Class 10th Science Study Material

SCIENCE (CLASS X)
CHAPTER- CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS
INTRODUCTION
Chemistry is a branch of science that deals with the composition, properties and
transformation of matter and the substance that constitute it. We observe changes in
matter all around us. These changes are of two types:
1. Physical Change
A change in which there is a change in physical appearance of a substance but no change
in its basic composition is known as a physical change. For example, melting of butter and
wax, boiling of water, dissolving of salt in water, breaking of glass, sublimation of a solid on
heating, etc. No new chemical substance is formed in a physical change.
2. Chemical Change
A change, in which one or more new substances having properties and compositions
different from the original substance are formed, is known as a chemical change. For
example, burning of paper, wood, coal and magnesium ribbon, making of curd from milk,
digestion of food ripening of fruits, bursting of a cracker, boiling of egg, etc. Chemical
changes are also called chemical reactions.
A chemical reaction is accompanied by changes in physical state, formation of
a precipitate, change of colour, change in temperature or evolution of a gas.
Chemical reactions- The transformation of chemical substance into a new chemical
substance by making and breaking of bonds between different atoms is known as Chemical
Reaction.
Signs of a chemical reaction- These factors denote that a chemical reaction has taken place-
change of state of substance, change of color of substance, evolution of heat, absorption of
heat, evolution of gas and evolution of light.
Chemical Equation: The representation of chemical reaction by means of symbols of
substances in the form of formulae is called chemical equation. E.g. - H2 + O2 ⇒ H2O
Balanced Chemical Equation: A balanced chemical equation has number atoms of each
element equal on both left and right sides of the reaction.
*Note- According to Law of Conservation of Mass, mass can neither be created nor destroyed
in a chemical reaction. To obey this law, the total mass of elements present in reactants must
be equal to the total mass of elements present in products.
Characteristics of Chemical Equations

1. Chemical equation gives the names of different reactants and products of a chemical
reaction.
2. It gives the number of atoms or molecules of reactants and products of a chemical
reaction.
3. Chemical equation gives relative number of moles of reactants and products.
4. It gives the relative amount by mass or weight of reactants and products.
5. Chemical equation also gives relative volume of gaseous reactants and products.
Types of Chemical Reactions-
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
I. Combination- When two elements or one element and one compound or two
compounds combines to give one single product.
II. Decomposition- Splitting of a compound into two or more simple products.
III. Displacement- It takes place when a more reactive metal displaces a less
reactive metal.
IV. Double displacement- Reactions in which ions are exchanged between two
reactants forming new compounds are called double displacement reactions.
V. Precipitation- The insoluble compound called precipitate forms in this reaction.
VI. Exothermic- Reactions which produce energy are called exothermic reaction.
Most of the decomposition reactions are exothermic.
VII. Endothermic- Reactions which absorb energy are called endothermic

reaction. Most of the combination reactions are endothermic.
VIII. Oxidation: Gain of oxygen or removal of hydrogen or metallic element from a

compound is known as oxidation.
IX. Reduction: Addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen from a compound is

called reduction.
X. Redox- A chemical reactions where oxidation and reduction both take place
simultaneously are also known as redox reaction.
Eg - NaOH + HCl ⇒ NaCl + H2O

Oxidising Agent: If a substance oxidises the other substance but itself gets reduced,
then it is known as an oxidising agent
Reducing Agent: If a substance reduces the other substance but it self gets oxidised, then
it is known as reducing agent.
Rusting- When iron reacts with oxygen and moisture forms a red substance called rust.
[hydrated iron (III) oxide, Fe 2 O 3 xH2O].
Rancidity- Oils and fats when get oxidized on exposure to air show a change in taste and smell.
Prevention of Rancidity: Rancidity can be prevented by adding antioxidants, keeping
food items at low temperature, keeping food items in vacuum packing or airtight container
and replacing air by nitrogen gas.
Corrosion- Metals when attacked by oxygen, water, acids, gases, present in air changes its
surface which is called corrosion.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ( 1Mark each):----
1. Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water. Identify the incorrect statements.
1) It is an endothermic reaction.
2) Slaked lime is produced.
3) Quicklime is produced.
4) It is an exothermic reaction.
5) It is a combination reaction.
(a) 1and2
(b) 3and4
(c) 1and3
(d) 2,4and5
Answer: - C
2. A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradually added to the beaker containing
acidified permanganate solution. The light purple colour of the solution fades and finally
disappears.
Which of the following is the correct explanation for the observation?
a) KMnO4 is an oxidizing agent, it oxidizes FeSO 4.
b) FeSO4 acts as an oxidizing agent and oxidizes KMnO 4.
c) The colour disappears due to dilution and reaction is involved.
d) KMnO4 is an unstable compound and decomposes in presence of FeSO 4 to a colorless
compound.
Answer:-( a)
3. Which of the metal do not corrode easily?
(a) Gold
(b) Copper
(c) Platinum
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(d) Both(a)and(b)
Answer(c)
4. One day Jyotishna went in the science lab and the take a few zinc granules in a conical
flask or a test-tube and add dilute hydrochloric acid. Which change is seen by Sunita in
the above experimental process?
(a) Change in temperature

(b) Change in colour
(c) Evolution of gas
(d) Change in state
Answer:- (c)
5. Rusting of iron can be prevented by:
1. Painting
2. Galvanization
3. Electrolytic refining
4. Alloying
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1,2and3
(b) 1,2and4
(c) 2,3and4
(d) 1, 2,3and4
Answer:- ( d)
6. BaCl2+ H 2 SO 4 → X BaSO 4+ Y HCl. The value of X and Y in the above chemical
equation are:
(a) 1,2
(b) 2,1
(c) 1,1
(d) 1,3
Answer:- (a)
7. The oxidation of oils or fats in a food is known as:

a) Corrosion
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
b) Rust
c) Rancidity
d) Oxidisation
Answer:- (c)
8. Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction. The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen
gases liberated during electrolysis of water is
(a) 1:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 4:1
(d) 1:2
Answer( b)
9. Barium chloride on reacting with ammonium sulphate forms barium sulphate and
ammonium chloride. Which of the following correctly represents the type of the reaction
involved?
1. Displacement reaction
2. Precipitation reaction
3. Combination reaction
4. Double displacement reaction
a) Only1
b) Only2
c) Only4
d) 2and4
Answer:- ( d)
10. On burning magnesium ribbon in air, it is observed that it burns brightly leaving behind
a powder.
a) White
b) Green
c) Yellow
d) Black
Answer:- White
11. PCl5(s) + X H2O(l) → Y H3PO4(aq) + Z HCl(aq).
The value of X, Y and Z are:
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(a) X-4, Y-3, Z-3

(b) X-4, Y-1, Z-5
(c) X-1, Y-2, Z-3
(d) X-5, Y-1, Z-2
Answer:-b
12. The balancing of chemical equation is based on:
a) Law of conservation of energy
b) Law of conservation of mass
c) Law of conservation of heat
d) None of these
Answer:- b
13. Which one of the following is the example of precipitation reaction?
a) Cu(s) + 2AgNO 3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag(s
b) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
c) AgNO 3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)
d) CuCO 3(s) + Heat → CuO(s) + CO 2(g)
Answer:- c
14. A solution of substance X is used for white washing. Here X is:
a) CaO
b) CaO2
c) NaCl
d) KCl
Answer:- CaO
15. Identify the substances that is oxidized and the substances that is reduced in the
following reactions:
CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H 2 O(l)
a) H 2 ,CuO
b) H 2,H 2O
c) H 2 ,Cu
d) Cu,H2
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Answer:- a
16. A shiny brown coloured element X on heating in air becomes black in colour. Here X
is:
a) Copper b) Silver
c) Aluminium d) Mercury
17. The given diagram represents a .............reaction.
a) Thermal decomposition
b) Displacement
c) Double displacement
d) Combination
Answer:- a) Thermal decomposition
18. Prajakta left the silver chloride in a bowl near the window in the sunlight as shown
in the figure:
The colour of silver chloride after sometime is:

(a) Black
(b) Green
(c) Gray
(d) Yellow
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Answer:- c) Grey
19. One day Dona was performing an experiment in the laboratory. By mistake she
leaves the iron nail in the copper sulphate solution for one week.
After one week, the colour of sulphate solution is:

a)Green
b) Yellow
c) Red
d) Colourless
Answer:- a) Green
20. Eshani takes about 2g ferrous sulphate crystals in dry boiling tube and heat the
boiling tube over the flame of a burner or spirit lamp as shown in the figure
The colour of crystals after heating is:
(a) Black
(b) Brown
(c) Green
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(d) Orange
Answer:- b) Brown
Assertion- Reason based Questions(1 Mark each):-
These consists of two statesments-Assertion (A) and Reason (R) . Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are True and Reason is the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not the Correct explanation
of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
1. Assertion: When iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution, the iron nail becomes
brownish in colour and the blue colour of copper solution fade.
Reason : Equation representing this change is
Cu + FeSO 4 → CuSO 4 + Fe
Answer:- (a)
2. Assertion: Silver chloride turns grey in sunlight.
Reason : Silver is one of the least reactive metals.
Answer:-(b)
3. Assertion: Chemical equations can be made more informative.

Reason: We can write physical state of reactant and products, temperature and pressure,
name of catalyst used etc
Answer ( a)
4. Assertion : When water is added to calcium oxide, a large amount of heat is produced.
Reason: It is an endothermic reaction
Answer(c )
5. Assertion : A chemical equation should be balanced.

Reason: Number of atoms of each element should be same on reactants as well as
products side.
Answer( a)
6. Assertion: Chips manufacturer usually flush bags of chips with Nitrogen gas.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Reason: It adds taste to chips

Answer:-(c)
7. Assertion: Decomposition reactions are similar to combination reactions.

Reason : Decomposition reactions need a catalyst to occur.
Answer:-(d)
8. Assertion : During digestion, carbohydrates are broken down to form glucose.

Reason: Glucose is necessary for breathing.
Answer:-( c)
9. Assertion: Carbon dioxide turns lime water milky.

Reason : Carbon dioxide sullies the water.
Answer:-(c)
10. Assertion : Photosynthesis is considered as an endothermic reaction.

Reason: Energy gets released in the process of photosynthesis.
Answer(d)
VERY SHORT QUESTIONS (2 Marks each):-

1. Define oxidation and reduction. State one industrial application of reduction process.
[CBSE2015]
Ans: Oxidation is a process in which oxygen is added or loss of electrons takes place.
Reduction is a process in which hydrogen is added or gain of electrons takes place.
It is used in the extraction of metals e.g.,
Heat
ZnO(s)+ C(s) Zn(s) +CO(g)
2. Hydrogen being a highly inflammable gas and oxygen being a supporter of
combustion, yet water, a compound made up of hydrogen and oxygen is used to
extinguish fire. Why? In electrolysis of water, why is the volume of gas collected over one
electrode double that of gas collected over the other electrode. [CBSES.R2018,
CBSE2009,2012,2013]
Ans:- H2O is a compound constituted of hydrogen and oxygen elements and being a
compound it has different properties as compared to its constituting elements. Water
contains hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio of 2 : 1, that is why volume of H2 is double than
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
that of oxygen
3. What can be seen when a strip of copper metal is placed in a solution of silver nitrate?
Write the chemical reaction. [CBSE2015]
Ans:- The solution will become blue, shiny silver metal will get deposited.
Cu(s)3 + 2AgNO(aq) 3 2 → Cu(NO)(aq) + 2Ag(s)
4. What happens chemically when quick lime is added to water filled in a bucket? Write the
reaction. [CBSE 2015,2018]
Ans:- Calcium hydroxide (Slaked-lime) is formed with evolution of heat and hissing sound.
CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq)
5. On adding dilute hydrochloric acid to copper oxide powder, the solution formed is blue
green. Predict the new compound formed which imparts a blue green colour to the solution.
[CBSE2008]
Ans:- CuO + 2HCl → CuCl2 + 2H2O
Copper chloride solution imparts blue green to the solution.
6. Name the reducing agent in the following reaction.
3MnO2 + 4A1 → 3Mn + Al2O3
State which is more reactive, Mn or Al and Why? [CBSE2016,2018]
Ans:-Al is the reducing agent. Al is more reactive than Mn.

