izFke 10 feuV esa vH;FkhZ viuh iz'u&iqfLrdk ds Øekad dk feyku vks0,e0vkj0 mÙkj i=d ds Øekad ls dj ysaA ;fn vks0

,e0
vkj0 mÙkj i=d o iz'u&iqfLrdk ds Øekad fHkUu gSa rks dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u&iqfLrdk cny ysaA

Level : 2 Exam. – 2018

TGT : For Classes VI to VIII MATHEMATICS
Sub. Code No. : 3210 iz'u&iqfLrdk Øekad ,oa vks0,e0vkj0 Øekad
Question-Booklet Serial No. & O. M. R. Serial No.
vuqØekad ¼vadksa esa½ %






SET : A
Roll No. (In Figures)
vuqØekad ¼'kCnksa esa½ % _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Roll No. (In Words)
ijh{kk dsUnz dk uke % _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Name of Examination Centre
vH;FkhZ dk uke % ___________________________________________________________ vH;FkhZ ds gLrk{kj % ________________________________________
Name of Candidate Signature of Candidate
bl iz'u&iqfLrdk esa i`"Bksa dh la[;k 48 iz'uksa dh la[;k 150 le; 2½ hours
No. of Pages in this Question Booklet No. of Questions Time

fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj@Signature of Invigilator : ___________________________________

vH;FkhZ dks 10 feuV dk le; iz'u&iqfLrdk ij Nis funsZ'kksa dks i<+us rFkk mÙkj i=d esa vius fooj.k Hkjus ds fy, fn;k tk,xkA ;fn iz'u&iqfLrdk o
mÙkj i=d dh Øe la[;k xyr vafdr gksa rks rqjUr dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u&iqfLrdk cny ysaA blds i'pkr~ dksbZ nkok Lohdkj ugha
fd;k tk,xkA bu 10 feuVksa ds vfrfjDr] iz'uksa ds mÙkj vafdr djus ds fy, iwjs 2½ ?kaVs dk le; fn;k tk,xkA• ;fn fdlh vH;FkhZ dks
iz'u&iqfLrdk esa fn, x, fdlh Hkh iz'u eas dksbZ =qfV gksus dk lansg gks rks blds fy, vH;fFkZ;kas dks ijh{kk lekfIr ds mijkUr izfrosnu nsus ds
fy, volj fn;k tk,xkA vr% vH;FkhZ fu/kkZfjr volj ds nkSjku bl lEcU/k eas viuk izfrosnu cksMZ dk;kZy; eas ntZ djok ldrs gSAa bl volj
ds ckn] bl lEcU/k esa izkIr izfrosnuksa ij dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA
;fn fdlh iz'u esa fgUnh o vaxzsth ek/;e esa fHkUurk gS rks vaxzsth ek/;e dk iz'u Bhd ekuk tk,xkA
If there is any variance between Hindi and English Version of any question then English Version would be considered correct.

vH;fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k@INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES :

1. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i=d bl iz'u&iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc vkidks iz'u&iqfLrdk i<+us dks dgk tk,] rks mÙkj i=d fudky dj /;ku ls
dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls fooj.k HkjsaA (The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Question Booklet. When you are directed to read
the Question Booklet, take out the OMR Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.)
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2½ ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u&iqfLrdk esa 150 iz’u gSaA dksbZ _.kkRed vadu ugha gSA (The test is of two-and-half hours
duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking.)
3. vius fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij fu’kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu dk iz;ksx djsAa vH;FkhZ
iz'u&iqfLrdk dk mi;ksx djus ,oa mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsAa (Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing
particulars on this page/darkening responses in the Answer Sheet. The candidate should remain careful in handling the
question paper and in darkening the responses on the answer sheet.)
4. izFke 10 feuV esa] ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa fd iz'u&iqfLrdk Øekad vkSj mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSaA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa rks vH;FkhZ
nwljh iz’u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds fy, i;Zos{kd dks rqjUr voxr djok,¡A (Within first 10 minutes, also ensure that your
Question Booklet Serial No. and Answer Sheet Serial No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately
report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet.)

5. ysoy&2 ¼d{kk VI ls VIII ds fy,½ 5. Level–2 (For Classes VI to VIII)

Hkkx&I % cky fodkl o f’k{kk 'kkL= ¼ç0 1 ls ç0 30½ Part–I : Child Development
and Pedagogy (Q. 1 to Q. 30)
Hkkx&II % Hkk"kk % ¼ç0 31 ls ç0 60½
Part–II : Language : (Q. 31 to Q. 60)
¼fgUnh % 15 iz'u o vaxzsth % 15 iz'u½
(Hindi : 15 Q. & English : 15 Q.)
Hkkx&III % lkekU; v/;;u % ¼ç0 61 ls ç0 90½ Part–III : General Studies : (Q. 61 to Q. 90)
¼ek=kRed ;ksX;rk % 10 iz'u] rkfdZd vfHk{kerk % 10 iz'u] (Quantitative Aptitude : 10 Q, Reasoning
lkekU; Kku ,oa vfHkKku % 10 iz'u½ Ability : 10 Q, G. K. & Awareness : 10 Q)
Hkkx&IV % xf.kr ¼ç0 91 ls ç0 150½ Part–IV : Mathematics (Q. 91 to Q. 150)

uksV % Ñi;k bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funsZ'kksa dks i<+Aas (Please read other remaining instructions given on the last page of this booklet.)
 [3] [A]
Hkkx – I / PART – I
cky fodkl o f'k{kk'kkL= / CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu-lk xkMZuj }kjk fn;s x, 1. Which of the following is not a type of
cqf) dk ,d izdkj ugha gS \ intelligence as proposed by Gardener ?
(1) laxhrh; cqf) (1) Musical Intelligence
(2) Hkk"kk;h cqf) (2) Linguistic Intelligence
(3) rkfdZd ,oa xf.krh; cqf) (3) Logico-Mathematical Intelligence
(4) ltZukRed cqf) (4) Creative Intelligence

2. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu-lk dFku lR; ugha gS \ 2. Which of the following statement is not
(1) ckSf)d v{kerk ,oa vf/kxe v{kerk correct ?
nksuksa leku ugha gSAa (1) Intellectual Disability and Learning
(2) vf/kxe v{kerk ;qDr ckyd dh IQ Disability are not same.
fuf'pr :i ls 70 ls de gksuh pkfg,A (2) A child with learning disability
essentially has an IQ score less
than 70.
(3) ckSf)d v{kerk 18 o"kZ dh vk;q ls iwoZ
gksrh gSA (3) Intellectual Disability occurs before
age 18.

(4) ckSf)d v{kerk ,oa vf/kxe v{kerk (4) Intellectual Disability and learning
nksuksa gh fodklkRed v{kerk,¡ gSaA Disability both are Developmental
Disability.

3. czkWuQsucszuj ds fodkl ds ikfjfLFkfrdh; ra= 3. Which of the following system contains

fl)kUr ds vuqlkj] ^ekrk-firk dk dk;ZLFky* 'Parents Work Place' as per the
fuEukafdr esa ls fdl ra= esa lekfgr gS \ Bronfenbrenner's Ecological Theory of
Development ?

(1) lw{e ra= (1) Micro System

(2) o`gr~ ra= (2) Macro System

(3) ehtks ra= (3) Meso System

(4) ,Dlks ra= (4) Exo System

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4. ,d ek¡ vius cPps dks nw/k fiykus ls Bhd 4. A mother gently strokes her infant's
igys mlds yykV ij Fkifd;k¡ nsrh gSA tYnh forehead each time immediate before
og ns[krh gS fd gj ckj tc Hkh cPps ds breast feeding. Soon, she noticed that
yykV ij Fkifd;k¡ nsrh gS] og lfØ; gksdj each time the baby's forehead is
pwlus laca/kh xfrfof/k;k¡ iznf'kZr djus yxrk stroked, he makes active sucking
gSA cPps dk ;g O;ogkj loksÙZ ke O;k[;k gS % movement. The baby's behaviour best
describes :
(1) iz;kl ,oa =qfV }kjk vf/kxe dk (1) Trial and Error learning
(2) 'kkL=h; vuqca/ku dk (2) Classical Conditioning
(3) fØ;k-izlwr vuqca/ku dk (3) Operant Conditioning
(4) lkekftd vf/kxe dk (4) Social Learning
5. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu-lk dFku ^lehiLFk 5. Which of the following is not true about
fodkl dk {ks=* ds lanHkZ eas lgh ugha gS \ 'Zone of Proximal Development' ?
(1) ;g okbxksRldh ds fl)kUr ls tqM+k gSA (1) It is related to Vygotsky's Theory.
(2) ;g cPps ds lh[kus dh {kerk dh mPp (2) It sets the upper limit on what the
lhek fu/kkZfjr djrk gSA child is capable to learn.
(3) ;g mu dk;ks±/fØ;kvksa dk {ks= gS ftUgsa (3) It is a range of tasks that a learner
cPpk fcuk nwljksa dh lgk;rk ds iwjk cannot perform without help of
ugha dj ldrk vkSj uk gh Lora= :i ls others but yet cannot perform
Lo;a dj ldrk gSA independently.
(4) ;g mu dk;ks± dh mPp lhek gS ftls (4) It is the upper limit of a task that a
cPpk lQyrkiwod Z Lora= :i ls dj learner can successfully perform
ldrk gSA independently.

6. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu-lk dFku lR; ugha gS \ 6. Which of the following statement is not
true ?
(1) 'kkL=h; vuqca/ku ,sfPNd O;ogkjksa ls (1) Classical conditioning deals with
lEcfU/kr gSA voluntary behaviours.

(2) fØ;k-izlwr vuqca/ku ,sfPNd O;ogkjksa ls (2) Operant conditioning deals with
voluntary behaviours.
lEcfU/kr gSA
(3) Classical conditioning deals with
(3) 'kkL=h; vuqca/ku vuSfPNd O;ogkjksa ls
involuntary behaviours.
lEcfU/kr gSA
(4) In operant conditioning,
(4) fØ;k-izlwr vuqca/ku esa ^ifj.kke*]
'consequences' are important in
vuqca/ku dk ,d egÙoiw.kZ dkjd gSA framing an association.

