Paper 2 Classified OL Final (2021)

Contents
Physics
0625
Page
Unit 1: General Physics
Ch.1: Units and Measurements
Ch.2: Motion
5 1
2
25
Ch.3: Forces 41
Ch.4: Turning effect of force 71
Ch.5: Work, Energy, and Power 83
Ch.6: Pressure 105
Unit 2: Thermal Physics 125
Ch.7: Simple Kinetic Molecular Model of Matter 126
Ch.8: Thermal Expansion, Thermometers and Temperature Scales 144
Ch.9: Heat Transfer 153
Ch.10: Heat Energy 170
Unit 3: Waves and Optics 183
Ch.11: Properties of Waves 184
Ch.12: Sound Waves 201
Ch.13: Light Waves 220
Ch.14: Thin Converging Lens 242
Unit 4: Electricity, Magnetism and Electromagnetism 252
Ch.15: Electrostatics 253
Ch.16: Electric Current, and D.C. Circuits 260
Ch.17: Mains Supply, Semiconductors, and Logic Gates 295
Ch.18: Magnetism, and Magnetic Effect of Current 328
Ch.19: Electromagnetic Induction 356
Unit 5: Atomic Physics and Radioactivity 371
Ch.20: Nuclear Atom and Radioactivity 372
Ahmed Osama C.
1
Physics
0625
Unit 1
General Physics
Chapter 1 Chapter 4
Chapter 2 Chapter 5
Chapter 3 Chapter 6
Ahmed Osama Castella

2
0625
Physics

Chapter 1
Units and Measurements


3
1 The diagram shows a thick-walled tube. The thickness of the wall is 3 mm.
0 cm 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
What is the internal diameter d of the tube?
A 2.8 cm B 3.1 cm C 3.4 cm D 7.4 cm
2 The mass of a full bottle of cooking oil is 1.30 kg.
When exactly half of the oil has been used, the mass of the bottle plus the remaining oil is
0.90 kg.
What is the mass of the empty bottle?
A 0.4 0 kg B 0.50 kg C 0.65 kg D 0.8 0 kg

4
3 Which of the following is a unit of density?
A cm3 / g B g / cm2 C g / cm3 D kg / m2
4 Each of the solids shown in the diagram has the same mass.
Which solid has the greatest density?
A B C D
2 cm
1 cm 2 cm
1 cm
2 cm 2 cm 2 cm 2 cm
1 cm 1 cm 1 cm 1 cm
5 Some water is poured into four tubes of different cross-sectional areas.
Which tube contains the largest volume of water?
A B C D
area = 10 cm2 area = 20 cm2 area = 30 cm2 area = 40 cm2
6 cm
4 cm
3 cm
2 cm
6 A student is trying to find the density of water and of a large, regularly-shaped solid.
Which apparatus is needed to find the density of both?
A balance, clock, ruler

B balance, measuring cylinder, ruler
C balance, measuring cylinder, string
D clock, ruler, string

5
7 A metal drum has a mass of 200 kg when empty and 1000 kg when filled with 1.0 m3 of
methylated spirit.
What is the density of methylated spirit?
A 0.0050 kg / m3
B 0.11 kg / m3
C 800 kg / m3
D 1000 kg / m3
8 Some liquid is heated in a flask.
The diagrams show the height of the liquid in the tube when the liquid is cold and when it is hot.
cold hot
5 5
tube
4 4
3 3
2 2
scale 1 1
cm cm
liquid
flask
What is the difference in the heights?
A 1.7 cm B 2.8 cm C 3.2 cm D 4.5 cm
9 A metre rule is used to measure a length.
Which reading is shown to the nearest millimetre?
A 0.7 m B 0.76 m C 0.761 m D 0.7614 m

6
10 The diagram shows a rectangular metal block measuring 10 cm × 5.0 cm × 2.0 cm.
10 cm
5.0 cm
2.0 cm
Its mass is 250 g.
What is the density of the metal?
A 0.20 g / cm3 B 0.40 g / cm3 C 2.5 g / cm3 D 5.0 g / cm3
11 The diagram shows an experiment to find the density of a liquid.
cm3 cm3
50 50
40 measuring 40
cylinder
30 30
liquid
20 20
10 balance 10
200 g 250 g
What is the density of the liquid?
12 A student needs to find the density of a cubic block of wood.
Which two pieces of apparatus should she use?
A balance and metre rule

B balance and thermometer
C measuring cylinder and metre rule
D measuring cylinder and thermometer

7
13 Which items of apparatus are required to determine the density of a liquid?
A balance and measuring cylinder

C metre rule and measuring cylinder
D metre rule and thermometer
14 A stopwatch is used to time an athlete running 100 m. The timekeeper forgets to reset the watch
to zero before using it to time another athlete running 100 m.
60 60
55 5 55 5
50 10 50 10
45 15 45 15
40 seconds 20 40 seconds 20
35 25 35 25
30 30
stopwatch at stopwatch at
end of first end of second
athlete’s run athlete’s run
How long does the second athlete take to run 100 m?
A 11.2 s B 11.4 s C 12.4 s D 23.8 s
15 The diagram shows a rectangular block of density 2 g / cm3.
3 cm
2 cm
2 cm
What is the mass of the block?
A 2g B 6 g C 14 g D 24 g

8
16 A student uses a stopwatch to time a runner running around a circular track. The runner runs two
laps (twice around the track). The diagrams show the reading on the stopwatch when the runner
starts running, at the end of the first lap, and at the end of the second lap.
reading when reading at end reading at end

runner starts of first lap of second lap
What is the time taken for the runner to run the second lap?
A 0 min 50 s B 1 min 10 s C 1 min 13 s D 2 min 03 s
17 The diagrams show a rectangular box with inside measurements of 5 cm × 6 cm × 4 cm.
liquid
4 cm
6 cm
5 cm
mass = 40 g total mass = 220 g
The box has a mass of 40 g when empty. When filled with a liquid, it has a total mass of 220 g.
A 220 g / cm3
(5 × 6 × 4)
(220 − 40)
B g / cm3
(5 × 6 × 4)
C (5 × 6 × 4) g / cm3
220
(5 × 6 × 4)
D g / cm3
(220 − 40)
Ahmed Osama C. Ahmed Osama Castella Page | 23

9
18 A scientist needs to determine the volume of a small, irregularly shaped rock sample. Only a rule
and a measuring cylinder, partially filled with water, are available.
cm3
cm
rock sample rule
measuring
cylinder
To determine the volume, which apparatus should the scientist use?
A both the measuring cylinder and the rule

B neither the measuring cylinder nor the rule
C the measuring cylinder only
D the rule only
19 The diagrams show an experiment to determine the volume of a stone.

without stone with stone
10 cm3 10 cm3
9 9
8 8
7 7
6 6
5 5
4 4
3 3
2 2 stone
1 1
What is the volume of the stone?

A 3 cm3 B 4 cm3 C 7 cm3 D 11 cm3

10
20 Four athletes run twice around a track. The table shows their times at the end of each lap.
Which athlete runs the second lap the fastest?
athlete time at end of first lap / s time at end of second lap / s
A 22.99 47.04
B 23.04 47.00
C 23.16 47.18
D 23.39 47.24
21 A student is trying to find the density of water and of a large, regularly shaped concrete block.
Which apparatus is needed to find the density of both the water and the concrete block?
A balance, clock, measuring cylinder

B balance, clock, ruler
C balance, measuring cylinder, ruler
D clock, measuring cylinder, ruler
22 The diagram shows an enlarged drawing of the end of a metre rule. It is being used to measure
the length of a small feather.
10 20 30
mm
cm 1 2 3
What is the length of the feather?
A 19 mm B 29 mm C 19 cm D 29 cm

11
23 A cube of side 2.0 cm is placed on a balance.
2.0 cm
balance
7.2 g
What is the density of the cube?
A 0.9 0 g / cm3 B 1.2 g / cm3 C 1.8 g / cm3 D 3.6 g / cm3
24 A ruler is used to measure the length of an object.
object
1 2 10
cm
What is the length of the object?
A 3.0 cm B 4.0 cm C 5.0 cm D 6.5 cm
25 A student is told to measure the density of a liquid and also of a large cube of metal.
Which pieces of equipment are sufficient to be able to take the measurements needed?
A balance, measuring cylinder and ruler

C measuring cylinder and ruler
D measuring cylinder, ruler and thermometer

12
26 The diagrams show four blocks with the same mass.
Which block is made from the least dense material?
A B
8 cm 3 cm
1 cm 3 cm
2 cm 2 cm
C D
5 cm
2 cm
4 cm
3 cm
2 cm
2 cm
27 A cylindrical can is rolled along the ruler shown in the diagram.
starting position final position
can rolled
mark on
can
0 cm 5 10 15 20 25 30 cm
The can rolls over twice.
What is the circumference (distance all round) of the can?

A 13 cm B 14 cm C 26 cm D 28 cm

13
28 A stone has a volume of 0.50 cm3 and a mass of 2.0 g.
What is the density of the stone?
A 0.25 g / cm3
B 1.5 g / cm3
C 2.5 g / cm3
D 4.0 g / cm3
29 A pendulum is set in motion and timed. The time measured for 20 complete swings is 30 s.
What is the time for one complete swing of the pendulum?
A 0.67 s B 0.75 s C 1.5 s D 3.0 s
30 A liquid has a density of 0.80 g / cm3.
Which could be the volume and mass of this liquid?
volume / cm3 mass / g
A 2.0 16
B 8.0 10
C 10 8.0
D 16 2.0
31 The diagrams show the readings on a measuring cylinder before and after a small metal cube is
added.
cm3 cm3
10 10
9 9
8 8
7 7
6 6
5 5
4 4
water 3 3 metal cube
2 2
1 1
before after
How many more identical cubes can be added to the cylinder, without causing the water to
overflow? Do not include the cube already in the cylinder.
A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

14
32 A 1 kg sample of aluminium is stored in a laboratory. In a different laboratory, in the same town,

there is a 1 kg sample of iron.
Which quantity must these two samples always have in common?
A the same density

B the same temperature
C the same volume
D the same weight
33 A measuring cylinder has a mass of 120 g when empty.
When it contains 50 cm3 of a liquid, the total mass of the measuring cylinder and the liquid is
160 g.
40
A g / cm3
50
50
B g / cm3
40
120
C g / cm3
50
160
D g / cm3
50
34 A student uses a ruler to measure the length and the width of a small rectangular metal plate.
metal plate
length width
0 1 0 1
cm cm
What is the area of the plate?
A 14.0 cm2 B 14.7 cm2 C 16.0 cm2 D 16.8 cm2

15
35 Four rectangular blocks, P, Q, R and S are shown. Each block is labelled with its size and its
mass.
P Q
2.0 cm 10 g 2.0 cm 10 g
2.0 cm 2.0 cm
2.0 cm 3.0 cm
R S
2.0 cm 20 g 2.0 cm 20 g
2.0 cm 2.0 cm
4.0 cm 2.0 cm
Which two blocks have the same density?
A P and Q B P and R C Q and R D R and S
36 A student wishes to measure accurately the volume of approximately 40 cm3 of water. She has
two measuring cylinders, a larger one that can hold 100 cm3, and a smaller one that can hold
50 cm3. The water forms a meniscus where it touches the glass.
top of
meniscus
bottom of
meniscus
Which cylinder should the student use and which water level should she use to ensure an
accurate result?
cylinder water level
A larger one bottom of meniscus

B larger one top of meniscus
C smaller one bottom of meniscus
D smaller one top of meniscus

16
37 Diagram 1 shows a measuring cylinder containing water.
Five identical steel balls are now lowered into the measuring cylinder. Diagram 2 shows the new
water level in the cylinder.
cm3 cm3
100 100
90 90
80 80
70 70
60 60
50 50
40 40
30 30 steel ball
20 20
10 10
diagram 1 diagram 2
What is the volume of each steel ball?
A 6 cm3 B 14 cm3 C 30 cm3 D 70 cm3
38 Which instrument is used to compare the masses of objects?
A a balance
B a barometer
C a manometer
D a measuring cylinder
39 A liquid has a volume of 100 cm 3

and a mass of 85 g.
The density of water is 1.0 g / cm3.
How does the density of the liquid compare with the density of water?
A Its density is higher than that of water.

B Its density is lower than that of water.
C Its density is the same as that of water.
D It is impossible to say with only this data.

17
40 The diagram shows the dimensions of a rectangular block of metal of mass m.
q
p
Which expression is used to calculate the density of the metal?
A m×p×q
B m×p×q×r
C m
(p × q )
D m
p×q×r
41 A measuring cylinder is used to measure the volume of a quantity of water.
Which measuring technique would not improve the accuracy of the measurement?
A making sure that the measuring cylinder is vertical

B making sure that the water surface is at eye level
C reading the top of the water meniscus
D using the smallest measuring cylinder available that will contain all the water
42 The diagram shows an experiment to find the density of a liquid.
cm3 cm3
50 50
40 measuring 40
cylinder
30 30
liquid
20 20
10 balance 10
g g

18
43 A geologist compares the volumes of three rocks, X, Y and Z. Three measuring cylinders contain
different volumes of water. He places each rock into one of the measuring cylinders.
The diagrams show the measuring cylinders before and after the rocks are put in.
to find the to find the to find the

volume of X volume of Y volume of Z
cm3 cm3 cm3 cm3 cm3 cm3
100 100 100 100 100 100
90 90 90 90 90 90
80 80 80 80 80 80
70 70 70 70 70 70
60 60 60 60 60 60
50 50 50 50 50 50
40 40 40 40 40 40
30 30 X 30 30 Y 30 30 Z
20 20 20 20 20 20
10 10 10 10 10 10
before after before after before after
Which row shows the volumes of X, Y and Z in order, from largest to smallest?
largest smallest
volume volume
A X Z Y
B Y X Z
C Y Z X
D Z Y X

19
44 A metal block has the dimensions shown. Its mass is 1000 g.
5 cm
10 cm
2 cm
What is the density of the metal?

⎛ 5 × 10 ⎞ 3
A ⎜ ⎟ g / cm
⎝ 1000 × 2 ⎠
⎛ 2 × 5 × 10 ⎞ 3
B ⎜ ⎟ g / cm
⎝ 1000 ⎠
⎛ 1000 × 2 ⎞ 3
C ⎜ ⎟ g / cm
⎝ 5 × 10 ⎠
⎛ 1000 ⎞ 3
D ⎜ ⎟ g / cm
⎝ 2 × 5 × 10 ⎠
45
46

20
47 A student wishes to determine the density of the solid block shown.
Which quantities must be known?

A the area of the shaded face and the volume of the block
B the area of the shaded face and the weight of the block
C the mass of the block and the height of the block
D the mass of the block and the volume of the block
48 The diagrams show an empty rectangular box, and the same box filled with liquid.
The box has a mass of 60 g when empty. When filled with liquid, the total mass of the box and the
liquid is 300 g.
empty box box filled with liquid

60 g 300 g
The density of the liquid is 1.2 g / cm3.
What is the volume of the liquid in the box?

A 50 cm3 B 200 cm3 C 250 cm3 D 300 cm3
49 An object travels in a circular path at constant speed.
Which statement about the object is correct?

A It has changing kinetic energy.
B It has changing momentum.
C It has constant velocity.
D It is not accelerating.

21
2
50 What is the most accurate and precise method to measure the thickness of a coin?
A Use a micrometer screw gauge.

B Use a ruler and look at the scale perpendicularly.
C Use a top pan balance.
D Use the displacement method with water in a measuring cylinder.
51 A measuring cylinder containing only water is placed on an electronic balance. A small, irregularly
shaped stone is now completely immersed in the water.
The diagrams show the equipment before and after the stone is immersed.
measuring cm3 cm3

cylinder 100 100
90 90
80 80
70 70
60 60
50 50
40 40 stone
water 30 30
20 20
10 10
balance
g g
before the stone after the stone

is immersed is immersed
What is the density of the material of the stone?

22
2
52 A student measures the volume of a cork.
He puts some water into a measuring cylinder and then one glass ball. He puts the cork and then
a second, identical glass ball into the water as shown.
cm3 cm3 cm3

100 100 100
80 80 80
glass ball
60 60 60
40 40 40 cork
20 20 20
glass ball glass ball
diagram 1 diagram 2 diagram 3
Diagram 1 shows the first water level.
Diagram 2 shows the water level after one glass ball is added.
Diagram 3 shows the water level after the cork and the second glass ball are added. What is the
volume of the cork?
A 3 0 cm3 B 40 cm3 C 50 cm3 D 100 cm3

23
2
53 A length of cotton is measured between two points on a ruler.
cotton
cm 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
When the length of cotton is wound closely around a pen, it goes round six times.
six turns of cotton

pen
What is the distance once round the pen?
A 2.2 cm B 2.6 cm C 13.2 cm D 15.6 cm
54 The diagram shows part of a micrometer screw gauge.

45
012 40
mm
35
30
What is the smallest reading that can be achieved using this micrometer screw gauge?
A 0.0001 mm B 0.01 mm C 0.1 mm D 1 mm
55 A liquid has a volume of 0.040 m3 and a mass of 30 000 g.
A 0.075 kg / m3 B 7.5 kg / m3 C 750 kg / m3 D 7500 kg / m3

24
56 Which quantity can be measured directly using a micrometer screw gauge?
A the area of a sheet of paper

B the mass of a sheet of paper
C the thickness of a sheet of paper
D the volume of a sheet of paper
57 The diagrams show four solid blocks with their dimensions and masses.
Which block has the greatest density?
A area = 10 cm2 B area = 20 cm2
2.0 cm 2.0 cm
mass = 14 g mass = 48 g
C area = 10 cm2 D area = 20 cm2
2.0 cm 2.0 cm
mass = 54 g mass = 68 g
58 A student measures the diameter of a pencil.
Which measuring instrument will give the most precise reading?
A a measuring tape
B a metre rule
C a micrometer screw gauge
D a ruler
59 The density of air is 1. 2 kg / m3.
A room has dimensions 5.0 m × 4.0 m × 3.0 m.
What is the mass of the air in the room?
A 0.02 kg B 0.10 kg C 50 kg D 72 kg

25
0625
Physics

Chapter 2
Motion


26
1 The graph shows the progress of an athlete in a 100 m race.
100
distance
travelled / m
80
60
40
20
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
time / s
What time was taken to travel 10 m from the start?
A 2.4 s B 2.8 s C 65 s D 70 s
2 Four students try to explain what is meant by acceleration.
Which student makes a correct statement?
A It is related to the changing speed of an object.

B It is the distance an object travels in one second.
C It is the force acting on an object divided by the distance it travels in one second.
D It is the force acting on an object when it is near to the Earth.

27
3 The speed-time graph shown is for a bus travelling between stops.
Where on the graph is the acceleration of the bus the greatest?
C
speed
A D
time
4 The circuit of a motor racing track is 3 km in length. In a race, a car goes 25 times round the
circuit in 30 minutes.
What is the average speed of the car?
A 75 km / hour
B 9 0 km / hour
C 150 km / hour
D 750 km / hour
5 A tennis player hits a ball over the net.
In which position is the ball accelerating?
A P and Q only
B P and R only
C Q and R only
D P, Q and R

28
6 A car travels at various speeds during a short journey.
The table shows the distances travelled and the time taken during each of four stages
P, Q, R and S.
stage P Q R S
distance travelled / km 1.8 3.6 2.7 2.7

time taken / minutes 2 2 4 3
During which two stages is the car travelling at the same speed?
A P and Q B P and S C Q and R D R and S
7 The graph represents the movement of a body.
10
speed
m/s 8
0
0 1 2 3 4 5
time / s
How far has the body moved after 5 s?
A 2m B 10 m C 25 m D 50 m
8 A car travels 100 km. The highest speed of the car is 90 km/h, and the lowest speed is
30 km/h. The journey takes two hours.
What is the average speed for the journey?
A 30 km / h B 50 km / h C 60 km / h D 90 km / h

29
9 A car accelerates from traffic lights. The graph shows the car’s speed plotted against time.
speed
m/s
20
0
0 10 time / s
How far does the car travel before it reaches a constant speed?
A 10 m B 20 m C 100 m D 200 m
10 The diagram shows the speed / time graph for an object moving at constant speed.
2
speed
m/s
1
0
0 1 2 3 4
time / s
What is the distance travelled by the object in the first 3 s?
A 1.5 m B 2.0 m C 3.0 m D 6.0 m
11 The graph shows how the speed of a car changes with time.
speed
0
U V W X Y time
Between which two times is the car stationary?
A U and V B V and W C W and X D X and Y

30
12 Two distance / time graphs and two speed / time graphs are shown.
Which graph represents an object that is at rest?
A B
distance distance
0 0
0 time 0 time
C D
speed speed
0 0
0 time 0 time
13 A snail moves along a ruler. It takes 20 s to move from Q to R.
P Q R
0 2 cm 12
What is its average speed from Q to R?
A 12 cm / s
20
B 12 − 2 cm / s
20
C 20 cm / s
12
D 20 cm / s
12 − 2

31
14 An object moves initially with constant speed and then with constant acceleration.
Which graph shows this motion?
A B
speed speed
0 0
0 time 0 time
C D
speed speed
0 0
0 time 0 time
15 A child is standing on the platform of a station.
A train travelling at 30 m / s takes 3.0 s to pass the child.
What is the length of the train?
A 10 m B 27 m C 30 m D 90 m

32
16 A car is moving downhill along a road at a constant speed.
Which graph is the speed / time graph for the car?
A B
speed speed
0 0
0 time 0 time
C D
speed speed
0 0
0 time 0 time
17 In a race, a car travels 60 times around a 3.6 km track. This takes 2.4 hours.
What is the average speed of the car?
A 1.5 km / h B 90 km / h C 144 km / h D 216 km / h
Page | 42 Ahmed Osama Castella Ahmed Osama C.

33
18 The diagram shows the speed / time graph for a train as it travels along a track.
R
speed
P
Q
S T
0
0 time
For which part of the graph is the train’s speed changing at the greatest rate?
A PQ B QR C RS D ST

34
19 The graph shows how the speed of a car changes with time.
speed
m / s 14
0
0 24 time / s
Which calculation gives the distance travelled by the car in 24 seconds?
⎛ 14 ⎞
A ⎜ ⎟m
⎝ 24 ⎠
⎛ 24 ⎞
B ⎜ ⎟m
⎝ 14 ⎠
⎛ 24 × 14 ⎞
C ⎜ ⎟m
⎝ 2 ⎠
D (24 ×14 ) m
20 Which distance / time graph represents the motion of an object moving at constant speed?
A B
distance distance
0 0
0 time 0 time
C D
distance distance
0 0
0 time 0 time

35
21 A man stands by a railway track.
A train travelling at 40 m / s takes 2.0 s to pass the man.
What is the length of the train?
A 20 m B 38 m C 40 m D 80 m
22 Two distance-time graphs and two speed-time graphs are shown.
Which graph represents an object that is at rest?
A B
distance distance
0 0
0 time 0 time
C D
speed speed
0 0
0 time 0 time
23 A car travels at an average speed of 6 0 km / h for 15 minutes.
How far does the car travel in 15 minutes?
A 4.0 km B 15 km C 240 km D 900 km

36
24 A car moves with constant speed and then constant acceleration.
Which graph is the speed-time graph for the car?
A B C D
speed speed speed speed
0 0 0 0
0 time 0 time 0 time 0 time
25 A car travels 100 km. The journey takes two hours. The highest speed of the car is 80 km / h, and
the lowest speed is 40 km / h.
What is the average speed for the journey?
A 40 km / h B 50 km / h C 60 km / h D 120 km / h
26
27

37
28 The speed-time graph shown is for a car moving in a straight line.
15
speed
m/s
10
0
0 20 40 60 80
time / s
What is the acceleration of the car when the time is 40 s?
15 − 3 15
A 0 m / s2 B m / s2 C m / s2 D (15 – 3 ) m / 2s
40 40
29 Two runners take part in a race.
The graph shows how the speed of each runner changes with time.
runner 1
speed
runner 2
0
0 t time
What does the graph show about the runners at time t ?
A Both runners are moving at the same speed.

B Runner 1 has zero acceleration.
C Runner 1 is overtaking runner 2.
D Runner 2 is slowing down.

38
2
30 The graph shows how the distance travelled by a vehicle changes with time.
S
distance
Q R
P
0
0 time
Which row describes the speed of the vehicle in each section of the graph?
P to Q Q to R R to S
A constant zero constant

B constant zero decreasing
C increasing constant decreasing
D increasing zero constant
31 A car travels along a horizontal road in a straight line. The driver presses the accelerator to
increase the speed of the car.
The speed-time graph for the car is shown.
30
speed
m/s
20
10
0
0 5 10 15 20
time / s
What is the acceleration of the car?
A 0.50 m / s2 B 1.00 m / s2 C 1.50 m / s2 D 2.00 m / s2

39
32 On Earth, a ball is dropped and falls 2.0 m in a vacuum.
The acceleration of the ball at 1.0 m is 10 m / s2.
0m ball
0.5 m
1.0 m
1.5 m
2.0 m
What is the acceleration of the ball at 0.5 m?
A 5.0 m / s2 B 10 m / s2 C 15 m / s2 D 20 m / s2
33 A car is moving along a straight, level road, with a constant acceleration.
Which graph shows the motion of the car?
A B
distance distance
0 0
0 time 0 time
C D
speed speed
0 0
0 time 0 time

40
34 A runner runs 300 m at an average speed of 3.0 m / s. She then runs another 300 m at an average
speed of 6.0 m / s.
What is her average speed for the total distance of 600 m?
A 2.0 m / s B 4.0 m / s C 4.5 m / s D 8.0 m / s
35 Which quantities are both vectors?
A acceleration and force

B acceleration and pressure
C density and force
D density and pressure
36 The velocity of an object increases from 3 0 m / s to 50 m / s in 5.0 seconds.
What is the average acceleration of the object?
A 0.10 m / s2 B 0.25 m / s2 C 4.0 m / s2 D 10 m / s 2
37 A heavy metal ball falls vertically downwards through air past four equally spaced levels J, K, L
and M.
metal ball
level J
level K
level L
level M
The times taken to fall from one level to the next are measured.
Where is the speed of the ball greatest and which time is shortest?
speed is time is
greatest between shortest between
A J and K J and K
B J and K L and M
C L and M J and K
D L and M L and M

41
0625
Physics

Chapter 3
Forces


42
1 Two stones of different weight fall at the same time from a table. Air resistance may be ignored.
What will happen and why?
what will happen why
A both stones hit the floor at the same time the acceleration of free fall is constant
B both stones hit the floor at the same time they fall at constant speed
C the heavier stone hits the floor first acceleration increases with weight
D the heavier stone hits the floor first speed increases with weight
2 The diagram shows a bird in flight.
In which direction does the weight of the bird act? B
A C
3 A force acts on a moving rubber ball.
How many of the following changes could happen to the ball because of the force?
• a change in direction
• a change in shape
• a change in mass
• a change in speed
A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4
4 What are the correct units for force and for weight?
force weight
A kg kg
B kg N
C N kg
D N N

43
5 The table shows the weight of a 10 kg mass on each of five planets.
planet weight of a 10 kg mass / N
Mercury 40
Venus 90
Earth 100
Mars 40
Jupiter 250
On which planets would an astronaut have a smaller weight than on Earth?
A Mercury, Mars and Jupiter

B Mercury, Venus and Mars
C Mercury, Venus and Jupiter
D Venus, Mars and Jupiter
6 An aeroplane is in equilibrium.
The diagram shows the forces acting on the aeroplane.
lift force from wings
force from air

engine resistance
weight
Which statement about the forces is correct?
force from engine lift force from wings
A equal to air resistance equal to weight

B equal to air resistance greater than weight
C greater than air resistance equal to weight
D greater than air resistance greater than weight

44
7 A student adds loads to an elastic cord. He measures the length of the cord for each load.
He then plots a graph from the results.
0
0 1 2 3 4 load / N
Which length is plotted on the vertical axis?
A measured length
B original length
C (measured length – original length)
D (measured length + original length)
8 The force of gravity acting on an astronaut in an orbiting spacecraft is less than when she is on
the Earth’s surface.
Compared with being on the Earth’s surface, how do her mass and weight change when she
goes into orbit?
mass in orbit weight in orbit
A decreases decreases
B decreases unchanged
C unchanged decreases
D unchanged unchanged
9 What is the meaning of the weight of an object?
A the density of the material from which it is made

B the force exerted on it by gravity
C the mass of the matter it contains
D the pressure it exerts on the floor

45
10 A train is travelling along a horizontal track at constant speed. Two of the forces acting on the
train are shown in the diagram.
forwards
force from engine
friction 60 000 N
20 000 N
A force of air resistance is also acting on the train to give it a resultant force of zero.
What is this air resistance force?
A 40 000 N backwards
B 80 000 N backwards
C 40 000 N forwards
D 80 000 N forwards
11 The table shows the weight in newtons of a10 kg mass on each of four planets.
planet weight of a 10 kg mass / N
Earth 100
Jupiter 250
Mercury 40
Venus 90
The diagram shows a force meter (spring balance) being used.
18 N
2.0 kg
On which planet is the force meter (spring balance) being used?
A Earth
B Jupiter
C Mercury
D Venus

46
12 Which statement about the masses and weights of objects on the Earth is correct?
A A balance can only be used to compare weights, not masses.

B Heavy objects always have more mass than light ones.
C Large objects always have more mass than small ones.
D Mass is a force but weight is not.
13 Which property of an object cannot be changed by a force?
A its mass
B its motion
C its shape
D its size
14 A ball is thrown upwards.
What effect does the force of gravity have on the ball?
A It produces a constant acceleration downwards.

B It produces a constant acceleration upwards.
C It produces a decreasing acceleration upwards.
D It produces an increasing acceleration downwards.
15 Which property of a body can be measured in newtons?
A density
B mass
C volume
D weight
16 A cup contains hot liquid.
Some of the liquid evaporates as it cools.
What happens to the mass and to the weight of the liquid in the cup as it cools?
mass weight
B decreases stays the same
C stays the same decreases
D stays the same stays the same

47
17 The object in the diagram is acted upon by the two forces shown.
3N 2N
object
What is the effect of these forces?
A The object moves to the left with constant speed.

B The object moves to the left with constant acceleration.
C The object moves to the right with constant speed.
D The object moves to the right with constant acceleration.
18 Which statement about a moving object is correct?
A When an object is accelerating, the resultant force acting on it must equal zero.
B When an object is moving at a steady speed, the air resistance acting on it must equal zero.
C When an object is moving at a steady speed, the resultant force acting on it must equal zero.
D When an object is moving, there must be a resultant force acting on it.
19 An experiment is carried out to measure the extension of a rubber band for different loads.
The results are shown below.
load / N 0 1 2 3
length / cm 15.2 16.2 18.6
extension / cm 0 1.0 2.1 3.4
Which figure is missing from the table?
A 17.2 B 17.3 C 17.4 D 17.6
20 Which list contains the name of a force?
A acceleration, charge, temperature

B density, resistance, speed
C distance, frequency, mass
D energy, power, weight

48
21 Two blocks of metal X and Y hang from spring balances as shown in the diagram.
N0 N0
1 1
2 2
3 3
4 4
5 5
X Y
What does the diagram show about X and Y?

A They have the same mass and the same volume but different weights.
B They have the same mass and the same weight but different volumes.
C They have the same mass, the same volume and the same weight.
D They have the same weight and the same volume but different masses.
22 The graph shows how weight varies with mass on planet P and on planet Q.
400
planet P
weight / N
300
planet Q
200
100
0
0 20 40 60 80
mass / kg
An object weighs 400 N on planet P. The object is taken to planet Q.
Which row is correct?
mass of object weight of object
on planet Q / kg on planet Q / N
A 40 200
B 40 400
C 80 200
D 80 400

49
23 The reading on a spring balance with a holder and eight identical discs is 3.0 N.
Six discs are removed and the reading becomes 1.2 N.
N0 spring N0
balance
1 1
2 2
3 3
4 4
holder
for discs
two
discs
eight
discs
What is the weight of one disc?
A 0.2 N B 0.3 N C 0.5 N D 0.6 N
24 The extension / load graph for a spring is shown. The unloaded length of the spring is 15.0 cm.
3
extension / cm
0
0 1 2 3 4 5
load / N
When an object of unknown weight is hung on the spring, the length of the spring is 16.4 cm.
What is the weight of the object?
A 0.55 N B 0.67 N C 3.5 N D 4.1 N

50
25 A force acts on a moving rubber ball.
Which of these changes could not happen to the ball because of the force?
A a change in direction
B a change in mass
C a change in shape
D a change in speed
26 Which statement about mass and weight is correct?
A Mass and weight are both forces.

