WATER SUPPLY AND URBAN DRAINAGE, TUTORIAL ON PIPE FLOW

1) Two new cast-iron pipes in series connect two reservoirs. Both pipes are 300 m long and
have diameters of 0.6 m and 0.4 m, respectively. The elevation of water surface in reservoir
A is 80 m. The discharge of 10ᵒC water from reservoir B is 0.5 m3/s. Find the elevation of the
surface of reservoir B. Assume a sudden contraction at junction and a square-edge entrance.
 Given: Let put the given parameters diagrammatically;
Kinetic Viscosity of water at 10ᵒC: V1=V2 = V = 1.31 * 10-6 m2/S and
For new Cast Iron pipe, the absolute roughness, ε1= ε2 = 2.6 * 10-4 m

 Required: the elevation of B in meters.

 Solution: let start from calculating the velocities, since they are an input for calculating
the Reynold’s number.

Therefore,

v1

Now, the Reynold’s number can be calculated as;

5
Re1 = , Turbulent flow
6
Re2 = , Turbulent flow

Then, we have to calculate; ε1/D1 and ε2/D2 values;

After doing so we can now go to the Mody Diagram:

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From Mody Diagram, for

{ } And
{ }

Now, let write Bernouli between the two reservoirs;

NB: For Sharp edge for the first connection, KL (loss coefficient) = 0.5 and for sudden
contraction for the second part is 0.24.

Finally, the surface elevation of Reservoir B = Elevation of Reservoir A – H (calculated)

= 80 – 13.337

The surface elevation of Reservoir B = 66.663 m

2) Pipeline AB connects two reservoirs. The difference in elevation between the two reservoirs
is 10m. The pipeline consists of an upstream section, D=0.75 and L=1500, and a downstream
section, d=0.5m and L=1000m. The pipes are cast-iron and are connected end to end with a
sudden reduction of area. Assume the water temperature at 10 °c. Compute the discharge
capacity.
 Given: use the diagram for question 1 with the following modifications of parameters only;
Kinetic Viscosity of water at 10ᵒC: V1=V2 = V = 1.31 * 10-6 m2/S and
For new Cast Iron pipe, the absolute roughness, ε1= ε2 = 2.6 * 10-4 m
L1 = 1500 m and D1 = 0.75m
L2 = 1000 m and D2 = 0.5 m

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 Required: the Discharge capacity

 Solution: Let use the Bernouli equation we have written for the first problem;
( ) ( ) ( )
H

Now, substitute the values of the known parameters;

Since there are more than one unknown and cannot be solved using the above equation only.
Therefore, let introduce another equation;
Let use continuity equation;

( )

( )

Substituting it in to the above Bernouli equation;

NB: For Sharp edge for the first connection, KL (loss coefficient) = 0.5 and for sudden
contraction for the second part is 0.24.

Then, simplifying I have;

Again let rewrite the above equation by substituting , I have;

( )

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Substituting the known values and simplifying have;

From what I have I can calculate;

Now, let assume some amount of discharge.

Assume a discharge equivalent to what is stated in question 1, which is Q = 0.5 m3/S
Then,

= 2.546 m3/S

Now, let calculate the Reinhold’s number;

5
Re1 = , Turbulent flow
5
Re2 = , Turbulent flow

From Moody Diagram, for

{ } And
{ }

Then, Calculate H

H = 14.304 m, which is greater than 10 m given. Therefore, my assumption of Q is not correct.

Assuming Q = 0.4 m3/s, then calculate all the parameters;

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5
Re1 , Turbulent flow
5
Re2 = , Turbulent flow,

{ } And { }

Therefore, H = 9.03 m. it is too low (Less than 10 m given). So I have to go for

another trial and plot H versus Discharge.

As shown on the graph, H = 10 m for Q = 0.42 m3/s

Therefore, the discharge capacity is Q = 0.42 m3/s.

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3) Does conservation of energy around a loop apply to the loop shown in the following figure?
Why or why not? The total head loss (sum of friction losses and minor losses) in each pipe
and the direction of flow are shown in the figure.

Solution:
Conservation of energy, the head losses at a given node from any direction to that node must be
equal.

Therefore, let take the cases of each node (Assign clockwise head loss positive and counter
clockwise head loss negative value).