Reason: It is because Al is displacing Mn from MnO 2.
7. On heating copper powder in air, the surface of copper powder becomes coated with
black CuO. How can this black coating be converted into brown copper? Write chemical
equation for the reaction that occurs during the colour change. [CBSE2014,2018]
Ans Cu + O2 → CuO
Copper oxide on heating with H 2 will change back to reddish brown copper metal.
CuO(s)+H 2(g) → Cu(s) + H 2O(g)
8. A metal is treated with dilute H2SO4. The gas evolved is collected by the method as
shown in figure.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Answer the following questions:

a. Name the gas liberated.
b. Name the method used for collection of gas.
c. Is the gas soluble or insoluble in water?
d. Is the gas lighter or heavier than air?
Ans: [CBSE2015, CBSE2017]
a. The gas liberated is H2.

b. I t is collected by downward displacement of water.
c. The gas is insoluble in water.
d. Hydrogen gas is lighter than air.
9. Identify the type of each of the following reactions:

a. A reaction in which a single product is formed from two or more reactants.
b. The reaction mixture becomes warm.
c. An insoluble substance is formed.
d. External surface of the container in which reaction takes place becomes cold.
Ans:-
a. Combination reaction
b. Exothermic reaction
c. Precipitation reaction (Double displacement reaction)
d. Endothermic reaction.
10. When a solution of potassium iodide is added to a solution of lead nitrate in a test
tube, a reaction takes place.
a. What type of reaction is this?
b. Write the balanced chemical equation to represent the above reaction.
[CBSE2011,2010,2018]
Ans:-It is precipitation as well as double displacement reaction.
Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI → PbI2 + 2KNO3
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks each):-

1.Write chemical equation reactions taking place when carried out with the help of
(a) Iron reacts with steam
(b) Magnesium reacts with dil HCl
(c) Copper is heated in air.
Answer.
2. What is meant by skeletal type chemical equation? What does it represent? Using the
equation for electrolytic decomposition of water, differentiate between a skeletal chemical
equation and a balanced chemical equation.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Answer. The equations in which gaseous are written in atomic form instead of molecular form
and equation is not balanced, are called skeletal type equation. They represent gaseous
elements formed in atomic state and equation is not balanced
3.What is the colour of ferrous sulphate crystals? How does this colour change after heating?
Answer. The colour of ferrous sulphate is pale green. The colour changes to reddish brown on
heating due to formation of iron (III) oxide.
Give an example each for thermal decomposition and photochemical decomposition reactions.
Write relevant balanced chemical equations also.
Thermal decomposition reaction:
Photo chemical decomposition reaction

4. Translate the following statement into chemical equation and then balance it Barium
chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and a precipitate of barium
sulphate. State the two types in which this reaction can be classified.
Answer. 3BaCl2(aq) + A12(S04)3(aq) ——–> 3BaS04(s) + 2AlCl3(aq)
It can be classified as double displacement as well as precipitation reaction.
5. What is rancidity? Mention any two ways by which rancidity can be prevented.
Answer. The process in which taste and smell of food gets spoiled is called rancidity. It
happens due to oxidation.
Prevention from rancidity:
(i) Antioxidants are added to fatty acids to prevent oxidation, e.g. chips are packed in presence
of nitrogen gas which prevents spoilage by oxidation.
(ii)Food should be kept in airtight container in refrigerator.
6.Write balanced chemical equation for the reactions that take place during respiration. Identify
the type of combination reaction that takes place during this process and justify the name.
Give one more example of this type of reaction.
Answer. CgH1206 + 6O2 —————> 6CO2 + 6H20 + heat
It is an exothermic combination reaction because heat is evolved.
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) ————–>CO2 (g) + 2H20
Combustion of methane is another example of exothermic combination reaction.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
7. What is redox reaction? Identify the substance oxidised and the substance reduced in the
following reactions.
(i)2PbO + C —–> 2Pb + CO2
(ii)MnO2 + 4HCl —–> MnCl2 + 2H20 + Cl2
Answer. Those reactions in which oxidation and reduction takes place simultaneously are
called redox reactions.
(i) PbO is getting reduced and C is getting oxidised.
(ii) MnOs is getting reduced and HCl is getting oxidised
8.A white salt on heating decomposes to give brown fumes and a residue is left behind.
(i) Name the salt.
(ii) Write the equation for the decom-position reaction.
Answer.
(i) Lead nitrate is white salt.
9. Write balanced equations for the following mentioning the type of reaction involved.
(i) Aluminium + Bromine —–> Aluminium bromide
(ii) Calcium carbonate—–> Calcium oxide + Carbon dioxide
(iii) Silver chloride—–>Silver + Chlorine
Answer.
10.. In a schematic diagram for the preparation of hydrogen gas as shown in the figure.
What would happen if the following changes are made
a. In place of zinc granules, same amount of zinc dust is taken in the test-tube?
b. Instead of dilute sulphuric, dilute hydrochloric acid is taken?
c. Sodium hydroxide is taken in place of dilute sulphuric acid and the flask is heated?
And:a. Zinc dust will react faster and hydrogen gas will form at faster rate.
b. Same volume of H2 gas is formed. [CBSE2014,2017]
c. On heating Zn with NaOH, hydrogen gas will be formed at a faster rate.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 Marks each):-

1. (a) Define a balanced chemical equation. Why should an equation be balanced?
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reaction:
(i) Phosphorus burns in presence of chlorine to form phosphorus penta chloride.
(ii) Burning of natural gas.
(iii) The process of respiration.
Answer.
(a) Balanced chemical equation has an equal number of atoms of different elements in the
reactants and products. According to law of conservation of mass, matter can neither be
created nor be destroyed in a chemical reaction.
(b)(i) P4 (s) + 10Cl2 (g) ———> 4PCl5 (S)
(i)CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) ———> CO2 (g) + 2H2O(l) + heat energy
(iii) C6H12O6 (s) + 6O2 (g) + 6H2O ———> 6CO2 (aq) + 12H2O (l) + energy
2.(a) Explain two ways by which food industries prevent rancidity.

(b) Discuss the importance of decomposition reaction in metal industry with three points.
Answer.
(a) (i) Rancidity can be prevented by adding antioxidants to food containing
fat and oil, e.g. butylated hydroxy anisole is added to butter as antioxidant.
(ii) It can be prevented by packaging fat and oil containing foods in nitrogen gas.
(b) (i) Molten NaCl is electrolytically decomposed to form sodium metal.
(ii) Aluminium metal is obtained by electric decomposition of bauxite ore mixed with cryolite.
(iii) Carbonate ores are thermally decomposed to give metal oxide which on reduction give
metal
3.(a) Write one example for each of decomposion reaction carried out with help of
(i) Electricity (ii) Heat (iii) Light
(b) Which of the following statements is correct and why copper can displace silver from silver
nitrate and silver can displace copper from copper sulphate solution.
Answer.
4.Identify the type of chemical reaction in the following statement and define each
of them:
a. Digestion of food in our body.
b. Rusting of iron.
c. Heating of manganese dioxide with aluminium powder.
d. Blue colour of copper sulphate solution disappears when iron filings are added
to it.
e. Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to sodium hydroxide solution to form sodium
chloride and water. [CBSE2016]
Ans:-
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
a. Decomposition reaction: It is a process in which a compound is broken down into

simple substances.
b. Oxidation: The process in which oxygen is added or electrons are lost. Oxidation and
Reduction are taking places simultaneously in rusting of iron
c. Displacement reaction: The reaction in which amore reactive element can displace a
less reactive element from its salt solution.
d. Displacement reaction: The reaction in which amore reactive element can displace a
less reactive element.
e. Neutralisation reaction: The reaction in which acid reacts with base to form salt and
water
5. Write balanced chemical equation for the following statements:
a. NaOH solution is heated with zinc granules.
b. Excess of carbon-dioxide is passed through lime-water.
c. Dilute sulphuric acid is added to sodium carbonate.
d. Egg shell is dropped in hydrochloric acid
a. Copper (II)oxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Ans:- a. Zn(s) + 2NaOH →Na 2 ZnO 2 + H2
b. Ca(OH)2 + 2CO2 → Ca(HCO 3)2
c. Na2CO3 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O + CO2
d. CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl 2 + H2O + CO2
e. CuO(s) + 2HCl → CuCl2 + H2O
SOURCE BASED/CASE-BASED QUESTIONS (4Marks):-

Case Study 1
A solution of slaked lime produced by the reaction is used for white washing walls. Calcium
hydroxide reacts slowly with the carbon dioxide in air to form a thin layer of calcium carbonate
on the walls. Calcium carbonate is formed after two to three days of white washing and gives a
shiny finish to the walls. It is interesting to note that the chemical formula for marble is also
CaCO3.
On the basis of above paragraph answer the following questions:
1.) Give the reaction for the formation of calcium carbonate with physical states.
Ca(OH)2(s) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s)↓ + H2O(l)
2.) Write the formulas of slaked lime, quick lime.
Slaked lime: Calcium hydroxide is called as slaked lime with a formula of: Ca(OH)2 ,whereas
calcium oxide is called as quick lime with a formula of : CaO.
3.) Explain why calcium carbonate is used for white washing and not any other substance.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Calcium carbonate is used for whitewashing as it produces a shiny film whilst the production of
carbon dioxide and act as hard coating for the walls.
4.) Explain the importance of writing the physical states in a chemical equation.
In any chemical reaction, physical states mention the nature of the reaction and their practical
aspects which are necessary for lab uses. Physical states also explains whether reaction is
exothermic or endothermic.
5.) Write any one application of calcium carbonate other than white washing.
Calcium carbonate is also used in the production of antacids and can also be used to increase
the levels of calcium in body.
CASE STUDY: 2
You must have observed that iron articles are shiny when new, but get coated with a reddish-
brown powder when left for some time. This process is commonly known as rusting of iron.
Some other metals also get tarnished in this manner. Have you noticed the colour of the coating
formed on copper and silver? When a metal is attacked by substances around it such as
moisture, acids, etc., it is said to corrode and this process is called corrosion. The black coating
on silver and the green coating on copper are other examples of corrosion.
1.) Explain one benefit of corrosion.
Ans. Corrosion occurring in red blood cells of iron makes the colour of cells red which is highly
useful in transportation of oxygen.
2.) Write the formula of corrosion of iron.
Ans. The general formula of corrosion of iron is Fe2 O3.
3.) If corrosion occurs in the case of iron articles, why is the iron pillar at Qutub Minar not
effected?
Ans. The iron pillar at Qutub Minar is an ancient piece of metal knowledge in which the metal is
very pure (wrought iron) with low sulphur content and high phosphorus making it resistive to the
outer environment.
4.) Write any two ways to prevent rusting.
Ans. The two ways to prevent rusting are:
A) Galvanization.
B) Painting of iron articles.
5.) What does you mean by galvanization?
Ans. Galvanization is the process of applying a protective layer of Zn coating on materials which
are prone to rust making it resistive and long lasting.
CASE STUDY: 3
When fats and oils are oxidized, they become rancid and their smell and taste change. Usually
substances which prevent oxidation (antioxidants) are added to foods containing fats and oil.
Keeping food in air tight containers helps to slow down oxidation.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
1.) What do you mean by the word RANCIDITY?