B Neither mass nor weight is a force.
C Only mass is a force.
D Only weight is a force.
27 Objects with different masses are hung on a spring. The diagram shows how much the spring
stretches.
10 cm
20 cm
30 cm
100 g
The extension of the spring is directly proportional to the mass hung on it.
What is the mass of object M?
A 110 g B 150 g C 200 g D 300 g

51
28 Which combination of forces produces a resultant force acting towards the right?
A B C D
5N 4N 6N 5N
10 N 5N 10 N 7N
2N 3N 4N 3N
29 A student adds weights to an elastic cord. He measures the length of the cord for each weight.
He then plots a graph from the results, as shown.
0
0 1 2 3 4 weight / N
Which length has he plotted on the vertical axis?
A measured length
B original length
C (measured length – original length)
D (measured length + original length)
30 Which quantity is measured in newtons?
A density
B energy
C pressure
D weight
31 Two stones of different weight fall at the same time from a table. Air resistance may be ignored.
What will happen and why?
what will happen why
A both stones hit the floor at the same time acceleration of free fall is constant
B both stones hit the floor at the same time they fall at constant speed
C the heavier stone hits the floor first acceleration increases with weight
D the heavier stone hits the floor first speed increases with weight

52
32 A parachutist inside an aeroplane has a mass of 70 kg.
What is his mass after he has jumped from the aeroplane?

A 0 kg
B between 0 kg and 70 kg
C 7 0 kg
D greater than 70 kg
33 Which person is experiencing an acceleration?
A a driver of a car that is braking to stop at traffic lights

B a passenger in a train that is stationary in a railway station
C a shopper in a large store ascending an escalator (moving stairs) at a uniform rate
D a skydiver falling at constant speed towards the Earth
34 Two blocks of metal X and Y hang from spring balances, as shown in the diagrams.
N N
0 0
1 1
2 2
3 3
4 4
5 5
X
Y
What does the diagram show about X and Y?
A They have the same mass and the same volume but different weights.
B They have the same mass and the same weight but different volumes.
C They have the same mass, the same volume and the same weight.
D They have the same weight and the same volume but different masses.

53
35 A car moves along a level road.
The diagram shows all of the horizontal forces acting on the car.
800 N
air resistance
2000 N force
500 N from engine
friction
Which statement is correct?
A The car is slowing down.

B The car is speeding up.
C The car is moving at a constant speed.
D The car is moving backwards.
36 A small steel ball is dropped from a low balcony.
Ignoring air resistance, which statement describes its motion?

A It falls with constant acceleration.
B It falls with constant speed.
C It falls with decreasing speed.
D It falls with increasing acceleration.
37 Which is the unit for force and which is the unit for weight?
force weight
A kg kg
B kg N
C N kg
D N N
38 A cup contains hot liquid.
Some of the liquid evaporates.
What happens to the mass and to the weight of the liquid in the cup?
mass weight
B decreases stays the same

54
39 A force acting on an object causes some properties of the object to change.
Which list contains only properties that can be changed by the action of the force?
A mass, motion and shape

B mass, motion and size
C mass, shape and size
D motion, shape and size
40 A box is being moved by a fork-lift truck. The total weight of the box is 3000 N.
fork-lift truck box
The force exerted by the fork-lift truck on the box is 3500 N upwards.
What is the resultant force on the box?
A 500 N downwards
B 500 N upwards
C 6500 N downwards
D 6500 N upwards
41 The mass of an astronaut is 70 kg on the Moon.
What is the mass of the astronaut on the Earth?
A 7 kg B 70 kg C 80 kg D 700 kg
42 In which situation is no resultant force needed?
A a car changing direction at a steady speed

B a car moving in a straight line at a steady speed
C a car slowing down
D a car speeding up

55
43 Which properties of a body can be changed by applying a force to the body?

A mass, motion and shape
B mass and motion, but not shape
C mass and shape, but not motion
D motion and shape, but not mass
44 Which quantity is measured in newtons?
A density
B energy
C pressure
D weight
45 An astronaut in an orbiting spacecraft experiences a force due to gravity. This force is less than
when she is on the Earth’s surface.
Compared with being on the Earth’s surface, how do her mass and her weight change when she
goes into orbit?
mass in orbit weight in orbit
C unchanged decreases
46 Which statement about an object moving in a straight line through air is correct?
A When it accelerates, the resultant force acting on it is zero.

B When it moves at a steady speed, the air resistance acting on it is zero.
C When it moves at a steady speed, the resultant force acting on it is zero.
D When it moves, there is a resultant force acting on it.

56
47 Diagram 1 shows a piece of foam rubber that contains many pockets of air. Diagram 2 shows the
same piece of foam rubber after it has been compressed so that its volume decreases.
diagram 1 diagram 2
(before compression) (after compression)
What happens to the mass and to the weight of the foam rubber when it is compressed?
mass weight
A increases increases
B increases no change
C no change increases
D no change no change
48 A student measures the length of a spring. She then hangs different weights from the spring. She
measures the length of the spring for each different weight.
The table shows her results.
weight / N length / mm
0 520
1.0 524
2.0 528
3.0 533
4.0 537
5.0 540
What is the extension of the spring when the weight hung from it is 3.0 N?
A 4 mm B 5 mm C 12 mm D 13 mm
49 The mass of an object is measured on Earth. The mass is 5.0 kg.

The object is taken to the Moon. The mass of the object is measured on the Moon.
What is the mass of the object on the Moon?
A 0 kg
B more than 0 kg, but less than 5.0 kg
C 5.0 kg
D more than 5.0 kg

57
50 Which list contains only properties of an object that can be changed by a force?
A direction of motion, mass, shape

B direction of motion, mass, speed
C direction of motion, shape, speed
D mass, shape, speed
51 A satellite orbits the Earth above the atmosphere at a constant speed.
The diagram shows the satellite at one point in its circular orbit around the Earth.
Which labelled arrow shows the direction of the resultant force on the satellite at the position
shown?
direction of rotation
of satellite
D B
Earth
satellite
C
52 An object of mass 50 kg accelerates from a velocity of 2.0 m / s to a velocity of 10 m / s in the same

direction.
What is the impulse provided to cause this acceleration?
A 250 N s B 400 N s C 850 N s D 2500 N s

58
53 A stone falls freely from the top of a cliff. Air resistance may be ignored.
Which graph shows how the acceleration of the stone varies with time as it falls?
A B
acceleration acceleration
0 0
0 time 0 time
C D
acceleration acceleration
0 0
0 time 0 time
54 A spaceship approaches the Earth from deep space. Near the Earth, a force on the spaceship
causes it to have weight. This causes it to change its speed and direction.
Which type of force causes the spaceship’s weight, and which property of the spaceship resists
its change in speed and direction?
force that property that resists change in

causes weight speed and direction
A gravitational mass
B gravitational volume
C magnetic mass
D magnetic volume

59
55 Which diagram shows the magnitude and direction of the resultant R of the two forces F1 and F2?
A B C D
F1 F1 F1 F1
R R
R R
F2 F2 F2 F2 F2
56 A skydiver reaches terminal velocity. Then he opens his parachute.
What happens to the skydiver as the parachute opens?
A There is a decrease in weight.

B There is acceleration upwards.
C There is an increase in speed.
D There is movement upwards.
57 A piece of steel is taken from the Earth to the Moon for an experiment. The gravitational field
strength on the Moon is smaller than on the Earth.
Which statement about the piece of steel is correct?
A It has less mass on the Moon than on the Earth.

B It has more mass on the Moon than on the Earth.
C It weighs less on the Moon than on the Earth.
D It weighs more on the Moon than on the Earth.
58 A bullet of mass 0.10 kg travels horizontally at a speed of 600 m / s. It strikes a stationary wooden
block of mass 1.90 kg resting on a frictionless, horizontal surface.
The bullet stays in the block.
What is the speed of the bullet and the block immediately after the impact?
A 30 m / s B 32 m / s C 60 m / s D 134 m / s

60
4
59 A boat is travelling at a steady speed in a straight line across the surface of a lake.
Which statement about the boat is correct?
A The resultant force on the boat is in the direction of motion.

B The resultant force on the boat is in the opposite direction to its motion.
C The resultant force on the boat is vertically downwards.
D The resultant force on the boat is zero.
60 A ball of weight 1.2 N drops through the air at terminal velocity.
A sudden gust of wind exerts a horizontal force of 0.5 N on the ball from the left.
Which diagram shows the resultant force on the ball while the wind is blowing?
A B
ball 0.5 N ball 0.5 N
1.2 N resultant 1.2 N

force resultant
force
C D
1.2 N
1.2 N resultant
force
ball 0.5 N
resultant ball 0.5 N

force
1.2 N

61
61 When does an object falling vertically through the air reach terminal velocity?
A when the acceleration of the object becomes negative

B when the acceleration of the object is equal to g
C when the air resistance equals the weight of the object
D when the air resistance is greater than the weight of the object
62 Four balls with different masses are dropped from the heights shown.
Air resistance may be ignored.
Which ball has the smallest average speed?
A B C D
1.0 kg
2.0 kg
3.0 kg
4.0 m
4.0 kg
3.0 m
2.0 m
1.0 m ground
© UCLES 2017 0625/21/O/N/17

62
3
63 An ice crystal falls vertically from a cloud.
What happens to the acceleration of the ice crystal as it falls?
A It decreases because of air resistance.

B It decreases because of gravity.
C It increases because of air resistance.
D It increases because of gravity.
64 A spring is stretched by hanging a piece of metal from it.
spring
metal
Which name is given to the force that stretches the spring?
A friction
B mass
C pressure
D weight
65 Which object has the greatest weight?
A an object of mass 10 kg in a 15 N / kg gravitational field

B an object of mass 15 kg in a 13 N / kg gravitational field
C an object of mass 20 kg in a 9.0 N / kg gravitational field
D an object of mass 50 kg in a 3.0 N / kg gravitational field
© UCLES 2017 0625/21/O/N/17 [Turn over

63
5
66 The diagram shows an incomplete scale drawing to find the resultant of two 10 N forces acting at
a point in the directions shown.
10 N
10 N
What is the magnitude of the resultant force?
A 7.5 N B 8.6 N C 18 N D 20 N
67 A tennis ball of mass 0.060 kg travels horizontally at a speed of 25 m / s. The ball hits a tennis
racket and rebounds horizontally at a speed of 40 m / s.
racket
ball
25 m / s 40 m / s
before hitting racket after hitting racket
The ball is in contact with the racket for 50 ms.
What force does the racket exert on the ball?
A 0.018 N B 0.078 N C 18 N D 78 N

64
4
68 Diagram 1 shows a beam balance. A beaker with a wire loop balances the standard masses.
The beaker is then removed and hung from a spring. The spring extends by 5.0 cm, as in
diagram 2.
diagram 1 diagram 2
beam beaker with spring

standard balance wire loop
masses
attached
beaker with
wire loop
attached
The experiment is repeated with the same apparatus on the Moon, where the acceleration of free
fall is less than on Earth.
Which statement describes what happens on the Moon?
A The beam balance is balanced and the spring extends by 5.0 cm.
B The beam balance is balanced and the spring extends by less than 5.0 cm.
C The right-hand balance pan is higher and the spring extends by 5.0 cm.
D The right-hand balance pan is higher and the spring extends by less than 5.0 cm.
69 An object always has mass but does not always have weight.
What must be present and acting on the mass for it to have weight?
A a gravitational field
B a set of scales
C displaced water
D friction due to air resistance
70 A force acting on a moving ball causes its motion to change. This force stays constant.
What makes the force produce a greater change in the motion of the ball?
A decreasing the total mass of the ball

B increasing the temperature of the ball
C using a ball with a hollow centre but the same mass
D using a different material for the ball so that it has a lower density but the same mass
© UCLES 2018 0625/21/M/J/18

65
71 A car is moving in a straight line on a level road. Its engine provides a forward force on the car. A
second force of equal size acts on the car due to resistive forces.
Which statement describes what happens?
A The car changes direction.

B The car moves at a constant speed.
C The car slows down.
D The car speeds up.
72 Which expression gives the momentum of an object?
A mass × acceleration
B mass × gravitational field strength
C mass × velocity
D 1
2 × mass × (velocity)2
73 A small, light ball is dropped from the top of a tall building.
Which graph shows how the speed of the ball changes with time?
A B
speed speed
0 0
0 time 0 time
C D
speed speed
0 0
0 time 0 time
© UCLES 2018 0625/21/M/J/18 [Turn over

66
3
74 A helium balloon is tied to a top-pan balance. A metal block of mass 100 g is placed on the
balance. The reading on the balance is 91 g.
helium balloon
metal block
91 g
Which statement can be deduced from this experiment?
A The balloon exerts a downward force of 0.09 N on the top-pan balance.

B The helium has a mass of –9 g.
C The helium has a mass of +9 g.
D The resultant downward force on the top-pan balance is 0.91 N.
75 A resultant force of 4.0 N acts on an object of mass 0.50 kg for 3.0 seconds.
What is the change in velocity caused by this force?
A 4.0 m / s B 6.0 m / s C 12 m / s D 24 m / s
76 Which quantities are both vectors?
A acceleration and force

B acceleration and pressure
C density and force
D density and pressure

67
4
77 A moving ball with a momentum of 25 kg m / s collides head-on with a wall.
wall
ball
It rebounds from the wall with the same speed but in the opposite direction. The time of collision
is 50 ms.
What is the average force exerted on the wall by the ball during the collision?
A 0.50 N B 1.00 N C 500 N D 1000 N
78 A body is moved from place X to place Y where the gravitational field strength is different.
What happens to its mass and to its weight due to the move?
mass weight
A changes changes
B changes stays the same
C stays the same changes
79 A student wishes to determine the spring constant of a spring where it obeys Hooke’s law.
Different loads are hung from the spring and its length is measured for each different load.
The table shows the results of the experiment.
weight of load / N 0 2.0 4.0 5.0

length of spring / cm 12 20 28 38
What is the value of the spring constant of the spring?
A 0.13 N / cm B 0.14 N / cm C 0.19 N / cm D 0.25 N / cm
© UCLES 2018 0625/21/O/N/18

68
4
80 A mass of 2 0 kg is held stationary by a rope passing over a frictionless pulley.
pulley
20 kg
What is the tension T in the rope?
A 10 kg B 20 kg C 100 N D 200 N
81 A boat starts moving across a river at velocity v perpendicular to the river bank.
The boat encounters a current along the river of velocity u, as shown.
u river
Which vector diagram shows the resultant velocity r of the boat?
A B C D
u u
r r
v v
v v
r r
u u
82 An object falls from the top of a building that is 25 m high. Air resistance is negligible.
What is the speed of the object when it hits the ground?
A 10 m / s B 22 m / s C 25 m / s D 625 m / s

69
5
83 A ball of mass 0.5 0 kg falls and hits the floor at 10 m / s.
It rebounds at speed 8.0 m / s, as shown.
before collision after collision
10 m / s 8 m/s
The collision between the ball and the floor lasts for 0.50 s.
What is the average force acting on the ball during the collision?
A 2.0 N upwards
B 2.0 N downwards
C 18 N upwards
D 18 N downwards
84 A light object is dropped from rest. It falls a large distance vertically through air.
How can the motion of the object be described?
A constant acceleration
B increasing acceleration
C decreasing acceleration and then moving at terminal velocity
D increasing acceleration and then moving at terminal velocity
85 Which quantity is a force due to a gravitational field?
A density
B mass
C weight
D volume

70
3
86 A car is travelling around a circular track at a constant speed, as shown.
In which direction is the resultant force on the car?
D
car
C A
direction of
movement
87 Which statement gives a complete description of any object that is in equilibrium?
A There are no forces acting.

B There is no resultant force.
C There is no resultant force and no resultant turning effect.
D There is no resultant turning effect.
88 Two objects X and Y move directly towards each other. The objects have the same mass.
Object X has a velocity of 5.0 m / s to the right. Object Y has a velocity of 3.0 m / s to the left.
5.0 m / s 3.0 m / s
X Y
Object X and object Y collide and stick together.
What is their velocity after colliding?
A 1.0 m / s to the left

B 1.0 m / s to the right
C 4.0 m / s to the left
D 4.0 m / s to the right

71
0625
Physics

Chapter 4
Turning Effect of Forces


72
1 A light aircraft stands at rest on the ground. It stands on three wheels, one at the front and two
further back.
Which point could be its centre of mass?
A B C D
2 An empty glass is placed on a join between two tables as shown. The glass remains stable.
Which point is the centre of mass of the glass?

A
B
C
3 When two blocks X and Y are placed on a uniform beam, the beam balances on a pivot at its
centre as shown.
Y
X
pivot
What does this show about X and Y?
A They have the same mass and the same density.

B They have the same mass and the same weight.
C They have the same volume and the same density.
D They have the same volume and the same weight.

73
4 What are the conditions for equilibrium?
resultant force resultant turning

acting effect acting
A yes yes
B yes no
C no yes
D no no
5 The diagram shows four objects standing on a flat surface.
The centre of mass of each object is marked M.
Which object will fall over?
A B
M M M M
6 The weight of an object is to be found using the beam balance shown in the diagram.
object
?
The object is put in the left-hand pan and various standard weights are put in the right-hand pan,
with the following results.
weights in the right hand pan effect
0.1 N, 0.1 N, 0.05 N, 0.02 N balance tips down slightly on the left-hand side
0.2 N, 0.1 N, 0.01 N balance tips down slightly on the right-hand side
What is the best estimate of the weight of the object?
A 0.27 N B 0.29 N C 0.31 N D 0.58 N

74
7 The diagrams show a uniform rod with its midpoint on a pivot.
Two equal forces F are applied to the rod, as shown.
Which diagram shows the rod in equilibrium?
A B
F F F
F
pivot pivot
C F D
F F F
pivot pivot
8 A wooden plank rests in equilibrium on two boulders on opposite sides of a narrow stream. Three
forces of size P, Q and R act on the plank.
P R
plank
How are the sizes of the forces related?
A P+Q=R
B P+R=Q
C P=Q=R
D P=Q+R

75
9 Passengers are not allowed to stand on the upper deck of double-decker buses.
upper deck
lower deck
Why is this?
A They would cause the bus to become unstable.

B They would cause the bus to slow down.
C They would increase the kinetic energy of the bus.
D They would lower the centre of mass of the bus.
10 A uniform rod rests on a pivot at its centre. The rod is not attached to the pivot. Forces are then
applied to the rod in four different ways, as shown. The weight of the rod can be ignored.
Which diagram shows the rod in equilibrium?
A B
100 N 100 N 100 N
100 N
C D
100 N
100 N 100 N 100 N 100 N

76
11 A geologist places a small rock on the left-hand pan of a balance. The two pans are level as
shown when masses with a total weight of 23 N are placed on the right-hand pan.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 10 N.
rock masses
What is the mass of the small rock?
A 0.023 kg B 2.3 kg C 23 kg D 230 kg
12 The diagram shows a handle with three forces, each 100 N, applied to it. The handle is free to
move.
100 N
100 N
100 N
handle
pivot
What is the effect of the forces on the handle?

A The handle will move downwards.
B The handle will not move.
C The handle will turn anticlockwise (to the left).
D The handle will turn clockwise (to the right).

77
13 A large bag of feathers and a steel block balance each other on some scales.
bag of steel block

feathers
What does this show about the masses and the weights of the bag of feathers and the steel
block?
A It shows that the masses are equal and the weights are equal.
B It shows that the masses are equal, but the weights might be different.
C It shows that the masses might be different and the weights might be different.
D It shows that the weights are equal, but the masses might be different.
14 The diagram shows sections of four objects of equal mass. The position of the centre of mass of
each object has been marked with a cross.
Which object is the most stable?
A B C D
15 A see-saw is made by resting a long plank of wood with its centre of mass on a barrel.
A boy sits on one side of the barrel and a girl sits on the other side so that the see-saw is
balanced.
x y
boy girl
boy’s weight girl’s weight
Which statement must be true?

A boy’s weight = girl’s weight
B distance x = distance y
C total downward force = total moment about the barrel
D resultant force and resultant moment are both zero

78
16 The diagram shows a force being applied to a lever to lift a heavy weight.
force
pivot lever
heavy weight
Which change would enable the heavy weight to be lifted with a smaller force?
A Move the force to the right.

B Move the heavy weight to the right.
C Move the force to the left.
D Move the pivot to the left.
17 A plane lamina with centre of mass X touches the ground at point P.
Which diagram shows the lamina in equilibrium?
A B
X
X
70°
20°
P P
C D
X X
45° 45°
P P

79
18 The diagram shows a balance being used to find the weight of a baby. The weight of the basket
can be ignored.
At equilibrium, the pivot is nearer to the 40 N balancing weight than to the baby.
centre of mass
of beam
pivot
40 N
baby
basket
What is the weight of the baby?
A less than 40 N
B 40 N
C more than 40 N
D impossible to tell without a scale on the beam
19 The diagram shows four objects on a flat surface.
The centre of mass of each object is marked M.
Which object is about to fall over?
A B C D
M M M M
20 Four objects are each acted on by only two forces, as shown.
Which object is in equilibrium?
A B C D
1.0 N 2.0 N 3.0 N 4.0 N
2.0 N 2.0 N 2.0 N 4.0 N

80
21 A heavy beam rests on two supports. The diagram shows the only three forces F1, F2 and F3
acting on the beam.
F1 F2
beam
support support
F3
The beam is in equilibrium.

A All the forces are equal in size.
B The resultant force on the beam is in the opposite direction to the resultant turning effect.
C The resultant force on the beam is zero and the resultant turning effect on the beam is zero.
D The total upward force is twice the total downward force.
22 The diagrams show three uniform beams P, Q and R, each pivoted at its centre.
The two forces acting on each beam are also shown.
2.0 m 1.0 m
P
4.0 N 4.0 N
4.0 m 2.0 m
Q
2.0 N 5.0 N
2.0 m 4.0 m
R
1.5 N 1.0 N
Which beams rotate clockwise?
A P and Q only
B P and R only
C Q and R only
D P, Q and R

81
5
23 The diagram shows a uniform bridge, 4.0 m long and weighing 10 000 N.
The bridge is pivoted at one end. A force at the other end gradually increases until the bridge
begins to lift.
lifting
bridge force
pivot
4.0 m
What is the lifting force as the bridge starts to move upwards?
A 2500 N B 5000 N C 10 000 N D 20 000 N
24 A uniform beam XY is 100 cm long and weighs 4.0 N.
80 cm
60 cm
10 cm
X Y
centre
pivot
of beam F
8.0 N
The beam rests on a pivot 60 cm from end X.
A load of 8.0 N hangs from the beam 10 cm from end X.
The beam is kept balanced by a force F acting on the beam 80 cm from end X.
What is the magnitude of force F ?
A 8.0 N B 18 N C 22 N D 44 N
25 The diagrams show four table lamps resting on a table. The position of the centre of mass of
each lamp is labelled X.
Which lamp is the most stable?

A B C D
X X
X X

82
5
26 A balloon and a mass are attached to a rod that is pivoted at P.
balloon
45 40 35 30 25 20 15 10 5
P
cm
mass
The balloon is filled with helium, a gas less dense than air, so that it applies an upward force on
the rod.
The rod is horizontal and stationary.
Which action causes the rod to rotate clockwise?
A Move both the balloon and mass 10 cm to the left.

B Move both the balloon and mass 10 cm to the right.
C Move both the balloon and mass to the 25 cm mark.
D Move the balloon to the 20 cm mark and the mass to the 30 cm mark.
27 Two forces P and Q act on a metre rule as shown. The metre rule is pivoted at one end. The rule
starts to rotate in a clockwise direction.
a b metre rule
pivot
A P equals Q
B P is less than Q
C (P × a) is equal to (Q × b)
D (P × a) is greater than (Q × (a + b))

83
0625
Physics

Chapter 5
Work, Energy and Power


84
1 Which form of energy is used to generate electrical energy in a tidal power station?
A chemical energy
B gravitational energy
C internal energy (thermal energy)
D nuclear energy
2 Which line in the table gives an example of the stated form of energy?
form of energy example
A gravitational the energy due to the movement of a train

B internal the energy due to the flow of cathode rays in a cathode ray tube
C kinetic the energy due to the position of a swimmer standing on a
high diving board
D strain the energy due to the compression of springs in a car seat
3 A person uses chemical energy to run up some stairs.
She stops at the top of the stairs.
What has the chemical energy been converted to when she is at the top of the stairs?
A kinetic energy and gravitational energy

B kinetic energy and strain energy
C gravitational energy and heat energy
D strain energy and heat energy

85
4 Electrical energy may be obtained from nuclear fission.
In what order is the energy transferred in this process?
A nuclear fuel → generator → reactor and boiler → turbines
B nuclear fuel → generator → turbines → reactor and boiler
C nuclear fuel → reactor and boiler → generator → turbines
D nuclear fuel → reactor and boiler → turbines → generator
5 A stone is thrown from the edge of a cliff. Its path is shown in the diagram.
3
ground
In which position does the stone have its greatest kinetic energy and in which position does it
have its least gravitational energy?
greatest kinetic least gravitational

energy energy
A 1 2
B 2 3
C 3 1
D 3 3

86
6 A worker is lifting boxes of identical weight from the ground onto a moving belt.
At first, it takes him 2 s to lift each box. Later in the day, it takes him 3 s.
A Later in the day, less work is done in lifting each box.

B Later in the day, more work is done in lifting each box.
C Later in the day, less power is developed in lifting each box.
D Later in the day, more power is developed in lifting each box.
7 Electricity can be obtained from different energy resources.
Which energy resource is used to obtain electricity without producing heat to boil water?
A coal
B geothermal
C hydroelectric
D nuclear
8 Four people of equal weight on a beach use different routes to get to the top of a sea wall.
pavement
slipway
sea wall
beach
Which person produces the greatest average power?
person route time taken
A runs across the beach, then climbs the ladder 8s

B walks across the beach, then climbs the ladder 16 s
C runs up the slipway 5s
D walks up the slipway 10 s

87
9 The diagram shows water stored behind a dam.
dam
water
turbine
generator
water
The water flows to a turbine and turns a generator.
Which sequence for the conversion of energy is correct?
A gravitational energy → kinetic energy → electrical energy
B kinetic energy → gravitational energy → electrical energy
C gravitational energy → electrical energy → kinetic energy
D kinetic energy → electrical energy → gravitational energy
10 A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 2 m on to a table.
Whilst in contact with the table, some of its energy is converted into internal energy.
What is the highest possible point the ball could reach after bouncing?
4m A
height
B
ball released
from this height
C
2m
D
0
table

88
11 The diagram shows a microphone being used in an interview.
microphone
Which energy change takes place in the microphone?
input energy output energy
A chemical electrical
B electrical chemical
C electrical sound
D sound electrical
12 Energy is stored in a battery and in a box of matches.
Which type of energy is stored in each of them?
a battery a box of matches
A chemical chemical
B chemical internal (thermal)
C electrical chemical
D electrical internal (thermal)
13 A man lifts 20 bricks, each of weight 6 N.
What other information is needed to calculate the useful work done in lifting the bricks?
A the distance he lifts the bricks

B the mass of the bricks
C the time taken to lift the bricks
D the volume of the bricks

89
14 Which of these is designed to change electrical energy into kinetic energy?
A a capacitor
B a generator
C a motor
D a transformer
15 A car is driven on a long journey along a flat, horizontal road. The car stops several times on the
journey and its engine becomes hot.
Which type of energy does not change during the journey?
A the chemical energy in the fuel tank

B the gravitational energy of the car
C the internal (thermal) energy of the engine
D the kinetic energy of the car
16 Which row gives an example of the stated form of energy?
form of energy example
A gravitational the energy due to the movement of a train along a level track
B internal the energy due to the flow of cathode rays in a cathode-ray tube
C kinetic the energy due to the position of a swimmer standing on a
high diving board
D strain the energy due to the compression of springs in a car seat
17 Which energy resource is used to generate electricity by first boiling water?
A hydroelectric
B nuclear fission
C tides
D waves

90
18 Two farmers use an electrically powered elevator to lift bales of hay. All the bales of hay have the
same mass.
bale of hay
As sunset approaches, they increase the speed of the motor so that more bales are lifted up in a
given time.
How does this affect the work done in lifting each bale and the useful output power of the motor?
work done in useful output power

lifting each bale of the motor
A increases decreases
B increases increases
C no change decreases
D no change increases
19 A force F moves a load from the bottom of a slope to the top.
F p
d
loa
The work done by the force depends on the size of the force, and on a distance.
What is this distance?
A p B q C r D p+q

91
20 In which pair of energy sources are both sources renewable?
A oil and coal

B oil and tidal
C tidal and geothermal
D tidal and nuclear fission
21 An object on a thread is swinging between X and Z, as shown in the diagram. It is momentarily at

rest at X and at Z.
thread
X Z
Y
An incomplete word equation about the energy of the object is shown below.
gravitational potential energy = kinetic energy + ……… energy + energy losses

at X at Y at Y
Which form of energy is needed to complete the word equation?
A chemical
B gravitational potential
C internal
D strain
22 Some energy sources are reliably available at all times, and some are not.
Which row shows three sources all in their correct columns?
available at all times not available at all times
A geothermal nuclear fission, solar

B geothermal, nuclear fission solar
C solar, nuclear fission geothermal
D solar nuclear fission, geothermal

92
23 A power station uses nuclear fission to obtain energy.
In this process, nuclear energy is first changed into
A chemical energy.
B electrical energy.
C gravitational energy.
D thermal (heat) energy.
24 A person lifts boxes of equal weight on to a platform.
boxes
platform
Which quantity will not affect the work done by the person?
A the height of the platform above the ground

B the number of boxes lifted
C the time taken to lift the boxes
D the weight of the boxes
25 A skier walks from the bottom of a ski slope to the top and gains 10 000 J of gravitational potential
energy.
She skis down the slope. At the bottom of the slope, her kinetic energy is 2000 J.
How much energy was converted into thermal energy and sound energy as the skier moved
down the slope?
A 2000 J B 8000 J C 10 000 J D 12 000 J

93
26 The diagram shows a hydroelectric system.
reservoir
pipe
water
power
station
What are the main energy changes taking place?
A chemical energy → kinetic energy → electrical energy
B electrical energy → gravitational energy → kinetic energy
C gravitational energy → kinetic energy → electrical energy
D kinetic energy → electrical energy → gravitational energy
27 A woman in a factory has to lift a box on to a shelf.
high shelf
box
low shelf
Which action involves the woman in doing the least amount of work?
A lifting the box quickly to the high shelf

B lifting the box slowly to the high shelf
C lifting the box to the low shelf first then lifting it to the high shelf
D lifting the box to the low shelf instead of to the high shelf

94
28 An escalator (moving stairs) and a lift (elevator) are both used to carry passengers from the same
underground railway platform up to street level.
escalator lift
The escalator takes 20 seconds to carry a man to street level. The useful work done is W. The
useful power developed is P. The lift takes 30 seconds to carry the same man to street level.
How much useful work is done by the lift, and how much useful power is developed by the lift?
useful work useful power

done by lift developed by lift
A more than W less than P

B more than W P
C W less than P
D W P
29 Four cars are driven along a road.
The table shows the work done by the engine in each car and the time taken by each car.
Which engine produces the most power?
work done by
time taken / s
engine / J
A 50 000 20
B 50 000 40
C 100 000 20
D 100 000 40

95
30 Which energy transfer takes place when a matchstick burns?
A chemical to thermal
B chemical to nuclear
C nuclear to chemical
D thermal to chemical
31 The list contains three energy resources P, Q and R.
P geothermal energy from hot rocks

Q nuclear fission in reactors
R sunlight on solar panels
Which of these resources are renewable?

A P and Q only
B P and R only
C Q and R only
D P, Q and R
32 Which movement will require the greatest amount of work to be done?

A a force of 10 N moving an object a distance of 3.0 m
B a force of 10 N moving an object a distance of 5.0 m
C a force of 15 N moving an object a distance of 3.0 m
D a force of 15 N moving an object a distance of 5.0 m
33 Which energy resource is used to generate electricity without using any moving parts?
A geothermal
B hydroelectric
C nuclear
D solar

96
34 A ball is dropped on to a hard surface and bounces. It does not bounce all the way back to where
it started, and so has not regained all of its original gravitational potential energy.
ball dropped
from here
ball bounces
to here
hard surface
Which statement accounts for the loss of gravitational potential energy?
A Energy was destroyed as the ball hit the ground.

