1. The following test is used to differentiate Streptococcus 12.

HCV belongs to genus:

from Staphylococcus: A. Togavirus
A. Coagulase test B. Flavivirus
B. Catalase test C. Filovirus
C. Phosphatase D. Retrovirus
D. Indole test 13. Aflatoxin is produced by:
2. Jumping gene is known as: A. Candida
A. Transposon B. Penicillium
B. Episome C. Aspergillus flavus
C. Cosmid D. Clostridium
D. Plasmid 14. HIV infects most commonly:
3. Staphylococcus bacteria secrete all, EXCEPT: A. CD4+ cells
A. Lipase B. CD8+ cells
B. Cellulase C. B-lymphocytes
C. Coagulase D. Basophils
D. Lecithinase 15. Which one is an essential part of life cycle of
4. Quellung reaction is due to ________ swelling. Toxoplasma gondii is spread by:
A. Capsular A. Dog
B. Flagellar B. Cat
C. RBC C. Human
D. Ribosomal D. Sheep
5. Gram negative cocci is: 16. Cell mediated immunity is mainly carried out by:
A. Staphylococcus A. T cells
B. Streptococcus B. B cells
C. Neisseria C. Macrophages
D. Salmonella D. Monocytes
6. Medusa head colony is found in: 17. Vaccination is based on the principle of:
A. Clostridium A. Agglutination
B. Bacillus B. Phagocytosis
C. Pseudomonas C. Immunological memory
D. E. coli D. Clonal deletion
7. All of the following are acid fast bacteria EXCEPT: 18. Reaction of soluble antigen with antibody is _______.
A. Cryptosporidium A. Agglutination
B. Mycoplasma B. Precipitation
C. Mycobacterium C. Flocculation
D. Nocardia D. CFT
8. Widal test is an example of: 19. Preliminary screening can be done by:
A. Flocculation A. restriction enzyme
B. Precipitation B. dyes
C. Agglutination C. antibiotics
D. Both “A” and “B” D. radiation
9. Genome of Herpes Simplex Virus comprises of: 20. All of these are antigen presenting cells EXCEPT:
A. ssDNA A. T cells
B. dsDNA B. B cells
C. ssRNA C. Dendritic cells
D. dsRNA D. Langerhans cells
10. All of the following methods are used for serological 21. Which of the following is not included in intrinsic
diagnosis, EXCEPT: determinants of a disease?
A. CFT A. Specie
B. PCR B. Environment
C. SRH C. Genetics
D. Western blot D. Both “A” and “B”
11. Which of the following virus is not associated with 22. Which of the following substance can only induce
respiratory infections? immune response after binding to a larger molecule?
A. Rotavirus A. Antigen
B. Adenovirus B. Virus
C. Influenza virus C. Hapten
D. RSV D. Antibody

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23. To identify participants based on their disease / 34. ________ is chain forming, & round shaped bacteria.
outcome status, compare presence of risk factor: A. Pneumococcus
A. Case-control B. Streptococcus
B. Experimental C. Staphylococcus
C. Cross-sectional D. Diplococcus
D. None of these 35. All the following can be zoonotic EXCEPT:
24. ___ is an example of arthropod vector borne disease? A. Influenza A H5N1
A. Avian influenza B. Hantaviruses
B. Tuberculosis C. Poliomyelitis
C. Spirochetosis D. Rabies
D. CRD 36. Presence of maternal Abs ____ the effect of vaccine.
25. Latent infection is seen in viral infections EXCEPT: A. Antagonize
A. HIV B. Enhance
B. EBV C. Synergize
C. Rotavirus D. Complement
D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) 37. A diagnostic test lacking in ________ results in false
26. Endotoxin for Gram-negative organism is: positive results.
A. Polysaccharide A. Specificity
B. Glycoprotein B. Predictive value
C. Lipoprotein C. Sensitivity
D. Lipopolysaccharide D. Reproducibility
27. Which of the following is not an oncogenic virus? 38. Which one of the following is NOT included in innate
A. HTLV-1 immune response?
B. Adenovirus A. phagocytosis
C. Papilloma virus B. complement activation
D. HBV C. antibodies production
28. Which of the following is obligate anaerobe? D. NK cells activation
A. Clostridium 39. Viruses are:
B. Bacillus A. Obligate intracellular parasites
C. Staphylococcus B. Have their own metabolism
D. Klebsiella C. Divide by binary fission
29. ______ refers only to the number of new cases of a D. Have both DNA and RNA
disease occurring in a given period. 40. The vector of plague is:
A. % positivity A. Flies
B. Prevalence B. Mosquitoes
C. Hyperendemic C. Ticks
D. Incidence D. Fleas
30. Fungi that possess a capsule is: 41. Positive tuberculin test is an example of:
A. Candida A. hypersensitivity type-I
B. Aspergillus B. hypersensitivity type-II
C. Cryptococcus C. hypersensitivity type-III
D. Mucor D. hypersensitivity type-IV
31. The dose required to kill 50% of the lab animals 42. Process of binding primer to DNA template is called:
tested under standard called_______. A. Denaturation
A. ID50 B. Annealing
B. MLD50 C. Extension
C. TCIC50 D. Bounding
D. LD50 43. _________ reagent is used to precipitate DNA.
32. All are used in Gram’s staining, EXCEPT: A. Isopropanol
A. Methylene blue B. SDS
B. Iodine C. Phenol
C. Safranin D. Chloroform
D. Crystal violet 44. _________ enzyme is used to synthesize DNA using
33. Viruses do not contain: an mRNA template.
A. DNA A. Taq polymerase
B. RNA B. Alkaline Phosphatase
C. Enzyme C. Reverse transcriptase
D. Cell wall D. Nuclease

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45. Making routine observations on health, productivity 55. Macrophages present in liver are called:
& environment is called as: A. microglial cells
A. GIS B. alveolar macrophages
B. Monitoring C. Kupffer cells
C. Surveillance D. wondering macrophages
D. Cohort studies 56. Antibiotic penicillin was introduced by:
46. _____ disease is transmitted from parrot to human. A. Pasteur
A. Typhoid B. Fleming
B. Bird flu C. Jenner
C. Psittacosis D. Lister
D. Cholera 57. Prokaryotic cell lacks:
47. The ability of the immune system to recognize self- A. DNA
antigens versus non-self-antigen is an example of: B. Ribosomes
A. Specific immunity C. Mitochondria
B. Humoral immunity D. Plasma membrane
C. Cell mediated immunity 58. Immunity against yellow fever in newborn is an
D. Tolerance example of:
48. The coagulase test is used to differentiate between A. Active naturally acquired
Staphylococcus aureus from: B. passive artificially acquired
A. Streptococci C. passive naturally acquired
B. Micrococci D. artificial immunity
C. Enterococci 59. All structures are external to cell wall EXCEPT:
D. other staphylococci A. Glycocalyx
49. All are antigen-antibody interaction in living host B. Flagella
EXCEPT: C. Pilli
A. Neutralization D. Spores
B. Precipitation 60. A typical bacterial cell has only _____ volume of a
C. Opsonization typical eukaryotic cell.
D. Agglutination A. 1/10
50. Which of the following is a type of leukocytes and are B. 1/100
included in agranulocytes? C. 1/1000
A. Neutrophils D. 1/10000
B. Basophils 61. PCR reaction includes all, EXCEPT:
C. Monocytes A. DNA ligase
D. Eosinophils B. four DNTPs
51. Which one is NOT protective mechanism of body: C. DNA template
A. Fever D. DNA polymerase
B. Necrosis 62. If disease is endemic, prevalence equals to:
C. Phagocytosis A. C x I
D. Inflammation B. I x D
52. Bioterrorism microbial agents are classified based C. P x D
upon: D. C x D
A. Pathogenicity 63. Southern hybridization is used to identify:
B. Spread A. A specific protein
C. Availability B. A specific RNA seq
D. Both “A” and “B” C. A specific DNA sequence
53. Which one of the following immunoglobulins can D. Both “A” and “B”
cross the blood placental barrier? 64. All of the following bacteria are members of family
A. Ig G Enterobacteriaceae EXCEPT:
B. Ig M A. E. coli
C. Ig A B. Shigella
D. Ig D C. Staphylococcus
54. Hematopoietic stem cells are precursor cells for all of D. Salmonella
the following EXCEPT: 65. A library of DNA fragments results from the use of:
A. Lymphocytes A. Viruses
B. Monocytes B. Restriction endonucleases
C. Erythrocytes C. DNA ligases
D. Vascular smooth muscle cells D. Plasmids

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66. Swarming growth is the characteristic of Gram- 77. O157:H7 is pathogenic type of:
negative bacteria known as: A. Salmonella typhi
A. Clostridium B. E. coli
B. Proteus C. S. aureus
C. Pasteurella D. Streptococcus
D. Pseudomonas 78. All of the following bacteria are non-spore forming
67. Mesophilic bacteria CANNOT grow at temperature: bacteria EXCEPT:
A. 16oC A. E. coli
B. 25oC B. Clostridium
C. 35oC C. Streptococcus
D. 38oC D. Leptospira
68. Facultative anaerobic bacteria grow in presence of: 79. The ability of Microscope to distinguish two objects
A. only O2 into two separate objects, is called:
B. O2 and also CO2 A. Magnification power
C. only CO2 B. Wavelength
D. N2 C. Resolving power
69. Mannitol salt agar is an example of: D. None of these
A. Selective medium 80. A sudden outbreak of disease in which number of
B. Differential medium cases increase beyond expected trends is known as:
C. Both “A” and “B” A. Endemic
D. Enrichment medium B. Epidemic
70. Translation occurs in: C. Sporadic
A. Nucleus D. Pandemic
B. Cytoplasm 81. Serum is collected from____________ blood.
C. Ribosomes A. Heparinized
D. Both “A” and “B” B. Unclotted
71. An intron is found in: C. Clotted
A. DNA D. All of these
B. RNA 82. Amboceptors are Abs raised against RBCs of:
C. mRNA A. Sheep
D. tRNA B. Cow
72. Signal responsible for the end of transcription is: C. Goat
A. Stop codon D. Horse
B. RNA polymerase run out 83. GET buffer in plasmid isolation of bacteria contains:
C. End of DNA chain A. Glucose
D. Terminator B. EDTA
73. Plasmids are inserted in bacterial cell from C. Tris
environment: D. All of these
A. Transformation 84. Majority of the antigens are:
B. DNA ligase A. Protein
C. Transfection B. Nucleic acid
D. Transduction C. Lipids
74. Which of following could NOT be a portal of entry? D. Carbohydrates
A. Meninges 85. RNAi’ stands for which of the following:
B. Skin A. RNA inducer
C. Placenta B. RNA insertion
D. Small intestine C. RNA interference
75. Highly communicable pathogen, especially via direct D. RNA intron
contact is known as: 86. The botulism intoxication occurs due to:
A. Zoonotic A. An enterotoxin
B. Contagious B. A neurotoxin
C. Nosocomial C. A mycotoxin
D. Communicable D. All of these
76. Motility of the bacteria can be observed by: 87. An animal that only acts as short-term transmitter:
A. Hanging drop method A. Passive carrier
B. Soft agar method B. Mechanical carrier
C. Both “A” and “B” C. Biological carrier
D. Pour plate method D. Asymptomatic carrier
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88. Adenine and guanine are example of which class of 99. ________ is NOT an example of inflammation?
nitrogen base: A. Pain
A. Large B. Sweating
B. Pyrimidines C. Heat
C. Small D. Swelling
D. Purines 100. Typhoid is usually diagnosed by:
89. Which of the following is not a function of capsule? A. Typhidot test
A. Attachment B. Widal test
B. Motility C. Precipitation test
C. Biofilm D. Typhidot and widal tests
D. Used as nutrition 101. Clostridium bacillus is:
90. Whiff test is used for the diagnosis of: A. Facultative anaerobe
A. Entamoeba B. Facultative aerobe
B. Giardia C. Obligate anaerobe
C. E. coli D. Obligate aerobe
D. Trichomonas 102. α-hemolytic streptococci are also known as_______.
91. _____is Gram positive rod & spore forming bacteria. A. Streptococcus pyogenes
A. Pseudomonas B. Virulence group
B. Staphylococcus C. Viridans group
C. Salmonella D. CoNS
D. Bacillus 103. __________ is/are used to determine glucose
92. Which of the following vaccine is recommended for fermentation by bacteria?
pregnant women? A. Methyl red test
A. Tetanus B. TSI test
B. Tuberculosis C. Urease test
C. AIDS D. MR test and TSI test
D. Poliomyelitis 104. Protein particles which can cause disease are:
93. Natural competence was first time described in: A. Virions
A. E. coli B. Nucleoida
B. Streptococcus C. Bacteriophages
C. Staphylococcus D. Prions
D. Bacillus 105. Bacteria are more sensitive to antibiotics at which
94. In genomic DNA isolation, TE buffer functions as: phase of growth curve?
A. Block endonucleases A. Decline phase
B. Maintain pH B. Lag phase
C. Denature protein C. Log phase
D. Both “A” and “B” D. Stationary phase
95. An example of non-communicable disease is: 106. Syphilis is a bacterial STD, caused by________.
A. Measles A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Tuberculosis B. Treponema pallidum
C. Leprosy C. Leptospira
D. Tetanus D. Neisseria gonorrhea
96. E. coli O157:H7 produces ______. 107. Staining material of Gram-negative bacteria is
A. Colon toxin A. Crystal violet
B. Neurotoxin B. Safranin
C. Exotoxin C. Carbol fuchsin
D. Shiga toxin D. Methylene blue
97. Treatment with which salt gives properties of 108. The bacterium that is most commonly used in
competency to bacterial cells? genetic engineering is:
A. NaCl A. Staphylococcus
B. HgCl B. Klebsiella
C. NaHCO3 C. Proteus
D. CaCl2 D. Escherichia
98. Lyophilization means: 109. In autoclave, the principle involved is:
A. Sterilization A. Dry heat
B. Burning to ashes B. Moist heat
C. Exposure to formation C. Steam under pressure
D. Freeze-drying D. Moist heat and steam under pressure
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110. ____ is NOT an example of immuno-diagnostic test. 121. Which of the following has optimum growth
A. PCR temperature greater than 45oC?
B. Serum plate agglutination test A. Mesophilic
C. ELISA B. Psychrophiles
D. FAT C. Psychrophilic
111. Staph-110 used for the isolation of Staphylococcus, D. Thermophiles
is an example of ___________ medium. 122. The enzyme ____________ unzips and unwinds the
A. Selective DNA.
B. Enrichment A. DNA polymerase
C. Differential B. Helicase
D. General purpose C. Primase
112. Production of RNA from DNA is called: D. Reverse transcriptase
A. Translation 123. Helicobacter pylori possesses __________ that helps
B. Transcription to neutralize stomach acid (HCl).
C. RNA splicing A. Coagulase
D. Replication B. Urease
113. Metachromatic granules are found in: C. Hyaluronidase
A. Mycoplasma D. Catalase
B. Tuberculosis 124. Capnophiles bacteria grow at optimum in:
C. Diphtheria A. Small percentage of CO2
D. Tetanus B. Excess CO2
114. Example of anaerobic medium is: C. Excess of O2
A. Nutrient agar D. Absence of O2
B. Selenite F broth 125. First line of body defense is:
C. Robertson cooked-meat medium A. Antibody molecules
D. MacConkey agar B. Antigen molecules
115. All of following are waterborne diseases EXCEPT: C. Phagocytic cells
A. Cholera D. Unbroken skin
B. Scabies 126. ‘Toxic shock syndrome’ is caused by the toxin of:
C. Giardiasis A. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Salmonellosis B. Streptococcus pyogenes
116. Existence of Tuberculosis in population of C. Vibrio cholerae
Faisalabad is an example of: D. Proteus vulgaris
A. Epidemic 127. _________ reagent is used to precipitate DNA.
B. Endemic A. SDS
C. Pandemic B. Isopropanol
D. Sporadic C. Phenol
117. Mycotoxins are produced by: D. EDTA
A. Bacteria 128. The nosocomial infections are acquired from:
B. Viruses A. Plants
C. Fungi B. Hospitals
D. Protozoa C. Animals
118. In polymerase chain reaction, extension step is done D. Community
at temperature: 129. Virus family causing mumps is also responsible for:
A. 50-60 oC A. Hepatitis
B. 95 oC B. Rabies
C. 37 oC C. Measles
D. 72 oC D. Smallpox
119. Basophils have receptors for _________ antibodies. 130. Carcinoma refers to
A. IgG A. Malignant tumors of the connective tissue
B. IgE B. Malignant tumors of the colon
C. IgA C. Malignant tumors of skin or mucus membrane
D. IgD D. Malignant tumors of the lungs
120. Enzymes are chemically: 131. Batch fermentation is also called:
A. Lipids A. Open system
B. Proteins B. Closed system
C. Carbohydrates C. Sub-merger system
D. Lipoproteins D. Continuous system
Page 6 of 49
132. Live bacterial cells can be examined: 143. Formation of nitrate from ammonia is called:
A. In dark field microscope A. Ammonification
B. After Gram staining B. Denitrification
C. After special staining C. Nitrogen fixation
D. Acid-fast staining D. Nitrification
133. IgM type of antibodies has been found to occur in: 144. Main site of action of tetanus toxin:
A. Monomer A. Muscle fibers
B. Dimer B. Neuromuscular junction
C. Trimer C. Postsynaptic terminal of spinal cord
D. Pentamer D. Presynaptic terminal of spinal cord
134. Which sequence is a palindrome? 145. Which of the following is a start codon?
A. 5'-GATTA-3' A. GUG
B. 5'-GACTTT-3' B. UGA
C. 5'-GACCAA-3' C. GAA
D. 5' AGGCCT 3’ D. AUG
135. Bacterial cells are at their metabolic peak during: 146. Acquisition of naked DNA by intact bacteria is:
A. Lag phase A. Transduction
B. Log phase B. Transcription
C. Stationary Phase C. Conjugation
D. Decline Phase D. Transformation
136. The antibiotic acting on cell was is: 147. T4 enzyme is an example of:
A. Chloramphenicol A. Restriction enzyme
B. Rifampin B. Polymerase
C. Polymyxins C. Ligase
D. Penicillin D. Integrase
137. Which of the following is a motile bacterium? 148. _____________ are thin and help in attachment and
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae colonization.
B. Bacillus anthracis A. Fimbriae
C. Proteus vulgaris B. Sex pilli
D. Shigella flexneri C. Capsule
138. Migration of leukocytes in response to specific D. Cell wall
chemicals towards the site of injury or infection: 149. _________ is the killing of all microorganisms both
A. Specific immunity in vegetative and sporing states.
B. Phagocytosis A. Disinfection
C. Inflammation B. Pasteurization
D. Chemotaxis C. Sterilization
139. _____ is a vector to transmit Dengue virus to man. D. Antisepsis
A. Male Culex 150. ______________ technique requires previously
B. Male Aedes diluted samples carpeted over agar plate.
C. Female Aedes A. Streak plate
D. Female Culex B. Spread plate
140. The organisms which grow best in the presence of a C. Pour plate
low concentration of oxygen: D. Stab tube
A. Microaerophilic 151. ______ is Gram positive spherical & chain forming.
B. Anaerobic A. Streptococcus
C. Facultative anaerobic B. Staphylococcus
D. Obligate aerobes C. Bacillus
141. Which one the following blood cells primarily D. Diplococcus
functions as phagocytic cells? 152. Negri bodies are observed in cells infected by:
A. B-lymphocytes A. Cytomegalovirus
B. T-lymphocytes B. Rabies virus
C. Eosinophils C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Neutrophils D. Pox virus
142. Acquired immunity is: 153. Temperature of autoclave at 15 psi will be_____.
A. Natural A. 110oC
B. Artificial B. 115oC
C. Active C. 121oC
D. All of these D. 125oC
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154. ___ is a culture medium having liquid consistency. 165. Which of the following is an example general
A. Broth purpose medium is ________?
B. Agar A. Selenite F broth
C. Soft agar B. Mannitol salt agar
D. All of these C. MacConkey agar
155. Which of the following is an example acid-fast D. Nutrient agar
bacterium? 166. MacConkey agar, it differentiates b/w __________
A. Vibrio fermenting and non-fermenting bacteria.
B. Staphylococcus A. glucose
C. Mycobacterium B. lactose
D. Leptospira C. mannitol
156. _______ is a pigment giving golden color to colonies. D. sucrose
A. Catalase 167. BCG vaccine is used for the prevention of ____.
B. Staphyloxanthin A. Botulism
C. Coagulase B. Tuberculosis
D. Hemolysin C. Cholera
157. Streptolysin O is inactivated by __________. D. Anthrax
A. CO2 168. What is the reservoir for Treponema pallidum?
B. Nitrogen A. Humans
C. Oxygen B. Wild rodents
D. Serum C. Soil
158. Influenza virus genome is _________? D. Domestic Animals
A. dsRNA 169. All protozoan pathogens have a ______ phase?
B. ssRNA A. Cyst
C. dsDNA B. Sexual
D. ssDNA C. Trophozoite
159. All are accessory proteins of HIV EXCEPT? D. latent
A. Vif 170. All are correct for Giardia lamblia EXCEPT?
B. Tat A. It has only trophozoite stage.
C. Vpu B. It is transmitted by the fecal oral route.
D. Vpr C. It can be diagnosed by the string test
160. Trichomoniasis can be diagnosed by ________. D. It is a heart shape protozoan.
A. Demonstration of cysts by fecal examination 171. Cholera toxin is a form of _____.
B. Acidic vaginal pH A. Exotoxin
C. Whiff test B. Endotoxin
D. Demonstration of oocysts by fecal examination C. Neurotoxin
161. All Gram-Negative bacilli have _______? D. Hemolytic toxin
A. Capsule 172. If viral ‘DNA’ integrates in host cell chromosomes,
B. Exotoxin with no progeny production, process is called:
C. Endotoxin A. Lytic cycle
D. DNase B. Lysogenic cycle
162. _____ can cause food INTOXICATION? C. Replicative cycle
A. Staphylococcus aureus D. Translational cycle
B. Streptococcus pyogenes 173. Cell-mediated immune response is mediated by:
C. E. coli A. B-lymphocytes
D. Salmonella B. Endothelial cells
163. Enhancement of size using ocular and objective lens C. T-lymphocytes
is called ________. D. Granulocytes
A. Magnification 174. Passive immunity lasts for the period of:
B. Resolution A. About 10-days
C. Contrast B. 6-9 months
D. All of these C. 9-10 years
164. __________contains substances favoring the growth D. All of the above
of organism being sought. 175. _____ is an endospore forming AEROBIC bacteria.
A. Selective A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Enrichment B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Differential C. Bacillus and Clostridium
D. General purpose D. Staphylococcus aureus
Page 8 of 49
176. Sporulation is a process of ______________. 187. A culture containing a single kind of
A. Reproduction microorganisms is known as ______.
B. Preservation A. Colony culture
C. Replication B. Liquid culture
D. None of these C. Mixed culture
177. Thickest layer of spore envelope is __________. D. Pure culture
A. Core 188. ____ is major Ig present in human serum & can
B. Spore wall provide naturally acquired immunity for new born?
C. Cortex A. IgA
D. Spore coat B. IgG
178. India ink is an example of_________. C. IgE
A. Principle stain D. IgM
B. Basic stain 189. Failure to eliminate self-reactive cells results in___.
C. Counter stain A. Negative selection
D. Acidic stain B. Autoimmunity
179. 100X objective lens is also known as ________. C. Positive Selection
A. Dry lens D. Tolerance
B. High dry lens 190. Active immunity is induced by:
C. Scanning lens A. Injection of γ-globulins
D. Oil immersion lens B. Placental transfer of Abs
180. Rod shaped bacteria are known as________. C. Injection of antibodies
A. Cocci D. Infection
B. Bacilli 191. T-cells are produced from:
C. Vibrio A. Bone marrow
D. Coco-bacilli B. Thymus
181. Mordant used in Gram’s staining is ___________. C. Spleen
A. Acid alcohol D. Thyroid gland
B. Safranin 192. Antibodies are produced from:
C. Gram’s iodine A. T lymphocytes
D. Crystal violet B. Plasma Cells
182. _____________ is an instrument effectively used to C. NK cells
sterilize metals, glassware, powders, oils, and waxes. D. Eosinophils
A. Autoclave 193. Immunological memory is provided by:
B. Hot air oven A. B lymphocytes
C. Water bath B. T lymphocytes
D. Seitz filter C. B cells and T cells
183. Bacteria that can only be grown in the absence of D. Phagocytes
oxygen, are commonly cultivated in _________. 194. In human body “Brucella” resides in the:
A. Deep agar tube A. Reticuloendothelial system
B. Anaerobic jar B. Respiratory tract
C. Both “A” and “B” C. Genital Tract
D. Broth culture D. Gastrointestinal tract
184. Visible growth of bacteria on solid medium is ____. 195. Light chain does not originate from _____ region.
A. colony A. variable
B. turbidity B. diversity
C. sediment C. joining
D. None of these D. constant
185. Immune individuals will not harbor it thus reducing 196. Vaccine used against viral infection is:
occurrence of pathogens is concept of _________. A. Mumps vaccine
A. Innate immunity B. Cholera vaccine
B. Herd immunity C. Sub-cellular vaccine
C. cell mediated immunity D. Typhoid vaccine
D. Autoimmunity 197. ____________ immune cells mainly act against
186. Sugar solution is commonly sterilized by_______. helminth worm?
A. Autoclave A. Lymphocytes
B. Hot air oven B. Eosinophils
C. Filtration C. Basophils
D. X-rays D. Neutrophils