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7. ehrk us f[kykSuk-lk¡i ls yxus okyk Hk; nwj 7. Meeta has overcome her fear of toy-
dj fy;k Fkk] ijUrq ,d fnu vpkud mldk snakes. However on one occasion her
Mj okil ykSV vk;k tc mls vius fcLrj fear returned when she found toy-snake
ij ,d f[kykSuk lk¡i iM+k feykA Hk; ds bl on her bed. Such return of fear can be
izdkj okilh dks dgk tk ldrk gS % termed as :
(1) míhid lkekU;hdj.k (1) Stimulus Generalization
(2) míhid foHksnu (2) Stimulus Discrimination
(3) Lor% iquizkZfIr (3) Spontaneous Recovery
(4) foyksiu (4) Extinction

8. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu-lh izfØ;k fi;kts ds 8. Which of the following is not a process
laKkukRed fodkl dh ,d izfØ;k ugha gS \ of Cognitive Development as given by
Piaget ?
(1) lfEeyu (1) Assimilation
(2) vkRelkrhdj.k (2) Accommodation
(3) vuqdwyu (3) Adaptation
(4) 'ksfiax (4) Shaping

9. LVuZcxZ }kjk fn;s x;s lQy cqf) ds 9. Which of the following type is not a
f='kk[kh; (Triarchial) fl)kUr ds vuqlkj type of Intelligence, as given in
fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu-lk cqf) dk ,d izdkj Sternberg's Triarchial Theory of
ugha gS \ successful intelligence ?
(1) fo'ys"k.kkRed cqf) (1) Analytical Intelligence
(2) ltZukRed cqf) (2) Creative Intelligence
(3) laxhrh; cqf) (3) Musical Intelligence
(4) izk;ksfxd cqf) (4) Practical Intelligence

10. ;g dFku ^rqe esjh ihB [kqtkvks] eSa rqEgkjh 10. The example 'you scratch my back and I
[kqtkšxk*] fuEukafdr esa ls fdl izdkj dh will scratch yours', indicates which type
uSfrdrk dh vksj bafxr djrk gS \ tSlk fd of morality as given by Piaget ?
fi;kts us crk;k % (1) Beginning of Morality of Co-
(1) lg;ksx dh uSfrdrk dk vkjaHk operation
(2) iwoZ :f<+oknh uSfrdrk (2) Pre-conventional morality
(3) okLrookn (3) Realism
(4) uSfrdrk ls dksbZ laca/k ugha gS (4) Not related to moral concern

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[A] [6]

11. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu-lk 'kkL=h; vuqca/ku ls 11. Which of the following is not related to
lacaf/kr ugha gS \ the classical conditioning experiment ?
(1) foyksiu (1) Extinction
(2) Lor% iquizkZfIr (2) Spontaneous Recovery
(3) 'ksfiax (3) Shaping
(4) míhid foHksnu (4) Stimulus Discrimination

12. ^Loyhurk* dh loZizFke O;k[;k nh gS % 12. 'Autism' was first described by :

(1) lSeqvy fddZ us (1) Samuel Kirk

(2) fy;ks dSuj us (2) Leo Kanner

(3) ch0 ,Q0 fLduj us (3) B. F. Skinner

(4) ts0 ch0 okVlu us (4) J. B. Watson

13. fuEufyf[kr eas ls dkSu&lk fodYi lkekthdj.k 13. Out of the following alternative which
dh izfØ;k ds vUrxZr ugha vkrk gS \ one is not comes under processes in
(1) lkekftd :i ls vuqeksfnr O;ogkj dks socialization ?
lh[kuk (1) Learning to behave in socially
approved way
(2) lkekftd :i ls vuqeksfnr Hkwfedk dk
fuokZg djuk (2) Playing approved social roles

(3) lkekftd vfHko`fÙk dk fodkl (3) Development of social attitudes

(4) vkRedsfUnzr O;ogkj dk vuqeksnu (4) Approval of egocentric behaviour

14. og vkdyu tks vuqns'ku ds nkSjku ;k 14. The Assessment done during or before
vuqns'ku ds iwoZ fd;k tkrk gS] mls dgk tkrk instruction is known as :
gS %
(1) ;ksxkRed vkdyu (1) Summative Assessment
(2) jpukRed vkdyu (2) Formative Assessment
(3) vkSipkfjd vkdyu (3) Formal Assessment
(4) funkukRed vkdyu (4) Diagnostic Assessment

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15. thu fi;kts ds laKkukRed fodkl ds fl)kUr 15. In which of the following stage of
ds vuqlkj ,d ckyd ^laj{k.k* ds fl)kUr Cognitive Development, as described
dks le>us esa l{ke gks tkrk gS % by Jean Piaget, a child become capable
of understanding 'Conservation' ?
(1) laosnh xked voLFkk esa (1) Sensory Motor Stage
(2) iwoZ lafØ;kRed voLFkk esa (2) Pre-operational Stage
(3) ewrZ lafØ;kRed voLFkk esa (3) Concrete Operational Stage
(4) vkSipkfjd lafØ;kRed voLFkk esa (4) Formal Operational Stage

16. dksgycxZ ds vuqlkj] vPNk ckyd/vPNh 16. According to Kohlberg, Good Boy/Good
ckfydk dh vksj mUeq[k gksuk ladsr gS % Girl orientation indicates :
(1) iwoZ ykSfdd uSfrdrk dk (1) Pre conventional Morality
(2) i'p ykSfdd uSfrdrk dk (2) Post conventional Morality
(3) ykSfdd uSfrdrk dk (3) Conventional Morality
(4) uSfrdrk dk lkisf{kd (4) Relative Morality

17. pkj o"kZ dh fcUuh us ^fcLrj xhyk* djuk 'kq: 17. Four year old Binny started wetting her
dj fn;k tc mlds ekrk-firk ,d u;s cPps bed after her parents brings home a new
dks ?kj ysdj vk;sA ;g fuEukafdr esa ls fdl baby. Which of the following type
izdkj dh ^lqj{kk ;qfDr* dk mnkgj.k gS \ 'defense mechanism' it is ?
(1) i'pxeu (1) Regression
(2) neu (2) Suppression
(3) rknkRehdj.k (3) Rationalization
(4) foLFkkiu (4) Displacement

18. fuEukafdr eas ls dkSu-lk uotkr f'k'kq ds 18. Which of the following is not an
^fj¶ySDl* dk ,d izdkj ugha gS \ example of newborn 'reflexes' ?
(1) vk¡[k >idkuk (1) Eye blink
(2) pwluk (2) Sucking
(3) rSjuk (3) Swimming
(4) dkj pykuk (4) Driving Car

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[A] [8]

19. cqf) dk ^f=Lrjh; fl)kar* (Three Stratum 19. The 'Three Stratum Theory' of
Theory) fn;k x;k gS % Intelligence was given by :
(1) fi;kts ds }kjk (1) Piaget
(2) fcus ds }kjk (2) Binnet
(3) dSjksy ds }kjk (3) Carrol
(4) dSVy ds }kjk (4) Cattle

20. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu-lk dFku efLr"d ds 20. Which of the following is not true about
czksdk {ks= ds lanHkZ esa lgh ugha gS \ the Broca's area of brain ?
(1) ;g efLr"d ds ck;sa ÝaVy yksc esa fLFkr (1) It is located in the left frontal lobe.
gksrk gSA (2) It supports grammatical processing.
(2) ;g O;kdj.k laca/kh izfØ;kvksa esa lgk;rk (3) It is responsible for language
djrk gSA production.
(3) ;g Hkk"kk mRiknu dk dk;Z djrk gSA (4) It is responsible for comprehending
(4) ;g 'kCnksa ds vFkZ le>us esa enn djrk gSA word meaning.

21. ;fn ,d cPpk vkidks ;g crk jgk gS fd 21. If a child is sharing with you what he
vkt lqcg mBus ds ckn mlus D;k fd;k] rc did after he got up in the morning, he is
og iz;ksx dj jgk gS % using his :
(1) vFkZxr LEk`fr dk (1) Semantic Memory
(2) laosnh iath;u dk (2) Sensory Register
(3) izfØ;kRed LEk`fr dk (3) Procedural Memory
(4) /kkjkokfgd LEk`fr dk (4) Episodic Memory

22. ^ukVdh;-[ksy* ds ckjs esa fuEukafdr esa ls 22. Which of the following is not true about
dkSu-lk dFku lgh ugha gS \ dramatic play ?
(1) ;g lfØ;-[ksy dk ,d izdkj gSA (1) It is a form of active play.
(2) ;g ^Lok¡x jpuk [ksy* (Make Believe
(2) It is known as make believe play.
Play) ds uke ls Hkh tkuk tkrk gSA
(3) It involve overt behaviour.
(3) blesa izR;{k O;ogkj lekfgr gSA
(4) ;g ges'kk iqumZRiknd gksrk gSA (4) It is always reproductive.