B Energy was destroyed as the ball travelled through the air.
C The chemical energy and elastic energy of the ball have increased.
D The internal (heat) energy of the ball and its surroundings has increased.
35 Which energy resource is used to boil water to generate electricity?
A hydroelectric
B nuclear fission
C tides
D waves
36 Two farmers use an electrically powered elevator to lift bales of hay. All the bales of hay have the
same mass.
bale of hay
elevator
As sunset approaches, they increase the speed of the elevator so that more bales are lifted up in
a given time.
How does this affect the work done in lifting each bale and the useful output power of the
elevator?
work done in useful output power

lifting each bale of the elevator
A increases decreases
B increases increases
C no change decreases
D no change increases

97
37 A cyclist travels down a hill from rest at point X, without pedalling.
The cyclist applies his brakes and the cycle stops at point Y.
hill
Y
Which energy changes have taken place between X and Y?
A gravitational potential → kinetic → thermal (heat)
B gravitational potential → thermal (heat) → kinetic
C kinetic → gravitational potential → thermal (heat)
D kinetic → thermal (heat) → gravitational potential
38 What needs to be known to calculate the work done by a force acting on an object?
the distance
the time for
the size of the force
which the force
the force moves the
acts
object
A ✓ ✓ ✓ key
B ✓ ✓ ✗ ✓= needed
C ✓ ✗ ✓ ✗= not needed
D ✓ ✗ ✗
39 Electrical energy may be obtained from nuclear fission.
In which order is the energy transferred in this process?
A nuclear fuel → generator → reactor and boiler → turbines
B nuclear fuel → generator → turbines → reactor and boiler
C nuclear fuel → reactor and boiler → generator → turbines
D nuclear fuel → reactor and boiler → turbines → generator

98
40 Energy is released in some nuclear reactions.
Which nuclear reaction takes place in a nuclear power station, and which nuclear reaction takes
place in the Sun?
nuclear power
the Sun
station
A fission fission
B fission fusion
C fusion fission
D fusion fusion
41 A lorry of mass 4000 kg is travelling at a speed of 4.0 m / s.
A car has a mass of 1000 kg. The kinetic energy of the car is equal to the kinetic energy of the
lorry.
What is the speed of the car?
A 2.0 m / s B 4.0 m / s C 8.0 m / s D 16.0 m / s
42 A force acts on an object and causes the object to move a certain distance, in the same direction
as the force.
Which row represents a situation in which the largest amount of work is done on the object by the
force?
force / N distance moved / m
A 2.0 40.0
B 10.0 2.0
C 20.0 6.0
D 100.0 1.0
43 Which device is designed to convert chemical energy into kinetic energy?
A an a.c. generator
B a battery-powered torch
C a car engine
D a wind-up mechanical clock

99
5
44 Two cars, P and Q, have different masses and different speeds as shown.
mass mass
1000 kg 500 kg
speed speed
10 m / s 20 m / s
car P car Q
Which row correctly compares the momentum and the kinetic energy of P with the momentum
and the kinetic energy of Q?
momentum kinetic energy
A P greater than Q P equal to Q

B P equal to Q P equal to Q
C P equal to Q P less than Q
D P less than Q P greater than Q
45 A car of mass 800 kg travels over a hill of height h.
hill
h NOT TO
SCALE
By travelling to the top of the hill, the car gains 40 000 J of gravitational potential energy.
The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.
What is the height h of the hill?
A 5.0 m B 20 m C 50 m D 500 m
46 A lamp has a power input of 5.0 W. It wastes 1.0 W of power heating the surroundings.
What is the efficiency of the lamp?
A 20% B 50% C 80% D 120%
47 The box contains the names of eight different energy resources.
natural gas geothermal solar waves

hydroelectric oil wind coal
How many of these energy resources are renewable?
A 3 B 4 C 5 D 6

100
6
48 A box of mass m slides down a slope of length l and vertical height d against a frictional force F.
mass m
stop
As the box slides down the slope, it loses gravitational potential energy and it does work against
the friction.
Which row gives the loss in gravitational potential energy and the work done against friction?
loss in gravitational work done

potential energy against friction
A mgd Fl
B mgd Fd
C mgl Fl
D mgl Fd
49 The diagram represents the energy transfers for a device.
useful
input output energy
energy
wasted
output energy
The device is 50% efficient.
Which equation is correct?
A input energy = useful output energy ÷ 2
B useful output energy = wasted output energy ÷ 2

C wasted output energy = useful output energy
D wasted output energy = useful output energy ÷ 2
© UCLES 2017 0625/21/M/J/17

101
7
50 A student carries out some simple exercises.
In which exercise is the most work done?
A B
lifting
pushing through
through 1 m
1 m against a
frictional force of 4 N
1 kg 1 kg
C D
lifting
pulling through
through 2 m
2 m against a
frictional force of 2 N
2 kg 2 kg
51 A student runs up a flight of stairs.
height
length
Which information is not needed to calculate the rate at which the student is doing work against
gravity?
A the height of the flight of stairs

B the length of the flight of stairs
C the time taken to run up the stairs
D the weight of the student

102
6
52 The diagram shows the path of a stone that is thrown from X and reaches its maximum height
at Y.
Y
path of
stone
The stone gains 10 J of gravitational potential energy as it moves from X to Y.
The stone has 2.0 J of kinetic energy at Y.
Air resistance can be ignored.
How much kinetic energy did the stone have immediately after it was thrown at X?
A 2.0 J B 8.0 J C 10 J D 12 J
53 A motor is used to lift a load of 40 N.
motor
load lifted
through 0.50 m
load
40 N
The power of the motor is 40 W and the system is 20% efficient.
How long does it take the motor to lift the load through 0.50 m?
A 0.50 s B 2.5 s C 5.0 s D 25 s
© UCLES 2017 0625/21/O/N/17

103
6
54 As energy is transferred into different forms, it eventually becomes dissipated.
What does this mean?
A All the energy disappears.

B The energy finally changes into every possible form of energy.
C The energy spreads out among the objects and their surroundings.
D The total amount of energy becomes less.
55 A ball of mass 1.2 kg is dropped from a height of 30 m. As it falls, 25% of its initial gravitational
potential energy is transferred to thermal energy.
What is the kinetic energy of the ball just before it hits the ground?
A 27 J B 90 J C 270 J D 360 J
56 A girl hangs by her hands from a bar in the gymnasium. She pulls herself up until her chin is level
with the bar.
The mass of the girl is 48 kg.
She pulls herself up through a distance of 0.25 m.
She does this in 2.0 s.
What is the useful power she uses to pull herself up?
A 6.0 W B 24 W C 60 W D 240 W
57 An object, initially at rest, is dropped from a height of 12.0 m. The change in gravitational potential
energy when it falls to the ground is 565 J.
The frictional forces are negligible.
What is its speed when it hits the ground?
A 4.71 m / s B 15.5 m / s C 47.1 m / s D 240 m / s
58 A man climbs a ladder.
Which two quantities can be used to calculate the useful power of the man?
A the weight of the man and the time taken only

B the weight of the man and the vertical distance moved only
C the work done by the man and the time taken only
D the work done by the man and the vertical distance moved only

104
59 A machine is very efficient.
A It produces a large amount of power.

B It uses very little energy.
C It wastes very little energy.
D It works very quickly.
60 A crane takes 2.0 minutes to lift a load to the top of a building. The change in gravitational
potential energy of the load is 360 kJ.
What is the useful power output of the crane?
A 3.0 kW B 180 kW C 720 kW D 43 200 kW
61 Brakes are used to slow down a moving car.
Into which form of energy is most of the kinetic energy converted as the car slows down?
A chemical
B elastic
C thermal
D sound
62 A man carries 20 tiles from the ground to the roof of a house. Each tile has a mass of 1.2 kg. The
roof of the house is 15 m above the ground.
How much work does the man do against gravity on the tiles in carrying them to the roof?
A 36 J B 180 J C 360 J D 3600 J
63 A car is moving along a straight horizontal road. The car has 1.6 MJ of kinetic energy. The car
accelerates for 20 s until the kinetic energy of the car increases to 2.5 MJ.
What is the minimum average power developed by the car engine for this acceleration?
A 45 W B 205 W C 45 kW D 205 kW

105
0625
Physics

Chapter 6
Pressure


106
1 A manometer is used to indicate the pressure in a steel vessel, as shown in the diagram.
liquid
manometer
steel vessel
What value does the liquid manometer give for the pressure in the vessel?
A It is zero.
B It is between zero and atmospheric pressure.
C It is equal to atmospheric pressure.
D It is greater than atmospheric pressure.
2 Four glass tanks contain water.
In which tank is the pressure of the water on the base greatest?
A B C D
4m 3m
2m 6m
3m 4m 1m 4m
2m 2m 2m 6m
3 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer used to measure atmospheric pressure.
mercury
Q

A The pressure at P is atmospheric pressure.
B The pressure at P is nearly zero.
C The pressure at Q is lower than the pressure at P.
D The pressure at Q is nearly zero.

107
4 The diagrams show two mercury barometers standing side by side. The right-hand diagram
shows a tube of bigger diameter, but the diagram is incomplete. There is a vacuum above the
mercury in both tubes.
Which labelled position on the right-hand tube could show the mercury level in that tube?
vacuum A
B
C
glass
tubes
D
dish
mercury dish
5 To prevent a cement mixer sinking into soft ground, the mixer is placed on a large flat board.
cement mixer
board
soft ground
Why does this prevent the mixer sinking?
A The large area decreases the pressure on the ground.

B The large area increases the pressure on the ground.
C The large area decreases the weight on the ground.
D The large area increases the weight on the ground.

108
6 The pressure of a gas is measured using a manometer as shown in the diagram.

pressure to
be measured
h
mercury
The mercury in the manometer is replaced with a liquid which is less dense.
How does the value of h change?
A It becomes zero.
B It decreases, but not to zero.
C It stays the same.
D It increases.
7 A brick with flat, rectangular sides rests on a table.

brick
table
The brick is now turned so that it rests on the table on its smallest face.
How has this affected the force and the pressure exerted by the brick on the table?
force pressure
A increased increased
B increased unchanged
C unchanged increased

109
109
8 A water manometer is used to measure the pressure of a gas supply.
gas
supply
initial level 10 cm
of water 10 cm
water
When it is attached to the gas supply, the water falls on the left side and rises on the right side.
The difference in the levels of water on the two sides is now 20 cm.
What is the pressure of the gas supply?
A the pressure due to 10 cm depth of water

B the pressure due to 20 cm depth of water
C the pressure due to 10 cm depth of water plus atmospheric pressure
D the pressure due to 20 cm depth of water plus atmospheric pressure
9 Which statement is explained by reference to pressure?
A Objects with greater mass have greater weight.

B One kilogram of water occupies more volume than one kilogram of lead.
C Spikes on running-shoes sink into the ground.
D Water cooled to a low enough temperature turns to ice.
10 A heavy table has six legs. The area of cross-section of each leg is X.
The legs of the table make marks in a carpet. These marks become deeper with increased
pressure.
What would reduce the depth of the marks for a table of a fixed weight?
A using three legs, each of an area smaller than X

B using four legs, each of an area the same as X
C using six legs, each of an area smaller than X
D using eight legs, each of an area the same as X

110
11 The diagram shows a mercury barometer.
25 cm
mercury
75 cm
5 cm
Which distance is used to calculate the pressure of the atmosphere?
A 25 cm B 75 cm C 80 cm D 100 cm
12 A man stands on the ground.
Which action will increase the pressure that the man exerts on the ground?
A The man slowly bends his knees.

B The man slowly lies down on the ground.
C The man slowly raises his arms.
D The man slowly raises one foot off the ground.
13 A drawing pin (thumb tack) has a sharp point and a flat end.
sharp point flat end
The pin is pushed into a wooden board.
How do the pressure and the force at the sharp point compare with the pressure and the force at
the flat end?
force at the sharp point pressure at the sharp point
A greater than at the flat end greater than at the flat end
B greater than at the flat end less than at the flat end
C the same as at the flat end greater than at the flat end
D the same as at the flat end less than at the flat end

111
14 The diagram shows three different containers J, K and L. Each container contains water of the
same depth.
J K L
Which statement about the pressure of the water on the base of each container is correct?
A The water pressure is greatest in container J.
B The water pressure is greatest in container K.
C The water pressure is greatest in container L.
D The water pressure is the same for all three containers.
15 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer alongside a mercury manometer. The
manometer contains some trapped gas.
cm
90
vacuum
80
70
trapped
gas
60
50
76 cm 40
mercury
30
20
10
What is the pressure of the trapped gas?
A 10 cm of mercury
B 50 cm of mercury
C 66 cm of mercury
D 86 cm of mercury

112
16 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer alongside a mercury manometer. The
manometer contains some trapped gas.
cm
90
vacuum
80
70
trapped
gas
60
50
76 cm 40
mercury
30
20
10
What is the pressure of the trapped gas?
A 10 cm of mercury
B 50 cm of mercury
C 66 cm of mercury
D 86 cm of mercury
17 A pressure is measured using a manometer as shown in the diagram.

pressure to
be measured
water
The water in the manometer is replaced with a liquid which is more dense.
How does the value of h change?
A It becomes zero.
B It decreases, but not to zero.
C It stays the same.
D It increases.

113
18 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer, used to measure atmospheric pressure.
P
L
Atmospheric pressure increases.
What happens to the level L and to the pressure at P?

mercury
level L pressure at P
A falls increases
B falls stays the same
C rises increases
D rises stays the same
19 A brick with rectangular sides rests on a table.

brick
table
The brick is now turned so that it rests on the table on its smallest face.
How has this change affected the force and the pressure exerted by the brick on the table?
force pressure
A unchanged unchanged
B increased unchanged
C unchanged increased
D increased increased

114
20 A student fills two containers with water (density 1.0 g / cm3) and two with oil (density 0.8 g / cm3),
as shown in the diagrams.
In which container is the pressure on the base the greatest?
A B C D
water oil
water oil
21 A water manometer is used to measure the pressure of a gas supply to a house. It gives a
reading of h cm of water.
gas
supply
h cm
Why is it better to use water rather than mercury in this manometer?
A h would be too large if mercury were used.

B h would be too small if mercury were used.
C The tube would need to be narrower if mercury were used.
D The tube would need to be wider if mercury were used.
22 The diagrams show two swimming pools. One contains fresh water and the other contains salt
water. Salt water is more dense than fresh water.
At which labelled point is the pressure the greatest?
water surface water surface
A C
B D
fresh water (less dense) salt water (more dense)

115
23 What is a simple mercury barometer designed to measure?
A the pressure beneath a liquid

B the pressure of a gas supply
C the pressure of car tyres
D the pressure of the atmosphere
24 Liquid X has a density of 1010 kg / m3. Liquid Y has a density of 950 kg / m3.
The liquids are poured into tubes as shown.
Which tube has the greatest pressure on its base?

A B C D
liquid X liquid Y liquid X liquid Y
25 The diagram shows two mercury barometers.
Barometer 1 is measuring atmospheric pressure on day 1.
Barometer 2 is measuring atmospheric pressure on day 2.
mercury
point X point Y
barometer 1, day 1 barometer 2, day 2

Which statement is true?
A The atmospheric pressure on day 1 is less than the atmospheric pressure on day 2.
B The atmospheric pressure on day 1 is the same as the atmospheric pressure on day 2.
C The pressure at point X is less than the pressure at point Y.
D The pressure at point X is the same as the pressure at point Y.

116
26 A chair is placed on protective cups to prevent damage to the carpet underneath it.
chair
carpet
protective cups
How do the cups change the area of contact with the carpet and the pressure on it?
area of contact pressure
A decreased decreased
B decreased increased
C increased decreased
D increased increased
27 The diagram shows a mercury manometer used to measure the pressure of gas in a container.
Atmospheric pressure is 76 cm of mercury.
gas
mercury
20 cm
12 cm
What is the pressure of the gas?
A 56 cm of mercury
B 68 cm of mercury
C 84 cm of mercury
D 96 cm of mercury

117
28 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.
cm vacuum
90
80
metre rule 70
60
50
40
30
20
10
mercury
Which length is used to find the value of atmospheric pressure?
A 12 cm B 74 cm C 86 cm D 100 cm
29 The diagrams show four divers at the bottom of four different swimming pools.
Two swimming pools contain fresh water and two contain salt water. Fresh water is less dense
than salt water.
Which diver feels the least pressure from the water?
A B C D
fresh fresh salt salt

water water water water

118
30 Which situation is an example of a force acting over a large area to produce a small pressure?
A a builder hammering a nail into a piece of wood

B a cook using a sharp knife to cut vegetables
C a nurse pushing a needle into a patient’s arm
D a soldier marching in flat-soled boots
31 A student places four identical beakers on a bench.
Two beakers contain salt water of density 1.1 g / cm3 and two beakers contain pure water of
density 1.0 g / cm3.
Which beaker exerts the greatest pressure on the bench?
A B C D
150 cm3 100 cm3 150 cm3 100 cm3

of salt of salt of pure of pure
32 A water manometer is connected to a gas supply.
gas Q
supply
water
There is a gas leak and the pressure of the gas supply falls.
What happens to the water level at P and what happens to the water level at Q?
water level at P water level at Q
A falls falls
B falls rises
C rises falls
D rises rises

119
Which height is used as a measurement of atmospheric pressure?
D
mercury
C
B
34 A block with flat, rectangular sides rests on a table.
block
table
The block is now turned so that it rests with its largest side on the table.
How has this change affected the force and the pressure exerted by the block on the table?
force pressure
A decreased decreased
B decreased unchanged
C unchanged decreased

120
35 The diagram shows a manometer containing a liquid. The manometer is used to find the
difference between the pressure of a gas and atmospheric pressure.
Which distance represents this pressure difference?
gas
pressure
A
C
D
liquid
36 Four physics teachers investigate pressure. They wear identical clothes and lie on different beds
of nails.
The table gives the weight of each teacher and the total area of contact between the teacher and
the nails.
Which teacher experiences the least pressure from the nails?
weight of total area of

teacher / N contact / cm2
A 700 13
B 800 20
C 900 14
D 1000 21

121
6
37 The diagram shows a dam holding back water.
65 m water
dam
The depth of the water is 65 m.
The density of the water is 1000 kg / m3. The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.
What is the pressure exerted at the base of the dam due to the water?
A 15.4 Pa B 154 Pa C 65 000 Pa D 650 000 Pa
38 Four different liquids are poured into four containers.
The diagrams show the depth and the density of liquid in each container.
In which container is the pressure on its base the greatest?
A B C D
40 cm
30 cm
20 cm
10 cm
liquid density liquid density liquid density liquid density

= 3.1 g / cm3 = 1.2 g / cm3 = 1.3 g / cm3 = 0.8 g / cm3

122
cm vacuum
90
80
metre rule 70
60
50
40
30
20
10
mercury
Which length is used to find the value of atmospheric pressure?
A 12 cm B 74 cm C 86 cm D 100 cm
40 Four identical beakers are filled with equal volumes of liquids P or Q, as shown. Liquid P is more
dense than liquid Q.
At which point is the pressure the least?
liquid P B liquid Q D
A C
41 An oil tank has a base of area 2.5 m2 and is filled with oil to a depth of 1.2 m.
The density of the oil is 800 kg / m3.
What is the force exerted on the base of the tank due to the oil?
A 960 N B 2400 N C 9600 N D 24 000 N

123
5
42 A manometer is used to measure the pressure of a gas supply.
manometer
connection
to gas supply
h
liquid
Which change gives a greater value of height h ?
A using a less dense liquid

B using a more dense liquid
C using a narrower tube
D using a wider tube
43 A washbasin has an exit pipe covered with a plug of area 12 cm2. A chain is attached to the
centre of the plug to assist in pulling the plug away from the exit hole. The washbasin contains
water to a depth of 0.080 m.
The density of the water is 1000 kg / m3.
chain
plug
What is the force acting on the plug due to the water?
A 0.96 N B 800 N C 9600 N D 80 000 N

124
6
44 The diagram shows a stone suspended on a string under the surface of a liquid. The stone
experiences a pressure caused by the liquid.
string
stone
liquid
What would increase the pressure on the stone?
A decreasing the surface area of the stone

B increasing the mass of the stone
C lowering the stone deeper into the liquid
D using a liquid with a lower density
45 A drawing pin (thumb tack) has a sharp point at one end and a flat surface at the other end.
sharp point flat surface
The pin is pushed into a wooden board.
How do the pressure and the force at the sharp point compare with the pressure and the force on
the flat surface?
force at the sharp point pressure at the sharp point
A greater than on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
B greater than on the flat surface less than on the flat surface
C the same as on the flat surface greater than on the flat surface
D the same as on the flat surface less than on the flat surface
46 An object is 20 cm below the surface of a liquid. The density of the liquid is 1200 kg / m3.
What is the pressure on the object due to the liquid?
A 600 Pa B 2400 Pa C 60 000 Pa D 240 000 Pa

125
Physics
0625
Unit 2
Thermal Physics
Chapter 7 Chapter 9
Chapter 8 Chapter 10

126
0625
Physics

Chapter 7
Simple Kinetic Molecular
Model of Matter


127
1 A cylinder is filled with a gas and then sealed, so that the gas has a fixed volume.
The gas molecules are given energy so that their average speed increases.
What happens to the pressure and to the temperature of the gas in the cylinder?
pressure temperature
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases
2 Diagram 1 shows apparatus being used to observe smoke particles.
Diagram 2 shows how a smoke particle moves randomly.
diagram 1 diagram 2
random
movement
microscope
air molecules
light and
smoke particles
Why do the smoke particles move randomly?
A They are hit by air molecules.

B They are less dense than air.
C They are moved by convection currents.
D They gain energy from the light.

128
3 Which line in the table describes the properties of solids and of liquids at a fixed temperature?
solids liquids
A definite volume and definite shape no definite volume but definite shape
B no definite volume but definite shape definite volume and definite shape
C definite volume and definite shape definite volume but no definite shape
D no definite volume but definite shape no definite volume and no definite shape
4 Air is pumped slowly into a car tyre to increase the pressure. The temperature of the air does not
change.
Which line in the table is correct?
number of molecules
average speed at which
hitting 1 cm2 of the
molecules hit the tyre
tyre each second
A increases increases
B increases unchanged
C unchanged increases
5 The gas in a container is heated but is kept at constant volume.
Why does the gas pressure increase?
A The molecules expand.

B The molecules increase in mass.
C The molecules move further apart.
D The molecules move more rapidly.
6 Viewed through a microscope, very small particles can be seen moving with Brownian motion.
Which line in the table is correct?
type of motion particles are

of particles suspended in
A vibration a liquid or a gas

B vibration a solid, a liquid or a gas
C random a liquid or a gas
D random a solid, a liquid or a gas

129
7 The pressure of a fixed mass of gas in a cylinder is measured. The volume of the gas in the
cylinder is then slowly decreased.
Which graph could show the change of pressure of the gas during this process?
A B
pressure pressure
0 0
0 time 0 time
C D
pressure pressure
0 0
0 time 0 time
8 A small amount of air is introduced into the vacuum above the mercury in a mercury barometer
tube.
The mercury level goes down.
Why does the mercury level go down?
A The air molecules cool the mercury and make it contract.

B The air molecules decrease the pressure above the mercury.
C The air molecules heat the mercury and make it expand.
D The air molecules increase the pressure above the mercury.

130
9 In an experiment, some of a substance changes from a liquid to a gas. The temperature of the
remaining liquid changes because of this.
What is the name for this change of state and how does the temperature change?
change of state how temperature changes
A condensation decreases
B condensation increases
C evaporation decreases
D evaporation increases
10 A piston traps a certain mass of gas inside a cylinder. Initially the piston is halfway along the
length of the cylinder.
The piston is now moved towards the open end of the cylinder. The temperature of the gas
remains constant.
initial position
final position
How are the density and the pressure of the gas affected by moving the piston?
density pressure
D increases unchanged
11 Brownian motion is observed by looking at smoke particles through a microscope.
How do the smoke particles move in Brownian motion?
A all in the same direction

B at random
C in circles
D vibrating about fixed points

131
12 The diagram represents the molecules of a gas in a closed container of constant volume.
What happens to the molecules when the gas is heated?
A They expand.
B They hit the walls less often.
C They move further apart.
D They move more quickly.
13 A liquid is left in an open dish. After several days there is less liquid in the dish.
Which statement explains this?
A The least energetic molecules leave the surface and escape into the air.
B The least energetic molecules leave the surface and return.
C The most energetic molecules leave the surface and escape into the air.
D The most energetic molecules leave the surface and return.
14 Some gas in a sealed plastic bag is cooled.
How do the gas molecules behave when this happens?
A They move more quickly and become closer together.

B They move more quickly and become further apart.
C They move more slowly and become closer together.
D They move more slowly and become further apart.

132
15 A piece of newspaper is soaked in water. The water then evaporates from the
newspaper.
Which molecules escape from the water and what happens to the average speed of the water
molecules that remain in the newspaper?
escape
escaping
molecules
average speed of the
remaining water molecules
A the more energetic ones decreases

B the more energetic ones increases
C the less energetic ones decreases
D the less energetic ones increases
16 A sealed gas cylinder is left outside on a hot, sunny day.
What happens to the average speed of the molecules and to the pressure of the gas in the
cylinder as the temperature rises?
average speed of
gas pressure
the gas molecules
A falls falls
B falls rises
C rises falls
D rises rises
17 When a liquid evaporates, some molecules escape from it and its temperature changes.
From where do the molecules escape and what is the effect on the temperature of the liquid?
molecules escape from temperature of liquid
A all parts of the liquid decreases

B all parts of the liquid increases
C only the liquid surface decreases
D only the liquid surface increases
18 Evaporation occurs when molecules escape from a liquid surface into the air above it. During this
process the temperature of the liquid falls.
Why does the temperature of the liquid fall?
A The molecules in the vapour expand because the pressure is less.

B The molecules left in the liquid have more space to move around.
C The molecules move more slowly when they escape into the air.
D The molecules with the highest energies escape into the air.

133
19 Brownian motion is observed when looking at smoke particles in air using a microscope.
What causes the smoke particles to move at random?
A Smoke particles are hit by air molecules.

B Smoke particles are moved by convection currents in the air.
C Smoke particles have different weights and fall at different speeds.
D Smoke particles hit the walls of the container.
20 The molecules of a substance become more closely packed and move more quickly.
What is happening to the substance?
A A gas is being heated and compressed.

B A gas is being heated and is expanding.
C A liquid is boiling.
D A liquid is evaporating at room temperature.
21 Very small pollen grains are suspended in water. A bright light shines from the side.
Looking through a microscope, small specks of light are seen to be moving in a random, jerky
manner.
eye
microscope
light
pollen grains
in water
What are the moving specks of light?
A pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains

B pollen grains being hit by water molecules
C water molecules being hit by other water molecules
D water molecules being hit by pollen grains

134
22 A swimmer feels cold after leaving warm water on a warm, windy day.
Why does she feel cold even though the air is warm?
A The less energetic water molecules on her skin escape quickly.

B The more energetic water molecules on her skin do not escape quickly.
C The water on her skin does not evaporate quickly enough to keep her warm.
D The water on her skin evaporates quickly and cools her skin.
23 A thermometer bulb is covered by a piece of damp absorbent cloth.
thermometer
damp cloth
air
bulb
Air at room temperature is blown across the damp cloth.
What happens to the thermometer reading?

A It remains constant.
B It rises.
C It rises then falls.
D It falls.
24 The diagram shows a sealed jar containing a gas.
gas
Which statement about the gas in the jar is correct?
A The gas molecules collide with the inside of the jar more often as the temperature increases.
B The gas molecules move more slowly as the temperature increases.
C The pressure of the gas decreases as the temperature increases.
D The pressure of the gas is higher at the top of the jar than at the bottom of the jar.

135
25 A gas storage tank has a fixed volume. The graph shows how the temperature of the gas in the
tank varies with time.
temperature
X Y time
At time Y, the gas molecules are
A closer together than at time X.

B hitting the sides of the tank harder than at time X.
C larger in size than at time X.
D moving more slowly than at time X.
26 A block of ice cream is prevented from melting by wrapping it in newspaper soaked in water. The
water evaporates from the newspaper.
Which molecules escape from the water and what happens to the average speed of the water
molecules that remain in the newspaper?
average speed of the

escaping molecules
remaining water molecules
A the less energetic ones decreases

B the less energetic ones increases
C the more energetic ones decreases
D the more energetic ones increases

136
27 A student places his thumb firmly on the outlet of a bicycle pump, to stop the air coming out.
trapped air
direction of
motion
handle
What happens to the pressure and what happens to the volume of the trapped air as the pump
handle is pushed in?
pressure volume
B decreases remains the same
D increases remains the same
28 The diagram shows a beaker of water. Four molecules are labelled. The relative amount of
energy of each molecule is shown.
Which molecule is most likely to escape from the liquid?
molecule A
(high energy) molecule B
(low energy)
molecule C molecule D
(high energy) (low energy)
29 Two states of matter are described as follows.

In state 1, the molecules are very far apart. They move about very quickly at random in straight
lines until they hit something.
In state 2, the molecules are quite closely packed together. They move about at random. They do
not have fixed positions.
What is state 1 and what is state 2?
state 1 state 2
A gas liquid
B gas solid
C liquid gas
D solid liquid

137
7
30 Some gas is trapped in a container of fixed volume.
The temperature of the gas increases.
Which graph shows how the pressure of the gas changes with temperature?
A B
pressure / Pa pressure / Pa
0 0
0 temperature / °C 0 temperature / °C
C D
pressure / Pa pressure / Pa
0 0
0 temperature / °C 0 temperature / °C
31 The diagram shows four beakers A, B, C and D. The beakers contain different amounts of the
same liquid at the same temperature. The beakers are left next to each other on a laboratory
bench overnight. The diagrams are all drawn to the same scale.
From which beaker does the largest quantity of liquid evaporate?
A B C D

138
32 A cylinder of constant volume contains a fixed mass of gas. The gas is cooled.
What happens to the pressure of the gas and what happens to the kinetic energy of the gas
molecules?
kinetic energy
pressure of gas
of molecules
33 A swimmer feels cold after leaving warm water on a warm, windy day.
Why does she feel cold even though the air is warm?
A The less energetic water molecules on her skin escape quickly.

B The more energetic water molecules on her skin do not escape quickly.
C The water on her skin does not evaporate quickly enough to keep her warm.
D The water on her skin evaporates quickly and cools her skin.
34 A diver under water uses breathing apparatus at a depth where the pressure is 1.25 × 105 Pa.
A bubble of gas breathed out by the diver has a volume of 20 cm3 when it is released. The bubble
moves upwards to the surface of the water.
At the surface of the water, the atmospheric pressure is 1.00 × 105 Pa.
The temperature of the water is the same at all depths.
What is the volume of this bubble when it reaches the surface?
A 15 cm3 B 16 cm3 C 20 cm3 D 25 cm3

139
35 Which statement about evaporation is correct?
A Evaporation causes the temperature of the remaining liquid to decrease.

B Evaporation does not occur from a cold liquid near its freezing point.
C Evaporation does not occur from a dense liquid, such as mercury.
D Evaporation occurs from all parts of a liquid.
36 Air is trapped in a cylinder by a piston. The original volume of the trapped air is V and the original
pressure of the trapped air is P. The piston is pushed to the left. The temperature of the gas does
not change.
before piston is pushed in after piston is pushed in
piston
cylinder 25 50 25 50
trapped air trapped air
What is the new volume and what is the new pressure of the trapped air?
new volume new pressure

P
A 2V
2
B 2V 2P
V P
C
2 2
V
D 2P
2
37 A gas at a constant temperature is in a container of fixed volume. The gas exerts a pressure on
the walls of the container. The pressure is caused by the gas molecules striking the walls.
Which statement about the gas molecules when they strike the walls is correct?
A The average kinetic energy of the gas molecules changes.

B The average momentum of the gas molecules changes.
C The average speed of the gas molecules changes.
D The chemical energy of the gas molecules changes.

140
7
38 When a liquid evaporates, some of its molecules escape from the surface and the temperature of
the liquid changes.
Which row describes the escaping molecules and the change in temperature of the liquid?
temperature of
escaping molecules
the liquid
A less energetic goes down

B less energetic goes up
C more energetic goes down
D more energetic goes up
39 Brownian motion is observed when using a microscope to look at smoke particles in air.
What causes the smoke particles to move at random?
A Smoke particles are hit by air molecules.

B Smoke particles are moved by convection currents in the air.
C Smoke particles have different weights and fall at different speeds.
D Smoke particles hit the walls of the container.
40 Gas molecules striking a container wall cause a pressure to be exerted on the wall.
Which statement explains this?
A When a molecule rebounds there must be a change in its energy.

B When a molecule rebounds there must be a change in its momentum.
C When a molecule rebounds there must be a change in its speed.
D When a molecule rebounds there must be a change in its temperature.
41 A pollen grain in a beaker of still water is viewed through a microscope.
Which diagram shows the most likely movement of the pollen grain?
A B C D

141
9
42 The diagram shows an air-filled rubber toy. A child sits on the toy and its volume decreases.
The temperature of the air in the toy does not change.
How does the air pressure in the toy change and why?
pressure reason
A decreases air molecules move more slowly

B decreases air molecules strike the rubber less frequently
C increases air molecules move more quickly
D increases air molecules strike the rubber more frequently
43 When molecules of a gas rebound from a wall of a container, the wall experiences a pressure.
What is the cause of this pressure?
A the change in energy of the molecules

B the change in momentum of the molecules
C the change in power of the molecules
D the change in speed of the molecules
44 A stationary smoke particle is hit by a fast-moving nitrogen molecule.
Which row describes the motion of the smoke particle and of the nitrogen molecule after the
collision?
smoke particle nitrogen molecule
A moves rebounds
B moves stops
C remains stationary rebounds
D remains stationary stops

142
6
45 Diagram 1 shows apparatus being used to observe smoke particles.
Diagram 2 shows how a smoke particle moves randomly.
diagram 1 diagram 2
eye
random
movement
microscope
air molecules
light and
smoke particles
Why do the smoke particles move randomly?
A They are hit by air molecules.

