Sonu
(d) Yes, because the acceptance was already put in the course of transmission by Monu and is valid
against Sonu
70. Jalebi Bai accepted an offer by Makkhi Chand to buy a horse for Rs. 20,000. Later, Makkhi Chand
realised that Rs 20,000 was too low of a price and insufficient for selling such a fine horse. So, he wrote a
letter to Jalebi Bai for revocation on 30th May 2020. Independently, Jalebi Bai thought that Rs 20,000 was
a very high price. So, she also independently wrote a letter to Makkhi Chand on 29th May 2020.
Assuming that Makkhi Chand received the letter on 1st June and Jalebi Bai received the letter on 2nd
June, when was the communication of revocation completed against Makkhi Chand?
(a) On 30th May 2020 when he wrote a letter to Jalebi Bai
(b) On 29th May 2020 when Jalebi Bai wrote a letter to him
(c) On 1st June 2020 when he received the letter by Jalebi Bai
(d) On 2nd June 2020 when Jalebi Bai received his letter
71. Sanjana ran a successful Instagram store and did a majority of her business online. One day, she was
talking to her supplier regarding a contract to purchase some books over a zoom call. In the background,
her young baby was making loud laughing noises while playing with his toys. The supplier offered to sell
the books at Rs 150 each and Sanjana accepted. If Sanjana’s communication of acceptance was audible
to the supplier on zoom but it was marked by loud noises in the background, would the acceptance of
offer be complete?
(a) Yes, because the zoom call line did not go “dead” as required in the Entores case
(b) Yes, because the acceptance was received as it was audible to the supplier even if there were loud
noises in the back
(c) No, because in instantaneous modes of communication the acceptance is complete when it is
received by the offeror
(d) No, because the loud baby noises in the background could have created problems in the
communication of acceptance over zoom

Passage (Q.72-Q.76): Insults to religion made unwittingly or carelessly without any deliberate or
malicious intention to outrage the religious feelings of a class would not attract Section 295A of the
Indian Penal Code (Sri Dulal Ghosh v. State of Tripura). A single-judge bench of Chief Justice
AkilKureshi, therefore, quashed a First Information Report (FIR) which was filed against one Dulal
Ghosh (petitioner) for a Facebook post on Bhagavad Gita. The Court was dealing with a case, where FIR
was registered against Ghosh under Section 295A of the IPC for a Facebook post on Bhagwat Gita.
The complainant contended that the petitioner- accused made distasteful and derogatory comments on
the Hindu religion by posting on Facebook in Bengali that the Gita (sacred religious text) is a "thakbaji
Gita" (deceitful). The petitioner, on the other hand, contended that the Facebook post in question was
'deliberately twisted and misinterpreted by the complainant. He argued that his post did not convey the
meaning that Gita was deceitful or swindling. Instead, the petitioner had put the post conveying that the
Gita is a pan that fries swindler. The Court at the outset placed reliance on the 1957 Supreme Court
judgment in Ramji Lal Modi v. the State of UP to elucidate the scope of Section 295A. "Section 295A
does not penalize any and every act of insult or an attempt to insult the religion or the religious beliefs but
it penalizes only those acts of insults or attempts which have been perpetrated with the deliberate and
malicious intention of outraging the religious feelings of a particular class," the Court said.
The expression thus used by the petitioner which is in total isolation, without virtually any background or
foreground, therefore would require much twisting to fit within the scheme of Section 295A of IPC which
would be wholly impermissible, the Court held. As a parting note, the Court said that "the petitioner can
hold his personal beliefs and within the framework of law can also express them, as long as he does not
transgress any of the restrictions imposed by law to the freedom of his speech and expression."
Source: BAR and BENCH 8 march 2021
https://www.barandbench.com/news/litigation/insults-religion-carelessly-intention-outrage-religious-
feelings-will-not-section-295a-ipc-tripura-high-court
72. Lodi is giving a speech in his political rally and said the Muslim religion is a hindrance in the development
of India because of their stubborn religious beliefs and rituals. Their govt will not promote such religious-
centric activities in the country. Decide Lodi would attract Section 295A of the Indian Penal Code or not?
(a) No, because the statement by Lodi is made unwittingly or carelessly without any deliberate or
malicious intention.
(b) Yes, said statement has been perpetrated with the deliberate and malicious intention of outraging the
religious feelings of a particular class.
(c) Yes, restrictions imposed by law on the freedom of speech and expression of political leaders.
(d) No, the petitioner can hold his personal beliefs and within the framework of law can also express
them.
73. Janvi is a content writer in Indian times and given her opine on women rights to inter Sabarimala temple
but her article aggrieved group of people and filled petitions against her on grounds of the malicious
intention of outraging the religious feelings of a particular class. Will Janvi be liable to decide with legal
reasoning?
(a) No, the person can hold his personal beliefs and within the framework of law can also express them,
as long as he does not transgress any of the restrictions imposed by law to the freedom of his speech
and expression.
(b) No, the accused made distasteful and derogatory comments on the Hindu religion.
(c) No, there is malicious intention to outrage the religious feelings of a class that would not
attract Section 295A of the Indian Penal Code.
(d) None of the Above

74. FIR was registered against Ghosh under Section 295A of the IPC for a Facebook post on Bhagwat Gita.
The complainant contended that the accused made distasteful and derogatory comments on the Hindu
religion by posting on Facebook that the Gita (sacred religious text) is not given rights to lower class
people during Mahabharata because Karna had not given an education. Will Ghosh attract Section 295
A?
(a) No, because he has the right to freedom of speech and expression without restrictions.
(b) No, Insults to religion made unwittingly or carelessly without any deliberate or malicious intention to
outrage the religious feelings of a class.
(c) Yes, distasteful and derogatory comments on the Hindu religion attract Section 295A of the Indian
Penal Code.
(d) Both A and B
75. What Supreme Court elucidated in the 1957 Ramji Lal Modi v. State of UP judgment?
(a) Section 295 does not penalize any and every act of insult or an attempt to insult the religion or the
religious beliefs but it penalizes only those acts of insults or attempts which have been perpetrated
with the deliberate and malicious intention of outraging the religious feelings of a particular class,"
(b) Section 295A does penalize any and every act of insult or an attempt to insult the religion or the
religious beliefs but it penalizes only those acts of insults or attempts which have been perpetrated
with the deliberate and malicious intention of outraging the religious feelings of a particular class,"
(c) The Court said that "the petitioner can hold his personal beliefs and within the framework of law can
also express them, as long as he does not transgress any of the restrictions imposed by law to the
freedom of his speech and expression."
(d) None of above
76. Deeksha Ingle Assistant professor of History at National Law University Rewa giving a brief introduction
of Sati practice and said it was the heinous and derogatory practice of the Hindu religion in the medieval
period. Decide she will attract section 295A or not.
(a) Yes,attempts have been made by her with the deliberate and malicious intention of outraging the
religious feelings of the Hindu religion.
(b) No, the petitioner can hold his personal beliefs and within the framework of law can also express
them, as long as he does not transgress any of the restrictions imposed by law to the freedom of his
speech and expression.
(c) No,opinion to religion made without any deliberate or malicious intention to outrage the religious
feelings of a class.
(d) Both B and C
Passage (Q.77-Q.81): On February 25, 2021, the Ministry of Information, Government of India enacted
the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021.
Rule 4 entails that the intermediary is under an obligation to prominently publish on his website or
application, or both, the privacy policy and the usage of personal data or information for its users.
Furthermore, the privacy policy or user agreement should be drafted in such a way so that it embraces
that the user is under the obligation not to host, display, upload, modify, publish, transmit, store, update
or share any information which is derogatory to the rules of the society or unethical or defamatory to the
general public or misleads the general public. Furthermore, the intermediaries are under the obligation to
notify the users that in case such unethical information is transmitted, then it would call for either
termination of their account or removal of the information that is not in conformity with the user agreement
or privacy policy.
The intermediary is to publish on its website or application or both, as the case may be, the name of the
Grievance Officer and his/her contact details as well as the mechanism by which a user or a victim may
make a complaint against violation of the provisions of Rule 4 or other matters pertaining to the computer
resources made available by it. Moreover, the Grievance Officer is under an obligation to acknowledge
the complaint within three working days and resolve the same within one month from the receipt of the
complaint. Furthermore, an intermediary is under the strict compulsion to remove information within
twenty-four hours on the complaint of a person which portrays such a person in bad light or exposes their