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23. fdlh vuqfØ;k dh vko`fÙk dks jksdus ds fy, 23. Presentation of an unpleasent stimulus
fdlh vfiz; míhid ds iz;ksx dks dgrs gSa % to decrease the occurrence of a response
is known as :
(1) ldkjkRed iqucZyu (1) Positive Reinforcement
(2) udkjkRed iqucZyu (2) Negative Reinforcement
(3) naM (3) Punishment
(4) izsjd (4) Motivator

24. ;g dFku fd ^O;fDrRo] lh[kh gq;h 24. The statement 'Personality is nothing
vuqfØ;kvksa dk ,d leqPp;-ek= gS*] O;fDrRo but a set of learned responses', best
ds lanHkZ esa fuEukafdr esa ls fdl n`f"Vdks.k dh describes which of the following view
loksÙZ ke O;k[;k gS \ about personality ?
(1) O;ogkjoknh n`f"Vdks.k dh (1) Behaviouristic view
(2) lajpukoknh n`f"Vdks.k dh (2) Structuralist view
(3) izdk;Zoknh n`f"Vdks.k dh (3) Functionalist view
(4) laKkuoknh n`f"Vdks.k dh (4) Cognitivist view

25. tc pkyd dkj dh lhV-csYV ck¡/k ysrk gS] 25. The seat belt buzzer of a car, stops as
rc dkj dk lhV csYV ctj ctuk can gks soon as the driver put on the seat belt. It
tkrk gSA ;g mnkgj.k gS % is an example of :
(1) ldkjkRed iqucZyu dk (1) Positive Reinforcement
(2) udkjkRed iqucZyu dk (2) Negative Reinforcement
(3) ldkjkRed naM dk (3) Positive Punishment
(4) udkjkRed naM dk (4) Negative Punishment

26. ;g tkuuk fd ^lkbfdy dSls pyk;sa* ,d 26. Knowing 'how to ride a bicycle' is an
mnkgj.k gS % example of :
(1) izfØ;kRed Kku dk (1) Procedural knowledge
(2) ?kks"k.kkRed Kku dk (2) Declarative knowledge
(3) Li"V Kku dk (3) Explicit knowledge
(4) dksbZ fodYi lgh ugha gS (4) No option is correct

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27. fodkldky ds nkSjku Hkzw.k ds flj dk fodkl 27. During the developmental period of
mlds iSjkas ls igys gksrk gSA ;g fodkl dh foetus' head is well developed before his
dkSu&lh izo`fÙk dh loksZÙke O;k[;k gS \ legs. This best describes which of the
following tendency of development ?
(1) dsUnz ls ckgj dh vksj (1) Proximo-distal
(2) flj ls iSj dh vksj (2) Cephalo-caudal
(3) le:irk (3) Uniformity
(4) ,dhdj.k (4) Integration

28. cPpksa ds [ksy ds lanHkZ esa fuEukafdr esa ls 28. Which of the following is not true about
dkSu-lk dFku lgh ugha gS \ children's play ?
(1) [ksy-fØ;kvksa dh la[;k vk;q c<+us ds (1) The number of play activities
lkFk de gksrh tkrh gSA decrease with increasing age.
(2) vk;q c<+us ds lkFk-lkFk [ksy T;knk (2) Play becomes increasingly social
lkekftd gksrk tkrk gSA with increasing age.
(3) lkFk [ksyus okys lkfFk;ksa dh la[;k vk;q (3) The number of playmates increases
c<+us ds lkFk c<+rh tkrh gSA with increasing age.
(4) vk;q c<+us ds lkFk [ksy T;knk ySafxd (4) Play become increasingly sex-
:i ls mi;qDr gks tkrk gSA appropriate with increasing age.

29. ^xf.krh;/x.kuk* laca/kh v{kerk ,d izdkj gS % 29. 'Dyscalculia' is a type of :

(1) xked v{kerk dk (1) Locomotor Disability
(2) vf/kxe v{kerk dk (2) Learning Disability
(3) ckSf)d v{kerk dk (3) Intellectual Disability
(4) n`f"V ckf/krk dk (4) Visual Impairment

30. fuEukafdr esa ls fdl n`f"Vdks.k dh ;g ekU;rk 30. Which of the following theory assumes
gS fd cky fodkl ,d lrr izfØ;k ugha gS \ that Child Development is not a
continuous process ?
(1) fi;kts dk laKkukRed fodkl dk fl)kUr (1) Cognitive Development theory of
Piaget
(2) O;ogkjokn (2) Behaviourism
(3) lkekftd vf/kxe fl)kUr (3) Social learning theory
(4) ikfjfLFkfrdh; ra= fl)kUr (4) Ecological system theory

Level-2/3210
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Hkkx – II / PART – II
Hkk"kk ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ / LANGUAGES (HINDI & ENGLISH)
[ fgUnh / HINDI ]
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A

31. ^o;kso`)* 'kCn esa laf/k gS % 35. fdl okD; esa lkoZukfed fo'ks"k.k dk iz;ksx
(1) Loj laf/k (2) o.kkZxe laf/k gqvk gS \
(3) folxZ laf/k (4) O;atu laf/k
(1) rqe lc vk x,; vPNs dgk¡ jg x,A
32. okrZfud n`f"V ls v'kq) fodYi pqfu, % (2) tks ckgj [kM+k gS mls vUnj cqykvksA
(1) fo}rk (2) xhrkatyh
(3) rqe Nk=ksa ds fy, dqN fdrkcsa ys vkvksA
(3) if{kx.k (4) LokfeHkDr
(4) dqN rqe djks; dqN eSa d:¡xkA
33. fdl okD; esa loZuke inca/k dk iz;ksx gqvk
gS \ 36. ^og fnuHkj fy[krk jgkA* okD; esa iz;qDr
(1) esjs fj'rsnkjksa esa ls dksbZ le; ij ugha fØ;k fo'ks"k.k dk Hksn bafxr dhft, %
igq¡pkA
(1) dkyokpd fØ;k fo'ks"k.k
(2) fj'rksa esa LokFkZ ns[kus okys ;qok lkfUu/;
dh Å"ek igpkusaA (2) jhfrokpd fØ;k fo'ks"k.k
(3) jke us yadk ds vR;kpkjh] jk{kl-jkt (3) LFkkuokpd fØ;k fo'ks"k.k
jko.k dks ekj MkykA
(4) ik¡poha eafty ls fxjk] ejsxk ugha rks D;k (4) ifjek.kokpd fØ;k fo'ks"k.k
ftank jgsxkA
37. vlaxr dFku Nk¡fV, %
34. fdl okD; esa ^bPNkFkZ o`fÙk* dk iz;ksx gqvk (1) ukikd bjkns ls dh tkus okyh ea=.kk –
gS \ fnRlk
(1) bZ'oj rqEgkjk Hkyk djsA (2) nksigj ls igys dk le; – iwokZgu
~
(2) Ñi;k ;g izdj.k tk¡p nhft,A (3) ftls ns[kdj jksaxVs [kM+s gks tk,¡ –
ykseg"kZd
(3) yxrk gS bl o"kZ [kwc o"kkZ gksxhA
(4) ckyqdk ;qDr rV/Hkwfe – fldrk
(4) ;fn og i<+rk rks vkt lQy gks tkrkA

Level-2/3210 P. T. O.
[A] [ 12 ]

38. v'kq) okD; pqfu, % 42. rRle-rn~Hko dh n`f"V ls vlaxr fodYi

pqfu, %
(1) vkils feydj eq>s vkuUn dk vkHkkl
gqvkA (1) okrkZd – cSaxu
(2) yksge'kk – ykseM+h
(2) esjB esa dbZ n'kZuh; LFky gSaA
(3) eLrd – ekFkk
(3) ;g Nk=o`fÙk dsoy Nk=kvksa ds fy, gSA (4) 'kf.Bdk – lksaB
(4) eSa viuk er Li"V djuk pkgrk gw¡A
43. fdl fodYi esa nks milxks± dk iz;ksx ugha gqvk
39. fdl fodYi esa rRiq#"k lekl ugha gS \ gS \
(1) okd~pkrq;Z (1) lkjksik

(2) rhFkkZVu (2) lgxkfeuh

(3) vj.;jksnu (3) iqu#n~/kkj
(4) ehudsrq (4) lekf/k

40. fuEu esa ls fdl fodYi esa ^x#M+* dk i;kZ; 44. fuEu esa ls HkkookP; pqfu, %
ugha gS \ (1) xfeZ;ksa esa jkst+ ugk;k tkrk gSA
(1) vfgHkksth
(2) ukuh }kjk dgkuh lqukbZ xbZA
(2) oSurs;
(3) gsjEc (3) dqÙkk lkjh jkr HkkSadrk gSA
(4) [kxukFk (4) fdlkuksa }kjk Qly dkV yh xbZ gSA

41. v'kq) laf/k okyk fodYi pqfu, % 45. fuEu esa ^ladj 'kCn* fdl fodYi esa ugha gS \
(1) en + mUeÙk = enksUeÙk (1) foKkiunkrk
(2) fo}r~ + eq[k = fo}Ueq[k (2) McyjksVh
(3) rr~ + mijkUr = rnksijkUr (3) vkepquko
(4) "kV~ + vk;ru = "kMk;ru (4) fgUnhdj.k

Level-2/3210
 [ 13 ] [A]
[ vaxzsth / ENGLISH ]
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

46. Fill in the blank with appropriate 50. Hearing the noise, the boy woke up :
preposition : (1) Pronoun (2) Noun
We're going for a drive …….. the (3) Verb (4) Participle
country.
(1) on (2) at 51. ''They arrived soon after.''
(3) in (4) for The word 'after' is used as :

(1) Preposition (2) Adverb

47. '' He wore a turban made of silk.''
The underlined words are :
(3) Adjective (4) Conjunction

(1) Adverb 52. Fill in the blank with appropriate

(2) Adverb Phrase conjunction :

Grievances cannot be redressed
(3) Adjective Phrase
……………. they are known.
(4) Noun Phrase
(1) unless (2) and
48. ''There is a mystery about his death and (3) but (4) before
the police are looking into it.''
The underlined phrasal verb means : 53. Choose the most appropriate modal for
the blank :
(1) To investigate
When I was young, I …………….
(2) To take care of climb any tree in the forest.

(3) To look behind (1) can (2) must

(4) To revise quickly (3) may (4) could

49. Fill in the blank with appropriate 54. Choose the correct verb for the blank
from the options below :
preposition :
We stayed ……………. Mumbai for The earth ……………. round the sun.
five days. (1) move (2) moved
(1) in (2) at (3) moves (4) shall move
(3) into (4) by

Level-2/3210 P. T. O.
[A] [ 14 ]

55. Choose the correct answer from the 58. Choose the correct word for the
options below : following expression :
"I took it home with me'', She said. One who makes maps or charts.
(1) She just took it home.
(1) Cartoonist
(2) She said she had taken it home with
(2) Cartographer
her.

(3) She said she would take it home. (3) Choreographer

(4) She said she will take it home with (4) Choirmaster
her.
59. Fill in the blank with the correct
56. Choose the correct passive construction
option :
for the given sentence.
They were carrying the injured player I have not heard the …………….

off the field. news.

(1) The injured player was being (1) latest

carried off the field.
(2) late
(2) The injured player will be carried
off the field. (3) latter

(3) The injured player must be taken (4) later

off the field.