B They are less dense than air.
C They are moved by convection currents.
D They gain energy from the light.
46 The gas in a sealed container is compressed at constant temperature.
Which graph shows how the pressure of the gas changes with its volume?
A B
pressure pressure
0 0
0 volume 0 volume
C D
pressure pressure
0 0
0 volume 0 volume
© UCLES 2018 0625/21/O/N/18

143
47 Which statement about the evaporation of a liquid is correct?
A The least energetic molecules escape from the surface and the temperature of the liquid
decreases.
B The least energetic molecules escape from the surface and the temperature of the liquid
increases.
C The most energetic molecules escape from the surface and the temperature of the liquid
decreases.
D The most energetic molecules escape from the surface and the temperature of the liquid
increases.
48 A bubble of gas is formed deep under water. The bubble has a volume of 40 cm3 and the
pressure inside the bubble is P.
The bubble rises up through the water. The volume of the bubble increases to 56 cm3 and the
pressure becomes 100 kPa. The temperature of the gas does not change.
What is the initial pressure P ?
A 71 Pa B 71 kPa C 140 Pa D 140 kPa

144
0625
Physics

Chapter 8
Thermal Expansion and
Thermometers


145
1 A wooden wheel can be strengthened by putting a tight circle of iron around it.
wooden wheel
iron circle
Which action would make it easier to fit the circle over the wood?
A cooling the iron circle

B heating the iron circle
C heating the wooden wheel
D heating the wooden wheel and cooling the iron circle
2 The thermometer in the diagram has no scale.
bulb
Where must the bulb be placed so that 0 °C can be marked on the stem?
A in boiling water
B in cold water
C in a freezer
D in melting ice
3 To mark the lower fixed point of a Celsius scale on a thermometer, the thermometer should be
placed in
A pure alcohol.
B pure distilled water.
C pure melting ice.
D pure mercury.
Ahmed Osama C. Page | 91

146
4 An engineer wants to fix a steel washer on to a steel rod. The rod is just too big to fit into the hole
of the washer.
steel steel rod

washer
How can the engineer fit the washer on to the rod?
A Cool the washer and put it over the rod.

B Cool the washer and rod to the same temperature and push them together.
C Heat the rod and then place it in the hole.
D Heat the washer and then place it over the rod.
5 To mark a temperature scale on a thermometer, standard temperatures known as fixed points are
needed.
Which of these is a fixed point?
A room temperature
B the temperature inside a freezer
C the temperature of pure melting ice
D the temperature of pure warm water
6 A thermometer has a scale which starts at –10 °C and ends at 110 °C.
–10 0 100 110
°C
What is the value of the lower fixed point and of the upper fixed point of the scale?
lower fixed point upper fixed point

/ °C / °C
A –10 100
B –10 110
C 0 100
D 0 110

147
7 Which physical property is used to measure temperature in a liquid-in-glass thermometer?
A the length of the thermometer
B the thickness of the glass bulb
C the volume of the glass bulb
D the volume of the liquid
8 Which pair contains only physical quantities that vary with temperature and so could be used in
making a thermometer?
A activity of a radioactive source, volume of a gas

B mass of a liquid, volume of a liquid
C activity of a radioactive source, mass of a solid
D volume of a gas, volume of a liquid
9 A mercury thermometer with no scale is taped to a ruler as shown.

When the thermometer is placed in steam, the mercury level rises to 22.0 cm.
When the thermometer is placed in pure melting ice, the mercury level falls to 2.0 cm.
cm
30
28
26
24
22 thermometer
20
18
ruler
16
14
12
10
mercury
8
6
4
2
0
Which temperature is shown by the mercury level in the diagram?
A 6 °C B 8 °C C 30 °C D 40 °C

148
10 A telephone engineer connects a wire between two poles when the weather is very cold.
He makes the wire very loose. The wire passes over a road.
very loose wire
pole pole
The weather changes and it becomes very hot.
What could happen to the wire and why?
what could happen why
A it breaks it contracts
B it breaks it expands
C it sags and touches
cars on the road it contracts
D it sags and touches

cars on the road it expands
11 Which points are the fixed points of the liquid-in-glass thermometer shown?
–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110

°C
A the beginning and end points of the column of liquid

B the beginning and end points of the thermometer scale
C the points marked 0 °C and 100 °C

D the top and bottom points of the thermometer bulb
12 Which line in the table shows the relative expansion of the three states of matter from the most
expansion to the least expansion?
most expansion least expansion
A solids > liquids > gases

B solids > gases > liquids
C gases > liquids > solids
D gases > solids > liquids

149
13 The diagram shows a liquid-in-glass thermometer.
glass bulb stem
–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 °C
liquid liquid
thread
Which two features both affect the sensitivity of the thermometer?
A mass of liquid and diameter of liquid thread

B mass of liquid and length of stem
C thickness of glass bulb and diameter of liquid thread
D thickness of glass bulb and length of stem
14 The thermometer in the diagram has no scale.
stem
bulb
Where must the bulb be placed so that 0 °C can be marked on the stem?
A in a freezer
B in pure boiling water
C in pure cold water
D in pure melting ice
15 A circular metal disc is heated.
Which quantity decreases?
A its density
B its diameter
C its thickness
D its volume

150
16 Which line in the table shows the relative expansion of the three states of matter from the most
expansion to the least expansion?
most expansion least expansion
A solids > liquids > gases

B solids > gases > liquids
C gases > liquids > solids
D gases > solids > liquids
17 A student wishes to check the upper and the lower fixed points on a Celsius scale thermometer.
–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110 °C
She has four beakers P, Q, R and S.
Beaker P contains a mixture of ice and salt.

Beaker Q contains a mixture of ice and water.
Beaker R contains boiling salt solution.
Beaker S contains boiling water.
Which two beakers should she use to check the fixed points?
A P and R B P and S C Q and R D Q and S
glass bulb tube stem
°C
–10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100 110
liquid
liquid thread
Which feature would give a thermometer with an increased range?
A a smaller internal diameter of the tube containing the liquid thread

B a thinner glass bulb
C a larger length of the tube and stem
D a larger volume of the liquid

151
8
19 The diagram shows a glass flask, sealed with a small volume of mercury in a glass tube. When
the flask is gently warmed the mercury rises up the tube.
glass tube
mercury
air
water
What is the main cause of the movement of the mercury?

A expansion of air in the flask
B expansion of the glass flask
C expansion of the glass tube
D expansion of the mercury
20 A strip of iron and a strip of brass are firmly attached to each other along their entire length. This
combination is a bimetallic strip.
iron strip
brass strip
This bimetallic strip is heated and it bends as shown.

iron
fixed support
brass
The bimetallic strip is now cooled and becomes straight again.
What causes the bimetallic strip to become straight again?

A The brass contracts more than the iron.
B The brass expands more than the iron.
C The iron contracts more than the brass.
D The iron expands more than the brass.

152
21 6 A student wishes to calibrate a mercury-in-glass thermometer with a °C scale.
Which values should she use for the lower fixed point and for the upper fixed point?
lower fixed point upper fixed point
A melting point of ice boiling point of mercury

B melting point of ice boiling point of water
C melting point of mercury boiling point of mercury
D melting point of mercury boiling point of water
22 The distance between two electricity pylons is 60 m. An engineer fits a cable of length 62 m
between the pylons.
Why does the engineer choose a cable that is longer than the distance between the two pylons?
A to allow for contraction of the cable in cold weather

B to create a slope in the cable for electrons to flow down
C to keep the current low and the voltage high
D to reduce magnetic fields around the cable
bulb capillary tube
Which change increases the sensitivity of the thermometer?
A a narrower capillary tube

B a wider capillary tube
C thicker glass around the bulb
D thinner glass around the bulb
24 Which change in the design of a liquid-in-glass thermometer makes it more sensitive?
A a larger liquid reservoir

B a longer tube
C a smaller liquid reservoir
D a wider tube

153
0625
Physics

Chapter 9
Heat Transfer


154
1 The graph shows how the temperature of hot liquid wax changes with time as the wax is allowed
to cool.
At which labelled point on the graph are both liquid wax and solid wax present?
temperature
A
B C
0
0 time
2 Bread can be cooked by placing it below, but not touching, a heating element.
heating element
bread
Which process transfers thermal energy from the heating element to the bread?
A conduction
B convection
C insulation
D radiation
3 A rod is made up of copper and wood joined together.
After the rod is heated at the join in the centre for about a minute, where would the lowest
temperature be?
B C
A D
wood copper

155
4 A heater is placed in a room.
Which diagram shows the movement of air as the room is heated?
A B
C D
5 The diagram shows a fire.
Why does the smoke rise above the fire?
A Smoke evaporates more quickly at higher temperatures.

B Smoke molecules diffuse more quickly at higher temperatures.
C The density of the air is lower at higher temperatures.
D The pressure of the air is greater at higher temperatures.

156
6 A cup with a lid contains a hot drink.
lid
hot drink
When the lid is removed, the rate of heat loss from the drink increases.
What causes this?
A convection only
B evaporation only
C both convection and evaporation
D neither convection nor evaporation
7 A cupboard is placed in front of a heater. Air can move through a gap under the cupboard.
wall
cupboard
heater
air moves through gap
floor
Which line in the table describes the temperature and the direction of the air that moves through
the gap?
air temperature air direction
A cool away from the heater

B cool towards the heater
C warm away from the heater
D warm towards the heater

157
8 Hot liquid in a vacuum flask cools extremely slowly. This is because some methods of heat
transfer cannot take place in a vacuum.
Which methods cannot take place in a vacuum?
A conduction and convection only

B conduction and radiation only
C convection and radiation only
D conduction, convection and radiation
9 The diagram shows a cooling unit in a refrigerator.
cooling
unit
Why is the cooling unit placed at the top?
A Cold air falls and warm air is displaced upwards.

B Cold air is a bad conductor so heat is not conducted into the refrigerator.
C Cold air is a good conductor so heat is conducted out of the refrigerator.
D Cold air remains at the top and so prevents convection.
10 Why does convection take place in a liquid when it is heated?
A Liquids expand when they are heated.

B Liquids start to bubble when they get close to boiling point.
C Molecules in the liquid expand when they are heated.
D Molecules near to the surface of the liquid escape into the air.

158
11 A piece of wood has some iron nails pushed through it. One side of the wood is covered with heat
sensitive paper which turns from pink to blue when heated. The wood is heated as shown for a
few minutes and blue dots appear on the heat sensitive paper where it touches the nails.
wood heat sensitive paper
iron blue
heat
nails dots
This experiment shows that, compared to wood, iron is a good
A absorber of heat.
B conductor of heat.
C convector of heat.
D emitter of heat.
12 An electric heater is placed inside a metal box which has one side open. The diagram shows four
possible positions for the box.
The heater is switched on for several minutes.
In which position does the box become the hottest?
A B C D
heater heater
box box

159
13 After a sheep has its wool cut off, it is harder for it to stay warm when the air temperature falls.
How does the wool help the sheep to stay warm?
A Air can circulate between the wool fibres and heat up the skin by convection.
B Air trapped by the wool fibres reduces heat losses from the skin by convection.
C The wool fibres are curly so it takes longer for heat to be conducted away from the skin.
D The wool fibres conduct heat to the skin from the air outside.
14 The diagram shows the cross-section of a vacuum flask containing a hot liquid in a cold room.
X and Y are points on the inside surfaces of the walls of the flask.
cold room
X Y
hot liquid
vacuum
How is thermal energy transferred between X and Y?

A by conduction and convection
B by conduction only
C by radiation and convection
D by radiation only
15 The metal surface of a kettle is hot.
What happens to the cool air outside the kettle when it comes into contact with the hot kettle?
A The density of the air decreases and the air falls.

B The density of the air decreases and the air rises.
C The density of the air increases and the air falls.
D The density of the air increases and the air rises.

160
11
16 The diagram shows some ice being used to lower the temperature of some warm water.
ice
warm water
glass
What is the main process by which the water at the bottom of the glass becomes cool?
A condensation
B conduction
C convection
D radiation
17 The diagram shows a refrigerator. The cooling unit is placed at the top. The cooling unit cools the
air near it.
cooling unit
What happens to the density of this air as it cools and how does it move?
density of the air movement of the air
A decreases moves down

B decreases stays where it is
C increases moves down
D increases stays where it is

161
9
18 Which statement refers to convection?
A It does not involve energy transfer.

B It is the transfer of heat energy without the movement of particles.
C It only occurs in liquids or gases.
D It only occurs in solids.
19 Spoons made of different materials were placed in four cups of coffee poured from the same jug.
Which spoon will be hottest to touch at end X?
experiment A experiment B experiment C experiment D
wooden X steel X white plastic X black plastic X

spoon spoon spoon spoon
20 One type of double glazing consists of two panes of glass separated by a vacuum.
glass glass
vacuum
Which method or methods of energy transfer are prevented by the vacuum?
A conduction and convection

B conduction and radiation
C convection and radiation
D radiation only

162
9
21 The diagrams show four identical pieces of ice that are heated in test-tubes of water.
In which test-tube will the ice take the longest time to melt?
A B
ice
water water
ice wrapped
in lead wire
C D
ice
water
water
ice wrapped
in lead wire
22 A beaker contains water at room temperature.
X water
How could a convection current be set up in the water?
A cool the water at X

B cool the water at Y
C stir the water at X
D stir the water at Y

163
10
23 A teacher demonstrates convection currents using a box with two chimneys and a lighted candle.
She holds a smoking taper at point P.
In which direction does the convection current cause the smoke to move?
P
A C
chimney chimney D
24 An experiment is set up to find out which metal is the best conductor of heat.
Balls are stuck with wax to rods made from different metals, as shown in diagram 1.
The rods are heated at one end. Some of the balls fall off, leaving some as shown in diagram 2.
Which labelled metal is the best conductor of heat?
diagram 1 diagram 2
A B C D
heated end heated end

before heating after heating
25 Food is kept in a cool-box which uses two ice packs to keep it cool.
Where should the ice packs be placed to keep all the food as cool as possible?
A both at the bottom of the box

B both at the top of the box
C one at the front and one at the back of the box
D one on the left and one on the right of the box

164
9
26 A boy sits near a campfire. He pokes the fire with an iron bar. His hand becomes hot.
iron bar
In which ways does thermal energy (heat) from the fire reach his hand?
A conduction and convection only

B conduction and radiation only
C convection and radiation only
D conduction, convection and radiation
27 The diagram shows a refrigerator.
The cooling unit is placed at the top. The cooling unit cools the air near it.
cooling unit
What happens to the density of the air as it cools, and how does it move?
density of the air movement of the air
A decreases moves down

B decreases stays at the top
C increases moves down
D increases stays at the top

165
28 Thermal energy travels through space from the Sun to the Earth. Space is a vacuum.
How is thermal energy transferred from the Sun to the Earth?
A by conduction only
B by convection only
C by radiation only
D by convection and radiation
29 The air in a room is heated by a heater. The diagram shows the circulation of the air in the room.
circulation
of air
room
heater
Which statement about the air that is heated is correct?
A The air contracts and becomes less dense.

B The air contracts and becomes more dense.
C The air expands and becomes less dense.
D The air expands and becomes more dense.
30 Four rods are made from different metals P, Q, R and S. The rods have equal lengths and equal
diameters. The rods are heated at one end, in the same way.
The table shows the time taken for the temperature at the other end of each rod to rise by 1.0 °C.
Which metal is the best conductor of thermal energy (heat)?
metal time taken / s
P 35
Q 30
R 45
S 40
A metal P B metal Q C metal R D metal S

166
9
31 Two otherwise identical cars, one black and one white, are at the same initial temperature. The
cars are left in bright sunshine and their temperatures increase. During the night their
temperatures decrease.
Which car shows the greater rate of temperature increase and which car shows the greater rate
of temperature decrease?
greater rate of greater rate of

temperature temperature
increase decrease
A black black
B black white
C white black
D white white
32 A liquid is heated in a beaker.
liquid
heating
The density of the liquid changes as its temperature increases. This causes energy to be
transferred throughout the liquid.
How does the density change and what is this energy transfer process?
density energy transfer

process
A decreases conduction
B decreases convection
C increases conduction
D increases convection
33 The thermal transfer of energy through a copper rod involves electrons.

A second process is also involved.
What is this method of thermal energy transfer, and what is the second process?
method second process
A conduction density change

B conduction lattice vibration
C convection density change
D convection lattice vibration

167
10
34 A copper bar and a wooden bar are joined. A piece of paper is wrapped tightly around the join.
The bar is heated strongly at the centre for a short time, and the paper goes brown on one side
only.
wood paper copper
heat
Which side goes brown, and what does this show about wood and copper?
brown side wood copper
A copper conductor insulator

B copper insulator conductor
C wood conductor insulator
D wood insulator conductor
35 Which statement about convection currents is correct?
A Convection currents occur because, when cooled, liquids contract and become more dense.
B Convection currents occur because, when warmed, liquids expand and become more dense.
C Convection currents only occur in liquids.
D Convection currents only occur in solids and liquids.
36 On a cold day, a metal front-door knob X and a similar plastic knob Y are at the same
temperature.
Why does X feel cooler to the touch than Y?
A X convects thermal energy better than Y.

B X is a better thermal conductor than Y.
C X is a better insulator than Y.
D X is a better radiator of thermal energy than Y.
© UCLES 2017 0625/21/M/J/17

168
37 On a cold day, a shiny metal rod feels colder to the touch than a black plastic rod.
Which statement explains this observation?
A The metal rod is a better absorber of infra-red radiation than the plastic rod.
B The metal rod is a better thermal conductor than the plastic rod.
C The metal rod is a worse absorber of infra-red radiation than the plastic rod.
D The metal rod is a worse thermal conductor than the plastic rod.
38 In which does thermal conduction not occur?
A a gas
B a liquid
C a solid
D a vacuum
39 The metal surface of a kettle is hot.
What happens to the cool air outside the kettle when it comes into contact with the hot kettle?
A The density of the air decreases and the air falls.

B The density of the air decreases and the air rises.
C The density of the air increases and the air falls.
D The density of the air increases and the air rises.
40 Some hot water is sealed inside a metal can. The can is in a vacuum in outer space. The hot
water slowly cools down.
How does the thermal energy escape into space?
A by conduction then convection

B by conduction then radiation
C by evaporation then convection
D by evaporation then radiation

169
41 One end of a rod of copper is placed in hot water. Thermal energy travels along the rod to make
the other end warmer.
What is the behaviour of the copper at an atomic level that accounts for most of the transfer of
thermal energy from one end to the other?
A Atoms at the hot end gain kinetic energy and move towards the other end.
B Atoms at the hot end expand, colliding with other atoms and transferring energy.
C Free electrons at the hot end gain energy and move towards the other end, colliding with
atoms along the rod.
D Free electrons at the hot end gain energy from the hot water and move directly to the other
end.
42 A surface is made so that it is a good source of infrared radiation.
Which surface is not suitable?
A a surface that is painted matt black

B a surface that is painted white
C a surface that is heated to a high temperature
D a surface that has a large surface area
© UCLES 2019 0972/21/O/N/19

170
0625
Physics

Chapter 10
Heat Energy


171
1 1 kg of water and 1 kg of aluminium are heated to the same temperature and then allowed to cool
in a room.
Why does the aluminium cool more quickly than the water?
A Aluminium contracts more than water.

B Aluminium does not evaporate but water does.
C Aluminium has a higher thermal capacity than water.
D Aluminium has a lower thermal capacity than water.
2 A sample of a solid is heated for 12 minutes and its temperature noted every minute.
The results are shown in the table.
time / min 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
temperature / °C 11.5 16.1 22.1 31.0 31.1 31.1 31.1 31.3 45.0 65.2 66.2 66.3 66.3
How should the sample be described at the end of the 12 minutes?
A all solid
B in the process of melting
C all liquid
D in the process of boiling
3 The table lists the melting points and the boiling points of four different substances A, B, C and D.
Which substance is a gas at 25 °C?
substance melting point / °C boiling point / °C
A –219 –183
B –7 58
C 98 890
D 1083 2582
4 The diagram shows four blocks of steel. The same quantity of heat is given to each block.
Which block shows the greatest rise in temperature?
A B C D

172
5 Equal masses of two different liquids are heated using the same heater. The graph shows how
the temperature of each liquid changes with time.
temperature
liquid 1
liquid 2
0
0 time
What does the graph tell us about the liquids?
A Liquid 1 has a higher melting point than liquid 2.

B Liquid 1 has a higher boiling point than liquid 2.
C Liquid 1 starts to melt sooner than liquid 2.
D Liquid 1 starts to boil sooner than liquid 2.
6 The graph shows the change in temperature of a substance as it is heated steadily.
Which part of the graph shows when the substance is boiling?
D
temperature
C
time
7 Four blocks, made of different materials, are each given the same quantity of internal energy
(heat).
Which block has the greatest thermal capacity?
A B C D
temperature temperature temperature temperature

rise = 2 oC rise = 4 oC rise = 6 oC rise = 8 oC

173
8 The table gives the melting points and boiling points of glycerine and benzene.
melting point boiling point
glycerine 18 °C 290 °C
benzene 5.4 °C 80 °C
At which temperature will both glycerine and benzene be liquid?
A 0 °C B 50 °C C 100 °C D 150 °C
9 A student carries out an experiment to find the melting point of wax. The graph shows how the
temperature of the wax changes as it cools.
X
temperature
/ °C
Y
melting point
of wax Z
0
0
time
A At X the temperature drops more slowly than at Z.

B At Y all the wax is solid.
C At Y thermal energy is being given out by the wax.
D At Z the wax molecules are not moving.
10 An ice cube at a temperature of 0 °C is put into a drink at a temperature of 10 °C.
After a short time, some of the ice has melted and the drink has cooled to a temperature of 8 °C.
What is the temperature of the remaining ice?
A 0 °C B 2 °C C 4 °C D 8 °C

174
11 Which change is condensation?

A B
solid liquid gas
C D
12 AA beaker of ice le- in a room for 15 minutes

beak e
rc o
nt a
iningic and
e at h
ermometerisleftinawarmroomfor15minutes.
No water is visible in the beaker until 5 minutes has passed. After 15 minutes some ice is still
visible.
ice ice
water
start of after after

experiment 5 minutes 15 minutes
Which graph shows how the thermometer reading changes?
A B
/ °C / °C
0 0
0 5 10 15 0 5 10 15
time / min time / min
C D
/ °C / °C
0 0
0 5 10 15 0 5 1 1
time / min 0time / min5

175
13 The diagram shows an electric heater being used to heat a beaker of water and an identical
beaker of oil for several minutes.
water oil
electric heater
The temperature of the water and the temperature of the oil increase constantly. The rise in
temperature of the oil is much greater than that of the water.
Why is this?
A The oil has a higher boiling point than water.

B The oil has a higher thermal capacity than water.
C The oil has a lower boiling point than water.
D The oil has a lower thermal capacity than water.
14 A heater supplies 80 J of energy to a block of metal. The temperature of the block rises by 20 °C.
What happens to the block of metal when its temperature falls by 10 °C?
A Its internal energy decreases by 40 J.

B Its internal energy decreases by 160 J.
C Its internal energy increases by 40 J.
D Its internal energy increases by 160 J.
15 The graph shows the temperature of a substance as it is heated steadily.
In which part of the graph is the substance boiling?
D
temperature
C
time

176
16 The diagrams show four blocks of steel. The blocks are all drawn to the same scale.
The same quantity of thermal energy (heat) is given to each block.
Which block shows the greatest rise in temperature?
A B C D
17 Equal masses of two different liquids are put into identical beakers.
Liquid 1 is heated for 100 s and liquid 2 is heated for 200 s by heaters of the same power.
The temperature of both liquids increases by the same amount.
different liquids
of same mass
liquid 1 liquid 2
heaters of
heating time = 100 s same power heating time = 200 s
A Both liquids receive the same amount of energy.

B Liquid 1 receives more energy than liquid 2.
C Both liquids have equal thermal capacity.
D The thermal capacity of liquid 1 is less than the thermal capacity of liquid 2.

177
10
18 Two identical copper cans are filled with boiling water.
thermometer
hot water
copper can
wool
uninsulated can insulated can
One can is insulated with wool. The temperature of the water in each can is taken every minute
for several minutes. Graphs of the results are plotted.
Which graph shows the results obtained?
A B
insulated
insulated uninsulated
uninsulated
time time
C D
insulated
uninsulated
uninsulated
insulated
time time

178
19 A solid is heated from room temperature.
The graph shows how its temperature changes with time as it is heated constantly.
At which time has it just become completely liquid?
temperature
room temperature
0
0 A B C D
time
20 The same quantity of thermal (heat) energy is given to two objects X and Y. The temperature rise
of object X is less than the temperature rise of object Y.
What accounts for this difference?
A X has a larger thermal capacity than Y.

B X is a better thermal conductor than Y.
C Y has a larger thermal capacity than X.
D Y is a better thermal conductor than X.
21 A beaker contains 0.500 kg of water at a temperature of 3.0 °C. The beaker is heated, and the
internal energy of the water increases by 21.0 kJ.
The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J / (kg °C).
What is the temperature of the water after it has been heated?
A 5.5 °C B 10.0 °C C 13.0 °C D 31.5 °C

179
8
22 A substance loses thermal energy (heat) to the surroundings at a steady rate.
The graph shows how the temperature of the substance changes with time.
temperature
P
0
0 time
What could the portion PQ of the graph represent?
A gas condensing
B gas cooling
C liquid cooling
D liquid solidifying
23 A piece of melting ice at 0 °C and a beaker of boiling water are both in a laboratory. The
laboratory is at 20 °C.
boiling water
melting ice
Bunsen burner
heating water
What is happening to the temperature of the melting ice and what is happening to the
temperature of the boiling water?
temperature of temperature of
melting ice boiling water
A constant constant
B constant increasing
C increasing constant
D increasing increasing

180
24 A copper container of mass 0.20 kg contains 0.10 kg of water.
The specific heat capacity of copper is 385 J / (kg °C) and the specific heat capacity of water
is 4200 J / (kg °C).
How much energy, in joules, is needed to raise the temperature of the copper container and the
water by 10 °C?
A (0.20 × 385 × 10) – (0.10 × 4200 × 10)
B (0.20 × 385 × 10) + (0.10 × 4200 × 10)

4200 + 385
C (0.10 + 0.20) × × 10
2
D (0.10 + 0.20) × (4200 + 385) × 10
25 Equal masses of two different liquids are put into identical beakers.
Liquid 1 is heated for 100 s and liquid 2 is heated for 200 s by heaters of the same power.
Each liquid has the same rise in temperature.
different liquids
of same mass
liquid 1 liquid 2
heating time = 100 s heating time = 200 s
A Each beaker of liquid has the same thermal capacity.

B Each beaker of liquid receives the same energy.
C Liquid 1 receives more energy than liquid 2.
D The thermal capacity of liquid 1 is less than the thermal capacity of liquid 2.

181
26 Water of mass 100 g at a temperature of 100 °C is converted into steam at 100 °C. The specific
latent heat of vaporisation of water is 2300 J / g.
How much thermal energy is absorbed by the water?
A 23 J B 230 J C 230 000 J D 23 000 000 J
27 An aluminium block has a mass of 200 g.
The specific heat capacity of aluminium is 900 J / (kg °C).
How much energy is needed to raise the temperature of the block from 20 °C to 110 °C?
A 2.0 J B 200 J C 16 200 J D 16 200 000 J
28 Which statements about boiling and about evaporation are both correct?
boiling evaporation
A takes place only at the surface takes place only at the surface
B takes place only at the surface takes place throughout the liquid
C takes place throughout the liquid takes place only at the surface
D takes place throughout the liquid takes place throughout the liquid
29 An object of mass 800 g and specific heat capacity 250 J / (kg °C) is heated. It absorbs 5300 J of
energy.
What is the increase in temperature of the object?
A 0.027 °C B 17 °C C 27 °C D 17 000 °C

182
7
30 A night storage heater contains a large block of material that is heated electrically during the
night. During the day the block cools down, releasing thermal energy into the room.
Which thermal capacity and which night-time temperature increase will cause the most energy to
be stored by the block?
thermal capacity night-time

of block temperature increase
A large large
B large small
C small large
D small small
31 100 g of water at 25 °C is poured into an insulating cup. 50 g of ice at 0 °C is added to the water.
The water is stirred until the temperature of the water has fallen to 0 °C.
18 g of ice remains unmelted.
The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J / g °C.
Which value does this experiment give for the specific latent heat of fusion of ice?
A 210 J / g B 330 J / g C 580 J / g D 770 J / g
32 A liquid turns into a gas. This occurs only at one particular temperature, and the change happens
throughout the liquid.
What is this process called?
A boiling
B condensation
C evaporation
D fusion

183
Physics
0625
Unit 3
Waves and Optics


184
0625
Physics

Chapter 11
Properties of Waves


185
1 Water waves are reflected at a plane surface.
Which property of the waves is changed by the reflection?
A direction
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength
2 Plane water waves travel from a shallow region into a deeper region. They travel more quickly in
the deeper water.
shallow water
boundary
wave
direction
deep water
Which diagram shows the wave pattern in the deeper water?
A B
C D

186
3 Which line gives an example of a longitudinal wave and describes its vibrations?
example of a
vibrations
longitudinal wave
A light wave at right angles to the direction the wave travels

B Iight wave in the same direction as the wave travels
C sound wave at right angles to the direction the wave travels
D sound wave in the same direction as the wave travels
4 The diagram shows a section through a series of waves on water.
Which dotted line shows the position of the still water surface after the waves have passed?
A
B
C
D
5 The diagram represents water waves about to move into shallow water from deep water.
wavefront
deep water
shallow water
Which property of the waves remains the same after the waves move into shallow water?
A frequency
B speed
C wavefront direction
D wavelength

187
6 Two sets of water waves overlap as shown in the diagram.
U Q
S
T R
From which two points are the sets of waves coming?
A P and S B T and R C Q and T D U and Q
7 The diagrams show water waves that move more slowly after passing into shallow water at the
broken line.
Which diagram shows what happens to the waves?
A B
fast slow fast slow
deep shallow deep shallow

C D
fast slow fast slow


188
12
8 Waves in a tank pass from shallow to deep water.
The wavefront diagram is shown.
wavefront
shallow deep
water water
Which quantity increases as the waves enter the deep water?
A amplitude
B frequency
C wave energy
D wavelength
9 The diagrams represent water waves in a tank.
Which diagram represents waves that change speed?
A B C D
barrier barrier barrier
deeper shallower
water water

189
12
10 A small boat in a harbour is protected from waves on the sea by harbour walls.
land sea
waves
small
boat
harbour
harbour
walls
Some waves can curve round the harbour walls and reach the boat.
What is the name for this effect?
A diffraction
B dispersion
C reflection
D refraction
11 The drawing shows a wave.
Which labelled distance is the wavelength?
A
B
D
12 Water waves can be used to show reflection, refraction and diffraction.
For each of these, which row shows whether or not the speed of the water waves changes?
reflection refraction diffraction
A no no yes
B no yes no
C yes no no
D yes yes yes

190
10
13 Which group contains only transverse waves?
A infra-red waves, light waves, sound waves

B infra-red waves, light waves, ultra-violet waves
C infra-red waves, ultra-violet waves, sound waves
D light waves, sound waves, ultra-violet waves
14 Water waves in a tank pass over a thin plastic block as shown.
plastic block
tank
What happens to the waves as they reach the plastic block?
A They are diffracted because they slow down.

B They are diffracted because they speed up.
C They are refracted because they slow down.
D They are refracted because they speed up.
15 A vertical stick is dipped up and down in water at P.
In two seconds, three wave crests are produced on the surface of the water.
wave P
crests
A Distance X is the amplitude of the waves.

B Distance Y is the wavelength of the waves.
C Each circle represents a wavefront.
D The frequency of the waves is 3 Hz.

191
11
16 Radio waves are received at a house at the bottom of a hill.
radio
waves
house
hill
The waves reach the house because the hill has caused them to be
A diffracted.
B radiated.
C reflected.
D refracted.
17 What is the unit of wavelength?
A hertz
B metre
C metre per second
D second
18 The diagram shows water waves passing through a gap in a harbour wall. The waves curve
round the wall and reach a small boat in the harbour.
harbour wall
waves
harbour
gap
boat
What is the name of this curving effect, and how can the gap be changed so that the waves are
less likely to reach the boat?
name of effect change to the gap

A diffraction make the gap slightly bigger
B diffraction make the gap slightly smaller
C refraction make the gap slightly bigger
D refraction make the gap slightly smaller

192
19 The diagrams represent the waves produced by four sources of sound. The scales are the same
for all the diagrams.
Which sound has the highest frequency?
A time
B time
C time
D time
20 A swimmer is sitting on a rock at the sea shore looking at passing waves. He notices that five
complete wavelengths pass him in 20 s.
What is the frequency of this wave?
A 0.25 Hz B 4.0 Hz C 15 Hz D 100 Hz

193
21 The diagram shows plane waves reflected by a plane surface.
Which line represents a wavefront?
A
D
22 The diagram represents a wave.
displacement
0
distance
X Y
How many wavelengths are there between X and Y?
A 2
3
B 1 C 1 21 D 3
23 A boy throws a small stone into a pond. Waves spread out from where the stone hits the water
and travel to the side of the pond.
The boy notices that eight waves reach the side of the pond in a time of 5.0 s.
What is the frequency of the waves?
A 0.20 Hz B 0.63 Hz C 1.6 Hz D 40 Hz

194
24 A small boat in a harbour is protected from waves on the sea by harbour walls.
land sea
waves
small
boat
harbour
harbour
walls
Some waves can curve round the harbour walls and reach the boat.
What is the name of this effect?
A diffraction
B dispersion
C reflection
D refraction
25 The diagram shows four waves drawn to the same scale.
P Q
displacement displacement
0 0
0 distance 0 distance
R S
0 0
0 distance 0 distance
A The amplitude of wave P is the same as the amplitude of wave R.

B The amplitude of wave S is double the amplitude of wave Q.
C The wavelength of wave Q is double the wavelength of wave P.
D The wavelength of wave S is the same as the wavelength of wave Q.

