Physical Science - TQ
Physical Science - TQ
Physical Science - TQ
Department of Education
CARAGA Administrative Region
Division of Butuan City
AUPAGAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Aupagan, Butuan City
Directions: Write the letter of the correct answer in the space provided.
_______ 1. Which of the following is a stellar core formed when the fragments of collapsed molecular
cloud contract?
A. Main-sequence star C. Red giant
B. Protostar D. Supernova
_______ 2. Which of the following is a star that blows apart and releases a large amount of energy?
A. Main-sequence star C. Red giant
B. Protostar D. Supernova
_______ 3. Which of the following shows the proper sequence of stages of stellar evolution of a low-mass
star?
A. Main sequence star - red giant - white dwarf - protostar
B. Protostar - main sequence star - red giant - white dwarf
C. Protostar - main sequence star - white dwarf - red giant
D. Main sequence star – protostar - red giant - white dwarf
_______ 4. When the star has used up all its hydrogen fuel. Which of the following statements BEST
describes stellar nucleosynthesis?
A. It is the process by which elements are formed within stars.
B. It is the formation of elements during a supernova explosion.
C. It is the process by which elements are produced in gas clouds.
D. It is the formation of light elements such as hydrogen and helium.
_______ 5. Your teacher told you to create an isotope, deuteron, from the two atoms of hydrogen. What
process would you use to combine the two hydrogen atoms?
A. Catalyst reaction C. Intermolecular force reaction
B. CNO Cycle reaction D. Proton-proton chain reaction
_______ 6. If you already have an isotope of hydrogen, added with a proton, what heavier element is
produced when the two undergo fusion?
A. Helium-2 B. Helium-3 C. Helium-3 D. Helium-4
_______ 7. Which of the following is NOT produced in red giant stars?
A. Carbon B. Helium C. Oxygen D. Silicon
_______ 8. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about supernova?
A. It is a star that blows apart and releases a large amount of energy.
B. It is a star that has used up its hydrogen supply in the core and switched into the thermonuclear fusion of
hydrogen in the shell surrounding the core.
C. It is a star formed when gravitational equilibrium is reached during hydrogen fusion in a protostar.
D. Both A and B
_______ 9. Stars, before they appear twinkling in the night sky, were originally part of the dust cloud
in the universe that collapsed due to gravity and gradually form through fusion. When
stars are formed, elements were then introduced as the fusion of protons results in the
formation of helium, carbon, oxygen, neon, and many other heavier elements. What could
be the relevance of stellar evolution in the discovery of 118 elements in the periodic table?
I. Stellar evolution was the origin of all elements that we have today.
II. Stellar evolution helped chemists synthesize more forms of elements with the idea of nuclear fusion, thereby creating
trans uranium elements.
III. Stellar evolution was the beginning of all elements in the universe, especially hydrogen.
A. I & II B. II & III C. I & III D. III only
_______ 10. The star’s core is filled with pressure due to its very high temperatures causing the collision of
hydrogen protons. Based on the picture below, which BEST explains the distribution of
elements in the red giant star?
_______ 11. Increased temperature and pressure are the key factors in star formation. With increased
temperature and pressure, dust particles in the universe, containing hydrogen atoms start to
excite and eventually collide. Even identically charged particles fused due to very high
energy caused by high pressure. In the situations below, what could be associated when
high temperatures and pressures are experienced?
I. In high temperatures and pressure, molecules tend to break their bonds and transform into a new different substance.
II. In high temperatures and pressure, cloud formation is reduced giving us dry weather with sunshine.
III.In high temperatures and pressure, energy is increased leading to the explosion of combustible material.
A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II, and III
_______ 12. Stellar nucleosynthesis is also known as the evolution of stars where it starts from a protostar to
becoming a massive and explosive supernova. Eventually, once a massive star explodes, it
will become a white dwarf, that is, “dead” because atoms inside it no longer fuse to give
the star energy. What conclusion can you draw from this statement?
