AITS 2223 FT IX JEEA Paper 2

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FIITJEE

ALL INDIA TEST SERIES


JEE (Advanced)-2023
FULL TEST – IX
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 14-05-2023
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:

 The test consists of total 54 questions.


 Each subject (PCM) has 18 questions.
 This question paper contains Three Parts.
 Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
 Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-B.
Section – A (01 – 04, 19 – 22, 37 – 40): This section contains TWELVE (12) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
Section – A (05 –10, 23 – 28, 41 – 46): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – B (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54): This section contains TWENTY FOUR (24) numerical based
questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.

MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 Question is unanswered;
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 2

Physics PART – I

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)


This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.

1. Resistance of each wire connecting any two adjacent dots is R. The


equivalent resistance between A and B is... [wires are connected C
only at the dot points]
8 8
(A) R (B) R
3 5
8 8
(C) R (D) R
7 9 B
A

2. Two thin lenses of different nature having radius of curvature R1 = R (convex) and R2 = R
(concave) respectively. The lenses are put close together and immersed in water. The converging
R
focal length of the system is . Find the refractive index of the concave lens, if refractive index
2
of convex lens is twice of concave lens. (Refractive index of water = 4/3)
(A) 4/3 (B) 8/3
(C) 3/2 (D) 5/3

3. A straight solenoid of length  having a single layer winding of copper wire whose total mass is
equal to m. The cross-sectional diameter of the solenoid is assumed to be very less than its
L
length. Take resistivity of copper wire to be  and density is equal to d. Then find the ratio of .
R
(L  inductance of solenoid and R  resistance of solenoid)
 0m  m
(A) (B) 0
4d 2d
20 m  m
(C) (D) 0
d d

4. An infinite long hollow metallic cylinder of radius R and surface charge density  is placed
symmetrically with an imaginary surface of the shape of a prism. The length of prism is R and its
three sides are all equal to 3R. The flux through the prism is
R 2  R 2 
(A) (B)
30 20
R 2  2R2 
(C) (D)
0 0

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3 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)


This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

5. Initially system is in equilibrium, the plank is slightly displaced


along vertical direction and then released. Then choose the correct
option(s). 8K
(A) Extension in the spring of spring constant 20k in equilibrium is 25K 25K
37° 37°
mg
20k
(B) Extension in the spring of spring constant 20k in equilibrium is
20K
mg
10k
 m 53° 53°
(C) The period of oscillation of the plank is 50K 50K
5 k 4K
m
(D) The period of oscillation of the plank is 2
10k m

6. Light from a discharge tube containing hydrogen atoms falls on the surface of a piece of sodium.
The kinetic energy of the fastest photo electron emitted from sodium is 5.23 eV. The work
function for sodium is 7.52 eV. Then choose the correct option(s).
(A) The energy of photons causing the photo electric emission is 12.75 eV
(B) The quantum numbers of two levels involved in the emission of these photons are 1 and 4.
(C) The change in the angular momentum of the electron in the hydrogen atom in the above
h
transition is

(D) The change in the angular momentum of the electron in the hydrogen atom in the above
3h
transition is
2

7. A hollow hemisphere of mass m and radius R B I=?


lies as shown in the figure. The axis AC is
passing through the centre C of the hollow
hemisphere and line AB is tangent on the hollow
hemisphere. Then choose the correct option(s).

A 37°
C
(A) Moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre C and parallel to the line AB is
2
mR2
3
(B) Moment of inertia about an axis passing through the centre of mass of hollow hemisphere
11
and parallel to the line AB is mR2
12
13
(C) Moment of inertia about the line AB is mR2
15
2
(D) Moment of inertia about the line AB is mR2
3

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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 4

8. Two point sources are placed on a straight line separated by


distance d = 10 where  is wavelength of the light produced by
sources. Both sources having same frequency and are placed at a
distance D(>>d) = 2m from a wall which is perpendicular to S1 S2
O
straight line as shown in the figure. Both the sources are sending
waves of equal intensity. Then which of the following is/are d
correct(s).
(A) The locus of point on the wall having equal intensity are circle. D
(B) No. of dark rings will be observed on the wall are 10. wall
8
(C) Radius of 4th bright ring form O is m (exclude the position of O)
3
th
(D) Radius of 4 bright ring from of is 21 m (exclude the position of O)

9. An infinite wire, placed along z-axis has current I1 in positive z- Q


y
direction. A conducting rod PQ placed in xy plane parallel to y-
axis has current I2 in positive y-direction. The ends of the rod
subtend angles 37° and 53° at the origin with positive x-axis
53° I2
as shown in figure. The rod is at a distance  from the origin. x
I1 37° (, 0)
 3
Then choose the correct option(s). Given tan37  
 4
P
(A) The direction of net force acting on the wire PQ is along the negative z-axis.
(B) The direction of net force acting on the wire PQ is along the positive z-axis.
 II  16 
(C) The magnitude of net force acting on the rod PQ is 0 1 2 ln  
4  9 
0I1I2  16 
(D) The magnitude of net force acting on the rod PQ is ln  
2  9 