195
10
26 Light waves pass from air into glass and are refracted.
What always remains constant when this happens?
A direction
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength
27 The diagram shows a wave.
Which labelled distance is the wavelength?
B D
A
28 The diagrams show water waves that move more slowly after passing into shallow water.
Which diagram shows what happens to the waves?
A B
fast slow fast slow

C D
fast slow fast slow


196
29 What is the number of wavefronts per second that pass a fixed point?
A the amplitude of the wave

B the frequency of the wave
C the speed of the wave
D the wavelength of the wave
30 The diagrams represent water waves in a tank.
Which diagram represents a wave that changes speed?
A B C D
barrier barrier barrier
deeper shallower
water water
31 The diagram represents plane wavefronts being diffracted by passing through a gap in a barrier.
barrier
wavefronts
gap
Which pair of changes must increase the amount of diffraction that occurs?
A decrease the wavelength and decrease the size of the gap

B decrease the wavelength and increase the size of the gap
C increase the wavelength and decrease the size of the gap
D increase the wavelength and increase the size of the gap

197
8
32 The diagram shows a side view of a water wave at a particular time. The diagram is drawn full
size.
direction of
travel of wave
Which statement about the wave is correct?
A The wave is longitudinal and the frequency can be measured from the diagram.
B The wave is longitudinal and the wavelength can be measured from the diagram.
C The wave is transverse and the frequency can be measured from the diagram.
D The wave is transverse and the wavelength can be measured from the diagram.
33 The diagram shows a water wave approaching a barrier with a gap.
barrier
direction
of travel
P
water wave
The wave reaches point P.
What is the name of the effect that causes the wave to reach point P?
A diffraction
B dispersion
C reflection
D refraction

198
11
34 Different waves hit barriers with different sized gaps.
The waves will diffract.
In which diagram does the greatest spreading occur?
A B
barrier barrier
gap 2.0 cm gap 2.0 cm
wavelength
wavelength 2.0 cm
1.0 cm
C D
barrier barrier
gap 3.0 cm gap 3.0 cm
wavelength
wavelength 2.0 cm
1.0 cm
35 Plane water waves travel from a shallow region into a deeper region. They travel more quickly in
the deeper water.
shallow water
boundary
wave
direction
deep water
Which diagram shows the wave pattern in the deeper water?
A B C D

199
11
36 The diagram represents plane wavefronts of a water wave about to strike a solid barrier.
wavefronts
Which diagram shows the position of the wavefronts after reflection at the barrier?
A B
reflected
reflected
C D
reflected
reflected

200
37 When water waves pass through a gap they diffract.
The diagrams show wavefronts approaching a narrow gap.
In which diagram will the diffraction be least?
A B C D
38 A large hill blocks the direct path between a transmitter of radio waves and a receiver, as shown.
transmitter
hill receiver
The receiver picks up the signal from the transmitter even though the radio waves do not travel
through the hill.
Which row is correct?
A possible way A stronger signal is

for this to happen is received using
A diffraction round the hill. longer wavelengths.
B diffraction round the hill. shorter wavelengths.
C refraction round the hill. longer wavelengths.
D refraction round the hill. shorter wavelengths.

201
0625
Physics

Chapter 12
Sound Waves


202
1 A ship sends a pulse of sound vertically downwards to the sea bed. An echo is heard
0.4 seconds later.
If the speed of sound in the water is 1200 m / s, how deep is the water below the ship?
A 240 m B 480 m C 1500 m D 3000 m
2 A student claps once when standing 100 m away from a large wall.
The speed of sound in air is 330 m / s.
How long after clapping does the student hear an echo?
A 0.30 s B 0.61 s C 1.7 s D 3.3 s
3 A loudspeaker on a boat produces a pulse of sound in the sea. The echo of the pulse is received
back at the boat after 3.0 s. The depth of the sea under the boat is 2250 m.
boat
pulse of
sound
sea bed
(not to scale)
From this information, what is the speed of sound in the sea water?
A 330 m / s B 750 m / s C 1500 m / s D 6750 m / s

203
12
4 Music is produced by the loudspeaker of a radio.
Which property of the sound wave increases when the music is made louder?
A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength
5 A starting pistol is fired 640 m away from a spectator.
640 m
spectator
The spectator hears the sound of the starting pistol two seconds after seeing the flash from the
gun.
What is the speed of sound in air?
A 160 m / s B 320 m / s C 640 m / s D 1280 m / s
6 Which word correctly completes the sentence below?
An echo is a sound wave which is ………… by a large obstacle.
A absorbed
B dispersed
C reflected
D refracted

204
11
7 A girl stands at a distance from a large building. She claps her hands and a short time later hears
an echo.
Why is an echo produced when the sound waves hit the building?
A The sound waves are absorbed.

B The sound waves are diffracted.
C The sound waves are reflected.
D The sound waves are refracted.
8 The graph represents a sound wave. The horizontal (x) axis represents time.
The frequency of the sound is increased.
The graphs below are shown to the same scale. Which graph represents the new sound wave?
A B
y y
x x
C D
y y
x x

205
12
9 Which equation can be used to calculate the speed of sound?
A speed = distance
time
B speed = distance × time
C speed = time
distance
D speed = time + distance
10 A battery-operated bell is surrounded by a box with double walls.
air
bell box walls
gap
The bell is ringing but no sound at all is heard outside the box.
What is in the gap?
A a solid
B a liquid
C a gas
D a vacuum
11 An engineer standing at P sees an explosion at X.
P Z
Y
DANGER - X
BLASTING
V W
After the explosion, she hears two bangs. One bang is heard a fraction of a second after the
other. The second bang is an echo.
From which surface has the sound reflected to cause this echo?
A XY B PV C ZY D WX

206
14
12 In an experiment to measure the speed of sound, a student uses a stopwatch to find how long a
sound takes to travel from X to Y. She does this six times.
sound travels from X to Y
X Y
time / s
first 0.5
second 0.7
third 0.6
fourth 0.4
fifth 0.9
sixth 0.5
What value for the time should be used to calculate the speed of sound?
A 0.4 s B 0.5 s C 0.6 s D 0.9 s
13 The diagrams show examples of wave motion.
1 2
ripple tank
drum
waves on water waves in air
3 4
waves on a rope waves in a spring

(as shown)
Which are longitudinal waves?

A 1 only
B 1, 2 and 4
C 2 and 3 only
D 2 and 4 only

207
9
14 Sound waves travel from a point X to another point Y.
X Y
Which diagram represents the movement of the air molecules, caused by the sound waves, in the
region between X and Y.
A B C D
X Y
15 A navigation buoy floating on the sea oscillates up and down as a wave passes.
navigation
buoy
In exactly two minutes, six complete wavelengths pass the buoy.
What is the frequency of the waves?
A 0.050 Hz B 0.33 Hz C 3.0 Hz D 20 Hz
16 What is the approximate value of the highest frequency that can be heard by a young person?
A 20 Hz B 200 Hz C 2000 Hz D 20 000 Hz
17 A student listens to a machine that makes sounds of different frequencies. He can only hear one
of the sounds.
Which frequency of sound is the student able to hear?
A 2 Hz B 10 Hz C 2 kHz D 30 kHz

208
10
18 Which range of frequencies typically can be heard by a 10 year-old child?
A 20 Hz – 2000 Hz
B 20 Hz – 20 000 Hz
C 200 Hz – 2000 Hz
D 200 Hz – 20 000 Hz
19 Astronaut 1 uses a hammer to mend a satellite in space. Astronaut 2 is nearby. There is no air in
space.
hammer
astronaut 1 astronaut 2
Compared with the sound heard if they were working on Earth, what does astronaut 2 hear?
A a louder sound
B a quieter sound
C a sound of the same loudness
D no sound at all
20 Which waves are longitudinal?
A B C D
88:88
light waves microwaves sound waves water waves

from a lamp in an oven from a trumpet on a pond

209
21 A police car siren emits two different sounds P and Q. These are produced alternately. The
diagram represents the sounds emitted.
P P P
displacement
Q Q
time
Which sound is the louder and which has the lower pitch?
louder lower pitch
A P P
B P Q
C Q P
D Q Q
22 The diagrams represent two different sound waves.
wave P wave Q
time time
How do the frequency and pitch of P compare with the frequency and pitch of Q?
frequency of P pitch of P
A greater than Q higher than Q

B greater than Q same as Q
C same as Q higher than Q
D same as Q same as Q

210
23 Sound travels by wave motion.
Which property of waves causes echoes?
A diffraction
B dispersion
C reflection
D refraction
24 Which of these waves is longitudinal?
A infra-red
B radio
C sound
D water
25 A girl stands at a distance from a large building. She claps her hands and a short time later hears
an echo.
Why is an echo produced when the sound waves hit the building?
A The sound waves are absorbed.

B The sound waves are diffracted.
C The sound waves are reflected.
D The sound waves are refracted.
26 The diagrams represent two sound waves. The scales in the two diagrams are the same.
time time
sound wave 1 sound wave 2
Which statement describes the waves?
A The waves have different loudness and different pitch.

B The waves have different loudness but the same pitch.
C The waves have the same loudness and the same pitch.
D The waves have the same loudness but different pitch.

211
12
27 A student wishes to measure the speed of sound in air. She plans to measure the time between
making a sound and hearing the echo from a cliff.
cliff
student
She will use the equation: speed = distance .

time
Which type of sound should she make and which distance should she use in her calculation?
type of sound distance to use

distance to cliff
A continuous sound 2
B continuous sound distance to cliff × 2
distance to cliff
C short, sharp sound 2
D short, sharp sound distance to cliff × 2
28 The diagrams show the wave shapes of two different sounds. The scales are the same in each
diagram.
time time
sound 1 sound 2
How does sound 2 compare with sound 1?
A Sound 2 is louder than sound 1.

B Sound 2 is quieter than sound 1.
C Sound 2 has a higher pitch than sound 1.
D Sound 2 has a lower pitch than sound 1.

212
11
29 A girl notices that when she shouts into a cave she hears an echo.
Which wave property causes the echo?
A diffraction
B dispersion
C reflection
D refraction
30 In a test, a car horn is found to be too loud and the pitch of the note is too high.
What information does this give about the amplitude and the frequency of the sound wave
produced?
amplitude frequency
A too large too large

B too large too small
C too small too large
D too small too small
31 When the volcano Krakatoa erupted in 1883, it was heard 5000 km away.
Which statement about the sound from the volcano is not correct?
A If such a loud sound were to be made today, an astronaut orbiting in space (a vacuum) at a
height of 400 km could hear it.
B People further from the volcano heard the sound later than people nearer to the volcano.
C The amplitude of the sound waves would have been smaller further from the volcano.
D The sound was very loud because a lot of energy was transferred to vibrations of the air.
32 A boy blows a whistle that has a frequency of 10 000 Hz. The boy’s friend cannot hear the sound
from the whistle. The friend has normal hearing.
What could be a reason why he cannot hear the sound?
A The amplitude is too large.

B The amplitude is too small.
C The frequency is too high.
D The frequency is too low.

213
33 A lighted candle is placed in front of a loudspeaker that is making a loud, steady note. The candle
flame vibrates because of the sound wave.
candle flame
loudspeaker
Which type of waves are sound waves and in which direction does the flame vibrate?
type of wave direction of vibration
A longitudinal
B transverse
C longitudinal
D transverse
34 Which waves are longitudinal?
A B C D
88:88
light waves microwaves water waves sound waves

from a lamp in an oven on a pond from a trumpet

214
11
35 A fire alarm is not loud enough and the pitch is too low. An engineer adjusts the alarm so that it
produces a louder note of a higher pitch.
What effect does this have on the amplitude and on the frequency of the sound waves that the
alarm produces?
amplitude frequency
A larger larger
B larger smaller
C smaller larger
D smaller smaller
36 In an experiment to measure the speed of sound, a student uses a stopwatch to find the time
taken for a sound wave to travel from X to Y. She does this six times.
sound travels from X to Y
X Y
measurement time / s
first 0.5
second 0.7
third 0.6
fourth 0.4
fifth 0.9
sixth 0.5
Which value for the time should be used to calculate the speed of sound?
A 0.4 s B 0.5 s C 0.6 s D 0.9 s
37 Which frequency produces a sound that can be heard by a person?
A 2 Hz B 10 Hz C 2 kHz D 30 kHz

215
14
38 An echo-sounder on a ship produces a pulse of sound. The echo is received by the echo-sounder
after two seconds.
ship
echo-sounder
sea bed
The speed of sound in sea-water is 1500 m / s.
What is the depth of the sea-water below the ship?
A 750 m B 1500 m C 3000 m D 6000 m
39 Sounds are produced by vibrating objects. A certain object vibrates but a person nearby cannot
hear any sound.
Which statement could explain why nothing is heard?
A The amplitude of the sound waves is too large.

B The frequency of the vibration is too high.
C The sound waves are transverse.
D The speed of the sound waves is too high.
40 Which row states two properties of sound waves?
can travel through type of wave
A a vacuum longitudinal
B a vacuum transverse
C water longitudinal
D water transverse

216
12
41 A man holding a starting pistol stands 640 m away from a spectator.
640 m
spectator
The spectator hears the sound of the starting pistol 2.0 s after seeing the flash from the pistol.
Using this information, what is the speed of sound in air?
A 160 m / s B 320 m / s C 640 m / s D 1280 m / s
42 A sound wave travels through air as a series of compressions and rarefactions.
Which row correctly compares the air pressure in a compression and the air pressure in a
rarefaction to the air pressure nearby where there is no sound wave?
air pressure in air pressure in

a compression a rarefaction
A higher higher
B higher lower
C lower higher
D lower lower
43 A sound wave has a certain amplitude and a certain frequency.
A second sound wave is quieter and lower in pitch than the first sound wave.
The second wave has
A a larger amplitude and a greater frequency.

B a larger amplitude and a smaller frequency.
C a smaller amplitude and a greater frequency.
D a smaller amplitude and a smaller frequency.

217
44 A girl notices that, when she shouts into a cave, she hears an echo.
Which wave property causes the echo?
A diffraction
B dispersion
C reflection
D refraction
45 The diagrams represent the displacement in four different sound waves. All the diagrams are
drawn to the same scale.
Which diagram represents the sound with the highest pitch?
A B
0 time 0 time
0 0
C D
0 time 0 time
0 0
46 A fire alarm is not loud enough and the pitch is too low. An engineer adjusts the alarm so that it
produces a louder note of a higher pitch.
What effect does this have on the amplitude and on the frequency of the sound?
amplitude frequency
A larger greater
B larger smaller
C smaller greater
D smaller smaller
© UCLES 2016 0625/21/O/N/16

218
13
47 The Moon is 380 000 km from the Earth. A laser light beam is directed from the Earth to the
Moon. The beam is reflected back to the Earth.
How long does it take for the light to travel to the Moon and back to the Earth?
A 1.27 ms B 2.53 ms C 1.27 s D 2.53 s
48 Which wavefront is travelling at a speed closest to that of a sound wave through a solid?
A one that moves 10 m in 0.01 s

B one that moves 50 m in 0.5 s
C one that moves 1000 m in 100 s
D one that moves 2000 m in 2000 s
49 A student stands 180 m in front of a vertical, flat cliff and bangs together two pieces of wood to
make a short, loud sound.
A timer records the echo of the sound 1.5 seconds after the pieces of wood are banged together.
Based on this result, what is the speed of sound?
A 120 m / s B 240 m / s C 270 m / s D 540 m / s
50 A dolphin has a range of audible frequencies of 150 Hz–150 kHz.
Which range of frequencies can be heard both by humans with good hearing and by dolphins?
A 20 Hz–150 Hz
B 20 Hz–150 kHz
C 20 kHz–150 kHz
D 150 Hz–20 kHz

219
51 A pulse of sound is produced at the bottom of a boat. The sound travels through the water and is
reflected from a shoal of fish. The sound reaches the boat again after 1.2 s. The speed of sound
in the water is 1500 m / s.
boat
shoal of fish
How far below the bottom of the boat is the shoal of fish?
A 450 m B 900 m C 1800 m D 3600 m
52 What is the approximate value of the speed of sound in air at normal temperature?
A 340 m / s B 34 000 m / s C 340 km / s D 3.0 × 108 m / s
53 Which row gives a possible set of values for the speed of sound in ice, in water and in steam?
speed of sound speed of sound speed of sound

in ice in water in steam
m/ s m/ s m/ s
A 500 1500 4000

B 1500 4000 500
C 4000 500 1500
D 4000 1500 500

220
0625
Physics

Chapter 13
Light Waves


221
11
1 A man sees a stone at the bottom of a pool of water.
Which path could be taken by light from the stone to the man?
man
A B C D
air
water
stone
2 A ray of light is reflected by two parallel plane mirrors X and Y.
mirror X
30°
mirror Y
A The angle of incidence at mirror X is 30°.
B The angle of incidence at mirror Y is 60°.
C The angle of reflection at mirror X is 120°.
D The angle of reflection at mirror Y is 0°.

222
10
3 A student shines a narrow beam of white light into a prism as shown in the diagram. He sees a
spectrum of colours emerging from the prism.
narrow beam X
Y spectrum
of white light
Z of colours
Which three colours does he see at X, at Y and at Z?
X Y Z
A blue yellow red

B red blue yellow
C red yellow blue
D yellow red blue
4 An object placed in front of a plane mirror at O produces an image at I.
If the object moves towards the mirror in the direction shown by the arrow, in which direction does
the image move?
D
C
B
A
I

223
5 Which diagram shows total internal reflection of light?
A B C D
mirror glass prism
6 Light from the Sun passes through a prism and a spectrum is produced on a screen.
screen
narrow slit
light from P
red
the Sun
violet
A thermometer placed at P shows a large temperature rise.
Which type of radiation causes this?
A infra-red
B microwave
C ultra-violet
D visible light
7 A ray of light in glass is incident on a boundary with air.
Which path does the ray of light take when the angle of incidence i is less than the critical angle?
air
glass C
i D
ray of
light

224
13
8 Which diagram shows the dispersion of white light?
A B
glass glass
white white
light light
C D
glass glass
white white
light light
9 Which diagram shows what happens when a ray of white light passes through a prism?
A B
spectrum
white white
light light
spectrum
C D
spectrum
white white
light light spectrum

225
10 A student warms her hands near a fire.
Which waves carry most heat to her hands and are these waves electromagnetic?
waves electromagnetic
A infra-red no
B infra-red yes
C visible light no
D visible light yes
11 The diagram shows a ray of light incident on the edge of a piece of glass. The angle i is bigger
than the critical angle.
Which arrow correctly shows the direction of the ray after it leaves the edge of the glass?
normal
ray of
D
light
i
glass
air
C
A
B

226
12 A girl writes the word LEFT on a piece of card.
LEFT
She looks at the image of this card, made by reflection by a plane mirror.
What does she see?
A B C D
13 A scientist is trying to direct a ray of light through a glass block without any light leaving the top of
the block. However, some light does leave the top.
light leaving top

top of block
glass block
X
ray of
light
The scientist changes angle X and stops the ray of light leaving the top.
Which row in the table describes the change to angle X and the name of the effect produced?
change to angle X name of effect produced
A decrease total internal reflection

B decrease total internal refraction
C increase total internal reflection
D increase total internal refraction

227
14 The diagram shows the dispersion of white light by a glass prism.
white light red light
glass prism violet light
Why does dispersion occur when white light enters the glass?
A The frequency of red light decreases more than that of violet light.
B The frequency of violet light decreases more than that of red light.
C The speed of red light decreases more than that of violet light.
D The speed of violet light decreases more than that of red light.
15 The diagram shows a ray of light travelling from X. Angle P is less than the critical angle.
In which direction does the ray continue?
P
glass A
air
B
D
C
16 The diagram shows the image of a clock in a plane mirror.
What time is shown?
A 02:25 B 02:35 C 09:25 D 09:35

228
17 Which row correctly describes light waves and radio waves?
light waves radio waves
A longitudinal longitudinal
B longitudinal transverse
C transverse longitudinal
D transverse transverse
18 The image formed by a plane mirror is upright.
position
object of image
eye
What are the other characteristics of the image?
laterally inverted magnified

virtual
(left to right) (larger than the object)
A no yes yes
B yes no no
C yes no yes
D yes yes no

229
19 A piece of paper has ‘PAL’ written on it.
A student holds the paper in front of a plane mirror.
back of
mirror
PAL
What does the student see?
A B C D
PAL PAL
PAL LAP
20 Visible light and γ-rays are both waves.
How may they correctly be described?
visible light γ-rays
A longitudinal longitudinal
B longitudinal transverse
C transverse longitudinal
D transverse transverse

230
21 Rays of light enter and leave a box.
ray 1
ray 1
ray 2
ray 2
What could be inside the box to make the rays behave as shown?
A a converging lens
B a parallel-sided glass block
C a plane mirror
D a triangular prism
22 Different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are used for different purposes. Below are four
statements about parts of the spectrum.
statement 1: Infra-red waves are used in television remote controllers.

statement 2: Radio waves are used to transmit television pictures from satellites to Earth.
statement 3: Ultra-violet waves are used for intruder alarms.
statement 4: X-rays are used for security checks.
Which statements are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 4 C 2 and 3 D 3 and 4
23 Which diagram shows how a ray of light could pass through a glass block in air?
A B
glass glass
C D
glass glass

231
24 Which list shows electromagnetic waves in order of increasing frequency?
A visible light, X-rays, γ-rays
B visible light, γ-rays, X-rays
C X-rays, γ-rays, visible light
D γ-rays, X-rays, visible light
25 The table gives common uses for three types of electromagnetic wave.
Which row correctly identifies the waves?
terrestrial television television remote

satellite television
(not satellite) controllers
A infra-red waves microwaves radio waves

B microwaves radio waves infra-red waves
C radio waves infra-red waves microwaves
D radio waves microwaves infra-red waves
26 The diagram shows a ray of light passing through a semicircular glass block into air.
air
glass
P
ray of
light
Which row gives the correct name for angle P and states how angle P compares with the critical
angle?
angle P compared with

name of angle P
the critical angle
A angle of incidence larger than the critical angle

B angle of incidence smaller than the critical angle
C angle of refraction larger than the critical angle
D angle of refraction smaller than the critical angle

232
9
27 Scout P signals to scout Q on the other side of a valley by using a mirror to reflect the Sun’s rays.
Sun’s
scout P rays
mirror
scout Q
Which mirror position would allow the Sun’s rays to be reflected to scout Q?
A B C D
mirror Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s Sun’s
rays rays rays rays
28 Which type of electromagnetic wave is used in airport security scanners?
A infra-red
B microwaves
C radio waves
D X-rays
29 Which list contains only transverse waves?
A infra-red waves, light waves, sound waves

B infra-red waves, light waves, ultraviolet waves
C infra-red waves, sound waves, ultraviolet waves
D light waves, sound waves, ultraviolet waves

233
30 Light from the Sun passes through a prism and a spectrum is produced on a screen.
screen
narrow slit
light from X
red
the Sun
violet
A thermometer placed at X shows a large temperature increase.
Which type of radiation causes this temperature increase?
A infra-red
B microwave
C ultraviolet
D visible light
31 The diagram shows a ray of light incident on the edge of a piece of glass. The angle i is greater
than the critical angle.
Which arrow shows the direction of the ray after it leaves the edge of the glass?
normal
ray of
D
light
i
glass
air
C
A
B
32 The diagram represents the electromagnetic spectrum.
Some regions have been labelled, and some labels are missing.
Which region should be labelled as infra-red waves?
radio visible
A B C D γ-rays
waves light

234
33 The diagram shows the electromagnetic spectrum, in order of increasing wavelength.
Three types of radiation, P, Q and R, are missing from the spectrum diagram.
γ-rays X-rays P visible light Q microwaves R
Which types of electromagnetic radiation are represented by P, by Q and by R?
P Q R
A infra-red radio waves ultraviolet

B infra-red ultraviolet radio waves
C ultraviolet infra-red radio waves
D ultraviolet radio waves infra-red
34 Radiation from the Sun is dispersed by a prism. The prism does not absorb any of the radiation.
Four identical thermometers are placed, one at each of the labelled positions.
In which position does the thermometer show the greatest rise in temperature?
prism
radiation from
the Sun
A
B red light
C violet light
D
35 Which row states whether light waves and whether sound waves can travel in a vacuum?
sound waves light waves
A no no
B no yes
C yes no
D yes yes

235
36 The diagram shows a ray of light inside a glass rod. The critical angle for the light in the glass is
42°.
surface of
normal
ray of light glass rod
air
40°
glass rod
Which row shows what happens to the light when it reaches the surface of the glass rod?
any light any light

reflected? refracted?
A no no
B no yes
C yes no
D yes yes
37 A scientist tries to direct a ray of light in a glass block so that no light escapes from the top of the
block.
However, some light does escape.
light escaping
from top of block
top of block
glass block
X
ray of
light
The scientist changes angle X and stops the light escaping from the top.
Which row in the table describes the change to angle X and the name of the effect produced?
change to angle X name of effect produced

A decrease total internal reflection
B decrease total internal refraction
C increase total internal reflection
D increase total internal refraction

236
10
38 Which row shows the natures of light waves, sound waves and X-rays?
light waves sound waves X-rays
A longitudinal longitudinal transverse

B longitudinal transverse longitudinal
C transverse longitudinal transverse
D transverse transverse longitudinal
39 The diagram shows light travelling from air into glass.
Four angles v, w, x and y are shown.
normal
light
w
air v
glass y
Which formula is used to calculate the refractive index n of the glass?
sin v sin v sin w sin w

A n= B n= C n= D n=
sin y sin x sin y sin x
40 Light travels in a vacuum and then enters a glass block. The speed of the light in the glass block
is 2.0 × 108 m / s.
Which statement about the speed of light is correct?
A The speed in a vacuum is 1.5 times the speed in the glass.

B The speed in the glass is the same as the speed in a vacuum.
C The speed in the glass is 1.5 times the speed in a vacuum.
D The speed in the glass is 1.0 × 108 times the speed in a vacuum.

237
10
41 Light travelling at a speed of 3.0 × 108 m / s strikes the surface of a glass block and undergoes
refraction as it enters the block.
The diagram shows a ray of this light before and after it enters the block.
55°
glass block
33°
What is the speed of light in the glass?
A 1.8 × 108 m / s
B 2.0 × 108 m / s
C 4.5 × 108 m / s
D 5.0 × 108 m / s
42 Radiation from which part of the electromagnetic spectrum is used in the remote controller for a
television?
A infra-red waves
B microwaves
C radio waves
D ultraviolet waves
43 Different waves travel through air.
Which waves have the greatest difference in speed?
A ultrasound waves and sound waves

B ultrasound waves and ultraviolet waves
C ultraviolet waves and light waves
D ultraviolet waves and radio waves

238
12
44 Which diagram shows what happens when a ray of white light passes through a prism?
A B
spectrum
white white
light light
spectrum
C D
spectrum
white white
light light spectrum
45 Which statement about the image formed by a plane mirror is correct?
A The image is larger than the object.

B The image is smaller than the object.
C The image is twice as far from the mirror as the object.
D The image is virtual.
463 A ray of light is incident on a glass-air surface. The diagrams show the ray of light at different
angles of incidence in the glass.
air air air

glass glass glass
40° 44° 48°
What is the refractive index of the glass?
A 1.35 B 1.44 C 1.50 D 1.55

239
12
47 The diagram shows an object in front of a plane mirror. A ray of light from the object is incident on
the mirror.
object
R
Q S
P
plane
mirror
Through which point does the reflected ray pass, and at which point is the image of the object
formed?
point through which point at which

reflected ray passes image is formed
A P R
B P S
C Q R
D Q S
48 A laser is a source of light with a single frequency.
Which description of this type of light is correct?
A dispersed
B focused
C monochromatic
D refracted
49 Visible light, X-rays and microwaves are all components of the electromagnetic spectrum.
Which statement about the waves is correct?
A In a vacuum, microwaves travel faster than visible light and have a shorter wavelength.
B In a vacuum, microwaves travel at the same speed as visible light and have a shorter
wavelength.
C In a vacuum, X-rays travel faster than visible light and have a shorter wavelength.
D In a vacuum, X-rays travel at the same speed as visible light and have a shorter wavelength.
© UCLES 2017 0625/21/O/N/17

240
9
502 A prism is made from transparent plastic. In this plastic, light travels at 0.80 c, where c is its speed
in air. Light enters one face of the prism at right-angles as shown.
NOT TO
SCALE
The light just escapes from the sloping face of the prism.
What is angle θ ?
A 37° B 39° C 51° D 53°
513 The Sun emits infra-red radiation and light.
Light from the Sun reaches the Earth in 8 minutes.
Which row gives correct information about the infra-red radiation?
wavelength of time taken for infra-red

infra-red radiation radiation to reach Earth
A longer than wavelength of light 8 minutes

B longer than wavelength of light much less than 8 minutes
C shorter than wavelength of light 8 minutes
D shorter than wavelength of light much more than 8 minutes
52 Different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are used for different purposes. Below are four
statements about parts of the spectrum.
statement 1: Infra-red waves are used in television remote controllers.

statement 2: Radio waves are used to transmit television pictures from satellites to Earth.
statement 3: Ultraviolet waves are used for intruder alarms.
statement 4: X-rays are used for security checks.
Which statements are correct?

241
53 An object is placed 30 cm in front of a plane mirror.
Which statement describes the image of the object?
A The image is the same size and 30 cm from the object.

B The image is the same size and 60 cm from the object.
C The image is smaller and 30 cm from the object.
D The image is smaller and 60 cm from the object.
54 An eclipse of the Sun happens when the Moon comes between the Earth and the Sun.
A Infra-red radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and ultra-violet radiation.
B Ultra-violet radiation from the Sun disappears before visible light and infra-red radiation.
C Visible light from the Sun disappears before ultra-violet radiation and infra-red radiation.
D Infra-red radiation, ultra-violet radiation and visible light from the Sun all disappear at the
same moment.
55 The diagram shows the image of a clock in a plane mirror.
Which is the actual time?

A 04:15 B 04:45 C 07:15 D 07:45
56 The diagram shows the electromagnetic spectrum.
γ-rays X-rays radio

ultraviolet visible light infrared microwaves
waves
increasing ......................
A word is missing from the label below the spectrum.
Which word is missing?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

242
0625
Physics

Chapter 14
Thin Converging Lens


243
1 Two thin converging lenses X and Y are used as shown to give a focused image of an illuminated
slit. The rays shown are parallel between X and Y.
X Y
screen
slit image
source
of light
30 cm 20 cm 15 cm
What are the correct values for the focal lengths of X and of Y?
focal length focal length

of X / cm of Y / cm
A 50 35
B 30 20
C 30 15
D 20 20
2 In the diagram, the distance OP is the focal length of the lens.
Through which point will the ray shown pass, after refraction by the lens?
lens
A
O P D B

C

244
3 The diagram shows the path of a ray of light passing through a principal focus F of a lens.
Which broken line shows the direction of the ray after it leaves the lens?
lens
ray
of
lig
ht
A
F F
D C
4 An object O is placed in front of a converging lens of focal length f.
At which point will the top of the image be seen?
A
B
f f
C
D
5 An object is placed in front of a converging lens. The lens has a focal length f.
The lens produces a real, enlarged image of the object.
In which labelled position is the object placed?
lens
A B C D
f
2f

245
6 Which diagram correctly shows rays of light passing through a converging lens in a camera?
A B
camera camera
object object
image image
lens lens
C D
camera camera
object object
image image
lens lens
7 A thin converging lens is used to produce, on a screen, a focused image of a candle.
screen
image
lens
candle
Various focused images are produced on the screen by moving the lens and the screen
backwards and forwards.
Which statement is always correct?
A The image is at the principal focus (focal point) of the lens.

B The image is bigger than the object.
C The image is closer to the lens than the object is.
D The image is inverted.

246
8 A student draws three rays of light from point P through a converging lens.
Each point labelled F is a principal focus of the lens.
P ray X
F F
ray Z ray Y
Which of the rays are drawn correctly?
A ray Y only
B ray Z only
C ray X and ray Y
D ray X and ray Z
9 A thin converging lens forms an image.
object
image
F F
What is the nature of this image and can it be formed on a screen?
can be formed
nature of image
on a screen?
A not real no
B not real yes
C real no
D real yes

247
10
10 Which diagram shows how an image of an object is formed on a screen by a converging lens?
A B
2 × focal length 2 × focal length
object object
screen screen
C D
object object
screen screen
11 Which statement about a converging lens is not correct?
A A ray parallel to the principal axis of the lens is refracted through the principal focus.
B All rays of light refracted by the lens pass through the principal focus.
C The distance between the centre of the lens and the principal focus is the focal length.
D The principal focus of the lens is a point on the principal axis.

248
13
12 In the diagram, the distance OP is the focal length of the converging lens. One ray of light from O
is shown.
Through which point will this ray pass, after refraction by the lens?
converging lens
A
O P D B

C
13 An object O is placed close to a thin converging lens.
The diagram represents three rays from the top of O passing through the lens.
Which type of image is produced by the lens when the object O is in this position?
A real and diminished

B real and enlarged
C virtual and diminished
D virtual and enlarged

249
9
14 A student draws a diagram representing three rays of light from point P passing through a
converging lens. Each point labelled F is a principal focus of the lens.
lens
P ray X
F F
ray Y ray Z
Which of the rays has the student drawn correctly?
A ray X and ray Y

B ray X and ray Z
C ray Y only
D ray Z only
15 The diagram shows a converging lens forming an image of an object.
image object
Y
Which statement about the image is correct?
A It is real and can be seen by an eye at X.