private parts, or shows such a person in a sexual act or nudity. Regarding the aforementioned burden, a
complaint can be filed by an individual or any person on his/her behalf.
Source:https://ssrana.in/articles/analysis-of-the-information-technology-intermediary-guidelines-and-
digital-media-ethics-code-rules-2021/?utm_source=Mondaq&utm_medium
77. Webnexe.com is an emerging website in India for sharing thoughts virtually on legal and political news.
What points should take under consideration by Webnexe.com to avoid violation of IT rules 2021?
(a) Under an obligation to prominently publish on his website or application, or both, the privacy policy
and the usage of personal data or information for its users.
(b) Under the obligation to notify the users that in case such unethical information is transmitted, then it
would call for either termination of their account or removal of the information.
(c) The intermediary should not publish on its website or application or both, as the case may be, the
name of the Grievance Officer and his/her contact details as well as the mechanism by which a user
or a victim may make a complaint against violation of the provisions of Rule 4.
78. Phasebook is a social media platform and one of the Phasebook users is sharing obscene video content
which is unethical and against the user agreement or privacy policy. What is the course of action for the
same in IT rules 2021?
(a) The intermediaries are under the obligation to notify the users that in case such unethical information
is transmitted,
(b) It would call for either termination of their account or removal of the information that is not in
conformity with the user agreement or privacy policy.
(c) Both A and B
(d) An intermediary is under the strict compulsion to remove information within twenty-four hours
79. XYZ is facing abuse and defamatory messages on Phasebook by unknown Id.XYZ reported the same to
the Grievance Officer on 10 march 2021 but unfortunately not received any response till 10 April and on
15 April received the response. Will the grievance Officer is liable.
(a) Yes,the Grievance Officer is under an obligation to acknowledge the complaint within three working
days and resolve the same within one month from the receipt of the complaint, and the officer has not
responded within the limited time.
(b) Yes, the Grievance Officer is under an obligation to acknowledge the complaint within three working
days and resolve the same within one month from the receipt of the complaint
(c) No, the victim may make a complaint against violation of the provisions of Rule 4 and there is no
violation of Rule 4
(d) None of the above.
80. Actor X who makes adult movies was portrayed in bad light her private parts on the website named
Entertainment.com without her approval. Regarding the aforementioned burden, a complaint was filed by
her against the website. Will the website will be liable and what obligations are should be followed by the
website.
(a) No website will not be liable because Actor X is making adult movies and show her private parts in
many movies Therefore Portraying her is not a Violation of Rights.
(b) Yes website is under the strict compulsion to remove information within twenty-four hours on the
complaint of a person which portrays such a person in bad light or exposes their private parts.
(c) under an obligation to prominently publish on his website or application, or both, the privacy policy
and the usage of personal data or information for its users.
(d) Both A and B

81. Unethical information is transmitted by XYZ through a page named Addsup which conformed to the user
agreement or privacy policy of Addsup. Will termination of the account of XYZ will take place.
(a) Yes,the intermediaries are under the obligation to notify the users that in case such unethical
information is transmitted, then it would call for either termination of their account or removal of the
information that is not in conformity with the user agreement or privacy policy.
(b) No,the information conforms to the user agreement or privacy policy of the website.
(c) No, there is a fault of the website for not drafting the user agreement carefully.
Passage (Q.82-Q.86): A polygraph test can be conducted only after obtaining the consent of the
accused; mere silence will not amount to consent: Karnataka High Court
A polygraph test cannot be administered without obtaining the written consent of the accused person to
whom it is to be administered, the Karnataka High Court ruled (Virendra Khanna v. State of
Karnataka). Mere silence of the concerned person will not amount to the consent of such person, a
single-judge Bench held.
"Mere silence of the said person would not amount to consent on behalf of such person. If a person was
to refuse the administration of polygraph test, no such polygraph the test could be administered and even
if administered, the result of the said the test would be void and cannot be considered by a Court of Law,"
the judgment said.
It also held that an investigating officer has no right to disclose the private data seized from the
smartphones or electronic gadgets of an accused to a third party, without the written permission of the
concerned court. "The consent in writing to be obtained from such a person before directing the
administration of the polygraph test. Merely because an accused is silent, neither accepts or rejects the
administration of polygraph test would not amount to consent being provided by the accused," the
judgment said.
In the instant case, the Court observed that the trial court had passed its order directing a polygraph test
without there being any application filed by the prosecution. Further, no opportunity to be heard was
provided either to the petitioner or his counsel and no consent was obtained for administration of the test,
the High Court noted.
Source: 17 Mar 2021, BAR and BENCH
82. Jonas was accused of committing murder and for collection of the evidence investigation officer forced
him to give consent for a polygraph test but Jonas remained to moan without uttering a single word
regarding his consent. Can the investigation officer can take polygraph test of Jonas in these
Circumstances.
(a) No, Mere silence of the concerned person will not amount to the consent of such person.
(b) Yes, a Polygraph test can be administered without obtaining the written consent of the accused
person to whom it is to be administered.
(c) No, investigating the officer has no right to take a polygraph test without the written permission of the
concerned court.
(d) Both A and C
83. Jonas was accused of murder given his consent in front of the investigation officer. Will this consent is
eligible to take a polygraph test?
(a) Yes, the accused is not silent he accepts the administration of the polygraph test.
(b) No, investigating officer has no right to take a polygraph test without the written permission of the
concerned court
(c) No. A polygraph test cannot be administered without obtaining the written consent of the accused
(d) Yes, a Polygraph test cannot be administered without obtaining the written consent of the accused