Page 9 of 49
198. Monoclonal antibodies recognize a single: 208. Reproduction in bacteria occurs by:
A. Antigen A. Budding
B. Bacterium B. Bursting
C. Epitope C. Binary Fission
D. B cell D. Fragmentation
199. Which of the following cells do not have MHC class 209. Bacteria eating viruses are known as:
II surface molecules? A. Phagocytes
A. Ig producing plasma cells B. Viricides
B. Dendritic cells C. Prophages
C. Cytotoxic T cells D. Bacteriophages
D. Macrophages 210. Which of the following is Gram-positive bacteria?
200. Small chemical groups on the antigen molecule A. Staphylococcus
that can react with antibody: B. E. coli
A. Epitope C. Salmonella
B. Paratope D. Pseudomonas
C. Isotope 211. In plasmid DNA isolation, ____________ is used to
D. Allotope neutralize the solution, enabling DNA to renature.
201. To be antigen, the chemical molecule (protein) A. NaCl
needs: B. potassium acetate
A. High molecular weight C. acetic acid
B. Chemical complexity D. All of these
C. High MW and chemical complexity 212. In genomic DNA isolation, disruption of
D. Nucleic acid nucleoproteins and degradation of proteins is
202. The immunity acquired by inoculation of living carried out by:
organism of attenuated virulence is: A. SDS
A. Artificial active immunity B. proteinase K
B. Passive immunity C. isopropanol
C. Natural active immunity D. Alcohol
D. Local immunity 213. “Cryptococcus” is transmitted in form of:
203. Fluid extruded from clotted blood is known as ____. A. Endospores
A. Plasma B. Yeast
B. Serum C. Conidia
C. buffy coat D. Spores
D. Lymph 214. Selective media for TB bacilli is:
204. Which PRR recognizes distinct molecular A. NNN media
structures, abundant to many cells and there is ten B. Lowenstein–Jensen (LJ) medium
in humans? C. Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)
A. Nod-like receptors D. MacConkey media
B. RIG-like receptors 215. Widal test is used for:
C. Toll-like receptors A. Typhoid fever
D. PAMP of neutrophils B. Salmonella
205. A signaling molecule from microbes recognized by C. Brucellosis
phagocytes is: D. All of these
A. Complement 216. Cell wall of 'fungi' is made up of:
B. PAMP A. Peptidoglycan
C. Pyrogen B. Murine
D. Lectin C. Chitin
206. Which of the following is NOT produced by D. Cellulose
phagocytes? 217. Ascoli’s test helps to confirm lab diagnosis of _____.
A. Hydroxyl radical A. Tetanus
B. Superoxide anion B. Anthrax
C. Hydrogen peroxide C. Typhoid
D. Bradykinin D. Cholera
207. Acquired / adaptive immune cells include? 218. Transfection is insertion of DNA into ______ cells.
A. Lymphocytes A. bacterial
B. Eosinophils B. eukaryotic
C. Basophils C. Viruses
D. Neutrophils D. Both “A” and “B”
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219. In agarose gel electrophoresis, loading buffer gives 229. TE buffer functions as:
___________ to sample. A. Maintain pH
A. Color B. Block endonucleases
B. Density C. Both “A” and “B”
C. Shade D. Denature proteins
D. Color and density 230. Agarose gel electrophoresis is a widely used method
220. The virulence factor of botulism is a/an_______. that separates molecules based on:
A. Endotoxin A. Electrical charge
B. Enterotoxin B. Size
C. Neurotoxin C. Shape
D. Hemolysin enzyme D. All of these
221. Which of the following is a spirochete? 231. A 25-year-old medical technology student interning
A. Gonococci in a clinical microbiology laboratory is diagnosed
B. Treponema with brucellosis. How could accidental exposure in a
C. Staphylococcus laboratory setting occur?
D. Streptococcus A. Working with Brucella on an open bench
222. Once the Phagosome and lysosome fuse, the B. Direct contact with abraded skin
structure is known as: C. Ingestion
A. Lysophagosome D. All of these
B. Macrophage 232. 0.7% agarose gel provides good resolution for
C. Membrane attack complex _______ DNA, while 2% gel for ________ DNA.
D. Phagolysosome A. Large, small
223. T-lymphocytes mature in which tissue/organ? B. small, large
A. Thyroid C. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’
B. Bone marrow D. None of these
C. Thymus 233. Innate immunity involves all EXCEPT?
D. Tonsils A. Anatomical barriers
224. Place following events of phagocytosis in the order. B. Phagocytosis
1.Chemotaxis 2.Ingestion 3.Digestion 4.Attachment C. Inflammatory mechanisms
A. 1,2,4,3. D. Antibody production
B. 4,1,2,3. 234. You enter a dusty room, feel an itch in your nose,
C. 1,4,2,3. and sneeze. This is an example of the operation of
D. 4,2,3,1. which of the following innate immune mechanism?
225. An enzyme found in our tears, saliva, serum, and A. The low pH of the environment.
mucus that degrades the peptidoglycan of the cell B. The physical barrier produced by hairs.
wall of Gram-positive bacteria is called? C. Phagocytosis by macrophages.
A. Amylase D. Mucus joint with movement of cilia of lining cells.
B. Lysozyme 235. Which of the following is a distinction between the
C. Keratinase innate and adaptive immune systems?
D. Peptidase A. Only one system to produce cytokines.
226. Internalization of the pathogen via endocytosis B. Antigenic specificity in only one system.
encase the pathogen in a membrane vacuole known C. Only one system to recognize virally infected cells.
as a? D. Only one system to mediate cell cytotoxicity.
A. Lipid bilayer 236. Stomach clears out pathogens by?
B. Lysosome A. Secreting HCl
C. Phagosome B. Normal microflora
D. Phagolysosome C. Phagocytosis
227. Which of the following is primarily human D. All of these
pathogenic bacteria? 237. Kupffer cells are macrophages found in_______.
A. S. typhi A. Lung
B. E. coli B. Bone
C. S. aureus C. Kidney
D. Mycobacterium D. Liver
228. An enrichment medium for Salmonella is ________. 238. Temperature rising chemicals are?
A. Alkaline peptone water A. Thermogens
B. MacConkey broth B. Pyrogens
C. Nutrient broth C. Pyogenic
D. Selenite F broth D. All of these

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239. Physical barriers of immune system are: 249. Penicillin is an antibiotic obtained from:
A. Skin and the mucosal membranes. A. A capsular bacterium
B. Skin, body temperature and mucosal membranes. B. A yeast
C. Skin, inflammation and the mucosal membranes. C. A fungus
D. The bones and the mucosal membranes. D. An alga
240. Chemical barriers include: 250. Viruses that infect bacteria are known as ________.
A. Tears, sweat, saliva, stomach acid and feces. A. virons
B. Tears, breast milk, sweat, saliva, stomach acid. B. bacteroids
C. Hair, breast milk, sweat, saliva, stomach acid. C. bacteriophages
D. Tears and urine. D. retrovirurses
241. Interferons protect which of the following? 251. The Kingdom of recyclers is known as _____.
A. Only viral infected cells A. Algae
B. Only bacterial infected cells B. Bacteria
C. Healthy host cells C. Fungi
D. Blood cells D. Embryophata
242. RNA contains: 252. Unicellular yeast cells reproduce by _______.
A. Alanine A. Sporing
B. Thymidine B. Conidiation
C. Uracil C. Budding
D. Arginine D. Both “A” and “B”
243. Time taken for a bacterium to multiple from 1 to 2? 253. Interferons protect healthy cells by production of?
A. Incubation time A. Antibacterial proteins
B. Growth rate B. Antifungal proteins
C. Generation time C. Antiviral proteins
D. Both “B” and “C” D. Antiprotozoal proteins
244. Self-replicating, small circular DNA molecules 254. Branch of Microbiology related with study of fungi:
present in bacterial cell are known: A. Protozoology
A. Plasmids B. Phycology
B. Cosmids C. Mycology
C. Plasmomeros D. Biotechnology
D. Plastids 255. Penicillin acts by inhibiting:
245. Some of the dust particles are not expelled by sneeze A. Cell wall synthesis
and make their way further down the respiratory B. RNA synthesis
tract but not yet into the alveolar space. Here their C. Folate synthesis
elimination is the job of which of the following? D. DNA gyrase
A. Released granular contents of your granulocytes. 256. Schizogony is mode of reproduction in:
B. The low pH of the environment. A. Algae
C. The physical barrier produced by hairs. B. Protozoa
D. Mucus joint with movement of cilia of lining cells C. Fungi
246. Formation of proteins in ribosomes occur through D. Embryophata
process known as: 257. Disease that effects many people at different
A. Central dogma countries is termed as:
B. Transcription A. Sporadic
C. Translation B. Epidemic
D. Both “A” and “C” C. Pandemic
247. Mostly bacteria grow in aerobic conditions, but D. Endemic
some require more CO2 for their growth, these are 258. Some bacteria form dormant structure during
known as: harsh environmental conditions is known as:
A. Halophiles A. Endospore
B. Acidophiles B. Capsule
C. Capnophiles C. Cyst
D. Hyperthermophiles D. Bud
248. Transfer of antibodies from mother to her baby 259. Many clostridial diseases require a/an _________
through breast milk is example of: environment for their development.
A. Active natural acquired immunity A. living tissue
B. Passive artificial acquired immunity B. anaerobic
C. Passive natural acquired immunity C. aerobic
D. Active artificial acquired immunity D. low-pH
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260. Bacterial cells multiply rapidly during: 271. Malaria is caused by pathogen known as ______.
A. Lag phase A. Plasmodium
B. Log phase B. Paramecium
C. Death phase C. Pseudomonas
D. Stationary phase D. Pasteurella
261. A group of fungal hyphae are called ______. 272. First phase of a bacterial growth curve is
A. Filtering body A. Log phase
B. Mycelia B. Lag phase
C. Conidia C. γ phase
D. Yeast D. Exponential
262. Most human pathogenic bacteria are: 273. Spirochete bacteria move with the help of:
A. Psychrophiles A. Pseudopodia
B. Psychrotrophes B. Axial filament
C. Thermophiles C. Endoflagella
D. Mesophiles D. Both “B” and “C”
263. DNA contains: 274. Viruses are:
A. Alanine A. Living
B. Thymine B. Non-Living
C. Uracil C. Only living inside cells
D. Arginine D. Capsular
264. Type of immunity through vaccination is: 275. All of the following prokaryotes are bounded by a
A. Active natural acquired immunity cell wall EXCEPT:
B. Passive artificial acquired immunity A. Spirochetes
C. Passive natural acquired immunity B. Actinomycetes
D. Active artificial acquired immunity C. Mycoplasma
265. Shrinkage of the cell occur in ______ environment. D. Streptococcus
A. Hypotonic 276. Tubercles are granulomas with a central core
B. Hypertonic containing TB bacilli and enlarged ______.
C. Isotonic A. Neutrophils
D. None of these B. Lymphocytes
266. Bacterium is ________ type of organism. C. Eosinophils
A. Prokaryotic D. Macrophages
B. Eukaryotic 277. Conversion of DNA to RNA is:
C. Acellular A. Transcription
D. May be prokaryotic or eukaryotic B. Transduction
267. Botulin toxin prevents release of what chemical C. Translation
that initiates the signal for muscle contraction? D. Replication
A. Serotonin 278. The bases Adenine and Thymine are paired with:
B. Acetylcholine A. Double hydrogen bonds
C. Dopamine B. Single hydrogen bonds
D. Norepinephrine C. Triple hydrogen bonds
268. An infection peculiar to swine causes _______ when D. Both “B” and “C”
transmitted to humans. 279. Fungi reproduce by:
A. Anthrax A. Sexual Spores
B. Diphtheria B. Fragmentation
C. Tuberculosis C. Asexual spores
D. Erysipeloid D. All of these
269. ____ DOES NOT predispose to gas gangrene? 280. For TB control, vaccine is based on attenuated
A. Surgical incisions “Bacille Calmette-Guérin” (BCG) strain of _______.
B. Compound fractures A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Puncture wounds B. Mycobacterium avium complex
D. Dislocated shoulder C. Mycobacterium bovis
270. In general, humans are rather prone to ____ with D. Mycobacterium paratuberculosis
tubercle bacillus but are resistant to ____? 281. Antibiotics are the drugs which commonly kill?
A. disease, infection A. Bacteria
B. infection, disease B. Virus
C. TB, Leprosy C. Algae
D. Leprosy, TB D. Protozoa
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282. Genital herpes is caused by? 293. Virulence of tubercle bacillus is due to _______ that
A. HSV-1 avoid destruction by lysosomes/macrophages.
B. HSV-2 A. Exotoxin
C. HSV-3 B. Cord factor
D. HSV-4 C. Enterotoxin
283. Blood agar is an example of: D. Endotoxin
A. Enrichment media 294. The form of leprosy associated with severe
B. Selective media disfigurement of the face is:
C. Enriched media A. Tuberculoid
D. General purpose media B. Lepromatous
284. A mutation that produces termination codon is: C. Borderline
A. Mis-sense mutation D. Papular
B. Reverse mutation 295. Diphtheria is caused by:
C. Non-sense mutation A. Staphylococcus
D. Frame shift mutation B. Corynebacterium
285. Gas gangrene bacillus is: C. Bacillus
A. Facultative anaerobe D. Clostridium
B. Obligate aerobe 296. ______ reside in sebaceous glands in human skin?
C. Facultative aerobe A. Bacillus
D. Obligate anaerobe B. Propionibacterium
286. If vector ONLY transmits pathogen is called: C. Erysipelothrix
A. Biological vector D. Corynebacterium
B. Biological reservoir 297. The largest virus is:
C. Biological carrier A. Parvo virus
D. Mechanical vector B. Picorna virus
287. What genus of organisms is important as C. Pox virus
decomposers and involve in bioremediation? D. HIV
A. Pseudomonas 298. Endospores can be stained with:
B. Brucella A. Malachite green
C. Francisella B. Safranin
D. Bordetella C. Methylene blue
288. Brucellosis is spread from human-to-human contact D. Crystal Violet
with ALL BUT which of the following? 299. All of the following are DNA viruses EXCEPT:
A. Blood A. Parvo virus
B. Urine B. Pox virus
C. Placenta C. Polio virus
D. Cerebrospinal fluid D. Hepatitis B Virus
289. What enzyme possessed by Helicobacter pylori helps 300. Comparing the two, Actinomyces ______ sulfur
to neutralize stomach acid? granules and Nocardia is _______.
A. Coagulase A. Form; Acid-fast
B. Urease B. Form; Not acid-fast
C. Hyaluronidase C. Does not form; Acid-fast
D. DNase D. Does not form; Not acid-fast
290. The technique used to kill all microorganisms is: 301. _____fungi that can exist as a mold as well as yeast.
A. Disinfection A. Hyphae
B. Sterilization B. Tinea pedis
C. Antisepsis C. Dimorphic
D. Pasteurization D. Spore forming
291. Glassware are sterilized by: 302. The viruses that attack bacteria are:
A. Hot air oven A. Bacteriophages
B. Autoclave B. Bacterial viruses
C. Incineration C. Bacterial pathogens
D. Boiling D. Virions
292. ________ CAN NOT be found in the lymph node? 303. Fungal hyphae may be:
A. Lymphoid follicle A. Septate
B. B cells B. Non-septate
C. Red pulp C. Branched
D. T cells D. All of these
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304. Where are target cells of diphtherotoxin located? 315. How are most cases of listeriosis transmitted?
A. The skin A. Insect vectors
B. The skeletal muscles B. Respiratory secretions
C. The lungs C. Transplacental
D. The heart and nervous system D. Contaminated food
305. Fusion of nuclei in fungi is: 316. Which infectious agent is an obligate parasite?
A. Karyogamy A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Progamy B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Microgamy C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Pregamy D. Clostridium difficile
306. Which of the following is a purine? 317. Which infection can be considered as zoonosis?
A. Adenine A. Anthrax
B. Thymine B. Gas gangrene
C. Uracil C. Diphtheria
D. Cytosin D. leprosy
307. Substitutions that prematurely stops synthesis of 318. Bacterial cells divide by:
protein, by generating stop codon, called as: A. Budding
A. Missense mutation B. Binary Fission
B. Nonsense mutation C. Spores
C. Frameshift mutation D. Sexual reproduction
D. Alternation 319. A classic symptom of pertussis is:
308. What type of vaccine is the anthrax vaccine? A. Diarrhea
A. Attenuated bacteria B. Paroxysmal coughing
B. Toxoid C. Convulsions
C. Killed whole bacterial cells D. Headache
D. Recombinant 320. Complications of typhoid fever are:
309. Tuberculosis is spread by: A. Neurological damage
A. Contaminated fomites B. Intestinal perforation
B. Food C. Liver abscesses
C. Respiratory droplets D. Both “B” and “C”
D. Vectors 321. How are Leptospira species transmitted from their
310. What causes the major symptoms of tetanus? animal reservoirs to humans?
A. Production of tetanospasmin A. Animal bites
B. Multiplication of organisms at the site of infection B. Arthropod vectors
C. Production of botulin toxin C. Contact with urine from an infected animal
D. Superinfection due to antibiotic therapy D. Inhalation
311. Clostridium difficile is associated with: 322. Coliforms are used as indicator organisms of
A. Myonecrosis sewage pollution because ________.
B. Food poisoning A. They are pathogens
C. Antibiotic-induced colitis B. They ferment lactose
D. Gas gangrene C. They are abundant in human intestines
312. Which of the following can swarm on a plate, D. All of the above
making it difficult to distinguish colonies? 323. A patient with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
A. E. coli within 5 hours after eating most likely has:
B. Shigella dysenteriae A. Shigellosis
C. Salmonella typhi B. E. coli gastroenteritis
D. Proteus vulgaris C. Salmonellosis
313. Only one of the followings is characteristic of B-cell D. Intoxication
but not T-cells: 324. The bubo of bubonic plague is a/an:
A. Class I MHC A. Ulcer where the flea bite occurred
B. CD3 B. Granuloma in the skin
C. Polyclonal activation by concanavalin A C. Enlarged lymph node
D. Surface immunoglobulin D. Infected sebaceous gland
314. Robert Koch developed his postulates using _____. 325. Escherichia coli displays which antigens?
A. Bacillus cereus A. Capsular
B. Clostridium tetani B. Flagellar
C. Bacillus anthracis C. Somatic
D. Staphylococcus aureus D. All of these