 The node connecting p-23 and p-32,

The sum of head losses = (7.73 – (3.76 + 2.10 + 1.87) = 0, ok!
 The node connecting p-23 and p-25,
The sum of head losses = (7.73 – (3.76 + 2.10 + 1.87) = 0, ok!
 The node connecting p-25 and p-27,
The sum of head losses = (7.73 – (3.76 + 2.10 + 1.87) = 0, ok!
 The node connecting p-27 and p-32,
The sum of head losses = (7.73 – (3.76 + 2.10 + 1.87) = 0, ok!

Therefore, since the head loss in all the nodes (as shown above) are equal, then
conservation of energy around the loop definitely applies for the aforementioned loop
system.

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4) Does Conservation of Energy apply to the system shown in the figure? Data describing the
physical characteristics of each pipe are presented in the table below. Assume that there are
no minor losses in this loop.

Solution: Assume clockwise direction as negative and counterclockwise direction

as positive. Initially just do the calculations based on Hardy-cross method
Pipe ID Discharge length Diameter C Head loss, m hl/Q ΔQ + Q

P-23 0.027 381 0.305 120 0.236214305 8.748678 -0.03048

P-25 0.0076 228.6 0.203 115 0.106700988 14.0396 0.004118

P-27 0.0271 342.9 0.254 120 0.521817868 19.25527 0.023618

P-32 0.0047 353 0.152 105 0.327914819 69.76911 0.001218

0.72021937 111.8127

ΔQ -0.00348

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Then, using solver (Microsoft Excel) minimizes the ΔQ value close to zero and the result
becomes;

Pipe ID Discharge length Diameter C Head loss, m hl/Q ΔQ + Q

P-23 0.03648068 381 0.305 120 -0.41219207 11.29891 -0.03648

P-25 0.006936669 228.6 0.203 115 0.090114068 12.99097 0.006937

P-27 0.010224239 342.9 0.254 120 0.085969246 8.408376 0.010224

P-32 0.003935409 353 0.152 105 0.236108274 59.99587 0.003935

-4.82776E-07 92.69413

ΔQ 2.82E-09

Now let approximate to the closest digit,

Pipe ID Discharge length Diameter C Head loss, m hl/Q ΔQ + Q

P-23 -0.036 381 0.305 120 0.412 11.29891 -0.03648

P-25 0.007 228.6 0.203 115 0.090 12.99097 0.006937

P-27 0.010 342.9 0.254 120 0.086 8.408376 0.010224

P-32 0.004 353 0.152 105 0.236 59.99587 0.003935

-4.82776E-07 92.69413

ΔQ 2.82E-09

Using the table above (the one with the approximate value)
Now check the conservation of energy for the loop in such a manner that the head loss at any of
the nodes has the same value when it is approached from different directions, i.e.
Head loss at any of the nodes = 0.412 – (0.090 + 0.086 + 0.236) = 0
The minus sign indicates the direction difference, where the positive one is the one flowing in
the clockwise direction and the negative values indicate they are flowing in counter clockwise
direction.
Therefore, for the given loop tit is possible to apply conservation of energy.

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5) Manually, find the flow rate through the system shown in the figure and compute the
pressure at node. Also, find the suction and discharge pressures of the pump if it is at an
elevation of 115 ft. Use the Hazen-William’s equation to compute friction losses. Assume hP
is in ft and Q is in cfs.

Given:

Let see the system in three divisions;

Section 1 :From R-A to Pump Section 2: From Pump to Junction, J- Section 3: From Junction, J-1 to R-B
(let denote it by 1) 1(let denote it by 2) (let denote it by 3)

Length, L1 = 220 ft Length, L2 = 2200 ft Length, L3 = 1000 ft

Diameter, D1 = 16 in = 1.33 ft Diameter, D2 = 12in = 1 ft Diameter, D3 = 12 in = 1 ft
Elevation, Z A = 125 ft Elevation, Z J-1 = 250 ft Elevation, Z B =300 ft
C1 = 120 C2 = 120 C3 = 120

And the pump characteristics equation is;

Where; hp in ft and Q in cfs.

Required:

a. The flow rate through the system and the pressure at J-1.
b. The suction and discharge pressures of the pump if it is at an elevation of 115 ft

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Solution:

a. Let calculate the flow through the system and the pressure at J-1

The energy equation between the two reservoirs for the pressurized system can be written as;

It can be simplified as;

Can be re-written in terms of Q as:

Assuming the minor loss to be negligible and the pressure on the reservoirs is atmospheric
(cancel each other).

