Listening comprehension. Test 4.

I don't think You'd like to download 100 MGb audio file. Best way to prepare to this
section is to RECORD (using attached texts) conversations in our own.

Questions

1.
(A) She did watch the same television program that the man saw.
(B) She watched a different television program last night.
(C) She couldn't watch anything on television, because her television is out for repairs.
(D) She watched the program at a friend's house.
2.
(A) 1966
(B) 1968
(C) 1970
(D) 1972
3.
(A) The bumper cars
(B) The roller coaster
(C) The ferris wheel
(D) The Tilt-a-Whirl
4.
(A) A birthday party
(B) A funeral
(C) A baby shower
(D) A wedding
5.
(A) Nine
(B) Seven
(C) Five
(D) Three
6.
(A) Sam never promised to meet the woman.
(B) Sam probably got lost on his way to the meeting place.
(C) Sam probably forgot the meeting because he has been so busy.
(D) Sam said he would meet the woman at 11:00.
7.
(A) A bakery
(B) A hospital
(C) A deli
(D) A beauty parlor
8.
(A) He had to work late the day before.
(B) He woke up early in the morning.
(C) He went to sleep late the night before.
(D) A dog barking kept him awake most of the night.
9.
(A) He does not like being in the library.
(B) The library is closing.
(C) He only has five sources.
(D) He is unable to find enough sources that he needs to complete his paper.
10.
(A) She does not know where the man's coat is.
(B) She put the man's coat in the closet.
(C) She saw the man put his coat in the closet when he arrived.
(D) She thinks the man left his coat on a chair.
11.
(A) Yes, because they thought he was the right candidate.
(B) No, because the hospital does not have any positions available at the moment.
(C) No, because he did not call the right person to get the job.
(D) Yes, because he approached them at the right time.
12.
(A) It is fruitful.
(B) He doesn't have enough time to work on it.
(C) He is tired of working on it.
(D) It is taking too long to finish.
13.
(A) Giving directions
(B) Giving orders
(C) Giving her address
(D) Taking an oath
14.
(A) He lost money in his insurance business.
(B) He had to pay a lot of money to his insurance company.
(C) He had a sudden loss in his weight.
(D) He does not enjoy doing business.
15.
(A) At a car dealer's
(B) At an auto garage
(C) In a house
(D) Near a police station
16.
(A) They should have better light in their dining area.
(B) He didn't like the dinner.
(C) He cannot eat anything.
(D) He doesn't want to have a heavy dinner.
17.
(A) Clare is very poor.
(B) Clare will not get admission in a good school.
(C) Clare could have scored better.
(D) Clare's score is very bad.
18.
(A) Susan has not arrived yet.
(B) David has not come in yet.
(C) Both Susan and David have not arrived.
(D) The meeting is scheduled at ten o'clock and it is not ten yet.
19.
(A) Julie is not good with names.
(B) Not Al but Mr. Alexander Robbins is the vice president of this organization.
(C) In place of Al, Mr. Robbins will see them at three o'clock.
(D) Al is Alexander's familiar name.
20.
(A) Sixteen
(B) Twenty
(C) Four
(D) Twelve
21.
(A) Her brother drove at a tremendous speed.
(B) She does not trust her brother's driving.
(C) She could not believe that they arrived in time.
(D) She did not believe in driving at high speed.
22.
(A) They quarreled with some people.
(B) She is tired of them.
(C) They are happily married.
