Reviewer for NAT

Grade Six

1. The liquid part of the blood is _____________.

A. plasma B. platelets C. red blood cells D. white blood cells
2. The aorta is the largest artery in the body. The blood leaving the aorta is full of _____.
A. carbon dioxide C. red bloods cells
B. oxygen / D. white blood cells
3. How are arteries similar to veins?
A. They carry blood throughout the body.
B. They differ in the kind of blood they can carry.
C. They differ in strength.
D. They differ in thickness of walls. /
4. _____ is known as the “river of life”.
A. blood B. blood cells C. blood vessels / D. heart

Look at the figure of the heart above for items 5 to 7.

5. When blood is pumped from the heart to the lungs from which part of the blood does it leave going to the
lungs?
A. Left atrium B. left ventricle C. mitral valve D. right ventricle
6. Which part of the heart pumps out blood from the heart to the different parts of the body?
A. Aorta B. left atrium C. pulmonary veins D. right atrium
7. Which blood vessel carries blood from the heart to the lungs?
A. Left atrium B. pulmonary arteries C. pulmonary valve D. tricuspid valve

Match Column A with B. Write your answer on the space provided for.

A B
__C_8. Responsible for the transport of oxygen to A. Heart
the body tissues and removal of carbon dioxide.

__A_9. It is a hallow muscle that acts as a blood pump. B. Platelets

__D_10. Are tube-like structures through which blood moves. C. Blood

__B_11. Tiniest blood cells. They are activated whenever D. Blood Vessels
there is need for blood clotting.

__E_12. Blood vessels that carry blood to the heart E. veins

13. What is the difference between an artery and a vein?

A. Arteries carry blood away from the heart, veins towards the heart. /
B. Arteries carry blood towards the heart, veins away from the heart.
 C. Arteries carry deoxygenated blood, veins oxygenated blood.
D. Arteries carry oxygenated blood, veins deoxygenated blood.

14. Which of the following is a function of the circulatory system?

A. The circulatory system brings food, water and oxygen to the different parts of the body. /
B. The circulatory system breaks down food into smaller parts for the use of the cells.
C. The circulatory system removes the wastes materials of the body.

15. How important is the heart in the circulatory system?

a. It checks the flow of blood C. It occupies the chest activity
b. It makes the blood move throughout the body / D. It stops the flow of blood

16. Why is the blood important to the body?

a. It carries oxygen and nutrients to different cells of the body.
b. It gives color to our skin.
c. It helps sharpen our minds.
d. It makes our hair darker.

17. Why are veins important in blood circulation?

a. They carry blood with carbon dioxide towards the heart.
b. They carry blood with oxygen away from the heart.
c. They make blood clot.
d. They make blood redder

18. Which is the pattern of blood flow from the heart to the different part of the body?
A. Artery – capillary – vein /
B. artery – arteriole - capillary
C. Vein – capillary – artery
D. venule – capillary – vein

For items 19-22 refer to the diagram below.

E.

19. Where does blood come from when it first enters the right atrium?upper body.
20. Which blood vessel does it pass through? superior vena cava.
21. Where does blood go after entering the right atrium? To the left atrium.
22. Where does it goes next? to the lungs.

_____23.If you were bitten by a bee, what part of your brain will function first?
 A. Brain→ Spinal Cord → Nerves
B. Nerves→ Brain →Spinal Cord
C. Nerves →Spinal Cord →Brain
D. Spinal Cord →Nerves →Brain

_____24. When the person is sleeping, the parasympathetic system slows down the heartbeat and rate of
breathing. Why is this so?
A. Because it is most active when you are resting.
B. Because it is part of the autonomic nervous system.
C. Because it prepares the body to work.
D. Because it is under emotional stress.

_____25. When you are working on the farm, you want to finish it earlier. How fast the nerve impulses travel
along an axon of your brain?
A. 350 feet per second
B. 360 feet per second
C. 365 feet per second
D. 366 feet per second

_____26. When the thick nerve fiber carries impulses away from the cell body to other neurons, the impulses
could cover the length of a football field in less than one second. What kind of a nerve fiber is it?
A. Axon
B. Impulse
C. Nerve cell
D. Neuron

_____27.Your mother asked you to iron your clothes. Suddenly you touch the hot object, you immediately
withdraw your hand. This action does not involve your brain because you did not think at all whether you avoid
the hot object or not. The spinal cord enables us to do things automatically. What do we call the automatic
action?
A. Axon
B. Conditioned reflex
C. Motor reflex
D. Reflex action

____28. Which of the following is a function of the cerebellum in our brain?

A. Acts as the center of emotion and voluntary movements.
B. Controls thinking, memorizing and decision making.
C. Coordinates involuntary and muscular action.
D. Maintain autonomic functions.

_____29. What part of our brain is responsible for controlling speech, memory and intelligence?
A. Brain stem
B. Cerebellum
C. Cerebrum
D. Medulla oblongata

_____30. What is the main reason why our brain is enclosed in the skull?
A. For a better look
B. For design
C. For protection
D. For sound proofing

_____31. Why are some parts of our body more sensitive than the others?
A. They are made up of nerve fibers.
B. They have larger nerve endings.
C. They have more nerve endings.
D. They have smaller nerve endings.

_____32. When you saw a person who met an accident and his back has been injured. What part of the nervous
system was greatly damaged?
A. Brain
B. Brain stem
 C. Nerve
D. Spinal cord

_____33. Trace the usual path travelled by a message received by the body from the environment?
A. Brain→ nerves→ spinal cord →sense organ
B. Nerves →sense organ→ brain →nerves
C. Sense organ→ nerves→ spinal cord→ brain
D. Spinal cord→ sense organ→ brain →nerves

_____34.The brain is sometimes called the busiest communication center of the world. Messages from all parts
of the body are being sent to the brain by _________.
A. Backbone
B. Motor nerves
C. Sensory nerves
D. Spinal cord

_____35. How are messages in the body transmitted?

I .The message is received by nerve endings then carried to the brain and back to the body part which will
do the action.
II. The message is receive by the brain then carried to the spinal cord and back to the body part which will
do the action.
III. The message is received by nerve endings then carried to the brain and back to the nervous system
when the body do the action.
IV. The message is received by nerve endings then carried to the brain and then to the spinal cord and
back to the body part which will do the action.
Find the right pathways by which messages maybe transmitted correctly.
A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. I and II
D. III and IV

_____36. The brain and the spinal cord comprise the central nervous system. A network of nerves that send
messages to the brain through the spinal cord make up the_______
A. Brain and spinal cord
B. Central nervous system
C. Peripheral nervous system
D. The message is received by nerve endings.

_____37.Mark has problem in speaking, hearing, or seeing. His problems are caused by the damage of the part of
his brain. What kind of brain disorder does he has?
A. Cerebral palsy
B. Epilepsy
C. Paralysis
D. Polio

_____38. What is the cause of injury to the spinal cord that may affect one little muscle of most part of the body?
A. It may cause brain tumor.
B. It may cause encephalitis.
C. It may cause paralysis.
D. It may cause polio.

_____39. There are some children who suffered polio, which caused a viral infection that destroys the motor
nerves in the spinal cord. Why are they given anti- polio vaccines?
A. So that they will grow.
B. SO that they will become healthy.
C. So that they will not be infected with polio.
D. So that they will not die.

____40. How can you tell that a person is suffering from a brain tumor?
A. He feels severe headache.
B. He feels sleepy or drowsy.
C. He has internal bleeding.
D. He has a muscle ache.
 41. Producers are organisms in the environment that can manufacture their own food. Which organism in
the food chain is a producer?

Grass grasshopper fish hawk

A. Fish B. grass C. grasshopper D. Hawk
For item 2 and 3, study the diagram below.

Cabbage worm insect frog snake

duck bird eagle

42. Based on the diagram, which animal is badly affected if the frog is eliminated in the food web?
A. bird B. eagle C. insect D. snake
43. Which is a complete sequence of a food chain based on the diagram above?
A. insect frog snake eagle
B. cabbage duck worm insect
C. cabbage worm insect frog
D. worm insect bird eagle
44. When plants and animals die, they are acted upon by decomposers. What is the most important role of
decomposers in the food chain?
A. They allow air to enter the soil.
B. They break down dead organisms.
C. They clean the forest floor.
D. They produce food for consumers.

For item 45, study the diagram below:

x
tree Man & Animals

45. Man and animals need oxygen to survive. A plant on the other hand needs carbon dioxide to make its
own food. In the illustration above what gas does x represent?
A. Carbon Dioxide C. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen D. Phosphorous

46. An orchid growing on a branch or trunk of a tree. The tree is not affected by the presence of the orchid on its
trunk. What kind of relationship exists between these two organisms?
A. Commensalism C. Mutualism
B. Competition D. Parasitism
47. Which of the following exhibit the relationship called mutualism in which both organisms live and benefit
from each other?
A. Anabaena and Azolla C. Orchid and Tree
B. Ladybug and Lizard D. Snake and Frog
48. Tapeworms are parasite that lives inside the intestine of a larger animal such as pig, cow or a human. The
tapeworm gets food from its host. What kind of relationship is shown in this relationship?
A. Commensalism C. Parasitism
B. Mutualism D. Predation
49. If there is unequal number of plants and animals in the aquarium, what kind of relationship may result
from this?
A. Competition C. Predation
B. Mutualism D. Scavenging
50. If you increase the number of fish in the aquarium, what may likely to happen?
A. Organisms will not compete for space.
B. Organisms will not compete for food.
C. Organisms will fight for survival.
D. There will be enough air for organisms.

51. Many farm and forestlands are converted into housing areas. If more lands are used for residential purposes,
how would this affect the environment?
 A. Decrease garbage problems.
B. Improved health and sanitation.
C. More production of food.
D. Reduced habitat of wild plants and animals.
52. Kaingin system is burning trees to give way to cash crops. Why is kaingin system a bad practice?
A. It clears the land of trees which prevents flood.
B. It deprives hunters of many wild animals.
C. It pollutes mountains and forests.
D. It pollutes rivers and seas.
53. The national average on population density is only 202 persons per square kilometre. However, the
population density in Manila is about 12,500 persons per square kilometres. If population increase in Manila will
continue, what would likely happen?
A. There will be more sources of income.
B. There will be unlimited supply of water.
C. There will be limited food, water and space.
D. There will be plenty of employment.
54. Food and water shortage, housing problem, health problems, pollution, and garbage problems are among the
possible effects that may come up if ______________________.
A. many people are unemployed.
B. majority of people is uneducated.
C. the population of a certain place increases very fastly.
D. the teachers in a community are corrupt.
55. The destruction of coral reefs upsets ecological balance. Which of the following activities should be
undertaken to preserve our coral reefs?
A. Dump human and domestic wastes in the furthest areas of the seas.
B. Dump toxic chemicals occasionally.
C. Help reduce pollution on land and water by not throwing garbage in the seas.
D. Practice dynamite fishing in selected areas only
56. Tarsiers, mouse – deer and monkey- eating eagle are unique animals that can be found in the Philippines.
Which of the following practices will help preserve these animals?