10. Initially (disc) is hold such that both spring is in its natural length
and then released (assume that there is no slipping between the
string and the pulley). Mass of the pulley is m and radius is R. A
B
Then choose the correct option(s). 2k k

2mg
(A) Maximum displacement of centre of mass of the pulley is
3k
2mg
(B) Maximum extension in the spring B is
3k
(C) The magnitude of velocity centre of mass of the pulley when extension in the spring B is half
g m
of its maximum value, is v 
3 k
(D) Angular velocity of the pulley is not zero when the extension in the spring A is maximum

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5 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023

Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)


This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.

11. A thin tunnel is dug along the chord of earth at a distance R/2 from the
centre of the earth. A tube PQ which is fully filled with liquid fixed along P
the tunnel. One end of the tube is at the point P of the tunnel have cross- Q
sectional area A1 whereas other end Q of the tube is at the surface of the R/2 37
earth of cross section area A2 (A1A2) as shown in the figure. The initial
1 39GM
efflux velocity of the liquid at point P is . Find the value of k.
k R

12. A string of 0.2 kg/m and length 1.2 m is fixed at both ends are stretched such that tension
generated in the string is 320 N. The string vibrates in six segments with amplitude of 0.25 cm.
1
Then maximum transverse velocity of a particle which is at a distance of m from the fixed end
30
is 5k cm/s. Find the value of k.

13. A conductor OP of length  placed in x-y plane with one end y


hinged at origin. In this region a non-uniform magnetic field
exist along positive z-direction of which magnitude depends on
 y2  P
its y-coordinate which is given as B  B0  1   tesla. If
 2 
 
conductor OP starts rotating with angular velocity 0k̂ . Then 
n
the potential difference across OP is B0 2 when the
4
conductor lies along y-axis. Find the value of n. X
O

14. Two identical gases whose adiabatic exponent is  are filled in two identical containers at equal
pressure. In both the containers the volume of gas is doubled. In first container it is done by
isothermal process and in the second container it is done by adiabatic process. The condition for
which the work done by the gas in two expansion is same, is x  (2)y  z(n2) . Find the value of
(x + y + z).

15. A ball is projected with velocity 100 m/s at an angle


10 m/s
of 53 with the horizontal towards a vertical wall
(massive mass) and wall is moving away from the
projection point with velocity 10 m/s as shown in the 100 m/s
e = 1/2
figure. The coefficient of restitution between ball and
1
wall is e  . Ball collide with the wall and comes 53
2
back at the point of projection. If initial separation
between ball and wall along horizontal direction is
(32k) meter. Then find the value of k. (Take g = 10
m/s2 and tan 37 = 3/4)

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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 6

16. In the circuit shown, the battery is an ideal 12R 4R


one with emf V volts. The time constant of the
circuit is 4nRC. Find the value of n. 24R
C
V
24R 12R 2C

17. Two vernier calipers A and B both have M.S.D. of 1 mm. 8 vernier scale division have same
length as 2 main scale division of vernier A and 5 vernier scale division have same length as 3
main scale division for vernier B. The magnitude of difference in least count of vernier A and
k
vernier B is mm. Find the value of k.
100

18. When a soap bubble of radius r is charged to a uniform density , its radius increases to triple
value. Assume temperature remains constant during expansion and atmospheric pressure as P0.
 2 Y 
The pressure inside the initially uncharged bubble of radius r is P    P0  . Find the value
 X0 4 
of (X  5Y) . [Charge resides only on the outer surface of the bubble]

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7 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023

Chemistry PART – II

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)


This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.

19. Br Br
Zn/CH3 COOH
CHD CHD   Alkene
Which of the following option is incorrect?
(A) It is an example of anti elimination
(B) Reaction follows E2 mechanism
(C) If substrate is meso then product will be trans alkene
(D) If substrate is ‘d’ or '  ' then product will be trans alkene

20. NO 2

Na/liq.NH
3

C H OH
 Product, Product is
2 5

(A) NO 2 (B) NO 2

(C) NO 2 (D) NO 2

21. NaOH
Compound ' x '  Y   green ppt.  Solution

H2 O2 NaOH
Hg2 NO3  2
AgNO3
N 
 Z
brick red ppt. yellow solution

3 NH W
Shiny black ppt.  
white ppt.
What is compound ‘x’?
(A) NiCl3 (B) NiS
(C) CrCl3 (D) Cr2  SO 4 3

22. The radial probability distribution curve of an orbital of ‘H’ atom has 3 local maxima. If orbital has
2 angular node then orbital will be
(A) 5d (B) 5f
(C) 6p (D) 7f

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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 8

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)


This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
23. Br Br
NaI

Acetone
 Alkene
CHD CHD
Which option(s) is/are correct?
(A) Product is an example of syn elimination.
(B) Reaction takes place via SN 2 followed by E2 mechanism.
(C) If substrate is meso then product will be cis alkene.
(D) If substrate is d or  isomer then product will be trans alkene.