(D) They are very good people.
23.
(A) The man has to take a test for his music course.
(B) She wishes him good luck for his test.
(C) Only great people love classical music.
(D) The man has the ability to appreciate really good music.
24.
(A) Monday
(B) Sunday
(C) Saturday
(D) Friday
25.
(A) She does not have any regard for the man.
(B) The man must have made a mistake in paying the bill.
(C) She is sorry that the man has disregarded their notice.
(D) If the man has paid his bill, he should not pay attention to the notice
26.
(A) A sweater
(B) A blazer
(C) Shoes
(D) A suit
27.
(A) She thought it was too big.
(B) She liked it on him.
(C) She did not like the color.
(D) She did not like the blazer.
28.
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) 90%
29.
(A) They did not fit properly.
(B) They cost too much.
(C) She did not like the colors.
(D) She did not like the stores.
30.
(A) About 5 p.m.
(B) About 2 p.m.
(C) About noon
(D) About 9 a m.
31.
(A) The man's qualifications
(B) The man's interview
(C) The man's knowledge
(D) The man's ability
32.
(A) His qualifications are not good.
(B) He doesn't have up-to-date knowledge.
(C) There were many other qualified candidates.
(D) He does not have enough work experience.
33.
(A) The ability to apply knowledge to work
(B) Good qualifications
(C) Experience
(D) Theoretical knowledge
34.
(A) They are better than the interviewers expected.
(B) They are poor.
(C) They are fairly good.
(D) They are not compatible with the position.
35.
(A) They have very good experience.
(B) They are experts in this field.
(C) They have good qualifications.
(D) They were impressed by him.
36.
(A) The man
(B) The whole earth
(C) The eighth-grade students
(D) The woman herself
37.
(A) Because there are many festivals in the spring
(B) Because it is hot and humid
(C) Because it is colorful and pleasant
(D) Because she lives in a tropical country
38.
(A) He does not like flowers.
(B) He likes the winter.
(C) He lives in a cold country.
(D) He gets sick in the spring
39.
(A) Cold
(B) Tropical
(C) Hot
(D) Humid
40.
(A) Intelligent
(B) Funny
(C) Stupid
(D) Boring
41.
(A) Northern
(B) Southern
(C) Eastern
(D) Western
42.
(A) Zenith and nadir
(B) Alderan and Betelgeuse
(C) Alembic and alchemy
(D) Soda and syrup
43.
(A) Germanic invasions
(B) Greek invasions
(C) Islamic invasions
(D) Roman invasions
44.
(A) Germans'
(B) Greeks'
(C) Arabs'
(D) Italians'
45.
(A) Philosophy and education
(B) Art and literature
(C) Agriculture and sailing
(D) Medicine and science
46.
(A) Because 90 percent of the ice on the earth lies there
(B) Because it is a land of fierce winds
(C) Because the conditions there are hostile to human inhabitation
(D) Because it has an average annual temperature of-70 F
47.
(A) There would be no scarcity of fresh water in the world.
(B) The sea level would rise about 60 feet.
(C) There would be thunderstorms all over the world.
(D) The Antarctic would become more hospitable to human life.
48.
(A) Two hundred miles per hour
(B) Sixty miles per hour
(C) Seventy miles per hour
(D) Ninety miles per hour
49.
(A) Because it has 90 percent of the planet's ice
(B) Because it is hostile to human life
(C) Because it has the world's largest populations of wildlife
(D) Because it is the windiest continent
50.
(A) Seal
(B) Whale
(C) Penguin
(D) Elephant