84. Jonas the accused refused the administration of polygraph test and Singham new police inspector
administered it. Decide the result of the said test would be considered by a Court of Law or not.
(a) No, the result of the said test would be void and cannot be considered by a Court of Law.
(b) No, Polygraph test cannot be administered without obtaining the written consent of the accused
person to whom it is to be administered,
(c) No, Mere silence of the concerned person will not amount to the consent of such person.
85. It also held that an investigating officer has disclosed the private data seized from the smartphones of
accused Jonas to the Media with the permission of the judge in the case by the telephonic call. Will the
Investigation officer be held liable?
(a) Permission from the court is granted to the investigation officer therefore he will not be liable.
(b) Investigating officer has no right to disclose the private data seized from the smartphones of the
accused during duty.
(c) Telephonic call is not the written permission of the concerned court. The investigation officer will be
liable.
(d) Both B and C.
86. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
(a) Test should administer after obtaining the written consent of the accused person to whom it is to be
administered.
(b) Mere silence of the said person would not amount to consent on behalf of such person
(c) In Virendra Khanna v. State of Karnataka no opportunity to be heard was provided either to the
petitioner or his counsel and no consent was obtained for administration of the test,
(d) All of the above are true.
Passage (Q.87-Q.91):1. The Supreme Court observed that the time period for investigation specified
under Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure cannot be extended by seeking to file
supplementary charge sheet qua UAPA offences. The bench comprising Justices Sanjay Kishan Kaul
and R. Subhash Reddy, while granting default bail to FakhreyAlam, a person accused under Section 18
of the UAPA Act, reiterated that default bail under first proviso of Section 167(2) of the Cr.P.C. is a
fundamental right and not merely a statutory right.
Court held that the State can take advantage of the fact that in one case there is one charge sheet and
supplementary charge sheets are used to extend the time period in this manner by seeking to let the
supplementary charge sheet qua the offences under the UAPA Act even beyond the period specified
under Section 167 of the Cr.P.C beyond which default bail will be admissible. That period having expired
and the charge sheet not having been led qua those offences (albeit a supplementary charge sheet), we
are of the view the appellant would be entitled to default bail in the aforesaid facts and circumstances.
When an investigation is not completed in 24 hrs, it is in these circumstances that Section 167 of the
Cr.P.C. provided for the time period within which the investigation should be completed, depending upon
the nature of offences. Since liberty is a Constitutional right, time periods were specified in the default of
which the accused will have a right to default bail, a valuable right, for an offence with punishment of
death, life imprisonment or imprisonment of 10 years or more such specified time period is 90 days for
other offences it is 60 days. After the stipulated period every accused shall be furnished a bail if they are
prepared and do furnish bail. In Bikramjit Singh case it was held that default bail under first proviso of
Section 167(2) of the Cr.P.C. is a fundamental right and not merely a statutory right as it is, a procedure
established by law under Article 21 of the Constitution.
Default Bail : State Cannot Take Advantage Of Filing One Charge Sheet First And Seeking Time To File
Supplementary Charge-sheets To Extend The Time Limit U/S 167(2) (Live Law, 16 March 2021)
<https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/default-bail-uapa-offences-supplementary-chargesheet-supreme-
court-extend-the-time-limit-us-1672-171262?infinitescroll=1> as accessed on 17 March 2021.

87. Kalpana was charged with murder of her employer and arrested by Police. When she was produced
before a magistrate after 24 hrs, a local magistrate allowed a judicial custody of 90 days. Police has been
investigating since and could not find any significant evidence against her. On the 91st day Kalpana filed
an application for bail but before it could be accepted, Police filed a chargesheet against Kalpana and an
application for extension of custody. Both, the chargesheet and the bail application are pending before
the magistrate. Decide which of the two shall be allowed by the magistrate.
(a) Bail application shall be allowed as when the period of 90 days expired Kalpana had a default right to
bail. She filed an application of bail which shall be allowed if the chargesheet has not been filed
before it.
(b) Application for extension of custody be allowed as the chargesheet has been filed by the Police
before the bail application was allowed and thus the period of custody can be extended.
(c) Bail application shall be allowed as the as after the expiry of a period of 90 days in judicial custody,
the time period for custody cannot be extended under any circumstances.
(d) Application for extension of custody can be allowed upon the discretion of the magistrate if the
chargesheet presents enough reasons for the extension of the custody of the accused.
88. The Indore Police department has been investigating a series of bomb blasts in the city just a few days
before the Prime Ministers rally. On the basis of suspicion, Police has made several arrests and all the
accused have been sent into judicial custody for 90 days and the same period has been allowed to the
Police department to conclude the investigation. Due to its inability to find any material evidence, Police
filed a chargesheet containing charges based on whatever little evidence they had to avoid these
accused getting bails after the expiry of 90 days. Extension on the period of custody and time for filing
supplementary chargesheet was granted by the magistrate. Further, Police filed supplementary
chargesheets later in the process with more consolidated data and charges. The accused have raised
objection against a same in a writ petition filed before the high court. Choose the correct option with
respect to the petition.
(a) The writ petition shall not be allowed as the Police has filed a chargesheet in view of which the
custody of the accused can be extended by the magistrate.
(b) The writ petition shall be allowed as the legal provision has been exploited to avoid the bail of the
accused and to get an extension on the period to file the actual chargesheet.
(c) The writ petition shall not be allowed as a magistrate enjoys absolute discretion in the matters of
extending the custody of the accused in the interest of justice.
(d) The writ petition shall be allowed as after the stipulated period of 90 days an accused has a
fundamental right to receive bail under article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
89. Assertion: State cannot file a chargesheet and apply for an extension to file supplementary chargesheet
and extension of custody of the accused after stipulated period under section 167 of CrPC.
Reasoning: Under section 167 an accused can be sent into custody only for a period of 90 or 60 days
subject to the nature of offence alleged to be committed.
(a) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true R is false.
(d) A is false R is true.