A. Preserve the forests that serve as their home or shelter

B. Put them in a Zoo.
C. Put these animals in a cage.

57. Cutting of trees and kaingin system are man- made activities that disrupt the balance of ecosystem. What
should we do to protect our forest?
a. Cut down young trees.
b. Cut lumber in the forest
c. Build houses in the forest
d. Plant more trees.

58. Fish productivity decreases every year because of dynamite fishing. Why is dynamite fishing strongly
prohibited?
a. It kills small fish and destroys coral reefs where fish lay their eggs.
b. It allows the fishermen to catch more fish in a short time.
c. It preserves the natural habitat of fish.
d. Its noise attracts marine organisms.
59. Land is abused in many ways such as converting farm lands and forestlands into subdivision. How would
this affect the environment?
a. Improved health and sanitation.
b. Reduced habitat of wild plants and animals.
c. Decrease garbage problems.
d. Abundant supply of water.
60. To protect our environment, recycling is highly encouraged. Why is it important?
a. It is good way of saving resource, reducing waste and minimizing pollution.
b. It is a good source of living since many products are produced from recycled materials.
c. Products made of recycled materials are more durable than ordinary products.
d. It is fun and interesting to create new materials made from raw materials.

For question 61 and 62 refer to the illustration.

61. The illustration above shows the interrelationship between and among components of an ecosystem. Where does
the energy within any ecosystem come from?
A. consumers
B. decomposers
C. producers
D. sunlight

62. Which pair shows a prey-predator relationship?

A. plant-rat
B. rat-fox
C. fox-worm
D. worm-plant

63. Based on diagram below, which animal is badly affected if insect is eliminated?

A. bird
B. frog
C. worm
D. eagle

64. Why are decomposers important in the ecosystem?

A. They make the soil dry.
B. They provide carbon dioxide and oxygen to the soil.
C. They deplete the soil of nitrogen and other materials.
D. They breakdown dead plants and animals into useful mineral.

65. What will happen to penguins if there is no more fish?

A. Penguins will feed on plants.
B. Penguins will remain healthy.
C. Penguins will apparently die.
D. Penguins will increase in number.
66. Which of the following stop motion?
A. catching a ball
B. dropping a ball
C. pushing a chair
D. throwing a ball
67. When two boys pulling each other produce no motion, what force is applied?
A. they are both at rest
B. there are equal force
C. there is a great force on one side
D. there is not enough force on one side
68. An object is moving at constant speed. If a balanced force is applied in the opposite direction of the object,
what will most likely happen?
A. The object will change its direction.
B. The object will continue moving at constant speed.
C. The object will slow down and eventually stop moving.
D. The object will speed up.
69. Based on the illustration below, which of the following will likely produce the least drag?
A. C.

B. D.
 70. A ball that is placed on an inclined plane is released so that it rolls down the plane. The ball continues to
roll after it reaches the bottom of the incline.

Which of the following could be done to make the same ball continue to roll farther after it reaches the bottom
of the incline?
I - Use a longer inclined plane
II – Increase the height of the plane
III – Decrease the height of the plane
IV – release the ball from the topmost end of the plane
A. I only C. I and III only
B. II only D. II and IV only

71. What factor causes the motion of the car to slow down as it is moving up the slope of a mountain?
A. The frictional force between the road and the wheels of the car that decreases as it moves up a
mountain.
B. The force of the car that decreases as it goes up the slope.
C. The gravity of the earth that pulls the car down the slope.
D. The weight of the car
72. Why is it more difficult to stop a fully loaded ten-wheeler truck than an unloaded one?
A. Because its mass affects acceleration.
B. Because it has less mass than the other.
C. Because it is affected by the gravity.
D. Because it is bigger

For question number 73 please refer to the diagram below.

73. Applying the brakes on the sports car causes it to slow down because the brakes
_____________________________.
A. add energy to the sports car
B. help cool the sports car tires
C. produce friction
D. use gravity to slow down the sports car
74. A car will skid more on a wet road than on a dry road. This happens because there is _________
between the tires and the road.
A. friction
B. gravity
C. heat
D. magnetism
75. Three boys of same age, weight and height throw their balls on different surfaces. Boy A throws his
ball on the ground covered with carabao grass. Boy B throws his ball on rough cemented ground. And
boy C throws his ball on the tiled floor. Which ball reaches the farthest point before it stops?
A. The ball of boy A.
B. The ball of boy C.
C. The balls of boy B and boy C.
D. The balls of boy A and boy C.

76. After washing her clothes, Anne is now ready to dry them in the clothes line. What energy does she
need?
a.Chemical
 b.Mechanical
c.Radiant
d.Thermal

77. Which of the following situations show the use of mechanical energy?
a. Backhoe cleans up the mess of Typhoon Sendong in CDO and Iligan.
b.Maria Christina Falls use turbines to run generators.
c.The food that Sam eats is slowly burned in his cells.
d.All of the above.

78. The following children use sound energy at school, except;

a.Budoy and VJ listening to their MP5.
b.Jackie singing with her friends.
c.Nonoy mentally solving the Math problems.
d.Kegoy reciting his poem.

79. When Melai turned on the electric iron to press her uniform, its electrical energy is transformed to
_____________.
a.Chemical energy
b.Chemical and heat energy
c.Heat energy
d.Heat and light energy

80. For a motorcycle to run, it needs gasoline that releases energy when burned. This uses:
a.Chemical energy only
b.Chemical and mechanical energy
c.Mechanical energy only
d.Mechanical and heat energy

81. Which of the following additives enhances the flavor of cooked food but may cause headache and nausea in
people sensitive to it?
A. Salt B. sodium NitrateC. Sugar D. Vetsin or MSG
82. Which of these additives can be safely added to meat to delay its spoilage?
A. salt B. MSG C. Nitrates D. Bromate
83. What are materials that kill germs and prevent the spread of diseases?
A. Additive B. solvent C. Antiseptic D. Insecticide
84. What substances that used to prevent the action of the agents of spoilage such as bacteria and molds?
A. Soap B. preservatives C. Additives D. Synthetics
85. What solvent is effective in removing stains in kitchen sinks and bathroom tiles?
A. thinner B. Muriatic Acid C. Acetone D. Paint

86 Anna would like to enhance the flavor of the food she is cooking. Which of the following materials should she
use?
A. sugar B. MSG or Vetsin C. Vinegar D. Soy Sauce
87. Nena wants to erase her polished nails. Which solvent can remove a nail polish?
A. water B. Acetone C. Thinner D. Muriatic acid
88. Cockroach and mosquitoes are common insects found at home. What materials would you used to kill insects?
A. Paint B. Pesticides C. Insecticides D. Solvents

Mango Juice

Ingredients: Water, Citric

Acid, Sugar, Artificial
Color

89. Which of the following ingredients would enhance the flavor of the mango juice?
A. Water B. Artificial Color C. Sugar D. Citric Acid
90. Salt is the safest known preservative. Why does salted fish decay longer than fresh ones?
A. Salt absorbs the fluid in the fish.
B. Salt dries up the blood of the fish.
C. It prevents the growth of decay- causing bacteria.
D. It hardens the tissues of the fish.

91. This kerosene lamp is to be lighted when brownout came. There are holes near the base of the chimney. Why?
 A. Heat passes throughout these holes.
B. The holes allow oxygen to get near the wick.
C. The holes are exhaust of the kerosene.
D. The holes give beauty to the lamp.

92. Energy can be changed freely from one form to another. Some are changed into less useful forms such as heat.
Which of the following best explains the situation?
A. Chemical energy is converted into heat when fuel is burned in a car engine.
B. Energy can change into different forms but it can be made or destroyed.
C. Mechanical energy of a waterfall is converted into chemical energy in a generator.
D. Our body changes the chemical energy in food into potential energy when you walk.

93. Physical and chemical changes are the two kinds of change. Which statement is true about the change in two
given examples in the box below?
 I - Melting wax
 II- Melting ice

A. I and II are chemical change

B. I and II are physical change √
B. I is chemical change , II is physical change
C. I is physical change , II is chemical change

94. When a certain object undergoes burning new substance is form. Which two objects are related in such away
that the first object possesses chemical energy causing the second object to move?
A. Ballpen, write B. Food, man C. Hot water, coffee D. Soap, clothes

95. Car brakes use liquid pressure. When the brake pedal is pressed, a piston puts pressure on trapped brake fluid.
Pressure is transmitted through

A. Fluid in the pistons wheels pipes brake pads move

B. Fluid in the pistons pipes wheels brake pads move
C. Fluid in the pipes wheels pistons brake pads move
D. Fluid in the pipes pistons wheels brake pads move

96. Two balls of the same material, size, and weight were released at the same time and in the same manner
as shown in the illustration below.

SLIDE A SLIDE B
The ball in Slide A reached the ground faster than the ball in Slide B. What factor could have
affected this?

A. Height of the slide C. Material of the ball

B. Length of the slide D. Weight of the ball

97. A ball was dropped from three different heights on the same wooden floor. Below is the result of the
experiment.
Trials Drop Height Bounce Height
( cm ) ( cm )
1 105 90
2 95 80
3 80 60
Which of the following factors affected the bounce height of the ball?
 A. Height in which the ball is dropped

B. Surface of the floor

C. The manner the ball is dropped

D. Weight and size of the ball

98. A large fruit falls from a tree. What makes it moves faster and faster as it approaches the ground?

A. Distance from the ground

B. Force of gravity

C. Force of the wind

D. Inertia

99. In which situations/are the forces on the objects balanced?

I. Book resting on a table
II. Rolling ball slowing down
III. Coconut is falling

A. I only C. I and II only

B. II only D. II and III only

100.Which of the following could be done to make the same ball continue to roll farther after it reaches the
bottom of the incline?