Rewriting I have;

( )

So now let see the head loss, hLfor the three sections of the system,

Head loss for section 1: (using Hazen William’s formula with English Units)

Where; and;

Then substituting in the head loss equation;

( )

And;

; using g = 32.2 ft/s2

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Head loss for section 2: (using Hazen William’s formula with English Units)

Where; and;

Then substituting in the head loss equation;

( )

And;

Head loss for section 3: (using Hazen William’s formula with English Units)

Where; and;

Then substituting in the head loss equation;

( )

And;

Then, the total head loss is calculated as (do not forget that they are approximate values);

Again,

( )

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( )

From the question I have, , then equating the two hp values;

, then simplifying;

, solving;

Q = 2.141 cfs (solved using Goal Seek in Excel), so approximating

Q = 2.14 cfs
 Now let calculate the pressure at J-1:

Let write energy equation between J-1 and R-B

Assuming the minor loss to be negligible, the equation can be simplified as;

Since are equal, cancel each other. What is left is that;

, here notice that the pressure at B is atmospheric pressure and use it

as 101000 pa, take density of water 1000 Kg/m3 and g of 9.81 m/s2

Then,

 The head loss is the sum of the head loss between J-1 and R-B, therefore;

, use the previously calculated values of head losses and Q

, then

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Then, the pressure at J-1 becomes:

Therefore, the pressure at J-1 is = 192.49 ft.

b. Let calculate the suction and discharge pressures of the pump if it is at an elevation of 115 ft.

The suction occurs in between R-A and the pump;

Then, let calculate for the Net Positive Suction head (NPSH);

( ) ,

Is the saturation pressure head and take its value as 0.62 ft; calculate the value;

Again the discharge pressure (head) can be calculated as; the so called the dynamic head (hd)

The positive lift is the lift from the pump to R-B

The head loss if the head loss in the section from the pump to R-B; so

, use the previously calculated values of head losses and Q

Then, the dynamic head;

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6) Manually, find the flow in each pipeline and the pressure at node J-1 for the system shown in
the figure. Assume that hP is in m and Q is in m3/s and note the demand at junction J-1 of
21.2 l/s. Use the Hazen-Williams equation to compute friction losses.

Hint: Express the flow in Pipe 3 in terms of the flow in Pipe 1 or Pipe 2.

Given:

Let see the system in three divisions;

Section 1 :From R-A to Pump (let Section 2: From Pump to Junction, J- Section 3: From Junction, J-1 to R-B
denote it by 1) 1(let denote it by 2) (let denote it by 3)

Length, L1 =67.1 m Length, L2 = 670.6 m Length, L3 = 304.8 m

Diameter, D1 = 406 mm = 0.406 m Diameter, D2 = 305 mm = 0.305 m Diameter, D3 = 305 mm = 0.305 m
Elevation, Z A = 38.1 m Elevation, Z J-1 = 45.7 Elevation, Z B = 91.4 m
C1 = 120 QJ1 = 21.2 l/s = 0.021 m3/s C3 = 120
C2 = 120

And the pump characteristics equation is;

Where; hp is in m and Q in cms.

Required:

a. The flow rate through each pipe and

b. The pressure at J-1.

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Solution:

a. Let calculate the flow through each pipe

Can be re-written in terms of Q as:

Where Q3 = Q1 – the demand at J1 = Q1 – 0.0212 and Q1=Q2

Assuming the minor loss to be negligible and the pressure on the reservoirs is atmospheric
(cancel each other).

Rewriting I have;

( )

( )

So now let see the head loss, hLfor the three sections of the system,

Head loss for section 1: (using Hazen William’s formula with English Units)

, all parameters are in SI units.

Then substituting in the head loss equation;

And;

And;

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Head loss for section 2: (using Hazen William’s formula with English Units)

, all parameters are in SI units.

Then substituting in the head loss equation;

And;

Head loss for section 3: (using Hazen William’s formula with English Units)

 Let write Q3 in terms of Q1,

, all parameters are in SI units.