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326. Cardinal manifestation of human brucellosis is: 337. Primary virulence factor for E. coli is ________.
A. Vomiting and diarrhea A. Inflammatory response
B. A pseudo-membrane in the throat B. cAMP inducing toxin
C. A fluctuating pattern of fever C. Toxin disrupts protein synthesis
D. Peeling of the skin on the palms and soles D. Superantigen
327. Which is not a characteristic of coliform group? 338. Sweat glands produces enzymes like lysozymes,
A. Non-glucose fermenting which is more effective against _________.
B. Lactose fermenting A. Gram Negative Cell Wall
C. Oxidase negative B. Gram Positive Cell Wall
D. Gram negative rods C. Viruses
328. Which one is NOT discovered by Robert Koch? D. Parasites
A. Bacillus anthracis 339. Mycoplasmas attack the _____ of host cells.
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis A. Nucleus
C. Salmonella typhi B. Ribosomes
D. Vibrio cholerae C. Mitochondria
329. What stage of syphilis has disseminating rash, D. Cell membranes
alopecia, lymphadenopathy, & flulike symptoms? 340. Rickettsia and chlamydia are similar in being:
A. Primary syphilis A. Free of a cell wall
B. Secondary syphilis B. The cause of eye infections
C. Tertiary syphilis C. Carried by arthropod vectors
D. Congenital syphilis D. Obligate intracellular bacteria
330. Which one would be unsusceptible to penicillin? 341. What stage(s) of Chlamydia is/are infectious?
A. Leptospira A. Reticulate body
B. Mycoplasma B. Vegetative cell
C. Chlamydia C. Elementary body
D. Rickettsia D. Both “A” and “B”
331. Lyme disease is caused by _____ & spread by _____. 342. Endotoxin is responsible for symptoms caused by
A. Borrelia recurrentis, lice which of the following organisms?
B. Borrelia hermsii, ticks A. Neisseria meningitidis
C. Borrelia burgdorferi, chiggers B. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Borrelia burgdorferi, ticks C. Clostridium. tetani
332. Which of following cells do not have MHC II D. Bacillus anthracis
molecules? 343. Which of the following blood cells function
A. Antibody producing B cells primarily as phagocytes in parasitic infections?
B. Cytotoxic T cells A. Lymphocytes
C. Dendritic cells B. Eosinophils
D. Macrophages C. Basophils
333. Indole test indicates the cleavage of ________. D. Neutrophils
A. Lactose 344. What is characteristic of primary syphilis?
B. Tryptophan A. Painful chancre
C. Glucose B. Painless chancre
D. Tyrosine C. Several painful ulcers in genital region
334. What is the most common human disease? D. Several painless ulcers in genital region
A. Walking pneumonia 345. __________ can recognize MHC I molecules.
B. Strep throat A. B-lymphocyte
C. Tuberculosis B. CD4 + lymphocyte
D. Dental caries C. CD8 + T lymphocytes
335. Which of following is related with Ureaplasma? D. Monocytes
A. Genitourinary tract infection 346. APCs can be all but which of the following?
B. Atypical pneumonia A. B-cells
C. Tracheobronchitis B. Dendritic cells
D. Influenza-like illness C. Macrophages
336. 'Penicillin' is a drug, destroying cells, if they are in a D. T-helper cells
growing stage, so penicillin is known to be a: 347. Light chains and heavy chains are joined by:
A. Bacteriocins A. Covalent bond
B. Bactericidal B. Hydrogen bond
C. Bacteriostatic C. di-sulphide bond
D. Bacteria inhibiting D. ionic bond

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348. Which one of the following is NOT a structural 358. The initial complement component that is bound by
chain in class I MHC? complement-fixing antibodies is:
A. Alpha-1 A. C1q
B. Alpha-2 B. C1s
C. Beta-1 C. C3b
D. Beta-2 D. C5a
349. Complement component C3 can be cleaved by: 359. The _____ immune system uses ____ as well as
A. C3b antigen recognition molecules and the ______
B. C3bBb immune system uses ______ as well as molecules
C. Factor B (e.g., interferons).
D. Factor D A. Adaptive; Phagocytes; Innate; Lymphocytes
350. At what age does thymus reach its maximal size? B. Adaptive; Lymphocytes; Innate; Phagocytes
A. During the first year of life C. Innate; Phagocytes; Adaptive; Lymphocytes
B. Teenage years (puberty) D. Innate; Lymphocytes; Adaptive; Phagocytes
C. Between 40 and 50 years of age 360. Which of the following immune cells uses antibodies
D. After 70 years of age as membrane bound receptors?
351. Which of following mediates an initial response to A. T-helper cell
viral infections by the innate immune system? B. Cytotoxic T-cell
A. Complement components C. B-lymphocyte
B. T and B lymphocytes D. Macrophage
C. Cytokines 361. Which of the complement pathway among various
D. Interferons pathways will activate first?
352. Which one is a messenger that mediates connection A. Classical pathway
between the innate and adaptive immune systems? B. Alternate pathway
A. Complement components C. Lectin pathway
B. T and B lymphocytes D. All act simultaneously
C. Cytokines 362. Which one of the following is NOT usually included
D. Interferons in physical barriers?
353. _______ are resident macrophages present in CNS. A. Sweat glands
A. Kupffer cells B. Salivary glands
B. Alveolar cells C. Meibomian glands
C. Microglial cells D. Lacrimal glands
D. Langerhans 363. Which of the following is NOT lymphoid tissue?
354. If you were a neutrophil recruited to an anaerobic A. Thyroid gland
site to kill such a bacterium, which of the following B. Spleen
substances would you most likely use? C. Lymph node
A. IL-12 D. GALT
B. Nitric oxide 364. Toll-like receptors are proteins on ____________.
C. Cathelicidin A. skin cells that provide barriers to infection
D. Respiratory burst oxidase B. viruses that stimulate immune reactions
355. Which of the following is a “pattern recognition C. phagocytes that recognize foreign molecules
receptor”? D. lymphocytes that damage parasitic worms
A. BCR 365. ___________is NOT produced by phagocytes?
B. Interleukin-1 receptor A. hydroxyl radical
C. Mannose receptor B. superoxide anion
D. Fc receptor C. hydrogen peroxide
356. A molecule that reacts with specific antibody but is D. bradykinin
not immunogenic by itself is called: 366. _______ increases chemotaxis, phagocytosis & blood
A. Carrier coagulation and serves as endogenous pyrogen.
B. Antigen A. Interferon gamma
C. Hapten B. Histamine
D. Immunogen C. Prostaglandin
357. What type of vaccine is used to protect vulnerable D. Tumor Necrosis Factor
individuals from influenza? A. Major Ig present in the human serum is
A. It is an example of a subunit vaccine A. IgG
B. It is an example of a live attenuated vaccine B. IgA
C. It is an example of passive immunization C. IgE
D. It is an example of a recombinant vaccine D. IgM

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367. _________________ is an immune regulator of 377. MHC class I is a cell surface molecule present on:
macrophage, B & T cells. A. B cells
A. Interferon Alpha B. all nucleated cells
B. Interferon Beta C. APCs
C. Interferon Gamma D. T cells
D. All of these 378. MHC class II is a cell surface molecule present on:
368. T-cell antigen receptors are distinguished from A. B cells
antibodies by which of the following? B. all nucleated cells
A. TCRs are glycosylated C. APCs
B. TCRs cannot interact with free antigen D. T cells
C. T-Cell receptors bind various cytokines 379. Humoral immunity involves all the following
D. T-Cell receptors bind complement to lyse cells EXCEPT:
369. Which is LEAST likely to be involved in cell- A. Tc cells
mediated immunity? B. B cells
A. Macrophage C. Antibodies
B. Eosinophils D. Plasma cells
C. Antibodies 380. _______ is artificial passive acquired immunity.
D. T-lymphocytes A. γ-globulin injection
370. Which of the following can provide naturally B. Inactivated vaccine
acquired passive immunity for the newborn? C. Ingestion of colostrum
A. IgA D. Having infection
B. IgG 381. Antibodies
C. IgE A. are carbohydrates
D. IgM B. are made from α & β chains
371. The major molecules responsible for rejection of C. contain no CHOs
transplant is: D. contain heavy & light chains
A. Cytokine 382. B-lymphocytes are involved in
B. Interferon A. Humoral immunity
C. MHC molecule B. Cell-mediated immunity
D. Antibodies C. Active immunity
372. Self-renew and ability to differentiate into diverse D. Passive immunity
cell types are two capacities of? 383. Hybridoma technique is used for:
A. Pluripotent stem cell A. Monoclonal antibodies
B. Adult stem cell B. Polyclonal antibodies
C. Immature blood cells C. Both “A” and “B”
D. None of these D. None of these
373. Which of the following pathogen can counter 384. Example for cell-mediated immunity is/are:
stomach pH and produce infection in stomach? A. Tuberculin type
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Contact dermatitis
B. Campylobacter jejuni C. Granulomatous
C. Helicobacter pylori D. All of these
D. Salmonella typhi 385. In ______________ repair, first enzyme complex
374. Natural infection will produce__________ acquired removes incorrect bases and second enzyme places
immunity. with correct bases.
A. Natural passive A. Light repair
B. Artificial active B. Back mutation
C. Natural active C. Excision repair
D. Artificial passive D. All of these
375. Interferon is composed of: 386. Antitoxin is used for _____ immunization.
A. Lipids A. Active
B. Lipoprotein B. Passive
C. Glycoprotein C. Both “A” and “B”
D. Nucleic acid D. None of these
376. Delayed type of hypersensitivity is seen in: 387. The cell-mediated immune response is produced by:
A. Penicillin allergy A. B lymphocytes
B. Contact dermatitis B. T lymphocytes
C. Arthus reaction C. B & T lymphocytes
D. Anaphylaxis D. Endothelial cells

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388. Which of the following DOES NOT kill endospores? 399. All of the following can be part of innate immune
A. Autoclaving responses EXCEPT:
B. Incineration A. B-cells
C. Hot-air sterilization B. Alternative pathway of complement system
D. Pasteurization C. Natural killer cells
389. Virus mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell D. Macrophages
to another is known as: 400. The cellular immune response is mediated by:
A. Transduction A. B cells
B. Transformation B. T cell
C. Conjugation C. B & T cells
D. Integration D. Endothelial cells
390. Acquirement and expression genetic material by 401. To influence microbes, mutation must be:
eukaryotic cells from the environment is known as: A. Inheritable
A. Transformation B. Permanent
B. DNA ligase C. Beneficial
C. Transfection D. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’
D. Transduction 402. Which of following features is NOT true for
391. Genes of a pathogen is inserted into a live carrier plasmid?
non-pathogen; recombinant expresses foreign genes: A. It is a circular piece of DNA.
A. Subunit vaccine B. It is required for normal cell function.
B. Killed vaccine C. It is found in bacteria.
C. Trojan horse vaccine D. It can be transferred from cell to cell.
D. Acellular vaccine 403. What is the smallest unit of heredity?
392. Class II MHC proteins are: A. Chromosome
A. Recognized by the CD8 protein B. Gene
B. Used to mark a cell for killing by cytotoxic T-cells C. Codon
C. Used to participate in helper function D. Nucleotide
D. Not able to carry an antigen fragment 404. _____ is ‘general feeling of illness and discomfort’.
393. Active immunity can be induced by: A. Cystitis
A. Toxoids B. Malaise
B. Subclinical infection C. Arthritis
C. Both “A” and “B” D. Lymphopenia
D. Antitoxin 405. Point mutation involves
394. ________is the least abundant Igs in normal adult. A. Deletion
A. IgA B. Insertion
B. IgM C. Duplication
C. IgD D. Change in single base pair
D. IgG. 406. ________ does not have any normal microbiota.
395. Which of following is most resistant to antiseptics? A. Upper respiratory tract
A. Spore B. Ovary
B. Prion C. External genitalia
C. Cyst D. Skin
D. Fungus 407. Salt and sugar preserve food because they:
396. Which of the following is enrichment media? A. Make them acid
A. Selenite F broth B. Produce a hypotonic environment
B. Chocolate media C. Produce a hypertonic environment
C. Egg media D. Deplete nutrients
D. Meat extract media 408. An infant with neonatal meningitis has a positive
397. Lyophilization is: CAMP test, the causative agent is:
A. Holding at 72° C for 15 seconds A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Competitive inhibition B. E. coli
C. Freeze-drying C. Streptococcus agalactiae
D. Sterility testing D. Haemophilus
398. Gene mutation occurs at the time of: 409. ___ two hallmarks of the adaptive immune system?
A. DNA repair A. Immediate and Broad
B. DNA replication B. Innate and Short
C. Translation C. Specificity and Memory
D. RNA transcription D. Non-specific and Fast
Page 19 of 49
410. Which of the following mutations would likely to 421. Those mutations that arise in the absence of known
cause the greatest impact? mutagen are known:
A. Silent A. Induced mutations
B. Missense B. Fused mutations
C. Nonsense C. Spontaneous mutations
D. Inversion D. None of the above
411. X-rays causes mutation by: 422. DNA is copied during a process called:
A. Deletion A. Transformation
B. Transition B. Replication
C. Transversion C. Translation
D. Base substitution D. Transcription
412. All Gram-Negative bacilli have _______? 423. An example/examples of a nonspecific chemical
A. Capsule barrier to infection is/are:
B. Exotoxin A. Unbroken skin
C. Coagulase B. Cilia in respiratory tract
D. Endotoxin C. Lysozyme in saliva
413. ______enzyme of HIV-1 converts RNA to DNA. D. All of these
A. Protease 424. _____is nonspecific host defense related to trachea?
B. Integrase A. Lacrimation
C. Reverse transcriptase B. Ciliary Lining
D. RNase C. Desquamation
414. Leptospira is transmitted (animal to human) by? D. Lactic acid
A. Animal scratch 425. Autoclaving is done in:
B. Contact with urine from infected animal A. Dry air at 121oC and 15 lbs pressure
C. Animal bite B. Steam at 100oC for 30 minutes
D. Arthropod vector C. Steam at 121oC for 30 minutes
415. Which causes food INTOXICATION? D. Dry air at 160 oC for 30 minutes
A. Clostridium tetani 426. Culture media are sterilized by:
B. Staphylococcus aureus A. Autoclaving
C. Streptococcus pyogenes B. β-radiation
D. Salmonella C. Hot air oven
416. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever (CCHF) is D. Tyndallization
transmitted by a vector i.e. __________. 427. pH of Sabouraud dextrose agar is adjusted to:
A. Mosquitoes A. 1-2
B. Ticks B. 4-6
C. Fleas C. 6-8
D. Sand-fly D. 8-10
417. All are correct for Giardia lamblia EXCEPT? 428. Monocytes are ______________ leukocytes that
A. It is transmitted by the fecal oral route. develop into ___________?
B. It has only trophozoite stage. A. granular, phagocytes
C. It can be diagnosed by the string test B. agranular, mast cells
D. It can divide by binary fission. C. agranular, macrophages
418. All are correct for anthrax bacilli EXCEPT? D. granular, T cells
A. They are spore forming. 429. Which of the following is a sterilizing agent?
B. They are non-fastidious. A. Dry heat
C. They produce endotoxin. B. Ether
D. They have polypeptide capsule. C. Ethanol
419. Culture media are commonly sterilized by: D. Chlorohexidine
A. Autoclaving 430. _____________ is included in GALT.
B. β-radiation A. Thymus
C. Hot air oven B. Tonsils
D. Tyndallization C. Peyer’s patches
420. All of the following are functions of IgG EXCEPT: D. Breast lymph nodes
A. Opsonize bacteria 431. _________ is the MOST resistant to antiseptics?
B. Be secreted into mucus A. Spore
C. Activate complement B. Prion
D. Cross the placenta C. Cyst
D. Fungus