(4) Carry the injured player off the 60. Choose the word which is spelt
field. correctly :
(1) Disentigration
57. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct
(2) Disintegration
option :
(3) Dissintegration
He is ……………. his glasses.
(4) Desintegration
(1) look for
(2) look
(3) looking for
(4) will look

Level-2/3210
 [ 15 ] [A]
Hkkx – III / PART – III
lkekU; v/;;u / GENERAL STUDIES
[ ek=kRed ;ksX;rk] rkfdZd vfHk{kerk rFkk lkekU; Kku ,oa vfHkKku / QUANTITATIVE
APTITUDE, REASONING ABILITY AND G.K. & AWARENESS ]
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

61. vewY; fdlh dk;Z dks 2 fnu esa djrk gS vkSj 61. Amulya does a piece of work in 2 days
fcanq bls 6 fnu esa djrk gSA nksuksa feydj and Bindu does it in 6 days. In how
fdrus fnuksa esa bl dk;Z dks djsaxs \ many days will the two do it together ?

(1) 2/3 fnu (1) 2/3 days

(2) 3/2 fnu (2) 3/2 days

(3) 5/3 fnu (3) 5/3 days

(4) 3 fnu (4) 3 days

62. 20 iSls rFkk 25 iSls ds dqy 324 flDds gSa] 62. A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 25
ftudk ;ksx ` 71 gS] rks 20 iSls ds dqy paise make a sum of ` 71, then number
fdrus flDds gSa \ of 20 paise coins is :
(1) 124 (2) 140 (1) 124 (2) 140
(3) 200 (4) 210 (3) 200 (4) 210

63. uhps nh xbZ la[;kJs.kh esa fdrus 6 ,sls gSa fd 63. How many 6's are there in the following
izR;sd ds Bhd igys 1 ;k 5 vkrs gksa rFkk number series, each of which is
Bhd ckn esa 3 ;k 9 vkrs gksa \ immediately preceded by 1 or 5 and
263756429613416391569231654321967 immediately followed by 3 or 9 ?
263756429613416391569231654321967
(1) ,d (1) One

(2) nks (2) Two

(3) rhu (3) Three

(4) pkj (4) Four

Level-2/3210 P. T. O.
[A] [ 16 ]

64. ;fn "BORN" dks "APQO" dwV fd;k tkrk 64. If "BORN" is coded as "APQO" and
gS] "LACK" dks "KBBL" dwV fd;k tkrk "LACK" is coded as "KBBL", then
gS] rks "GRID" dks dwV fd;k tk;sxk % "GRID" will be coded as :
(1) FSEH (2) SFHE (1) FSEH (2) SFHE
(3) FSHE (4) FHSE (3) FSHE (4) FHSE

65. ,d fpfM+;k?kj esa fgju ,oa eksj gSa] x.kuk 65. There are deer and peacocks in a zoo.
djus ij muds fljksa dh la[;k 80 gS rFkk By counting heads they are 80. The
mudh Vkaxksa dh la[;k 200 gSA rks ogk¡ eksj number of their legs is 200. How many
dh la[;k fdruh gS \ peacocks are there ?
(1) 20 (2) 40 (1) 20 (2) 40
(3) 52 (4) 60 (3) 52 (4) 60

66. la[;kvksa dk dkSu-lk lewg fd;s x;s lewg ds 66. Which set of numbers is like the given
leku/kehZ gSa \ set ?
2, 14, 16 2, 14, 16
(1) 2, 7, 8 (1) 2, 7, 8
(2) 2, 9, 16 (2) 2, 9, 16
(3) 3, 21, 24 (3) 3, 21, 24
(4) 4, 16, 18 (4) 4, 16, 18

67. dFku % 67. Statements :

I. lHkh f[kykM+h MkWDVj gSaA I. All players are doctors.
II. dqN MkWDVj laxhrK gSaA II. Some doctors are musicians.
fu"d"kZ % Conclusions :
I. dqN MkWDVj f[kykM+h ds lkFk-lkFk laxhrK I. Some doctors are players as well as
Hkh gSaA musicians.
II. lHkh laxhrK MkWDVj gSaA II. All musicians are doctors.
rks fuEu esa ls dkSu-lk lgh gS \ Then which of the following is correct ?
(1) dsoy fu"d"kZ I vuqlj.k djrk gSA (1) Only conclusion I follows.
(2) dsoy fu"d"kZ II vuqlj.k djrk gSA (2) Only conclusion II follows.
(3) nksuksa fu"d"kZ I rFkk II vuqlj.k djrs gSaA (3) Both conclusion I and II follow.
(4) u rks fu"d"kZ I u gh II vuqlj.k djrs gSaA (4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Level-2/3210
 [ 17 ] [A]

68. ;fn '+' dk rkRi;Z '÷', '×' dk rkRi;Z '–', '÷' 68. If '+' mean '÷', '×' mean '–',
dk rkRi;Z '+' vkSj '–' dk rkRi;Z '×' gks] rks '÷' mean '+' and '–' mean '×', then
16 ÷ 8 × 6 – 2 + 12 = ? 16 ÷ 8 × 6 – 2 + 12 = ?

(1) 22 (1) 22

(2) 24 (2) 24

(3) 23 (3) 23

(4) 120 (4) 120

69. A, B dh cfgu gS] C, B dh ekrk gS] D, C 69. A is B's sister, C is B's mother, D is C's
dk firk gS] E, D dh ekrk gS] rks A dk D ls father, E is D's mother, then how is A
D;k lEcU/k gS ? related to D ?

(1) csVh (1) Daughter

(2) ekrk (2) Mother

(3) nknh/ukuh (3) Grand Mother

(4) nknk/ukuk (4) Grand Father

70. fuEu Js.kh dk vxyk in Kkr dhft, % 70. Find the next term of the following
0, 5, 22, 57, 116, ? series :
0, 5, 22, 57, 116, ?

(1) 205 (1) 205

(2) 216 (2) 216

(3) 192 (3) 192

(4) 207 (4) 207

Level-2/3210 P. T. O.
[A] [ 18 ]

2 2
71. ,d VSad Hkkx Hkjk gS] ;fn blesa 16 yhVj 71. A tank is part full. If 16 litres of water
5 5
6 6
ikuh vkSj Hkj fn;k tkrk gS] rks og Hkkx is added to the tank, it becomes part
7 7
Hkj tkrk gS] rks VSd
a dh dqy {kerk gS % full, then total capacity of tank is :

(1) 24 yhVj (1) 24 litres

(2) 35 yhVj (2) 35 litres

(3) 38 yhVj (3) 38 litres

(4) 42 yhVj (4) 42 litres

72. ,d yhi o"kZ esa fo"ke fnuksa dh la[;k D;k 72. What is the number of odd days in a
gksrh gS \ leap year ?

(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 0 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3

73. og NksVh ls NksVh la[;k Kkr dhft,] ftlesa 73. Find the least number, when divided by
12, 15, 20 vkSj 54 ls Hkkx nsus ij izR;sd 12, 15, 20 and 54, leaves in each case a
n'kk esa 'ks"kQy 8 vkrk gS : remainder of 8 :

(1) 504 (1) 504

(2) 540 (2) 540

(3) 546 (3) 546

(4) 548 (4) 548

74. ;fn A dh vk; B dh vk; ls 40% de gS 74. If A's income is 40% less than that of B.
rks B dh vk; A dh vk; ls fdrus izfr'kr How much percent B's income is more
vf/kd gS \ than that of A ?
(1) 25% (1) 25%
(2) 40% (2) 40%
1 1
(3) 33 % (3) 33 %
3 3
2 2
(4) 66 % (4) 66 %
3 3

Level-2/3210
 [ 19 ] [A]

75. og NksVh ls NksVh la[;k Kkr dhft, ftlls 75. Find the least number by which 294
294 dks xq.kk djds ,d iw.kZ oxZ la[;k cukbZ must be multiplied to make it a perfect
tk lds \ square.
(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 12 (3) 6 (4) 12

76. ;fn fHkUuksa 2 3 4 5

, , , rFkk 6
dks c<+rs gq, 76. If the fractions 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 and 6 are
5 8 9 13 11 5 8 9 13 11
Øe esa O;ofLFkr fd;k tkrk gS rks pkSFks LFkku arranged in ascending order, which one
will be fourth place ?
ij dkSu-lh fHkUu gksxh \
3 4 3 4
(1) (2) (1) (2)
8 9 8 9
5 6 5 6
(3) (4) (3) (4)
13 11 13 11

77. izFke lkr vHkkT; la[;kvksa dk vkSlr gksxk % 77. Find the average of first seven prime
numbers.
(1) 8 (2) 9 (1) 8 (2) 9
1 2 1 2
(3) 8 (4) 8 (3) 8 (4) 8
7 7 7 7

78. vlaxr dks Kkr dhft, % 78. Find out the odd-one :
(1) EJNO (1) EJNO
(2) HMQR (2) HMQR
(3) KPSU (3) KPSU
(4) NSWX (4) NSWX

79. vtqZu viuh ;k=k dk vk/kk Hkkx jsyxkM+h ls 79. Arjun travels half of his journey by train
120 fdeh/?k.Vk dh xfr ls rFkk vk/kk Hkkx at the speed of 120 km/hr and rest half
dkj }kjk 80 fdeh/?k.Vk dh xfr ls r; djrk by car at 80 km/hr. What is his average
gS] rks mldh vkSlr xfr D;k gS \ speed ?
(1) 88 fdeh/?k.Vk (1) 88 km/hr
(2) 92 fdeh/?k.Vk (2) 92 km/hr
(3) 96 fdeh/?k.Vk (3) 96 km/hr
(4) 100 fdeh/?k.Vk (4) 100 km/hr

Level-2/3210 P. T. O.
[A] [ 20 ]

80. ;fn 11 lUrjs 10 #i;s esa [kjhns tkrs gSa rFkk 80. If 11 oranges are bought for Rs. 10 and
10 lUrjs 11 #i;s esa csps tkrs gSa] rks ykHk sold 10 oranges for Rs. 11. What is the
izfr'kr gS % gain in percentage ?

(1) 11% (2) 21% (1) 11% (2) 21%

(3) 25% (4) 28% (3) 25% (4) 28%

81. fx) laj{k.k ,oa iztuu dsUnz dgk¡ ij fLFkr 81. Where the Vulture Conservation and
gS \ Breeding Center situated ?