90. Porus was a politician from the opposition who has been arrested on charges of money laundering. He
was sent into judicial custody for a period of 60 days u/s 167 of the CrPC so that Police can conclude
investigation and prepare chargesheet without Porus influencing with the process. Before Porus’s
lawyers could file an application for bail, Police filed the chargesheet on the 64th day and decided to
prosecute Porus for the offence of money laundering. Porus was further sent into judicial custody after
filing of the chargesheet upon order of the local magistrate. Porus has challenged the order in a writ
petition filed before the High Court contending that he had a default right to bail, which he has been
denied. Choose the correct option regarding the order of the high court.
(a) Petition shall be allowed as chargesheet was filed after the period of 60 days when the accused had
a default right to bail, which was denied to him.
(b) Petition shall be allowed as once the person has been sent into custody for the stipulated period no
further extension in the period of custody can be allowed.
(c) Petition shall not be allowed as the accused has a right to bail after the expiry of the stipulated period
only if they are prepared to furnish a bail.
(d) Petition shall not be allowed as once the Police files the chargesheet custody of the accused can be
extended regardless of the bail application made by the accused.
91. A massive protest in the National Capital Region entailed a violent communal riot. Police made 15 arrests
and later dropped charges against 8 of the arrested persons and released them. The rest of the arrested
people were sent to judicial custody of 90 days. The Police filed a chargesheet against the arrested
persons on the 74th day and the magistrate himself ordered an extension on the custody further for a
period of 45 days. One week later, Police filed a supplementary chargesheet with additional charges
against the accused. The accused filed an application against the order of the magistrate, contending
that Police cannot just file a chargesheet for extension of the custody citing the judgment of the Supreme
Court in the comprehension above. Decide whether the application should be allowed or not.
(a) Application shall be allowed as an accused has a default right to bail after the expiry of the stipulated
period under section 167 of CrPC.
(b) Application shall not be allowed as the Police has already filed the chargesheet after which extension
of the custody can be allowed by the magistrate.
(c) Application shall be allowed as the Police filed a preliminary chargesheet and later filed
supplementary chargesheet only to get an extension on the period of custody
(d) Application shall not be allowed as the Police did not apply for an extension of the custody just by
filing a preliminary chargesheet and the court itself relied on the chargesheet to order an extension on
the period of custody.
Passage (Q.92-Q.96): Section 311 deals with the power to summon material witness, or examine a
person present. Any Court may, at any stage of any inquiry, trial or other proceeding under this Code,
summon any person as a witness, or examine any person in attendance, though not summoned as a
witness, or recall and re-examine any person already examined; and the Court shall summon and
examine or recall and re-examine any such person if his evidence appears to it to be essential to the just
decision of the case, the provision reads.
The bench particularly referred to the observations made in Swapan Kumar Chatterjee v. Central Bureau
of Investigation that the first part of this section which is permissive gives purely discretionary authority to
the criminal court and enables it at any stage of inquiry, trial or other proceedings under the Code to act
in one of the three ways, namely, to summon any person as a witness; or to examine any person in
attendance, though not summoned as a witness; or to recall and re-examine any person already
examined. The second part, which is mandatory, imposes an obligation on the court to summon and
examine or to recall and re-examine any such person if his evidence appears to be essential to the just
decision of the case.
In Manju Devi v. State of Rajasthan, a two-Judge bench of this Court noted that an application under
Section 311 could not be rejected on the sole ground that the case had been pending for an inordinate
amount of time (ten years there). Rather, it noted that the length/duration of a case cannot displace the
basic requirement of ensuring the just decision after taking all the necessary and material evidence on

record. In other words, the age of a case, by itself, cannot be decisive in the matter when a prayer is
made for examination of a material witness, the bench noted while allowing the appeal.
Aim Of Every Court Is To Discover The Truth: Supreme Court Explains Scope of Section 311 CrPC (Live
Law, 6 March 2021) <https://www.livelaw.in/know-the-law/scope-of-section-311-crpc-supreme-court-
recalling-of-witnesses-170824> as accessed on 9 March 2021
92. Richa was an MBA student in JNK College. Her fellow student Munna, son of a very influential politician,
proposed Richa for marriage. She rejected the proposal as she was in love with another boy named Bittu.
Soon Richa and Bittu decided to marry each other. On their wedding day, Munna stormed into the
wedding hall with some of his friends and started firing. A bullet shot Richa and she died on the spot.
Bittu filed a complaint against Munna and when the case went to the court, all the witnesses who had
seen Munna firing bullets, turned hostile. This led to the case being delayed for 8 years, but suddenly an
old man named Kiku approached Bittu and told him that he is ready to give his statement and will also tell
the court that he, along with all other eyewitnesses, was threatened by Munna and his father. Bittu’s
lawyer filed an application under Section 311 for permission to re-examine the witness. Whether the
application should be accepted or not?
I. The application filed under Section 311 should be accepted as an application to re-examine a witness
can be filed at any stage of trial to reach the just decision of the case.
II. The application filed under Section 311 should not be accepted as it was already delayed for 8 years
and such an inordinate amount of time taken indicates that there are no merits in the case.
III. The application should not be accepted as Bittu was only trying to waste the court’s time and blame
Munna for a crime against which there is no evidence or witnesses.
IV. The application filed under Section 311 should be accepted as it cannot be rejected on the ground
that the case had been pending for an inordinate amount of time.
The correct answer is:
(a) Only I
(b) Both I & IV
(c) Only II
(d) Either I or IV
93. An FIR was filed against Girish on 18.05.2008 for fraudulently using forged documents as original and
defrauding many people. After the investigation was over, a charge sheet was filed against him as all the
evidence found by the police was against him. During the trial, the prosecution presented 46 witnesses
for examination in the course of over 54 hearings to prove that he has defrauded many people. There
was only one witness from the side of Girish. The trial court thereafter fixed the date for final hearing on
4.03.2021. Girish filed an application under Section 311 for permission to examine 3 more witnesses
present in the court. Should the trial court accept the application?
(a) The trial court should not accept the application filed under Section 311 as Girish was only trying to
waste the court’s time by requesting to examine 3 more witnesses when the date for final hearing is
already fixed.
(b) The trial court should accept the application filed under Section 311 as the court can allow
examination of any person in attendance at any stage of trial if their evidence appears to it to be
essential to the just decision of the case.
(c) The trial court should accept the application filed under Section 311 as the court shall allow
examination of any person at any stage of trial upon the defendant’s request.
(d) The trial court should not accept the application filed under Section 311 as the prosecution had
already presented 46 witnesses for examination in the course of over 54 hearings which clearly
proves that Girish is guilty of fraud.

94. Mahesh was arrested for the murder of his ex-wife Rashmi. When the case was in trial at the court, the
prosecution presented Rashmi’s sister Geeta as the prime eye witness. She explained to the court that
she has seen Mahesh holding their dog’s red coloured chain and choking Rashmi with it until she died.
The prosecution also presented many witnesses to prove that Mahesh is violent by nature and since
Rashmi was going to marry someone else, he couldn’t digest it and so he killed her. On the date of final
hearing, Mahesh’s lawyer filed an application under section 311, praying therein to cross-examine Geeta
as it came to their knowledge that the dog’s chain was of blue colour and not red. The prosecution, on
behalf of Geeta replied that the application has been filed with a view to linger on the proceedings. She
further claimed that she was cross-examined at length on all aspects averred in the application as such;
the application deserves to be dismissed. Whether the application should be dismissed or not?
(a) The application filed under Section 311 should be dismissed as she was already cross-examined at
length on all aspects averred in the application and allowing it at such a time would further linger on
the proceedings.
(b) The application filed under Section 311 should be dismissed as such an application cannot be
entertained in the later or final dates of the trial.
(c) The application filed under Section 311 should not be dismissed as it came to the knowledge of
Mahesh’s lawyer that Geeta was lying and so it is necessary to cross-examine her in order to know
the real reason.
(d) The application filed under Section 311 should not be dismissed as even if it was filed on the date of
final hearing, the cross-examination of Geeta is necessary to reach the just decision of the case.
.
95. Assuming that the court dismissed Mahesh’s application filed under Section 311 to cross-examine Geeta,
he again filed an application under section 311 praying therein to examine a person named Ritesh as a
witness present in the court. His lawyer claimed that Ritesh was present with Mahesh on the night of his
wife’s murder. He was not ready to come before the court as they were gambling on the night and he was
afraid that his family might know about it if he gave a statement to the court. The prosecution opposed
that by saying that the application has been filed with a view to further linger on the proceedings and that
too on the day of final hearing of the case. He also contended that Ritesh was not summoned as a
witness by the court and therefore his testimony cannot be held valid. What is your opinion on what the
court should decide?
I. The court should allow the application as even if Ritesh was not summoned as a witness by the court,
the court has the power to allow the examination of any person present in attendance of the court to
reach the just decision of the case.
II. The court should not allow the application as it was filed on the final date of hearing of the case. Any
application to examine a new witness cannot be entertained at this stage of the trial.
III. The court should not allow the application as Ritesh was not summoned as a witness by the court
and no person can be examined as a witness unless they are summoned by the court.
IV. The court should not allow the application as it was filed on behalf of Mahesh with a dishonest
intention of lingering on the proceedings before the court.
The correct answer is:
(a) Only I
(b) Only III
(c) Both II & III
(d) Either I or II, III & IV
96. Assertion: Section 311 imposes an obligation on the court to summon and examine or to recall and re-
examine any such person if his evidence appears to be essential to the just decision of the case.
Reasoning: An application filed under Section 311 could be rejected on the ground that the case had
been pending for an inordinate amount of time.
(a) A is true, R is false.
(b) A is false, R is true.
(c) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A