24. CH2 CH CH3


F
 i Na
2 NH

Liq. NH
Product
3
ii C2H5 OH
C
O CH CH3
N(CH3)3
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) CH CH CH3
Product is

H
C
H3C C O
NH2
(B) One of the intermediate is carbanion.
(C) Rearrangement takes place via carbene formation.
(D) One of the product is 3o Amine.
25. Consider the following equilibria
1. P  s   Q  g   NH3  g , PT at equilibrium  8 cm Hg
2. Y  s   Z  g  NH3  g , PT at equilibrium  26 cm Hg
Thus, choose the correct option(s)
(A) K eq I  16
(B) K eq II  169
(C) PTotal  27.20 when P and Y decomposed together
(D) PTotal  34.0 when P and Y decomposed together

26. In a constant pressure calorimeter with heat capacity of 450 JK 1, 200 ml of 0.9 M HCl and
200 ml of 0.45 M Ba  OH2 are mixed. (density  1 gm ml1 ). Initially, both solutions are at 21oC.
o
Select correct statement Given : HNeutralization  56.2 kJ mol1 
Specific heat of H2 O  4.184 Joule gm1 .
(A) Ho of reaction is 10.116  103 J
(B) Some HCl is left unreacted
(C) Final temperature is 25.76o C
(D) Some Ba  OH2 is left unreacted

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27. Which of the following method(s) can be used for the preparation of anhydrous aluminium
chloride?
(A) Heating AlCl3 .6H2 O with SOCl2
(B) Heating a mixture of alumina and coke in a current of dry chlorine
(C) Passing dry chlorine over heated aluminium
(D) Passing dry HCl gas over heated aluminium powder

28. Basic radical(s) which can not be identified by Borax bead test:
(A) Fe3  (B) Ag
(C) Co3  (D) Mg2

Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)


This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.

29. What is the density in gm ml-1 of urea solution. If its molarity is 4.0 mol lit-1 and molality is 2.273
mol kg-1.

30. A metal ‘x’ exists in the bcc structure having empty space between the atoms along the edge
o
equal to 1.35 A . If molar mass of the metal is 600 gm/mole, then calculate density of the crystal
in gm/ml.
 Given 3  1.73 
 
 Nav  6.0  1023 

31. A radioactive element decays by following three different parallel paths:


1
A  B 1  6  10 2 sec 1
2
2A  C  2  2.5  10 2 sec 1

3
3A  D 3  5  10 3 sec 1
1
Average life of element is 

Where  is net rate constant of the net decay reaction of A. 1,  2 , 3 are decay constant for
respective reaction. Calculate the average life of decay in sec.

32. In a particular case of physisorption, magnitude of enthalpy change and entropy change were
observed to be 27.6 kJ/mole and 100 J/mole K. Calculate the minimum temperature (in oC) above
which physisorption will become non spontaneous.

33. The EMF of the cell


M | Mn   0.01 M  || H 1 M | H2  g  1 atm  | Pt
At 25o C is 0.58 V. Calculate the valency of the metal if the standard oxidation potential of the
metal is 0.521 V

34. For a fixed amount of a real gas when a graph of Z vs P was plotted then at very high pressure
slope was observed to be 0.02 atm1 at the same temperature, if a graph is plotted between PV
vs. P then for 2 moles of the gas the y-intercept is found to be 50 atm litre. Calculate excluded
value in litres for 10 moles of the real gas.

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35. Mond’s process take place in following steps


Ti
Ni  CO  excess   Ni  CO x 
T2
Ni  CO     Ni  CO

 x
When T2 > T1, what is the value of x in complex.

n
36. The ratio of cis and trans-isomer of the complex Ma 2 bcde  is ‘x’, then value of ‘x’ is

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Mathematics PART – III

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 12)


This section contains FOUR (04) questions. Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four
options is the correct answer.

37. Number of 3  3 matrices that can be formed using first 9 natural numbers atmost once such that
sum of elements in atleast one row or column is greater than 21 is
(A) 12  6!  4! (B) 6  6!  4!
(C) 177  4!  4! (D) 119  3!  3!  4!