(1) dS: esa (1) Kairu

(2) eksjuh esa (2) Morni

(3) >kcqvk eas (3) Zhabua

(4) fiUtkSj esa (4) Pinjore

82. fuEufyf[kr f[kykfM+;ksa esa ls fdlus iq#"kksa dh 82. Who among the following athletes won
800 ehVj nkSM+ esa ,f'k;kbZ [ksy – 2018 esa the Gold in Men's 800 m. race at Asian
Lo.kZ ind thrk \ Games – 2018 ?
(1) ftUlu tkWUlu (1) Jinson Johnson
(2) euthr flag (2) Manjit Singh
(3) vjfiUnj flag (3) Arpinder Singh
(4) jkds'k dqekj (4) Rakesh Kumar

83. gfj;k.kk dk {ks= tks iwoZ e/;dky esa HkMkudks 83. The area of Haryana, which was
ds izHkko {ks= ds vUrxZr ekuk tkrk Fkk % considered under the sphere of
influence of Bhadanakas during the Pre-
medieval period :
(1) jsokM+h
(1) Rewari
(2) vackyk
(2) Ambala
(3) ikuhir (3) Panipat
(4) dq#{ks= (4) Kurukshetra

Level-2/3210
 [ 21 ] [A]
84. ykyk eqjyh/kj ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa 84. Consider the following statements about
ij fopkj dhft, % Lala Murlidhar :
(a) mUgksaus vackyk esa odkyr dhA (a) He practiced Law at Ambala.
(b) mUgksaus cEcbZ esa vk;ksftr dkaxszl ds izFke (b) He attended the first session of
vf/kos'ku esa Hkkx fy;kA Congress held at Bombay.
mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu-lk/dkSu-ls dFku lR; gS/ Which of the above statement/statements
gSa \ is/are true ?
(1) dsoy (a) lR; gSA (1) Only (a) is true.
(2) dsoy (b) lR; gSA (2) Only (b) is true.
(3) u rks (a) vkSj u gh (b) lR; gSA (3) Neither (a) nor (b) is true.
(4) nksuksa (a) vkSj (b) lR; gSaA (4) Both (a) and (b) are true.

85. ogkch usrk ftls 19oha 'krkCnh ds nkSjku 85. The Wahabi leader, who was arrested in
ns'knzksg ds vkjksi esa fxj¶rkj fd;k x;k % charge of Sedition during 19th
(1) eqgEen t+Qðj century :

(2) xT+t+u [kku (1) Muhammad Zafar

(3) eqckjd vyh (2) Ghazzan Khan

(3) Mubarak Ali
(4) lyeku [kku
(4) Salman Khan

86. fuEufyf[kr dks lqefs yr dhft, % 86. Match the following :

'kS{kf.kd dsUnz ftyk Education Institute District
A. vkbZ0 vkbZ0 vkbZ0 Vh0 (i) jksgrd A. I. I. I. T. (i) Rohtak
B. vkbZ0 vkbZ0 ,e0 (ii) lksuhir B. I. I. M. (ii) Sonipat
C. ,u0 vkbZ0 Mh0 (iii) iapdqyk C. N. I. D. (iii) Punchkula
D. ,u0 vkbZ0 ,Q0 Vh0 (iv) dq#{ks= D. N. I. F. T. (iv) Kurukshetra
lgh dwV pqfu, % Choose the correct code :
A B C D
A B C D
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Level-2/3210 P. T. O.
[A] [ 22 ]

87. >T>j ftys esa fdrus oU;tho vHk;kj.; gSa \ 87. How many Wildlife Sanctuaries are
there in Jhajjar district ?

(1) nks (1) Two

(2) rhu (2) Three

(3) ,d (3) One

(4) pkj (4) Four

88. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-ls ftys esa lcls de 88. Which of the following districts has the
'kgjh tula[;k gS \ lowest urban population ?

(1) esokr (1) Mewat

(2) egsUnzx<+ (2) Mahendragarh

(3) than (3) Jind

(4) fljlk (4) Sirsa

89. ds ,e ih ,Dlizls ekxZ ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr 89. Consider the following statements about
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft, % KMP Expressway :
(a) ;g ^osLVuZ isfjQsjy ,Dlizslos* ds :i esa (a) It is also known as Western
Hkh tkuk tkrk gSA Peripheral Expressway.
(b) ds ,e ih ,Dlizl s ekxZ ij ik¡p u, (b) Five new cities will be developed
'kgjksa dk fodkl fd;k tk;sxkA along with the KMP Expressway.
mi;qZDr esa ls dkSu-lk/dkSu-ls dFku lR; Which of the above statement/s is/are
gS/gSa \ true ?

(1) dsoy (a) lR; gSA (1) Only (a) is true.

(2) dsoy (b) lR; gSA (2) Only (b) is true.

(3) u rks (a) vkSj u gh (b) lR; gSA (3) Neither (a) nor (b) is true.

(4) nksuksa (a) vkSj (b) lR; gSaA (4) Both (a) and (b) are true.

90. gfj;k.kk esa fdruh rglhy gSa \ 90. How many Tahsils are there in Haryana ?

(1) 71 (2) 93 (1) 71 (2) 93

(3) 76 (4) 68 (3) 76 (4) 68

Level-2/3210
 [ 23 ] [A]
Hkkx – IV / PART – IV
xf.kr / MATHEMATICS
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

91. vk¡dM+ksa ds izLrqrhdj.k dh i)fr;k¡ D;k gSa \ 91. Methods of presentation of data are :

(1) dsoy lkjf.k;k¡ (1) Tables only

(2) dsoy vkys[k (2) Graph only

(3) dsoy vkjs[k (3) Diagrams only

(4) mi;qZDr lHkh (4) All of the above

92. 3 lseh f=T;k okys ,d xÙks ds o`Ùkh; VqdM+s ls 92. From a circular piece of cardboard of
40° okys nks f=T;-[k.M dkVs tkrs gSaA 'ks"k radius 3 cm, two sectors of 40° each
22 have been cut off. The area of the
fgLls dk {ks=Qy D;k gS \ (π = ys)a 22
7 remaining portion is : (Use π = )
7
2
(1) 11 lseh
(1) 11 cm2
2
(2) 22 lseh
(2) 22 cm2
2
(3) 33 lseh
(3) 33 cm2
2
(4) 44 lseh
(4) 44 cm2
jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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93. ,d O;fDr us 16% okf"kZd pØo`f) C;kt dh 93. A person borrowed Rs. 7500 at 16% per
nj ls 7500 #i;s m/kkj fy,A nks o"kZ dh annum compound interest. How much
lekfIr ij dtZ pqdkus ds fy, mls fdruh does he have to pay at the end of 2 years
jde nsuh gksxh \ to clear the loan ?
(1) 9900 #i;s (1) Rs. 9900
(2) 10092 #i;s (2) Rs. 10092
(3) 11000 #i;s (3) Rs. 11000
(4) 11052 #i;s (4) Rs. 11052

94. ,d lekUrj Js.kh dk izFke in –2 rFkk 94. The first term of an A.P. is –2 and 11th
11ok¡ in 18 gSA bldk 15ok¡ in Kkr term is 18. Find its 15th term :
dhft, %

(1) 24 (2) 25 (1) 24 (2) 25

(3) 26 (4) 27 (3) 26 (4) 27

95. ;fn a + b + c = 6 vkSj a2 + b2 + c2 = 26] 95. If a + b + c = 6 and a2 + b2 + c2 = 26,

rks ab + bc + ca fdlds cjkcj gS \ then what is ab + bc + ca equal to ?

(1) 0 (2) 4 (1) 0 (2) 4

(3) 2 (4) 5 (3) 2 (4) 5

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96. ;fn (m dk m%) + (n dk n%) = mn dk 96. If (m% of m) + (n% of n) = 2% of (mn),

2% gks] rks n, m dk fdruk izfr'kr gS \ then what percentage of m is n ?
(1) 50% (1) 50%
(2) 75% (2) 75%
(3) 100% (3) 100%
(4) vi;kZIr vk¡dM+ksa ds dkj.k Kkr ugha fd;k (4) Cannot be determined due to
tk ldrk insufficient data

97. ,d f=dks.kh; [ksr dh Hkqtk,¡ 41 ehVj, 40 ehVj 97. The sides of a triangular field are 41 m,
vkSj 9 ehVj gSaA bl [ksr esa xqykc dh fdruh 40 m and 9 m. The number of rose beds
D;kfj;k¡ rS;kj dh tk ldrh gSa] ;fn izR;sd that can be prepared in the field, if each
2
xqykc dh D;kjh dks vkSlru 900 lseh dh rose bed, on an average, needs 900 cm2
txg dh vko';drk gS \ space, is :
(1) 2000 (2) 1800 (1) 2000 (2) 1800
(3) 900 (4) 800 (3) 900 (4) 800

98. 'A' ,d dke dks 2 fnuksa esa iwjk djrk gS 98. 'A' complete a job in 2 days and 'B'
vkSj blh dke dks 'B' 3 fnuksa esa iwjk djrk completes it in 3 days and 'C' completes
gS vkSj 'C' bls iwjk djus esa 4 fnu ysrk gSA it in 4 days. If they work together and
;fn os ,d-lkFk dke djsa vkSj bl dke ds get Rs. 3900 for the job, then how much
fy, 3900 #i;s izkIr djsa] rks 'B' dks fdruh amount does 'B' get ?
/kujkf'k izkIr gksxh \
(1) 1800 #i;s (2) 1200 #i;s (1) Rs. 1800 (2) Rs. 1200
(3) 900 #i;s (4) 800 #i;s (3) Rs. 900 (4) Rs. 800
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99.
xyz 99. If x + y + z = 0, then what is
;fn x + y + z = 0, rks
(x + y)(y + z)(z + x) xyz
fdlds cjkcj gS \ ¼tgk¡ x ≠ –y, y ≠ –z, equal to ? (where,
(x + y)(y + z)(z + x)
z ≠ –x½ x ≠ –y, y ≠ –z, z ≠ –x)
(1) –1 (1) –1
(2) 1 (2) 1

(3) xy + yz + zx (3) xy + yz + zx

(4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha (4) None of the above

100. lekUrj Js.kh 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, ………… ds 100. How many the first terms of the A.P.

izFke fdrus inksa dk ;ksxQy 210 gksxk \ 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, ………… are needed to
get sum 210 ?