Ans. The spoiling of food due to oxidation of fats and oils present in the food material
2.) Write any three methods to prevent rancidity.
Ans. Three methods to prevent rancidity of food includes:
A) Salting
B) Adding preservatives like vinegar
C) Storing in air tight containers.
3.) What is the meaning of antioxidants? Give an example.
Ans. The type of substances which can prevent the oxidation process of certain food materials
are called as antioxidants. Some natural antioxidants are vitamin c, selenium etc.
4.) Which gas is filled in the chips packets to keep them crunchy?
Ans. The gas filled in chips packets is nitrogen gas which can keep the chips crunchy.
5.) Write any traditional method used by our ancestors to prevent rancidity.
Ans. There are a few methods used by our ancestors to prevent rancidity:
A) Salting
B) Sugaring
C) Pickling
CASE STUDY: 4
We have seen that the decomposition reactions require energy either in the form of heat, light
or electricity for breaking down the reactants. Reactions in which energy is absorbed are known
as endothermic reactions.
1.) Write the definition of exothermic reaction.
Ans. Reactions in which heat is evolved during the process are called as exothermic reactions,
such as mixing of calcium oxide with water.
2.) What do you mean endothermic reactions?
Ans. Reactions in which heat is trapped or absorbed are called as endothermic reactions, such
as glucose mixed with water.
3.) Write a reaction which falls under endothermic reaction.
Ans. Melting of ice, evaporation is considered under endothermic reactions. A chemical equation
for these types of reaction is:
N2 + O2 + heat → 2 NO
4.) What is decomposition reaction?
Ans. Reactions in which a substance or reactant fragments to give one or many products.
5.) Explain photolysis.
Ans. Reactions in which reactant id decomposed with the help of sunlight are called as photolytic
decomposition.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Ex: 2AgCl + sunlight → 2Ag + Cl2

CHAPTER 2
ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS
GIST OF THE CHAPTER
Acids: Acids are sour in taste, turn blue litmus red, and dissolve in water to release H+ ions.
Example: Sulphuric acid (H2SO4), Acetic Acid (CH3COOH), Nitric Acid (HNO3) etc.
Properties of Acids:
✓ Acids have a sour taste.
✓ Turns blue litmus red.
✓ Acid solution conducts electricity.
✓ Release H+ ions in aqueous solution.
Types of Acids: Acids are divided into two types on the basis of their occurrence i.e., Natural
acids and Mineral acids.
(i) Natural Acids: Acids which are obtained from natural sources are called Natural Acids or
Organic Acids. Methanoic acid (HCOOH), Acetic acid (CH3COOH), Oxalic acid (C2H2O4) etc.
(ii) Mineral Acids: Acids that are prepared from minerals are known as Mineral Acids Example;
Inorganic acids, man-made acids or synthetic acid are also known as Mineral Acids.
Hydrochloric acid (HCl), Sulphuric acid (H2SO4), Nitric acid (HNO3), Carbonic acid (H2CO3)
Phosphoric acid (H3PO4) etc.
Chemical Properties of Acid:

(i) Reaction of acids with metal: Acids give hydrogen gas along with respective salt when they
react with a metal.
Examples: Hydrogen gas and zinc chloride are formed when hydrochloric acid reacts with zinc
metal.
Zn (s) + 2HCl (aq)--------------→ ZnCl2 (aq) + H2 (g)
Test for Hydrogen Gas: The gas evolved after reaction of acid with metal can be tested by
bringing a lighted candle near it. If the gas bums with a pop sound, then it confirms the evolution
of hydrogen gas. Burning with pop sound is the characteristic test for hydrogen gas.
(ii) Reaction of acids with metal carbonate: Acids give carbon dioxide gas and respective salts
along with water when they react with metal carbonates. Examples: Hydrochloric acid gives
carbon dioxide gas, sodium chloride along with water when reacts with sodium carbonate.
Na2CO3 (aq) + 2HCl (aq)--------------→ 2NaCl (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
(iii) Reaction of acid with hydrogen carbonates (bicarbonates): Acids give carbon dioxide gas,
respective salt and water when they react with metal hydrogen carbonate. Example: Sulphuric
acid gives sodium sulphate, Carbon dioxide gas and water when it reacts with sodium
bicarbonate.
2NaHCO3 (aq) + H2SO4 (aq) ----------------→Na2SO4 (aq) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
TYPES OF ACIDS:
Strong Acids: An acid which is completely ionized in water and produces (H+) is called Strong
Acid. Examples: Hydrochloric acid (HCl), Sulphuric acid (H2SO4), Nitric acid (HNO3)
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Weak Acids: An acid which is partially ionized in water and thus produces a small amount of
hydrogen ions (H+) is called a Weak Acid. Example: Acetic acid (CH3COOH), Carbonic acid
(H2CO3)
Bases: Bases are bitter in taste, have soapy touch, turn red litmus blue and give hydroxide ions
(OH–) in aqueous solution. Examples: Sodium hydroxide (caustic soda) – NaOH, Calcium
hydroxide – Ca (OH)2 Potassium hydroxide (caustic potash) – (KOH)
Properties of Bases:
✓ Have a bitter taste.
✓ Soapy to touch.
✓ Turns red litmus blue.
✓ Conducts electricity in solution.
✓ Release OH– ions in Aqueous Solution
Types of bases: Bases can be divided in two types – Water soluble and Water-insoluble. The
hydroxide of alkali and alkaline earth metals are soluble in water. These are also known as alkali.
For example NaOH, Mg (OH)2, Ca(OH)2
Chemical properties of bases:

(i) Reaction of Base with Metals: When alkali (base) reacts with metal, it produces salt and
hydrogen gas. Examples: Sodium hydroxide gives hydrogen gas and sodium zincate when
reacts with zinc metal.
2NaOH (aq) + Zn (s)-------------→ Na2ZnO2 (aq) + H2 (g)
(ii) Reaction of Base with Oxides of Non-metals: when a base reacts with non-metal oxide, both
neutralize each other resulting respective salt and water. Examples: Sodium hydroxide gives
sodium carbonate and water when it reacts with carbon dioxide.
2NaOH (aq) + CO2 (g)-------------→ Na2CO3 (aq) + H2O (l)
(iii) Neutralisation Reaction: An acid neutralizes a base when they react with each other and
respective salt and water are formed. Examples: Sodium chloride and water are formed when
hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide (a strong base).
HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq)---------------→ NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)
(iv)Reaction of Acid with Metal Oxides: Metal oxides are basic in nature. Thus, when an acid
reacts with a metal oxide both neutralize each other. In this reaction, the respective salt and
water are formed. Examples: When an acid, such as hydrochloric acid, reacts with calcium oxide,
neutralization reaction takes place and calcium chloride, along with water is formed.
2HCl (aq) + CaO (aq)------------→ CaCl2 (aq) + H2O (l)
Salts: Salts are the ionic compounds which are produced after the neutralization reaction
between acid and base. Salts are electrically neutral. There are number of salts but sodium
chloride is the most common among them. Sodium chloride is also known as table salt or
common salt. Sodium chloride is used to enhance the taste of food.
Acid + Base → Salt + Water
HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) ------------→NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)
Characteristics of salt:
✓ Most of the salts are crystalline solid.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
✓ Salts may be transparent or opaque.

✓ Most of the salts are soluble in water.
✓ Solution of the salts conducts electricity in their molten state also.
✓ The salt may be salty, sour, sweet, and bitter.
✓ Neutral salts are odourless.
✓ Salts can be colourless or coloured.
Example: Sodium chloride (NaCl), Sodium Sulphate (Na2SO4), Calcium chloride (CaCl2),
Calcium sulphate (CaSO4), Zinc chloride (ZnCl2) and Zinc sulphate (ZnSO4)
Neutral, Acidic and Basic Salts: (i) Neutral Salt: Salts produced because of reaction between a
strong acid and strong base are neutral in nature. The pH value of such salts is equal to 7, i.e.
neutral. Example: Sodium chloride, Sodium sulphate. Potassium chloride, etc.
Sodium chloride (NaCl): It is formed after the reaction between hydrochloric acid (a strong acid)
and sodium hydroxide (a strong base).
HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) -----------→NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)
Sodium Sulphate (Na2SO4): It is formed after the reaction between sodium hydroxide (a strong
base) and Sulphuric acid (a strong acid).
H2SO4 (aq) + 2NaOH (aq) -------------→Na2SO4 (aq) + 2H2O (l)
Potassium Chloride (KCl): It is formed after the reaction between potassium hydroxide (a strong
base) and hydrochloric acid (a strong acid).
HCl (aq) + KOH (aq)----------→ KCl (aq) + H2O (l)
(ii) Acidic Salts: Salts which are formed after the reaction between a strong acid and weak base
are called Acidic salts. The pH value of acidic salt is lower than 7. For example: Ammonium
chloride, Ammonium sulphate etc. Ammonium chloride is formed after reaction between
hydrochloric acid (a strong acid) and ammonium hydroxide (a weak base).
HCl (aq) + NH4OH (aq) --------------→NH4Cl (aq) + H2O (l)
Ammonium sulphate is formed after reaction between ammonium hydroxide (a weak base) and
Sulphuric acid (a strong acid).
H2SO4 (aq) + 2NH4OH (aq)-------------→ [NH4]2SO4 (aq) + 2H2O (l)
(iii) Basic Salts: Salts which are formed after the reaction between a weak acid and strong base
are called Basic Salts. For example; Sodium carbonates, Sodium acetate, etc. Sodium
carbonate is formed after the reaction between sodium hydroxide (a strong base) and carbonic
acid (a weak acid).
H2CO3 (aq) + 2NaOH (aq)---------→ Na2CO3 (aq) + 2H2O (l)
Sodium acetate is formed after the reaction between a strong base, sodium hydroxide (a strong
base) and acetic acid, (a weak acid).
CH3COOH (aq) + NaOH (aq) -------------→CH3COONa (aq) + H2O (l)
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
pH Scale:
Strength of Acid and Base: Acids in which complete dissociation of hydrogen ion takes place
are called Strong Acids. Similarly, bases in which complete dissociation of hydroxide ion takes
place are called Strong Bases. In mineral acid, such as hydrochloric acid, Sulphuric acid, nitric
acid, etc. hydrogen ion dissociates completely and hence, they are considered as strong acids.
Since inorganic acids hydrogen ions do not dissociate completely, so they are weak acids.
pH is equal to the logarithm to the base 10, inverse of hydrogen ion concentration.
pH = -log [H+] = log {1/[H+]} = 10 –pH
Similarly, pOH = -log [OH-] = log {1/[OH-]}
And pH + pOH = pKw = 14
Higher the hydronium ion concentration present in the solution, lower is its pH value.
For water or neutral solutions: pH = 7 for acidic solutions: pH < 7 for basic solution: pH > 7
Importance of pH everyday life: (i) pH in our digestive system: Dilute HCl (Hydrochloric
acid) helps in digestion of food (proteins) in our stomach. Excess acid in stomach causes acidity
(indigestion). Antacids like magnesium hydroxide [Mg(OH)2] also known as milk of magnesia
and sodium hydrogen carbonate (baking soda) are used to neutralize excess acid.
(ii) Tooth decay caused by acids: The bacteria present in our mouth converts the sugar into
acids. When the pH of acid formed in the mouth falls below 5.5, tooth-decaying starts. The
excess acid has to be removed by cleaning the teeth with good quality toothpaste because these
kinds of toothpaste are alkaline in nature.
(iii) Soil of pH and plant growth: Most of the plants have a healthy growth when the soil has a
specific pH (close to 7) range which should be neither alkaline nor highly acidic.
Some Important Chemical Compounds
1. Common Salt (Sodium Chloride): Sodium chloride (NaCl) is also known as Common or Table
Salt. It is formed after the reaction between sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid. It is a
neutral salt. The pH value of sodium chloride is about 7. Sodium chloride is used to enhance the
taste of food. Sodium chloride is used in the manufacturing of many chemicals.
HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
2. Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH): Sodium hydroxide is a strong base. It is also known as caustic
soda. It is obtained by the electrolytic decomposition of solution of sodium chloride (brine). In
the process of electrolytic decomposition of brine (aqueous solution of sodium chloride), brine
decomposes to form sodium hydroxide. In this process, chlorine is obtained at anode and
hydrogen gas is obtained at cathode as by products. This whole process is known as Chloro –
Alkali process.
2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O (l)--------→ 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g)
3. Bleaching Powder (CaOCl2): Bleaching powder is also known as chloride of lime. It is a solid
and yellowish white in colour. Bleaching powder can be easily identified by the strong smell of
chlorine. When calcium hydroxide (slaked lime) reacts with chlorine, it gives calcium oxychloride
(bleaching powder) and water is formed.
Ca (OH)2 (aq) + Cl2 (aq)---------→ CaOCl2 (aq) + H2O (l)
Aqueous solution of bleaching powder is basic in nature. The term bleach means removal of
colour. Bleaching powder is often used as bleaching agent. It works because of oxidation.
Chlorine in the bleaching powder is responsible for bleaching effect.
Use of Bleaching Powder:

✓ Bleaching powder is used as disinfectant to clean water, moss remover, weed killers, etc.
✓ Bleaching powder is used for bleaching of cotton in textile industry, bleaching of wood
pulp in paper industry.
✓ Bleaching powder is used as oxidizing agent in many industries, such as textiles industry,
paper industry, etc.
4. Baking Soda (NaHCO3): Baking soda is another important product which can be obtained
using byproducts of chlor – alkali process. The chemical name of baking soda is sodium
hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3) or sodium bicarbonate.
Preparation Method: Baking soda is obtained by the reaction of brine with carbon dioxide and
ammonia. This is known as Solvay process.
NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 -------------→NH4Cl + NaHCO3
Properties of Sodium Bicarbonate:

✓ Sodium bicarbonate is white crystalline solid, but it appears as fine powder.
✓ Sodium hydrogen carbonate is amphoteric in nature.
✓ Sodium hydrogen carbonate is sparingly soluble in water.
✓ When baking soda is heated, it decomposes into sodium carbonate, carbon dioxide and
water. 2NaHCO3 + heat → Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O
✓ Sodium carbonate formed after thermal decomposition of sodium hydrogen carbonate
decomposes into sodium oxide and carbon dioxide on further heating. Na2CO3 → Na2O
+ CO2
Use of Baking Soda:

✓ Baking soda is used in making of baking powder, which is used in cooking as it produces
carbon dioxide which makes the batter soft and spongy.
✓ Baking soda is used as an antacid.
✓ Baking soda is used in toothpaste which makes the teeth white and plaque free.
✓ Baking soda is used in cleansing of ornaments made of silver.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
✓ Since sodium hydrogen carbonate gives carbon dioxide and sodium oxide on strong
heating, thus, it is used as a fire extinguisher.
4. Washing Soda (Sodium Carbonate) Preparation Method: Sodium carbonate is

manufactured by the thermal decomposition of sodium hydrogen carbonate obtained by Solvay
process.
NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3------------→ NH4Cl + NaHCO3
2NaHCO3 + Heat → Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O
The sodium carbonate obtained in this process is dry. It is called Soda ash or anhydrous sodium
carbonate. Washing soda is obtained by rehydration of anhydrous sodium carbonate.
Na2CO3 + 10H2O → Na2CO3 .10H2O since there are 10 water molecules in washing soda,
hence, it is known as Sodium Bicarbonate decahydrate. Sodium carbonate is a crystalline solid
and it is soluble in water when most of the carbonates are insoluble in water.
Use of sodium carbonate:
✓ It is used in the cleaning of cloths.
✓ In the making of detergent cake and powder.
✓ In removing the permanent hardness of water.
✓ It is used in glass and paper industries.
(v) Plaster of Paris: Calcium sulphate hemihydrate [CaSO4. ½ H2O]

CaSO4.2H2O 373K CaSO4. ½ H2O + 3/2H2O
Plaster of Paris
CaSO4.1/2H2O + 3/2H2O------------→ CaSO4.2H2O (Gypsum)
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
MIND MAP
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
PRACTICE SESSION
Multiple Choice Questions
Q1. Name the natural source of each of the following acid

(i) Citric acid (ii) Oxalic acid (iii) Lactic acid (iv) Tartaric acid
Answer. (i) Lemon and orange (ii) Tomatoes and Guava (iii) Sour milk (curd) (iv) Tamarind
Q2. Which one of the following salts does not con-tain water of crystallisation?
(a) Blue vitriol (b) Baking soda (c) Washing soda (d) Gypsum
Answer: b
Q3. In terms of acidic strength, which one of the following is in the correct increasing order?
(a) Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid
(b) Water < Hydrochloric acid < Acetic acid
(c) Acetic acid < Water < Hydrochloric acid
(d) Hydrochloric acid < Water < Acetic acid
Answer: a
Q4. What is formed when zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide?

(a) Zinc hydroxide and sodium
(b) Sodium zincate and hydrogen gas
(c) Sodium zinc-oxide and hydrogen gas
(d) Sodium zincate and water
Answer: b
Explanation: Reason: Zn + 2NaOH → Ma2Zn02 (Sodium Zincate) + H2
Q5. Brine is an
(a) aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide
(b) aqueous solution of sodium carbonate
(c) aqueous solution of sodium chloride
(d) aqueous solution of sodium bicarbonate
Answer: c
SA (2MARK)
Q1. A student detected the pH of four unknown solution A, B, C and D as follows 11, 5, 7 and 2.
Predict the nature of the solution.
Answer. A is basic , B‘ is acidic , C‘ is natural and D‘ is strongly acidic.
Q2. How will you test for the gas which is liberated when hydrochloric acid reacts with an active
metal?
Answer. Bring a burning matchstick near the gas. It burns with pop sound showing that it is
hydrogen.
Q3. 15 mL of water and 10 mL of Sulphuric acid are to be mixed in a beaker

(i) State the method that should be followed with reason.
(ii) (ii)What is this process called?
Answer. (i) The acid is to be added slowly in water to prevent the mixture to be splashed. The
reaction is highly exothermic; therefore, constant cooling should be done.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(ii)The process is called dilution.
Q4. Choose strong acids and weak acids from the following: CH3COOH, H2SO4, H2CO3, HNO3
Answer. H2SO4 and HNO3 are strong acids.
CH3COOH and H2CO3 are weak acids.
Q5. A white coloured powder is used by doctors for supporting fractured bones.
(a) Write chemical name and formula of the powder.
(b) When this white powder is mixed with water a hard solid mass is obtained. Write balanced
chemical equation for the change.
Answer. (a) Calcium sulphate hemihydrate (CaSO4 .1/2 H2O)
(b) CaSO4 .1/2 H2O + 3/2 H2O CaSO4. 2H2O
SA (3 MARK)
Q1. (a) Write the name given to bases that are highly soluble in water. Give an example.
(b) How is tooth decay related to pH? How can it be prevented?
(c) Why does bee sting cause pain and irritation? Rubbing of baking soda on the sting area gives
relief. How?
Answer. (a) Alkali, e.g., NaOH (Sodium hydroxide).
(b) Lower the pH more will be tooth decay. Acid reacts with Ca3 (PO4)2 and cause tooth decay.
It can be prevented by brushing teeth after every meal.
(c) It is due to formic acid. Sodium hydrogen carbonates (Baking soda) neutralizes formic acid
giving relief.
Q2. A white powder is added while baking breads and cakes to make them soft and fluffy. Write
the name of the powder. Name its main ingredients. Explain the function of each ingredient.
Write the chemical reaction-taking place when the powder is heated during baking.
Answer. Baking powder. It consists of sodium hydrogen carbonates and tartaric acid. Sodium
hydrogen carbonates gives CO2 that makes cake soft and fluffy. Tartaric acid neutralizes the
bitterness due to sodium carbonate produced.
2NaHCO3 (s) Na2CO3 (s) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
Q3. A student dropped few pieces of marble in dilute hydrochloric acid, contained in a test-tube.
The evolved gas was then passed through limewater. What change would be observed in
limewater? What will happen if excess of gas is passed through limewater? With the help of
balanced chemical equations for all the changes, explain the observations.
Answer. CaCO3 (s) + 2HCl (dilute) CaCl2 (s) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l)
Limewater turns milky due to liberation of CO2.
Ca (OH)2 (aq) + CO2 (g) CaCO3 (s) + H2O (l)
If excess of CO2 gas is passed through limewater, milkiness will disappear due to the formation
of Ca (HCO3)2 (aq) which is soluble in water.
CaCO3 (s) + CO2 (g) + H2O (l) Ca (HCO3)2 (aq)
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Q4. (a) Three acidic solutions A, B and C have pH = 0, 3 and 5 respectively.

(i) Which solution has highest concentration of H+ ions?
(ii) Which solution has the lowest concentration of H+ ions?
(b) How concentrated sulphuric acid can be diluted? Describe the process.
Answer: (a) (i) The solution having lower pH will have more hydrogen ion concentration. Hence,
solution ‘A’ will have highest H+ ion concentration.
(ii) Solution C’ i.e., pH = 5 has the lowest concentration of H+ ions.
(b) Mixing of an acid with water is called dilution. This process is highly exothermic and
therefore, acid is always added to the water not water to acid. The process for diluting
concentrated sulphuric acid is :
(i) Take about 10 mL of water in a beaker.
(ii) Add concentrated sulphuric acid dropwise to water and swirl the beaker slowly.
Q5. Identify the acid and the base from which sodium chloride is obtained. Which type of salt is
it? When is it called rock salt? How is rock salt formed?
Answer: Sodium chloride is obtained by the neutralisation of sodium hydroxide (base) with
hydrochloric acid (acid). It is a neutral salt. Common salt found in the form of solid deposits is
often brown in colour due to presence of impurities which is called rock salt. Rock salt is formed
by evaporation of salty water of inland lakes.
LSA(5 MARK)
Q1. (A) Write the chemical formula of Bleaching powder. How is bleaching powder prepared?
For what purpose is it used in drinking water?
(B) Compound P forms the enamel of teeth. It is the hardest substance of the body. It doesn’t
dissolve in water but gets corroded when the pH is lowered below 5.5.
(i) Identify the compound P.
(ii) How does it undergo damage due to eating chocolate and sweets? What should we do to
prevent tooth decay?
Answer (A) The chemical formula of bleaching powder is CaOCl 2.
It is prepared by the action of chlorine gas on dry slaked lime Ca(OH) 2.
Ca(OH)2+ Cl2------→ CaOCl2+H2O
The chlorine used in the above reaction is the by-product produced during the electrolysis of
brine. It is used in disinfecting drinking water as chlorine liberated by it, kills the germs.
(B) (i) The compound P is calcium phosphate
(ii) Eating chocolates and sweets produce large amount of acid in the mouth, which is
not completely neutralised by the saliva produced in the mouth. Excess acid attacks the enamel
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
and tooth decay start as pH of the mouth falls below 5.5. The best way to prevent tooth decay
is to clean the teeth by using toothpastes after eating food. Toothpastes, which are generally
basic, neutralise the excess acid in the mouth
Q2.(A) Shreya prepares HCl gas in her school laboratory using certain chemicals. She puts both
dry and wet blue litmus papers in contact with the gas.
(i) Name the reagents used by Shreya to prepare HCl gas.
(ii) State the colour changes observed with the dry and wet blue litmus papers.
(B) On diluting an acid, it is advised to add acid to water and not water to acid. Explain why it is
advised so? (i) Test the gas evolved first with dry and then with wet litmus paper. In
which of the two cases, does the litmus paper show change in colour?
(ii) State the reason of exhibiting acidic character by dry HCl gas/HCl solution.
Answer: (A) (i) hydrogen chloride gas are evolved on heating solid sodium chloride with conc
sulphuric acid.
(ii)There is no change in the colour of ‘dry’ blue litmus paper but ‘moist’ blue litmus paper turns
red if brought near the mouth of the test tube.
(B) (i) when litmus is wet.
(ii)This shows that HCl gas does not show acidic behaviour in absence of water but it shows
acidic behaviour in presence of water. Diluting a concentrated acid with water is a highly
exothermic process. So, when water is added to concentrated acid, large amounts of heat is
liberated which changes some water to steam explosively which can splash the acid and even
the glass apparatus may break due to excessive heating.
Q3. (A) A cloth strip dipped in onion juice is used for testing a liquid ‘X. The liquid ‘X changes its
odour. Which type of an indicator is onion juice? The liquid ‘X turns blue litmus red. List the
observations the liquid ‘X will show on reacting with the following:
(a) Zinc granules
(b) Solid sodium carbonate
Write the chemical equations for the reactions involved.
(B) Name two chemical indicators
Answer: (A)Onion juice is an olfactory indicator. Olfactory indicators give one type of odour in
acidic medium and a different odour in basic medium. As the liquid ‘X’ turns blue litmus red,
hence it is an acidic solution.
(a) Acids react with active metals such as zinc, magnesium etc. and evolve hydrogen gas, for
example,
Zn(s) dil.H2SO4(aq) → ZnSO4H2(g).
(b) Acids react with metal carbonates to give carbon dioxide with brisk effervescence.
For example, Na2CO3 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + CO2 + H2O
(B) Phenolphthalein, Methyl orange
Q4. (A) What is observed when carbon dioxide gas is passed through limewater
(i) For a short duration?
(ii) For a long duration?
Also, write the chemical equations for the reactions involved.
(B) During summer season, a milkman usually adds a small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
Give reason.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Answer (A) (i) When CO2 is passed through lime water for short interval of time, it turns milky
due to the formation of insoluble calcium carbonate.
(ii)If CO2 is passed for long duration through limewater, the white precipitate formed dissolves
due to the formation of soluble calcium hydrogen carbonate and the solution becomes clear.
(B) A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to prevent spoilage of milk. It leads to
change in the pH that does not allow bacteria and enzymes to act and milk does not become
sour due to fermentation
Q5.(A) (i) Write the name given to bases that are highly soluble in water. Give an example.
(ii) How is tooth decay related to pH? How can it be prevented?
(iii) Why does bee sting cause pain and irritation? Rubbing of baking soda on the sting
area gives relief. How?
(B) A white powder is added while baking breads and cakes to make them soft and fluffy.
Write the name of the powder. Name its main ingredients. Explain the function of each
ingredient. Write the chemical reaction-taking place when the powder is heated during
baking.
Answer: (A) (i) Alkali, for example, NaOH (Sodium hydroxide).