I. Use a longer inclined plane

II. Increase the height of the plane
III. Decrease the height of the plane
IV. Release the ball from the topmost end of the plane

A. I only C. I and III only

B. II only D. II and IV only

101.A small car runs faster than a big truck. Why is this so?

I. The truck has more mass than a car.

II. A much larger force will be needed to accelerate the truck than the car.

III. The truck has more wheels than the car.

IV. The truck has bigger wheels than the car.

A. I and II

B. II and III

C. III and IV

D. I and I
102.If you let a ball roll on the ground, it will eventually stop. All moving objects will ultimately stop
because of the forces that slow them down such as _________________.
A. Friction and gravity

B. Gravity and speed

C. Speed and weight

 D. Weight and friction

103.You want to throw a ball farther than the last time you throw it. You have to apply ______________ to
make it more quickly through the air.

A. Force C. motion

B. Energy D. speed

104.Why high amount of salt and sugar help preserve foods?

A. Salt and sugar prevent water from being available to microorganism.
B. Salt and sugar release toxic substances that kills microorganisms.
C. Salt and sugar destroy the cells of microorganisms.
D. Salt and sugar stop the microorganism to multiply.

105.How materials used at homes give beneficial effects to man?

A. They make our lives easier and more comfortable.
B. They make our lives to be extravagant
C. They make people change their values.
D. They make people become lazy and unproductive.

106.After typhoon Sendong potable water is not available in flooded areas. To treat and purify the water
chlorine is added to water to___
A. Make it taste better
B. Make it clear and sparkle
C. Prevent tooth-decay
D. Destroy disease causing germs.

107.Softdrinks are carbonated beverages, when left open in a warm room temperature it would soon taste
flat. While if stored in a refrigerator the taste is the same. Which best explains why this happen?
A. The solubility of gas in liquid decreases as the temperature decreases.
B. The solubility of gas in liquid decreases as temperature increases.
C. Molecules of water vapor escape rapidly as the temperature rises.
D. Molecules of water vapor move slowly at low temperature

108.Its breakfast time Mr. Cruz got a sachet of coffee granules and a tablespoon of sugar and mixed with a
cup of hot water, then stirred. The mixture produce is a _______________.
A. Colloid
B. Suspension
C. Solution
D. Heterogeneous

109.Mrs. Cruz went shopping and bought some materials to be used at home. She bought synthetic materials
to cope up with her small budget. What is her reason why she has chosen to buy synthetic materials?
A. Synthetic products are cheaper than the original products .
B. Synthetic products are attractive than the original products.
C. Synthetic materials are beautiful, durable and expensive.
D. Synthetic materials are less durable yet very expensive.

110.Anna cooks apritadang manok, she adds achuete which is a natural additive. What is the use of achuete?

A. An additive that enhances the color of chicken

B. An additive that enhances the flavor of chicken
C. An additive that softens the meat of the chicken
D. An additive that sweetens the chicken

111.Water, alcohol, and thinner are examples of solvent. Which of the following describe the uses of
solvent?
A. It dissolves solid material
B. It thickens solid material
 C. It makes material durable
D. It makes material shiny
112.Cockroach and mosquitos are common insects that caused diseases found at home. What material will
be used to avoid these insects?
A. Used insecticide to kill these insects
B. Used pesticide to kill these insects
C. Used thinner to dissolve these insects
D. Used shampoo to clean these insects
113.Which of the following describes the used of soap?
A. Antiseptic used for cleaning hair
B. Antiseptic that made by actions of alkali in fats and used for cleaning and washing
C. Antiseptic used for spreading diseases
D. Antiseptic that dissolved grease and natural oils

114.Detergents or soaps such as those in bars or powder are cleansing agents used in washing clothes.
Which of the following statements tell us how these materials harm the environment?
A. These are fumes which contain poisonous substances.
B. These contain atoms of chlorine, fluorine, and carbon that contribute water pollution.
C. These contain carbon monoxide, sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide which cause pollution.
D. These non-soluble materials resist conversion into less complex substances which contributes water
pollution.

115.Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are used as coolants in air conditioners and refrigerators. What harm does
it bring?
A. They affect in the production of oxygen.
B. They are flammable and can be dangerous when inhaled.
C. They deplete or make the ozone layer thinner.
D. They emit carbon monoxide which suffocates man.

116.Joanne preferred eating canned foods over fresh ones because it is quick and easy to prepare. What
would likely happen to her if this habit continues?
A. She would not be late for school.
B. She would suffer cancer disease because of carcinogens.
C. She would not be spending much money for food.
D. She would not be exhausted in preparing for her food.

117.Why does burning of synthetic materials destroy the environment?

A. It leaves ashes that go into bodies of water.
B. It produces gases which would protect us from harmful rays of the sun.
C. It produces harmful oxide which when combined with rain water becomes acid rain.
D. It produces toxic chemicals which affect growth of plants.

118.Which of these activities increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the air?
I. Burning of fuels in factories III. Burning of fuels in factories
II. Burning of forest fire IV. Using of unleaded gas

A. I, II, and III

B. I, III, and IV
C. II, II, and IV
D. II, III, and IV

119.How should you handle and store household chemicals?

A. Keep them beyond the reach of children.
B. Keep them in safety food containers.
C. Wipe spilled chemicals with clean clothes.
D. Wipe your hands after using chemicals.

120.Which symbol below means that the product is very delicate and can be broken?
 A.

B.

C.

D. answer

121.Why is it important to read labels of products before using them?

A. To know where to buy the product again
B. To prevent accidents
C. To prevent it from expiration
D. To retain its usefulness
122.Your teacher requests you to clean the bowl of your comfort room using muriatic acid. Which of the
following safety measures would you do?
A. Cover the nose and use gloves.
B. Request an older classmate to do the work.
C. Tell the teacher that it can damage the skin.
D. Use another cleansing material instead of muriatic acid.

123.How should combustible material such as lacquer thinner, kerosene and other petroleum products be
kept?
A. Keep it outside the house.
B. Label it flammable.
C. Store it away from the stove.
D. Store it inside a close cabinet.

124.Your mother asks you to throw away an expired bottled medicine. What should you do?
A. Bring it to the health worker for confirmation of its expiration.
B. Label the bottle before throwing it to the garbage for non-biodegradable.
C. Pour the content in the sink and throw the bottle.
D. Taste the medicine to be sure of it’s really expired.

125.Why should plastics, tin cans, newspapers and bottles be placed in separate containers?
A. These waste materials can help scavengers earn income.
B. These materials are non-biodegradable and can still be reused and recycled.
C. To avoid paying penalties to the local authorities.
D. To help prevent the loss of these materials.

126.Why is it NOT good to store perishable food in a refrigerator for a long period of time?
A. Bacteria usually grow on them while in the refrigerator.
B. It loses its color which affects its taste.
C. It might be contaminated with poisonous chemicals.
D. The longer it stays in the refrigerator, the more energy it consumes.

127.Which of the following activities shows reusing of materials?

A. Making flowers out of old newspaper cuttings.
B. Making a candle holder using empty glass bottle.
C. Breaking empty bottles and make a mosaic.
D. Constructing a wind chime using cuts of empty cans.

128.Mr. Gonzales your neighbor owns a car repair shop. Every day, you can see used oil spills in the
ground. How will you react to this?
A. Explain to him the harm it brings to the environment.
B. Never mind him since it’s his way of living.
C. Report him to the police so that they can take proper action.
D. Reprimand him for his lack of concern to the environment.
For items 129 and 130 refer to the situation in set-up A.
Set-up A: The iron fillings are being sprinkled in a moistened jar for five days. After five days, the moistened iron
fillings undergo changes.

129.What possible change in physical appearance will the iron fillings undergo?
A. Change in color C. change in texture
B. Change in shape D. change in texture
130.What kind of change has the iron fillings undergone?
A. Chemical change C. electrical change
B. Material change D. physical change

For item no. 131 refer to situation in set-up B.

Set-up B: The moistened iron fillings in Set-up A is then placed in a plate labeled X . Another iron filling is placed
in a dry plate, labeled Y.

131.Do the dry and wet iron fillings show the same property?
A. No, because new material was formed in wet iron fillings while no new material was formed in dry
iron fillings.
B. No, because no new material was formed in dry iron fillings.
C. Yes, because no new material was formed in wet iron fillings.
D. Yes, because the dry and wet iron fillings is placed in the same container, the plate.

132.Rust is the new material produced in the moistened iron. Can the new material be back into its original
form?
A. No, because rust has covered and strengthen the iron.
B. No, because rust is a new material which cannot be brought back to its original.
C. Yes, if it is dried fully under the sun.
D. Yes, if an oil or grease is applied to it
133.Dead organisms, through the action of bacteria, decomposed after a long time. What kind of change has
it undergone?
A. Change in composition resulting in the production of new material
B. Change in shape, remaining its kind
C. Change in size without changing its kind
D. Change in state resulting in the stability of its quality.

134.Burning of wood is an example of a chemical change , what new substances are formed?
A. Carbon dioxide + hydrogen C. hydrogen + oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide + water vapor D. oxygen + carbon dioxide
135.Iron is a hard material, when iron combines with oxygen, what material could it produce?
A. Ash B. powder C. rust D. saw-dust
136.Two iron – made benches were put-up, one, near the shore, while the other bench was 15 meters away
from the shore. Is rusting possible in the two benches? If so, which condition will rusting occur easily?
A. Bench away from the sea shore
B. Bench near the seashore
C. Both condition will rust at the same time
D. Both condition will never rust all throughout
137.When a banana turns ripe, chemical change takes place, why?
A. The original green peelings has turned yellow
B. The original material is completely changed
C. The shape has changed and so with its color
D. The taste and texture has changed
138.The drawing below illustrates chemical change. What process is involved in the drawing?
A. Burning
B. Decomposting
C. Fermenting
Garbage D. Rusting

139.Tony picked 5 unripe mangoes in their farm, after a week, all mangoes have turned yellow as he placed
the unripe mangoes in cellophane a week ago. The ripened mango will never be unripe again, why?
A. It has undergone chemical change
B. It has undergone mechanical change
C. It has undergone physical change
D. It has undergone both physical and chemical change
 140.The Philippines is located between 5 0 to 200 north of the equator. How does its location affect the
seasons in the country?
A. The country’s location provides it with 2 pronounced weather
conditions during the year.
B. The country’s location provides it with 3 pronounced weather conditions during the year.
C. The country’s location provides it with 4 pronounced weather conditions during the year.
D. The country’s location provides it with 5 pronounced weather conditions during the year.