Passage (Q.97-Q.102): Defamation is the act of communicating false statements about a person that
injure the reputation of that person when observed through the eyes of ordinary man. Any false and
unprivileged statement published or spoken deliberately, intentionally, knowingly with the intention to
damage someone's reputation is defamation. A man's reputation is treated as his property and such
damage are punishable by law. It could be written or verbal. Written defamation printed, or typed material
or images is called as libel and spoken defamation is called slander.
Article 19 of the Constitution grants various freedoms to its citizens. However, Article 19(2) has imposed
reasonable exemption to freedom of speech and expression granted under Article 19(1) (a). Contempt of
court, defamation and incitement to an offence are some exceptions.
Defamation is an offence under both the civil and criminal law. In civil law, defamation is punishable
under the Law of Torts by imposing punishment in the form of damages to be awarded to the claimant.
Under the Criminal law, Defamation is a bailable, non-cognizable offence and compoundable offence.
Hence a policeman may arrest only with an arrest warrant issued by a magistrate. The Indian Penal Code
punishes the offence with a simple imprisonment up to two years, or with fine, or both.
Source: Legal Service India
97. Krishna told Gopi “You are a thief. You stole my heart". Gopi was furious, and she felt that she was
defamed.
(a) Krishna has defamed Gopi and hence he is liable to pay damages.
(b) Krishna is liable to pay as Gopi's reputation was lowered in the eyes of right thinking people.
(c) Krishna is not responsible, as right-thinking people will not mistake this statement.
(d) None of the above answers is correct.
98. Denny, patient of Dr. Grey, is dissatisfied with the treatment. He discontinues the treatment and after
some time leaves the city. Sometime after his illness was automatically cured by laps of time. Denny was
upset because Dr. Grey had made him spend a lot of money on his illness which was cured on its own.
He writes a letter accusing Dr. Grey for cheating. He alleges that Dr. Grey magnified the effects of the
illness, deliberately treated him in a manner so that it persisted and caused deterioration of his health.
The letter is shown by Dr. Grey to his lawyer. In consultation with the lawyer Dr. Grey files a suit for
damages against Denny for defamation.
(a) Denny has defamed Dr. Grey and is liable to pay compensation.
(b) Denny has defamed Dr. Grey when the letter was seen by the lawyer and therefore the compensation
has to be paid.
(c) Denny has not defamed Dr. Grey as it was not communicated to the ordinary people.
(d) Denny has not defamed Dr. Grey but should pay compensation.
99. The well-known politician Hardik Pandeya is invited to a famous chat show. During that chat show he is
asked what he thinks of the opposition party. Hardik Pandeya says that the opposition part is a "bunch of
thieves who are looting the country". Christian Gale, who is a party member, sues Hardik Pandeya for
defamation. Will he succeed?
(a) Christian Gale will succeed since Hardik Pandeya made injurious statements.
(b) Christian Gale will not succeed since it is not defamation.
(c) Christian Gale will succeed since Hardik Pandeya made the statements on a public talk show.
(d) Christian Gale will succeed since this disparaging remark is a case of defamation.
100. Aditya is a capitalist who publishes an article calling all the members of the communist party anti-
nationals. The communists get affronted, and the Communist party of India decides to file a suit against
Aditya for defamation. Decide.
(a) Aditya is liable since the article was published.
(b) Aditya is liable since the statement was defamatory.
(c) Aditya is not liable since truth is a defence.
(d) Aditya is not liable since no one has been specifically mentioned.

101. Malhotra and Verma are business partner. The two had an argument over an upcoming deal and Verma
resigned. While leaving Malhotra’s office Verma yelled abuses and spoke ill of Malhotra’s business
sense. The entire floor heard Verma’s rantings. After Verma left, work continued normally. Though things
were running smoothly, a week later Malhotra was still perturbed about the scene created by Verma and
seeks help from his lawyer to sue Verma for defamation.
(a) Verma had made statements that reflected poorly of Malhotra and thus, defamation would be a valid
ground for a suit.
(b) Verma had made statements that reflected poorly of Malhotra in front of his entire staff and thus,
defamation would be a valid ground for a suit.
(c) Verma’s statements were spoken in a fit of rage and had no impact on the reputation of Malhotra,
thus defamation would not be a valid ground for a suit.
(d) Mr. Dhiru was apprehended that all of his business failures would now be seen in light of Verma’s
remarks and therefore Verma should be liable for defamation.
102. Which one of the following is not a Libel?

(a) A defamatory matter in printing or writing
(b) Talking cinematograph film
(c) Sounds or gestures
(d) Both (b) and (c)