(ii) Lower the pH, more will be tooth decay. Acid formed in the mouth reacts with enamel which
is made up of [Ca3(PO4)2] and causes tooth decay.
It can be prevented by brushing our teeth after every meal.
(iii) A bee injects formic acid into the skin when it stings which causes pain and irritation. Sodium
hydrogen carbonate (baking soda) neutralises formic acid giving relief.
(B) The white powder is known as baking powder. The main ingredients are baking soda
(NaHCO3) and tartaric acid (C4H6O6).
CASE STUDY QUESTIONS
CASE STUDY : 1
The reaction between carbon dioxide and calcium hydroxide (lime water), Calcium hydroxide,
which is a base, reacts with carbon dioxide to produce a salt and water. Since this is similar to
the reaction between a base and an acid, we can conclude that non-metallic oxides are acidic
in nature.
Based on the above paragraph answer the following questions:
i) What is the nature of Carbon dioxide?
Ans: It is a non- metallic oxide as carbon belongs to non- metals group
ii) Give another reaction of non- metallic oxide and a base?
Ans: CO2(g) + 2NaOH(aq)→ Na2CO3 (aq) + H2O(aq)
iii) Arrange the following bases in increasing order: NaOH, Ca(OH)2 & Mg(OH)2 .
Ans: Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < NaOH.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
iv) Write the complete reaction between calcium hydroxide and carbon dioxide with physical
states?
Ans: Ca(OH)2 (aq) + CO2 (g) → CaCO3 (s) + H2O(l)
v) What is the nature of non- metallic oxide?
Ans: The non- metallic oxide are acidic in nature because when they dissolved in water, they
form acidic substance turning blue litmus into red.
CASE STUDY : 2
Plaster of Paris
On heating gypsum at 373 K, it loses water molecules and becomes calcium sulphate
hemihydrate (CaSO4 ½ H2O). This is called Plaster of Paris. Plaster of Paris is a white powder
and on mixing with water, it changes to gypsum once again giving a hard solid mass.
Water of crystallisation is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit of a
salt. Five water molecules are present in one formula unit of copper sulphate. Chemical formula
for hydrated copper sulphate is Cu SO 4 . 5H2O. Now you would be able to answer the question
whether the molecule of Na2CO3. 10H2O is wet.
Answer the following questions on the basis of the above paragraph:
i) What is the molecular formula of gypsum?

Ans: CaSO4. 2H2O
ii) Write the equation of formation of plaster of paris by heating gypsum?
Ans: CaSO4. 2H2O + heat---------------→ CaSO4. 1/2 H2O + 1^1/2 H2O
iii) What are the uses of Plaster of Paris?
Ans: It is used by doctor for supporting of fractured bones, to make toys etc.
iv) Give the equation when POP is mixed with water?
Ans: CaSO4. 1/2H2O + 1 ½ H2O CaSO 4. 2H2O
CASE STUDY: 3
A scale for measuring hydrogen ion concentration in a solution, called pH scale has been
developed. The p in pH stands for ‘potenz’ in German, meaning power. On the pH scale we can
measure pH generally from 0 (very acidic) to 14 (very alkaline). pH should be thought of simply
as a number which indicates the acidic or basic nature of a solution. Higher the hydronium ion
concentration, lower is the pH value.
Answer the following on the basis of above paragraph:
i) What does the scale represent when pH value increases from 7 to 14?
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Ans: It represents an increase in OH- ions concentration in the solution i.e the increment in the
strength of alkali.
ii) What is the pH value of milk of magnesia?
Ans: It is 10.
iii) What are the important of pH in everyday life?
Ans: We human beings, plants and animals all are sensitive to pH i.e their body work on normal
pH such as plants grow between the pH range of 6 to 8. Our human body work within the pH
range of 7 to 7.8.
iv) What happens when the pH of mouth is lower than 5.5?
Ans: Tooth decay starts in which the enamel gets corroded due to the much production of acids
in mouth by bacteria.
V) Two solutions X&Y. The pH of X is 4 and the pH of Y is 7. What is the nature of X and Y
Ans: X is ACIDIC. Y is NEUTRAL
ASSERTION REASONING
The following questions consists of two statements- Assertion (A) and Reason(R).
Answer these questions selecting appropriate option given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A) – Carbonic acid is weak acid.
Reason (R) – It ionized completely in aqueous solution.
Answer c) A is true but R is false
2. Assertion (A) – The aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not show acidic character.
Reason (R) – Aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not give H+ ions.
Answer (a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
3. Assertion (A) : The acid must always be added to water with constant stirring.
Reason (R) : Mixing of an acid with water decreases the concentration of H+ ions per unit
volume.
Answer (b)
4. Assertion (A) : The aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not show acidic character.
Reason (R) : Aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not give H+ ions.
32
SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Answer (a)
5. Assertion (A) : Weak acids have low electrical conductivity.
Reason (R) : Strong acids and weak acids have equal concentration of hydrogen ions in their
solutions.
Answer (c)
6. Assertion (A): Pure water is neither acidic nor basic.
Reason (R) : The pH of a solution is inversely proportional to the concentration of hydrogen
ions in it.
Answer (b)
7. Assertion (A) : Baking powder is used in making cake instead of using only baking soda.
Reason (R) : Baking powder contains tartaric acid which reacts with sodium carbonate and
removes bitter taste.
Answer (a)
8. Assertion (A) : The chemical formula of bleaching powder is CaOCI.

Reason (R) : Calcium oxide reacts with chlorine to form bleaching powder.
Answer (c)
9. Assertion : HCl is a stronger acid than acetic acid.
Reason: On dissociation, HCl yields lesser hydrogen ions for the same concentration as
compared to acetic
acid.
Answer: (c) On dissociation, HCl yields more hydrogen ions for the same concentration as
compared to acetic acid.
10. Assertion : Antacids neutralize the effect of extra acid produced in the stomach during
indigestion and thus provide relief.
Reason: Antacids are mild base
33
SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Carbon and compound

MIND MAP
PROPERTIES AND VESATILE
NATURE OF CARBON HYDROCARBONS (COMPOUND OF CARBON AND
➢ Always form covalent HYDROGEN)
compounds Saturated hydrocarbon
➢ Tetravalent- capable to Alkane- C-C ( Single bond),formula- (CnH2n+2)
bind with four other
Unsaturated hydrocarbon
atoms.
➢ Major allotropes-diamond, Alkene- C=C (Double bond) formula-( CnH2n)
graphite and fullerenes Alkyne (Triple bond) , formula-( CnH2n-2)
➢ Catenation- self linking of
carbon atoms and forming Name of IUPAC NAME
long carbon chain compounds
➢ It can also form chain, Alkene Alkane – ane + ene = Alkene
branched and ring
Alkyne Alkane – ane + yne = Alkyne
structure
Haloalkanes Halo + Alkane = Haloalkane
CARBON AND ITS COMPOUND Alcohols Alkane – e + ol = Alkanol
Aldehydes Alkane – e + al = Alkanal
Ketone Alkane – e + one = Alkanone
Carboxylic acid Alkane –e + oic acid = Alkanoic acid
CHEMICAL PROPERTIES OF
COMPOUNDS
OXIDATION- COMBUSTION- It is a ADDITION- Substitution reaction-

addition of process of burning of a Unsaturated
Oxygen substance in presence of hydrocarbons react One or more atom of
oxygen /air and form CO2 with hydrogen in hydrogen are replaced
e.g. and H2O AND heat. presence of catalyst by some other atoms.
give saturated
C + O2→ CO2 CH4 +2O2 →CO2 +2H2O CH4 + Cl2 →CH3Cl
hydrocarbons.
+HCl(in presence of
CH2=CH2 +H2 → sunlight)
C2H6
ETHANOL-
ETHANOIC ACID-Colourless, pungent smelling liquid, soluble in
• Colourless, burning taste, soluble in water, water
neutral to litmus Reaction with sodium carbonate-
• Reaction with sodium- 2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 →2CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O
2CH3CH2OH + Na→ CH3CH2ONa + H2 • Reaction with sodium Bicarbonate-
• Reaction with conc. H2SO4 === CH3COOH + NaHCO3 →CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O
CH3CH2OH → C2H4 + H2O ( In presence • Esterification-
of conc. H2SO4) CH3COOH + CH3CH2OH →CH3COO CH2 CH3+ H2O
• Combustion (in presence of conc. H2SO4)
CH3CH2OH +O2 →2CO2 + 2H2O + Heat • Hydrolysis-
CH3COO CH2 CH3→ CH3COOH + CH3CH2OH(in
presence of NaOH)
34
SCIENCE (CLASS X)
SOAPS- Sodium salts (or potassium salts) of the long

chain carboxylic acids.
• Not suitable for washing in hard water
DETERGENTS-Sodium salts of long chain benzene sulphonic acids. The ionic group in a detergent SO3-
Na+. Detergents can be used for washing even when water is hard.
(QUICK REVIEW)
1. Carbon exists both in crystalline and amorphous allotropic forms-diamond, graphite and
fullerenes.
• Diamond-carbon is bonded to four other atoms of carbon forming three-

dimensional structures. It is the hardest substance and an insulator. It is used for
drilling rocks and cutting. It is also used for making jewellery.
Graphite: In this, each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms. It is a
good conductor of electricity and used as a lubricant. Buckminster Fullerene: It is
an allotrope of the carbon-containing cluster of 60 carbon atoms joined together to
form spherical molecules.
2. Versatile Nature of Carbon: Catenation and Tetravalent nature.
• The self linking property of carbon through covalent bonds to form long straight,
branched and rings of different sizes are called Catenation. It is due to The small
size of the carbon atom and great strength of the carbon-carbon bond.
• Tetravalent Nature: Carbon has valency of four. It is capable of bonding with four
other atoms of carbon or some other heteroatoms with single covalent bond as well
as double or triple bond.
3.Electron Dot Structure of Hydrocarbons
35
SCIENCE (CLASS X)
4-Isomerism: Compounds having the same molecular formula but different structural formula
and properties are known as Isomers and this phenomenon is known as Isomerism.
Structural isomerism-Butane(C4H10)
Homologous Series: Series of organic compounds having the same functional group and
chemical properties and successive members differ by a CH2 unit or 14 mass units are known
as Homologous series.
Chemical Properties of Carbon Compounds: The important chemical properties are as
follows:
1. Combustion: The complete combustion of carbon compounds in the air gives carbon dioxide
water, heat and light.
CH3CH2OH(l) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + H2O(l) + Heat and light
2-Oxidation: Oxidation of ethanol in presence of oxidizing agents gives ethanoic acid.
Oxidizing Agent: Example: Alkaline KMnO4 (or KMnO4—KOH)