141.Our country experiences rain from November to February, why does this happen?
A. Our country receives slanting rays from the sun.
B. Our country receives vertical rays from the sun.
C. Our country is visited by the seasonal wind called doldrums
D. Our country is visited by the seasonal wind called monsoon

142.During the dry season, there is a very little rainfall; the sun always shines during this season, bringing
much heat. What causes its occurrence?
A. Trade winds coming from the east prevail over the country.
B. Trade winds coming from the north prevail over the country.
C. Trade winds coming from the south prevail over the country.
D. Trade winds coming from the west prevail over the country.

143.The country has wet and dry season. How does this affect the lifestyle of the people?
I. It determines the activity they will do on the particular season.
II. It made the people decide what clothes to wear
III. The country’s season has no significant effect on people’s way of life.
A. I only B. I and II C. II and III D. I and III

144.Philippine season is affected by several factors, two of them are.

I. Latitude III. Wind system
II. Population IV. Advancement of Technology

A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. III and IV

145.What environmental change would you consider beneficial or good to man?

a.The three parts of the earth get polluted
b.Population multiplies by leap and bounds
c.Trade and industry become progressive
d.Acid rain and global warming are taking place

146.Based on the diagram, what are the two good effects of reforestation?

I. Carbon dioxide will be added to the atmosphere

II . Oxygen will be added to the atmosphere
III. There will be less carbon dioxide in the air
IV. There will be less oxygen in the air

a.II & III

b.I & III
c.III & IV
d.II & IV

147.Large areas of forest are being cut down for timber, to make space for agriculture or industry. What
would be the effects of this to lowland areas?
a.Provide shelter for wildlife
b.Large areas become dessert
c.Flood will happen
d.Land slide will happen
 148.To help crops grow, chemical fertilizer is often sprayed on to the soil but they washed into lakes and
rivers, where they encourage the growth of green plant-like algae. Microbes feeding on dead algae use
up all the oxygen in the water. How does it affect the marine life?

a.Fish and other organisms die

b. Fish and other organisms become productive
c. Fish and other organisms become healthy
d. Fish and other organisms are available

149.Nonbiodegradable materials will not decompose which clog the canals that will cause flood in urban
areas. What is the proper disposal of garbage?
a.By recycling and reusing
b.By composting
c.By throwing onto canals
d.By burning

150. Smoke from factories, burning garbage and cigarette smoking causes air pollution.
What system of the body is harnessed when breath?
a.Respiratory system
b.Digestive system
c.Reproductive system
d.Nervous system

151.Mang Ambo uses pesticide for its rice field and vegetable garden in order to have good harvest. In what
way pesticide is not applicable?
a.When it destroys both useful and harmful organisms
b.When it pollutes the soil and water
c.When it exterminates harmful weed
d.Both A and B

152.Breaking news! Another landslide and flash flood occurred in Compostela Valley. What factors most
likely contributed to the said calamity?
a.Deforestation
b.Illegal mining and quarrying
c.Overpopulation
d.Both A&B

153.What is the effect of dumping of garbage, industrial and chemical wastes which causes pollution to our
rivers, lakes and seas?
a.Formation of acid rain
b.Occurence of red tide
c.Carbon Dioxide
d.Green house effect

154.The main gas given off when fuels burn is carbon dioxide. It traps the sun’s heat and causes
_____________________.
a.Global cooling
b.Global warming
c.More oxygen
d.Water pollution

155. A frozen ice cube keeps it shape. But when you heat
the ice in a pan, all of these will happen except:
A. The ice becomes liquid water.
B. The water fills the bottom of the pan.
C. The water spread out to cover the pan.
D. Water particles stay close together.

156. Which of the following describes a particle of liquid?

A. It bounces away from each other.
B. It is arranged in a pattern.
C. It slides fast each other.
D. It stays near their neighbours.

156. Why do the same amount of gas in a balloon can fill a

 large room? This is no because__________.
A. The molecules of gas are free to move away from one another.
B. The molecules of gas can move a little bit farther apart.
C. The molecules of gas cannot move.
D. The molecules of gas are closely pack together.

157. Which of the following is true about solids and liquids?

A. Both have definite shape.
B. Both have definite volume.
C. Both have no definite shape.
D. Both have no definite volume.

158. Water vapor is a gas that you can’t see. Its particle flies out the whistling teakettle spout. Why is this so?
A. Because gas has no definite shape but it has definite
volume.
B. Because gas has no definite shape and no definite
volume.
C. Because gas has definite shape but no definite volume.
D. Because gas has definite shape and volume.

159. One hot afternoon, Miss Lo visited my classmate who suffered from Dengue infection. Her mother served juice
and bread as a snack. How do particles of bread looks like?
A. C.

B D

160. Fill the empty pot with seeds of okra until there is no space left, shake it gently. What is likely to happen?
A. The seeds move freely.
B. The seeds flow.
C. The seeds move back and forth but not far from one
another.
D. The seeds slip and slide against one another.
A. A and B C. C and B
B. C and D D. C only
161. The distribution and movements of molecules in a substance differ in every state of matter. The diagram below
represents this behavior.
A. B. C.
162. Which of the following choices gives the correct
identification of a solid, a liquid and a gas
based on the above diagram?

A. a. gas b. solid c. liquid

B. a. solid b. liquid c. gas
C. a. gas b. liquid c. solid
D. a. liquid b. gas c. solid
For item 163 refer to the following examples:
163. Which set of words all name the physical properties of matter?
A. diamonds, liquids, solids
B. ice, water, steam
C. hard, soft, sticky
D. rocks, rubies, emeralds
164. Which is TRUE about the properties of matter?
I. Gas particles are not connected to each other and are
not close to one another.
II. Liquid particles are more loosely arranged than that in
solids.
III. Solid particles do not move very much.
IV. One cup of water always takes up one cup of space in any container.
A. I only C. III and IV
B. II and III D. I, II, III and IV

The materials below are the materials in your home improved by technology.

Activity Ancient time Materials in Modern time

1. Eating Ceramic plates Disposable glasses and plates,
styrofoam
2. Air cooler Electric Fan Air condition
3. Communication Mail, telephone Mobile phone

165. Disposable glasses, plates and Styrofoam are products are technology. Where do they came from?
A. Improved ceramic materials
B. Improved cellophane materials
C. Improved molten metal materials
D. Improved plastic materials
166.Based on the illustration above, it shows that improved new materials are produced from old materials
because of technology. How does technology improve these materials?
A. By means of heating processes of the material
B. By means of cooling processes of the materials
C. By means of diffusion of molecule of the material
D. By means of electrification of the materials
167.Technology has improved the quality of the material we used everyday. Example is the extensive used of
plastics.
How are this technology helped improved man’s life to great extent?
A. It makes life more exaggerating to live with.
B. It makes life more convenient and time saving to live with
C. It makes life living to be more extravagant and extraordinary.
D. It makes life living to a fuller place
168.Our means of transportation and communication have profound changes too. Which of the following are
the products of technology that improves transportation and communication?
A. Cart, bus, computer and internet
B. Train, bus, computer and mobile phone
C. MRT, Jet, computer and internet
D. Mobile phone, plane, bus and internet
169.People in ancient times have simple living. They used simple food, shelter, and clothing. In agriculture
they used simple tools in farming. Nowadays technology improved man’s life in agriculture?
A. Technology has improved the ways and means of agricultural products.
B. Technology has improved farming tools and communication.
C. Technology has improved transportation and communication
D. Technology has improved crop yields with the invention and the use of farm machinery and new
farm techniques.
170.What household materials are continuously improved by technology?
A. Kitchen utensils
B. Cooking appliances
C. Food containers
D. All of the above
171.Why do you think technology is a need to society development?
A. To improve quality of life and develop new products
B. To enhance status of living
C. To up date recent changes of society development
 D. To equipt the modern standard of living
172.Most often, materials that are used to be made from natural materials such as wood or metal are being
produced with the use of planters. Why are the numerous plastic materials now?
A. There are plastic materials that are very strong and heat resistant
B. Usually innovations nowadays used plastic as basic tools
C. Plastic are most specific and accurate for new product technology
D. Plastic are rampant and recyclable materials
173.Which is more convenient to use in laundering clothes, Why?
A. By hand washing because all the odors and dirt will workout
B. By using a washing machine with again dryer because we can save time and effort
C. By hiring a laundry woman to save effort and time
D. All of the above
174.Mrs. Cruz is a business woman throughout the country. She can communicate all her clientele in different
branches if she wants in just a second. What technology is being described in this situation.
A. The use of internet
B. The use of mobile phone
C. The use of fax machine
D. The use of telephone

175.Physical change is the change in size, shape and state of a matter, which of the following does not show
physical change?
a. a cake is sliced into four pieces
b. an ice cube is melt
c. a glass is broken into pieces
d. a shrimp turned red when cooked
.
176.What substance is produced when you burn bamboo sticks?
A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
177.Which statement is true about the phrases below:
I – cooked food
II – digested food
a. I and II show physical change
b. I and II show chemical change
c. I shows physical change while II shows the chemical change
178.What change takes place when water turns into steam ( water vapor)?
a. liquid to gas
b. liquid to solid
c. solid to gas
d. solid to liquid

179.A baker bakes a cake for a wedding of his sister he wants to be a delicious cake what ingredient be used to have it.
In which brings about a physical change?
a. moulds bread
b. cooking adobo
c. melting butter
d. rusting of a knife
180.What change take place when or more substance combine to form a new one?
a. chemical change
b. chemical change property
c. physical change
d. physical change property
181.Which of the following shows chemical change?
a. an ice cream melt
b. a paper is turn to piece
c. a water turned to ice when left in the freezer
d. a wood is burned and turned to ashes
182.Matter may undergo change into two ways, physical or chemical change which of the following processes below
illustrate physical change except ONE.
a. boiling of water
 b. chopping of wood
c. grilling of fish
d. melting of ice