Page 20 of 49
432. Which of the following inflammatory signs specifies 442. Which of the following microorganism is used as
pain? indicator in autoclave?
A. Tumor A. Clostridium tetani
B. Calor B. Bacillus stereothermophilus
C. Dolor C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Rubor D. Clostridium botulinum
433. An example of an exogenous pyrogen is ________. 443. MacConkey agar is an example of:
A. Interleukin-1 A. Enrichment medium
B. Complement B. Selective medium
C. Interferon C. Differential medium
D. Endotoxin D. Both “B” and “C”
434. ______________ is an example of an inflammatory 444. Virus mediated transfer of DNA from one cell to
mediator that stimulates vasodilation. another is known as:
A. Collagen A. Transfection
B. Histamine B. Transduction
C. Complement C5a C. Transformation
D. Interferon D. Transcription
435. ______ is an example of an inflammatory mediator 445. Bacterial may acquire characteristics by all of the
that stimulates chemotaxis. following EXCEPT:
A. Tumor necrosis factor A. Taking up soluble DNA from the environment
B. Serotonin B. Through bacteriophages
C. Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor C. Through conjugation
D. Interleukin-2 D. Incorporating part of host DNA
436. _____interferon, produced by T lymphocytes, 446. The __________ is responsible for antibiotic
activates cells called _____and is involved in resistance is bacteria due to slime production.
destroying viruses. A. Co-aggregation
A. Beta, lymphocytes B. Biofilm formation
B. Gamma, fibroblasts C. Mutation evolving in altered target site for
C. Alpha, natural killer cells antibiotic
D. Beta, fibroblasts D. Mutation evolving a target bypass mechanism
437. Which of the following is the end-product of the 447. Which one statement is correct regarding functions
complement system? of plasmid?
A. Properdin A. Involved in multidrug resistance transfer
B. Cascade reaction B. Imparts capsule formation
C. Membrane attack complex C. Imparts pilli formation
D. Complement factor C9 D. All of these
438. TNF is NOT involved in the which process? 448. Phage typing is useful as an epidemiological tool in
A. Chemotaxis of phagocytes all, EXCEPT:
B. Fever A. Salmonella
C. The inflammatory response B. Staphylococcus aureus
D. The classic complement pathway C. Vibrio cholerae
439. Which of the following statement is true? D. Shigella dysenteriae
A. Solid media are enrichment media 449. The segment of DNA between chromosomal and
B. Nutrient broth is basal media extrachromosomal DNA molecules within cells are:
C. Agar adds nutrient to media A. Cosmids
D. Chocolate agar is selective media B. Plasmids
440. Choose the correct ones for the decreasing order of C. Transposons
resistance to sterilization: D. Episomes
A. Prions, bacterial spores, bacteria 450. True about bacteriophage is:
B. Bacterial spores, bacteria, Prions A. Can transmit toxin to bacteria
C. Bacteria, Prions, Bacterial spores B. Bacterial which transmits DNA to another bacteria
D. Prions, bacteria, bacterial spores C. Causes transformation of bacteria
441. A signaling molecule from microbes recognized by D. Is a virus which invades bacteria
phagocytes is: 451. Drug resistance transfer by bacteriophage involves:
A. Pyrogen A. Transformation
B. Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns B. Conjugation
C. Complement C. Convocation
D. Lectin D. Transduction

Page 21 of 49
452. S. aureus differs from S. epidermidis by: 462. A person from village is complaining of
A. Is coagulase positive development of pustules. Extract from pus has
B. Forms white colonies shown Gram-positive cocci, showing hemolysis,
C. A common cause of UTI catalase negative, identified as a group of
D. Causes endocarditis of prosthetic valve streptococci. Following test is used:
453. A cook prepared sandwiches for 10 people going A. Bacitracin sensitivity
for picnic. Eight out of them develop sever B. Novobiocin sensitivity
gastroenteritis within 4-6 hrs of consumption of the C. Optochin sensitivity
sandwiches. It is likely that on study the cook is D. Hemolysis test
found to be carrier of: 463. Hot cold phenomenon is seen due to which toxin of
A. Salmonella typhi staphylococci:
B. Entamoeba histolytica A. Alpha hemolysin
C. Vibrio cholerae B. Beta hemolysin
D. Staphylococcus aureus C. Gamma hemolysin
454. Methicillin resistance in S. aureus is due to: D. Theta hemolysin
A. β-lactamase 464. Staphylococcus differs from Streptococcus by:
B. MECA gene A. Coagulase test
C. AMPC gene B. Phosphatase test
D. Porin develop C. Catalase test
455. Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis is commonly D. Gram-negative
caused by: 465. Which of the following statements is correct
A. S. aureus regarding non-coagulase Staphylococci?
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae A. They are non-pathogenic
C. E. coli B. They commonly infect indwelling prosthesis
D. Pneumococcus C. They may cause scarlet fever
456. Staphylococcus aureus remains in the skin for D. They are separated by Gram’s staining
longer period because of: 466. Catalase positive, β-hemolytic Staphylococci is:
A. Catalase A. S. aureus
B. Coagulase B. S. epidermidis
C. DNAase C. S. saprophyticus
D. Hyaluronidase D. Pneumococci
457. Eight months after prosthetic valve replacement, 467. An infant with neonatal meningitis has a positive
which of the following pathogen can cause infective CAMP test, the causative agent is:
endocarditis? A. Staphylococcus aureus
A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. E. coli
C. Streptococcus viridans D. Hemophilus influenzae
D. All of these 468. Most common organism responsible for post-
458. Staphylococcus aureus secretes all, EXCEPT: splenectomy infections include:
A. Lipase A. Streptococcus
B. Cellulose B. Staphylococcus
C. Coagulase C. Pseudomonas
D. Lecithinase D. Influenza Virus
459. Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done using: 469. In a case of neonatal meningitis, pathogen was
A. M protein found to have properties of β-hemolysis, bacitracin
B. Group C carbohydrate antigen resistance, CAMP positive. Which of following is
C. Group C peptidoglycan cell wall most likely causative agent?
D. M antigen A. Streptococcus pyogenes
460. Streptococci causing dental caries: B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
A. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Streptococcus mutans D. Enterococcus faecalis
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae 470. A β-hemolytic bacterial isolate is resistant to
D. Streptococcus bovis vancomycin, shows growth in 6.5 % NaCl, is non-
461. Quelling phenomenon is seen in: bile sensitive. It is likely to be:
A. Pneumococcus A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Streptococcus B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Staphylococcus C. Streptococcus bovis
D. Hemophilus D. Enterococcus faecalis

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471. Sputum specimen of a 70 years old male culture 481. CSF in meningococcal meningitis shows:
showed α-hemolytic colonies on blood agar. Further A. Gram-positive diplococci, in pus cells
processing of this organism is most likely to yield: B. Gram-negative diplococci, in pus cells
A. Staphylococcus aureus C. Gram-negative bacilli, in pus cells
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Gram-positive bacilli, in pus cells
C. Legionella 482. Regarding gas gangrene one of the following is
D. Streptococcus pyogenes correct:
472. Most common organism causing sore throat: A. It is due to Clostridium botulinum infection.
A. Staphylococcus B. Clostridia are Gram-negative anaerobes
B. Hemophilus C. Clinical features are due to protein endotoxin
C. Bacillus D. Gas is invariable present in muscle compartments
D. Streptococcus 483. Which of the following cause/s of Gas gangrene?
473. Quellung reaction is due to: A. Clostridium novyi
A. Mitochondrial swelling B. Clostridium septicum
B. Capsular swelling C. Clostridium perfringens
C. RBC swelling D. All of the above
D. Cell wall swelling 484. Necrotizing gastrointestinal enteritis is caused by?
474. Griffith demonstrated biotransformation with: A. Clostridium difficile
A. Enterococcus B. Clostridium perfringens
B. Gonococcus C. Clostridium tetani
C. Pneumococcus D. Clostridium botulinum
D. Staphylococcus 485. Nagler’s reaction is shown by:
475. A person has received complete immunization A. Clostridium septicum
against tetanus 10years ago. Now he presents with a B. Clostridium botulinum
clean wound without any lacerations from an injury C. Clostridium perfringens
sustained 2.5 hours ago. He should now be given: D. Clostridium tetani
A. Full course of tetanus toxoid 486. A 10-year-old boy following a road traffic accident
B. Single dose of tetanus toxoid presents to the causality with contaminated wound
C. Human tetanus globulin over the left leg. He has received his complete
D. Human tetanus globulin and single dose of toxoid primary immunization before preschool age and
476. All of the following bacteria are most often received a booster of DT at school entry age. All of
associated with acute neonatal meningitis EXCEPT: the following can be done EXCEPT:
A. Escherichia coli A. Injection of tetanus toxoid
B. Streptococcus agalactiae B. Broad spectrum antibiotics
C. Neisseria meningitidis C. Wound debridement and cleaning
D. Listeria monocytogenes D. Injection of human antiserum
477. Which deficiency would cause Neisseria infection? 487. What types of viruses contain the enzyme lysozyme
A. C9 to aid in their infection?
B. C5 A. Bacteriophage
C. C7 B. Animal viruses
D. All of the above C. Plant viruses
478. Differentiation of Neisseria gonorrheae and D. Human viruses
Neisseria meningitidis is by: 488. All are correct regarding Cl. tetani, EXCEPT:
A. Glucose fermentation A. Soil & intestine of human / animals are reservoirs
B. VP reaction B. Predominantly seen in dry and winter season
C. Indole test C. Transmission through contaminated wounds
D. Maltose fermentation D. No heard immunity is seen
479. ______ is catalase positive but coagulase negative. 489. Viruses that can remain latent (usually in neurons)
A. Streptococcus pyogenes for many years are most likely:
B. Staphylococcus aureus A. Togaviruses
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis B. Herpesviruses
D. Enterococci C. Enteroviruses
480. A pus cultured on chocolate agar shows Gram- D. Rhinoviruses
negative cocci, most likely organisms is: 490. The most effective way of preventing tetanus is:
A. Hemophilus A. Surgical debridement and toilet
B. Streptococcus B. hyperbaric oxygen
C. Staphylococcus C. Antibiotics
D. Neisseria D. Tetanus toxoid

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491. An 18-year-old male presented with acute onset 501. A boy with skin ulcer on leg, culture revealed β-
descending paralysis of 3 days duration. There is hemolysis. School physician said that similar
also a history of blurring of vision for the same hemolysis was seen in organism from sore throat,
duration. Both pupils are non-reactive. The most what is the similarity between both pathogens?
probable diagnosis is: A. Protein-A is same for both
A. Poliomyelitis B. C-carbohydrate antigen is different
B. Botulism C. C-carbohydrate antigen is the same
C. Diphtheria D. Strain causing both are same
D. Porphyria 502. A type of cell culture that can reproduce for an
492. A patient of acute lymphocytic leukemia with fever extended number of generations and is used to
and neutropenia develops diarrhea after amoxicillin support viral replication is a:
therapy, which of the following organism is most A. Primary cell culture
likely to be the causative agent? B. Continuous cell line
A. Salmonella typhi C. Secondary cell culture
B. Clostridium perfringens D. Diploid fibroblast cell
C. Clostridium difficile 503. Bacteriophages are readily counted by process of:
D. Shigella flexneri A. Immunoassays
493. Swarming growth on culture is characteristic of B. ELISA
which Gram-negative organism: C. Tissue culture
A. Clostridium tetani D. Plaque assays
B. Clostridium botulinum 504. Non-motile clostridium is:
C. Bacillus cereus A. Clostridium perfringens
D. Proteus mirabilis B. Clostridium novyi
494. Viruses range in size from C. Clostridium botulinum
A. 1-100 nm D. Clostridium difficile
B. 25-300 nm 505. Which of the following is not an RNA virus?
C. 10-100 μm A. Retrovirus
D. 400-1000 nm B. Enterovirus
495. Structural component that is found in all viruses is: C. Rhabdovirus
A. The envelope D. Adenovirus
B. DNA 506. In name of family Reovirus, word 'reo' refers to:
C. Capsid A. Respiratory enteric orphans
D. Spikes B. Respiratory
496. Chemical component that is found in all viruses is: C. Enteric
A. Protein D. Orphans
B. Lipid 507. Virus that is well known in causing 'latent
C. DNA infection' is:
D. RNA A. Adenovirus
497. A common polyhedral capsid shape of viruses is a: B. Hepatitis B Virus
A. Pentagon C. Influenza virus
B. Cube D. Herpesvirus
C. Icosahedron 508. Which one of the following statements is NOT true
D. Pyramid about viral infections?
498. Which of the following is the cause of smallpox? A. Virus infections are all life threatening
A. Varicella zoster B. number of viruses cause similar symptoms
B. Variola virus C. Virus infection may cause immunosuppression
C. Vaccinia virus D. Some viruses require other viruses for replication
D. Cowpox virus 509. Which one of following viruses is not oncogenic?
499. The following are cell culture types EXCEPT: A. Adenoviruses
A. Semi-continuous B. HSV-2
B. Primary C. HCV
C. Continuous D. EBV
D. Hemagglutination 510. Laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection is usually
500. Enteroviruses differ from rhinoviruses mainly by: made by which of the following:
A. Type of nucleic acid A. Biochemical tests
B. Size B. Growth of virus in chicken embryo
C. Capsid shape C. Detection of antigen and antibodies
D. Ability to survive in acidic conditions D. Light microscopy

Page 24 of 49
511. What is a primer? 521. An important paramyxovirus of poultry is:
A. A short DNA sequence A. Infectious bursal disease virus
B. A short RNA sequence B. Newcastle disease virus
C. A short sequence of oligonucleotide C. Avian influenza virus
D. A promoter sequence D. Avian leukosis virus
512. Direct viral diagnostic techniques include all of the 522. Which of following produces life-threating disease
following EXCEPT: that can be well treated by fluid replacement?
A. Electron microscopy A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Antibodies detection B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Light microscopy C. Treponema pallidum
D. Viral genome detection D. Vibrio cholerae
513. The first step in all virus infection is: 523. Which of the following are trace elements?
A. Uncoating A. Potassium ion
B. Migration to nucleus B. Sodium ion
C. Attachment to cell receptor C. Copper ion
D. Transcription D. Magnesium ion
514. The first step in virus replication after uncoating of 524. NDV is cultivated via _____ in embryonated Eggs.
the positive-sense, single-stranded RNA viruses is A. Allantoic inoculation
which of the following? B. Yolk sac inoculation
A. Transcription C. Intra-cerebral inoculation
B. Translation D. Chorioallantoic membrane inoculation
C. Genome replication 525. Viral diagnostic techniques include all EXCEPT:
D. Assembly A. Electron microscopy
515. Rubella has the most serious consequences in: B. Antigen detection
A. Children C. Antibodies detection
B. Pregnant Women D. Light microscopy
C. Summer months 526. Transfection is insertion of DNA into ______ cells.
D. Years with heavy rainfall A. Eukaryotic
516. Immunopathology (immune-mediated disease) may B. Bacterial
be involved with a severe form of which of the C. Parasitic
following Flavivirus infections? D. Both “A” and “B”
A. Yellow fever 527. In Gram-staining, iodine is used as a_________.
B. West Nile A. Fixative
C. Hepatitis C B. Mordant
D. Dengue fever C. Solublizer
517. Infectious bursal disease of chickens leads to loss of D. Stain
which of the following cell types? 528. Diagnosis of rabies is commonly done by ________.
A. Thymic cells A. Direct Sandwich ELISA
B. B-lymphocytes B. Florescent Antibody Technique
C. Neurons C. Hemagglutination assay
D. Neutrophils D. Hemagglutination inhibition assay
518. Deltavirus infection is always associated with 529. In _____ vaccine, genetic material from a pathogen
coinfection with: is inserted into a live carrier non-pathogen.
A. Hepatitis C A. Subunit
B. Dengue fever B. Acellular
C. Hepatitis B C. Trojan horse
D. Influenza D. Live attenuated
519. Hemagglutination inhibition assay is used for 530. 1% or 0.8% dilution of washed RBCs is prepared
detection of________ in the sample. for use in HA assays by diluting washed RBCs in___.
A. Antigen titer A. Distilled H2O
B. Virus titer B. Double distilled H2O
C. Antibody titer C. Double distilled deionized H2O
D. 4HA titer D. Normal Saline
520. Rabies virus reaches brain and salivary glands via: 531. Lag phase is also known as ___________.
A. Blood A. Period of initial adjustment
B. Lymph B. Transitional period
C. SQ tissue C. Generation time
D. Nerves D. Period of rapid growth