Structure and written expression. Test 4.

1. Grover Cleveland was the first president _________ in theWhite House.

(A) got married
(B) to get married
(C) has got married
(D) was married
2. If cauliflowers __________ from extreme temperatures, theheads get discolored.
(A) were not protected
(B) are not protected
(C) are not being protected
(D) will not be protected
3. The first nuclear power reactor was designed _________ in 1942.
(A) by Fermi
(B) through Fermi
(C) with Fermi
(D) to Fermi
4. Greenland is the main source of cryolite. _________ softmineral used in the
production of aluminum.
(A) that is a
(B) which is a
(C) it is a
(D) who is a
5. _________ is the science of making artificial replacements forparts of the human
body.
(A) Prosthetics
(B) Prosthetic
(C) A prosthetic
(D) The prosthetics
6. Rice is the staple diet of_________.
(A) a large amount of Asians
(B) much Asians
(C) most Asians
(D) number of Asians
7. William Byrd was the owner of_________ library in colonialtimes.
(A) the most large
(B) a larger
(C) a largest
(D) the largest
8. Exobiology is the study of life __________.
(A) in other planets
(B) at other planets
(C) on other planets
(D) to other planets
9. The Declaration of Independence, _________ the Constitution ofthe United States,
was drawn up with the help of Benjamin Franklin.
(A) and
(B) also
(C) as well as
(D) so too
10. It was from the Lowell Laboratory that _________.
(A) Pluto was sighted 1930
(B) Pluto in 1930 was sighted
(C) Pluto was in 1930 sighted
(D) Pluto was sighted in 1930
11. The rodent, comprising of the mouse, rat, guinea pig, andporcupine, __________ with
incisor-like teeth in both jaws.
(A) are mammals
(B) is a mammal
(C) is the mammal
(D) are the mammals
12. __________ into oceans and rivers is a serious form ofpollution.
(A) Having dumped sewage
(B) Being dumped sewage
(C) Dumped sewage
(D) Dumping sewage
13. Products which are made from natural earths and are__________ are known as
ceramics.
(A) being subject to high temperatures
(B) subjected to high temperatures
(C) subject to high temperatures
(D) having been subjected to high temperatures
14. __________ called melanin protects the underlying layers ofskin from sun rays.
(A) A color pigment
(B) A colorful pigment
(C) The pigment
(D) A pigment
15. Oranges are a __________ source of vitamin C.
(A) well
(B) better
(C) good
(D) very
16. Walt Disney was used to make numerous visits to Disneyland tofind out what the
needs and interests of the public were.
17. If James B. Connolly would not take part in the first modernOlympic Games, in 1896,
he might have graduated from Harvard.
18. Margaret Sanger made the people to see the need for birthcontrol.
19. If we continue to exploit nature there should not be enoughresources left for future
generations.
20. I have not learned cycling as I have been afraid of fallingand hurting me.
21. It is imperative that all processed food be approving by theFood and Drug
Administration for hygenic standards.
22. Not much scientists have the time or the verbal skillsrequired to become
literary writers.
23. Although coal has to been in use since prehistoric times, itis only since the
18th century that coal mining has become a major industry.
24. For best results eggs and cheese should be cooked over gentleheat, isn't it?
25. Although it started life as an apprentice to a soap boiler,William Colgate was to
become
immortalized in toilet products.
26. The kinds of trees that shed their leaves in autumn are knownas deciduous trees.
27. The plants make their own food through a process calledphotosynthesis.
28. Science has transformed the planet but literature has notpaid
enough amount of attention to how scientists have lived andworked.
29. The prime meridian which passes through Greenwich, in England,is the same
the Greenwich meridian.
30. There is usually no charge for using a library but howeverfor overdue
charges and certain specialized services.
31. Tom does not agree that TV watching is in any way useful andso docs Harry.
32. A cuckoo always never hatches its eggs but leaves them inanother birds
nest to be hatched by that bird.
33. Recalling his interview with the actor, Henabery Brownlowsays that he does not expect
the actor to talk for four hours.
34. Chaplin had wanted some reels of his films to be destroyedbut he had been
saved by his manager.
35. For to commemorate the dog Nipper, whose picture appears onold
gramophone records, a brass plaque marks his grave.
36. Businesses are finding a word processor invaluable as textcan be stored in it.
reused indefinitely and modification easily.
37.The ginko is an ornamental decorative tree that was firstimported from
China and Japan.
38. Leavening agents such as baking powder are used to make breadand cake raise.
39. Most neighborhood agreed that there should not be a shoppingmall next to the park.
40. Peristalsis is the squeeze movement of the muscles in thegullet.

Reading comprehension and vocabulary. Test 4.

Questions 1-10 refer to the following passage.

The most familiar speleothems (from the Greek word spelaion for cave and thema for
deposit), the decorative dripstone features found in caves, are stalactites and stalagmites.
Stalactites hang downward from the ceiling of the cave and are formed as drop after drop
of
water slowly trickles through cracks in the cave roof. Stalagmites grow upward from the
floor
of the cave, generally as a result of water dripping from an overhead stalactite. A column
forms when a stalactite and a stalagmite grow until they join. A "curtain" or "drapery"
begins
to form on an inclined ceiling when drops of water trickle along a slope.
Natural openings on the surface that lead to caves are called sinkholes, or swallow
holes. Streams sometimes disappear down these holes and flow through the cavern. Rivers
may flow from one mountain to another through a series of caves. Some caverns have
sinkholes in their floors. Water often builds up a rim of dripstone around the edge of the
hole.
Dripping water often contains dissolved minerals as well as acid. These minerals too will
be
deposited; and they may give rich coloring to the deposits. If minerals in the water change,
layers of different colors may be formed.1947