(1) 11 (1) 11

(2) 12 (2) 12

(3) 13 (3) 13

(4) 14 (4) 14

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101. ;fn tan 8θ = cot 2θ gS] tgk¡ 0 < 8θ < π ] 101. If tan 8θ = cot 2θ, where 0 < 8θ <
π
,
2 2
rks tan 5θ dk eku D;k gS \ then what is the value of tan 5θ

1 1
(1) (1)
3 3

(2) 1 (2) 1

(3) 3 (3) 3

(4) 0 (4) 0

102. nks uy ,d Vc dks Øe'k% 5 feuV vkSj 102. Two taps can fill a tub in 5 minutes and
7 feuV esa Hkj ldrs gSaA ,d ikbi mls 3 7 minutes respectively. A pipe can
feuV esa [kkyh dj ldrk gSA ;fn rhuksa ,d empty it in 3 minutes. If all the three are
lkFk [kqys gS]a rks Vc dc Hkjsxk \ kept open simultaneously, when will the
tub be full ?

(1) 60 feuV (1) 60 minutes

(2) 85 feuV (2) 85 minutes

(3) 90 feuV (3) 90 minutes

(4) 105 feuV (4) 105 minutes

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103. N% /kukRed la[;k,¡ a, a, b, b, c, c tgk¡ 103. The arithmetic mean, geometric mean
a < b < c gS] ds lekUrj ek/;] xq.kksÙkj ek/; and median of six positive numbers
7 7
vkSj ekf/;dk Øe'k% , 2, 2 gSaA lHkh N% a, a, b, b, c, c where a < b < c are , 2,
3 3
la[;kvksa ds oxksZa dk ;ksx D;k gS \ 2 respectively. Then what is the sum of
the squares of all the six numbers ?
(1) 40 (2) 42 (1) 40 (2) 42

(3) 45 (4) 48 (3) 45 (4) 48

104. ;fn fdlh ?ku dk dqy i`"B-{ks=Qy S gS vkSj 104. If S is the total surface area of a cube
V mldk vk;ru gS] rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls and V is its volume, then which one of
dkSu-lk ,d lgh gS \ the following is correct ?
3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2
(1) V = 216 S (2) S = 216 V (1) V = 216 S (2) S = 216 V
3 2 2 3 3 2 2 3
(3) S = 6 V (4) S = 36 V (3) S = 6 V (4) S = 36 V

cos 2 (45° + θ) + cos 2 (45° − θ) 105. What is the value of

105. dk eku
tan(60° + θ) tan(30° − θ) 2 2
cos (45° + θ) + cos (45° − θ)
gS % tan(60° + θ) tan(30° − θ)

(1) –1 (2) 0 (1) –1 (2) 0

(3) 1 (4) 2 (3) 1 (4) 2

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106. ,d O;fDr us ,d oLrq 3600 #i;s esa csph 106. A person sold an article for Rs. 3600
vkSj 20% dk ykHk ik;kA ;fn mlus mlh and got a profit of 20%. Had he sold the
oLrq dks 3150 #i;s esa cspk gksrk] rks og article for Rs. 3150, how much profit
fdruk ykHk ik;k gksrk \ would he have got ?
(1) 4% (2) 5% (1) 4% (2) 5%
(3) 6% (4) 10% (3) 6% (4) 10%

107. izFke 10 /kuiw.kkZd

a ksa dk] ftuds Hkkj laxr 107. What is the weighted mean of first 10
la[;kvksa ds cjkcj gSa] Hkkfjr ek/; D;k gS \ natural numbers whose weights are equal
to the corresponding number ?

(1) 7 (2) 5.5 (1) 7 (2) 5.5

(3) 5 (4) 4.5 (3) 5 (4) 4.5

108. 7 lseh × 4 lseh foek okyh ,d vk;rkdkj 108. A figure is formed by revolving a
pknj dks viuh yEckbZ ds ifjr% ifjØe.k rectangular sheet of dimensions 7 cm × 4 cm
djkus ls ,d vkÑfr curh gSA bl izdkj about its length. What is the volume of
fufeZr vkÑfr dk vk;ru D;k gS \ the figure thus formed ?
3 3
(1) 352 lseh (2) 296 lseh (1) 352 cm3 (2) 296 cm3
3 3
(3) 176 lseh (4) 616 lseh (3) 176 cm3 (4) 616 cm3

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109. 16 yhVj ds ,d feJ.k esa nw/k vkSj ikuh dk 109. 16 litres of a mixture contains milk and
vuqikr 5 : 3 gSA ;fn bl feJ.k esa 4 yhVj water in the ratio 5 : 3. If 4 litres of milk
nw/k vkSj feyk fn;k tk,] rks u, feJ.k esa is added to this mixture, the ratio of milk
nw/k dk ikuh ls vuqikr D;k gksxk \ to water in the new mixture would be :
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 7 : 3 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 7 : 3
(3) 4 : 3 (4) 8 : 3 (3) 4 : 3 (4) 8 : 3

110. ;fn α, β, γ U;wu dks.k ,sls gSa fd 110. If α, β, γ are acute angles such that
3 3 3 3
sin α = , cos β = vkSj tan γ = 1] sin α = , cos β = and tan γ = 1,
2 2 2 2
rks α + β + γ fdlds rqY; gS \ then what is α + β + γ equal to :

(1) 105° (2) 120° (1) 105° (2) 120°

(3) 135° (4) 150°
(3) 135° (4) 150°

111. ,d O;kikjh nks lkbfdysa izR;sd 1188 #i;s esa 111. A trader sells two cycles at Rs. 1188
csprk gS vkSj igyh ij 10% dk ykHk rFkk each and gains 10% on the first and
nwljh ij 10% dh gkfu mBkrk gSA dqy ij loses 10% on the second. What is the
ykHk ;k gkfu dk izfr'kr fdruk gS \ profit or loss percent on the whole ?

(1) 1% gkfu (2) 1% ykHk (1) 1% loss (2) 1% gain

(3) 2% gkfu (4) u gkfu u ykHk (3) 2% loss (4) No loss no gain

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112. fdlh ehukj dh ,d gh rjQ Hkwry ij fLFkr 112. From the top of a tower, the angles of
nks oLrqvksa P vkSj Q ds] ftuds chp dh nwjh depression of two objects P and Q
100(3 − 3 ) eh gS] ehukj ds f'k[kj ls (situated on the ground on the same side
voueu dks.k Øe'k% 45° vkSj 60° gSaA of the tower) separated at a distance of
ehukj dh Å¡pkbZ D;k gS \ 100(3 − 3 ) m are 45° and 60°
respectively. The height of the tower is :
(1) 200 eh (1) 200 m
(2) 250 eh (2) 250 m
(3) 300 eh (3) 300 m
(4) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha (4) None of the above

113. ;fn 8400 #i;s rhu O;fDr;ksa A, B rFkk C 113. If Rs. 8400 is divided among A, B and
1 1 1
esas 1 : 1 : 1 ds vuqikr esa foHkkftr fd;s C in the ratio : :
5 6 10
, what is the
5 6 10
tk;sa] rks A dks fdruk izkIr gksxk \ share of A ?

(1) 1800 #i;s (1) Rs. 1800

(2) 3000 #i;s (2) Rs. 3000

(3) 3600 #i;s (3) Rs. 3600

(4) 4000 #i;s (4) Rs. 4000

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1+x 1–x
114. lehdj.k 5 + 5 = 26 dks larq"V djus 114. The value of x which satisfy the
1+x 1–x
okys x ds eku dkSu-ls gSa \ equation 5 +5 = 26 are :

(1) –1, 1 (2) 0, 1 (1) –1, 1 (2) 0, 1

(3) 1, 2 (4) –1, 0 (3) 1, 2 (4) –1, 0

115. ;fn o`Ùk dh ifjf/k] oxZ ds ifjeki ds cjkcj 115. If the circumference of a circle is equal
gks] rks fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu-lk lgh gS \ to the perimeter of square, then which
one of the following is correct ?
(1) o`Ùk dk {ks=Qy = oxZ dk {ks=Qy
(1) Area of circle = Area of square
(2) o`Ùk dk {ks=Qy > oxZ dk {ks=Qy
(2) Area of circle > Area of square
(3) o`Ùk dk {ks=Qy < oxZ dk {ks=Qy
(3) Area of circle < Area of square
(4) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
(4) None of the above

116. 8( x5 − x3 + x) vkSj 28( x6 + 1) dk HCF 116. What is the HCF of 8( x 5 − x 3 + x ) and

¼e0 l0 i0½ D;k gS \ 28( x 6 + 1)

(1) 4( x 4 − x 2 + 1) (1) 4( x 4 − x 2 + 1)

(2) 2( x 4 − x 2 + 1) (2) 2( x 4 − x 2 + 1)

(3) ( x 4 − x 2 + 1) (3) ( x 4 − x 2 + 1)

(4) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha (4) None of the above

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117. 'kadq vkSj xksys dk vk;ru leku gSA ;fn 'kadq 117. The volume of a cone is equal to that of
ds vk/kkj dk O;kl] xksys ds O;kl ds cjkcj a sphere. If the diameter of base of cone
gks] rks 'kadq dh Å¡pkbZ dk xksys ds O;kl ls is equal to the diameter of the sphere,
vuqikr gksxk % what is the ratio of height of cone to the
diameter of the sphere ?
(1) 2 : 1 (1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 3 : 1 (3) 3 : 1
(4) 4 : 1 (4) 4 : 1

118.
(2.3)3 − 0.027 118. What is the value of
(2.3)3 − 0.027
dk eku D;k gS \
(2.3) 2 + 0.69 + 0.09 (2.3)2 + 0.69 + 0.09