Page 25 of 49
532. Cell culture that can reproduce for an extended 543. Regarding MHC-I, which statement is FALSE?
number of generations and is used to support viral A. Ag. presented by MHC-I is recognized by CTL.
replication is: B. It typically processes antigens exogenously.
A. Primary cell culture C. Peptide binding cleft is formed by α 1/α2.
B. Secondary cell culture D. It is present on all nucleated host cells.
C. Continuous cell culture 544. Treatment with ______________ is required for
D. Diploid fibroblast cell culture isolation of viruses from tissues; it precipitates
533. ________ is the causative agent of PLAGUE. _________ present in the sample.
A. Y. enterocolitica A. Formalin, lipids
B. Y. pestis B. Chloroform, lipids
C. P. mirabilis C. Chloroform, proteins
D. E. coli D. Formalin, proteins
534. Cells that use antibodies to recognize their targets: 545. ______ is an example of suspension cell line?
A. CD4+ T cells A. Vero cell line (Monkey Kidney cells)
B. CD8+ T cells B. Hela cell line (Human Cervix cells)
C. Macrophages C. HEK 293 cell line (Human kidney cells)
D. B lymphocytes D. YAC-1 cell line (Mouse Lymphoma cells)
535. B-lymphocytes bind and respond to: 546. Which one of the following is NOT the desired
A. Soluble antigens property for enzyme in ELISA?
B. Virus-infected host cell A. High turnover rate
C. Bacteria B. Readily coupled to proteins
D. Particulate matter C. Resistant to high salt concentration
536. ______ complement pathway/s will activate first. D. Cheap
A. Classical 547. Light chain DOES NOT originate from ____region.
B. Alternative A. Variable
C. Lectin B. Joining
D. All act simultaneously. C. Diversity
537. Sample of choice in Marek’s disease is ________. D. Constant
A. Liver tissue 548. With respect to lymphocyte antigen receptors,
B. Feather follicle which of the following statements is FALSE?
C. Pieces of lymph node A. The pool of lymphocytes can express several
D. Bursa of fabricius million different antigen receptors.
538. In AGPT, precipitation band will appear if: B. A single lymphocyte can express several thousand
A. Antigen antibody reaction is specific antigen receptors.
B. Antigen is soluble C. A single lymphocyte can only recognize a single
C. Conc. of antigen and antibody are optimum antigenic epitope.
D. All of the above D. A single lymphocyte can express several thousand
539. If LD50 is 10-5.6 using 100µl of sample, then what different antigen receptors.
will be the virus titer. 549. Autoclave standards for decontamination of most
A. 10-4.6 microbiological materials is:
B. 10-5.6 A. 100oC at 15 psi for 10 minutes
C. 106.6 B. 121oC at 15 psi for 10 minutes
D. 10-6.6 C. 100oC at 10 psi for 60 minutes
540. Which one of following is CORRECT about T-cell? D. 121oC at 15 psi for 60 minutes
A. Has both MHC-I and MHC-II molecules. 550. Which is true for immunogenicity & antigenicity?
B. Can kill infected host cells. A. An antigenic particle is always immunogenic, but
C. Does not require antigen processing/presentation the reverse is not true.
D. Differentiate into plasma cells B. The terms are synonymous.
541. Stick method of virus inoculation is used for: C. A particle that is immunogenic will trigger an
A. Newcastle disease virus adaptive immune response.
B. Fowl pox virus D. A particle that is antigenic will trigger an adaptive
C. FMD virus immune response.
D. Avian influenza virus 551. Which one of the followings is INCORECT for live
542. A T-cell that has the CD8+ marker can be a: vaccine?
A. Cytotoxic T cell A. Require larger dose / more boosters
B. Natural Killer T cell B. Require special storage (cold chain)
C. Helper T cell C. Can conceivably mutate back to virulent stain
D. T Regulatory cell D. Confer long-lasting protection

Page 26 of 49
552. Endoflagellum is present in which class of bacteria? 562. Biosafety level that includes most common
A. Spirilla laboratory microorganisms & involves organisms
B. Spirochetes such as HBV, Staphylococcus & enteric pathogen is:
C. Bacillus A. BSL 1
D. Coccus B. BSL 2
553. ______ provokes an overwhelming T-cell response. C. BSL 3
A. Autoantigen D. BSL4
B. Autoantigen 563. Which of the following open biological safety
C. Allergen cabinets sterilize both the air entering and leaving
D. Superantigen the cabinet and utilizes a HEPA filter?
554. Indirect protection of unimmunized animals is___. A. Class I
A. Artificial active immunity B. Class II
B. Herd immunity C. Class III
C. Artificial passive immunity D. Class IV
D. Natural active immunity 564. Which of the following hazardous chemicals causes
555. Which of the following statements regarding clonal serious biological effects following inhalation,
selection theory is INCORRECR? ingestion or skin contact with even small amounts?
A. Specificity for Ag of T cells produced is identical A. Corrosive
to the specificity of the TCR on initial T cell. B. Toxic
B. The body is equipped with billions of lymphocytes. C. Carcinogenic
Each is devoted to respond to one specific epitope. D. Ignitable
C. An epitope triggers the production of a number of 565. Bacterial fimbriae present on the outer cell surface
lymphocytes, each with different receptors. are used for:
D. Antigen binding to a TCR triggers proliferation and A. Cellular activity
differentiation of T cells into effector cells. B. Sexual reproduction
556. Which one of the following properties is NOT C. Adherence to surfaces
required for vaccine? D. Adherence and exchange of genetic information
A. Should protect against natural exposure 566. An infection that may occur as a result of accidental
B. Should be cheaper. needle sticks or through broken glass is classified as
C. Should have relatively longer shelf life. which of the following routes?
D. Should be less immunogenic A. Direct inoculation
557. In a host, virus-infected host cells are killed by: B. Airborne
A. Activated cytotoxic T lymphocytes C. Ingestion
B. Activated B lymphocytes D. Mucous membrane contact
C. Activated T helper cells 567. What is the total magnification if the eyepiece is
D. Monoclonal antibodies 10X and the objective lens is 40X?
558. The Petroff-Hausser chamber is used for ______. A. 40 times bigger
A. Incubation of culture medium B. 4 times bigger
B. Direct microscopic count C. 14 times bigger
C. Viable count D. 400 times bigger
D. To grow anaerobic bacteria 568. _________ is intended to destroy all microorganism
559. Toxoid injection to protect future tetanus infection and their spores on inanimate surfaces?
is an example of: A. Disinfectant
A. Natural passive immunity B. Sterilizer
B. Artificial active immunity C. Antiseptic
C. Natural active immunity D. Antibiotic
D. Artificial passive immunity 569. What part of the microscope is used to change the
560. ______has the ability induce a malignant tumor. amount of light entering the stage?
A. Toxic A. Eyepiece
B. Carcinogenic B. Nosepiece
C. Corrosive C. Diaphragm
D. Ignitable D. Coarse adjustment knob
561. Secretory component that facilitates to move across 570. _______ is used for microorganism that have no
the mucus membrane is present in: known pathogenic potential like Bacillus subtilis.
A. Ig M A. BSL-I
B. Ig G B. BSL-II
C. Ig A C. BSL-III
D. Ig E D. BSL-IV

Page 27 of 49
571. Membrane filtration method has all the following 581. ____ contains many different species in a sample.
advantages EXCEPT: A. Broth culture
A. More turbid samples can be processed easily. B. Pure culture
B. Results are available in a shorter period of time. C. Mixed culture
C. Larger volumes of sample can be processed. D. Streak plate culture
D. The results are readily reproducible. 582. ______ culture medium is supplemented with
572. _______ is used as chemical germicide used on skin. highly nutritious material such as serum.
A. Disinfectant A. Differential medium
B. Antiseptic B. General purpose medium
C. Sterilizer C. Enrichment medium
D. Moist heat D. Enriched medium
573. _______ causes visible destruction or irreversible 583. Crystal violet agar is an example of _______.
damage to human skin on contact. A. General purpose medium
A. Toxic B. Enriched medium
B. Carcinogenic C. Selective medium
C. Explosive D. Differential medium
D. Corrosive 584. In microbiology lab, mouth pipetting is done for:
574. Any chemical that can burn and includes both A. Dispensing liquid culture medium
combustible and flammable liquids is called _____. B. Dispensing water to wash glass slide
A. Corrosive C. To transfer bacterial culture to fresh medium
B. Toxic D. Strictly prohibited for any use
C. Ignitable 585. The temperature at which the rate of reproduction
D. Explosive is most rapid is known as ___________.
575. ______ are reactive and unstable substances that A. Optimum growth temperature
readily undergo violent chemical changes. B. Minimum growth temperature
A. Toxic C. Maximum growth temperature
B. Corrosive D. None of the above
C. Explosive 586. What will be CFU/ml if colonies per plate = 75,
D. Ignitable Dilution = 10-7 and volume added per plate 0.5ml.
576. What is the purpose of a biosafety cabinet in a A. 1.5 x 107
microbiology laboratory? B. 1.5 x 109
A. To sterilize materials, such as media and glassware C. 1.5 x 108
B. To provide a proper temp. for microbes to grow D. 7.5 x 109
C. To prevent sample from contamination 587. Oldest eukaryotic organisms are considered to be:
D. For long term storage of microbes at low temp. A. Archaea
577. What lab equipment is used to accurately measure B. Diplomonads like Giardia
the volume of liquids? C. Fungi
A. Balance D. Animals
B. Erlenmeyer flask 588. MacConkey agar is an example of:
C. Ruler A. Enriched medium
D. Graduated cylinder B. Selective medium
578. What lab equipment is used to measure the amount C. Differential medium
of matter in an object? D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
A. Balance 589. Petri dish/plate is commonly labeled:
B. Graduated cylinder A. On the bottom-side of plate
C. Thermometer B. On the top of plate
D. Autoclave C. On the side of plate
579. ____ is used to culture microbes at a specific temp. D. On the inside of plate
A. Incubator 590. Isolation of pure culture refers to ________.
B. Autoclave A. Purification of culture
C. Hot air oven B. Separation of a single colony
D. Desiccator C. Introduction of inoculum
580. ____ is an example of indicator coliform bacterial D. To grow microorganism on a surface
species used to check quality of drinking water. 591. Salmonella from fecal sample is isolated using:
A. Staphylococcus aureus A. Crowded-plate technique
B. Escherichia coli B. Pour plate technique
C. Salmonella typhimurium C. Enrichment culture technique
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Gradient-plate technique

Page 28 of 49
592. _______is best used for long term storage of 601. 20 grams of food sample are mixed with 180 ml of
microbial samples when carried out properly? water. What will be the dilution?
A. storage in a freezer A. 10-2
B. storage in a refrigerator on an agar slant B. 10-1
C. storage on a petri plate at room temperature C. 10-3
D. storage in a freezer at ultra-low temperatures D. 10-4
593. Which of the following method is used for viable 602. Which were the scientist lived at the same time?
count of a culture? A. Koch and Pasteur
A. Plate-count method B. Darwin and Woese
B. Membrane-filter count C. Van Leeuenhoek and Ricketts
C. Plate-count method and membrane-filter count D. Berg and Hooke
D. Direct microscopic count 603. The feature of the archaea that distinguishes them
594. Soil microbes serially degrade nitrogenous organic from the bacteria is:
compounds derived from dead plants and animals to A. Habitats which are extreme environments
coverts them finally into NH3, the process is ____. B. Absence of a nuclear membrane
A. Denitrification C. Presence of a cell wall
B. Nitrogen fixation D. Cytoplasmic ribosomes that are 70S
C. Nitrification 604. Gram staining was introduced by:
D. Ammonification A. Christian Gram
595. The process of killing all microorganisms along B. Alfred Gram
with their spores is ________. C. Robert Cooke
A. Sterilization D. Louis Pasteur
B. Sanitization 605. Which of the following is considered the most
C. Disinfection unifying concept in biology?
D. Antisepsis A. Taxonomy
596. Antimicrobial activity of a NEW compound is B. Anatomy
checked against all the bacteria EXCEPT: C. Genetics
A. Staphylococcus aureus D. Evolution
B. Salmonella typhimurium 606. Various bacterial species can be subdivided into:
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa A. Subspecies
D. Escherichia coli B. Bio-varieties
597. ______ technique is used for isolation of antibiotic- C. Sero-varieties
producing microorganism from soil samples. D. All of these
A. Enrichment culture 607. A characteristic of protein synthesis in both the
B. Pour plate archaea and eukarya is:
C. Crowded-plate A. Transcription and translation are coupled
D. Streak plate B. Translation is inhibited by diphtheria toxin
598. All of followings are the sugars used in Triple sugar C. Proteins are synthesized from D-, rather than L-,
iron test to check their fermentation EXCEPT: isomers of amino acids
A. Sucrose D. The initiator tRNA is charged with N-formyl-
B. Glucose methionine
C. Lactose 608. Which of the following show the maximum
D. Dextrose resistance to physical and chemical agents?
599. Triple sugar iron test can be used for all EXCEPT: A. Viruses
A. To differentiate b/w fermentation of lactose and B. Mold spores
sucrose C. Bacterial spores
B. To observe H2S production D. E. coli
C. To observe gas production from glucose 609. The virulence of _____ is linked to its cell wall, an
fermentation exotoxin (PLD) and a protective antigen (CP40).
D. To differentiate b/w fermentation of glucose and A. Mycobacterium
lactose B. Campylobacter
600. Which of the following may account for the small C. Brucella
size of the cells? D. Corynebacterium
A. The rate of diffusion 610. E. coli O157:H7 is an example of:
B. The surface area/volume ratio A. Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
C. The number of mRNAs that can be produced by the B. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
nucleus C. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
D. All of the above D. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)

Page 29 of 49
611. Genetic and biochemical similarities between 620. Which of the following is opportunistic pathogen?
contemporary cyanobacteria and eukaryotic A. Salmonella Typhimurium
chloroplasts are accepted to mean that: B. Escherichia coli
A. Eukaryotes evolved from bacteria C. Proteus mirabilis
B. Eukaryotes evolved from archaea D. Yersinia pestis
C. Oxygenic photosynthesis first evolved in 621. If result of TSI test show, Red/Yellow with bubbles
eukaryotes and black precipitate, what is your interpretation?
D. Cyanobacteria arose from chloroplasts which A. Glucose fermentation and H2S production
escaped from plant cells B. Lactose fermentation with gas and H2S production
612. Staph. aureus differs from S. epidermidis by: C. Glucose fermentation with gas and H2S production
A. Is coagulase positive D. Glucose fermentation and H2S production
B. Forms white colonies 622. Which one of these is extremely resistant to
C. A common cause of UTI antibiotics and disinfectants?
D. Causes endocarditis of prosthetic valve A. Bacillus anthracis
613. A cook prepares snacks from 10 people going for a B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
picnic. 08 out of them develop severe gastroenteritis C. Clostridium tetani
within 4-6 hours of consumption of snacks. It is D. Salmonella Typhimurium
likely that on investigations cook is found to be 623. Which one of these is NOT correct about B. mallei?
carrier of: A. B. mallei can grow at 42oC
A. Salmonella typhi B. B. mallei is non-motile
B. Vibrio cholerae C. B. mallei is non-hemolytic
C. E. coli D. B. mallei can ferment glucose
D. Staphylococcus aureus 624. Brucella mallei is classified as Category B
614. Ahmad comes from dinner, he complained about bioterrorist agent because:
diarrhea, vomiting after 4 hours of meal. Most likely A. It causes chronic disease in equines
causative agent: B. It presents as nasal, and cutaneous forms
A. Salmonella typhi C. Disease leads to formation of nodules on the skin
B. Vibrio cholerae D. Infection by inhalation requires small number of
C. E. coli pathogens
D. Staphylococcus aureus 625. Infection with ____ can lead to abortion in pregnant
615. _______ is capsulated and shows positive Negler’s women & can be life-threatening in neonates,
reaction due to presence of α-toxin. elderly, and immunocompromised patients.
A. Clostridium tetani A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium botulinum B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Clostridium perfringens C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Clostridium difficile D. Mycoplasma mycoides
616. Giemsa-stained blood smear with bipolar-staining 626. Lumpy jaw disease with yellowish ‘sulfur granules’
pathogens indicates involvement of: is caused by:
A. Bacillus anthracis A. Actinomyces bovis
B. Pasteurella multocida B. Borrelia anserina
C. Brucella abortus C. Actinobacillus lignieresii
D. Mycobacterium bovis D. Mycoplasma bovis
617. Primary differences between cilia and flagella are: 627. Which of the followings is NOT a predisposing
A. Arrangement of microtubules factor for enterotoxaemia in elder sheep?
B. Length and location of basal bodies A. Incomplete establishment of normal microbiota
C. Number, length and direction of force B. Abrupt change to a rich diet
D. How the microtubules are fused to each other? C. Gorging on energy-rich diet
618. All Gram-Negative bacilli have _______? D. Intestinal hypomotility
A. Capsule 628. ______ is used to determine glucose fermentation.
B. Endotoxin A. Voges Proskauer test
C. Exotoxin B. TSI test
D. Coagulase C. Catalase test
619. Causative agent of lockjaw disease is hemolytic on D. Coagulase test
blood agar due to the production of __________. 629. Zoonotic cases of TB are usually associated with?
A. tetanolysin A. Mycobacterium bovis
B. tetanospasmin B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. endotoxin C. Mycobacterium avium
D. beta-hemolysin D. Mycobacterium caprae

Page 30 of 49
630. Causative agent of bovine reproductive disease is? 641. Dermatophytosis in human is caused by __________
A. Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus contracted from infected cats.
B. Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis A. Microsporum capri
C. Campylobacter coli B. Trychophyton canis
D. Campylobacter jejuni C. Microsporum canis
631. All are correct for anthrax bacilli EXCEPT? D. Epidermyphyton canis
A. They produce endotoxin. 642. Which of the following is NOT a SEROLOGICAL
B. They are spore forming. test used for diagnosis of bovine brucellosis?
C. They have polypeptide capsule. A. Rose-Bengal plate test
D. They produce non-hemolytic colonies. B. Polymerase chain reaction
632. Shiga toxin is a form of? C. Brucella milk ring test
A. Exotoxin D. Complement fixation test
B. Endotoxin 643. Wooden tongue or timber tongue with history of
C. Neurotoxin grazing rough pasture indicates the infection by:
D. Exfoliative toxin A. Borrelia anserina
633. Which of the following drug is NOT used to treat B. Actinomyces bovis
dermatophytosis (fungal disease) in cats and dogs? C. Actinobacillus lignieresii
A. Itraconazole D. Mycoplasma bovis
B. Ciprofloxacin 644. Fungi can cause disease by:
C. Fluconazole A. Tissue invasion
D. Terbinafine B. Toxin production
634. Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of C. Induction of hypersensitivity
all members of Enterobacteriaceae? D. All of these
A. Motile 645. Virulence factor/s of C. neoformans include?
B. Gram-negative A. Capsule
C. Catalase positive B. Ability to grow at mammalian body temp.
D. Facultative anaerobes C. Production of phenol oxidase
635. Borrelia burgdorferi is transmitted by: D. All of these
A. Ixodes 646. All are bounded by a cell wall EXCEPT:
B. Aedes A. Actinomyces bovis
C. Anapholes B. Mycobacterium bovis
D. Argus C. Mycoplasma bovis
636. Addition of glycerol in the culture medium D. Borrelia anserina
enhances the growth of: 647. Gas gangrene causing bacillus is:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis A. Facultative anaerobe
B. Mycobacterium avium B. Microaerophilic
C. Mycobacterium bovis C. Obligate anaerobe
D. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’ D. Obligate aerobe
637. Which causes food INTOXICATION? 648. Leptospira is transmitted (animal to human) by?
A. Clostridium botulinum A. Animal scratch
B. Clostridium tetani B. Contact with urine from infected animal
C. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Animal bite
D. Salmonella Typhimurium D. Arthropod vector
638. Colonies of __________ give egg-fried appearance. 649. Zearalenone (mycotoxin) is produced by:
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae A. Aspergillus species
B. Bacillus anthracis B. Fusarium species
C. Mycobacterium bovis C. Penicillium species
D. Mycoplasma bovis D. Claviceps species
639. Fowl typhoid is caused by: 650. Example of anaerobic medium is
A. Salmonella Typhimurium A. Robertson cooked-meat medium
B. Salmonella Pullorum B. Sabouraud dextrose agar
C. Salmonella Gallinarum C. MacConkey agar
D. Salmonella Enteritidis D. Mannitol salt agar
640. _____ is a property of Listeria monocytogenes: 651. MacConkey agar is an example of?
A. It is an extracellular pathogen A. General purpose medium
B. It can grow at refrigerator temperatures (4°C) B. Enrichment medium
C. It is non-motile C. Differential medium
D. After Gram-staining, it exhibits G+ large bacilli D. Enriched medium