Acidified K2Cr2O7 (or K2Cr2O7—H2SO4
3-Addition Reaction: Addition of dihydrogen with unsaturated hydrocarbon in the presence of
catalysts such as nickel or platinum or palladium are known as Hydrogenation (addition)
reaction.
4. Substitution Reaction: Replacement of one or more hydrogen atom of an organic molecule
by another atom or group of the atom is known as Substitution Reaction.
NOMENCLATURE:-
36
SCIENCE (CLASS X)
S. Functional
Prefix Suffix
No. Group
1. Double bond (=) — ene
2. Triple bond (≡) — yne
3. Chlorine (—Cl) Chloro —
4. Bromine (—Br) Bromo —
5. Alcohol (-OH) — ol
Aldehyde (-
6. — al
CHO)
7. Ketone (-CO-) — one
Carboxylic acid
8. — oic acid
(-COOH)
Some Important Carbon Compounds:

1- Ethanol (CH3CH2—OH): Commonly known as Ethyl Alcohol
Physical Properties and chemical properties
Reaction with sodium and Reaction with concentrated
H2SO4 (Dehydration Reaction)
Dehydrating agent: Substances which removes water from ethanol (alcohols) is known as
Dehydrating agent. For example; Cone. H2SO4.
Uses: As solvent, as antiseptic (tincture iodine), as anti-freeze in automobiles.
2- Ethanoic Acid (CH3COOH): Commonly known as Acetic acid. 5-8% of ethanoic acid in water
is called Vinegar. The melting point of pure ethanoic acid is 290 K(very low) and hence, it often
freezes in cold climate so named as glacial acetic acid.
Physical Properties and chemical properties
Esterification Reaction: Reaction of ethanoic acid with an alcohol in the presence of a few
drops of conc. H2SO4 as catalyst gives a sweet-smelling substance known as Esters.
Esterification Reaction: Reaction of ethanoic acid with an alcohol in the presence of a few
drops of conc. H2SO4 as catalyst gives a sweet-smelling substance known as Esters
(ii) Reaction with Carbonates and Hydrogen Carbonates:
Uses: as vinegar and as raw material for the preparation of esters.
Soap: Sodium or potassium salts of long chain fatty acids is called Soap.
Detergent: Ammonium and sulphonate salts of long chain fatty acids are called Detergent.
Hard and Soft Water: Water that does not produce lather with soap readily is called Hard water
and which produces lather with soap is called Soft Water.
Hardness of water is due to the presence of bicarbonates, chlorides and sulphate salt of calcium
and magnesium.
37
SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Cleansing Action of Soaps and Detergents: Both soaps and detergents contain two parts. A
long hydrocarbon part which is hydrophobic (water repelling) in nature and a short ionic part
which is hydrophillic (water attracting) in nature.
The hydrocarbon part of the soap molecule links itself to the oily (dirt) drop and ionic end
orients itself towards water and forms a spherical structure called micelles. The soap micelles
help in dissolving the dirt in water and wash our clothes.
SECTION-A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. A student studies that soap solution results in micelle formation which helps to
remove dirt. It has a unique orientation which helps in keeping the dirt out of the water
as shown in the image.
What helps the dirt to rise away?

(a) suspension of the dirt in the micelles
(b) a collection of water molecules in the centre of the micelle
(c) attraction between the ionic end and the dirt to remove it
(d) mixing of the soap molecules along with the dirt to make it heavier
Correct Answer: Option (a)
2. Which of the following is the molecular formula of cyclobutane?
a)C4H10
b) C4H6
c) C4H8
d) C4H4
Correct Answer: Option (c)
3.The image represents a chemical reaction where ethanol is oxidised using potassium
dichromate and sulphuric acid.
Which option represents the product “X”?

(a) CH2O
(b) CH3CH
(c) CH3H2O
(d) CH3COOH
Correct Answer: Option (d)
4. The chemical reaction shows the addition of chlorine gas to hydrocarbon in the
presence of sunlight.
CHCl3 + Cl2 → CCl4 + HCl
How does chlorine react to a hydrocarbon compound in the presence of sunlight?
38
SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(a) it adds hydrogen into the compound

(b) it adds an oxygen atom into the compound
(c) it substitutes hydrogen atom from the compound
(d) it breaks double and triple bonds into a single bond
5. A student studies that vinegar, which is a diluted form of ethanoic acid, freezes during
winter. What does this suggest about the physical properties of pure ethanoic acid?
(a) it has a low boiling point
(b) it has a low melting point
(c) it has a very high boiling point
(d) it has a very high melting point
Correct Answer: Option (b)
6. A student studies that a soap molecule has two ends, one of which is an ionic end and
the other is the carbonic chain. Which option explains the interaction of a soap molecule
with oil?
(a) ionic end of the soap interacts with the oil
(b) the closest end of the soap interacts with the oil
(c) carbonic chain end of the soap interacts with the oil
(d) ends of the soap randomly interact with the oil
7. The image represents a carbon compound.
Which functional group is present in the compound?

(a) alcohol
(b) aldehyde
(c) carboxylic acid
(d) ketone
8.
(a) 2-ethyl-2-methyl propane

(b) 2, 2-demethyl butane
(c) 1,1,1-trimethyl propane
(d) 2, 2-methyl butane
10. Which of the following will give a pleasant smell of ester when heated with ethanol and a
small quantity of sulphuric acid?
(a) CH3COOH
(b) CH3CH2OH
(c) CH3OH
(d) CH3CHO
39
SCIENCE (CLASS X)

11. Which of the following will undergo addition reactions?
(a) CH4
(b) C3H8
(C) C2H6
(d) C2H4
12. The I.U.P.A.C name of CH3CH2CH=CH2 is?
a) 3-Butene
b) Prop-1-ene
c) But-1-ene
d) Butyne
13. Which of the following statements about graphite and diamond is true?
a) They have the same crystal structure
b) They have the same degree of hardness
c) They have the same electrical conductivity
d) They can undergo the same chemical reactions

14. Which of the following substance produces brisk effervescence with baking soda solution?
a) Ethanoic acid
b) Table salt
c) Vinegar
d) Sunflower oil
15. Which of the following belongs to homologous series of alkynes?

C6H6, C2H6, C2H4, C3H4.
(a) C6H6
(b) C2H4
(C) C2H6
(d) C3H4
16. Following is (are) the property(ies) of ionic compounds.
(a) They have high melting and boiling points
(b) They conduct electricity in solution or in molten state
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
17. Several factories were pouring their wastes in rivers A and B. Water samples were collected
from these two rivers. It was observed that sample collected from river A was acidic while that
of river B was basic. The factories located near A and B are
(a) Soaps and detergents factories near A and alcohol distillery near B.
(b) Soaps and detergents factories near B and alcohol distillery near A.
(c) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near A and soaps and detergents factories
40
SCIENCE (CLASS X)
near B.
(d) Lead storage battery manufacturing factories near B and soaps and detergents factories
near A.
The questions given below consist of an assertion and the reason. Use the following key
to choose the appropriate answer.
• (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
• (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the
• (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
• (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
18. Assertion: Ethanoic acid liberates hydrogen with Sodium metal.
Reason: More reactive sodium displaces hydrogen from ethanoic acid.
Answer – (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
19. Assertion:In a homologous series of alcohols, the formula for the second number isC2H5OH
and the third number is C3H7OH.
Reason:The difference between the molecular masses of the two consecutive members of a
homologous series is 144.
Answer – (c) ) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
20. Assertion: Esterification is a process in which a sweet-smelling substance is produced.

Reason: When esters react with sodium hydroxide an alcohol and sodium salt of carboxylic
acid are obtained.
Answer – (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the
21. Assertion (A): Ethanoic acid is also known as glacial acetic acid.
Reason (R) : The melting point of pure ethanoic acid is 290 K and hence it often freezes during
winters in cold climates.(2020)
Answer – (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
22.Assertion: During the reaction esterification esters are produced.

Reason: Esters are sweet smelling compounds.
Answer – (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the
SECTION-B
(SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS CARRY 2 OR 3 MARKS)
1. Name the reaction which is commonly used in the conversion of vegetable oils to fats.
Explain the reaction involved in detail. ( CBSE 2015)
41
SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Answer:
An addition reaction is used in the conversion of vegetable oils to fats. It is known as the
hydrogenation of oil. An addition reaction is carried out in the presence of Ni as a catalyst.
2. Gas is evolved when ethanol reacts with sodium. Name the gas evolved and write the
balanced chemical equation of the reaction involved.
Answer: Hydrogen gas is evolved when ethanol reacts with sodium.
2 Na + 2 CH3CH2OH → 2 CH3CH2ONa + H2
3. How would you bring about the following conversions? Name the process and write
the reaction. (2020)
(a) Ethanol to Ethene.
(b) Propanol to Propanoic acid.
OR
A compound ‘X’ on heating with excess conc. Sulphuric acid at 443 K gives an
unsaturated compound ’Y’. compound ‘X’ also reacts with sodium metal to evolve a
colourless gas ‘Z’. Identify ‘ X’, ’Y ‘ and ‘Z’. Write the chemical reaction of formation of Y
and also write the role of sulphuric acid in the reaction. (2018,2016)
Answer: (a) Ethanol is heated at 443 K in the presence of an excess of conc. Sulphuric acid.
This reaction is known as dehydrogenation.
CH3CH2OH + Conc. H2SO4 → CH2 = CH2 + H2O.
(b) Propanol is treated with alkaline potassium permanganate or acidified potassium dichromate
to get propanoic acid.
CH3CH2CH2OH + Alkaline KMnO4 / Acidified K2Cr2O7 → CH3CH2COOH
OR
Ans - refer to ans. of question 2 and ans. 3(a)
4.Draw the possible isomers of the compound with the molecular formula C 3H6O and give
their electron dot structures.
Answer: The two possible isomers of the compound with the molecular formula C2H6O are
Electron dot structures of the compound with the molecular formula C 2H6O are
42
SCIENCE (CLASS X)
5.Give reasons for the following:( CBSE 2020)

(i) Element carbon forms compounds mainly by covalent bonding.
(ii) Diamond has high melting point.
(iii) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
Answer: (i) As carbon has four valence electrons and it can neither loose nor gain four electrons
thus, it attains noble gas configuration only by sharing of electrons., it forms covalent
compounds.
(ii) In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms forming a rigid three-
dimensional structure. This makes diamond the hardest known substance. Thus, it has high
melting point.
(iii) In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms by covalent bonds in
the same plane giving a hexagonal array. Thus, only three valence electrons are used for bond
formation and hence, the fourth valence electron is free to move. As a result, graphite is a good
conductor of electricity.
6. State the reason why carbon can neither form C4+ cations nor C4- anions, but forms
covalent compounds. Also state reasons to explain why covalent compounds: (CBSE
FOREGIN 2017)
(i) are bad conductors of electricity?
(ii) have low melting and boiling points?
Answer: If carbon forms ionic bonds by gaining four electrons to attain a noble gas
configuration, then it would be difficult for six protons in the nucleus to hold ten electrons and If
carbon forms ionic bonds by loss of four electrons then it would require a lot of energy to
remove these electrons from outermost shell.
(i)Covalent compounds are generally poor conductors ol electricity because they do not have
free electrons or ions.
(ii)the forces of attraction between molecules of covalent compounds are very weak. On applying
a small amount of heat these molecular forces break.
7.(I) Write the name and structure of an aldehyde with four carbon atoms in its molecule.
(AI2016)
(II) Write the molecular formula of first two members of homologous series having
functional group -OH. (DELHI 2017)
(iii) Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous series having general
formula CnH2n (CBSE 2017)
(IV) Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of butane, C 4H10. (CBSE
MARKING SCHEME)
43
SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Answer: (i) An aldehyde with four carbon atoms is butanal and its structure is.
(ii) CH3OH and CH3CH2OH.