SECTION - D: LOGICAL REASONING
Passage (Q.103-Q.106): Food is not only a source of nutrition for humans, but also plays various roles in
our daily life, beliefs, and socioeconomics. Food has many symbolic meanings; it not only expresses but
also establishes the relationship between people and their environment as well as between people and
what they believe. Therefore, food is an important component of a society. The term gourmet can refer to
a person with refined or discriminating taste who is knowledgeable in the craft and art of food and food
preparation.
Some good cooks are gourmet cooks who pride themselves on always using extravagantly rich
ingredients in power elaborate recipes. Some good cooks can be characterized as fast food cooks. They
may use rich ingredients as long as the recipes are easy to follow and take little time. Other good cooks
are health food enthusiasts, who are concerned primarily with the nutritional value of food. But even
though not all good cooks are big eaters, they all enjoy preparing and serving food.
103. If the information in the passage is true, which one of the following statement must be true?
(a) Gourmet cooks, fast-food cooks, and cooks who are health food enthusiasts are all big eaters.
(b) All good cooks enjoy preparing and serving foods.
(c) Fast food cooks use extravagantly rich ingredients in elaborate recipes.
(d) All good cooks are concerned with nutritional value of food.
104. What would be the most likely hidden assumption of the author in the passage in drawing the conclusion
that “But even though not all good cooks are big eaters, they all enjoy preparing and serving food”?
(a) To see their consumers satisfied after eating the food, which is made by good cooks, gives utmost
happiness to the good cooks.
(b) More good cooks who use extravagantly rich ingredients are big eaters than are good cooks who do
not use such ingredients
(c) Everyone who enjoys preparing and serving food is good cook.
(d) Most good cooks do not use extravagantly rich ingredients.
105. While cooking food Manav uses rich ingredients only when the recipes are easy to follow and take little
time, which type of cook is Manav?
(a) Gourmet cooks. (b) Fast food cooks.
(c) Health food enthusiast. (d) Cannot be predicted.
106. If the information in the passage is true, which one of the following CANNOT be true?
(a) Most good cooks do not use extravagantly rich ingredients.
(b) Everyone who enjoys preparing and serving food is a good cook.
(c) All good cooks are big eaters.
(d) The symbolic meanings conveyed by food expresses the relationship between people and what they
believe.
107. In a reply to the people opposing the recent FDI reforms, the ruling party spokesperson stated that we
must either accept the reforms or face slow economic growth and reduced job opportunities.
Which one of the following best identifies a flaw in this argument?
(a) The ruling party believes that citizens will not oppose any reform that promises better job
opportunities.
(b) The ruling party assumes that FDI is the solution to all the economic problems of the country.
(c) The ruling party believes that economic growth and job opportunities can be achieved only by FDI
reforms.
(d) The ruling party believes that people will readily accept the reforms once they are enforced and ask
no further question.

Passage (Q.108-Q.112): Murari Lal Jalan: We should not take definite sides. It doesn’t matter whether
our political leanings are rightist or leftist, we should support a party only one issue at a time. If BJP
comes out with a good law, then we should support BJP on that issue. If BJP brings out a law that is bad
for the country then we should protest against BJP on that issue. This will make a person logical and not
a blind devotee.
Ashish Chhawchharia: Your path will leave us neither here nor there. You have to have some sort of an
opinion – either you are a rightist or a leftist. You should pick your side and support it all the way. This is
the only way which can clear your stand. It doesn’t matter if you are called a blind devotee, at least you
will have a cause in your life.
108. In support of which of the following does Murari state his view that we should not take sides?
(a) We should support a party only one issue at a time
(b) We will be logical and not a blind devotee
(c) We will have a fixed path
(d) We have to be firm on our stand
109. Murari’s statement that “This will make a person logical and not a blind devotee”-
(a) Forms the premise for his statement that we should not take definite sides
(b) Forms the conclusion for his statement that we should support a party only one issue at a time
(c) Offers a clarification on which party to support at a given time
(d) Forms the conclusion to his statement that we should not take definite sides
110. The pattern of reasoning in Murari’s argument closely resembles the pattern of reasoning in all of the
following except -
(a) Atul is a die-hard fan of Virat Kohli, but he wishes that Kohli would tone down his aggression on field
and not use abusive language
(b) Oliver is a proud German. He is proud of the strict disciplinarian culture the country has. One day, he
meets his Israeli friend Adam, who while talking brings up the issue of holocaust by the Nazi
Germany. Oliver apologises for his country.
(c) Fahim is a proud father of his fifteen year old son Mustafa. Mustafa is a brilliant student in his class
and brings good marks in his exams. However, Fahim comes to know that Mustafa is a kleptomaniac
and he has stolen the cricket-bat of his neighbor’s son Debdoot. But when Debdoot comes to
complain about Mustafa to Fahim, the latter denies that his son could do such a job.
(d) In this sutra, the Buddha describes the Noble Eightfold Path as the middle way of moderation,
between the extremes of sensual indulgence and self-mortification.
111. Which of the following is the main conclusion of Ashish’s arguments?

(a) Murari’s path will leave people neither here nor there
(b) We should have a cause in life
(c) We should have a firm stand and support it always
(d) We should be a blind devotee and not care if anyone calls us that
112. Why does Ashish say that we should have some sort of an opinion?
(a) To be neither here nor there
(b) To have a cause in our life
(c) To be a blind devotee
(d) To find which side we should support

113. The chef at Milan Restaurant can either purchase flour physically from the local flour mill, Bhopal Flour
Mill, or order online from Flipkart which send it from a flour mill, Indore Flour Mill, situated in another city.
The cost of the flour from Indore Flour Mill is 10 percent less than the cost of the flour from Bhopal Flour
Mill. Even after shipping and handling fees are added, it is still cheaper to order flour that has to be
shipped from Indore than to buy flour locally from Bhopal Flour Mill.
The statements above, if true, best support which of the following assertions?
(a) Production costs at Indore Flour Mill are 10 percent below those at Bhopal Flour Mill.
(b) Buying flour from Indore Flour Mill will eliminate 10 percent of the local flour mill jobs.
(c) The shipping and handling fees for a batch of flour purchased from Indore Flour Mill are less than 10
percent of the cost of an identical batch of flour purchased from Bhopal Flour Mill.
(d) The shipping and handling fees for a batch of flour purchased from Indore Flour Mill are more than 10
percent of the cost of Indore’s flour.
Passage (Q.114-Q.118): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight friends P, M, R, T, Q, U, V & W are sitting in two opposite rows, facing each other. Each row has 4
persons. P is between U and V and is facing North. W is opposite to Q who is to the immediate left of M.
R is between T and M. W is to the immediate right of V.
114. Who is to the immediate right of R?

(a) T (b) U (c) M (d) Cannot be determined
115. Which of the following pairs has the person sitting opposite each other?
(a) MV (b) RV (c) TV (d) UR
116. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(a) TP (b) RV (c) QP (d) QV
117. Which of the following pairs of persons has a second person sitting to the immediate left of the first
person?
(a) UP (b) VP (c) QM (d) RT
118. Who is sitting opposite of R?

(a) U (b) Q (c) V (d) P
Passage (Q.119-Q.122): On July 11, World Population Day, a Union Minister expressed alarm, in a
Tweet, over what he called the “population explosion” in the country, wanting all political parties to enact
population control laws and annulling the voting rights of those having more than two children. Just a
month earlier, a prominent businessman-yoga guru wanted the government to enact a law where “the
third child should not be allowed to vote and enjoy facilities provided by the government”. This, according
to him, would ensure that people would not give birth to more children.
Both these demands are wayward and represent a warped thinking which has been rebutted rather well
in the Economic Survey 2018-19.
The demand for state controls on the number of children a couple can have is not a new one. It feeds on
the perception that a large and growing population is at the root of a nation’s problems as more and more
people chase fewer and fewer resources. This image is so ingrained in the minds of people that it does
not take much to whip up public sentiment which in turn can quickly degenerate into a deep class or
religious conflict that pits the poor, the weak, the downtrodden and the minorities against the more
privileged sections. The implications of such an approach are deep but not easily understood because
the argument is couched in sterile numbers and a rule that, it would seem, applies to all sections equally.
On the contrary, what is suggested is the ugliest kind of discrimination, worse than physical attacks or
social prejudice because it breaks the poor and the weak bit by bit, and in a very insidious way.