B It is real and can be seen by an eye at Y.
C It is virtual and can be seen by an eye at X.
D It is virtual and can be seen by an eye at Y.

250
16 An image is formed by a plane mirror. A second image is formed by a lens used as a magnifying
glass.
Which row states the nature of each of these images?
plane mirror magnifying glass
A real real
B real virtual
C virtual real
D virtual virtual
17 A converging lens is used as a magnifying glass to view an object.
A The image is inverted.

B The image is nearer the lens than the object.
C The image is the same size.
D The image is virtual.
18 A small object O is placed near a converging lens, as shown. The lens forms an image I.
I O
A The image I is diminished.
B The image I is inverted.
C The image I is real.

D The object O is closer to the lens than its principal focus.

251
8
19 A converging lens produces an image of an object O. The focal length of the lens is f.
Which position of the object produces a virtual image?
A B
O O
f f
2f 2f
C D
O O
f f
2f 2f

252
Physics
0625
Unit 4
Electricity, Magnetism and

Electromagnetism
Chapter 17

253
0625
Physics

Chapter 15
Electrostatics


254
14
1 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth and becomes positively charged.
Why has the rod become positively charged?
A It has gained electrons.

B It has gained neutrons.
C It has lost electrons.
D It has lost neutrons.
2 Three charged balls, P, Q and R, are suspended by insulated threads. Ball P is negatively
charged.
insulated thread
P – Q
Q R
What are the charges on Q and on R?
Q R
A positive positive
B positive negative
C negative positive
D negative negative
3 A polythene rod repels an inflated balloon hanging from a nylon thread.
What charges must the rod and the balloon carry?
A The rod and the balloon carry opposite charges.

B The rod and the balloon carry like charges.
C The rod is charged but the balloon is not.
D The balloon is charged but the rod is not.

255
What charges must the rod and the balloon carry?
A The rod and the balloon carry opposite charges.

B The rod and the balloon carry like charges.
5 Three charged balls, P, Q and R are suspended by insulating threads. Ball P is negatively
charged.
Ball Q is brought close to ball P.
insulating thread
P – Q
Ball Q is now brought close to ball R.
Q R
What are the charges on ball Q and on ball R?
ball Q ball R
A positive positive
B positive negative
C negative positive
D negative negative
6 Two similar balloons hang side by side, on insulating threads, a short distance apart. They are
both rubbed with the same dry cloth and become charged.
Which diagram shows how the balloons hang after charging?
A B C D

256
7 A plastic rod and a dry cloth are uncharged.
The rod is now rubbed with the cloth and they both become charged. The rod becomes
negatively charged because some charged particles move from the cloth to the rod.
What is the charge on the cloth and which particles moved in the charging process?
charge on particles that

cloth moved
A negative electrons
B negative neutrons
C positive electrons
D positive neutrons
Why do the rod and balloon repel?
A The rod and the balloon have opposite charges.

B The rod and the balloon have like charges.
9 A positively charged plastic rod is placed just above a thick metal plate. The metal plate rests on
an insulator and is connected to the earth by a wire.
positive rod metal plate
+ + + + +
earthing wire
insulator
A student disconnects the earthing wire and then removes the positively charged rod.
The experiment is repeated. This time the student removes the positively charged rod and then
removes the earthing wire.
A When the earthing wire is disconnected first, the metal plate becomes positively charged.
B When the earthing wire is disconnected first, the metal plate becomes negatively charged.
C When the plastic rod is removed first, the metal plate becomes positively charged.
D When the plastic rod is removed first, the metal plate becomes negatively charged.

257
12
10 A negatively charged rod is held close to one side of a metal sphere. The other side of the sphere
is earthed.
Which diagram shows the distribution of charge on the metal sphere?
A B
– + –
–
– –– – – ––
– – – + –
C D
+ + +
+
– –– – –– +
– + + – +
11 A polythene rod is rubbed with a cloth. The rod becomes positively charged because of the
movement of charged particles.
Which row gives the name of these charged particles, and the direction in which they move?
charged direction of
particles movement
A electrons from cloth to rod

B electrons from rod to cloth
C protons from cloth to rod
D protons from rod to cloth
12 A positively-charged rod is held near to, but not touching, an uncharged metal sphere.
The sphere is briefly now connected to earth.
The rod is removed.
Which statement about the charge on the sphere is correct?
A It is charged negatively because negative charges have moved from earth to the sphere.
B It is charged negatively because positive charges have moved from the sphere to earth.
C It is charged positively because negative charges have moved from the sphere to earth.
D It is charged positively because positive charges have moved to earth from the sphere.

258
13 A student rubs a plastic rod with a cloth.
The rod becomes positively charged.
What has happened to the rod?

B It has gained protons.
D It has lost protons.
14 Which quantity is measured in coulombs?
A charge
B current
C electromotive force
D power
15 The diagrams represent two different electric fields.
field 1 field 2
A single electron is located in each of the fields.
Which row gives the correct direction of the force on the electron and the field in which there is a
larger force on it?
direction of
larger force
the force
A ↓ field 1
B ↓ field 2
C ↑ field 1
D ↑ field 2

259
16 Diagram 1 shows two thin, uncharged strips of plastic.
Diagram 2 shows the same strips after they have been rubbed with a dry cloth.
strips strips
of plastic of plastic
diagram 1 diagram 2
Which row describes the charge on the strips after rubbing, and the force between the strips after
rubbing?
charge on strips force between strips
A opposite attraction
B opposite repulsion
C the same attraction
D the same repulsion
17 A plastic rod is rubbed with a dry cloth. The rod becomes positively charged.
Why has the rod become positively charged?

B It has gained neutrons.
D It has lost neutrons.

260
0625
Physics

Chapter 16
Electric Current


261
1 Fou r wires are made from the same material.
Which wire has the greatest resistance?
length of wire / cm diameter of wire / mm
A 50 0.1
B 50 0.2
C 100 0.1
D 100 0.2
2 Which circuit is a variable potential divider (potentiometer)?
A B
output
output
C D
output
output
3 The diagram shows a battery connected to three identical resistors. Four ammeters A, B, C and
D are connected in the circuit.
Which ammeter shows the smallest reading?
A A A D
A
B
A
C

262
13
4 The circuit shows a current I in a resistor of resistance R.
3.0 V
Which line gives possible values of I and of R?
I/A R/Ω
A 1.5 1.5
B 1.5 2.0
C 6.0 2.0
D 4.0 12.0
5 The circuit shown in the diagram contains an unknown component X, hidden in a box.
The voltage-current graph for X is as shown.
variable voltage supply

+ –
voltage
X
0
V 0 current
What is the component X?
A a capacitor
B a closed switch
C a metallic resistor
D an open switch

263
6 A mains electrical circuit uses insulated copper cable and the cable overheats.
To prevent the cable overheating, how should the cable be changed, and why?
A Use thicker copper cable which has less resistance.

B Use thicker insulation which stops the heat escaping.
C Use thinner copper cable which has more resistance.
D Use thinner insulation which allows less heat to escape.
7 In the circuit shown, the switches S1 and S2 may be open (off) or closed (on).
V
+ switches shown
12 V open (off)
– S2
S1
Which line in the table shows the voltmeter reading for the switch positions given?
S1 S2 voltmeter reading / V
A open open 12
B closed closed 12
C open closed 0
D closed open 12
8 Diagram 1 shows a potential divider circuit containing two 100 Ω resistors.
One of the resistors is changed to 90 Ω, as shown in diagram 2.
diagram 1 diagram 2
100 Ω 90 Ω
100 Ω V 100 Ω V
How does the reading on the voltmeter change when this is done?
A It becomes zero.
B It decreases a little.
C It increases a little.
D It stays the same.

264
9 When there is an electric current in a metal wire, what flows through the wire?
A atoms
B electrons
C neutrons
D protons
10 The table shows the voltage and current ratings for four electric heaters.
Which heater has the least resistance?
voltage / V current / A
A 110 5.0
B 110 10.0
C 230 5.0
D 230 10.0
11 The diagram shows four different circuits.
P Q
3Ω 5Ω
R S
3Ω
3Ω 5Ω
5Ω
What is the order of increasing resistance of these circuits?
lowest highest
resistance resistance
A P Q R S
B R S P Q
C S P Q R
D P R Q S

265
14
12 Using the circuit shown, the current I is found for various voltages V. The temperature of the
resistor does not change.
variable direct
voltage
V
Which graph shows the results obtained?
A B C D
I I I I
0 0 0 0
0 V 0 V 0 V 0 V
13 In the circuit shown, ammeter X reads 0.5 A.
4.0 V
X A A Y
3.0 Ω 5.0 Ω
What does ammeter Y read?
A 0 B 0.5 A C 3.5 A D 4.0 A

266
14 In the circuits shown, all the resistors are identical.
Which circuit has the least resistance?
A B
C D
15 A pupil measures the potential difference across a device and the current in it.
Which calculation gives the resistance of the device?
A current + potential difference
B current ÷ potential difference
C potential difference ÷ current
D potential difference × current
16 A student uses a length of wire as a resistor. He discovers that the resistance of the wire is too
small.
To be certain of making a resistor of higher value, he should use a piece of wire that is
A longer and thicker.

B longer and thinner.
C shorter and thicker.
D shorter and thinner.

267
17 The diagram shows a battery connected to two identical resistors. Three ammeters M1, M2 and
M3 are connected in the circuit.
M1 A A M3
A
M2
Meter M1 reads 1.0 A.
What are the readings on M2 and on M3?
reading on M2 / A reading on M3 / A
A 0.5 0.0
B 0.5 0.5
C 0.5 1.0
D 1.0 1.0
18 The diagram shows a torch containing two cells, a switch and a lamp.
plastic
case
brass
connecting switch
strip lamp
What is the circuit diagram for the torch?
A B C D

268
19 The table shows the lengths and diameters of four copper wires.
Which wire has the least resistance?
length / m diameter / mm
A 0.50 1.0
B 0.50 2.5
C 0.75 1.0
D 0.75 2.5
20 A circuit is set up to measure the resistance of a resistor R. The meter readings are 2.0 A and
3.0 V.
A
V
What is the resistance of the resistor R?
A 0.67 Ω B 1.5 Ω C 5.0 Ω D 6.0 Ω
21 A potential difference (p.d.) across a resistor causes a current in it.
resistor
current
p.d.
The p.d. and the resistance of the resistor can both be changed.
Which row shows two changes that will both increase the current in the resistor?
change change
A decrease p.d. decrease resistance

B decrease p.d. increase resistance
C increase p.d. decrease resistance
D increase p.d. increase resistance

269
14
22 The circuit shown is a potential divider.
X
output
What is component X?
A a light-dependent resistor
B a relay
C a thermistor
D a variable resistor
23 A lamp is connected in four circuits in turn, each using identical batteries.
The resistors are all identical.
In which circuit will the lamp be brightest?
A B
C D

270
13
24 The diagram shows a circuit containing two ammeters and three resistors.
ammeter ammeter
A A
X Y
R1 R2 R3
Which of the ammeters will show the current in resistor R2?
A ammeter X only
B ammeter Y only
C both ammeter X and ammeter Y
D neither ammeter X nor ammeter Y
25 An ammeter and an 18 Ω resistor are connected in series with a battery. The reading on the
ammeter is 0.50 A. The resistance of the battery and the ammeter can be ignored.
18 Ω
What is the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery?
A 9.0 N B 9.0 V C 36 N D 36 V

271
14
26 A circuit contains two resistors connected in parallel with a battery.
R
P
2Ω
Q
4Ω
Which of the following statements about the currents at P, Q and R is true?
A The current at P is the greatest.

B The current at Q is the greatest.
C The current at R is the greatest.
D The current is the same at points P, Q and R.
27 The potential divider shown is connected across a constant 12 V supply.
V1 20 Ω
12 V
V2 R
When R has a value of 20 Ω, the voltmeter readings are equal.
How do these readings change when the value of R is reduced to 10 Ω?
reading on V1 reading on V2

272
28 Which symbols are used for the units of current and of resistance?
unit of current unit of resistance
A A W
B A Ω
C C W
D C Ω
29 In which unit is potential difference measured?
A ampere
B ohm
C volt
D watt
30 The circuit shown in the diagram contains an unknown component X, hidden in a box.
The voltage-current graph for X is as shown.
variable voltage supply

+ –
voltage
X
0
V 0 current
What is the component X?
A a capacitor
B a closed switch
C an open switch
D a resistor of constant resistance

273
15
31 The diagram shows a lamp in a circuit.
Which change to the circuit would increase the current in the lamp?
A adding another resistor in parallel with the one in the circuit

B adding another resistor in series with the one in the circuit
C decreasing the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery in the circuit
D moving the lamp to point P in the circuit
32 The diagram shows an electric circuit containing three meters, X, Y and Z, all connected
correctly.
X Z
What are meters X, Y and Z?
X Y Z
A ammeter ammeter ammeter

B ammeter voltmeter ammeter
C voltmeter ammeter voltmeter
D voltmeter voltmeter voltmeter

274
16
33 The diagrams show four arrangements of resistors.
Which arrangement has the smallest total resistance?
A B
4 2 2
C D
4
4 4
34 The diagram shows a potential divider circuit with two identical lamps L1 and L2.
X L1
K
Y L2
The contact K is halfway between X and Y and the lamps are equally bright.
What will happen to the brightness of the lamps when contact K is moved a short distance
towards X?
lamp L1 lamp L2
A brighter brighter
B brighter dimmer
C dimmer brighter
D dimmer dimmer

275
35 A student connects a variable potential divider (potentiometer) circuit.
R
V
T
12 V
What happens to the reading on the voltmeter as the sliding terminal T is moved from R to S?
A It decreases from 12 V to 0 V.
B It increases from 0 V to 12 V.
C It remains at 0 V.
D It remains at 12 V.
36 Which of these is an electric current?
A a beam of atoms
B a beam of electrons
C a beam of molecules
D a beam of neutrons
37 An electric oven is connected to the mains supply using insulated copper wires. The wires
become very warm.
What can be done to prevent so much heat being produced in the connecting wires?
A Use thicker copper wires.

B Use thinner copper wires.
C Use thicker insulation.
D Use thinner insulation.

276
38 The diagram shows a circuit used to find the resistance of lamp L.
Blocks P, Q and R represent the different components used.
12 V
P R
Which is a correct possible choice of components to use for P, Q and R?
P Q R
A ammeter variable resistor voltmeter

B variable resistor voltmeter ammeter
C voltmeter ammeter variable resistor
D voltmeter variable resistor ammeter
39 The diagram shows two voltmeters, P and Q, connected to a potential divider.
V voltmeter P
X
V voltmeter Q
The sliding connection at point X is moved towards the top of the diagram.
What happens to the reading on P and to the reading on Q?
reading on P reading on Q

277
16
40 Which circuit could be used to determine the resistance of the resistor R?
A B
V A
R R
A
C D
V A
R R
V
41 Which copper wire would have the smallest resistance?
A a long, thick wire

B a long, thin wire
C a short, thick wire
D a short, thin wire
42 The diagram shows an electrical circuit.
L M
N
P O
Between which two points must a voltmeter be connected to find the potential difference across
the bell?
A L and M B M and N C N and O D O and P

278
17
43 The reading on the ammeter in the circuit is 1.0 A.
A second ammeter is connected in the circuit. It also reads 1.0 A.
At which labelled point is it connected?
1.0 A A
A
D
B C
44 Which equation can be used to calculate the resistance R of a resistor?
A V=I÷R B I=V×R C R=V×I D V=I×R
45 A student wishes to measure first the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a battery, and then the
potential difference (p.d.) across a resistor.
She has the resistor, the battery and some connecting wires.
What else does she need?
A a force meter (newton meter) and a voltmeter

B an ammeter and a voltmeter
C an ammeter only
D a voltmeter only

279
13
46 A student connects various resistors in parallel pairs.
Underneath each diagram is a statement about the total resistance of each pair of resistors.
A B
2Ω 5Ω
2Ω 1Ω
The total resistance is 4 Ω. The total resistance is between 1 Ω and 5 Ω.
C D
10 Ω 20 Ω
5Ω 10 Ω
The total resistance is less than 5 Ω. The total resistance is more than 20 Ω.
47 The diagram shows an incomplete circuit.
X Y
A
Four wires of different length and thickness are connected in turn between point X and point Y.
All four wires are made of the same metal.
Which wire will cause the greatest reading on the ammeter?
A long and thick

B long and thin
C short and thick
D short and thin

280
15
48 Which labelled component in the circuit shown controls the brightness of lamp X?
A
V
X B
Which row gives the unit for energy and the unit for electromotive force (e.m.f.)?
energy e.m.f.
A J N
B J V
C W N
D W V
49 A circuit is set up to determine the resistance of a resistor R. The meter readings are 2.0 A and
3.0 V.
A
V
What is the resistance of the resistor R?
A 0.67 Ω B 1.5 Ω C 5.0 Ω D 6.0 Ω

281
13
50 A student carries out an experiment to investigate the resistance of a resistor R. She takes a
series of readings of potential difference (p.d.) and current, and plots a graph of her results.
Which circuit should she use?
A B
A A
R R
C D
A V A
R R
V
51 A student uses a length of wire as a resistor. He makes a second resistor from the same material.
To be certain of making a second resistor of higher resistance, he should use a piece of wire that
is
A longer and thicker.

B longer and thinner.
C shorter and thicker.
D shorter and thinner.

282
52 An engineer uses the potential divider shown in the diagram. He needs the output voltage to be
one tenth ( 101 ) of the input voltage.
input
voltage
output
Y
voltage
Which pair of values could he use for the two resistors X and Y?
X / kΩ Y / kΩ
A 1.0 9.0
B 1.0 10.0
C 9.0 1.0
D 10.0 1.0
53 In the circuit shown, the ammeter reads 2.0 A and the voltmeter reads 12 V.
12 V
6.0 Ω
How much energy is transferred by the resistor in 10 seconds?
A 2.4 J
B 14.4 J
C 240 J
D 1440 J

283
15
54 The resistance of a wire depends on its length l and on its cross-sectional area A.
The resistance is
A directly proportional to l and directly proportional to A.

B directly proportional to l and inversely proportional to A.
C inversely proportional to l and directly proportional to A.
D inversely proportional to l and inversely proportional to A.
55 The diagram shows part of an electrical circuit.
3.0 A 4.0 Ω
A
2.0 Ω
The current in the 4.0 Ω resistor is 3.0 A.
What is the current in the ammeter?
A 4.5 A
B 6.0 A
C 9.0 A
D 12.0 A
56 The diagram shows a piece of metal resistance wire.
Which wire, made of the same metal, has a smaller resistance?
A a wire of the same length with a larger diameter

B a wire of the same length with a smaller diameter
C a wire of greater length with the same diameter
D a wire of greater length with a smaller diameter

284
16
57 The diagram shows a potential divider circuit.
Z
slider
V
How does the movement of the slider affect the voltmeter reading?
movement voltmeter
of slider reading
A Z to X falls to zero
B Z to X increases
C Z to Y falls to zero
D Z to Y increases
58 What is the unit of electromotive force (e.m.f.)?
A ampere
B joule
C volt
D watt
59 The circuit diagram shows a 4.0 Ω resistor and an 8.0 Ω resistor connected to a 6.0 V battery.
6.0 V
4.0 Ω 8.0 Ω
What is the current in the battery?
A 0.50 A B 0.75 A C 1.5 A D 2.0 A
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285
15
60 The diagram shows a 3.0 Ω resistor and a 6.0 Ω resistor connected in parallel.
3.0 Ω
6.0 Ω
What is the total resistance of this arrangement?
A less than 3.0 Ω
B 3.0 Ω
C 4.5 Ω
D more than 6.0 Ω
61 The diagram shows a 10 Ω resistor and a 20 Ω resistor connected in a potential divider circuit.
10 Ω
12.0 V
20 Ω V
What is the reading on the voltmeter?
A 4.0 V B 6.0 V C 8.0 V D 12.0 V
62 What is the unit of electrical power?
A ampere
B joule
C volt
D watt

286
11
63 Some resistors are made using one type of wire. Two different lengths of wire are available. Each
length is available in two different diameters.
Which wire has the highest resistance?
A the wire with the greater length and the larger diameter
B the wire with the greater length and the smaller diameter
C the wire with the smaller length and the larger diameter
D the wire with the smaller length and the smaller diameter
64 Four students are each given an identical resistor and asked to find its resistance. They each
measure the potential difference across the resistor and the current in it.
One student makes a mistake.
Which row shows the results of the student that makes a mistake?
potential difference / V current / A
A 1.2 0.500
B 2.4 1.100
C 1.5 0.625
D 3.0 1.250
65 What is the circuit symbol for a variable resistor?
A B C D
66 The diagram shows a circuit containing three ammeters P, Q and R.
P A Q A R
A
Which statement about the readings on the ammeters is correct?
A The reading on P is equal to the reading on Q.

B The reading on P is equal to the reading on R.
C The reading on Q is greater than the reading on P.
D The reading on Q is greater than the reading on R.

287
67 A cell is connected to a lamp, as shown.
– +
A charge of 4.0 C flows through the lamp in 2.0 s.
What is the direction of the electron flow in the lamp and what is the current in the lamp?
direction of electron
current / A
flow in lamp
A from left to right 2.0

B from left to right 8.0
C from right to left 2.0
D from right to left 8.0
68 The diagrams show four current-voltage graphs.
Which two graphs show the characteristics of an ohmic resistor and of a filament lamp?
W X Y Z
current current current current
0 0 0 0
0 voltage 0 voltage 0 voltage 0 voltage
ohmic filament
resistor lamp
A W Y
B X Y
C W Z
D X Z
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288
13
69 The diagram shows a lamp in a circuit.
Which change to the circuit would increase the current in the lamp?
A adding another resistor in parallel with the one in the circuit

B adding another resistor in series with the one in the circuit
C decreasing the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the battery in the circuit
D moving the lamp to point P in the circuit
70 A 12.0 Ω resistor and a 6.0 Ω resistor are connected in parallel.
Another 6.0 Ω resistor is then connected in series with the parallel combination.
12.0 Ω
6.0 Ω
6.0 Ω
What is the combined resistance of all three resistors?
A 8.0 Ω B 10 Ω C 15 Ω D 24 Ω
71 The circuit shows a 12 V battery connected to a lamp of resistance 3.0 Ω.
12 V
How much energy is transferred to the surroundings by the lamp in 2.0 minutes?
A 48 J B 96 J C 2880 J D 5760 J

289
14
72 The diagram shows a circuit containing a battery, a resistor with high resistance, a switch and a
lamp.
12 V
battery
12 V
resistor lamp
Initially the switch is open.
What happens to the lamp when the switch is closed?
A It glows more brightly.

B It glows less brightly.
C It goes out.
D Its brightness does not change.
73 A cylinder of conducting putty has length l, diameter d and resistance R. The putty is now
moulded into a cylinder of diameter 2d that has the same volume.
R d
By which factor does the resistance of the putty cylinder decrease?
A 2 B 4 C 8 D 16
74 The average current during a lightning strike between a cloud and the ground is 1.5 × 104 A.
The lightning releases 3.0 × 108 J of energy and lasts for 2.0 × 10–4 s.
What is the average electromotive force (e.m.f.) between the cloud and the ground?
A 4.0 V B 100 V C 1.0 × 108 V D 9.0 × 108 V

290
75 A student connects a variable potential divider (potentiometer) circuit.
R
T V
12 V
What happens to the reading on the voltmeter as the sliding terminal T is moved from R to S?
A It decreases from 12 V to 0 V.
B It increases from 0 V to 12 V.
C It remains at 0 V.
D It remains at 12 V.
76 The diagram shows a circuit with a gap between points P and Q.
Four pieces of metal wire of the same material are connected, in turn, between points P and Q in
the circuit.
P Q
The table gives the diameters and lengths of the wires. In
which wire is the current the largest?
diameter / mm length / m
A 0.10 1.0
B 0.10 2.0
C 0.20 1.0
D 0.20 2.0
77 A torch has a simple circuit with a 3.0 V battery and a lamp. There is a 20 mA current in the lamp.
How much energy is transferred to the lamp in 5.0 minutes?
A 0.30 J B 18 J C 60 J
D 0.30 kJ

291
78 7 The electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a rechargeable battery is 6.0 V.
A 6.0 J is the maximum energy the battery can provide in 1.0 s.

B 6.0 J is the total energy the battery can provide before it has to be recharged.
C 6.0 J of energy is provided by the battery to drive a charge of 1.0 C around a complete circuit.
D 6.0 J of energy is provided by the battery to drive a current of 1.0 A around a complete circuit.
79 8 A student measures the potential difference across a device and the current in the device.
Which calculation gives the resistance of the device?
A current + potential difference
B current ÷ potential difference
C potential difference ÷ current
D potential difference × current
80 A water heater is connected to a 230 V supply and there is a current of 26 A in the heater. It takes
20 minutes to heat the water to the required temperature.
How much energy is supplied by the heater?
A 6.0 × 103 J B 1.0 × 104 J C 1.2 × 105 J D 7.2 × 106 J
81 The resistance of a component in a circuit is found using an ammeter and a voltmeter.
How are the ammeter and the voltmeter connected?
A the voltmeter and ammeter in parallel with the component

B the voltmeter and ammeter in series with the component
C the voltmeter in parallel with the component and the ammeter in series with the component
D the voltmeter in series with the component and the ammeter in parallel with the component
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292
12
82 The diagram shows two voltmeters P and Q connected to a potential divider.
V voltmeter P
X
V voltmeter Q
The sliding connection at point X is moved towards the top of the diagram.
What happens to the reading on P and to the reading on Q?
reading on P reading on Q
83 The table gives data for four different electrical devices.
Which device develops the greatest power?
device voltage current
A car headlight 12 V 3.0 A

B cooling fan 110 V 0.40 A
C electric spark generator 400 kV 0.10 mA
D mains lamp 240 V 0.20 A
84 A circuit contains a cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 2.0 V. The current in the circuit is 2.0 A.
How much energy is converted by the cell in 2.0 minutes?
A 2.0 J B 4.0 J C 8.0 J D 480 J

293
11
85 A cell has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 1.5 V.
What does this statement mean?
A The cell converts 1.0 J of energy when driving 1.5 C of charge round a complete circuit.
B The cell converts 1.5 J of energy when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete circuit.
The cell converts 1.5 J of energy per second when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete
C
circuit.
D The cell converts 1.5 W of power when driving 1.0 C of charge round a complete circuit.
86 Which two changes to a metal wire both increase resistance?
A decreasing its length and increasing its temperature

B increasing its length and decreasing its temperature
C decreasing its thickness and increasing its temperature
D increasing its thickness and decreasing its temperature
87 The diagram shows a circuit containing a d.c. power supply, a motor and a variable resistor.
Three ammeters X, Y and Z show the current in different parts of the circuit.
+ –
X A A Z
A M
Y
The reading on X is 4.0 A.
A The readings on Y and Z are both less than 4.0 A.

B The readings on Y and Z are both equal to 4.0 A.
C The readings on Y and Z are both greater than 4.0 A.
D The reading on Z is zero.

294
88 Identical resistors are connected together to form arrangements X, Y and Z.
X Y Z
What is the correct order of the resistances of the arrangements from the largest to the smallest?
A X→Y→Z
B Y→X→Z
C Z→X→Y
D Z→Y→X
89 A circuit contains a cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 2.0 V, three resistors, three ammeters and
two voltmeters. One ammeter is labelled P and one voltmeter is labelled Q.
The readings on the other two ammeters and on the other voltmeter are shown.
2.0 V
2.0 A A 0.50 A
A
A
V P
0.50 V V
Q
What is the reading on ammeter P and what is the reading on voltmeter Q?
reading on P / A reading on Q / V
A 1.5 1.5
B 1.5 2.5
C 2.5 1.5
D 2.5 2.5
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295
0625
Physics

Chapter 17
Mains Supply,
Semiconductors and
Logic Gates


296
15
1 The circuit contains a relay.
relay lamp 2
switch S
lamp 1
When switch S is closed, what is the state of the lamps?
lamp 1 lamp 2
A on on
B on off
C off on
D off off
2 Which diagram shows a circuit that will allow the lamps to be switched on and off independently?
A B C D
3 What is the symbol for a fuse?
A B C D

297
4 A cable in a house is carrying too much current.
What is the greatest danger?
A appliances not working

B electric shock
C fire
D low power
5 Four lamps are connected in a circuit as shown in the diagram.
Each lamp is designed to operate at 12 V.
12 V
The circuit is now switched on.
A Each lamp can be switched off independently.

B If one lamp breaks all the others will stay alight.
C The current is the same in all the lamps.
D The lamps will all light at normal brightness.
6 A householder asks an electrician to install a mains electrical socket in her bathroom so that she
may use a hairdryer there. The electrician refuses to do this because it would be dangerous.
Why would installing the socket be dangerous?

A The current drawn by the hairdryer would cause overheating in the cables.
B The handling of electrical equipment in damp conditions could cause an electric shock.
C The hot air produced by the hairdryer would cause the fuse to melt.
D The temperature in the bathroom would damage the insulation.

298
7 The device X in this circuit is designed to cut off the electricity supply automatically if too much
current flows.
What is device X?
A a fuse
B a switch
C a resistor
D an ammeter
8 The diagrams show two ways in which three lamps may be connected.
X Y Z
Z
circuit 1 circuit 2
A If lamp Y breaks in circuit 1, both the other lamps will go out.

B If lamp Y breaks in circuit 2, both the other lamps will go out.
C If lamp Y breaks in circuit 1, lamp Z will go out, but lamp X will remain on.
D If lamp Y breaks in circuit 2, lamp Z will go out, but lamp X will remain on.

299
16
9 In the circuit below, X and Y are identical 6 V lamps.
6V
switch
X
What happens when the switch is closed (the current is switched on)?
A X lights more brightly than Y.

B Y lights more brightly than X.
C X and Y both light with full brightness.
D X and Y both light with half brightness.
10 A student makes four circuits.
In which circuit are both lamps protected by the fuse?
A B
C D

300
17
11 A mains circuit can safely supply a current of 40 A.
A hairdryer takes 2 A. It is connected to the circuit by a lead which can safely carry up to 5 A.
Which fuse is best to use in the plug fitted to the hairdryer lead?
A 1 A fuse B 3 A fuse C 10 A fuse D 50 A fuse
12 When the thermistor in the circuit below is heated, the lamp becomes brighter.
Why does this happen?
A The resistance of the lamp decreases.

B The resistance of the lamp increases.
C The resistance of the thermistor decreases.
D The resistance of the thermistor increases.
13 In the circuit below, one of the lamps breaks, causing all the other lamps to go out.
Which lamp breaks?
A C D

301
16
14 Either a fuse or a circuit-breaker can be used to protect electrical cables from large currents that
could cause overheating.
X cable
live
electrical
Y appliance
supply
neutral
cable
If a fuse is used, in which position in the circuit should it be connected, and if a circuit-breaker is
used, in which position should it be connected?
position position of
of fuse circuit-breaker
A X X
B X Y
C Y X
D Y Y
15 The current in a lamp at full brightness is 0.25 A. The flexible cable to the lamp is designed for
currents up to 5.0 A, so it can safely carry the 0.25 A taken by the lamp.
Which fuse should be inserted in the plug at the other end of the flexible cable?
A 0.2 A B 1.0 A C 5.0 A D 10.0 A
16 A fuse is a safety device for use in an electrical appliance.
How does a fuse affect a circuit when the current in it becomes higher than the correct value for
the appliance?
A It completely stops the current.

B It reduces the current to the correct value for the appliance.
C It sends the current to the outer case of the appliance.
D It sends the excess current to the earth wire.

302
13
17 An electrical component X is placed in water, as shown.
thermometer
water
When the temperature of the water is increased, the reading on the ammeter increases.
A a capacitor
B a light-dependent resistor
C a relay
D a thermistor
18 A certain electrical appliance is powered from a mains supply. The appliance normally uses a
current of 3 A, but the current briefly rises to 4 A at the instant the appliance is switched on. The
cable to the appliance is designed for currents up to 6 A.
The fuses available to protect the cable are rated at 1 A, 3 A, 5 A and 13 A.
Which fuse should be used?
A 1A B 3A C 5A D 13 A
19 On a building site, metal scaffolding is firmly embedded in the damp ground. A builder holds a
mains-operated electric drill in one hand. With his other hand he holds on to the scaffolding.
The power cable of the drill is damaged where it enters the metal casing of the drill.
What danger does this present to the builder?
A A current could pass through the builder and electrocute him.

B A current in the scaffolding could heat it up and burn him.
C The large current could blow the fuse and damage the drill.
D The large current could make the motor spin too quickly.