Then substituting in the head loss equation;

And;

Then, the total head loss is calculated as (do not forget that they are approximate values);

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Again,

( )

Then;

( )

From the question I have, , then equating the two hp values;

, then simplifying;

, solving;

Q1 = 0.0713 m3/s (solved using Goal Seek in Excel), so approximating

Q1 = Q2 = 0.0713 m3/s

And then solve for Q3;

m3/s

Therefore, m3/s

b. The pressure at J-1.

Let write energy equation between J-1 and R-B

Assuming the minor loss to be negligible and the equation can be simplified as;
( )
, then solve for the pressure at J-1

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WATER SUPPLY AND URBAN DRAINAGE, TUTORIAL ON PIPE FLOW
( )
, here notice that the velocity heads are equal
for both the cases and cancel each other. The pressure at B is atmospheric pressure and uses it as
101000 pa, take density of water 1000 Kg/m3 and g of 9.81 m/s2

Then,

 The head loss is the sum of the head loss between J-1 and R-B, therefore;

, use the previously calculated values of head losses and Q

Therefore, , between the junction and Reservoir B.

Then, the pressure at J-1 becomes:

Therefore, the pressure at J-1 is = 59.04 m.

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7) Manually find the discharge through each pipeline and the pressure at each junction node of
the rural water system shown in the figure. Physical data for this system are given in the
tables that follow. Fill in the tables at the end of the problem. Use English Units.

Given:

The length, diameter and Hazen William’s coefficient for each pipe, and the Nodal Elevations of
each node are given.

Required:

a. The flow rate through each pipe and

b. The pressure at all the nodes.

Solution:

a. Let assign the flow rate through each pipelines.

It is possible to assign the flow rate through each pipe line first by summing up all the nodal
demands and assuming that the reservoir releases an amount of water equivalent to the nodal
demand.

Sum up all the nodal demands as shown below

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NODE LABEL H(ft) Q(gpm) (Imperial)

R-1 1050 N/A
J-1 860 40
J-2 865 15
J-3 870 30
J-4 875 25
J-5 880 5
J-6 885 12
J-7 880 75
J-8 850 25
J-9 860 0
J-10 860 18
J-11 850 15
J-12 845 10
SUM 270

 This means that 270 gpm of water will be released from the reservoir. Meaning that the flow
through pipe one (connected to the reservoir) (P1) is 270 gpm.
 270 gpm will enter J1 and the demand at J1 is 40 gpm. So what remains is that 270 – 40 =
230 gpm.
 From the 230 gpm J2 needs 15 gpm, therefore the flow through pipe two (P2) is 15 gpm
since there is no other pipe connected to it. So what remains is that 230 – 15 = 215 gpm
 The above implies that 215 gpm of water will flow through pipe three (P3) and will enter to
J3.
 J3 is connected with pipe four (P4) to J4, J5 and J6. Here it is needed to add all the demand
of the nodes, J4, J5 and J6. It is 25 + 5 + 12 = 42 gpm. This means that from the 215 gpm
water entered to J3: J4, J5 and J6 requires 42 gpm in gross. Therefore, the flow through pipe
4 to junctions J4, J5 and J6 is 42 gpm.
 Pipe 4 (P4) leads all the 42 gpm water to J4 first. 25 gpm required by J4 consumed there and
the remaining will go to J5 and J6 as per their requirement. Therefore, J5 requires 5 gpm so
that Pipe 5 (P5) carries 5 gpm and J6 requires 12 gpm so that Pipe 6 (P6) carries 12 gpm.
 From the 215 gpm of water entered J3, J3 itself consumed 30 gpm and 42 gpm is consumed
by J4, J5 and J6. Therefore what remains is that 215 – 30 – 42 = 143 gpm and which is the
flow through the next pipe, pipe 7 (P7).
 From the 143 gpm of water entered to J7, the node J8 requires 25 gpm. Since there is no
another pipe connected to J8, the flow through pipe 8 is equivalent to the demand of the
node, so pipe 8 carries (P8) 25 gpm of water.
 Nodes J9 and J10 are connected to J7. The nodal demand of these two nodes in gross is 18
gpm. So this means that pipe 9 (P9) carries 18 gpm water to these nodes. Pipe 9 delivers

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water to J9. There is Pipe 10, which takes the water from J9 and delivers it to J10. Since the
demand in J9 is zero, all what is come will pass through and carried by pipe 10 to J10.
Therefore, the water flowing through pipe 10 (P10) is 18 gpm.
 From the 143 gpm of water entered to J7; 75 gpm consumed by J7, 25 gpm consumed by J8
and 18 gpm consumed by J and J10. Therefore, what remains is that 143 – 75 – 25 – 18 = 25
gpm.
 What has remained, 25 gpm, will pass through pipe 11 to nodes J12 and J11. Therefore, the
flow through pipe 11 (P11) is 25 gpm.
 The water flowed through pipe 11 first reaches J12, having a demand of 10 gpm. So this
means that what is remained, 25 – 10 = 15 gpm, will pass through and enter J11 to satisfy its
need. Therefore, the flow through pipe 12 (P12) is 15 gpm.