A. A star will be born and will die when the time is right.
B. A star shines the most when it lost its energy and is about to die.
C. When a star becomes massive, it will lose its energy to fuse particles and will eventually explode and die.
D. When a star becomes massive and explodes, it is called a supernova and becomes a white dwarf which shines
the brightest even if it’s dead as it is still hot and will gradually turn into a black dwarf.
_______ 13. Who studies radioactivity using X-ray spectroscopy?
A. Edwin McMillan C. Ernest Lawrence
B. Ernest Rutherford D. Henry Moseley
_______ 14. Which of the following is known to be the heaviest element?
A. Gold B. Neptunium C. SilverD. Uranium
_______ 15. Which of the following was done by the scientist to create Neptunium?
A. Uranium was bombarded with deuterons in a cyclotron.
B. Particle accelerator was used to bombard uranium with neutrons.
C. Fast-moving alpha particles were bombarded with bismuth in a cyclotron.
D. Molybdenum was bombarded with fast-moving neutrons using a linear particle accelerator.
_______ 16. Which of the following BEST describes a particle accelerator?
A. It is a device that uses an alternating electric field to accelerate particles that move in a spiral path in the
presence of a magnetic field.
B. It is a device that is used to speed up the neutrons to overcome the repulsion between the protons and the target
atomic nuclei by using electrical fields.
C. It is a device that is used to speed up the protons to overcome the repulsion between the protons and the target
atomic nuclei by using magnetic and electrical fields.
D. Both B and C
_______ 17. CNO Cycle is a process by which elements fuse to create heavier elements. In this process,
carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen played the most important part in this reaction. If you would
be able to use this process in forming heavier elements, what elemental combination must
you need to produce Nitrogen-13?
A. Carbon 12 + 1 proton C. Nitrogen-14 + 1 proton
B. Carbon 13 + 1 proton D. Oxygen-15 + 1 proton
_______ 18. There are a total of 118 elements in the periodic table in the present day. Some of which are
natural and some are synthesized. Which of the following shows the proper sequence of
how elements were synthesized?
A. Astatine – Plutonium – Technetium – Uranium
B. Astatine – Uranium – Plutonium – Technetium
C. Technetium – Astatine – Uranium – Plutonium
D. Uranium – Astatine – Plutonium – Technetium
_______ 19. Trans uranium elements are elements that are man-made by fusing atomic nuclei of two
different atoms. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the trans uranium
elements, neptunium, and plutonium?
I. They are both trans uranium elements.
II. They were synthesized through radioactivity.
III. They are stable and decay radioactivity into other elements.
IV. They were discovered in the laboratory as artificially generated
synthetic elements.
A. I only B. IV only C. I and III D. I and IV
_______ 20. Why do scientists’ study and create new trans uranium elements in the laboratory? What are
the uses of these elements?
I. Scientists study and synthesize new trans uranium elements in the laboratory because of their potential applications.
II. Scientists continue to synthesize trans uranium elements to create bigger elements with commercial importance.
III. Researchers can utilize the properties of existing trans uranium elements to predict the properties of yet-
undiscovered isotopes and elements.
A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II, and III
_______ 21. Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT about the discovery of nuclear
transmutation by Rutherford?
Statement I – Ernest Rutherford bombarded alpha particles from radium directed to the
nitrogen nuclei.
Statement II - Ernest Rutherford showed that the oxygen nuclei reacted to the alpha
particles to form nitrogen nuclei.
A. Only statement I is incorrect. C. Both statements are incorrect.
B. Only statement II is incorrect. D. Both statements are correct
_______ 22. Element is a species of atoms that all have the same number of protons in their atomic
nuclei. However, isotopes of an element also exist after its fusion with some nuclei. Isotopes
are versions of an element that share a proton count but have different neutron counts.
Nonetheless, elements have different versions of themselves, in nature. What conclusion can
you draw from the concept of isotopes?