303
15
20 Which diagram shows the correct positions for both the switch and the fuse?
live wire switch
A lamp
neutral wire
fuse
fuse
live wire switch
B lamp
neutral wire
fuse
live wire
C lamp
neutral wire
switch
live wire
D lamp
neutral wire
fuse switch
21 After some building work in a house, a bare (uninsulated) live wire is left protruding from a wall.
What is the greatest hazard?
A a fire
B a fuse will blow
C an electric shock
D no current will flow

304
22 A student sets up the circuit shown. The switch is open (off).
Which lamps are on and which lamps are off?
lamp X lamp Y lamp Z
A off off off

B on off off
C on off on
D on on on
23 A fuse and a relay each use an effect of an electric current.
Which effect of an electric current is used by a fuse and which effect is used by a relay?
effect used by effect used by

a fuse a relay
A heating effect heating effect

B heating effect magnetic effect
C magnetic effect heating effect
D magnetic effect magnetic effect

305
15
24 The diagram shows a thermistor in a potential divider. A voltmeter is connected across the
thermistor.
The graph shows how the resistance of the thermistor changes with temperature.
resistance
temperature
As the thermistor becomes warmer, what happens to its resistance and what happens to the
reading on the voltmeter?
resistance voltmeter reading
25 A desk lamp should have a 3 A fuse fitted, but a 13 A fuse has been fitted by mistake.
The lamp is not faulty.
The lamp is switched on. What happens?
A The fuse blows.

B The fuse does not blow but the lamp does not light.
C The lamp draws too much current and the supply cables could melt.
D The lamp works normally.

306
16
26 In this circuit, a component at X automatically protects the wiring from overheating if there is a
fault.
electrical supply
Which components are suitable to use at X?
A a circuit-breaker, a fuse or a switch

B only a circuit-breaker or a fuse
C only a circuit-breaker or a switch
D only a fuse
27 Which graph shows how the output voltage varies with time for a simple a.c. generator?
A B
voltage voltage
0 0
time time
C D
voltage voltage
0 0
time time

307
13
28 Which circuit contains a fuse?
A B
C D
29 A thermistor is used in a circuit to control a piece of equipment automatically.

What might this circuit be used for?
A lighting an electric lamp as it becomes darker
B ringing an alarm bell if a locked door is opened
C switching on a water heater at a pre-determined time
D turning on an air conditioner when the temperature rises
30 The circuit shows a battery and four lamps. All the lamps are lit.
One lamp fails and all the lamps go out.
Which lamp failed?
A
B
D
C

308
13
31 A student connects the circuit shown.
Which switches must be closed for the bell to ring without lighting the lamp?
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2, 3 and 4 only
32 Which graph shows how the voltage of a simple a.c. generator varies with time?
A B
voltage voltage
0 0
0 0
time time
C D
voltage voltage
0 0
0 time 0 time

309
18
33 An electric current can produce a heating effect and a magnetic effect.
Which row shows the effect that a relay uses, together with one application of a relay?
effect used by a relay one application of a relay
A heating effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current

B heating effect changing the voltage of an alternating current
C magnetic effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current
D magnetic effect changing the voltage of an alternating current
34 When the thermistor in the circuit below is heated, the current in the lamp increases.
Why does this happen?
A The resistance of the lamp decreases.

B The resistance of the lamp increases.
C The resistance of the thermistor decreases.
D The resistance of the thermistor increases.
35 The circuit shown contains a relay.

Both lamps are initially off.
lamp 2
switch S
relay
lamp 1
When switch S is closed, the relay operates. What is the state of the lamps?
lamp 1 lamp 2
A on on
B on off
C off on
D off off

310
14
36 The diagram shows the connections to an electric heater. Three fuses have been added to the
circuit.
heating element
plastic
fuse 1 case
live
fuse 3
fuse 2
neutral heater
Which of the fuses are correctly placed?
A fuse 1, fuse 2 and fuse 3

B fuse 1 and fuse 2 only
C fuse 1 only
D fuse 2 only
37 An appliance is connected to a mains supply. Its circuit also contains a switch and a fuse.
Which circuit shows the fuse in the correct position?
A B
appliance appliance
live live
neutral neutral
C D
appliance appliance
live live
neutral neutral

311
14
38 The diagram shows a circuit containing three lamps and three switches S1, S2 and S3.
lamp 1
S1 S2
lamp 2
S3
lamp 3
Lamp 1 and lamp 3 are lit, but lamp 2 is not lit.
Which switch or switches is/are closed?
A S1 only
B S1 and S2
C S1 and S3
D S2 and S3
39 The diagram shows part of an electric circuit.
12 V
0V
The light falling on the light-dependent resistor (LDR) increases in brightness.
What happens to the resistance of the LDR and what happens to the reading on the voltmeter?
resistance of reading on
LDR voltmeter

312
40 The diagram shows a circuit with a 3.0 Ω resistor and a 2.0 Ω resistor connected in parallel.
6.0 V
A
3.0 Ω
2.0 Ω
The switch is open, and the ammeter reads 2.0 A.
The switch is now closed and the ammeter reads the total current in both resistors.
What is the ammeter reading with the switch closed?
A 1.2 A B 3.0 A C 4.0 A D 5.0 A
41 The current in a kettle is 10 A and it is protected by a 13 A fuse.

The owner of the kettle replaces the 13 A fuse with a 3 A fuse.
What happens when the kettle is switched on?
A The fuse blows and the kettle is damaged.
B The fuse blows and the kettle is undamaged.
C The fuse does not blow and the kettle works correctly.
D The fuse does not blow but the kettle fails to work.
42 In the circuit shown, only one of the fuses has blown, but none of the lamps is lit.
Which fuse has blown?
power
supply
B C
D

313
17
434 The diagram shows a circuit with a fixed resistor connected in series with a thermistor and an
ammeter.
Which row shows how temperature change affects the resistance of the thermistor and the
current in the circuit?
resistance of
temperature current in circuit
thermistor
A decreases decreases increases

B decreases increases decreases
C increases decreases decreases
D increases increases increases
445 An appliance is connected to a mains supply. Its circuit also contains a switch and a fuse.
Which circuit shows the fuse in the correct position?
A B
appliance appliance
live live
neutral neutral
C D
appliance appliance
live live
neutral neutral

314
45 The diagram shows a light-dependent resistor (LDR) connected in a potential divider circuit.
The brightness of the light falling on the LDR is increased.
Which row shows what happens to the resistance of the LDR, and what happens to the reading
on the voltmeter?
resistance of LDR reading on voltmeter
46 Four lamps are each labelled '60 W 230 V'.
In which circuit are the lamps connected so that they operate at normal brightness?
A B C D
230 V 230 V 230 V 230 V

315
47 The four circuits shown all include an a.c. power supply, two diodes and a lamp.
In which circuit is there a rectified current in the lamp?
A B
C D
48 A domestic circuit includes a 30 A fuse. This protects the wiring if there is too much current in the
circuit.
In which wire is the 30 A fuse positioned, and what does it do when it operates?
position operation
A live wire disconnects the circuit

B live wire reduces the current to 30 A
C neutral wire disconnects the circuit
D neutral wire reduces the current to 30 A

316
14
49 The diagram shows a combination of logic gates.
input P
(= 0) output X
input Q output Y
(= 1)
Input P is at a logic state 0 (low) and input Q is at a logic state 1 (high).
What are the logic states at output X and at output Y?
output X output Y
A 0 0
B 0 1
C 1 0
D 1 1
50 The diagram shows part of a circuit used to switch street lamps on and off automatically.
LDR
In the evening it gets dark.
Which row shows the effect on the resistance of the light-dependent resistor (LDR) and on the
potential difference (p.d.) across it?
resistance of LDR p.d. across LDR
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317
51 This is the truth table for a logic gate.
input 1 input 2 output
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
Which symbol represents the logic gate?
A B C D
52 Why is a fuse used in an electrical circuit?
A so that the current can have only one value

B to prevent the current becoming too large
C to provide a path to earth if a fault occurs
D to save electrical energy
53 An electric current can produce a heating effect and a magnetic effect.
Which row shows the effect that a relay uses and one application of a relay?
effect used by a relay one application of a relay
A heating effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current

B heating effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply
C magnetic effect allowing a small current to switch on a large current
D magnetic effect changing the voltage of an a.c. supply
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318
54 The circuit diagram shows a circuit with an a.c. supply, a diode and a resistor.
Which diagram shows how the current I in the resistor varies with time t ?
A B
I I
0 0
0 t 0 t
C D
I I
0 0
0 t 0 t
55 What is the purpose of a relay?
A to change a large voltage into a small voltage

B to change a small voltage into a large voltage
C to use a large current to switch on a small current
D to use a small current to switch on a large current

319
16
56 A light-dependent resistor (LDR) and a resistor R are connected in a series circuit. Light falls on
the LDR.
The brightness of the light falling on the LDR decreases.
What happens to the resistance of the LDR and what happens to the reading on the ammeter?
resistance reading on
of LDR ammeter
57 The diagram shows a logic gate.
P
R
Q
Which input combinations at P and Q gives an output of 0 at R?
P Q
A 0 0
B 0 1
C 1 0
D 1 1
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320
16
58 A student connects the circuit shown.
Which graph shows the variation with time of the current in the resistor?
A B
current current
0 0
0 time 0 time
C D
current current
0
0 time
0
0 time
59 What does the symbol shown represent?
A an AND gate
B a NOR gate
C a NOT gate
D an OR gate
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321
17
60 The diagram shows a circuit with a fixed resistor connected in series with a thermistor and an
ammeter.
Which row shows how temperature change affects the resistance of the thermistor and the
current in the circuit?
resistance of
temperature current in circuit
thermistor
A decreases decreases increases

B decreases increases decreases
C increases decreases decreases
D increases increases increases
61 Which electrical symbol represents a diode?
A B C D
62 A student sets up this circuit.
What is the purpose of the circuit?
A to allow a lamp to be made dimmer or brighter as required

B to amplify the sound of a voice
C to light a lamp in the dark
D to sound a bell when the temperature rises

322
63 The diagram represents a digital circuit using a NOR gate and an AND gate.
X NOR
AND
Y
output
What is the truth table for this circuit?
A B C D
X Y Z output X Y Z output X Y Z output X Y Z output

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1
0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 1
1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1
1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 1
1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1
64 The circuit diagram shows a cell connected in series to a resistor and a component X.
A bell
B diode
C heater
D thermistor
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323
12
651 The circuit diagram shows a fixed resistor R and a thermistor T used in a potential divider circuit.
VR and VT are the potential differences across R and T respectively.
What happens to VR and to VT as the temperature of the thermistor decreases?
VR VT
A decreases increases
B increases decreases
D stays the same increases
662 The circuit diagram shows a power supply connected to some circuit components.
In the diagram, P and Q are the terminals of the d.c. power supply.
P Q
R1
A
R2
Under which circumstances does the ammeter show a reading other than zero?
A when P is positive or negative

B the ammeter always shows a zero reading
C only when P is negative
D only when P is positive
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324
13
67 The diagram shows a digital circuit with two inputs and one output.
input 1
output
input 2
What describes the action of the circuit?
A AND B NAND C NOR D OR
68 Either a fuse or a circuit-breaker can be used to protect electrical cables from large currents that
could cause overheating.
X cable
live
electrical Y appliance
supply
neutral
cable
When a fuse is used, where should it be connected, and when a circuit-breaker is used, where
should it be connected?
position position of
of fuse circuit-breaker
A X X
B X Y
C Y X
D Y Y

325
12
69 A lamp is to be connected in a circuit so that the potential difference (p.d.) across it can be varied
from 0 to 6 V.
Which circuit would be most suitable?
A B
6 V 6 V
C D
6 V 6 V
70 Which logic gate is represented by the symbol shown?
A AND B NAND C NOR D OR
71 The diagram shows a combination of logic gates.
Which single logic gate is equivalent to this combination?
A AND B NOR C NOT D OR
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326
13
72 An alternating current (a.c.) power supply is connected in series with a resistor R and a diode.
Which graph shows how the voltage V across the resistor R varies with time?
A B
voltage V voltage V
0 0
0 time 0 time
C D
voltage V voltage V
0 0
0 time 0 time
73 An electric heater is plugged into the mains supply using a fused plug.
The current in the heater is 10 A.
The cable attached to the heater is rated at 15 A.
The fuses available are rated at 1 A, 3 A, 5 A and 13 A.
Which fuse should be used?
A 1A B 3A C 5A D 13 A

327
12
74 There are two inputs and one output for the combination of logic gates shown.
input 1
output
input 2
Which truth table represents the operation of this combination of logic gates?
A B
input 1 input 2 output input 1 input 2 output

0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 0 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 1 1 1 0
C D
input 1 input 2 output input 1 input 2 output

0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0
1 0 0 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 1
75 Where must a fuse be connected in a mains electric circuit?
A the earth wire only

B the live wire only
C the neutral wire only
D the live wire and the earth wire

328
0625
Physics

Chapter 18
Magnetism and
Magnetic Effect of Current


329
13
1 A strong electromagnet is used to attract pins.
core
pins
coil
What happens when the current in the coil is halved?
A No pins are attracted.

B Fewer pins are attracted.
C The same number of pins is attracted.
D Many more pins are attracted.
2 Four plotting compasses are placed near a bar magnet.
Which plotting compass is shown pointing in the correct direction?
A B
N
C
D S
3 Which materials are suitable for making a permanent magnet and the core of an electromagnet?
permanent magnet core of an electromagnet
A iron iron
B iron steel
C steel iron
D steel steel

330
4 A solenoid carrying a current is used to demagnetise a bar magnet.
solenoid
bar magnet
power
supply
Which conditions achieve demagnetisation?
current through
movement of bar magnet
solenoid
A a.c. around the solenoid quickly

B a.c. through the solenoid slowly
C d.c. around the solenoid quickly
D d.c. through the solenoid slowly
5 Two metal bars are held together. At least one of the bars is a magnet. The bars repel each
other.
What does this show about the bars and why?
what it shows why
A only one of the bars is a magnet two magnets always attract each other
B only one of the bars is a magnet induced magnetism in the other bar makes it repel
C they are both magnets there must be like poles facing each other
D they are both magnets there must be opposite poles facing each other
6 Four plotting compasses are placed in the magnetic field of two identical bar magnets as shown
in the diagram.
Which compass is shown pointing in the wrong direction?
A D
S N N S

331
18
7 When the electric current in wire XY is in the direction shown, there is an upward force on the
wire.
current
force
magnet magnet
N S
If the north and south poles of the magnet exchange positions, in which direction will the force on
the wire act?
A downwards
B upwards
C to the left
D to the right
8 A wire perpendicular to the page carries an electric current in a direction out of the page. There
are four compasses near the wire.
Which compass shows the direction of the magnetic field caused by the current?
A C
wire with
current out
of page

332
13
9 The north pole of a bar magnet is placed next to end P of an iron bar PQ, as shown. As a result,
magnetic poles are induced in the iron bar.
S N P Q
magnet iron bar
What are the magnetic poles induced at P and at Q?
magnetic pole at P magnetic pole at Q
A north north
B north south
C south north
D south south
10 An electromagnet is used to separate magnetic metals from non-magnetic metals.
Why is steel unsuitable as the core of the electromagnet?
A It forms a permanent magnet.

B It has a high density.
C It has a high thermal capacity.
D It is a good conductor of electricity.
Which particle does not experience a force due to an electric field?
A α-particle
B electron
C neutron
D proton

333
13
11 A piece of iron and a piece of steel are picked up by an electromagnet as shown.
electromagnet
N S
steel iron
The current to the electromagnet is switched off.
What happens?
A Both the iron and the steel remain magnetised.

B Neither the iron nor the steel remain magnetised.
C Only the iron remains magnetised.
D Only the steel remains magnetised.
12 A coil is connected to a battery and a soft iron bar is hung near to it.
soft iron
coil
The current is then reversed by reversing the battery connections.
How does the soft iron bar behave in the two cases?
with the battery as shown with the battery reversed
A attracted to the coil attracted to the coil

B attracted to the coil repelled from the coil
C repelled from the coil attracted to the coil
D repelled from the coil repelled from the coil

334
13 Which statement about a magnet is not correct?
A It can attract another magnet.

B It can attract an unmagnetised piece of iron.
C It can repel another magnet.
D It can repel an unmagnetised piece of iron.
14 A chain of steel nails and a chain of iron nails hang from a strong magnet. The chains are then
carefully removed from the magnet.
magnet
steel iron
What happens to the chains?
A Both chains fall apart.

B Both chains stay together.
C Only the chain of iron nails falls apart.
D Only the chain of steel nails falls apart.
15 In two separate experiments, a magnet is brought near to an unmagnetised iron bar. This causes
the bar to become magnetised.
experiment 1 N magnet S X iron bar
experiment 2 S magnet N iron bar Y
Which magnetic poles are induced at X and at Y?
pole induced at X pole induced at Y
A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

335
13
16 Which test could be used to find which end of a magnet is the north pole?
A putting it near a compass needle

B putting it near a ferrous metal
C putting it near a non-ferrous metal
D putting it near a steel spoon
17 A horseshoe magnet is brought near to an unmagnetised iron bar.
N S
iron bar
Which row in the table shows the magnetic poles induced in the iron bar and the direction of the
forces between the bar and the magnet?
magnetic poles induced force between iron bar

in iron bar and magnet
A N S attraction
B N S repulsion
C S N attraction
D S N repulsion

336
14
18 Four nails, A, B, C and D, are tested to find which makes the strongest permanent magnet.
nail
N S
bar magnet
paper clips
One of the nails is placed against a bar magnet and the number of paper clips which the nail can
support is recorded. The bar magnet is then removed and the number of paper clips remaining
attached to the nail is recorded. Each nail is tested in turn.
Which nail becomes the strongest permanent magnet?
number of paper clips attached to the nail

nail
bar magnet present bar magnet removed
A 2 0
B 2 1
C 4 3
D 5 2
19 Which diagram represents the direction of the magnetic field around a straight wire carrying a
current out of the page?
A B
current out
of page
C D
current out
of page

337
12
20 Which statement describes a property of a magnet?
A It attracts ferrous materials.

B It could have only one pole (north or south).
C It points in a random direction when suspended.
D It repels non-ferrous materials.
21 Which procedure may be used to demagnetise a steel bar?
A cooling it in a freezer
B earthing it with a copper wire
C placing it in a solenoid carrying a large direct current (d.c.)
D striking it repeatedly with a hammer
22 Some electrical devices require a magnet which may be switched on and off many times in a
second.
Which type of magnet may be used?
A an electromagnet only
B a permanent magnet only
C either a permanent magnet or an electromagnet
D neither a permanent magnet nor an electromagnet
23 Two soft-iron rods are placed end to end inside a coil which is connected to a battery.
coil
soft-iron rod soft-iron rod
The connections from the battery to the coil are now reversed.
What happens to the soft-iron rods in each case?
battery connections battery connections

as shown reversed
A rods attract rods attract
B rods attract rods repel
C rods repel rods attract
D rods repel rods repel

338
24 The diagram shows a wire in the magnetic field between two poles of a magnet.
magnet
N S
wire
The current in the wire repeatedly changes between a constant value in one direction and a
constant value in the opposite direction. This is shown on the graph.
current
0
0 time
What is the effect on the wire?
A The force on the wire alternates between one direction and the opposite direction.
B The force on the wire is constant in size and direction.
C There is no force acting on the wire at any time.
D There is only a force on the wire when the current reverses.
25 Which statement about magnetism is correct?
A Aluminium is a ferrous metal.

B A steel magnet can be demagnetised by heating it.
C The core of an electromagnet is usually made of steel.
D The magnetic field lines around a bar magnet are evenly spaced.

339
26 A hard magnetic material can be used to make a permanent magnet.
A soft magnetic material can be used to make a temporary magnet.
Which row shows whether iron and steel are hard or soft magnetic materials?
iron steel
A hard hard
B hard soft
C soft hard
D soft soft
27 How can a permanent magnet be demagnetised?
A cool the magnet for a long time

B hit the magnet repeatedly with a hammer
C leave the magnet in a coil which is connected to a battery
D shine bright light onto the magnet
28 The diagram shows a simple d.c. electric motor which is rotating.
coil
magnet S N magnet
Which change will make the motor rotate more quickly?
A increasing the number of turns on the coil

B removing the magnets
C reversing the battery
D reversing the polarity of the magnets

340
12
29 A steel magnet is placed inside a coil of wire. There is a large alternating current in the coil. The
magnet is slowly moved out of the coil to position P.
coil of wire
steel magnet moved

out of coil P
12 V a.c.
How has the steel changed, if at all, when it reaches position P?
A It has become a stronger magnet.

B It has become demagnetised.
C The poles have changed ends.
D There has been no change.
30 An electric current is passed through a coil of wire.
coil of wire
Which diagram shows the shape of the magnetic field produced in the middle of the coil?
A B
C D

341
12
31 The ends of three metal rods are tested by holding end Q of rod 1 close to the others in turn.
R T
Q S U
rod 1 rod 2 rod 3
The results are as follows.
End Q: attracts end R,

attracts end S,
attracts end T,
repels end U.
Which of the metal rods is a magnet?
A rod 1 only
B rod 1 and rod 2
C rod 1 and rod 3
D rod 3 only
32 A permanent magnet is made from metal and an electromagnet uses a metal core.
Which metal is suitable for each of these purposes?
permanent core of
magnet electromagnet
A iron iron
B iron steel
C steel iron
D steel steel
33 Which diagram shows the magnetic field pattern around a wire that is carrying a current
perpendicular to the page?
A B C D
wire wire

342
18
34 A wire perpendicular to the page carries an electric current in a direction out of the page. There
are four compasses near the wire.
Which compass shows the direction of the magnetic field caused by the current?
B
A C
wire with
current out
of page
35 A wire is placed between the poles of a horseshoe magnet. There is a current in the wire in the
direction shown, and this causes a force to act on the wire.
magnet
current
N
wire S
force
Three other arrangements, P, Q and R, of the wire and magnet are set up as shown.
P Q R
S N S
N S N
magnet turned around current direction reversed current direction reversed

and magnet turned around
Which arrangement or arrangements will cause a force in the same direction as the original
arrangement?
A P, Q and R B P and Q only C P only D R only

343
14
36 The diagram shows apparatus that can be used to make a magnet.
power supply
metal
coil
Which metal and which power supply are used to make a permanent magnet?
metal power supply
A iron 6 V a.c.
B iron 6 V d.c.
C steel 6 V a.c.
D steel 6 V d.c.
37 Small particles of metal are scattered near a bar magnet to show the pattern of the magnetic
field.
Which metal is suitable?
A aluminium
B brass
C copper
D iron
38 A permanent magnet is brought near to a piece of copper. The copper is not attracted by the
magnet.
Why is there no attraction?
A Copper is ferrous but is only attracted by an electromagnet.

B Copper is ferrous but is not attracted by any type of magnet.
C Copper is not ferrous and is only attracted by an electromagnet.
D Copper is not ferrous and is not attracted by any type of magnet.

344
18
39 There is an electric current in a straight wire in the direction into the page. This produces a
magnetic field around the wire. All the field lines are circles but only one field line is shown.
magnetic field line
wire with current

into the page
Which row describes the magnetic field?
direction of spacing of
the field lines the field lines
A anti-clockwise evenly spaced over

the whole field
B anti-clockwise more widely spaced
further from the wire
C clockwise evenly spaced over
the whole field
D clockwise more widely spaced
further from the wire
40 A wire carrying a current is placed in a magnetic field. The wire experiences a force due to the
field.
Which action does not change the direction of the force?
A increasing the current and reversing the field direction

B increasing the current, keeping the field direction constant
C reversing the current and increasing the field strength
D reversing the current, keeping the field direction constant
41 Which line in the table shows whether iron and steel are ferrous or non-ferrous materials?
iron steel
A ferrous ferrous
B ferrous non-ferrous
C non-ferrous ferrous
D non-ferrous non-ferrous
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345
42 A student wishes to demagnetise a steel bar. He uses the apparatus shown.
coil
electrical
supply
steel bar
Which type of electrical supply should the student use and what should he do with the steel bar?
supply what to do with the steel bar
A a.c. keep it inside the coil

B a.c. slowly remove it from the coil
C d.c. keep it inside the coil
D d.c. slowly remove it from the coil
43 A magnet is placed on a balance. The balance reading changes when an iron bar or another
magnet is held close to the first magnet.
The arrangements are shown in the diagrams.
S
iron bar
N
S S S
N N N
100 g g g
diagram 1 diagram 2 diagram 3
Which row gives the balance reading in diagram 2 and in diagram 3?
balance reading in diagram 2 balance reading in diagram 3

/g /g
A less than 100 less than 100

B less than 100 more than 100
C more than 100 less than 100
D more than 100 more than 100

346
44 A magnet attracts two pieces of iron.
iron
N S
What is the arrangement of the induced poles in the pieces of iron?
A N S S N
B N S N S
C S N S N
D S N N S
45 Two bars of soft iron are placed near a bar magnet.
bar magnet soft iron soft iron
S N P Q
Which row states and explains the behaviour of poles P and Q of the soft iron bars?
P and Q reason
A attract P and Q are like poles

B attract P and Q are unlike poles
C repel P and Q are like poles
D repel P and Q are unlike poles

347
46 Two iron nails hang from a bar magnet.
Which diagram shows the magnetic poles induced in the nails?
A B C D
bar N N N N
magnet
S S S S
N S N S
S N S N
N N S S
S S N N
47 The diagram shows apparatus that can be used to make a magnet.
power supply
metal
coil
Which metal and which power supply are used to make a permanent magnet?
metal power supply
A iron 6 V a.c.
B iron 6 V d.c.
C steel 6 V a.c.
D steel 6 V d.c.

348
13
48 An electromagnet with a soft-iron core is connected to a battery and an open switch. The soft-iron
core is just above some small soft-iron nails.
electromagnet
soft-iron core
soft-iron nails
The switch is now closed, left closed for a few seconds, and then opened.
What do the soft-iron nails do as the switch is closed, and what do they do when the switch is
then opened?
as switch is closed as switch is opened
A nails jump up nails fall down

B nails jump up nails stay up
C nails stay down nails jump up
D nails stay down nails stay down
49 Which diagram shows the pattern of the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying solenoid?
A B C D
solenoid solenoid solenoid solenoid
50 Which procedure may be used to demagnetise a steel bar?
A cooling it in a freezer for several hours

B earthing it with a copper wire for several seconds
C removing it slowly from a coil carrying an alternating current (a.c.)
D rubbing it in one direction with a woollen cloth

349
51 Which row states whether each metal is ferrous or non-ferrous?
ferrous non-ferrous
A aluminium copper
B copper iron
C iron steel
D steel aluminium
52 A current-carrying coil in a magnetic field experiences a turning effect.
power supply
+ –
N S
coil
How can the turning effect be increased?
A Increase the number of turns on the coil.

B Reduce the size of the current.
C Reverse the direction of the magnetic field.
D Use thinner wire for the coil.
53 A strong electromagnet is used to attract pins.
current core
coil
pins
What happens when the current in the coil is halved?

A No pins are attracted.
B Some pins are attracted, but not as many.
C The same number of pins is attracted.
D More pins are attracted.

350
54 The diagram shows a shaded area where the direction of a magnetic field is into the page.
A beam of β-particles enters the field as shown.
magnetic field
into the page
beam of
β-particles
In which direction is the beam of β-particles deflected as they enter the magnetic field?
A into the page

B out of the page
C down the page
D up the page
55 A simple d.c. electric motor is fitted with a coil that rotates in a magnetic field. A commutator
connects the power supply to the coil.
What is the purpose of the commutator?
A It converts a.c. into d.c. in the coil.

B It prevents the current from becoming too great, because the coil has a low resistance.
C It reverses the direction of the current in the coil after every 180° rotation of the coil.
D It switches the current off momentarily after every 90° rotation of the coil.
56 How can a permanent magnet be demagnetised?
A Cool the magnet for a long time.

B Place it next to another magnet.
C Slowly pull it out of a coil connected to an a.c. supply.
D Slowly pull it out of a coil connected to a d.c. supply.
© UCLES 2016 0625/21/M/J/16

351
13
57 In a child’s toy, metal fish are lifted out of a toy pond using a metal rod. The fish are magnetically
attracted to the end of the rod. There is no magnetic force between the fish themselves.
metal rod
toy pond
metal fish
What are possible materials from which the fish and the rod are made?
fish rod
A aluminium soft iron

B aluminium steel
C soft iron soft iron
D soft iron steel
58 What is the most effective method of demagnetising a bar magnet?
A placing the magnet in a solenoid carrying a large alternating current and gradually
decreasing the current
B placing the magnet in a solenoid carrying a large direct current and gradually decreasing the
current
C placing the magnet in a solenoid that produces a magnetic field in the opposite direction to
the magnet
D placing the magnet next to an identical bar magnet with its poles in the opposite direction
59 A magnet near a coil of wire is attracted to the coil only when there is a current in the coil.
Which statement explains this force of attraction?
A The coil of wire has its own gravitational field.

B The coil of wire is made from soft iron.
C The current in the coil of wire creates a magnetic field.
D The current in the coil of wire induces a charge on the magnet.

352
14
60 A train of steel nails and a train of iron nails hang from a strong magnet.
magnet
train of train of
steel nails iron nails
The trains are then carefully removed from the magnet.
What happens to the trains?
A Both trains fall apart.

B Both trains stay together.
C Only the train of iron nails falls apart.
D Only the train of steel nails falls apart.
61 A permanent magnet is placed close to a bar of soft iron.
permanent
S N P Q soft iron bar
magnet
What are the polarities of end P and of end Q?
end P end Q
A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S
62 A steel magnet is placed inside a coil of wire.
Which method is used to demagnetise the magnet?
A connect the coil to an a.c. power supply

B connect the coil to an a.c. power supply and slowly remove the magnet from the coil
C connect the coil to a d.c. power supply
D connect the coil to a d.c. power supply and slowly remove the magnet from the coil

353
63 The diagram shows a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field.
Which arrow shows the direction of the force acting on the conductor?
S D B N
64 A bar magnet is placed inside a current-carrying coil. The diagram shows four different
experiments.
1 2
magnet slowly magnet slowly

removed removed
+ –
3 4
current in coil current in coil

slowly reduced slowly reduced
+ –
In which experiments is the magnet demagnetised?

354
14
655 There is a current of 3.0 A in a conductor.
The current is changed to 6.0 A in the opposite direction.
Which effect does this have on the magnetic field around the conductor?
A It decreases and it acts in the opposite direction.

B It decreases and it acts in the same direction.
C It increases and it acts in the opposite direction.
D It increases and it acts in the same direction.
666 A wire is placed in a strong magnetic field. When a current is passed through the wire it moves
upwards, as shown.
movement
N
The current is reversed.
In which direction does the wire move?
A downwards
B towards the north pole
C towards the south pole
D upwards
67 What is the purpose of the commutator in a d.c. electric motor?
A to control the speed at which the motor rotates

B to reverse the direction of the voltage across the power supply every half-turn
C to reverse the direction of the current in the motor coil every half-turn
D to reverse the direction of spin of the motor coil every half-turn
© UCLES 2018 0625/21/O/N/18

355
68 A steel bar is placed in an East-West direction for it to be demagnetised. No other magnet is

nearby.
Which method is not suitable?
A Hammering the bar.

B Heating the bar to a very high temperature.
C Slowly taking the bar out of a coil that carries an alternating current.
D Slowly taking the bar out of a coil that carries a direct current.
69 There is a current in a wire. The direction of the current is out of the page.
Which diagram shows the magnetic field pattern produced?
A B
key
wire carrying a current
out of the page
C D

356
0625
Physics

Chapter 19
Electromagnetic Induction


357
1 A coil is rotated steadily between the poles of a magnet. The coil is connected to an oscilloscope,
which shows a graph of voltage output against time.
N S oscilloscope
contact
contact
Which graph shows the voltage output against time?
A B C D
2 The diagram shows a lamp connected to a transformer.
40 turns 200 turns
12 V a.c.
What is the potential difference across the lamp?

A 2.4 V B 12 V C 60 V D 240 V
3 A student investigates the output voltage induced across a coil of wire by a bar magnet.
When will the induced voltage have the greatest value?
A The student slowly moves the bar magnet into the coil of wire.
B The student leaves the bar magnet stationary in the coil of wire.
C The student quickly removes the bar magnet from the coil of wire.
D The student places the bar magnet at rest outside the coil of wire.

358
16
4 How is electricity transmitted over large distances and why is it transmitted in this way?
how why
A at high voltage for safety

B at high voltage to reduce energy loss
C at low voltage for safety
D at low voltage to reduce energy loss
5 Which parts of an a.c. generator slide past each other when the generator is working?
A brushes and coil

B coil and magnets
C magnets and slip rings
D slip rings and brushes
6 The wire XY shown in the diagram is connected to a sensitive voltmeter with a centre zero. XY is
then moved quickly once through the magnetic field.
S
V
N
movement
What is observed on the voltmeter?
A The needle moves briefly in one direction and then returns to the centre.
B The needle moves quickly in one direction and stays deflected.
C The needle vibrates rapidly from side to side whilst XY is moving.
D The needle stays still.