1. Stalagmites are formed by

(A) drops of water which enter through cracks in the ceiling.
(B) underground rivers which flow through the cave.
(C) water dripping from an overhead stalactite.
(D) water which trickles down a slope.
2. Sinkholes are
(A) the decorative dripstone features found in caves.
(B) natural openings on the surface that lead to caves.
(C) colorful layers of mineral deposits.
(D) None of the above
3. Which speleothem grows upward from the floor ?
(A) Stalagmites
(B) Stalactites
(C) Sinkholes
(D) Curtains
4. An "inclined ceiling" is one which
(A) is straight.
(B) is crooked.
(C) is slanted.
(D) is wet.
5. Which of the following are NOT caused by dripping water ?
(A) Stalagmites
(B) Stalactites
(C) Slopes
(D) Curtains
6. The information in the passage is most relevant to which field of study ?
(A) Geography
(B) Archaeology
(C) Physics
(D) Geology
7. "Curtains" can also be called
(A) columns.
(B) draperies.
(C) stalagmites.
(D) rims.
8. The word speeleothem comes frome which language?
(A) Latin
(B) French
(C) Greek
(D) English
9. Stalagmites are formed by
(A) drops of water which enter the cave through cracks in the ceiling.
(B) underground rivers which flow through the cave.
(C) water which seeps through the cave floor.
(D) water which trickles down a slope.
10. Which speleothem hangs from the ceiling of a cave?
(A) Stalagmites
(B) Stalactites
(C) Columns
(D) Rimstones

Questions 11-20 refer to the following passage

Horse owners who plan to breed one or more mares should have a working knowledge
of heredity and know how to care for breeding animals and foals. The number of mares
bred
that actually conceive varies from about 40 to 85 percent, with the average running less
than
50 percent. Some mares that do conceive fail to produce living foals. This means that, on
average, two mares are kept a whole year to produce one foal, and even then, some foals
are
disappointments from the standpoint of quality.
By careful selection, breeders throughout history have developed various kinds of
horses with a wide variety of characteristics to suit many different needs. The Great Horse
of the Middle Ages, for example, was bred for size and strength to carry a heavily armored
knight. The massive horses of such breeds are often called "cold blooded." The Arabs bred
lithe desert horses that were small and swift. These animals are often referred to as "hot
blooded. " Cross-breeding of hot-blooded and cold-blooded horses for certain
characteristics
produced breeds ranging from riding horses to draft horses.
The Thoroughbred is considered by many to be the highpoint of elegance and fine
selective breeding. Many persons mistakenly apply the name Thoroughbred to any
purebred
horse. But a Thoroughbred is a distinct breed of running horses that traces its ancestry
through
the male line directly back to three Eastern stallions: the Byerly Turk, the Darley Arabian,
and the Godolphin Barb.
For convenience the breeds of horses are often divided into three major groups: (1)
ponies, (2) heavy, or draft horses, and (3) light horses.
11. Which of the following is not an example of an Eastern stallion?
(A) Byerly Turk
(B) Darley Arabian
(C) Thoroughbred
(D) Godolphin Barb
12. Which of the following was NOT a characteristic of the Great Horse of the
MiddleAges?
(A) Large size
(B) Swiftness
(C) Strength
(D) "Cold-bloodedness"
13. It can be inferred from the passage that cold-blooded and hot-blooded horses were
cross-bred for what reason?
(A) Such cross-breeding was a safer means of reproduction.
(B) Cross-bred horses were preferred by Arabs.
(C) By cross-breeding, horses with desirable mixed characteristics could be produced.
(D) Cross-breeding produced Thoroughbred horses.
14. In line 11, "lithe" most nearly means
(A) graceful.
(B) clumsy.
(C) massive.
(D) bulky.
15. Which of the following is NOT one of the major divisions of horse breeds?
(A) Draft horses
(B) Ponies
(C) Foals
(D) Light horses
16. According to the passage, which of the following horses is considered to be the finest
purebred?
(A) Darley Arabian
(B) Thoroughbred
(C) Godolphin Barb
(D) Byerly Turk
17. To conceive is to
(A) become sick.
(B) become pregnant.
(C) die.
(D) be born.
18. A foal is a
(A) male horse.
(B) female horse.
(C) old horse.
(D) baby horse.
19. The average amount of mares bred which actually conceive is less than what percent?
(A) 40
(B) 85
(C) 50
(D) 75
20. A mare is a
(A) male horse.
(B) baby horse.
(C) female horse.
(D) old horse.