Page 31 of 49
652. Which of the following is the most commonly 661. The O antigen used to help characterize members of
affected non-pulmonary site by Mycoplasma? Enterobacteriaceae are found on:
A. Meningitis A. Capsules
B. Prosthetic heart valve B. Endotoxins
C. Septic arthritis C. Exotoxins
D. Urethritis D. Flagella
653. Which of the following is the current preferred 662. The most frequent source of L. monocytogenes
antimicrobial treatment of cutaneous anthrax? infection is through which of the following?
A. Aminoglycosides A. Human feces
B. Ciprofloxacin B. Soil
C. Penicillin C. Raw milk
D. Tetracycline D. Ticks
654. Bacillus anthracis is unique to other bacteria. It is 663. The ability of the Neisseria meningitidis to colonize
the only bacteria to possess which of the following? the respiratory mucosa is associated with its ability
A. An endotoxin to synthesize:
B. A polypeptide capsule A. Coagulase
C. A polysaccharide capsule B. Collagenase
D. Teichoic acid in its outer cell wall C. Lipases
655. Which of the following diseases could also be D. Pilli
transmitted by ticks? 664. UTI as a result of Proteus mirabilis facilitates the
A. Q fever formation of kidney stones because the organism
B. Leptospirosis does which of the following?
C. Ehrlichiosis A. Destroys blood vessels in the kidney
D. Yellow fever B. Exhibits ‘swarming’ motility
656. Which of the following are the special laboratory C. Ferments many sugars
conditions needed to recover C. jejuni? D. Produces a potent urease
A. 98.6 oF (37 oC) aerobic blood agar plates 665. A woman is noted to have pyelonephritis with
B. 98.6 oF (37 oC) anaerobic blood agar plates shaking chills and fever. Blood cultures are obtained
C. 107.6 oF (42 oC) microaerophilic Skirrow medium and the Gram-negative is read preliminary as
D. 107.6 oF (42 oC) anaerobic Skirrow medium consistent with Proteus species. Which of the
657. Testing of blood culture revealed Gram-positive following bacteria also may be the etiology?
cocci, vancomycin-resistant, PYR-positive and the A. Escherichia coli
presence of Lancefield group D antigen. Which of B. Group B Streptococcus
the following is the most likely isolate identification? C. Staphylococcus aureus
A. Enterococcus faecalis D. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus 666. A man is diagnosed with meningitis. CSF grows out
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae Gram-positive diplococci. This is most likely to be:
D. Streptococcus agalactiae A. Neisseria meningitidis
658. Verotoxin producing E. coli O157:H7 serotype B. Staphylococcus aureus
belongs to which group? C. Salmonella typhi
A. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC) D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Enterhemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) 667. Which of the following viral families is known to
C. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) be causally associated with tumor formation?
D. Enterotocigenic E. coli (ETEC) A. Flavivirus
659. Which of the following is a key typical B. Papovavirus
characteristic of H. pylori as compared to C. Paramyxovirus
Campylobacter species? D. Polyoma virus
A. Coagulase production 668. In which of the following sites is Salmonella typhi
B. Catalase production most likely to be found during the carrier state?
C. Urease production A. Blood
D. Curved shape B. Gallbladder
660. A 4-year-old has fever and diarrhea. Blood culture C. Kidney
grows a Gram-negative rod. This is most likely to be D. Lungs
which of the following? 669. Which of the following is mismatched?
A. Group B Streptococcus A. Halophilic – Salmonella typhi
B. Listeria species B. Severe dehydration – Vibrio choleae
C. Salmonella species C. Multi-drug resistance – Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Neisseria species D. Coagulase positive – Staphylococcus aureus

Page 32 of 49
670. A 12-hour-old newborn has a temperature of 679. The primary pathologic effect of polio viral
103oF. Blood culture grows Gram-positive cocci in infection is a result of which of the following?
chains. This is most likely to be: A. Destruction of infected cells
A. Group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes) B. Persistent viremia
B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Immune complex formation
C. Neisseria meningitidis D. Aseptic meningitis
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 680. Which of the following statements best describes an
671. _________ is primary factor of S. pneumoniae? advantage of the oral polio vaccine when compared
A. Pilli to inactivated polio vaccine?
B. Polypeptide capsule A. It can be given to immunocompromised patients.
C. Polysaccharide capsule B. It is not associated with vaccine-related cases of
D. Coagulase poliomyelitis.
672. Virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus include C. It induces local intestinal immunity.
all of the following EXCEPT: D. It is easily administered as a series of multiple
A. Coagulase injections.
B. Enterotoxin 681. Which of the following paramyxoviruses lacks an
C. Protein A envelope viral attachment protein with HA activity?
D. M protein A. Parainfluenza virus
673. Short incubation food poisoning caused by B. Mumps virus
ingestion of preformed enterotoxin, is caused by: C. Measles virus
A. Staphylococcus aureus D. Respiratory syncytial virus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis 682. Escherichia coli differs from Klebsiella by:
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus A. Gram- negative
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Motile
674. A nurse experienced a needle stick injury. The C. Non- sporogenous
patient used illicit intravenous drugs. One month D. Non lactose fermenting
later, nurse develops jaundice. Which of following 683. Which of the following morphological structures is
findings would implicate hepatitis B as the etiology? not associated with Candida albicans?
A. Positive anti-hepatitis B surface antibody A. Yeast
B. Positive anti-hepatitis B-core antibody B. Hyphae
C. Positive hepatitis B surface antigen C. Pseudohyphae
D. Positive anti-hepatitis A antibody D. Sporangium
675. A man tests positive for HCV infection. Which of 684. A definitive diagnosis of ascariasis can be made by
following is the most likely method of transmission? observing which of the following?
A. Fecal-oral A. An eosinophilia in a differential WBC count
B. Fomite B. Motile larvae in a stool sample
C. Intravenous drug (needles) C. Larvae in radiography of lungs
D. Sexual transmission D. An adult worm passed during a bowl movement
676. In an HIV-1 patient, which of following is the most 685. Polymyxin inhibits the growth of the microbes by
predictive of the patient’s prognosis? carrying out which of the following actions?
A. Degree of lymphadenopathy A. Inhibition of cell-wall synthesis
B. CD4+:CD8+ cell ratio B. Damage to cytoplasmic membrane
C. Level of HIV-1 RNA in plasma C. Inhibition of nucleic acid and protein synthesis
D. Rate of decline in anti-HIV antibody D. Inhibition of specific enzyme systems
677. Which of the following is the pathogen responsible 686. An immunocompromised woman is diagnosed as
for blindness in advanced HIV infection? having meningitis. A latex agglutination test on the
A. Cytomegalovirus CSF for capsular polysaccharide antigen is positive.
B. Candida albicans Which of the following is the most likely the cause?
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis A. Aspergillus fumigatus
D. Neisseria meningitidis B. Cryptococcus neoformans
678. A seconds-year MPhil student is researching the C. Toxoplasma gondii
role of HPV in causing cancer. Which of the D. Nocoradia asteroides
following types of cancer is HPV most commonly 687. Ascariasis is most effectively treated with which of
associated with? the following drugs?
A. Anogenital A. Mebendazole
B. Breast B. Metronidazole
C. Lung C. Penicillin
D. Prostate D. Niclosamide

Page 33 of 49
688. A woman has chronic diarrhea. Identification of 698. Antigen becomes more potent because of:
which of the following stages of the organism would A. Increased number of epitopes
provide evidence for cryptosporidiosis? B. Larger antigen determinants
A. Cyst C. Repetitive occurrence of antigenic determinants
B. Oocyst D. None of the above
C. Merozoites 699. Fungus is cultured on:
D. Egg A. Nutrient broth
689. Which of the following is a host in the life cycle of B. Nutrient agar
all trematodes that infect humans? C. MaConkey medium
A. Flea D. Sabouraud agar
B. Mosquito 700. After overnight incubation, the lowest concentration
C. Snail of the drug that restricts the growth of bacterium
D. Sand fly inoculated is called:
690. If 35 colonies were counted on a 10-2 dilution plate A. Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
inoculated with a loop calibrated to deliver 0.01 ml B. Minimum bacterial concentration (MBC)
of urine, what will be the bacteria/ml in the urine? C. Lf dose
A. 35,000 D. LD50
B. 350,000 701. The commonest infectious viral disease of man is:
C. 3,500 A. Rabies
D. 350 B. Chicken pox
691. What will be your result interpretation, if MPN C. Measles
results shows 0,1,3 after presumptive test? D. Common cold
A. Water is potable 702. Chemical contaminants in water can lead to
B. Error in collecting water sample teratogenicity, which can be defined as:
C. Dilution of media is incorrect A. Ability to cause abortion in pregnant women
D. Water is not polluted with E. coli B. Ability to cause heritable changes in DNA
692. Ability to ferment ____ is used to detect coliforms? C. Ability to cause cancerous growth
A. Lactose D. Ability to cause abnormalities in developing fetus
B. Glucose 703. The therapy for genetic disorders which is aimed at
C. Mannitol mutant gene, to replace it with normal function gene
D. Dextrose by use of DNA/RNA tumor viruses is known as:
693. Ames test general requires addition of ____ to make A. Active Immunotherpy
bacterial system comparable to mammalian system. B. Genetic counseling
A. Liver homogenate C. Gene therapy
B. Kidney homogenate D. Interferon therapy
C. Spleen homogenate 704. Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies are seen for:
D. Blood homogenate A. Echovirus
694. Acid fastness of tubercle bacilli is attributed to: B. Rabies virus
A. A. Presence of mycolic acid C. Cytomegalovirus
B. Integrity of cell wall D. Influenza virus
C. Both of above 705. Transformation is defined as:
D. Cell Membrane
A. Transfer of DNA into bacterium
695. The majority of non-immunized patients infected
B. Infection of bacterium with phage
with poliovirus would be expected to experience
C. Transfer of phage from one bacterium to another
which of the following symptoms?
D. Transfer of DNA to mammalian cell
A. Flaccid paralysis of ≥1 extremities
706. The total number of viable bacteria present in a
B. Aseptic meningitis
sample is better determined by:
C. Muscle spasms and pain
A. Direct microscopic count
D. Asymptomatic infection
B. Colony count or pore plate method
696. _____ protect pneumococci against phagocytosis.
C. Photometeric measurement of turbidity
A. Haemolysin
D. Agglutination with specific antiserum
B. Hyaluronidase
707. The organisms which are devoid of their own
C. Necrotizing toxin
metabolic system and obtain energy from the host
D. Capsular polysaccharides
cell are called:
697. Routine sugar bacterial culture medium contain:
A. Autotrophs
A. 2 % sugar
B. Hypotrophs
B. 0.5 -1 % sugar
C. Heterotrophs
C. 0.1 – 0.5 % sugar
D. L-forms
D. <0.1 % sugar
Page 34 of 49
708. Which of the following antibiotic dose not act on cell 718. Killed vaccines are characterized by all of the
membrane? following EXCEPT:
A. Colistin A. Less immunogenic
B. Polymyxin B. Protection lasts for a short period
C. Nystatin C. Repeated doses (booster) required
D. Chloromycetin D. Are given by injection only
709. ‘Epitopes’ is the: 719. The correct match is:
A. Effective number of reacting sites on the antigen A. Small pox : Guarnieri bodies
B. Precipitate formed when both antigen and antibody B. Streptococcus : Coagulase test
react in appropriate proportions C. Corynebacterium : Paul Bunnel test
C. Distinct combining sites on the surface of a given D. Vibrio : Schick test
antigen which is responsible for the specificity of 720. The following penicillins are penicillinase resistant
the immune response EXCEPT:
D. Three dimensional lattice structures formed by A. Methicillin
antigen antibody reaction B. Ampicillin
710. Number of domains in IgM is: C. Oxacillin
A. Four D. Cloxacillin
B. Tow 721. Carbol fuchsin (used for Zeihl Neelsen staining)
C. One consists of all the following EXCEPT:
D. Five A. Basic fuchsin
711. The immunoglobulin which can cross placenta is: B. Absolute alcohol
A. IgG C. Formaldehyde
B. IgM D. Aqueous phenol
C. IgA 722. “Step-wise” mutation for drug resistance is seen
D. IgD with:
712. 1 definite host and 2 intermediate hosts are seen in: A. Penicillin
A. Schistosoma haematobium B. Strepromycin
B. Diphyllobothrium latum C. Garamycin
C. Echinococcus D. Kanamycin.
D. Ascariasis 723. Blood groups were first discovered by:
713. Which of the following can be prevented by filtering A. Landsteiner
water? B. Richet
A. Tapeworm C. Metchnikoff
B. Roudworm D. Jenner
C. Pinworm 724. Which of the following, regarding acid-fastness of
D. Guineaworm the two Mycobacteria is true?
714. Cutaneous larva migrant is caused by: A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is more acid-fast than
A. Ankylostoma braziliensis Mycobacterium leprae
B. Ankylostoma duodenale B. Mycobacterium leprae is more acid-fast than
C. Toxocara canis Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Toxoplasma gondii C. Bothe are equally acid-fast
715. Which of the following crosses placenta? D. Both are acid-fast but not acid-alcohol-fast
A. Malarial parasite 725. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is transmitted by:
B. Tuberculosis A. Transduction
C. Toxoplasmosis B. Transformation
D. Amoebiasis C. Mutation
716. The best route of administering Anti-lymphocytic D. Plasmids
globulin is: 726. Ramsay Hunt Syndrome is caused by:
A. Oral A. Virus
B. S/C B. Bacteria
C. I/M C. Chlamydia
D. I/V D. Fungus
717. All of the following human interferons are mainly 727. Which of the following virus has double stranded
induced by viral infections except: RNA?
A. Alpha A. Hepatitis A
B. Beta B. Hepatiris B
C. Gamma C. Polio
D. Delta D. Reovirus

Page 35 of 49
728. In electron microscope, wavelength of electrons is: 739. Albert’s stain (used for metachromatic granules
A. 0.005 nm staining) consists of all of the following except:
B. 0.005 μ A. Toludine blue
C. 0.5 μ B. Carbol fuchsin
D. 0.05 nm C. Malachite green
729. Gram positive bacteria are characterized by all of D. Acetic acid
the following EXCEPT: 740. The cell wall of bacteria can be visualized by all of
A. Thicker the following EXCEPT:
B. Absent lipids A. Azure II staining
C. Absent Teichoic acid B. Silver impregnation technique
D. Absence of aromatic amino acids C. Ultraviolet microscopy
730. Organelles with hydrolytic enzymes are: D. Electron microscopy
A. Mitochondria 741. Gram positive bacteria are more susceptible to all of
B. Lysosomes the following EXCEPT:
C. Golgi bodies A. Sulfas and penicillin
D. Ribosomes B. Basic dyes
731. Mesosomes are: C. Anionic detergents
A. A kind of Ribosome D. None of the above
B. A part of cell wall 742. Which of the following is not absent in prokaryotes?
C. Formed during cell lysis A. Mitochondria
D. Principle sites of respiratory enzymes B. Nucleolus
732. BSE was first reported from: C. Muramic acid
A. France D. Sterols
B. Canada 743. Genotypic variations are not:
C. United Kingdom A. Stable
D. Pakistan B. Heritable
733. COFAL test is used for the diagnosis of: C. Influenced by environment
A. Equine infectious anemia D. Not influenced by environment
B. AIDS 744. The fungi which do not a sexual stage are called:
C. Avian leukosis A. Phycomycetes
D. Bovine leukosis B. Ascomycetes
734. The following retroviruses produce tumors, C. Basidiomycetes
EXCEPT: D. Fungi imperfecti
A. Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus 745. The counter stain used in Zeihl Nielsen staining is:
B. Bovine leukemia virus A. Carbol fuchsin
C. Avian leukosis virus B. Gentian violet
D. Feline leukemia virus C. Gram’s iodine
735. Predilection site for parvovirus is D. Loeffler’s methylene blue
A. Bone marrow 746. Hepatitis A virus is:
B. Enteric epithelium A. Double stranded DNA
C. Fetus B. Single stranded DNA
D. All the above C. Double stranded RNA
736. Following Immunoglobulin classes manifest D. Single stranded RNA
antiviral activity except: 747. Staphylococcus bacteria are:
A. Ig M A. Chemosynthetic autotrophs
B. Ig G B. Photosynthetic autotrophs
C. Ig A C. Chemosynthetic heterotrophs
D. Ig E and Ig D D. Photosynthetic heterotrophs
737. Term vaccine was coined by: 748. Viruses come under the category:
A. Robert Koch A. Autotrophs
B. Louis Pasteur B. Hypotrophs
C. Needham C. Heterotrophs
D. F. Redi D. L-forms
738. The following bacteria have a single curve: 749. Rhinovirus has:
A. Borrelia A. Double stranded DNA
B. Vibrio B. Single stranded DNA
C. Treponema C. Double stranded RNA
D. Pasteurella D. Single stranded RNA

Page 36 of 49
750. _____ form of water is the most contaminated. 761. In Albert’s staining, the volutin granules are stained
A. Underground water _______ against a _______ background:
B. Rainwater A. Bluish black, green
C. Surface water B. Pink, green
D. Water stored in ice caps C. Green, black
751. Rubber catheters are best sterilized by: D. Bluish, purple
A. Formalin vapor 762. ________ %age of ethanol is used for disinfection.
B. Glutaraldehyde A. 30
C. Gamma radiation B. 70
D. Autoclaving C. 80
752. Which of the following is highly sensitive to heat? D. 90
A. Staphylococcus 763. Most effective practical way of sterilization is:
B. Pseudomonas A. Boiling
C. Clostridia B. Autoclaving
D. Treponema C. Alpha rays
753. Soiled dressings are destroyed by: D. Gamma rays
A. Hot air oven 764. Due to acidic nature of their protoplasm, bacteria
B. Autoclaving have affinity for:
C. Boiling A. Basic dyes
D. Incineration B. Acidic dyes
754. Spores of which of the following are used as a C. Neutral dyes
microbiological test of dry heat efficiency: D. All of the above
A. Toxigenic strains of E. coli 765. ___________ does not stimulate phagocytes.
B. Toxigenic strains of Clostridium tetani A. Cytokines
C. Non-toxigenic strains of Clostridium tetani B. C3b
D. Non-toxigenic strains of Proteus C. Histamine
755. The following is the direct stain for capsule: D. γ-IFN
A. Fleming’s Nigrosin method 766. Immunogenicity of an antigen is related with
B. Dry India ink film method A. Foreignness
C. Welch method B. Chemical nature
D. Both “A” and “B” C. Immune response
756. The major mechanism of the lethal effect of UV D. None of these
light on bacteria is attributed to its effect on: 767. Helper T cell does not activate
A. Ribosome A. B-cells
B. Lysosome B. Macrophages
C. Mesosome C. T-cytotoxic cells
D. DNA D. Mast cells
757. Koch’s old tuberculin is preserved in: 768. _________ is NOT sign of inflammation?
A. 70% formalin A. Sweating
B. 50% glycerine B. Pain
C. 2% phenol C. Swelling
D. Absolute alcohol D. Redness
758. “Turbidity test” for milk is used to detect its: 769. Natural transfer of Igs from mother to fetus is
A. Pasteurization A. Active immunity
B. Sterilization B. Passive immunity
C. Contamination C. Non-specific
D. Lactobacillus contents D. Artificial immunity
759. Microorganisms can be phagocytosed after 770. The most common antibody in the serum is
A. Opsonization A. IgA
B. Hydrolysis B. IgD
C. Cytolysis C. IgM
D. Ingestion D. IgG
760. The colors of acid fast and non-acid fast bacteria 771. Which of the following is NOT involved in non-
are respectively: specific defense?
A. Blue, red A. Lacrimal apparatus
B. Red, blue B. Sweat gland
C. Red, black C. Mucus
D. Black, purple D. IgM