(iii) C2H4
(IV) Total number of covalent bonds is 13 in which there are 10 C – H and 3 C – C covalent.
8. Carbon, a member of group 14, forms a large number of carbon compounds estimated
to be about three million. Explain the reason and Why is this property not exhibited by
other elements of this group? Explain. (CBSE 2020)
Answer: Carbon forms a large number of carbon compounds like long chains which may be
straight or branched chains or ring of different sizes due to its tetravalency had unique property
of catenation Because element-element bond energies decrease.
9. Define the term structural isomerism’. Explain why propane cannot exhibit this
property. Draw the structures of possible isomers of butane, C 4H10. (AI 2011)
Answer: Definition of isomerism, there is no possible isomers for propane as it contains three
carbon atoms and it is not possible to have different arrangements of these carbon atoms.
Draw two isomeric structures of butane.
10. Complete the following chemical equations (Delhi 2017)
(i)CH3COOH + NaHCO3 →
(ii) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH →
Answer: given above
11. Write two differences between covalent compounds and ionic compounds. (CBSE
FOREIGN 2017)
Answer:
Properties Ionic compound Covalent compound
Electrical They conduct electricity They cannot conduct electricity

conductivity
Bonding By donating the electron to By sharing of electrons between two

other atoms (strong bond) atoms (comparatively weak bond)
SECTION-C
(PARAGRAPH AND CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS CARRY 4 AND 5 MARKS)
1.A salt X is formed, and gas is evolved when ethanoic acid reacts with sodium hydrogen
carbonate. Name the salt X and the gas evolved. Describe an activity and draw the
diagram of the apparatus to prove that the evolved gas is the one you have named. Also,
write a chemical equation of the reaction involved
44
SCIENCE (CLASS X)
OR
2.Look at Figure 4.1 and answer the following questions
(a ) What change would you observe in the calcium hydroxide solution taken in tube B?
(b ) Write the reaction involved in test tubes A and B.
(c ) Would you expect the same change if ethanol is given instead of ethanoic acid?
Answer: The salt X is sodium ethanoate (CH3COONa), and the evolved gas is carbon dioxide
(CO2).
(a ) Calcium hydroxide solution in test tube B will become milky due to the formation of calcium
carbonate.
(b ) Reaction in test tube A: CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O
Reaction in test tube B: Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O
(c ) If ethanol is given instead of ethanoic acid, similar changes won’t be observed because
ethanol does not react with sodium hydrogen carbonate.
3. An organic compound ‘P’ is a constituent of wine. ‘P’ on reacting with acidified
K2Cr2O7 forms another compound ‘Q’. When a piece of sodium is added to ‘Q’, a gas ‘R’
evolves which burns with a pop sound. Identify P, Q and R and write the chemical
equations of the reactions involved.(CBSE FOREGIN 2017)
Answer: P’ is ethanol which is a constituent of wine. Ethanol on reacting with acidified potassium
dichromate (K2Cr2O7) solution gives ethanoic acid ‘Q’.
CH3CH2OH + Acidified K2Cr2O7 → CH3COOH
When a piece of sodium is added to ethanoic acid then sodium salt of ethanoic acid is formed
with the liberation of hydrogen gas which burns with a pop sound.
4. (a) You have three unlabelled test tubes containing ethanol, ethanoic acid and soap
solution. Explain the method you would use to identify the compounds in different test
tubes by chemical tests using litmus paper and sodium metal. (CBSE FOREGIN 2017)
(b) Give the reason of formation of scum when soaps are used with hard water.
Answer: (a)
Red litmus
s.no. Solution Blue litmus paper Sodium Metal
paper
45
SCIENCE (CLASS X)
1. Ethanol No change No change Hydrogen gas

2. Ethanoic acid Turns red No change Hydrogen gas
3. Soap solution No change Turns blue No reaction
(b) Hard water contains hydrogen carbonates, chlorides and sulphates of calcium and
magnesium. When soap is added to hard water scum is formed due to the formation of insoluble
calcium or magnesium salts of fatty acids.
5.Why are certain compounds called hydrocarbons? Write the general formula for
homologous series of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes and also draw the structure of the
first member of each series. Draw electron dot structure of of methane molecule.( CBSE
MARKING SCHEME)
Answer: hydrocarbons (compound of carbon and hydrogen)

Saturated hydrocarbon
Alkane- C-C ( Single bond),formula- (CnH2n+2)
Unsaturated hydrocarbon
Alkene- C=C (Double bond) formula-( CnH2n)
Alkyne (Triple bond) , formula-( CnH2n-2)
(Methane)
6-Write the molecular formula of benzene and cyclohexane and mention type and no. of
bond. Draw the structure of benzene and cyclohexane.( CBSE FOREIGN 2017, CBSE
2022)
Answer: molecular formula of benzene- C6H6 ( 3 C=C BOND, 3 C-C bond and 6 C-H bond)
molecular formula of cyclohexane- C6H12 (6 C-C bond and 12 C-H bond )
Cyclohexane Benzene
46
SCIENCE (CLASS X)
MIND MAP- LIFE PROCESS
AUTOTROPHIC HETROTROPHIC
NUTRITION
NUTRITION NUTRITION
PHOTOSYNTHESIS- Raw materials are CO2

AND Water and product of the process is THREE TYPES- Holozoic ( amoeba and animals),
carbohydrates and O2. Steps:- Saprophytic(fungi),and parasitic(cascuta).
• Absorption of light energy by • Nutrition in amoeba
chlorophyll. • Digestion in humans
• Conversion of light energy to
chemical energy and splitting of
water into H2 and O2.
• Reduction Of CO2 to form glucose.
RESPIRATION- Process of producing energy in living

organisms. There are two modes of respiration:-
LIFE PROCESS
CIRCULATION IN HUMANS-Transportaion of
materials takes place through blood and
lymph. Blood flow through vessels
(veins,arteries and capillaries) and heart.
✓ Heart four chambered and separated Human respiratory system and breathing mechanishm-
with septum , blood circulated two time Inhalation, gaseous exchange( in lungs of CO2 and O2 through
in heart (double circulation). alveoli) and exhalation.
✓ Circulation in fishes and amphibians.
EXCRETION IN HUMANS-The process of removal of

metabolic wastes. Kidney remove wastes like urea (produced
TRANSPORTATION IN PLANTS- By xylem in liver). Nephron is the structural and functional unit of
(carries water and mineralsfrom roots to kidney. The urine formation involves three steps: Glomerular
leaves) and phloem(carries food from leaf to filtration, tubular re-absorption and secretion.
other parts ) Hemodialysis is the process of purifying blood by an artificial
kidney.
47
SCIENCE (CLASS X)
QUICK REVIEW
• Life Process: -Nutrition, respiration, circulation, and excretion are examples of essential life
processes. In unicellular organisms, all these processes are carried out by a single cell and
In multicellular organisms, well-developed systems are present.
NUTRITION- AUTOTROPHIC-
• Photosynthesis-The plants make food using sunlight and water, Chlorophyll present in
the green parts absorbs light energy is used to split water into hydrogen and oxygen.
Hydrogen is then used to reduce carbon dioxide into carbohydrates. The overall reaction
occurring in photosynthesis is as follows:
6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2
• Stomata-Stomata are pores on the leaves that help in the exchange of gases. Each
stoma is guarded by guard cells, which control the opening and closing of the pore.
HETROTROPHIC
• Nutrition in Amoeba-Amoeba feeds by holozoic mode of nutrition.
• It engulfs the food particle using pseudopodia, engulfed food gets enclosed in a food
vacuole, where digestion of food takes place.
• Nutrition in Humans-The digestive system has an alimentary canal and associated
digestive glands, which together function to nourish the body.
• The salivary glands open in the buccal cavity and pour saliva which initiates the process
of digestion. Salivary amalyse digest starch into sugar.
• The inner lining of the stomach secretes mucous, hydrochloric acid and digestive juices.
Hydrochloric acid helps in the partial digestion of proteins and also kills harmful bacteria.
Mucous protect the wall of stomach from the acid and enzyme Pepsin breakdown the
protein into simpler protein.
• Small Intestine: It is a highly coiled tube-like structure. The small intestine is longer than
the large intestine. Liver: Liver is the largest gland in the human body. The liver
manufactures bile, which gets stored in the gall bladder.
• Large Intestine absorb excess of water. The rest of the material is removed from the body
via the anus. (Egestion).
• RESPIRATION:- Respiration is an oxidation reaction in which carbohydrate is oxidized to
produce energy. Mitochondria is the site of respiration and the energy released is stored in
the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate).
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
• Respiration involves
o Gaseous exchange: Intake of oxygen from the atmosphere and release of CO 2 →
Breathing.
o Breakdown of simple food in order to release energy inside the cell → Cellular
respiration
o Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration:-
Human respiratory system – The human respiratory system is composed of a pair of

lungs. These are attached to a system of tubes which open on the outside through the
nostrils. Structures in the human respiratory system:-Larynx: This part comes after the
pharynx. This is also called voice box. Trachea: This is composed of rings of cartilage.
Cartilaginous rings prevent the collapse of trachea in the absence of air. Bronchi: A pair of
bronchi comes out from the trachea, with one bronchus going to each lung. Alveoli: These
are air sacs at the end of bronchioles. The alveolus is composed of a very thin membrane
and is the place where blood capillaries open. The exchange of gases, in alveoli, takes
place due to the pressure differential.
• Breathing Mechanism: - When the diaphragm moves down, the lungs expand and the
air is inhaled .When the diaphragm moves up, the lungs contract and air are exhaled.
• Fishes take in oxygen which is dissolved in water through gills. Since, availability of
oxygen is less in the aquatic environment, so the breathing rate of aquatic organisms is
faster.
Transportation in Human Beings: The circulatory system is responsible for transport of

various substances in human beings. It is composed of the heart, arteries, veins and blood
capillaries. Blood plays the role of the carrier of substances.
Double circulation ensures complete segregation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
which is necessary for optimum energy production in warm-blooded animals. Arteries:
These are thick-walled blood vessels which carry oxygenated blood from the heart to
different organs and Veins are thin-walled blood vessels which carry deoxygenated blood
from different organs to the heart, Valves are present in veins to prevent back flow of blood.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
• Lymph is formed from the fluid which leaks from blood capillaries and goes to the
intercellular space in the tissues. This fluid is collected through lymph vessels and finally
return to the blood capillaries. RBCs are absent in lymph and contain less proteins than
blood.and play important role in the immune system. Function: Lymph flows from the
tissues to the heart assisting in transportation and destroying germs.
• Transportation in plants: Plants have specialized vascular tissues for transportation of

substances. Xylem:- Transport water and minerals. It is composed of tracheids, xylem
vessels, xylem parenchyma and xylem fibre. Tracheids and xylem vessels are the
conducting elements. The xylem makes a continuous tube in plants which runs from roots
to stem and right up to the veins of leaves.Phloem: Phloem is responsible for
transportation of food. Phloem is composed of sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem
parenchyma and blast fibers. Sieve tubes are the conducting elements in phloem.Carries
product of photosynthesis from roots to other part of the plant.
Excretion in human beings: Many wastes are produced during various metabolic
activities and these need to be removed from body.human excretory system is
composed of a pair of kidneys, ureter comes out of each kidney and goes to the urinary
bladder .The kidney is composed of many filtering units, called nephrons. Nephron is called
the structural and functional unit of kidney. Nephron- composed of tubes and a filtering
part, called glomerulus. The glomerulus is a network of blood capillaries to which renal
artery is attached and enclosed capsule likeportion, called bowman’s capsule.
Urine formation in the kidney: The urine formation involves three steps:
• Glomerular filtration: Nitrogenous wastes, glucose, water, amino acid filter from the
blood into bowman’s capsule of the nephron.
• Tubular reabsorption: Now, useful substances from the filtrate are reabsorbed back by
capillaries surrounding the nephron.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Secretion: Extra water, salts are secreted into the tubule which opens up into the
collecting duct and then into the ureter.
Solved Paper With Previous Year Questions

Objective Type Questions
1. Which part of nephron allows the selective reabsorption of useful substances like glucose,
amino acids, salts and water into the blood capillaries?
(a) Tubule (b) Glomerulus (c) Bowman’s capsule(d) Ureter
Correct option (a)
2. The procedure used for cleaning the blood of a person by separating urea from it is called:
(a) osmosis (b) filtration (c) dialysis (d) double circulation
Correct option (c)
3.The image shows the excretory system in humans.
What is the importance of the labelled part in the excretory system?