Questions 21-30 refer to the following passage.

Animals that produce large amounts of offspring depend upon the sheer size of the
litter for the perpetuation of their species. The young mature very quickly and are not
educated, as the parents are usually involved with obtaining their own food and with
reproduction. Should some of the offspring become endangered, the parent will not
interfere,
because it is not expected that all the young survive, which is the reason for a large litter.
One animal that produces large litters is the hamster. A female hamster is able to bear
young when she is six weeks to two months old. The gestation period is about 16 days.
Although an average litter size is from five to ten, hamsters commonly have as few as
three
or as many as a dozen offspring at a time. Mothers will sometimes eat their own young,
particularly when the number of offspring is large. Females may produce litters up to an
age
of about 15 months at monthly intervals. The blind, hairless young begin to grow fur in
two
to three days. Their eyes open after about two weeks. After ten days they begin eating
solid
food, though the mother will continue to nurse them for about two more weeks. In
captivity,
a typical hamster may live for two to three years.

21. The gestation period for hamsters is about

(A) nine months.
(B) one month.
(C) 16 days.
(D) six weeks.
22. Female hamsters will sometimes eat their young for what reason?
(A) Hunger
(B) Because of a large number of offspring
(C) Deformed babies
(D) The young mature too quickly
23. Female hamsters may reproduce as young as
(A) six weeks old.
(B) six months old.
(C) 15 months old.
(D) two weeks old.
24. "Perpetuation" in line 2 means
(A) extinction.
(B) annihilation.
(C) variation.
(D) continuation.
25. Hamsters can produce offspring until what age?
(A) two years
(B) six weeks
(C) 15 months
(D) 16 days
26. What is the tone of the passage?
(A) Argumentative
(B) Informative
(C) Biased
(D) Farcical
27. What is the BEST title for this passage ?
(A) "Endangered Animal Litters"
(B) "Reasons for Large Litters"
(C) "Parents of Large Litters"
(D) "Educating Litters"
28. What is a litter?
(A) The amount of parents an animal has
(B) The amount of garbage an animal has
(C) The amount of offspring an animal has
(D) The amount of siblings an animal has
29. Why would an animal parent not be able to care for its litter?
(A) It is busy reproducing and food gathering.
(B) It is busy educating the litter.
(C) It interferes with the litter.
(D) It is busy playing.
30. Which of the following is NOT a reason for a large litter?
(A) The young are not expected to live.
(B) The young are educated.
(C) The parents are too busy to protect them.
(D) The young mature quickly..

Questions 31-40 refer to the following passage.