359
16
7 The diagram shows a transformer connected to a 240 V a.c. supply.
soft-iron core
primary coil
secondary coil
60 turns
30 turns
240 V
a.c.
What is the potential difference across the secondary coil of the transformer?
A 30 V B 120 V C 240 V D 480 V
8 Two different systems are used to transmit equal amounts of electrical power from one building to
another.
One system uses low voltage and the other uses high voltage. Both systems use identical wires.
Which line in the table is correct about which system wastes least energy and why?
least energy wasted why
A high voltage system the current in the wires is bigger

B high voltage system the current in the wires is smaller
C low voltage system the current in the wires is bigger
D low voltage system the current in the wires is smaller
9 A transformer has 50 turns on its primary coil and 100 turns on its secondary coil. An alternating
voltage of 25.0 V is connected across the primary coil.
25.0 V
primary coil secondary coil

50 turns 100 turns
What is the voltage across the secondary coil?
A 12.5 V B 50.0 V C 175 V D 200 V

360
14
10 Which device is designed to allow a small direct current (d.c.) to control a large direct current
(d.c.)?
A a generator
B a motor
C a relay
D a transformer
11 A transformer is to be used to provide a 10 V output from a 100 V supply.
100 V 10 V
What are suitable numbers of turns for the primary coil and for the secondary coil?
number of turns on number of turns on

the primary coil the secondary coil
A 100 1000
B 200 110
C 400 490
D 800 80
12 A transformer has 15 000 turns on its primary coil and 750 turns on its secondary coil.
Connected in this way, for what purpose could this transformer be used?
A to convert the 8000 V a.c. output of a power station to 160 000 V for long-distance power
transmission
B to convert the 160 000 V d.c. supply from a power line to 8000 V for local power transmission
C to use a 12 V d.c. supply to operate a 240 V razor
D to use a 240 V a.c. mains supply to operate a 12 V motor

361
16
13 A coil is rotated steadily between the poles of a magnet. The coil is connected to an oscilloscope.
N S oscilloscope
contact
contact
Which graph shows the output voltage V against time t ?
A B C D
V V V V
t t t t
14 A village has to be supplied with electricity from a power station that is a long way from the
village.
Which type of current should be used, and at which voltage?
type of current voltage
A alternating current high voltage

B alternating current low voltage
C direct current high voltage
D direct current low voltage
15 The diagram shows a simple step-down transformer used to decrease a voltage.
Which part is the primary coil?
B C D

362
17
16 A magnet is suspended from a spring so that it can move freely inside a coil. The coil is
connected to a sensitive centre-zero ammeter.
spring
moving magnet
N
centre-zero ammeter
stationary coil S
What does the ammeter show when the magnet repeatedly moves slowly up and down?
A a reading constantly changing from left to right and right to left

B a steady reading to the left
C a steady reading to the right
D a steady reading of zero
17 The diagram shows a coil connected to a battery and a switch. Two unmagnetised iron bars hang
freely near opposite ends of the coil.
coil
X Y
iron bar iron bar
What happens to the iron bars when the switch is closed?
A Both X and Y move away from the coil.

B Both X and Y move towards the coil.
C X moves towards the coil, Y moves away from the coil.
D Y moves towards the coil, X moves away from the coil.

363
18
18 The diagram shows an a.c. generator.
rotation
of coil
coil
N S
output voltage
With the coil in the position shown, the output voltage is +10 V.
When does the output voltage become –10 V?
A when the coil has turned 90°
B when the coil has turned 180°
C when the coil has turned 270°
D when the coil has turned 360°
19 The diagram shows a simple transformer.
core
input output
From which material should the core be made?
A aluminium
B copper
C iron
D steel

364
20 The diagram shows a mains transformer that has an output voltage of 12 V.
coil with
1000 turns soft-iron core
240 V a.c. 12 V a.c.

input output
How many turns of wire are in the secondary coil?
A 12 B 20 C 50 D 20 000
21 The diagram shows an experiment to demonstrate electromagnetic induction.
X
A
wire
N S
X and Y are joined, in turn, by four wires, each made of a different material.
Each wire is then moved quickly downwards between the magnets.
Which material will not give rise to an induced current in the wire?
A aluminium
B copper
C iron
D nylon

365
22 Which diagram shows a movement that will not produce the changing magnetic field needed to
induce an e.m.f. in the coil?
N S
A moving a magnet and a coil towards each other
at the same speed
N S
moving a magnet and a coil in the same direction
B at the same speed
N S
C moving a magnet away from a fixed coil
N S
D moving a coil away from a fixed magnet
23 A transformer is needed to convert a supply of 240 V a.c. into 4800 V a.c.
NP NS
240 V a.c. 4800 V a.c.
Which pair of coils would be suitable for this transformer?
number of turns number of turns

on primary coil NP on secondary coil NS
A 50 1000
B 240 48 000
C 480 24
D 2000 100

366
17
24 When a wire is moved upwards between the poles of a magnet, an electromotive force (e.m.f.) is
induced across the ends of the wire.
motion
of wire
N wire
Which device uses a moving wire to induce an e.m.f.?
A a cathode-ray tube
B a generator
C a transformer
D an electromagnet
25 An input voltage of 10 V is supplied to the primary coil of a transformer. An output voltage of 40 V

is produced across the secondary coil.
The 10 V supply at the primary coil is now replaced with a 40 V supply.
What is the new output voltage across the secondary coil?
A 10 V B 40 V C 70 V D 160 V
26 The diagram shows a simple transformer with an input of 240 V and an output of 40 V.
There are 600 turns on the primary coil.
600
input 240 V 40 V output
turns
How many turns are there on the secondary coil?
A 100 B 320 C 400 D 3600

367
27 The diagram shows cables used in the transmission of electrical energy. High voltages are used
for the transmission.
transmission cables
power
station
Why are high voltages used for the transmission of electrical energy?
A Fear of high voltages stops people from interfering with the cables.
B Heat loss in the cables is smaller than if low voltages are used.
C High voltages increase the current in the cables.
D High voltages produce large magnetic fields, so less insulation is needed.
28 A transformer has 50 turns on its primary coil and 100 turns on its secondary coil. An alternating
voltage of 25.0 V is connected across the primary coil.
25.0 V

50 turns 100 turns
What is the voltage across the secondary coil?
A 12.5 V B 50.0 V C 100 V D 200 V
29 What is an advantage of transmitting electricity at a high voltage?
A It is faster.
B It is safer.
C Less energy is wasted.
D Less equipment is needed.

368
30 A step-up transformer is used before electricity is transmitted by overhead cables.
Which statement explains why the step-up transformer is used?
A It increases the current to increase the speed at which the electricity travels.
B It increases the current to reduce energy loss in the cables.
C It increases the voltage to increase the speed at which the electricity travels.
D It increases the voltage to reduce energy loss in the cables.
31 The diagram shows a transformer.
input output
voltage voltage

800 turns 40 turns
The input voltage is 240 V.
What is the output voltage?
A 6.0 V B 12 V C 20 V D 40 V
32 In two separate experiments, a magnet is brought near to an unmagnetised iron bar. This causes
the bar to become magnetised.
experiment 1 N magnet S X iron bar
experiment 2 S magnet N iron bar Y
Which magnetic pole is induced at X and at Y?
pole induced at X pole induced at Y
A N N
B N S
C S N
D S S

369
18
33 The diagram shows a copper wire XY connected to a resistor.
The wire is moved in the magnetic field between the poles of a magnet.
There is an induced current in the wire from X to Y.
In which labelled direction is the wire moving?
X
B
A C
N S
D
34 The graph shows how the voltage induced across a coil changes with time as the coil spins in a
magnetic field.
voltage
0
0 time
Which graph shows what happens when the coil spins more quickly?
(All graphs are drawn to the same scale.)
A B
voltage voltage
0 0
0 time 0 time
C D
voltage voltage
0 0
0 time 0 time
© UCLES 2017 0625/21/O/N/17

370
13
35 Which statement about electromagnetic induction is correct?
A A strong magnet that is held stationary near a stationary conductor causes a greater effect
than a weak magnet.
B The effect occurs when a magnet and a conductor are both moved with the same speed and
in the same direction.
C The effect occurs when a magnet is moved away from a nearby conductor.
D The effect only occurs when a magnet is moved towards a conductor.
36 Power losses in transmission cables are reduced by increasing the transmission voltage.
What is the explanation for this reduction?
A The current decreases, reducing thermal energy losses.

B The current increases, increasing the flow of charge.
C The resistance of the cable increases, reducing the current.
D The resistance of the cable decreases.
37 The diagram shows a wire between two magnetic poles. The wire is connected in a circuit with an
ammeter.
wire
N S
A
The wire is moved downwards, towards the bottom of the page. A current is induced in the wire.
In which direction is the force on the wire caused by this current?
A towards the bottom of the page

B towards the left of the page
C towards the right of the page
D towards the top of the page

371
Physics
0625
Unit 5
Atomic Physics
and Radioactivity

Chapter 20

372
0625
Physics

Chapter 20
Nuclear Atom and
Radioactivity


373
1 What are the most penetrating and the least penetrating types of radiation?
most penetrating least penetrating
A α-particles β-particles
B β-particles α-particles
C γ-rays α-particles
D γ-rays β-particles
2 The half-life of a radioactive substance is 5 hours. A sample is tested and found to contain 0.48 g
of the substance.
How much of the substance was present in the sample 20 hours before the sample was tested?
A 0.03 g B 0.12 g C 1.92 g D 7.68 g
3 The data below relates to the nucleus of a particular neutral atom of nitrogen.
proton number Z=7

nucleon number A = 17
Which row represents the correct number of neutrons and electrons in this atom?
number of neutrons number of electrons
A 10 7
B 10 10
C 17 7
D 17 10
4 A sample of radioactive isotope is decaying.
The nuclei of which atoms will decay first?
A impossible to know, because radioactive decay is random

B impossible to know, unless the age of the material is known
C atoms near the centre, because they are surrounded by more atoms
D atoms near the surface, because the radiation can escape more easily

374
5 A sheet of paper is placed between a radioactive source and a detector.
radioactive detector
source sheet of paper
Which types of radiation can pass through the paper?
A α-particles and β-particles only
B α-particles and γ-rays only
C β-particles and γ-rays only
D α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays
6 An atom of the element lithium has a nucleon number of 7 and a proton number of 3.
Which diagram represents a neutral atom of lithium?
A B
– –
n + +
+ + +
+ n n key
n = a neutron
– –
+ = a proton
–
– = an electron
C D (not to scale)
– –
– –
n n
+n+ +n+
n n n n
+ +
– –
– –
–

375
7 What is a β-particle and from which part of a radioactive atom is it emitted?
β-particle emitted from
A electron nucleus
B electron outer orbits
C helium nucleus nucleus
D helium nucleus outer orbits
8 A sample of radioactive uranium has mass 1 g. Another sample of the same material has
mass 2 g.
Which property is the same for both samples?
A the amount of radiation emitted per second

B the half-life
C the number of uranium atoms
D the volume
9 A particular nuclide has the symbol 37

17 Cl .
What is true for atoms of this nuclide?
A There are 17 nucleons in the nucleus.

B There are 17 protons in the nucleus.
C There are 37 electrons in the nucleus.
D There are 37 neutrons in the nucleus.
10 A uranium 238
92 U nucleus emits an α-particle.
What are the new nucleon and proton numbers?
nucleon number proton number
A 238 88
B 236 90
C 234 92
D 234 90

376
11 The diagram shows an experiment to monitor the radiation from a radioactive gas. The counter
readings are corrected for background radiation.
counter
000.0
radioactive gas
The table shows how the counter reading varies with time.
time / seconds 0 20 40 60 80 100 120 140 160 180

counter reading /
140 105 82 61 44 36 27 20 15 10
counts per minute
What is the half-life of the gas?
A between 20 and 40 seconds

B between 40 and 60 seconds
C between 60 and 140 seconds
D between 140 and 180 seconds
12 Which material is commonly used as a lining for a box for storing radioactive samples?
A aluminium
B copper
C lead
D uranium
13 A radioactive nucleus contains 138 neutrons. The nucleus emits an α-particle.
How many neutrons are in the nucleus after it has emitted the α-particle?
A 134 B 136 C 138 D 139

377
19
14 The graph shows the decay curve for one particular radioactive nuclide.
2500
count rate
counts / min
2000
1500
1000
500
0
0 1 2 3 4 5
time / days
What is the half-life of this nuclide?
A 1.0 day B 1.5 days C 2.0 days D 2.5 days
15 16
7N is the symbol for a particular nuclide of nitrogen.
How many nucleons does this nuclide contain?
A 7 B 9 C 16 D 23
16 Which statement explains the meaning of the half-life of a radioactive substance?
A half the time taken for half the substance to decay

B half the time taken for the substance to decay completely
C the time taken for half the substance to decay
D the time taken for the substance to decay completely

378
17 The diagram shows the paths of three different types of radiation, X, Y and Z.
2 mm of 10 mm lead
plastic of aluminium
Which row in the table correctly identifies X, Y and Z?
X Y Z
A α-particles β-particles γ-rays

B β-particles α-particles γ-rays
C β-particles γ-rays α-particles
D γ-rays α-particles β-particles
18 A radioactive element has a half-life of 70 s.
The number of emissions per second, N, of a sample of the element is measured at a certain
time.
What was the number of emissions per second 70 s earlier?
A 0 B N/2 C N D 2N
19 S is a radioactive source emitting α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays. A detector is placed 5 cm

away from S. A thin sheet of paper is placed as shown in the diagram.
thin sheet of paper
S detector
5 cm
Which radiations can be detected?

379
16
20 How many neutrons and how many protons are contained in a nucleus of 92 U ?
238
neutrons protons
A 92 146
B 146 92
C 146 238
D 238 92
21 Which row describes the properties of α-particles?
ionizing radiation stopped

effect by aluminium?
A large no
B large yes
C small no
D small yes
22 A radioactive substance has a half-life of 2 weeks. At the beginning of an investigation the

substance emits 3000 β-particles per minute.
How many β-particles will it emit per minute after 6 weeks?
A 0 B 375 C 500 D 1500
23 88 Ra .
The nuclide notation for radium-226 is 226
How many electrons orbit the nucleus of a neutral atom of radium-226?
A 0 B 88 C 138 D 226

380
24 In the atomic model, an atom consists of a central mass, orbited by much smaller particles.
central
mass
orbiting
particles
What is the name of the central mass and of the orbiting particles?
central mass orbiting particles
A neutron α-particles
B neutron electrons
C nucleus α-particles
D nucleus electrons
25127
58 A scientist needs to use a source of γ-rays as safely as possible.
Which action will not reduce the amount of radiation that reaches the scientist?
A keeping the distance between the source and the scientist as large as possible
B keeping the temperature of the source as low as possible
C keeping the time for which the scientist uses the source as small as possible
D placing a lead screen between the scientist and the source
26 A powder contains 400 mg of a radioactive material that emits α-particles.
The half-life of the material is 5 days.
What mass of that material remains after 10 days?
A 0 mg B 40 mg C 100 mg D 200 mg

381
19
27 An atom of the element lithium has a nucleon number of 7 and a proton number of 3.
Which diagram represents a neutral atom of lithium?
A B
– –
n + +
+ + +
+ n n key
n = a neutron
– –
+ = a proton
–
– = an electron
C D (not to scale)
– –
– –
n n
+n+ +n+
n n n n
+ +
– –
– –
–
28 A nuclide of substance X has the symbol 26

12 X .
How many electrons are there in a neutral atom of substance X?
A 12 B 14 C 26 D 38

382
20
29 The graph shows the activity of a radioactive source over a period of time.
2000
activity
/ counts per
second
1500
1000
500
0
0 1 2 3
time / hour
What is the half-life of the source?
1
A hour B 1 hour C 1 1 hours D 3 hours
2 2
30 How does the ionising effect of α-particles compare with that of β-particles and γ-rays?
compared with β-particles compared with γ-rays
A α-particles are less strongly ionising α-particles are less strongly ionising
B α-particles are less strongly ionising α-particles are more strongly ionising
C α-particles are more strongly ionising α-particles are less strongly ionising
D α-particles are more strongly ionising α-particles are more strongly ionising
31 The table shows the count rates obtained from four radioactive sources. The measurements were
taken at noon on four consecutive days.
Which source has the longest half-life?
count rate /.counts per second

day 1 day 2 day 3 day 4
A 100 48 27 11
B 200 142 99 69
C 300 297 292 290
D 400 202 99 48

383
17
32 A radioactive nucleus emits a β-particle.
β-particle
nucleus
What happens to the proton number (atomic number) of the nucleus?
A It stays the same.

B It increases by 1.
C It decreases by 2.
D It decreases by 4.
33 The diagram shows the paths of three different types of radiation, X, Y and Z.
2 mm of 10 mm of 50 mm
plastic aluminium of lead
Which row in the table correctly identifies X, Y and Z?
X Y Z

34 Which diagram could represent the structure of a neutral atom?
A B C D
key
– – – –
neutron
++ ++ + proton
+ ++
+ – electron
– – –

384
20
35 The graph shows how the count rate on a detector due to a radioactive source changes with time.
4800
count rate
counts per minute
2400
0
0 1 2 3 4 5
time / hours
What is the count rate at 5.0 hours?
A 960 counts per minute

B 600 counts per minute
C 150 counts per minute
D 0 counts per minute
36 The diagram represents a carbon atom.
––
––
key
neutron
+ + + proton
+ + – electron
+
+
––
What is the nucleon number (mass number) for this atom?
A 6 B 8 C 14 D 20
37 Which statement about a carbon nucleus represented by 146 C is correct?
A It contains 6 neutrons.
B It contains 6 electrons.
C It contains 8 protons.
D It contains 14 nucleons.

385
38 A radioactive substance emits a particle from the nucleus of one of its atoms. The particle
consists of two protons and two neutrons.
What is the name of this process?
A α-emission
B β-emission
C γ-emission
D nuclear fission
39 A nucleus X has 17 protons and 18 neutrons.
Which notation is correct for this nucleus?

17 17 18 35
A 18 X B 35 X C 17 X D 17 X
40 The diagram shows a radioactive source, a thick aluminium sheet and a radiation detector.
radioactive thick aluminium radiation detector

source sheet
The radiation detector shows a reading greater than the background reading.
Which type of radiation is being emitted by the source and detected by the detector?
A α-radiation
B β-radiation
C γ-radiation
D infra-red radiation

386
18
41 The table shows the results of an experiment to find the half-life of a radioactive substance.
count rate from substance

time / s
counts / second
0 150
60 120
120 95
180 75
240 60
What is the half-life of the substance?
A 60 seconds
B 120 seconds
C 180 seconds
D 240 seconds
42 The diagram shows a box used for storing radioactive sources.
Which material is best for lining the box to prevent the escape of most radioactive emissions?
A aluminium
B copper
C lead
D steel
43 A lithium nucleus contains 3 protons and 4 neutrons.
What is its nuclide notation?

3 4 7 7
A 4 Li B 3 Li C 3 Li D 4 Li

387
17
44 The count rate from a radioactive isotope is recorded every hour. The count rate is corrected for
background radiation.
The table shows the readings.
time / hours 0 1 2 3 4 5
corrected count rate

800 620 480 370 290 220
counts / s
What estimate of the half-life of the isotope can be obtained from the readings in the table?
A between 1 and 2 hours

B between 2 and 3 hours
C between 3 and 4 hours
D between 4 and 5 hours
45
P
A nuclide is represented by the symbol Q X.
How many neutrons are in one nucleus of the nuclide?
A P B Q C P+Q D P–Q
46 A particular nuclide has the symbol 37

17 Cl .
What is true for atoms of this nuclide?
A There are 17 nucleons in the nucleus.

B There are 17 protons in the nucleus.
C There are 37 electrons in the nucleus.
D There are 37 neutrons in the nucleus.
47 A powder contains 400 mg of a radioactive isotope that emits α-particles.
The half-life of the isotope is 5 days.
What mass of this isotope remains after 10 days?
A 0 mg B 40 mg C 100 mg D 200 mg

388
23
48 A beam of γ-rays passes between two charged metal plates as shown in the diagram.
γ-rays
How do the γ-rays pass between the two charged plates?
A The rays are deflected in a direction perpendicular to the page

B The rays are deflected towards the negative plate.
C The rays are deflected towards the positive plate.
D The rays will continue in the same direction.
49 A powder contains 400 mg of a radioactive isotope that emits α-particles.
The half-life of the isotope is 5 days.
What mass of this isotope remains after 10 days?
A 0 mg B 40 mg C 100 mg D 200 mg
18
50 In a laboratory, a detector of ionising radiation records an average background count rate of

8 counts per second.
detector
counts / s
A radioactive source is now placed close to the detector. The count rate on the detector rises to
200 counts per second.
detector
counts / s
radioactive
source
What is the count rate due to radiation from the radioactive source?
A 25 counts / s
B 192 counts / s
C 200 counts / s
D 208 counts / s

389
51 14
6C is a nuclide of carbon.
What is the composition of one nucleus of this nuclide?
neutrons protons
A 6 8
B 6 14
C 8 6
D 14 6
52 The diagram shows cathode rays entering an electric field between two charged plates.
+ + + + + +
cathode rays
– – – – – –
How does the path of the cathode rays change and why?
A They move towards the negative plate because cathode rays have a negative charge.
B They move towards the negative plate because cathode rays have a positive charge.
C They move towards the positive plate because cathode rays have a negative charge.
D They move towards the positive plate because cathode rays have a positive charge.
53 The nuclide symbol for radioactive polonium is 210

84 Po .
A nucleus of this type of polonium emits an α-particle.
What is the proton number (atomic number) of the nucleus after it has emitted the α-particle?
A 82 B 83 C 84 D 85

390
16
54 A student investigates how the radiation from a radioactive source changes with time.
The table shows the results from the detector used by the student.
time / count rate /

minutes counts per minute
0 340
2.0 180
4.0 100
6.0 60
8.0 40
The experiment is repeated by many other students, who also measure the count rate every two
minutes.
The half-life of the source is known to be exactly 2.0 minutes.
Why is the measured count rate always greater than half the previous value?
A Radioactive emissions occur randomly with time.

B The detector used is very close to the source.
C There is background radiation present.
D The radioactive source is decaying.
55 The nuclide notation for radium-226 is 226

88 Ra .
How many electrons orbit the nucleus of a neutral atom of radium-226?
A 0 B 88 C 138 D 226
56 A reading is taken every 10 minutes of the number of emissions per second from a radioactive
source. The table shows the readings.
number of
time / min emissions
per second
0 800
10 560
20 400
30 280
40 200
50 140
60 100
What is the half-life of the source?

A 10 min B 20 min C 40 min D 60 min

391
17
57 The arrangement shown is used to check whether the flour inside a cardboard packet is above a
certain level. If it is above this level, the flour absorbs the radiation from the source so that it
doesn’t reach the detector.
radioactive
source detector
flour
cardboard
packet
Which type of radiation is suitable to use?
A α-particles only
B β-particles only
C either α-particles or β-particles
D γ-rays only
58 A nucleus of americium 243

95 Am emits an α-particle to form a nucleus of neptunium (Np).
Which equation represents this decay?

243 247 4
A 95 Am → 97 Np + 2α
243 243 0
B 95 Am → 96 Np + -1 α
243 243 0
C 95 Am → 94 Np + -1 α
243 239 4
D 95 Am → 93 Np + 2α
59 A certain element has several isotopes.
Which statement about these isotopes is correct?
A They must have different numbers of electrons orbiting their nuclei.

B They must have the same number of neutrons in their nuclei.
C They must have the same number of nucleons in their nuclei.
D They must have the same number of protons in their nuclei.

392
60 7 A very important experiment improved scientists’ understanding of the structure of matter.
The experiment involved α-particles being fired at a thin gold foil.
What happened?
A All the α-particles were absorbed by the nuclei of the gold atoms.
B All the α-particles were unaffected by the gold atoms.
C Some of the α-particles were attracted by the neutrons in the nuclei of the gold atoms.
D Some of the α-particles were repelled by the protons in the nuclei of the gold atoms.
61 8 What is meant by nuclear fusion?
A the emission of an electron from a nucleus

B the emission of two protons from a nucleus
C the joining together of two nuclei
D the splitting of a nucleus into two smaller nuclei
62 A nucleus undergoes radioactive decay. The proton number increases by one. The nucleon
number does not change.
Which particle has been emitted in this decay?
A a neutron
B a proton
C an α-particle
D a β-particle
63 Radioactive source S emits α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays. A detector is placed 5 cm away
from S. A thin sheet of paper is placed as shown in the diagram.
thin sheet of paper
S detector
5 cm
Which emissions from the source can be detected?

393
6437 Which row gives the relative charge of an electron, a neutron and a proton?
electron neutron proton
A –1 0 –1
B –1 0 +1
C +1 –1 0
D +1 0 +1
6538 A nuclide of element X undergoes β-decay.
A The nucleon number increases by 1.

B The nucleon number stays the same.
C The product is another nuclide of an isotope of X.
D The proton number decreases by 1.
66 A sample of radioactive isotope is decaying.
The nuclei of which atoms will decay first?
A It is impossible to know because radioactive decay is random.

B It is impossible to know unless the age of the material is known.
C The atoms near the centre will decay first because they are surrounded by more atoms.
D The atoms near the surface will decay first because the radiation can escape more easily.
67 A detector of ionising radiation gives a background reading of 20 counts / minute.
A radioactive isotope with a half-life of 2.0 days is brought near to the detector. The reading on
the detector increases to 100 counts / minute.
How long does it take for the reading on the detector to decrease to 40 counts / minute?
A 2.0 days B 4.0 days C 5.0 days D 10 days
68 What is meant by the half-life of a radioactive isotope?
A half of the time taken for all of the original nuclei to decay
B the time taken for half of the original nuclei to decay
C the time taken for the charges on all the nuclei to halve
D the time taken for the mass of each nucleus to halve

394
19
69 Emissions X and Y from radioactive material are passed through a magnetic field. The diagram
shows the direction of the emissions, the direction of the magnetic field and the effect on the
emissions.
emission X magnetic field

emission Y into the page
Which type of emission is X, and which type of emission is Y?
emission X emission Y
A α-particles β-particles
B α-particles γ-rays
C β-particles α-particles
D β-particles γ-rays
70 In the atomic model, an atom consists of a central mass, orbited by much smaller particles.
orbiting central
particle mass
What is the name of the central mass and of the orbiting particles?
central mass orbiting particles
A neutron α-particles
B neutron electrons
C nucleus α-particles
D nucleus electrons

395
20
71 0 The rate of emission of a radioactive source is measured until the reading reaches the
background rate of 20 counts per minute.
The results are shown.
200
190
180
rate of emission
170
counts / minute
160
150
140
130
120
110
100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60
time / minute
What is the best estimate of the half-life of the source?
A 10 minutes
B 12 minutes
C 14 minutes
D 30 minutes
72 Nuclear fusion is a reaction that takes place in stars.
Which row describes this reaction?
action of atomic nuclei energy

A an atomic nucleus splits into absorbed
two or more smaller nuclei
B an atomic nucleus splits into released
two or more smaller nuclei
C atomic nuclei join together absorbed
to form a larger nucleus
D atomic nuclei join together released
to form a larger nucleus

396
15
73 The diagram shows emissions from a source passing into the electric field between two charged
plates.
+ + + + + + + + + +
source
– – – – – – – – – –
What is emitted by this source?
A neutrons and γ-rays only
B α-particles and β-particles only
C α-particles and γ-rays only
D β-particles and γ-rays only
74 The graph shows how the count rate registered by a counter near to a sample of a radioactive
isotope changes over a period of a few days. The background count rate is 5 counts per minute.
50
count rate
40
counts / minute
30
20
10
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
time / days
What is the half-life of the isotope?
A 2.0 days B 2.5 days C 3.0 days D 4.0 days
© UCLES 2018 0625/21/M/J/18

397
15
75 Which diagram represents the structure of a neutral atom?
A B C D
key
– – – –
neutron
++ ++ + proton
+ ++
+ – electron
– – –
76 When a uranium-235 nucleus absorbs a neutron, it becomes unstable and undergoes fission.
The fission process produces a barium (Ba) nucleus, a krypton (Kr) nucleus and 3 neutrons.
The fission process is represented by the nuclear equation shown.
1 235 144 ...

0n + 92 U → 56 Ba + ... Kr + 3 01n
Which symbol represents the resulting krypton nucleus?

89 91 91 91
A 36 Kr B 34 Kr C 35 Kr D 36 Kr
77 The diagram shows the paths of three different types of radiation X, Y and Z.
2 mm of 10 mm of 50 mm
plastic aluminium of lead
Which row correctly identifies X, Y and Z?
X Y Z


398
16
78 0 A scientist measures the count rate of a radioactive sample in a laboratory over a period of
12 weeks.
The background radiation count rate in the laboratory remains constant at 20 counts per minute.
The table shows the scientist’s results before the background radiation count rate is taken into
account.
time count rate

/ weeks / counts per minute
0 100
2 80
4 65
6 54
8 45
10 39
12 34
In which range does the half-life of the radioactive isotope lie?
A between 4 and 6 weeks

B between 6 and 8 weeks
C between 8 and 10 weeks
D more than 12 weeks
79 The chemical symbol for sodium is Na. The equation represents the radioactive decay of
sodium-24.
24 24 y
11Na → xMg + –1e
What are the numbers x and y?
x y
A 10 0
B 10 1
C 12 0
D 12 1

399
15
80 A radioactive source emits α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays into a vacuum where there is a
magnetic field.
The magnetic field acts perpendicularly into the plane of the paper.
The paths X, Y and Z of the three types of radiation through the magnetic field are shown.
Y
X
magnetic field
into paper
radioactive
source
Which radiation follows path X, path Y and path Z?
X Y Z

B α-particles γ-rays β-particles
C β-particles α-particles γ-rays
D β-particles γ-rays α-particles
81 Which diagram shows a possible structure of a neutral atom?
A B
key
proton
neutron
electron
C D

400
16
82 A student measures the level of radiation emitted from a radioactive substance. He places a
detector very close to the substance. He puts different absorbers between the radioactive
substance and the detector.
radioactive
substance counter
detector
absorber
The student’s results are shown. These results are corrected for background radiation.
counter reading
absorber
counts per minute
none 95
thin paper 52
few mm of aluminium 52
several cm of lead 12
Which types of radiation are being emitted by the substance?

401
15
83 The scattering of particles by a thin gold foil provided scientists with evidence for the nuclear
atom.
Which particles were scattered by the gold nuclei in the thin foil?
A α-particles
B β-particles
C neutrons
D protons
84 The diagram shows β-particles being directed between the poles of a magnet.
N
β-particles
In which direction will the particles be deflected?
A into the page

B out of the page
C towards the bottom of the page
D towards the top of the page
85 Why are some radioactive sources stored in boxes made from lead?
A Lead absorbs emissions from the radioactive sources.

B Lead decreases the half-life of radioactive sources.
C Lead increases the half-life of radioactive sources.
D Lead repels emissions from the radioactive sources.

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Contents

Ahmed Osama Castella

Ahmed Osama Castella

What is the internal diameter d of the tube?

A 2.8 cm B 3.1 cm C 3.4 cm D 7.4 cm

2 The mass of a full bottle of cooking oil is 1.30 kg.

What is the mass of the empty bottle?

A 0.4 0 kg B 0.50 kg C 0.65 kg D 0.8 0 kg

Ahmed Osama Castella

3 Which of the following is a unit of density?

A cm3 / g B g / cm2 C g / cm3 D kg / m2

Which solid has the greatest density?

5 Some water is poured into four tubes of different cross-sectional areas.

Which tube contains the largest volume of water?

area = 10 cm2 area = 20 cm2 area = 30 cm2 area = 40 cm2

Which apparatus is needed to find the density of both?

A balance, clock, ruler

Ahmed Osama Castella

What is the density of methylated spirit?

8 Some liquid is heated in a flask.

What is the difference in the heights?

A 1.7 cm B 2.8 cm C 3.2 cm D 4.5 cm

9 A metre rule is used to measure a length.

Which reading is shown to the nearest millimetre?

A 0.7 m B 0.76 m C 0.761 m D 0.7614 m

Ahmed Osama Castella

Its mass is 250 g.

What is the density of the metal?

A 0.20 g / cm3 B 0.40 g / cm3 C 2.5 g / cm3 D 5.0 g / cm3

11 The diagram shows an experiment to find the density of a liquid.

What is the density of the liquid?

A 0.5 g / cm3 B 2.0 g / cm3 C 8.0 g / cm3 D 10.0 g / cm3

12 A student needs to find the density of a cubic block of wood.

Which two pieces of apparatus should she use?

A balance and metre rule

Ahmed Osama Castella

13 Which items of apparatus are required to determine the density of a liquid?

A balance and measuring cylinder

How long does the second athlete take to run 100 m?

A 11.2 s B 11.4 s C 12.4 s D 23.8 s

15 The diagram shows a rectangular block of density 2 g / cm3.

What is the mass of the block?

Ahmed Osama Castella

reading when reading at end reading at end

A 0 min 50 s B 1 min 10 s C 1 min 13 s D 2 min 03 s

17 The diagrams show a rectangular box with inside measurements of 5 cm × 6 cm × 4 cm.

What is the density of the liquid?

Ahmed Osama C. Ahmed Osama Castella Page | 23

rock sample rule

To determine the volume, which apparatus should the scientist use?

A both the measuring cylinder and the rule

19 The diagrams show an experiment to determine the volume of a stone.

What is the volume of the stone?

Ahmed Osama Castella

athlete time at end of first lap / s time at end of second lap / s

A balance, clock, measuring cylinder

What is the length of the feather?

Ahmed Osama Castella

23 A cube of side 2.0 cm is placed on a balance.

What is the density of the cube?