What is discussed above is summarized below in table.

Pipe ID Assigned Flow (Q in gpm)

P1 270
P2 15
P3 215
P4 42
P5 5
P6 12
P7 143
P8 25
P9 18
P10 18
P11 25
P12 15

b. The pressure at all the nodes.

To calculate the pressure at each node first let calculate the head loss through each pipe using the
Hazen William’s formula shown below.

Where,

 hL = head loss in feet (ft)

 L = length of pipe in feet
 C = Hazen William’s coeffcicient
 D = Diameter of Pipe in feet
 Q = The flow through the pipe in cfs (cubic feet per second),

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For example for the first pipe; for Pipe 1 (P1):

, the coefficients indicate the pipe number.

Substituting the values;

Assuming all the minor losses to be 10% major head loss,

Do the same step for all of the pipes. After doing so the headloss through each pipe is
summarized in the table below.

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After calculating the head losses of each pipes, the next step is applying the energy equation
considering Reservoir 1 (R-1) as a starting point and the other points (means from R-1 to J1,
from R-1 to J2, from R-1 to J3,………, from R-1 to J12).

Let apply the energy equation between R-1 and J1; calculate the residual pressure first.

I ignored the velocity head since it is very small number (insignificant)

The pressure head at J1 become,

The pressure at the reservoir, let take it as atmospheric pressure, use it as 101000 pa, take
density of water 1000 Kg/m3 and g of 9.81 m/s2

Then,

Therefore, the pressure at J1 is 223.76 ft (approximately).

The pressure head at J12 become, ignore the velocity head sincce it is very small number as
shown in the table above

The pressure at the reservoir, let take it as atmospheric pressure, use it as 101000 pa, take
density of water 1000 Kg/m3 and g of 9.81 m/s2

Then,

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Therefore, the pressure at J12 is 238.76 ft (approximately).

I followed the same step and summarized the pressure at each nodes as follows in the table
below.

NODE H(ft) From To Pressure at R- Zji-ZR1 Hres (ft) = col6 – Absolute pressure (ft)
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1 (P/ρg) = 1050 – col2 hL -minor losses = col7 + col 5
(5) (starting from J-1) (7) (8)
(6)
R-1 1050 33.76
J-1 860 R-1 J-1 33.76 190 190 223.7599973
J-2 865 R-1 J-2 33.76 185 185 218.7599969
J-3 870 R-1 J-3 33.76 180 180 213.7599824
J-4 875 R-1 J-4 33.76 175 175 208.7599809
J-5 880 R-1 J-5 33.76 170 170 203.7599808
J-6 885 R-1 J-6 33.76 165 198.76 232.5199799
J-7 880 R-1 J-7 33.76 170 170 203.7599566
J-8 850 R-1 J-8 33.76 200 199.9999 233.7599204
J-9 860 R-1 J-9 33.76 190 189.9998 223.7598379
J-10 860 R-1 J-10 33.76 190 189.9998 223.7598348
J-11 850 R-1 J-11 33.76 200 200 233.7599535
J-12 845 R-1 J-12 33.76 205 205 238.7599561

 In column 7,take the head losses (both the major and minor) from the previous table as
calculated. You need to take both the head losses that corresponds to the losses from the
beginning point to the respective nodes that will be found in the way to the nodes.
Finally, to answer the question as per the fromat required by the question.

Pipe label Flow (gpm) Head loss (ft) (Major)

P1 270 4.53E-01
P2 15 6.19E-02
P3 215 2.49E+00
P4 42 2.45E-01
P5 5 1.43E-02
P6 12 1.72E-01
P7 143 4.30E+00
P8 25 6.04E+00
P9 18 1.98E+01
P10 18 5.18E-01
P11 25 7.57E-02
P12 15 4.33E-01

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