Juan Ponce de Leon was the first Spaniard to touch the shores of the present United
States. As Columbus had not remotely realized the extent of his momentous discovery, so
de
Leon never dreamed that his "island" of Florida was a peninsular extension of the vast
North
American continent. After coming to the New World with Columbus in 1493, he had led
the
occupation of Puerto Rico in 1508 and governed it from 1509 to 1512. In 1509, de Leon
started a colony at Caparra, later abandoned in favor of San Juan. He was one of the first
adelantadosen who "advanced" the Spanish Empire by conquest, subjugation of the
Indians, and establishment of a semi-military government.
In Puerto Rico he heard a legend about an island called Bimini, where there was said
to be a spring that restored youth to all who bathed in it. It is said he was seeking this
spring
when he discovered Florida.
He sailed from Puerto Rico in March 1513. On Easter Sunday he sighted the coast. A
few days later he landed on Florida's east coast, near what is now St. Augustine. He named
the place La Florida after the Spanish term for Easter Sundayascua florida, or "flowery
feast." He then sailed around the peninsula and up the west coast. He returned to Florida in
1521.
31. In what year did de Leon discover Florida?
(A) 1508
(B) 1513
(C) 1521
(D) 1492
32. What was the title of the first colony started by Ponce de Leon in Puerto Rico?
(A) San Juan
(B) La Florida
(C) Caparra
(D) St. Augustine
33. What was the name of the legendary island where the fabled Fountain of Youth was
said to be?
(A) Cuba
(B) Bimini
(C) Atlantis
(D) Bermuda
34. Which of the following is implied by the passage?
(A) Ponce de Leon was the true discoverer of the North American continent.
(B) Ponce de Leon rejected the philosophy of the adelantados.
(C) Ponce de Leon may have discovered Florida "by accident."
(D) Ponce de Leon's greatest contribution was his discovery of the Fountain of Youth.
35. Pascua florida is the Spanish term for which holiday?
(A) Easter Sunday
(B) Christmas
(C) Thanksgiving
(D) Palm Sunday
36. According to the passage, which of the following was NOT a means of advancement
of the Spanish Empire in the New World?
(A) Conquest
(B) Subjugation of Indians
(C) Establishment of semi-military governments
(D) Treaties and negotiation
37. From the passage, it can be assumed that a "peninsula" is
(A) a volcanic island.
(B) an island completely surrounded by water.
(C) an extension of land surrounded almost completely bywater.
(D) an island inhabited by Indians.
38. The tone of the word "advanced" in line 7 suggests that
(A) adelantados favor progress.
(B) progress could not have occurred without subjugation.
(C) progress is related to conquest and subjugation.
(D) conquest, subjugation, and semi-military government are not progress.
39. According to the passage. Ponce de Leon believed the land he discovered was
(A) part of the .Bahamas.
(B) the new "island" of Florida.
(C) the mainland of the United States.
(D) Puerto Rico.
40. Ponce de Leon was classified as an adelantado because he
(A) was a great explorer.
(B) was the first Spaniard to see the shores of the United States.
(C) conquered and ruled by military force.
(D) claimed Florida for the King of Spain.

Questions 41 to 50 refer to the following passage:

Any list of the greatest thinkers in history contains the name of the brilliant physicist
Albert Einstein. His theories of relativity led to entirely new ways of thinking about time,
space, matter, energy, and gravity. Einstein's work led to such scientific advances as the
control of atomic energy, even television as a practical application of Einstein's work.
In 1902 Einstein became an examiner in the Swiss patent office at Bern. In 1905, at
age 26, he published the first of five major research papers. The first one provided a theory
explaining Brownian movement, the zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in
suspension.
The second paper laid the foundation for the photon, or quantum, theory of light. In it he
proposed that light is composed of separate packets of energy, called quanta or photons,
that
have some of the properties of particles and some of the properties of waves. A third paper
contained the "special theory of relativity" which showed that time and motion are relative
to the observer, if the speed of light is constant and the natural laws are the same
everywhere
in the universe. The fourth paper was a mathematical addition to the special theory of
relativity. Here Einstein presented his famous formula, E = m(cc), known as the energy
mass
equivalence. In 1916, Einstein publishedhis general theory of relativity. In it he proposed
that
gravity is not a force, but a curve in the space-time continuum, created by the presence of
mass.
Einstein spoke out frequently against nationalism, the exalting of one nation above all
others. He opposed war and violence and supported Zionism, the movement to establish a
Jewish homeland in Palestine. When the Nazis came to power in 1933, they denounced his
ideas. He then moved to the United States. In 1939 Einstein learned that two German
chemists
had split the uranium atom. Einstein wrote to President Franklin D. Roosevelt warning him
that this scientific knowledge could lead to Germany developing an atomic bomb. He
suggested the United States begin its own atomic bomb research.