183. If a student leaves home at 7:30 AM to walk to his school 2 km away, stops at a neighbor's house for 15 min,
then arrives at school at 8:00 AM, what is the student's average speed for the trip to school?
A. 2 km/h B. 4 km/h C. 2.67 km/h D. 8 km/h
184. If a total distance of 750 m is covered in a time interval of 25 s,the average speed is ______?
A. 3, 974 mph B. 3 mph C. 30 mph D. 30 m/s
185. If a person walked at 2 m/s for 12 s he/she would travel a distance of ________.
A. 24 m B. 6 m C. 4 m D. none of the answers

186. How long would it take to travel 50 km traveling at a speed of 10 km/hr?

A. 3 hours B. 1 hour C. 5 hours D. 50 hours

187. How far would you travel moving at 12 m/s for 3.00 minutes?
A. 36.0 m B. 2160 m C. 40.0 m D. 36.0 miles

188.A car drives 6.0 km [E], then 8.0 km [W] in a total time of 0.30 h. What is the car's average velocity?
A. 6.67 km/h (W) B. 6.67 km/h (E) C. 24 m/s (W) D. 47 km/h (E) E. 47 km/h (W)
189. An object is travelling north and slowing down. The directions associated with the object’s velocity and
acceleration, respectively, are
A. [S], [N] B. [N], [N] C. [S], [S] D. [N], [S] E. none of the above

190. Two escalators move people up and down between floors of a shopping mall at the same rate, either up or
down. Which of the following statements regarding the motion of the escalators is true?
A.   The escalators have the same speed, but different velocities
B.   The escalators have the same velocity, but different speeds
C.   The escalators have different speeds and velocities
D.   The escalators have the same speed and velocity

191. If the velocity is positive then the movement of the object is __________.

A. to the right B. to the left. C. stationary. D. going down

191. What is the average velocity of a cat that runs 20 m [N] in a time interval of 5.0 s?
A.  0.25 m/s [N]
B.   15 m/s [N]
C.   4.0 m/s [N]
D.   5.0 m/s [N]

The Earth’s Three Layers

Landforms are on the surface of the earth. The top layer is the crust. It is 8 to 65 kilometres thick. The crust
is made of rocks and soil. The layer below the crust is the mantle. It is about 2,800 kilometres thick. The mantle is
mostly solid rock. However, some of the rock is partly melted.
The third layer of the earth is core. It is about 3,500 kilometres thick. The core has two parts. The outer
part is mode of melted rock. The inner part of the core is solid rock.

Questions:
192. Mountains, plains and plateaus are some landforms by
the earth’s ___________?
A. crust B. core C. mantle D. moho
193. The outermost layer of the earth is called __________?
A. crust B. core C. mantle D. moho
194. In what layer of the earth do most living things exist?
A. crust B. core C. mantle D. moho
195. The thickest layer of the earth is called __________?
A. crust B. core C. mantle D. moho

196. The hottest layer of the earth is core, the outer part is
made up of __________?
A. melted rock C. solid rock
B. granite rock D. silicon

197. Which of the following happened when continental plate collides with an oceanic plate?
A. mountain will form
B. trench will form
C. seashore will form
D. island will form
198. How did the seven large crustal plates form?
A. By experiencing tornadoes and hurricanes
B. By sandstorm and hailstorm
C. By moving of plates due to great forces
D. By gathering big rocks
199. Which crustal features are formed by plate movements?
I. deep ocean ridges, ocean trenches
II. volcanoes and faultlines
III. mountain ranges
IV. rivers and lakes
A. I II III
B. I II IV
C. II III IV
D. I III IV
200. Where does crustal plate move occur?
A. at the middle part of the earth
B. at the outermost part of the earth
C. at the bottom of the earth
D. at the upper part of the earth
201. How are mountains formed?
I. when lava from deep inside the Earth hardens
II. when layers of rocks are forced up into folds
III. when there are dumping of rocks
IV. when rocks fracture to cause faults
A. I II III
B. II III IV
202. Which of the forces come from inside the earth and cause sudden changes on it surface?
A. gradational forces
B. Tectonic forces
C. Unbalanced forces
D. Straight forces
203. Which force refers to the movement of the solid parts of the earth?
A. revolution
B. rotation
C. diastrophism
D. volcanism
204. What is formed when rocks slide along a crack?
A. warp
B. fissure
C. fold
D. joints

205.How can we differentiate magnitude from intensity?

A. Intensity is more damageable than magnitude.
B. Intensity is the amount of ashes releases, while magnitude is the amount of fire.
C. Intensity is the amount of energy released while magnitude is the extent of damage.

D. Intensity is the extent of damage while magnitude is the amount of energy released.

206.What instrument do geologists use to measure the earthquake intensity?

A. Anemometer
B. Bar graph
C. Seismometer
D. D.Seismograph

207.Which of the following statements are TRUE about magnitude and intensity?
I. It is the measure of the amount of energy released by an earthquake
II. It is the shaking of the ground as a result of a volcanic activity
III. It is the measure of how strong an earthquake is felt in a specific place
IV. It is a series of seismic waves caused by an earthquake
A. I only
B. I and III
C. II only
D. II and IV
208.In the Philippines, we experience many earthquakes. Recently, an earthquake with different intensities hit
various places: Mindoro, intensity 5, Manila, Las Pinas and Pampangga, intensity 4; Batanggas, Tagaytay,
Quezon City and Makati City, intensity 3. Why is the Philippines prone to earthquakes?
A. The Philippines is along the coastlines.
B. The Philippines is along the typhoon belt.
C. The Philippines is surrounded with fault lines
D. None of these

For item number 209 please study the damaged caused by earthquakes based on the Richter scale numbers.

2.0 -2.9 3.0 – 3.9 4.0 – 4.9 5.0 – 5.9 6.0- 6.9 7.0 – 7.9 8.0 -8.9

Not felt but Felt by few Felt by most Slight damage Much damage Great damage Total
recorded people people to buildings to buildings to buildings destruction

209.Which number in the Richter scale shows everything is destroyed by an earthquake?

A. 4.0 -4.9
 B. 6.0 – 6.9
C. 7.0 – 7.9
D. 8.0 – 8.9
210.An earthquake is happening. People in their houses notice that their frames on the wall, other hanging
decorations, and even hanging lamps swing freely. What is the most probable intensity of the earthquake?
A. Intensity 1
B. Intensity 2
C. Intensity 3
D. Intensity 4
211.If a very strong earthquake occurs in thickly populated area, which of the following may be most affected?
A. Buildings and structures
B. Crops and industries
C. People and homes
D. Roads and bridge
212.The house of Santos family is on top of a mountain. They experienced strong earthquake. What do you
think will happen to the land area where they live?
A. Damage by landslide
B. Damage by seiche
C. Damage by sandblows
D. Damage by tsunami
213.Which of the following describe the land after the occurrence of an earthquake?
A. The land will decrease
B. The land will be underwater
C. There will be cracks in the ground
D. There will be mounds on highways
214.Which of the following results from an earthquake under the sea?
A. Flash flood
B. Landslide
C. Seiche
D. Tsunami
215.Another tragedy occurred in Itogon, Benguet, where 14 miners were trapped inside the mine tunnel. This
happened when rocks from mountains were forced downward burying people to death. What calamity is
this?
A. tsunami
B. landslides
C. flash floods
D. seiches
216.An earthquake occurred in Puket, Thailand a few years ago. Many people died and even properties were
destroyed. When an earthquake happens on the ocean floor. What will be the result?
A. It causes small waves in the ocean
B. It causes gigantic waves called tsunami
C. It causes the formation of ridges and trenches
D. All the above

217. What will you do when you are on the street during an earthquake?
A. Hide inside a building
B. Stand beside a post
C. Stand still
D. Stay away from posts and buildings

218. The Grade VI class with their adviser, Mrs. Ramos were having a symposium in the gymnasium. Suddenly,
they noticed that there’s an earthquake. What precautionary measure must they observe to protect them?
A. find safe exits
B. perform an earthquake drill
C. rush to the crowded exits
D. stay under the sturdy table
219. One day, while walking on the street on your way to school, a strong earthquake occurs. Which of the
following should you do?

A. Run to school
B. Run to the nearest house
 C. Stay away from power lines, post and trees
D. Stop walking and stay where you are
220. Why do we observe precautionary measures before an earthquake?

A. To prepare cameras to take pictures before earthquake

B. To prevent the loss of lives and properties
C. To prevent the media to cover the occurrence earthquake
D. To safeguard all properties before the occurrence of earthquake

221. There’s an earthquake, mother is injured. Which of the following is the best thing to do?
A. Check water and electric lines
B. Seek first aid
C. Stay away from your mother
D. Stay where you are.

222. A volcano show signs of eruptions days or weeks, before it actually erupts. Which of these is not a sign?
A. Drying of vegetation around the crater
B. Earthquakes
C. Increasing emission of steam
D. Usual behavior of animals living near the volcano

223. After volcanic eruption, something is formed at the top of a volcano. This is called ____________.
A. crater B. lava C. magma D. magma chamber
224. All of these happens when magma continue to rise during volcanic eruption except ONE.
A. A lake is formed at the top of a volcano.
B.It branch out into smaller channels.
C. It comes out to the earth’s surface through the central vent.
D. It creates an opening called central vent.
225. How is a volcano formed?
A. When lava comes out of the crater.
B. When a continental plate collide against oceanic plate.
C. When Mountain began to shape like a cone with a central crater.
D. When mountain sends out hot lava.

226. What is the name of the rocky tube in a volcano through which magma travels?
A. crater B. lava C. magma chamber D. vent
227. Which of the following is formed when magma rises and is stored in a chamber until it finds its way to the
earth’s surface?
A. crater B. lava C. vent D. volcano
228. What materials are expelled from a volcano?
A. clay B. lava C. magma D. mud
229. Which of the following describes the process of how a volcano is formed?
A. When two crustal plates move toward each other, one plate is pushed up and down.
B. When two crustal plates move toward each other, magma moves up.