Page 37 of 49
772. According to clonal deletion theory, self-reacting 783. The following are characteristics of Pseudomonas
lymphoid cells become aeruginosa EXCEPT:
A. Normal A. Produce pigment
B. Destroyed B. Obligate anaerobe
C. Amplified C. Produce local suppurative lesions
D. Activated D. Spore forming and capsulated
773. Which one of the following is not related to 784. The following antibodies CANNOT cross placenta
Hypersensitivity Type I? EXCEPT:
A. Histamine A. IgA
B. Prostaglandins B. IgD
C. Perforins C. IgM
D. Leukotrienes D. IgG
774. _________ is NOT related with Antigens? 785. All of the following are true about interferons
A. Epitopes EXCEPT:
B. Globulins A. Virus specific
C. Hapten B. Antiviral
D. Lipoproteins C. Host cell specific
775. IgM antibodies has been found to occur in D. Class of proteins
A. Pentamer 786. The following statements regarding varicella and
B. Monomer zoster are true EXCEPT ONE:
C. Dimer A. They are two diseases caused by one virus
D. All forms B. Varicella is the primary illness, whereas zoster is
776. Autoimmunity develops due to the recurrent form of the disease
A. Immunological tolerance C. They have the same clinical picture
B. Self-tolerance D. Varicella can be prevented by vaccination
C. Clonal deletion 787. The following statements about herpesviruses are
D. None of the above true EXCEPT ONE:
777. Tetanus is caused by the spread of A. There are eight human herpes viruses
A. Exotoxin in sympathetic system B. All are morphologically identical
B. Exotoxin in parasympathetic system C. All are DNA-viruses
C. Endotoxin in Sympathetic system D. All cause vesicular rash
D. Endotoxin in parasympathetic system 788. Chlamydia have the following properties EXCEPT:
778. All of the following cause gas gangrene EXCEPT: A. Possess cell wall
A. Clostridium botulinum B. Possess DNA as well as RNA
B. Clostridium welchii C. Are susceptible to antibiotics
C. Clostridium oedemaiens D. Are not filterable
D. Clostridium septicum 789. Regarding viral pathogenesis, which is WRONG:
779. Following are anaerobic bacteria EXCEPT: A. Spread of virus in the body through different route
A. Nocardia asteroids B. Humoral immunity but not cell mediated immunity
B. Actinomyces bovis (CMI) act against viruses
C. Clostridium tetani C. In cytocidal infection, cell usually die
D. None of the above D. Several RNA viruses can cause persistent infection
780. Spirocheates are motile by 790. The following diseases are caused by enteroviruses
A. Flagella EXCEPT ONE:
B. Cilia A. Pleurodynea
C. Pseudopodia B. Glomerulonephritis
D. all of above C. Paralysis
781. Kauffman-White scheme is for classification of D. Meningitis
Salmonella? 791. Spirocheates are
A. Biochemically A. Gram positive rods
B. Antigenically B. Gram negative rods
C. Chemotyping C. Gram negative cocci
D. Phage typing D. Acid Fast rods
782. All of the following produce hemolysin EXCEPT: 792. Lyme disease is transmitted by
A. Clostridium tetani A. Flea
B. Streptococcus hemolyticus B. Ticks
C. Staphylococcus aureus C. Aedes
D. E. coli D. Culex

Page 38 of 49
793. For virus, choose the WRONG STATEMENT: 803. The following statements regarding HIV are true
A. The viral envelope contains lipoprotein EXCEPT ONE:
B. Viruses can replicate in non-living media A. It belongs to the family Reteroviridae
C. Viruses need live cells to grow B. It is an oncogenic virus
D. Viruses have no ribosome C. The virus is present in all body fluids
794. Regarding Poliovirus, the WRONG statement is: D. The sexual route is the main mode of transmission
A. Two vaccine are available 804. The following viruses are transmitted by the fecal-
B. There is no vaccine for polio oral route EXCEPT ONE:
C. Can be isolated from throat swab or stool A. HAV
D. Sub-clinical infections are common B. HEV
795. In structure and classification of viruses, circle the C. HDV
WRONG STATEMENT: D. Entero
A. Icosahedral symmetry has 12 vertices 805. All of the following viruses can be transmitted
B. Helical symmetry such as Othomyxo virus sexually EXCEPT ONE:
C. Transcription is the formation of protein A. HIV
D. Translation is the formation of protein B. HBV
796. Regarding HCV & HBV, circle the correct answer: C. HSV-2
A. HBV is dsRNA D. Rubella
B. HCV is ssRNA 806. Which of following is a segmented ds-RNA virus?
C. Both viruses can grow in cell culture A. Togavirus
D. HBV has not chronicity complication B. HAV
797. Regarding viral hepatitis, circle the WRONG: C. Rotavirus
A. HCV-Abs can’t be diagnosed in lab by EIA test D. Parvovirus
B. The risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma by 807. All the following viruses are transmitted by
HCV are: underlying liver disease, alcohol, age respiratory routes EXCEPT ONE:
C. HCV-DNA integrate into liver cell chromosomes A. Human papilloma virus
in most HCC patients. B. Rhinovirus
D. The RNA and protein of HDV is surrounded by C. Adenovirus
HBsAg D. Measles virus
798. An abortive infection is one in which: 808. All the following viruses are disseminated
A. The infected cells are killed throughout the body EXCEPT ONE:
B. Progeny virus is not produced A. HIV
C. Transplacental infection of the fetus occurs B. HBV
D. Cell multiplication is stopped C. Rabies virus
799. The human diploid cell vaccine is used for D. Human papilloma virus
prevention of: 809. An important defense function of cytotoxic T
A. Rabies lymphocytes in viral infection is to:
B. Varicella A. Lyse virus infected cells
C. Hepatitis A B. Fragment viral nucleic acid by nucleases
D. Yellow fever C. Neutralize free virus particles
800. The following viral diseases are characterized by D. Lyse viral capsid
maculopapular rash EXCEPT ONE: 810. All of the following association are true EXCEPT
A. Measles ONE:
B. Rubella A. CMV causes heterophil-negative mononucleosis
C. Erythema B. Mumps virus can cause meningitis
D. Herpangina C. Poliovirus can cause paralytic disease
801. All of the following are true about cytokines D. Astrovirus causes gastroenteritis only in adults
EXCEPT: 811. The bacterial flagellin is detected by which TLR?
A. Communicators A. TLR2
B. Interleukine-I B. TLR6
C. TNF C. TLR5
D. Perforin D. TLR9
802. The following viruses are associated with congenital 812. Each of the following diseases is associated with
infection EXCEPT ONE: infection by picornaviruses EXCEPT ONE:
A. Rubella virus A. Myocarditis
B. CMV B. Hepatitis
C. Varicella C. Meningitis
D. RSV D. Mononucleosis

Page 39 of 49
813. Certain viruses have been associated with birth 822. Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by which
defects; these teratogenic viruses include EXCEPT: of the following statements?
A. Rubella virus A. It is cause by rhabdovirus
B. CMV B. The causative pathogen is an EBV
C. VZV C. Affected person respond to treatment with the
D. Rhinovirus production of heterophil antibodies
814. Which one of the following statements concerning D. Ribavirin is the treatment of choice
mumps is CORRECT? 823. The most sensitive method of detecting infection by
A. The testes, ovaries and pancreas can be involved CMV in the newborn is:
B. There is no vaccine against mumps A. Isolation of virus
C. Passive immunization is the only means of B. Detection of IgM antibody by IF
preventing the disease C. Direct detection of antigen by ELISA
D. Second episodes of mumps can occur, since there D. Detection of complement fixing antibodies
are 2 serotypes 824. All the following statements about cytomegalovirus
815. Each of the following statements concerning HAV is infection are true EXCEPT:
correct EXCEPT ONE: A. It can be cultured from RBCs of infected persons
A. The initial site of viral replication is the GIT B. It can be transmitted transplacently
B. The diagnosis is usually made by isolating the virus C. It can be activated by immunosuppressive agents
in cell culture D. It can cause retinitis
C. HAV commonly causes asymptomatic infection in 825. All the following statements about human
children rotaviruses are true EXCEPT that they:
D. It is a member of the family picornaviridae A. Produce an infection that is seasonally distributed
816. All the following viruses belong to the peaking in fall and winter
Picornaviridae EXCEPT ONE: B. Produce cytopathic effects in many conventional
A. Rhinoviruses cell culture systems
B. Poliovirus C. Can be sensitively and rapidly detected in stools by
C. Rabies virus the ELISA technique
D. Echovirus D. Have been implicated as a major etiologic agent of
817. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by infantile gastroenteritis.
which of the following viruses: 826. A gene for insulin has been inserted into a vector
A. Coronovirus for the purpose of obtaining its protein product only.
B. Reovirus Such a vector is called
C. Rhinovirus A. Expression vector
D. Enterovirus B. Suppression vector
818. Epidemic pleurodynia and mycarditis are both C. Storage vector for genomic library
caused by: D. None of the above
A. Group B Coxsackievirus 827. MHC-I molecules make complex with which
B. Polymavirus immune cells to kill intracellular antigens.
C. RSV A. Neutrophils
D. Reovirus B. TH cells
819. All the following are acceptable specimens for the C. CD68 cells
isolation enterovirus EXCEPT ONE: D. Tc or cytotoxic T-cells
A. Feces 828. The development, maturation and differentiation of
B. CSF T-lymphocytes occur in which organ?
C. Throat secretions A. Bursa of Fabricious
D. Urine B. Liver
820. When infectious mononucleosis is suspected, all the C. Thymus
following tests can be useful EXCEPT ONE: D. Tonsils
A. IgM antibody to EB-VCA 829. Birna viruses destroy which organ in chicken
B. IgG antibody to EB-VCA A. Heart
C. Antibody to EB-NAs B. Bursa of Fabricious
D. Culture C. Lungs
821. Which of the following statements best describes D. Thymus
rotavirus? 830. Example of an obligate anaerobic bacterium is
A. It is an RNA virus A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Tests for detection of antigen are rarely useful B. Brucella abortus
C. It is rarely a nosocomial pathogen C. Clostridium tetani
D. Person-to-person transmission is rare D. Salmonella

Page 40 of 49
831. Which antibody class is mainly involved in 841. After Gram’s staining, Gram positive bacteria are:
mucosal immunity? A. Green
A. IgY B. Yellow
B. IgA C. Red
C. IgD D. Blue/violet
D. IgE 842. Example of yeast is
832. The oldest and traditionally used adjuvant in A. Mucor
vaccines is: B. Rhizopus
A. BCG C. Candida albicans
B. ISCOMS D. Penecillium
C. Alum 843. Mycolic acid is present in cell wall ______.
D. Montanide A. Listeria
833. A plasmid consisting of its own DNA with a foreign B. Mycoplasma
DNA inserted into it is called C. Staphylococcus
A. Recombinant plasmid D. Mycobacterium
B. Non-coding DNA 844. To be useful in the preparation of recombinant
C. Junk DNA DNA, a plasmid must have
D. None of the above A. No origin of replication
834. The extra chromosomal, self-replicating, double B. An origin of replication
stranded, closed, circular DNA molecules are called: C. The ability to alternate between the linear and
A. Plasmids circular forms
B. Phages D. Restriction endonuclease activity
C. Viruses 845. The first human protein produced through
D. Chloroplasts recombinant DNA technology is
835. The jumping genes in bacterial DNA are called as A. Insulin
A. Volutin B. Erythropoitin
B. Endosomes C. Interferon
C. Histones D. Somatostatin
D. Transposons 846. Humulin, a genetically engineered insulin was
836. TTS is used against tetanus and is an example of produced and marketed for the first time by
A. DNA vaccine A. Biocon India Limited
B. Attenuated vaccine B. Glaxo
C. Sub-unit vaccine C. Eli Lilly and Company
D. Autogenous vaccine D. Cipla
837. A gene produced for rDNA technology contains a 847. In one of the techniques of recombinant insulin
gene from one organism joined to the regulatory production the genes for α and β polypeptides were
sequence of another gene. Such a gene is called: inserted into the plasmid by the side of
A. Oncogene A. Ori
B. Junk gene B. β-galactosidase gene
C. Chimeric gene C. Antibiotic resistant gene
D. Oncogene D. Restriction endonuclease gene
838. Which Ab class is not present in chicken? 848. Endonucleases, a group of enzymes cleave DNA.
A. IgY A. Externally
B. IgG B. Internally
C. IgM C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D. IgD D. Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’
839. A recombinant DNA molecule is produced by 849. Insulin, a protein, consisting of
joining together A. 2 Polypeptide chains
A. One mRNA with a DNA segment B. 3 Polypeptide chains
B. One mRNA with a tRNA segment C. 4 Polypeptide chains
C. Two mRNA molecules D. More than 4 Polypeptides chains
D. Two DNA segments 850. Before the production of recombinant insulin,
840. A group of genetically similar organisms obtained insulin for the treatment of diabetes in human was
by a sexual reproduction is called obtained from:
A. Clone A. Healthy humans
B. Population B. Dead human body
C. Assembly C. Cows and pigs
D. None of these D. Dogs and cats

Page 41 of 49
851. The first licensed drug produced through genetic 861. Transfer of recombinant plasmid into E. coli needs:
engineering is: A. Heat treatment
A. Interferon B. UV-rays treatment
B. Insulin C. MgCl2 treatment
C. Penicillin D. lysis
D. Somatotropin 862. During recombinant insulin synthesis, the bond
852. The plasmid generally used for the production of between insulin polypeptide and galactosidase can
recombinant insulin is: be removed by using:
A. RK 646 A. Cyanogen bromide
B. Ti plasmid B. Chymotrypsin
C. ACY 17 C. Carboxy peptidase
D. pUC 18 D. Amylase
853. Rauolfia serpentine, to save this plant under the 863. Which of the following statement about a vector is
threat of extinction, which of the following correct?
techniques is useful? A. All vectors are plasmids only
A. Genetic engineering B. Plasmids, phages can be used as vectors
B. DNA finger printing C. Fungi can also be used as vectors
C. Hybridoma technology D. Cyanobacteria can also be used as vectors
D. In vitro culture 864. Which of the following statement about plasmids is
854. ______ are popularly called “Molecular stichers”. correct?
A. Restriction Endonuclease A. Plasmids are present in bacteria only
B. Ligases B. Plasmids are present in all organisms
C. RNA polymerase C. Plasmids present in bacteria and phages
D. DNA polymerase D. Plasmids present in plants and animals
855. Restriction endonucleases have ability of cutting: 865. ____is autonomously replicating minichromosome.
A. DNA at random sites A. Virus
B. DNA at specific sites B. Phage
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ C. Plasmid
D. DNA and RNA at random sites D. Lichen
856. A clone is a group of organisms produced by: 866. Which one of the following statement are NOT
A. Asexual method and genetically similar attributed to plasmids?
B. Asexual method and genetically dissimilar A. They are circular DNA molecule
C. Sexual method and genetically similar B. They have antibiotic resistant genes
D. Sexual method and genetically dissimilar C. They have the ability of autonomous replication
857. Expression vectors are those: D. They have DNA that is as long as chromosomal
A. Produce protein products DNA
B. Used for genomic libraries 867. DNA finger printing was first developed by:
C. Used for chromosome synthesis A. David Suzuki
D. Used for finger printing B. Khorana
858. E. coli is generally used for gene cloning because: C. Alec Jaffreys
A. It supports the replication of recombinant DNA D. Gilbert
B. It is easy to transform 868. Which one of the following statements about
C. It is free from elements that interferes with plasmids is correct?
replication and recombination of DNA A. Plasmids are mobile.
D. All of these B. Plasmids are made up of RNA and proteins.
859. An ideal plasmid to be used for recombinant DNA C. Plasmids are present in eukaryotes.
technology must have: D. Plasmids are present in fungi.
A. Minimum amount of DNA 869. Which one of the following statements about
B. Relaxed replication control Restriction Endonuclease (RE) is TRUE?
C. One recognition site for one restriction A. All “RE” cut DNA at specific sites
endonuclease B. All “RE” cut DNA at random sites
D. All of these C. All “RE” join DNA segments at specific sites
860. Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at a specific site D. All “RE” join DNA at random sites
that is known as: 870. Transgenic organisms are:
A. Ligation site A. Produced by gene transfer technology
B. ori B. Extinct organisms
C. Restriction site C. Naturally occurring and endemic
D. Replication site D. Produced by traditional plant breeding technique

Page 42 of 49
871. Restriction endonucleases, when present in a host 880. DNA Ligase, used in recombinant DNA technology
cell act on foreign DNA molecule and cleave them, is obtained from:
but they do not act on host DNA molecule. It A. E. coli only
happens because: B. E. coli and also Ligase encoded by T4 phage
A. Restriction endonuclease cannot act on host DNA C. Saccharomyces
B. Host DNA is packed into chromosomes D. Retroviruses
C. Host DNA is methylated hence restriction 881. Using genetic technique in forensic science is:
endonucleases can’t act. A. Genetic finger printing
D. Restriction endonucleases become inactive when B. In vitro culture
they reach host DNA C. Hybridoma technology
872. The presence of Restriction endonucleases was D. Gene therapy
postulated in 1960 by: 882. A technique called southern blotting is used in:
A. Khorana A. Monoclonal antibody production
B. Watson B. In vitro culture
C. Crick C. Genetic finger printing
D. Arber D. Polymerase chain reaction
873. The scientists who won Nobel prize for physiology 883. Genetic finger printing is useful in:
for their discovery of restriction endonucleases are: A. Identifying criminals involved in rape, murder etc.
A. Jacob and Monad B. Establishing the parentage of a disputed child
B. Smith, Nathans and Arber C. Identifying illegal immigrants
C. Watson and Crick D. All of these
D. Alec Jaffreys and Milstein 884. RFLP stands for:
874. Restriction endonucleases are also called: A. Restriction fragment length polymorphism
A. Molecular scissors B. Repeated fragment length polymorphism
B. Molecular stichers C. Renewed fragment length polymorphism
C. DNA synthesis D. Required fragment length polymorphism
D. Polymerases 885. Gene therapy, a technique that helps in
875. In restriction endonuclease EcoR1, “E” stands for A. Saving endangered species
A. Extraction B. Curing genetic disorders
B. The first letter of the genus in which it is present C. Clonal propagation
C. Endonuclease D. Producing monoclonal antibodies
D. Endangered 886. A small, 15-30 bases long nucleotide sequences used
876. VNTR stands for: to detect the presence of complementary sequences
A. Variable nucleotide triplet repeat in DNA sample during DNA finger printing is called
B. Variable nucleoside tandem repeat A. RFLP
C. Variable nucleoside triplet repeat B. Probe
D. Variable number tandem repeats C. VNTR
877. Restriction endonucleases recognize specific D. Reporter gene
sequences on DNA called: 887. A radioactive probe used in DNA finger printing
A. Non-coding sequences contains
B. Satellites A. 32 P
C. Palindromes with rotational symmetry B. 14 C
D. Tandem repeats C. 12 N
878. Main tools required for recombinant DNA D. pUC18
technology are: 888. Electrophoresis, a technique used in DNA
A. Vector, desired gene fingerprinting helps to separate:
B. Vector, desired gene, mRNA of desired gene, host, A. DNA segments
restriction enzymes, ligases B. Cells from DNA
C. Desired gene, host, vector C. Tissues
D. Vector, desired gene, mRNA of desired gene, host D. RNA from DNA
879. Prior to the production of recombinant insulin, 889. In DNA finger printing, even a smallest amount of
insulin obtained from cows and pigs were given to DNA obtained from samples collected at crime
patients. Some of the problems faced by this place, can be multiplied into millions of copies by
treatment was: using a technique called:
A. The insulin was not active A. Autoradiography
B. In some humans it induced antibody production B. Southern blotting
C. It reduces the weight of patients C. Polymerase chain reaction
D. Loss of memory power D. Electrophoresis