38. Let tangents be drawn from any point P on directrix of parabola S : y2 = 4x to S intersecting it at
points A and B. Locus of circumcentre of PAB is
2 2
(A) y = 2x – 2 (B) y = x – 1
2
(C) y = 4x – 4 (D) none of these

39. Let S   , ,   : , ,   1, 2, 3, ....., 9 . Number of elements in S for which there are 2 distinct
solutions of the set of equations x + y + z = 0, x + y + z = 0, 2x + 2y + 2z = 0 is
(A) 9 (B) 45
(C) 108 (D) 225

40. A student gave 20 JEE Advanced mock tests over a month. Given below are his marks in some
of those tests.
Test Numbers 1 5 10 15 20
Marks 10 30 60 100 180
Given that the student kept on improving his score in every subsequent mock test, his average
marks over the given month lies in the interval
(A) (60, 76) (B) (60, 67.5)
(C) (67.5, 92.5) (D) (58.5, 91.5)

Section – A (Maximum Marks: 24)


This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).

41. Let ‘f’ be a continuous function on R satisfying the relation f(f(f(x))) = x  x  R, then
(A) there exists ‘f’ which is non-decreasing function
(B) there exists ‘f’ which is non-increasing function
(C) ‘f’ has to be differentiable  x  R
(D) there exists only one function that satisfies the given conditions

42. Area bounded by y  sin1 cos1 x   cos1 sin1 x  with x-axis is given by
a sin 1 + b cos 1 + c sin 2 + d cos 2 + e, then (where [.] represents greatest integer function)
(A) a = b (B) c = d
3
(C) a  b  d (D) a + c = b + e
2

 a 
43. Let a relation R be defined on real numbers such that R   a, b 
 b
 I; b   
6, 10, 15  , then

(A) domain of R consists of irrational numbers only
(B) R is not a reflexive relation but is a transitive relation
(C) R is equivalence relation
–1
(D) R is not a reflexive relation but is a transitive relation

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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023 12

2
  
44. Let f(r) be area bounded by the graphs y  sin1  sin x  and y   r2   x   (r  0), then
2  2
(A) f(r) is increasing function  r  0
(B) f(r) is continuous and differentiable function  r  0
r 2
(C) number of solutions of the equation f  r   form an arithmetic progression
2
(D) if r  r1, r2 , r3 , ..... be critical points of y = f(r), then r1, r2, r3 ..... form a geometric progression

        
45. Let ‘’ be an operator defined for vectors such that a  b  a  b  a  b . Let x, y, z be three
coplanar vectors, then
         
(A) x   y  z    x  y   z (B) x, y, x  y are always coplanar
     
(C) x  y, y  z, z  x are always coplanar (D) none of these

 2 2
46.
3 3
 
Let the planes passing through line L : r   ˆj  kˆ   ˆi  kˆ and at farthest possible distance
from origin be P1. Let P2 be the plane passing through L and at nearest possible distance from
origin. Let r, R be minimum and maximum possible radius of spheres passing through
1, 
2  2, 1 and touching both the planes P1 and P2 respectively, then

4 2
(A) r  2 3  (B) r  2 3  4
3 3
2
(C) R  (D) R  2 3
3

Section – B (Maximum Marks: 24)


This section contains EIGHT (08) numerical based questions. The answer to each question is a Single
Digit Integer, ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive.

47. Number of solutions of the equation xyz = 253754; x, y, z,   N such that HCF of x, y, z, 
k
equals 1 is k, then equals
22100

48. Cards from a deck of 52 playing cards are distributed among 4 players equally. Probability that
each of them receives a Ace, King, Queen and Jack of different suit is P, then
4
52!  9!
P 4
equals
4! 2  36! 13! 

pq
49. If  n CxnCynCz  p Cq , then highest possible value of n
is
x  y  z n

 1  1  1
50. Let P1  2,  , P2  3,  , P3  4,  . Let Pn be orthocentre of triangle formed by point Pn – 1, Pn – 2
 2   3   4
and Pn – 3  n  4. Abscissa of P2023 is

51. Let S : x2 + y2 = 1. Tangents are drawn to the circle at A, B, C which form a triangle DEF such
that A lies on DE, B lies on DF and C lies on EF respectively. Let G, H, I be mirror images of A in
OF, B in OE and C in OD respectively. Radius of circumcircle of GHI is

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13 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2023

52. Let the range of eccentricity for which a square having sides parallel to coordinate axes can be
x2 y2
inscribed in ellipse 2  2  1 (a, b  R) be (e1, e2), then 9(e2 – e1) equals
a b

3
 A 2
53. Let there be a cuboid having volume V and surface area A. If V    , then  equals


54. Number of roots of the equation z10  2z7  z6  2z4  2z3  2  0 for which imaginary part is non-
negative is

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website: www.fiitjee.com

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