C. When two crustal plates move toward each other, they collide and move away from each
other.
D. When two crustal plates move toward each other, they form a trench.
230. When volcanoes erupt, they emit vast quantity of lava, gases, pyroclastic debris, ash, and mudflow. The
pressures that induce volcanic eruptions come from _________________.
A. steam B. sulfur C. carbon D. nitrogen

231.Philippines have more than 200 volcanoes, 20 of which are considered active. Which of the following
are the most active?
i. Mt. Apo III. Mt. Mayon
ii. Mt. Fuji IV. Mt. Pinatubo
A. I and II B. ii and III C. III and IV D. I and III

232. Mt. Mayon erupted in 2007 while Mt. Pinatubo in 1991. How are they similar?
A. They are active volcanoes
B. They are inactive volcanoes
C. They are situated in Northern Mindanao
D. They are all situated in Ilocos Region
233. What do you call a volcano which has not erupted for a long time but maybe active again anytime?
A. Active B. Dormant C. Extinct D. Inactive

234. Which of these has resulted from the eruption of Mt. Pinatubo?
 A. Cooling of world temperature for several years
B. Filtering of sun’s light
C. Destruction of lives and property
D. All of these

235.The radio announces that there is volcanic activity in the province of Batangas. Beforehand, the
PHIVOLCS gave information to the people living near the volcano. What would be the effect if in case the
volcano will erupt?
A. It will bring damage to plants, animals and people in the surrounding area.
B. The living creatures enjoy the unusual happening with their environment
C. The surrounding area becomes a barren land and it will be of no use anymore
D. More tourist will visit the place during volcanic eruptions
236.Volcanic energy is important but the most beneficial effect of volcanic eruptions is the enrichment of soil.
Which of the following best supports the statement EXCEPT ONE?
A. It often causes the surrounding areas become fertile
B. It brings to the surface many minerals and nutrients that plant need
C. It releases sulphur dioxide, methane and carbon monoxide which can cause ashma, skin allergies and
even death
D. It releases materials which nutrients were needed by plants during volcanic eruptions.
237.Poisonous gases are usually released during volcanic eruptions. How does it affect animals and people?
A. It makes animals and people free from respiratory ailments
B. It lessens oxygen which are NOT needed by animals and people
C. It crowd out oxygen in the atmosphere, depriving animals and people of clean air
D. It provides them energy in order to survive
238.In 1814, Mt. Mayon volcano erupted and mudflows come out of it. What could be the harmful effect as a
result of eruption?
A. It posed hazards or dangers to navigating ships
B. It blew fine ash high into the upper atmosphere
C. It cause brilliant red sunset as far away as England
D. Town of Casagwa and all its people were completely buried
239.Which shows good effects of volcanic eruptions?
A. Villagers are buried by mudflows
B. The gases and ash produce beautiful red sunset
C. Pyroclastic materials are blown from craters
D. Heat energy from the volcanoes can be harnessed to generate electricity
E.

240._______________ is the radius from the top of the volcano as the danger zone.
A. 20 kilometers
B. 6 kilometers
C. 3 kilometers
D. 10 kilometers

241.What type of eruption where the people in the area should be aware?
A. Violent
B. Quiet
C. Trouble
D. Kind
242.It is a kind of disease after the eruption of a volcano.
A. Typhoid
B. Skin infections
C. Viral disease
D. Both B and C
243.When Mang Paeng had loss all his properties, what would be the best remedy to cope such loses?
A. Go to the forest and look for food
B. Wait for some help from government officials
C. Just build a tent in a place
D. Ask help from his closest relatives

244.Which shows the importance of volcanoes?

A. Villagers were buried by mud flows
B. Gases and ash produce beautiful red sunsets in some places
C. Pyroclastic materials blown from the craters
 D. Fertility of the soil

245.What do you call a volcano which has not erupted for a long time but maybe active again?
A. Dormant
B. Active
C. Inactive
D. Extinct
246.Where do gases or steam come out of a volcano?
A. Fumaroles
B. Lava rock
C. Slope
D. Magma
247.Which is an example an extinct volcano?
A. Mount Fuji
B. Mount Pinatubo
C. Mount Paricutin
D. Mount Data

248.What type of volcano is Mount Mayon?

A. Active and composite cone
B. Dormant and shield cone
C. Active and cinder cone
D. Inactive and lava cone

249.Why do Philippines frequently have volcanic eruptions?

A. It is totally surrounded by water
B. It is located along a built of fire
C. It is compose of more than Seven Thousand islands
D. It is frequently visited by typhoon

For questions no. 250-252 refer to the passage below.

As a tsunami leaves the deep water of the open ocean and travels into the shallower water near the coast, it
transforms. A tsunami travels at a speed that is related to the water depth - hence, as the water depth decreases, the
tsunami slows. The tsunami's energy flux, which is dependent on both its wave speed and wave height, remains
nearly constant. Consequently, as the tsunami's speed diminishes as it travels into shallower water, its height grows.
Because of this shoaling effect, a tsunami, imperceptible at sea, may grow to be several meters or more in height
near the coast. When it finally reaches the coast, a tsunami may appear as a rapidly rising or falling tide, a series of
breaking waves, or even a bore.

As a tsunami approaches shore,  it begins to slow and grow in height. Just like other water waves, tsunamis begin to
lose energy as they rush onshore - part of the wave energy is reflected offshore, while the shoreward-propagating
wave energy is dissipated through bottom friction and turbulence. Despite these losses, tsunamis still reach the coast
with tremendous amounts of energy. Tsunamis have great emotional potential, stripping beaches of sand that may
have taken years to accumulate and undermining trees and other coastal vegetation. Capable of inundating, or
flooding, hundreds of meters inland past the typical high-water level, the fast-moving water associated with the
inundating tsunami can crush homes and other coastal structures. Tsunamis may reach a maximum vertical height
onshore above sea level, often called a run up height, of 10, 20, and even 30 meters.

250. Which of the following is TRUE during the occurrence of tsunami?

I- As a tsunami leaves the deep water of the open ocean and travels into the shallower water
near the coast, it transforms.
II- A tsunami travels at a speed that is related to the water depth - hence, as the water depth
decreases, the tsunami fast.
III- As a tsunami approaches shore, it begins to slow and grow in weight.
IV- Tsunamis may reach a maximum vertical height onshore above sea level, often called a run-
up height, of 10, 20, and even 30 meters.

A. I and IV C. II and II
B. I and II D. II and IV
251. How does a tsunami occur?

A. When there is movement on the earth’s C. When there is too much heat of the sun.
crustal plates. D. When there is too much rain.
B. When there is tidal wave.

252. What do we call the tidal waves batter the shoreline can destroy anything in their path?

A. Earthquake
B. Tsunami
C. Typhoon
D. Volcanic eruption
Killer tsunami surges across Japan after 8.9 quakes
March 11, 2011

Largest ever earthquake hits Japan

Witness the moment the 8.9 magnitude earthquake struck Northern Japan, and the destruction caused by the Tsunami which closely
followed.

The confirmed death toll from Japan's massive 8.9-magnitude earthquake has risen to 137 people  and 531  missing, according to The
National Police Agency.

"The damage is so enormous that it will take us much time to gather data," an official at the National Police Agency said.

 The location of the earthquake.

Huge earthquake
The quake struck 382km northeast of Tokyo at 2.46pm local time (4.46pm AEDST), and was followed by a series of powerful
aftershocks, including one of 7.4-magnitude about 30 minutes later.

The US Geological Survey rated the strength of the first quake as a magnitude 8.9, making it the biggest earthquake to strike the
country and the seventh biggest of all time.

253. How does the tsunami occur in Japan?

A. Caused by the huge earthquake.
B. Losses of lives and properties.
C. Through the power of the gravity
D. Typical high water weight.

254. Where did the large earth quake struck?

A. 382km northeast of Tokyo
B. 390 km west of Tokyo
C. 400 km east of Tokyo
D. 405 km south of Tokyo

For items 255-257 refer to the guide below.

Effects when tsunami occurs
I- Destruction and damage
II- Death
III- Injury
IV- Disease
V- Cost
VI- Psychological effects

255. People living in towns and villages on the coast do not have time to escape. They may drown as water rushes on the land.
What effect of tsunami is being described?
A. III and IV
B. IV only
C. II only
D. II and V

256. After the tsunami, José got an unusual fear of waves in the ocean. What kind of effect José have?
A. I only
B. II only
C. II only
D. VI only

257. The city of Cagayan De Oro and Iligan was greatly damaged from the typhoon sendong last Dec. 16, 2011. The typhoon
sendong left the cities with greatly damaged structures. What effect was referred to?
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. V only

258. Pres. PINOY gave the different provinces that were affected by the typhoon an additional Calamity Fund. This will be used
to reconstruct broken highways and a lot more. The DPWH says that huge costs of infrastructure were damaged. What
effect was being referred to?
A. The total covered cost of the damaged infrastructure.
B. The total food an affected family needs per day.
C. The total land area of the neighboring provinces.
D. The total traumatic experiences the people are suffering.

259. Pedro rushes to the hospital due to high fever and swelling of his feet. The doctor said he has liptospirosis. Where did
Pedro acquire the disease?
A. Eating food causing diabetes
B. Over sleeping and eating.
C. Over staying in contaminated water caused by flood.
D. Swimming in the pool all day.

260. Maria’s family lives near the coastal area, when suddenly an earthquake occurred. What should the family do?
I- Be familiar with the tsunami warning signs.
II- Find out if your home is in a danger area.
III- Help injured or trapped persons.
IV- Stay out of damaged buildings. 

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and IV
D. None of the above

261. Before a tsunami Gabriel prepared an emergency kit. What should be inside an emergency kit?
I- Emergency food and water
II- Encyclopedia book of knowledge.
III- Flash light with extra batteries. First aid kit
IV- Wall clocks and frames.

A. I and II
B. I only
C. I and III
D. III and I

262. During a tsunami, Berting heard the official tsunami warning. What would he probably do?

I- Climb to higher ground. 

II- Evacuate at once.
III- Go to the beach and do surfing
IV- Stay near the sea
 A. I and IV
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. All of the above
263. After the tsunami, Jessica wanted to help her neighbors who were greatly damaged due to the tsunami. Which of the
following will she do?
I- Help specially those that require more special attention.
II- Help the injured and the trapped people
III- Just go home and take a rest
IV- Stare at her neighbors and cry

A. II and IV
B. I and III
C. I and II
D. III and I

264. Alaska, Russia, Iceland are some of the countries at the poles. The
Philippines, Saudi Arabia & Iraq are near the equator. Which statement
about the climate of countries located at the poles and at the equator is
true?
A. Countries at the North Pole are generally cooler than countries at the
South Pole.
B. Countries at the South are generally cooler than countries at the
North Pole.
C. Countries near the equator are generally warmer than countries at
the poles. /
D. Countries at the North and South Poles have the same climate as
those at the equator.