Page 43 of 49
890. Southern blotting is a technique used in genetic 899. A device in which a substrate of low value is utilized
finger printing is called so because: by living cells or enzymes to generate a product of
A. The blotting is done from the south side. higher value is called
B. It was discovered by a scientist, E.M. Southern. A. Bioreactor
C. It was popular in South-America. B. Test tube culture
D. It was popular in southern countries. C. Electrophoresis
891. In DNA finger printing, the DNA from the gel is D. Chromatography
transferred to ___________ for hybridization. 900. Gene therapy, a method to cure inherited disease by
A. Nitrocellulose membrane A. Repairing the faulty gene
B. Agarose B. Introducing the correct copy of the gene
C. Autoradiogram C. Adding new cells to the body
D. PCR D. Polymerase chain reaction
892. During DNA finger printing, DNA nucleotides 901. During gene therapy, the possible ways through
hybridized with probe can be detected through: which the genes can be introduced into the cell are:
A. Electrophoresis A. Micro injection
B. Polymerase chain reaction B. Some viruses
C. Autoradiography C. Both “A” and “B”
D. Hybridoma D. Erythrocytes
893. In somatic cell gene therapy, the functional genes 902. DNA finger printing helps in:
can be introduced into: A. Identifying illegal immigrants
A. Sperm B. Detecting the real parent of child
B. Egg C. Detecting the suspect involved in crime
C. Any body cells D. All of these
D. Germinal cells 903. In one type of gene therapy, functional genes are
894. During the recent tsunami disaster, a child was introduced into the sperm or the egg. This is called:
separated from its parents in Sri lanka. Later with A. Somatic cell gene therapy
the help of technique the child was made to reunite B. Germline gene therapy
with its true parents. The technique is: C. Vegetative cell gene therapy
A. DNA finger printing D. Gametic gene therapy
B. Gene therapy 904. Glucose is added to the tissue culture media as:
C. Tissue culture A. Growth regulator
D. Hybridoma technology B. Carbon source
895. Genes have been transferred into animals with a C. Solidifying agent
view to obtain a large-scale production of the D. An antibiotic
proteins encoded by these genes in the milk, blood 905. Explant is
etc. This approach is also referred generally as A. Any cut part of the plant used in tissue culture
A. In vitro culture B. A plant extract used in tissue culture
B. Molecular farming C. A source of growth regulators added to media
C. Gene therapy D. Solidifying agent
D. Hybridoma technology 906. The work ‘Hybridization’ in DNA finger printing
896. RFLP, VNTR, Probe are some of the terminologies means:
associated with: A. Pairing b/w nucleotides of DNA sample with probe
A. Hybridoma technology B. Pairing b/w the nucleotides of DNA and mRNA
B. Tissue culture C. Pairing b/w the nucleotides of probe with mRNA
C. DNA finger printing D. Pairing between the nucleosides with mRNA
D. CFT 907. Dolly, the first animal produced through cloning is:
897. In 1990, the first gene-therapy was conducted on a A. Camel
4-year-old girl in US. The girl was suffering: B. Rat
A. AIDS C. Cow
B. CANCER D. Sheep
C. SCID 908. Fearing that the child to be born may have a genetic
D. Malaria disorder, a couple goes to a doctor. Which one of the
898. SCID, a disease can be cured by Gene therapy is techniques will be suggested by the doctor cure
due to the deficiency of: genetic disorder?
A. ADA enzyme A. Hybridoma technology
B. Insulin B. Gene therapy
C. Glucagon C. ELISA
D. Dystrophin D. DNA finger printing

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909. The genes introduced through somatic cell gene 919. Agar, used in plant tissue culture is extracted from:
therapy are: A. A fungus
A. Heritable B. A bacterium
B. Non-heritable C. An alga
C. Partially heritable D. A virus
D. None of these 920. Totipotency refers to:
910. In biotechnology, mass culturing of cells / microbes A. The ability of a plant cell to arrest growth of a plant
can be achieved by using B. The ability of a plant cell to develop disease
A. Test tube culture C. The ability of a plant cell to develop into a
B. Bioreactor complete plant
C. Autoclave D. The ability of a plant cell to develop into a callus
D. Electrophoresis 921. The main aim of human genome project is:
911. A bioreactor known for mass culturing of cells / A. To identify and sequence of all the genes present in
microbes must have the human body
A. Agitation for mixing of cells and medium B. To introduce new genes to human beings
B. Sterile conditions C. To remove disease causing genes from humans
C. Regulation of temperature, aeration, etc., D. To improve techniques of finger printing
D. All of these 922. Bt cotton is a:
912. In vitro culture of plant parts need A. A cotton variety obtained by crossing two different
A. Controlled environmental condition cotton plants
B. Aseptic condition B. A cotton variety brought from South America
C. Maintenance of pH C. An insecticide sprayed on cotton plant
D. All of these D. A transgenic cotton variety
913. Bioreactors are used for 923. Somatic embryos are:
A. Large scale production of desired substances by A. Embryos developed from zygote after fertilization
using cells / microbes B. Embryos developed from egg without fertilization
B. Kill bacteria C. Embryo like structure settled from cells of callus
C. To store viruses D. Embryo developed by ovules
D. To get chemicals 924. An amorphous mass of loosely arranged thin-walled
914. The basic components of tissue culture media are parenchyma cells developing from explant is called:
A. Micro and macro nutrients, glucose A. Thallus
B. Micro and macro nutrients, vitamins, agar B. Callus
C. Micro and macro nutrients and growth regulators, C. Callose
glucose D. Embryoids
D. Micro and macro nutrients, growth regulators, agar, 925. The name “Golden rice” is given to a rice variety
vitamins, glucose because:
915. Agar is added to tissue culture media as: A. It contains traces of gold
A. Carbon source B. It is obtained from areas where gold mining is done
B. A growth regulator C. The seeds are golden yellow in color because of the
C. Nitrogen source presence of β–carotene
D. Solidifying agent D. It is made of gold
916. Stem cells found in umbilical cord blood is 926. Fruit juice or coconut milk is added to plant tissue
A. Totipotent culture media because:
B. Pluripotent A. It is a source of micronutrients
C. Omnipotent B. It is a source of macronutrients
D. Multipotent C. It is a source of growth regulators
917. Which one of the following statements about plant D. It helps in maintaining pH of the media
tissue culture is correct? 927. pUC 18 is a
A. The culturing of root is not possible A. Phage used as a vector
B. Any cell that is totipotent can be cultured B. Bacteria used for transformation
C. The pH of the media need not be maintained C. Restriction endonuclease
D. Fruit juices are added to media as carbon source D. A plasmid
918. With reference to biotechnology, microinjection is a 928. The process of introduction of foreign DNA into an
method of: animal cells is called
A. Injecting a solution of DNA into nucleus of a cell A. Transversion
B. Injecting nutrients into a cell culture media B. Conversion
C. Injecting microbes into a cell culture media C. Inversion
D. Injecting medicine to human beings D. Transfection

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929. The cloned sheep “Dolly” had a genotype which is: 938. Which one of the following organism is used for the
A. Haploid and identical to that of mother’s egg cell large scale production of recombinant insulin?
B. Diploid & alike to that of mother’s somatic cells A. Plasmodium
C. Diploid with the haploid set of chromosomes from B. Agrobacterium
the father and other from the mother C. Rhizobium
D. Diploid & alike to that of the donor’s somatic cells D. E. coli
930. Pluripotent cells derived from the early pre 939. The unique feature of monoclonal antibody is that:
implantation of an embryo in mice are called: A. It is specific to a single antigenic determinant of a
A. Stem cells single antigen
B. Organ culture B. It is non-specific
C. Somatic cell hybridization C. It is specific to a few antigenic determinants
D. Hybridoma D. Restricted growth
931. A segment of DNA that reads from the same 940. ‘Thermal Cycler’ is used in the reaction:
forward and backward is called: A. Enzyme linked immune-sorbant assay
A. Palindromic DNA B. Ligation reaction
B. Complementary DNA C. Polymerase chain reaction
C. Plasmid DNA D. Immobilization reaction
D. Copy DNA 941. Construction of a recombinant DNA involves:
932. The chemical nature of ‘humulin’ produced by A. Cleaving DNA with restriction endonuclease and
recombinant DNA technology is: joining with ligase
A. Lipid B. Cleaving DNA with ligase and joining with
B. Protein endonuclease
C. Monosaccharide C. Cleaving and joining DNA with restriction
D. Vitamin endonuclease
933. Which of the following is associated with DNA D. Cleaving DNA with restriction endonuclease and
finger printing? joining with polymerase
A. Hybridoma 942. ECOR1 is a:
B. Site specific mutagenesis A. DNA ligase enzyme
C. Shotgun cloning B. Restriction endonuclease
D. RFLP C. A vector used for insulin synthesis
934. Which technique would most likely to be used to D. A plasmid used as a vector
produce a large number of genetically identical 943. Which one of the following techniques is
offspring? successfully used to compare two DNA samples?
A. Cloning and in vitro culture A. Hybridoma technology
B. Polymerase chain reaction B. ELISA
C. Chromatography C. Genetic finger printing
D. Electrophoresis D. Gene therapy
935. The restriction endonucleases are called so because: 944. The unique feature of pluripotent stem cells is:
A. They have a very restrictive or site specific A. They can develop into any tissue of the body
endonuclease activity B. They can develop into whole individuals
B. They cut DNA at a few restricted sites C. They help in production of monoclonal antibodies
C. They restrict the entry of foreign DNA into the cell D. All of these
by cleaving the DNA due to endonuclease activity 945. Stem cells can be obtained from:
D. Their distribution is restricted to only some A. Embryo only
bacterial cells B. Any part of the body
936. A hybridoma cell: C. Blood only
A. Produces different types of antibodies against D. Embryo, bone marrow, umbilical cord blood etc
different types of antigens 946. All antibodies produced through hybridoma are:
B. Produces only specific antibodies only against a A. Polyclonal
specific antigen B. Monoclonal
C. Produces different types of antibodies but only one C. Non-active
type of antigen D. Over-active
D. None of the above 947. Which of the following codons is NOT a termination
937. A cancerous / myeloma cell in hybridoma helps in: codon for protein synthesis?
A. Continuous growth of hybridoma A. UUU
B. Production of antibodies B. UAG
C. Both “A” and “B” C. UAA
D. Neither “A” nor “B” D. UGA

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948. A type of β–lymphocyte that produces antibody is: 958. A hybridoma is:
A. Plasma cell A. A hybrid cell obtained by fusing a β–lymphocyte
B. Memory cell with a myeloma cell in vitro
C. Adipocyte B. A hybrid cell obtained by fusing a β–lymphocyte
D. Erythrocyte with a myeloma cell in vivo
949. Which of the following are the two methods of C. A hybrid cell obtained by fusing 2 β–lymphocyte
screening? cells in vitro
A. Hybridization and PCR D. A hybrid cell obtained by fusing any 2 body cells
B. ELISA and blotting in vitro
C. ELISA and PCR 959. Monoclonal antibodies are nowadays used in:
D. PCR and RFLP A. Disease diagnosis
950. Monoclonal antibodies are usually produced from: B. Detection of specific type of pathogen
A. Myeloma cells C. Very early and accurate detection of cancer
B. Hybridoma cells D. All of these
C. Monocytes 960. _______ is a non-essential amino acid.
D. Adipocytes A. Serine
951. To produce monoclonal antibodies in large scale, B. Threonine
the techniques that can be used are: C. Lysine
A. In vivo in the peritoneal cavity of mice D. Histidine
B. In vitro in large scale culture vessels 961. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
C. Both “A” and “B” A. Cysteine
D. Neither “A” nor “B” B. Asparagine
952. Which one of the following therapies can be C. Glutamine
suggested to cure a person who is suffering from D. Phenylalanine
spinal cord injuries? 962. Peptide bond is a:
A. Hybridoma A. Covalent bond
B. Gene therapy B. Ionic bond
C. Stem cell therapy C. Metallic bond
D. Recombinant DNA technology D. Hydrogen bond
953. cDNA, a term used in recombinant DNA 963. A tripeptide has:
technology means: A. 3 amino acids and 1 peptide bond
A. Competitive DNA B. 3 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds
B. Chemical DNA C. 3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds
C. Complex DNA D. 3 amino acids and 4 peptide bonds
D. Complementary DNA 964. Immunoglobulin consists of:
954. Which of the following enzyme is used in PCR? A. A light chain and two heavy chains joined by
A. Taq DNA polymerase disulfide bond
B. HRP B. Two light chains and a heavy chain joined by
C. EcoRI disulfide bond
D. EcoRII C. Two light chains and two heavy chains joined by
955. Which of the following enzyme is used in ELISA? disulfide bond
A. Taq DNA polymerase D. Two light chains and two heavy chains joined by
B. HRP hydrogen bond
C. EcoRI 965. The pattern on paper in chromatography is called:
D. EcoRII A. Chroming
956. Which of the following is helpful in distinguishing B. Chroma
DNA of one individual from another? C. Chromatograph
A. PCR D. Chromatogram
B. Reverse transcriptase 966. Antibody present in secretions like tears & saliva is:
C. cDNA A. IgA
D. RFLP B. IgE
957. Which of the following is the correct order of C. IgG
organization of genetic material from largest to D. IgM
smallest? 967. Unfolding of a protein can be termed as:
A. Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide A. Renaturation
B. Nucleotide, gene, chromosome, genome B. Denaturation
C. Gene, nucleotide, chromosome, genome C. Oxidation
D. Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene D. Reduction

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968. A process by which a protein structure assumes its 977. Which of the following antibody first reaches the
functional shape or conformation is site of infection?
A. Denaturing A. IgA
B. Folding B. IgE
C. Synthesis C. IgG
D. Hydrolysis D. IgM
969. Which of the following is an IMINO ACID 978. Where do T-lymphocytes develop into fully
(Secondary amino acid)? competent but not activated T-cells?
A. Alanine A. The thymus gland
B. Glycine B. The lymph nodes
C. Proline C. The thyroid gland
D. Serine D. The bone marrow
970. Which of the following is a true statement? 979. Which of the following is an example of
A. IgG is involved in primary immune response monosaccharide?
B. IgM is involved in primary immune response A. Galactose
C. IgG is involved only in secondary immune B. Sucrose
response C. Lactose
D. IgG and IgM both are involved in primary immune D. Maltose
response 980. The allosteric inhibitor of an enzyme:
971. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the A. Causes the enzyme to work faster
regulation of biological nitrogen fixation? B. Binds to the active site
A. Dinitrogenase reductase C. Participates in feedback regulation
B. Dinitrogenase oxidase D. Denatures the enzyme
C. Phosphatase 981. What is the composition of nucleoside?
D. Kinase A. a sugar + a phosphate
972. Which of following is a function of macrophages? B. a base + a sugar
A. Ingest large particles and cells by phagocytes C. a base + a phosphate
B. Produce and secrete antibodies D. a base + a sugar + phosphate
C. Interact with infected host cells through receptors 982. Which of the following is an example of
on T-cell surface disaccharide?
D. Interact with macrophages and secrete cytokines A. Glucose
973. Which of the following is a function of B B. Fructose
lymphocytes? C. Galactose
A. Ingest large particles and cells by phagocytes D. Maltose
B. Produce and secrete antibodies 983. Lactose is a disaccharide of which of the following
C. Interact with infected host cells through receptors sugar units?
on T-cell surface A. Glucose and fructose
D. Interact with macrophages and secrete cytokines B. Glucose and galactose
974. Which of the following is a function of T C. Glucose and sucrose
lymphocytes? D. Glucose and ribose
A. Ingest large particles and cells by phagocytes 984. Which of the following is an example of bacterial
B. Produce and secrete antibodies and yeast polysaccharide?
C. Interact with infected host cells through receptors A. Starch
on TCR B. Glycogen
D. Interact with macrophages and secrete cytokines C. Cellulose
975. The extra chromosomal, self-replicating, closed, D. Dextran
double stranded and circular DNA molecule is 985. When all monosaccharides in a polysaccharide are
generally termed as: same type, such type of a polysaccharide is called a
A. Chromosome A. Glycogen
B. Plasmid B. Homoglycan
C. Genomic DNA C. Heteroglycan
D. Bacteriophage D. Oligosaccharide
976. Which of the following is the largest 986. Which of the following are the storage
immunoglobulin? polysaccharides?
A. IgA A. Glycogen
B. IgE B. Cellulose
C. IgG C. Chitin
D. IgM D. Glucose

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987. The most abundant immunoglobulin is: 998. Number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and
A. IgA thymine?
B. IgE A. One
C. IgG B. Two
D. IgM C. Three
988. Glucose is stored in plants as ________. D. Four
A. Glycogen 999. Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and
B. Starch cytosine?
C. Dextrin A. One
D. Cellulose B. Two
989. Glucose is stored in liver as ___________. C. Three
A. Glycogen D. Four
B. Starch 1000. Arrangement of nucleotides in DNA can be seen by
C. Dextrin A. Ultracentrifuge
D. Cellulose B. X-Ray crystallography
990. Which of the following are the structural C. Light microscope
polysaccharides? D. Electron microscope
A. Glycogen
B. Starch
C. Chitin
D. Glucose
991. Which of the following is an analogous to starch?
A. Cellulose
B. Glycogen
C. Sucrose
D. Chitin
992. Identify the purine base of nucleic acids in the
following:
A. Cytosine
B. Thymine
C. Uracil
D. Adenine
993. Which of the following are not the components of
RNA?
A. Thymine
B. Adenine
C. Guanine
D. Cytosine
994. What is the composition of nucleotide?
A. a sugar + a phosphate
B. a base + a sugar
C. a base + a phosphate
D. a base + a sugar + phosphate
995. Group of adjacent nucleotides are joined by:
A. Phosphodiester bond
B. Peptide bond
C. Ionic bond
D. Covalent bond
996. The sugar molecule in a nucleotide is:
A. Pentose
B. Hexose
C. Tetrose
D. Triose
997. Building blocks of nucleic acids are:
A. Nucleotides
B. Nucleosides
C. Amino acids
D. Histones

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