The fig leaf of population control allows for the outrageous argument to be made that a family will be
virtually ostracised and a citizen will be denied his or her basic rights if he or she is born as the third child.
This has of course never been public policy in India.
In fact, a far-sighted and forward-looking National Population Policy (NPP) was implemented in 2000.
The essence of the policy was the government’s commitment to “voluntary and informed choice and
consent of citizens while availing of reproductive health care services” along with a “target free approach
in administering family planning services”.
Source:https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/having-the-last-word-on-population-
control/article28701719.ece
119. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the statements in the above passage?
(a) Family health, child survival and the number of children a woman has are closely tied to the levels of
health and education of the parents.
(b) Usually, the poorer the couple, the more the children they tend to have.
(c) The number of children that a couple has, depends upon the opportunities, choices and services that
are available to the people.
120. Statement: Family Planning programme in India is target free and voluntary in nature and it is the
prerogative of the clients to choose a family planning method best suited to them as per their
reproductive right.
The above statement is:
(a) Inference Statement (b) Strengthening Statement
(c) Weakening Statement (d) Parallel reasoning statement.
121. Which of the following will strengthen the following statement?

“Both these demands are wayward and represent a warped thinking which has been rebutted rather well
in the Economic Survey 2018-19.”
(a) The economic survey noted that India is set to witness a “sharp slowdown in population growth in the
next two decades”.
(b) By the 2030s, some States will start transitioning to an ageing society as part of a well-studied
process of “demographic transition” which sees nations slowly move toward a stable population as
fertility rates fall with an improvement in social and economic development indices over time.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
122. According to the passage, what we can say about the following statement?
“demographic dividend can work to support growth and drive opportunity for ordinary people only when
the population is healthy.”
(a) Definitely true (b) Definitely false (c) Probably true (d) Nothing can be said
Passage (Q.123-Q.127): Many scholars argue that the voyages of Admiral Zheng He of the Chinese
Ming dynasty heralded and eclipsed the European voyages of discovery. Between 1405 and 1433,
Zheng led seven huge armadas from China to the far reaches of the Indian Ocean. The largest of these
comprised almost 300 ships and carried close to 30,000 people. They visited Indonesia, Sri Lanka, India,
the Persian Gulf, the Red Sea and East Africa. Columbus’ fleet of 1492 – which consisted of three small
ships manned by 120 sailors – was like a trio of mosquitoes compared to Zheng He’s drove of dragons.
Yet there was a crucial difference. Zheng He explored the oceans, and assisted pro-Chinese rulers, but
he did not try to conquer or colonize the countries he visited. Moreover, the expeditions of Zheng He
were not deeply rooted in Chinese politics and culture. When the ruling faction in Beijing changed during
the 1430s, the new overlords abruptly terminated the operation. The great fleet was dismantled, crucial
technical and geographical knowledge was lost, and no explorer of such stature and means ever set out
again from a Chinese port. Chinese rulers in the coming centuries, like most Chinese rulers in previous
centuries, restricted their interests and ambitions to their kingdom’s immediate environs.

Source:https://www.khanacademy.org/humanities/big-history-project/expansion-
interconnection/exploration-interconnection/a/zheng-he
123. What role does the author’s claim that Zheng He’s fleet was like a ‘drove of dragons’ compared to
Columbus’ ‘trio of mosquitoes’ play in the argument in the passage?
(a) It serves as the premise of the author’s argument in this passage.
(b) It provides support for the author’s overall conclusion in the passage.
(c) It casts doubt on the other scholars’ views about Zheng He cited at the beginning of the passage.
(d) It provides support for other scholars’ views about Zheng He cited at the beginning of the passage.
124. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Zheng He’s voyages took him all around the Indian and Pacific Oceans.
(b) Columbus sailed only across the Atlantic Ocean, not the Indian and Pacific Oceans.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) Neither (a) nor (b).
125. Which of the following best represents the main point of the given passage?
(a) The Chinese Admiral Zheng He was a more accomplished explorer than Columbus.
(b) While the Chinese did produce a great explorer – Zheng He – they did not produce anyone as
accomplished as Columbus.
(c) When the Chinese did eventually get around to making voyages of discovery, they did so on a much
larger scale than Columbus and other Europeans did.
(d) While the Chinese explorer Zheng He’s voyages were on a much grander scale than Columbus’, the
Chinese had a very different attitude towards exploration than the Europeans.
126. If the author were to claim that Zheng He’s voyages are still remembered reverentially by the Chinese
and that Zheng is considered a national hero by them, how would this affect the conclusion of this
passage?
(a) It would strengthen the conclusion.
(b) It would weaken the conclusion.
(c) It would neither strengthen nor weaken the conclusion.
(d) It would both strengthen and weaken the conclusion
127. Which of the following, if true, would best explain why the new overlords in Beijing abruptly terminated
Zheng He’s expeditions in the 1430s?
(a) The new ruling faction was political opponent of Zheng He and wanted to take him down a peg.
(b) The new ruling faction decided that Zheng He’s expeditions posed a security risk for China and
wanted to pursue a policy of greater isolationism.
(c) The new rulers felt that Zheng He’s policy of not attempting to conquer or colonize the countries he
visited was not in China’s best interests.
(d) The new rulers felt that Zheng He’s great fleet of ships would better serve China’s interests if they
remained closer to home.
128. Statement I: Refraction occurs due to a change in the speed of light when it goes from one medium to
another.
Statement II: Ponds often appear shallower than they are.
(a) I is the cause and II is the effect
(b) II is the cause and I is the effect
(c) Both I and II are independent causes
(d) Both I and II are effects of independent causes