For number 265-267, refer to the pictures below.

265. Mt. Everest is covered with thick snow and the average temperature is
65 degrees below zero Celsius. What season of the year does it
belong?
A. Fall B. Spring C. Summer D. Winter

266. Most families enjoy this time of the year to have swimming. This
season of the year is _____?
A. Fall B. Spring C. Summer D. Winter
 267. During these season when most leaves falling from trees. What season
are these?
A. Fall B. Spring C. Summer D. Winter

268. Scientists used a special unit of stellar distance instead of describing the
distance of stars in kilometers. How are stars distances measured
A. in light years B. in light months C. in meters
D. in miles
269. Some stars are brighter than the others? One of the statements below DOES
NOT answer the reason why?
A. They are nearer from the earth C. They are young.
B. They are far from the earth D. They are bigger when closer to earth.
270. It is said that stars does not move from the place they stay. But you can only
see few stars during full moon. Why? Because __________________
A. faint stars die at full moon C the full moon over powers faint stars
B. some stars don’t shine during full moon D. stars are far from earth
during full moon
271.. Most stars in the night sky can be seen with the naked eye or with the help
of special instruments like the telescope. Which of the following is NOT TRUE
about stars?
A. It is a hot luminous heavenly body.
B. It produces light and other forms of energy by nuclear reactions.
C. The stars are twinkling.
D. Stars have different colors.

272, Stars makes the sky so spectacular because of their different colors. Which
statement is NOT TRUE about stars?
A. Red stars are the hottest among the stars.
B.The sun is just a medium size star.
C. Yellow stars are not as hot as bluish-white stars.
D. The temperature of of stars determines their color.
273. Stars are different in colors. Some are red like Betelguese ,some also appear
white, orange, yellow, red or blue. These different colors of stars are caused by
A. surface temperature
B. the different wavelengths of light they produce
C. the sizes they have
D. the distance of stars from earth

Table 1 Chart of Some Stars color and Surface Temperature

Name of Star Color Surface Temperature

Rigel Blue-white 11,000 Degree celcius
Canopus White 8,000 Degree celcius
Sun Yellow 5,500 Degree celcius
Arcturus Orange 4,000 Degree celcius
Antares Red Less than 3200 Degree
celcius

For items number 274-276, base your answer on the table above.
274. What is the the coolest star?
A. Antares B. Canopus C. Rigel
D. Sun

275. What is the color of the hottest star?

A. Blue-white B. orange C. Red
D.yellow
276. How do we know that the certain star is the hottest?
A. it has bigger than the other star
B. it has a high surface temperature
C. it has a low surface temperature
D .it has no surface temperature

277. Accordingly, constellations are name after their legendary character. Which of the following constellation resembles the small
dipper?

A. C.

B. D.

278. Several constellations may be used as guide for direction. Which of these constellations can be used to determine the Earths
North?
I. Big Dipper III. Cassiopeia
II. Orion IV. Taurus
A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I and IV

279. If a constellation Polaris pointing the true North, which is NOT TRUE about an Orion Constellation?
A. It is used to determine the East direction.
B. It is used to find the West direction.
C. It can be seen on both Northern and Southern Hemisphere
D. It is used to determine the Earths North.

280. Some of the constellations are visible in the night sky. Which of these constellations consists of true stars that seem to form the
letter W?
I. Big Dipper III. Cassiopeia, the Queen
II. Little Dipper IV. Orion, the Great Hunter
A. I and II B. I and III C. III and VI D. III only

281. The constellations of the Southern Hemisphere are the constellations that can be seen from any pilot South of the Equator. Which
statement describes Hydra constellation?
A. It is the smallest constellation.
B. It is a medium-sized constellation.
C. It is the largest constellation.
D. It is the super giant constellation.

282. Constellations are group of stars that form certain patterns. Which of the following are the
famous constellations?
I. Southern Cross and Gemini III. Great Bear
II. Sagittarius, Orion and Aries IV. Cassiopeia and Orion
A. I and II B. II and III C. III and VI D. I, III a

283. Ancient travellers uses the Polaris as their watch during night time. What other two description of the constellations that are
useful to man?
I. Constellation warns us to climate change.
II. Constellations are use as guides in determining directions.
III. The position of stars enables us to approximate time at night.
IV. Constellations help in the process of photosynthesis at night.
A. I only B. I and II C. II and III D. III and IV

284. North Star is another term for Polaris. Which is NOT TRUE about polaris?
A. It is used as a compass to find direction.
B. Polaris always points to the true north.
C. Polaris can be seen during winter season.
D. Polaris is found in the constellation Small Dipper.

285. Stars are named after the legendary character. Which statement best describes the importance of stars to ancient people?
A. It forecast weather.
B. They are used for relaxation.
C. They are used to beautify the sky.
D. They are used to brighten the sky.

286. North Star or Polaris always points to the Earth’s North Pole. To which group of people Polaris is useful?
A. teachers C. nurses
B. doctors D. navigators
287. Astronomers classify galaxies according to their shape or appearance. The most common types of galaxy are believed to be the
elliptical galaxy. How will you described elliptical galaxy?
A. A bulge or nucleus from which several arms may come out.
B. Almost spherical shape to a flattened disk.
C. Arms that extend from a bar of stars in the nucleus.
D. Has wide open arms and the stars in the arms are young.

288. The Large and Magellanic Clouds are two of the four irregular galaxies in the Local Group.
They are Milky Way’s nearest ___________ in space.
A. competitor B. imitator C. neighbour D. mother

289. Heavenly bodies are so amazing that when it will come out to the open, it covers the sky with great brightness. ________ are
rocks orbiting the sun or the planets that are too small to be classified as planets or moons
A. Asteroids B. Comets C. Earth D. Galaxy

290. Quasars are smaller than most galaxies but are very much brighter. The energy radiated by a quasar is about a thousand more
than that of a_________
A. Normal Galaxy C. Spiral Galaxy
B. Irregular Galaxy D. Elliptical Galaxy

291.Various instruments are used to study the universe. Which of these instruments used to
separate radiation such as light into a spectrum and photographs the spectrum?
A. microscope B. spectroscope C. spectrograph D. telescope

292. Telescopes are used to make an object appear bigger and clearer. Which kind of telescope uses lenses for focusing light rays
from distant objects?
A. reflecting telescope C. ultraviolet telescope
B. refracting telescope D. infrared telescope

293. Facilities, tools and equipments used to study the solar syatem. What instruments used for measuring wavelengths of light
spectra?
a. Satellite B. Spectrometer C. Telescope D. thermometer

294. Big Bang Theory is one of a very known theories that study the universe. The following statements explain the Big Bang Theory
EXCEPT one.
A. All matter in the galaxies was once packed into one big ball.
B. The stars move so far that they could not be seen anymore.
B. The universe expanded and would soon expand over again.
D. The stars came from the materials that exploded and thrown outward and move
farther away from each other.

295.Big Bang Theory, Steady State Theory and Pulsating Theory have different studies about the universe. What theory says that the
universe is constant in size and uniform throughout?
A. Big Bang Theory B. Steady State Theory
C. Big Crunch Theory D. Pulsating Theory

296. Some sattelites are used for communication. Which of these satellites relay telephone calls and TV programs?

a.ATS 6, 1974 b.Explorer 1, 1958

c.Intelstar IV, 1957 d.Lageos, 1976

297.Modern man uses artificial sattelites, space probes, and space stations to explore the vast universe. Which of these satellites was
the first to transmit the TV programs overseas?

a.Telstar 1, 1962 b.Echo 1,1960

c.Sputnik 1, 1957 d.Tiros 1, 1960

298.The space probes PIONEERS 10 and 11 were sent to Jupiter. They discovered the following except one:
a.Presence of rings around Jupiter
b.The close up studies of the Jovian satellites
c.Jupiter’s very turbulent surface
d.The absence of solid and liquid water outside earth

299.Space crafts carries instruments and equipments used to study the universe. What do you call the space craft that was sent to study
the moon and other planets?
a.artificial satellite b.planetary probe
c.Venera 1 d.Venera 9 & 10

300.Skylab 1 of the United States was launched into space in 1973. The following are among its achievements except one. Which one
is it?
a.It had never experienced damage during the accent
b.It was a successful experimental American space station
c.It returned to earth in 1979
 d. It was visited by three-man teams for periods of 28, 59, & 84 days respectively.
301.The first liquid-fuelled rocket rose only 60 minutes into the air. Why was this considered an achievement in space exploration?
a.It made a lot of money and support.
b. Spacecratfs launched brought fame and promotion to explorers.
c. It was a tiny but primary step towards more rockets and probes.
d.The conquest of the outer space made the space and solar system small.

302.Global warming greatly affect climate. Why is harmful radiation abundant in space?
a.Astronauts drink their own urine.
b.Outer space is almost a perfect vacuum.
c. There is no atmosphere that can block the harmful radiation.
d. There is an extreme temperature and pressure in outer space.

303.What did Neil Armstrong and other astronauts experience due to zero gravity?
a.Foods are packed like toothpaste to add taste.
b.They lost muscle tone and calcium from bones.
c.They enjoyed playing and taking pictures in the space.
d.They wear space suits for fashion and protocol.

304.An astronaut weights 1/6 only of his actual weight in space due to weightlessness. If you are 60 kilos on earth, how heavy are you
a.5
b.10
c.20
d.30

305.Astronauts and cosmonauts travelled around the space to gather information about the universe. The following are important
achievements of space exploration, except:
a.The weather predictions and forecasting.
b.Hi-tech satellites for transcontinental communications.
c.Text voice and voice transmission have now become faster.
d.Volcanic eruptions and earthquakes is now more predictable.

306. In observing and exploring the heavenly bodies, it is good to use radio telescope than an optical telescope alone because…
A. An optical telescope cannot detect furthest celestial bodies.
B. An optical telescope cannot detect radio waves and other radiation.
C. An optical telescope cannot detect celestial bodies during night time.
D. An optical telescope cannot detect celestial bodies that emit plenty of light energy.

307. Which of the following is detected by astronomical instruments that lead to the discovery of heavenly bodies?
A. light energy
B. infrared rays
C. ultra violet rays
D. all of the above

308. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. To study celestial bodies, the telescope must be very large.
B. Light that enters the telescope is made weak in the spectroscopes.
C. Radio telescope receives electromagnetic waves with low frequency and long wave length.
D. Optical telescope can detect celestial bodies that emit radiation like radio waves, UV rays, X-rays, gamma rays, and infrared rays.