I. Everything in nature co-exists with a different version of itself.
II. Elements, in nature, can split through the radioactive decay of a nucleus and thereby produce an isotope.
III. Elements can split artificially by bombarding a stable nucleus creating a different version of itself.
B. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I, II, and III
_______ 23. A particle accelerator is a device used to synthesize new elements using magnetic and
electrical fields. It speeds up the protons to overcome the repulsion between the protons
and the target atomic nuclei. Hence, new elements can be discovered anytime due to the
advancement in the field of science and technology. If this continues to happen in the
future, what could be the closest prediction among the suggestions below?
A. The number of elements in the periodic table may likely be added with new elements.
B. The present number of elements may be decreased in the future as some will be deleted.
C. There won’t be any changes in the current number of elements, and no new discoveries as there are no longer
missing elements in the periodic table.
D. Both B & C
_______ 24. What is the property of water that allows it to stick to other substances?
A. Adhesion B. Density C. Specific heat D. Surface tension
_______ 25. Which of the following illustrates the concept “like dissolves like”?
A. CCl4 is soluble in water
B. I2 is more soluble in CCl4 than in water
C. NaCl is more soluble in CCl4 than in water
D. CuSO4 is more soluble in CCl4 than in water
_______ 26. What kind of force is broken when a solid turns to liquid?
A. covalent bond C. Ionic bond
B. hydrogen bonding D. London dispersion Forces
_______ 27. Biomolecules are everywhere. It is even found in foods that we eat on a daily basis. Which of
the following substances below are NOT polar.
A. Butter B. Molasses C. Soy Sauce D. Water
_______ 28. What term applies when a liquid can be drawn up a tube without external force being
applied?
A. Adhesion C. Capillary action
B. Cohesion D. surface tension
_______ 29. Since a polar covalent bond is stronger than a nonpolar covalent bond, what is expected of
the boiling and melting points of a polar molecule? These should be _________.
A. higher C. lower
B. the same D. cannot be determined
_______ 30. The polarity of molecules may be dependent on the electronegativity of the element. Which
of the following below have the highest electronegativity?
A. Fluorine B. Helium C. Hydrogen D. oxygen
_______ 31. The following properties are exhibited by any polar substance, EXCEPT?
A. Capillary Action C. Surface Tension
B. Density D. Viscosity
_______ 32. Viscosity is defined as the resistance of a substance to flow due to the strength of
intermolecular forces and especially by the shapes of the molecules of a liquid. Liquids
whose molecules are polar are usually more viscous than nonpolar substances. If viscosity is
caused by strong intermolecular forces and is stronger than nonpolar substances, what can
you say about an aqueous sugar solution that gradually becomes viscous as it is
continuously exposed to heat?
A. Increased temperature can disrupt polar molecules; hence, any polar substances can become viscous over time
when it is heated continuously.
B. Increased temperature disrupts the covalent bonds of the aqueous sugar solution which alters its shape and
contributes to the viscosity of the substance.
C. Temperature is a major factor in the viscosity of a substance.
D. Viscosity is common in heated liquid substances.
_______ 33. What intermolecular force is characterized by the attraction between the oppositely
charged poles of a polar molecule??
A. Dipole-dipole force C. Hydrogen bonding
B. Dispersion forces D. Ionic bond
_______ 34. Which of the following is the CORRECT ORDER of increasing the attractive strength of
intermolecular forces?
A. dipole-dipole interaction, hydrogen bonding, London dispersion forces
B. hydrogen bonding, dipole-dipole interaction, London dispersion forces
C. hydrogen bonding, London dispersion forces, dipole-dipole interaction
D. London dispersion forces, dipole-dipole interaction, hydrogen bonding
_______ 35. Which of the following is NOT a kind of intermolecular force?
A. covalent bonding C. Dispersion
B. dipole-dipole D. hydrogen bonding
_______ 36. Which is true about the dipole moment?
I. It arises from the similarities of electronegativity values of the elements.
II. It is the shift of electron density from one atom to a more electronegative atom.
III. It occurs between two ions in an ionic bond or between atoms in a covalent bond.
IV. The larger the difference in electronegativity between elements, the smaller the dipole moment is.
A. I & II B. II & III C. III & IV D. I & IV
_______ 37. London dispersion forces are a function of the molar mass of substances. What happens to
the dispersion forces of the molecules as the molar mass increases?