41. Einstein's primary work was in the area of

(A) chemistry.
(B) biology.
(C) physics.
(D) engineering.
42. Which of the following inventions is mentioned in the passage as a practical
application of Einstein's discoveries?
(A) Radio
(B) Automobiles
(C) Computers
(D) Television
43. According to the passage, Einstein supported all of the following except
(A) the establishment of a Jewish homeland in Palestine.
(B) nationalism.
(C) atomic bomb research in the United States.
(D) the defeat of the Nazis.
44. In which country was Einstein born?
(A) Switzerland
(B) United States
(C) Germany
(D) Israel
45. What is "Brownian movement"?
(A) The zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension
(B) The emission of electrons from solids when struck by light
(C) The motion of photons in light
(D) The basis of the theory of relativity
46. Einstein was a citizen of all of the following countries EXCEPT
(A) Belgium.
(B) Germany.
(C) United States.
(D) Switzerland.
47. It is clear from the tone of the passage that the author feels
(A) Einstein's work in physics was somewhat tarnished by his conservative political views.
(B) Albert Einstein was one of the most brilliant thinkers in history.
(C) Einstein's work in physics, though theoretically impressive, led to few practical
applications.
(D) Einstein's theories have been consistently proven incorrect.
48. According to Einstein's special theory of relativity,
(A) all properties of matter and energy can be explained in a single mathematical formula.
(B) light is composed of separate packets of energy.
(C) time and motion are relative to the observer.
(D) some solids emit electrons when struck by light.
49. In line 18, the word "exalting" most nearly means
(A) elevation.
(B) criticism.
(C) support.
(D) elimination.
50. According to Einstein, light is composed of separate packets of energy called
(A) electrons.
(B) photoelectrons.
(C) quanta.
(D) gamma rays.

Questions 51-60 refer to the following passage.

We believe the Earth is about 4.6 billion years old. At present we are forced to look
to other bodies in the solar system for hints as to what the early history of the Earth
was like.
Studies of our moon, Mercury, Mars, and the large satellites of Jupiter and Saturn
have
provided ample evidence that all these large celestial bodies were bombarded by
smaller
objects in a wide variety of sizes shortly after the larger bodies had formed. This same
bombardment must have affected Earth as well. The lunar record indicates that the
rate of
impacts decreased to its present low level about 4 billion years ago. On Earth,
subsequent
erosion and crustal motions have obliterated the craters that must have formed during
this
epoch.
Scientists estimate the Earth's age by measuring the ratios of various radioactive
elements in rocks. The oldest Earth rocks tested thus far are about 3 1/3 billion years
old. But
no one knows whether these are the oldest rocks on Earth. Tests on rocks from the
moon and
on meteorites show that these are about 4.6 billion years old. Scientists believe that
this is the
true age of the solar system and probably the true age of the Earth

51. In line 8, the word "obliterated" means

(A) created.
(B) destroyed.
(C) changed.
(D) eroded.
52. According to this passage, how do scientists estimate the age of the Earth?
(A) By measuring the ratios of radioactive elements in rocks
(B) By examining fossils
(C) By studying sunspots
(D) By examining volcanic activity
53. Scientists estimate the age of the Earth as
(A) 3 1/3 billion years old.
(B) 4 billion years old.
(C) 4.6 billion years old.
(D) 6 billion years old.
54. Which of the following processes led to the obliteration of the craters formed by
the bombardment of the Earth by celestial bodies?
(A) Volcanic activity
(B) Solar radiation
(C) Gravity
(D) Crustal motions
55. According to the passage, why are scientists forced to look at other bodies in the
solar system to determine the early history of the Earth?
(A) Human alteration of the Earth
(B) Erosion and crustal motions
(C) Solar flares
(D) Deforestation
56. What is the BEST title for this passage?
(A) "Determining the Age of the Earth"
(B) "Determining the Age of the Solar System"
(C) "Erosion and Crustal Motion of Earth"
(D) "Radioactive Elements in Rocks"
57. Which of the following bodies was NOT studied to give evidence that the Earth
was bombarded in its early history?
(A) Mars
(B) Mercury
(C) Jupiter
(D) Earth's moon
58. Bombardment of the Earth at one time by various sized bodies is
(A) inferred from what happened on other planetary bodies.
(B) documented fact.
(C) proven by the lunar record.
(D) indicated by erosion.
59. The level of impacts of the bombardments of Earth have
(A) decreased to below normal.
(B) increased to a current high.
(C) increased after a periodic low.
(D) decreased to a current low.
60. In line 6, the word "bombardment" means
(A) an avoidance.
(B) an assault.
(C) an effect.
(D) a cause.