309. In Janet’s hometown, it seldom rains hard, but there is frequent light rain all throughout the year. To what type of climate does
this place belong?

A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D.Type IV

310. We experience heavy and continuous rains in our country because of the so called southeast monsoon or the “hanging habagat”.
From what months do we experience it?

A. February to May B. June to October /

C. May to October D. November to February

311. Considering the Philippines location, in which part of the country would you like to live because of its mild climate?

A. Bohol B. Bukidnon C. Cagayan de Oro D. Manila

312. During summer, many people love to go to Baquio City. It has cool temperature compared to Manila. Why is this so?

A. It is located on the north. B. It is located on top of the mountain.

C.It is rich in mineral deposits. D.It is surrounded by bodies of water

313. Which of the following factors greatly affect the climate of the Philippines?

I. temperature II. humidity

III. rainfall IV. cloudness

A. I and II C. II and III

B. I and IV D. I, II and III

314. Scientist used a special unit of stellar distance, instead of describing the distance of stars in kilometers. How are stars distances
measured?
A. in light years B. in light months C. in meters D. in miles
315. Why are some stars brighter than the others? One of the statements below DOES NOT answer the reason why?
A. They are nearer from the earth C. They are young.
B. They are far from the earth D. They are bigger when closer to earth.
316. You can see few stars only during full moon because __________________
A. faint stars die at full moon C. the full moon over powers faint stars
B. some stars don’t shine during full moon D. stars are far from earth during full moon
317. Brightness of stars depends on the following things, except?
A. Size of the star B. Surface temperature
C. Distance from earth D .Mass in terms of size
318. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about stars?
A. It is a hot luminous heavenly body.
B. It produces light and other forms of energy by nuclear reactions.
C. The stars are twinkling.
D. Stars have different colors.

319. Several constellations may be used as guide for direction. Which of these constellations can be used to determine the Earths
North?
I. Big Dipper III. Cassiopeia
II. Orion IV. Taurus
A. I and II B. I and III C. II and III D. I and IV

320. Which statement is NOT TRUE about an Orion Constellation?

A. It is used to determine the East direction.
B. It is used to find the West direction.
C. It can be seen on both Northern and Southern Hemisphere
D. It is used to determine the Earths North.

321. Some of the constellations are visible in the night sky. Which of these constellations consists of true stars that seem to form the
letter W?
I. Big Dipper III. Cassiopeia, the Queen
II. Little Dipper IV. Orion, the Great Hunter
A. I and II B. I and III C. III and VI D. III only

322. The constellations of the Southern Hemisphere are the constellations that can be seen from any pilot South of the Equator. Which
statement describes Hydra constellation?
A. It is the smallest constellation.
B. It is a medium-sized constellation.
C. It is the largest constellation.
D. It is the super giant constellation.

323. Constellations are group of stars that form certain patterns. Which of the following are the
famous constellations?
I. Southern Cross and Gemini III. Great Bear
II. Sagittarius, Orion and Aries IV. Cassiopeia and Orion
A. I and II B. II and III C. III and VI D. I, III and IV

324. Which of the following statements tell us how constellations are useful to man?
I. Constellation warns us to climate change.
II. Constellations are use as guides in determining directions.
III. The position of stars enables us to approximate time at night.
IV. Constellations help in the process of photosynthesis at night.
A. I only B. I and II C. II and III D. III and IV

325. Which is NOT TRUE about polaris?

A. It is used as a compass to find direction.
B. Polaris always points to the true north.
C. Polaris can be seen during winter season.
D. Polaris is found in the constellation Small Dipper.

326. Which statement best describes the importance of stars to ancient people?
 A. It forecast weather.
B. They are used for relaxation.
C. They are used to beautify the sky.
D. They are used to brighten the sky.

327. North Star or Polaris always points to the Earth’s North Pole. To which group of people are Polaris useful?
A. teachers C. nurses
B. doctors D. navigator

328. Astronomers classify galaxies according to their shape or appearance. The most common types of galaxy are believed to be the
elliptical galaxy. How will you described elliptical galaxy?
A. A bulge or nucleus from which several arms may come out.
B. Almost spherical shape to a flattened disk.
C. Arms that extend from a bar of stars in the nucleus.
D. Has wide open arms and the stars in the arms are young.

329. The Large and Magellanic Clouds are two of the four irregular galaxies in the Local Group.
They are Milky Way’s nearest ___________ in space.
A. competitor B. imitator C. neighbour D. mother

330. ________ are rocks orbiting the sun or the planets that are too small to be classified as planets
or moons
A. Asteroids B. Comets C. Earth D. Galaxy

331. Quasars are smaller than most galaxies but are very much brighter. The energy radiated by a quasar is about a thousand more
than that of a_________
A. Normal Galaxy C. Spiral Galaxy
B. Irregular Galaxy D. Elliptical Galaxy

332.Various instruments are used to study the universe. Which of these instruments used to
separate radiation such as light into a spectrum and photographs the spectrum?
A. microscope B. spectroscope C. spectrograph D. telescope

333. Telescopes are used to make an object appear bigger and clearer. Which kind of telescope uses lenses for focusing light rays from
distant objects?
A. reflecting telescope C. ultraviolet telescope
B. refracting telescope D. infrared telescope

334. The ________ is an instruments used for measuring wavelengths of light spectra.
a. Satellite B. Spectrometer C. Telescope D. thermometer

335.Big Bang Theory is one of a very know theories that study the universe. The following statements explain the Big Bang Theory
EXCEPT one.
C. All matter in the galaxies was once packed into one big ball.
B. The stars move so far that they could not be seen anymore.
D. The universe expanded and would soon expand over again.
D. The stars came from the materials that exploded and thrown outward and move
farther away from each other.

336.Big Bang Theory, Steady State Theory and Pulsating Theory have different studies about the universe. What theory says that the
universe is constant in size and uniform throughout?
A. Big Bang Theory B. Steady State Theory
C. Big Crunch Theory D. Pulsating Theory

337.Which of these satellites relay telephone calls and TV programs?

a.ATS 6, 1974
b.Explorer 1, 1958
c.Intelstar IV, 1957
d.Lageos, 1976

338.Which of these satellites was the first to transmit the TV programs overseas?
a.Telstar 1, 1962
b.Echo 1,1960
c.Sputnik 1, 1957
d.Tiros 1, 1960

339.The space probes PIONEERS 10 and 11 were sent to Jupiter. They discovered the following except one:
a.Presence of rings around Jupiter
b.The close up studies of the Jovian satellites
c.Jupiter’s very turbulent surface
d.The absence of solid and liquid water outside earth

340.What do you call the space craft that was sent to study the moon and other planets?
a.artificial satellite
 b.planetary probe
c.Venera 1
d.Venera 9 & 10

341.Skylab 1 of the United States was launched into space in 1973. The following are among its achievements except one. Which one
is it?
a.It had never experienced damage during the accent
b.It was a successful experimental American space station
c.It returned to earth in 1979
d. It was visited by three-man teams for periods of 28, 59, & 84 days respectively.

342.The first liquid-fuelled rocket rose only 60 minutes into the air. Why was this considered an achievement in space exploration?
a.It made a lot of money and support.
b. Spacecratfs launched brought fame and promotion to explorers.
c. It was a tiny but primary step towards more rockets and probes.
d.The conquest of the outer space made the space and solar system small.

343.Why is harmful radiation abundant in space?

a.Astronauts drink their own urine.
b.Outer space is almost a perfect vacuum.
c. There is no atmosphere that can block the harmful radiation.
d. There is an extreme temperature and pressure in outer space.

344.What did Neil Armstrong and other astronauts experience due to zero gravity?
a.Foods are packed like toothpaste to add taste.
b.They lost muscle tone and calcium from bones.
c.They enjoyed playing and taking pictures in the space.
d.They wear space suits for fashion and protocol.

345.An astronaut weights 1/6 only of his actual weight in space due to weightlessness. If you are 60 kilos on earth, how heavy are you
a.5
b.10
c.20
d.30

346.The following are important achievements of space exploration, except:

a.The weather predictions and forecasting.
b.Hi-tech satellites for transcontinental communications.
c.Text voice and voice transmission have now become faster.
d.Volcanic eruptions and earthquakes is now more predictable.

7.1 – Identifies the four types of climate in the Philippines

347. In Janet’s hometown, it seldom rains hard, but there is frequent light rain all throughout the year. To what type of climate does
this place belong?
 A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D.Type IV

348. We experience heavy and continuous rains in our country because of the so called southeast monsoon or the “hanging habagat”.
From what months do we experience it?

A. February to May

B. June to October /

C. May to October

D. November to February

7.2 Identifies the places where each type of climate occurs

349. Considering the Philippines location, in which part of the country would you like to live because of its mild climate?

A. Bohol B. Bukidnon C. Cagayan de Oro D. Manila

350. During summer, many people love to go to Baquio City. It has cool temperature compared to Manila. Why is this so?

A. It is located on the north.

B. It is located on top of the mountain.

C.It is rich in mineral deposits.

D.It is surrounded by bodies of water

7.3 – Relates the condition of a place to the type of climate it has

351. Based on its location, what kind of climate does our country have?

A. cold B. dry C. moist D. warm

352. Which of the following factors greatly affect the climate of the Philippines?

I. temperature

II. humidity

III. rainfall

IV. cloudness

C. I and II C. II and III

D. I and IV D. I, II and III

353. In observing and exploring the heavenly bodies, it is good to use radio telescope than an optical telescope alone because…
A. An optical telescope cannot detect furthest celestial bodies.
B. An optical telescope cannot detect radio waves and other radiation.
C. An optical telescope cannot detect celestial bodies during night time.
D. An optical telescope cannot detect celestial bodies that emit plenty of light energy.

354. Which of the following is detected by astronomical instruments that lead to the discovery of heavenly bodies?
A. light energy
B. infrared rays
C. ultra violet rays
D. all of the above

355. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. To study celestial bodies, the telescope must be very large.
B. Light that enters the telescope is made weak in the spectroscopes.
C. Radio telescope receives electromagnetic waves with low frequency and long wave length.
D. Optical telescope can detect celestial bodies that emit radiation like radio waves, UV rays, X-rays, gamma rays, and infrared rays.