(1) 0.3 (2) 2.3 (1) 0.3 (2) 2.3

(3) 1 (4) 2 (3) 1 (4) 2

119. tc fdlh oLrq dks 20% dh NwV ij cspk 119. When an article is sold at 20% discount,
tkrk gS] rks mldh foØ; dher #0 24 gSA the selling price is Rs. 24. What will be
30% dh NwV gksus ij mldh foØ; dher the selling price when the discount is
D;k gksxh \ 30% ?
(1) ` 25 (2) ` 23 (1) Rs. 25 (2) Rs. 23
(3) ` 21 (4) ` 20 (3) Rs. 21 (4) Rs. 20
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2
120. ,d vk;r dk] ftldk {ks=Qy 144 lseh ds 120. The perimeter of a rectangle having
cjkcj gS vkSj Hkqtkvksa esa vuqikr 4 : 9 gS] area equal to 144 cm2 and sides in the
ifjeki D;k gS \ ratio 4 : 9 is :

(1) 52 lseh (1) 52 cm

(2) 56 lseh (2) 56 cm

(3) 60 lseh (3) 60 cm

(4) 64 lseh (4) 64 cm

121. ;fn ,d leckgq f=Hkqt dh Hkqtk 'a' gS] rks 121. If side of an equilateral triangle is 'a',
bl f=Hkqt dk {ks=Qy cjkcj gS % then area of this triangle is equal to :

3a 2 3a 2
(1) (1)
2 2

3a 2 3a 2
(2) (2)
2 2

3a 2 3a 2
(3) (3)
4 4

(4) 3a 2 (4) 3a 2
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0.324 × 0.64 × 129.6 122. What is the square root of

122. dk oxZewy D;k gS \
0.729 × 1.024 × 36 0.324 × 0.64 × 129.6
0.729 × 1.024 × 36
(1) 4 (2) 3 (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1 (3) 2 (4) 1

123. ,d Nk= dks fdlh la[;k dks 25 ls xq.kk 123. A student was asked to multiply a
djus ds fy, dgk x;kA mlus ml la[;k dks number by 25. He instead multiplied the
25 ds LFkku ij 52 ls xq.kk dj fn;k vkSj number by 52 and got the answer 324
mldk mÙkj] lgh mÙkj ls 324 T;knk FkkA more than the correct answer. The
ftl la[;k dks xq.kk fd;k tkuk Fkk] og D;k number to be multiplied was :
gS \
(1) 12 (2) 15 (1) 12 (2) 15

(3) 25 (4) 32 (3) 25 (4) 32

124. lehdj.k x 2 − 2 x + 4 = 0 ds ewyksa ds nqxqus 124. The equation whose roots are twice the
ewyksa okyk lehdj.k dkSu-lk gS \ roots of the equation x 2 − 2 x + 4 = 0 is :
(1) x 2 − 2 x + 4 = 0 (1) x 2 − 2 x + 4 = 0
(2) x 2 − 2 x + 16 = 0 (2) x 2 − 2 x + 16 = 0
(3) x 2 − 4 x + 8 = 0 (3) x 2 − 4 x + 8 = 0
(4) x 2 − 4 x + 16 = 0 (4) x 2 − 4 x + 16 = 0

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125. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft, % 125. Consider the following statements :

I. x3 + 2 x 2 + 3 x + 8 dk xq.ku[k.M x + 3 I. x + 3 is the factor of x3 + 2x2 + 3x + 8 .

gSA II. x – 2 is the factor of x3 + 2x2 + 3x + 8 .
II. x3 + 2 x 2 + 3 x + 8 dk xq.ku[k.M x – 2
gSA Which of the statements given above
mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu-lk@ls lgh gS@gSa \ is/are correct ?

(1) dsoy I (1) I only

(2) dsoy II (2) II only

(3) I vkSj II nksuksa (3) Both I and II

(4) u rks I vkSj u gh II (4) Neither I nor II

126. f=Hkqt ABC esa AD, A ls tkrh gqbZ ekf/;dk 126. In a ∆ABC, AD is the median through A
gS vkSj E, AD dk e/; fcUnq gS rFkk BE and E is the mid point of AD, and BE
c<+kus ij AC dks F ij feyrh gS] AF produced meets AC at F, then AF is
equal to :
fdlds cjkcj gS \
AC AC
(1) (2) (1)
AC
(2)
AC
5 4 5 4
AC AC
(3) (4) (3)
AC
(4)
AC
3 2 3 2

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127. ;fn fdlh f=Hkqt ds fy, ml f=Hkqt ds 127. If for a triangle, the radius of the

ifjo`Ùk dh f=T;k mlds vUro`ZÙk dh f=T;k dh circumcircle is double the radius of the
nqxuh gS] rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk ,d inscribed circle (incircle), then which
lgh gS \ one of the following is correct ?

(1) f=Hkqt] ledks.k f=Hkqt gSA (1) The triangle is a right angled.

(2) f=Hkqt] lef}ckgq f=Hkqt gSA (2) The triangle is an isosceles.

(3) f=Hkqt] leckgq f=Hkqt gSA (3) The triangle is an equilateral.

(4) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ughaA (4) None of the above.

128. nks ladsUnzh o`Ùkksa esa ls] ckg~; o`Ùk dk O;kl 128. Out of two concentric circles, the

26 lseh gS vkSj 24 lseh yEch thok MN, diameter of the outer circle is 26 cm and
vkUrfjd o`Ùk ij Li'khZ gSA vkUrfjd o`Ùk dh the chord MN of length 24 cm is
f=T;k D;k gS \ tangent to the inner circle. The radius of
the inner circle is :

(1) 5 lseh (2) 6 lseh (1) 5 cm (2) 6 cm

(3) 8 lseh (4) 10 lseh (3) 8 cm (4) 10 cm

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129. ,d f[kykSuk ,d v/kZxksys ij vkjksfir leku 129. A toy is in the form of a cone mounted
f=T;k ds ,d 'kadq ds :i esa gSA 'kkado Hkkx ds on the hemisphere with the same radius.
vk/kkj dk O;kl 12 lseh gS o bldh Å¡pkbZ The diameter of the base of the conical
8 lseh gSA f[kykSus dk dqy i`"Bh; {ks=Qy D;k portion is 12 cm and its height is 8 cm.
gS \ What is the total surface area of the toy ?
2 2
(1) 132 π lseh (2) 112 π lseh (1) 132 π cm2 (2) 112 π cm2
2 2
(3) 96 π lseh (4) 66 π lseh (3) 96 π cm2 (4) 66 π cm2

130. f=Hkqt ABC dh Hkqtkvksa ds e/;-fcUnqvksa dks 130. A ∆DEF is formed by joining the mid
feykus ij fufeZr f=Hkqt DEF gSA blh izdkj points of the sides of ∆ABC. Similarly, a
f=Hkqt DEF dh Hkqtkvksa ds e/; fcUnqvksa dks ∆PQR is formed by joining the
feykus ij fufeZr f=Hkqt PQR gSA ;fn f=Hkqt midpoints of the sides of the ∆DEF. If
PQR dh Hkqtkvksa dh yEckbZ 4, 2 vkSj 3 the sides of the ∆PQR are of lengths 4,
bdkbZ gS]a rks f=Hkqt ABC dk ifjeki D;k gS \ 2 and 3 units, what is the perimeter of
the ∆ABC ?
(1) 18 bdkbZ
(1) 18 units
(2) 36 bdkbZ
(2) 36 units
(3) 48 bdkbZ
(3) 48 units
(4) vi;kZIr vk¡dM+ksa ds dkj.k fu/kkZfjr ugha (4) Cannot be determined due to
fd;k tk ldrk insufficient data
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131. ;fn A = π 6 vkSj B = π 3 ] rks fuEufyf[kr 131. If A = π

6
and B = π , then consider
3
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft, % the following statements :
I. sin A + sin B = cos A + cos B I. sin A + sin B = cos A + cos B

II. tan A + tan B = cot A + cot B II. tan A + tan B = cot A + cot B

mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu-lk@ls lgh gS@gSa \ Which of the above statements is/are
correct ?

(1) dsoy I (1) Only I

(2) dsoy II (2) Only II

(3) I vkSj II nksuksa (3) Both I and II

(4) u rks I vkSj u gh II (4) Neither I nor II

132. 9 lseh f=T;k okys Bksl xksys dks [khapdj cus 132. What is the length of the uniform wire
0.4 lseh O;kl okys ,dleku rkj dh yEckbZ of diameter 0.4 cm that can be drawn
D;k gS \ from a solid sphere of radius 9 cm ?

(1) 243 eh (2) 240 eh (1) 243 m (2) 240 m

(3) 60.75 eh (4) 60 eh (3) 60.75 m (4) 60 m

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7 cos2 θ + 3sin 2 θ = 4 2 2
π π
133. ;fn vkSj 0 < θ < ] 133. If 7 cos θ + 3sin θ = 4 and 0 < θ < ,
2 2
rks tan θ dk eku D;k gksxk \ then what is the value of tan θ

(1) 7 (2) 7 (1) 7 (2) 7

3 3

(3) 3 (4) 3 (3) 3 (4) 3

134. 1421 × 1423 × 1425 dks 12 ls foHkkftr 134. What is the remainder obtained when
djus ij 'ks"kQy D;k gS \ 1421 × 1423 × 1425 is divided by 12 ?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4

135. AD ,d o`Ùk dk O;kl vkSj AB ,d thok gSA 135. AD is a diameter of a circle and AB is a
;fn AD = 34 lseh] AB = 30 lseh] rks o`Ùk ds chord. If AD = 34 cm, AB = 30 cm, then
dsUnz ls AB dh nwjh cjkcj gS % the distance of AB from the centre of the
circle is equal to :

(1) 8 lseh (1) 8 cm

(2) 10 lseh (2) 10 cm

(3) 15 lseh (3) 15 cm

(4) 17 lseh (4) 17 cm

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136. cot 15° cot 20° cot 70° cot 75° dk eku 136. What is the value of cot 15° cot 20°
D;k gS \ cot 70° cot 75°
(1) –1 (2) 0 (1) –1 (2) 0
(3) 1 (4) 2 (3) 1 (4) 2

137. lehdj.kksa x + 2y = 13 vkSj 3x + 6y = 9 ds 137. The system of equations x + 2y = 13 and

fudk; % 3x + 6y = 9 has :
(1) dk vf}rh; gy gSA (1) Unique solution.
(2) dk dksbZ gy ugha gSA (2) No solution.
(3) ds dbZ vuUr gy gSaA (3) Infinitely many solutions.
(4) ds lhfer la[;k esa gy gSaA (4) Finite number of solutions.

138. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft, % 138. Consider the following statements :
I. 7710312401, 11 ls foHkkT; gSA I. 7710312401, is divisible by 11.
II. 173 ,d vHkkT; la[;k gSA II. 173 is a prime number.
mi;qZDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu-lk@ls lgh gS@gSa \ Which of the statements given above
is/are correct ?
(1) dsoy I (1) I only
(2) dsoy II (2) II only
(3) I vkSj II nksuksa (3) Both I and II
(4) u rks I vkSj u gh II (4) Neither I nor II

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139. og egÙke la[;k] tks 13850 vkSj 17030 139. What is the greatest number that divides
dks foHkkftr djrh gS vkSj 'ks"kQy 17 NksM+rh 13850 and 17030 and leaves a
gS] D;k gS \ remainder 17 ?

(1) 477 (1) 477

(2) 159 (2) 159

(3) 107 (3) 107

(4) 87 (4) 87

140. 4 lseh vkSj 8 lseh ds Øe'k% Hkhrjh vkSj 140. A hollow sphere of internal and external
ckgjh O;klksa okys ,d [kks[kys xksys dks xykdj diameters 4 cm and 8 cm, respectively is
8 lseh O;kl ds vk/kkj okyk ,d Bksl 'kadq melted into a solid cone of base
cuk;k tkrk gSA 'kadq dh Å¡pkbZ D;k gS \ diameter 8 cm. The height of the cone is :

(1) 11 lseh (2) 12 lseh (1) 11 cm (2) 12 cm

(3) 14 lseh (4) 16 lseh (3) 14 cm (4) 16 cm

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23 23 23
141. (17 + 23 + 29 ) dks 23 ls Hkkx nsus 141. What is the remainder when
23 23 23
ij 'ks"kQy D;k gS \ (17 + 23 + 29 ) is divided by 23 ?

(1) 0 (1) 0

(2) 1 (2) 1

(3) 2 (3) 2

(4) 3 (4) 3

2 3 9
142. ;fn + = vkSj 4 + 9 = 21 ] tgk¡ 142. If
2 3 9
+ =
4 9 21
and + = , where
x y xy x y xy x y xy x y xy
x ≠ 0, y ≠ 0 gks] rks x + y dk D;k eku gS \ x ≠ 0, y ≠ 0, then what is the value of
x+y

(1) 2 (1) 2

(2) 3 (2) 3

(3) 4 (3) 4

(4) 8 (4) 8

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143. {(1 − sin 2 θ) sec 2 θ + tan 2 θ}(cos 2 θ + 1), 143. What is the value of
tgk¡ 0° < θ < 90° dk eku gS % {(1 − sin 2 θ) sec 2 θ + tan 2 θ} (cos 2 θ + 1),
where 0° < θ < 90°

(1) 2 (1) 2

(2) > 2 (2) > 2

(3) < 2 (3) < 2

(4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha (4) None of the above

144. fdlh leckgq f=Hkqt dh Å¡pkbZ 3 lseh gSA 144. If the altitude of an equilateral triangle
bldk ifjeki D;k gS \ is 3 cm, then what is its perimeter ?

(1) 3 lseh (2) 3 3 lseh (1) 3 cm (2) 3 3 cm

(3) 6 lseh (4) 6 3 lseh (3) 6 cm (4) 6 3 cm

145. ;fn p = tan 2 x + cot 2 x gS] rks fuEufyf[kr 145. If p = tan 2 x + cot 2 x , then which one

esa ls dkSu-lk ,d lgh gS \ of the following is correct ?

(1) p ≤ 2 (2) p ≥ 2 (1) p ≤ 2 (2) p ≥ 2

(3) p < 2 (4) p > 2 (3) p < 2 (4) p > 2

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2 2 2 2
146. ;fn a – b = 4 vkSj a + b = 40 gS] tgk¡ 146. If a – b = 4 and a + b = 40, where a
3 6 3 6
a vkSj b /kukRed iw.kkZd
a gSa] rks a + b and b are positive integers, then a + b
fdlds cjkcj gS \ is equal to :

(1) 264 (2) 280 (1) 264 (2) 280

(3) 300 (4) 324 (3) 300 (4) 324

147. nks o`Ùkksa dh ifjf/k;ksa dk vuqikr 2 : 3 gSA 147. The circumference of two circles are in
muds {ks=Qyksa dk vuqikr D;k gS \ the ratio 2 : 3. What is the ratio of their
areas ?

(1) 2 : 3 (2) 4 : 9 (1) 2 : 3 (2) 4 : 9

(3) 1 : 3 (4) 8 : 27 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 8 : 27

148. ;fn f}?kkr lehdj.k 7 x 2 − 50 x + k = 0 ds 148. If one of the roots of quadratic equation
ewyksa esa ,d ewy 7 gS] rks k dk eku D;k gS \ 7 x 2 − 50 x + k = 0 is 7, then what is the
value of k ?
(1) 7 (2) 1 (1) 7 (2) 1

(3) 50 (4) 7 (3) 50 (4) 7

7 50 7 50

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2 7 14 2 7 14
149. , rFkk dk LCM ¼y?kqÙke lekioR;Z½ 149. What is the LCM of , and
3 9 15 3 9 15
D;k gS \
7 7
(1) (1)
3 3

14 14
(2) (2)
3 3

2 2
(3) (3)
3 3

1 1
(4) (4)
3 3

150. la[;k 0.0001 % 150. The number 0.0001 is :

(1) 0.01 ls NksVh ,d ifjes; la[;k gSA (1) a rational number less than 0.01.

(2) ,d ifjes; la[;k gSA (2) a rational number.

(3) ,d vifjes; la[;k gSA (3) an irrational number.

(4) u rks ,d ifjes; la[;k vkSj u gh ,d (4) neither a rational number nor an
vifjes; la[;kA irrational number.

jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg/SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Level-2/3210
 6. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys@uhys 6. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be given by
ckWy IokbaV iSu ls iw.kZr;k Hkjuk gS] tSlk fd uhps fn[kk;k darkening complete circle using Black/Blue ball point pen
x;k gS % as shown below :
1  3 4 1  3 4
vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn mÙkj okys The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given below :
[kkus dks fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa %
   
    

;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk mÙkj xyr If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a wrong
ekuk tk,xkA answer.
7. jQ dk;Z iz'u&iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ [kkyh txg ij gh djsaA (Rough work should be done only in the space
provided in the Question Booklet for the same.)
8. lHkh mÙkj dsoy OMR mÙkj i=d ij gh vafdr djsaA vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djsaA mÙkj cnyus gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk
iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA (The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. Whitener
(white fluid) is not allowed for changing answers.)
9. izR;sd iz’u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr fodYi ds fy, OMR mÙkj i=d ij dsoy ,d o`Ùk dks gh iwjh rjg uhys@dkys
ckWy IokbaV iSu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk ldrk gSA (Out of the four alternatives for each
question, only one circle for the most appropriate answer is to be darkened completely with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen on the
OMR Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not allowed to be changed.)
10. vH;FkhZ lqfuf’pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksM+k u tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu’kku u yxk,¡A vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d
esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksaA (The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make
any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Answer
Sheet.)
11. iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwoZd iz;ksx djsa] D;ksafd fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa ¼iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk
+ j½ nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk lSV miyC/k ugha djokbZ tk,xhA (Handle the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet with
dh fLFkfr dks NksMd
care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Question Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No.), another set of
Question Booklet will not be provided.)
12. iz'u&iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gLrk{kj pkVZ esa fy[ksaA (The candidates will write the correct
Number as given in the Question Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Signature Chart.)
13. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izos’k i= vkSj igpku i= ds vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~;lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh
ifpZ;k¡] istj] eksckby Qksu] bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
(Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic
device or any other material except the Admit Card and Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.)
14. i;Zos{kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk izo’s k dkMZ ¼jksy ua0½ vkSj igpku i= fn[kk,¡A (Each candidate must show on
demand his/her Admit Card (Roll No.) and identity card to the Invigilator.)
15. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k i;Zos{kd dh fo’ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMa+sA (No candidate, without special permission of
the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.)
16. dk;Zjr i;Zos{kd dks viuk mÙkj i=d fn, fcuk ,oa gLrk{kj pkVZ ij nksckjk gLrk{kj fd, fcuk vH;FkhZ ijh{kk gkWy ugha NksMsx
+a As ;fn
fdlh vH;FkhZ us nwljh ckj gLrk{kj pkVZ ij gLrk{kj ugha fd, rks ;g ekuk tk,xk fd mlus mÙkj i=d ugha ykSVk;k gS vkSj ;g
vuqfpr lk/ku dk ekeyk ekuk tk,xkA OMR mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij lHkh vH;fFkZ;ksa }kjk ck;sa gkFk ds vaxwBs dk fu’kku
yxk;k tkuk gSA vaxwBs dk fu'kku yxkrs le; bl ckr dk /;ku j[kk tk, fd L;kgh lgh ek=k esa gh yxkbZ tk, vFkkZr~ L;kgh dh
ek=k u rks cgqr vf/kd gks o u gh cgqr deA (The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over
their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and signing the Signature Chart twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the
Signature Chart second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
All candidates have to affix left hand thumb impression on the OMR answer sheet at the place specified which should
be properly inked i.e. they should not be either over inked or dried in nature.)
17. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA (Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.)
18. ijh{kk gkWy esa vkpj.k ds fy,] vH;FkhZ foojf.kdk esa nh xbZ izfØ;k@fn’kk&funsZ’k o cksMZ ds lHkh fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa dk fo'ks"k /;ku j[ksAa
vuqfpr lk/kuksa ds lHkh ekeyksa dk QSlyk cksMZ ds fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa ds vuqlkj gksxkA (The candidates are governed by
Guidelines/Procedure given in the Information Bulletin, all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in
the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.)
19. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d dk dksbZ Hkkx vyx u djsaA (No part of the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet shall
be detached under any circumstances.)
20. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ d{k@gkWy NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zos{kd dks vo’; lkSai nsaA vH;FkhZ vius lkFk bl
iz'u&iqfLrdk dks ys tk ldrs gSAa (On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
in the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Question Booklet with them.)