A. They are increased C. They remain the same
B. They are decreased D. They cannot be measured
_______ 38. Atoms may combine to create molecules, and may combine with other molecules to create
unique substances. With these combinations, what force causes the atoms/molecules to
attract each other?
A. Electromagnetic forces C. Intermolecular forces
B. Gravitational forces D. Nuclear forces
_______ 39. What kind of force is broken when a solid turns into liquid?
A. covalent bond C. Ionic bond
B. hydrogen bonding D. London dispersion Forces
_______ 40. A liquid placed in a capillary tube shows a lower meniscus. What type of force creates a
lower meniscus?
A. Adhesive force only C. Both cohesive and adhesive force
B. Cohesive force only D. Neither cohesive nor adhesive force
_______ 41. The boiling point of water is about 200°C higher than the boiling points of hydrogen sulfide
and hydrogen selenide. One may explain this apparent anomaly by which of the following?
A. Water has the lowest molecular weight.
B. Water is less polar than hydrogen sulfide and hydrogen selenide.
C. The water molecule is lighter than the other two molecules.
D. The intermolecular attractive forces are much greater in water than in the two compounds.
_______ 42. Which one of the following substances can be melted without breaking chemical bonds?
A. Diamond B. Limestone C. Salt D. Sulfur
_______ 43. Atoms are everywhere. They exist either as an element or a compound if an atom is
combined with another atom. Their combination is stabilized by intermolecular forces which
held the bonds together in order for these atoms to be fused steadily until it creates a chain
of molecules. What could be the relevance of atom/molecule interaction in our daily lives?
A. Interaction of atoms/molecules creates compounds that are necessary to live like how amino acids create a chain
to make proteins.
B. Interaction of atoms/molecules creates compounds and other substances that are useful in our daily lives like
how plastic containers, bottles, and other materials were created today.
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above.
_______ 44. What is the main source of energy for organisms?
A. Fructose B. Galactose C. Glucose D. Sucrose
_______ 45. Steroids, also called corticosteroids, are anti-inflammatory medicines used to treat
inflammation (redness and swelling) in the body. These substances are insoluble in water
and therefore, belong to what class of macromolecule?
A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Nucleic Acids D. Proteins
_______ 46. If you are tasked by your mom to buy food items rich in carbohydrates, which of the
following food items are you going to consider?
A. Butter, olive oil, hotdog, fries, and cheese
B. Soda, pasta, cake, chocolates, and pizza
C. Boiled egg, fried chicken, fish fillet, burger, and rice
D. All of the above.
_______ 47. During photosynthesis, plants capture sunlight energy to make glucose. In what form is
unused glucose stored in plants?
A. Cellulose B. Chitin C. Glycogen D. Sucrose
_______ 48. Which of the following tasks is NOT a job of proteins?
A. Receive and send signals C. Store genetic information
B. Speed up chemical reaction D. Transport materials
_______ 49. What do saturated fats have that distinguishes them from unsaturated fats?
A. They have double bonds.
B. They have no double bonds.
C. They have electrostatic charges.
D. They are associated with heart disease.
_______ 50. You helped your parents fix your backyard garden, and while you were fixing the vegetable
pots, a big unstable rock fell on one foot! You have to remove this by yourself because your
parents were busy with a bigger load! Your muscles keep a form of energy stored just for
these emergencies. What macromolecule stores energy in the muscles needed in
emergencies like this?
A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Nucleic Acids D. Proteins