129. Doctors are not allowed to do advertising for healthcare products like toothbrush, common medicines
which do not require to be prescribed, nutrition food and energy drinks, skin ointment in any form of
media. Lawmakers believe that consumers lack the complete information to judge such advertisements
and blindly purchase a product without further consultation because it has been advertised by a doctor.
Which one of the following if true would undermine the lawmakers’ argument?
(a) it has become mandatory for manufacturers to give complete information about the product on the
package along with details of any side effects that may occur with the use of the product.
(b) most health care products have the disclaimer or ‘as advised by your physician’ printed along with the
‘how to use’ instructions
(c) nowadays the consumers are very educated and do their own research before purchasing any
product
(d) medical professionals are known to prescribe products that are not really required by the patient in
return for cash or gifts from the manufacturers
130. A study by researchers from the University of Istanbul in Turkey has found that healthy new-borns can
learn speech sounds while asleep. The study published in The Atlantic, says a group of new-borns was
made to hear speech sounds /y/i/ and /yi/ in their sleep. The involuntary ‘brain waves’ that resulted from
the detection of sounds was recorded by EEG machines. When the babies were subjected to the same
sounds a day later, a part of their brain waves called DAN was stronger, showing that they had learned to
recognize the sounds. It thus has the potential of on-line early sleep-learning.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the finding of the study above?
(a) The sounds were learnt by the babies only if their mothers uttered them.
(b) Children who nap in class do not show any learning whatsoever.
(c) The ability of new-borns to learn in their sleep disappears after a few months. .
(d) When new speech sounds /d/i/ and /di/ were played in their sleep, the new-borns registered a
stronger DAN.
Passage (Q.131-Q.134): Study the following information and answer the questions given :
Seven people A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a circle. Five of them are facing the centre while two of
them are facing opposite to the centre. C sits third to the left of D and both are facing the centre. E is
neither an immediate neighbour of D nor of C. The one sitting exactly between D and F is facing opposite
to the centre. G sits third to the right of A and G is facing the centre. One of B’s neighbour is facing
opposite to the centre.
131. Which of the following pairs represents persons, facing opposite to the centre?
(a) A and F (b) E and F (c) A and E (d) Cannot be determined
132. Who is sitting second to the left of A?

(a) C (b) G (c) E (d) B
133. Who is sitting to the immediate left of E?

(a) C (b) G (c) B (d) A
134. What is the position of F with respect to B?

(a) Fourth to the left (b) Second to the right
(c) Third to the right (d) None of these

SECTION - E :QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.135-Q.139): Bar graph shown below shows the percentage of expenditure of a person in
year 2016 on verious things. Total expenditure in 2016 is 10 lakh.
30
25
Percentage expenditure
20
15
10
135. If total expenditure of die person in 2016 is 80% of its Earnings then expenditure on Food is what percent
of its total earnings.
(a) 10% (b) 12% (c) 14% (d) 16%
136. What is the ratio of total expenditure on Food and House Rent together to the total expenditure on
education and transport together.
(a) 30 : 17 (b) 12 : 11 (c) 25 ; 23 (d) 22 : 19
137. If house rent increase by 20% then expenditure on clothing should be reduced by what percent so that
overall expenditure remains constant (consider changes takes place only on expenditure on Clothing and
House rent. All other expenditure remain constant)
(a) 8% (b) 7% (c) 9% (d) 10%
138. Average of expenditure on Clothing and Food together is what percent of expenditure on ‘other’ and
Education together
(a) 75% (b) 100% (c) 80% (d) 90%
139. What will be the average of expenditure on all thing except Transport and Health?
(a) 2L (b) 1.5 L (c) 1.8 L (d) 1 L

Direction (Q.140-Q.144): Read the following table and answer the following question.
The table given bellows gives the total number of children that took birth in different districts in year 2005
and percentage of boys out of these children.
Districts
No. of children that took birth Percentage of boys out of total children
A 450 30%
B 500 64%
C 470 50%
D 350 36%
E 650 48%
F 525 32%
140. Total number of baby boys from district A and B together is how much more/less than total number of
baby girls from district E and F together?
(a) 240 (b) 230 (c) 250 (d) 300
141. The average number of children from district E, C and D together is approximately what percent
less/more than the no. of baby boys from districts D, E and F together?
(a) 33.33 % (b) 19.14% (c) 26.66% (d) 16.66%
142. Find the ratio of the baby boys from district D and E together lo the baby girls from district D, E and F
together?
(a) 410 : 931 (b) 431 : 941 (c) 438 : 919 (d) 419 : 919
143. The no. of baby girls from district C is what percent more/less than the baby boys from district A?
[rounded off to nearest integer)
(a) 64.07% (b) 54.07% (c) 44.07% (d) 74.07%
144. Find the ratio of no. of children from districts B and E to the no. of baby girls from districts C and A?
(a) 21:43 (b) 21:23 (c) 23:11 (d) 23:12

Directions (Q.145 – Q.149): This data is regarding total number of employees working in Administration
[admin). Operations (Ops.) and other departments of corporate divisions of Companies A and B.
The total number of employees working in both the companies together is 4800. The respective ratio of
number of employees in Companies A and B is 5 : 7. Each employee works in only one of the 3
Departments
i.e. "Ops", "Admin" and "others".
In company A, 70% of the total employees are males. 60% of die total male employees work in 'Ops'. Out
1
of the remaining male employees, 8th work in 'Admin'. Out of the total female employees, 24% work in
5
'Admin' and 8th of the remaining female employees work in 'Ops'.
In company B, 80% of the total employees are males. 65% of the total male employees work in 'Ops'-
Number of male employees who work in other departments in Company B is 20% more than the male
employees who work in 'Other Department in company A. Number of female employees who work in Ops
in Company B are less than the number of male employees who work for 'Ops' in the same company by
1
75%, Out of the remaining female employees, work in 'Admin'.
4
145. What percent of the total number of male employees in company A work in 'other' departments?
(a) 45% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 35%
146. What percent of the total number of female employees in company B work in administration department?
(a) 18.5% (b) 8.75% (c) 14% (d) 16%
147. What is the total number of female employees who work in Ops in Company A and B together?
(a) 681 (b) 781 (c) 689 (d) 649
148. What is difference between the average number of males working in ‘Admin’ in both the companies
together and average number of females working ‘other Departments’ in both the companies together?
(a) 26 (b) 36 (c) 16 (d) 24
149. In company B, what is the respective ratio between the total number of employees (both male and
female) who work in ‘Admin’ and total number of employees (both male and female) who work in ‘Other
Department’ in the same company?
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 3 : 5
150. What is the total number of male employees who work in Ops in Company A and B together?
(a) 840 (b) 1456 (c) 2296 (d) 649

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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2021

Candidate Name : _________________

(Source: Excerpt from Jane Eyre by Charlotte Bronte

1. Which of the following can we conclude about the narrator?

2. What does “both” refer to in “I derived from both a strange excitement”?

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4. Who is the narrator calling “her chastiser”?

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7. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

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(Excerpt from The Tin Drum by Günter Grass.

11. How many characters in total appear in this extract?

16. Which of the following is the exact opposite to word ‘Gloom’?

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24. The main theme of the passage revolves around:

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29. Which treaty is being discussed in the above passage?

33. Consider following statement about New treaty

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34. Which treaty is being discussed in the above passage?

36. Consider the following statement about the Treaty

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39. Which Act is being discussed in the above passage?

42. How many types of Sanctions does the Act contains?

44. Which country is being discussed in the above passage?

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47. How many Constitutional laws are there in the Country?

48. In which year the law was enacted?

50. By which of the following name does Everest is known in Nepal

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Source: Excerpt from Business Today (dated 29 March 2021).

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60. Which day will be recognised as MaitriDiwas?

63. What is the total length of India-Bangladesh border?

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102. Which one of the following is not a Libel?

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111. Which of the following is the main conclusion of Ashish’s arguments?

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114. Who is to the immediate right of R?

118. Who is sitting opposite of R?

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