(a) It produces urine.
(b) It filters waste from the blood.
(c) It stores the urine till urination.
(d) It carries urine from the kidney to the outside.
4.The image shows the transport of gases in the body through the heart and lungs.
Which option correctly shows the transport of oxygen to the cell?

(a) Lungs →pulmonary vein →left atrium →left ventricle →aorta → body cells
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(b) Lungs →pulmonary vein →right atrium →right ventricle → aorta → body cells
(c) Lungs →pulmonary artery →left atrium → left ventricle → vena cava → body cells
(d) Lungs →pulmonary artery →right atrium → right ventricle→ vena cava → body cells
5.How is food transported from phloem to the tissues according to plants’ needs?
(a) food is transported along with the water in the plant’s body.
(b) food is transported in only direction like water in the plant body through xylem.
(c) food is transported from a region with low concentration to higher concentration.
(d) food is transported from a region where it is produced to other parts of the plants.
6. One cell-thick vessels are called

. I. Arteries II. Veins III. Capillaries IV. Pulmonary artery
7. What prevents backflow of blood inside the heart during contraction?

(a) Valves in heart
(b) Thick muscular walls of ventricles
(c) Thin walls of atria
(d) All of the above
8. The extracellular fluid released from the capillaries is:
(a) serum
(b) plasma
(c) lymph
(d) mucus
9. In which of the following vertebrate group/groups, heart does not pump oxygenated blood to
different parts of the body?
(a) Pisces and amphibians
(b) Amphibians and reptiles
(c) Amphibians only
(d) Pisces only
10.A student performs an experiment using a Balsam plant with intact stem, leaves, roots and
flowers. The plant was kept in a test tube containing eosin solution (a pink colour dye). The test
tube mouth was covered using cotton plug as shown.
After 2-3 hours, a transverse section of stem was obtained. What does this observation
explain?
(a) Most portion of the plant stem is occupied by xylem.
(b) Water moves through xylem in the plant.
(c) Eosin solution gets stored in the xylem.
(d) Xylem reacts with eosin and gives colour.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
11. What is the direction of deoxygenated blood from right ventricle of the heart?
(a) towards the lungs.
(b) towards the left atrium of heart.
(c) towards the upper body.
(d) towards the lower body.
12. The vein which brings clean blood from the lungs into the heart is known as
(a) pulmonary vein
(b) hepatic vein
(c) superior vena cava
(d) pulmonary artery
Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
13. Assertion (A) : Bile is essential for digestion of lipids.
Reason (R) : Bile juice contains enzymes.
14.Assertion (A): Arteries are thick-walled and elastic in nature.
Reason (R) : Arteries have to transport blood away from the heart.
15. Assertion (A) : Human heart is four-chambered.
Reason (R) : Vena cava is the only artery that supplies deoxygenated blood to the heart.
16.Assertion (A) : In plants there is no need of specialised respiratory organs.
Reason (R) : Plants do not have great demands of gaseous exchange.
17.Assertion : Ureters are the tubes which carry urine from kidneys to the bladder.
Reason: Urine is stored in the urethra.
18.Assertion : Ventricles have thicker walls than auricles.
Reason: Ventricles have to pump blood into various organs with great pressure.
19.Assertion : Capillaries are the thinnest blood vessels.
Reason: Capillaries connect the branches of arteries and veins.
20.Assertion : The Bowman’s capsule and the tubule together make a nephron.
Reason : The function of tubule is to allow the selective reabsorption of substances like
glucose, amino
acids, urea, salts and water into the blood capillaries.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Short Answer Type Questions(2 & 3 Marks)
1. a) State the purpose of formation of urine.

(b) What will happen if there is no tubular reabsorption in the nephrons of kidney?
Answer: (a) Kidneys are the organs which remove the poisonous substance urea, other waste
salts and excess water from the blood and excrete them in the form of a yellowish liquid called
urine.
(b)the filtrate containing useful substances as well as the waste substances passes through the
tubule, the useful substances like glucose, amino acids, most salts and most water etc. are
reabsorbed into blood through blood capillaries surrounding the tubule. Therefore, reabsorption
in the nephrons of kidneys is important.
2.Leakage of blood from vessels reduces the efficiency of pumping system. How is leakage
prevented?
OR
What happens if conducting tubes of circulatory system develops a leak? State in brief how
could this be avoided?
Answer: Blood contains blood platelets. In the region of leakage, the platelets burst and release
thromboplastin. It helps in coagulation of blood and seal the place of leakage or injury
3.Give reason –
(i) The two ventricles have thicker muscular walls than the two atria in human heart.
(ii) The capillaries have walls which are one-celled thick.
Answer: (i) Atria are to receive blood from veins and pump the same into adjacent ventricles
only. They have, therefore, thin walls. Ventricles are to pump blood into arteries forcefully as it
is to be sent to lungs (right ventricle) and all parts of the body (left ventricle). Therefore, walls of
ventricles are thick and muscular with those of left ventricle being thicker.
(ii) Capillaries take part in exchange of materials (nutrients, wastes, gases) between blood and
tissue fluid.
4. “About 180 litre of filtrate is produced each day but only 1.5 litre of urine is excreted out.”
Justify this statement
Answer: Glomerular filtrate contains a lot of water and useful substances and lots of wastes. So,
selective reabsorption occurs in tubules. It involves reabsorption of glucose, amino acids, ions
and water in PCT and secretion of urea and other wastes from blood capillaries into urine in
DCT.
5. In single celled organisms, diffusion is sufficient to meet all their requirements of food,
exchange of gases or removal of wastes but it is not in case of multicellular organisms. Explain
the reason for this difference.
Answer: in most multicellular organisms, the body is covered by dead cells. Cell to cell diffusion
is unable to meet the requirement of all body cells. For example, in humans cell to cell diffusion
will take three .years to send oxygen from lungs to toes. Multicellular organisms have developed
specialised structures for performing different functions, e.g., digestive tract, respiratory surface,
excretory organs. These structures are connected to all body cells through a transport system,
e.g., circulatory system in animals, xylem and phloem in plants. The transport system is quite
fast to bring materials to and from the cells.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4&5 MARKS)
1. Describe the structure and function of nephron with the help of diagram.
Answer: Refer to the Tips notesOR
1.(a) Name the organs that form the excretory system in human beings.
(b) Describe in brief how urine is produced in human body.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Answer: (a) Excretory system (Urinary system) in human beings consists of a pair of kidneys, a
pair of ureters, urinary bladder and urethra.(b)Refer to the Tips notes
2.(a) Define excretion.

(b) Name the basic filtration unit present in the kidney.
(c) Draw excretory system in human beings and label the
following organs of excretory system which perform
following functions:(i) form urine
(ii) is a long tube which collects urine from kidney
(iii) store urine until it is passed out.
Answer: (a) The removal of wastes, produced during various

metabolic activities in the body .(b)Nephron(c ) (i) Kidney(ii)
Ureter(iii) Urinary bladder
3. (i) Identify any two parts from the given diagram

which carry oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
(ii) Explain the process of double circulation with the
help of a flow chart
Answer: (i) The pulmonary artery (labelled as C) carries
deoxygenated blood to the lungs and the pulmonary veins (labelled as F) carry oxygenated
blood from lungs back to the heart. (ii) Refer to the tip notes
4.(a) Write two water conducting tissues present in plants. How does water enter
continuously into the root xylem?
(b) Explain why plants have low energy needs as compared to animals.
Answer (a) Xylem tracheids and vessels are two water conducting tissues present in plants that
help in rapid movement of water. Minerals and water needed by the plants are absorbed by root
hairs from the soil by the process of osmosis and take in minerals by the process of diffusion.
Thus, a difference in concentration of ions is created between the roots and the soil which
enables the water to enter into roots and evaporation of water molecules from the cells of leaves
creates a suction pressure which pulls the water from xylem cells.
(b) Plants are autotrophic and do not have to move from one place to another in search of their
food. Movements in a plant are usually at the cellular level and hence they required less amount
of energy in compared to animals.
5.A person blood pressure level is 140/100 mmHg , Doctor said his blood pressure is high
and this condition is known as hypertension ,it means the blood flows with the force
against the artery walls and heart has to work harder to pump blood into the artery
because it increase the resistance of blood flow and this situation increases the pressure
inside the wall and it lead to the rupture of an artery and result will internal bleeding . it
also increase the risk of heart attack, stroke and other health issues. Doctor advised him
to avoid those things and habit which affecting his health.
(a)What is the normal range of blood pressure?
OR
Which device is Doctor used for measuring blood pressure?
(b) Write some differences between arteries and veins
(c) List some lifestyle factors that lead to hypertension(high blood pressure). OR How the human
body avoiding mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood and why it is important for us?
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Answer: (a)120/80 mmHg and sphygmomanometer

(b)
(c) Modifiable risk factors include unhealthy diets (excessive salt consumption, a diet high in
saturated fat and trans fats, low intake of fruits and vegetables), physical inactivity, consumption
of tobacco and alcohol, and being overweight or obese. OR
With the help of four separate chambers i.e.( two atria and two ventricles ) and the one-way
valves which are present in the heart prevent the backflow of blood , and separate blood vessels
(arteries and veins) for oxygenated and deoxygenated blood supply. so, Oxygen-rich and carbon
dioxide-rich blood cannot be mixed.
The separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds is necessary to
produce more energy in order to maintain their body temperature at different climatic Conditions.
6.Mr. X is suffering from kidney failure and he is on dialysis from more than an year. In
the beginning he has not felt any specific symptoms , in general he had feel dizziness,
weakness and shortness of breath but after passing the time swelling in body also started
appearing. After diagnosis and test Doctor told him has problem in kidneys so it not work
properly and wastes build up inside the body which are toxic for his health.
(a)What is Dialysis?
(b)What type of wastes produced in body by the metabolic process? And why we need to
eliminate this wastes from the body?
(c) How kidney filter these wastes from our body?
Answer: (a) To remove nitrogenous waste from your blood by using machine when kidney does
not its function i.e in case of kidney failure.
(b)Urea, creatinine, ammonia and uric acid. When toxic materials are not removed from the
body, they mix with the blood and cause damage to the body's cells.
(c) Each of our kidneys is made up of about a million filtering units called nephrons. Each
nephron includes a filter, called the glomerulus, and a tubule. The nephrons work through a two-
step process: the glomerulus filters our blood (ultrafiltration), and the tubule returns needed
substances to our blood(like glucose, amino acids , vitamins etc.) and removes wastes(like urea,
creatinine and ammonia) in the form of urine.
Carbohydrates
7.Study the given flow chart and answer the questions.
X
Pyruvic acid
Y Z
CO2+H2O+Energy CO2 + C2H5OH +Energy
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(a) Identify X, Y and Z?

i) X-Glycolysis, Y.Anaerobic, Z. Aerobic
ii) X-Krebs's cycle, Y- Aerobic, Z-Anaerobic
iii) X-Glycolysis, Y-Aerobic, Z- Anaerobic
iv) X- Glycolysis, Y- Aerobic, Z- Krebs cycle
(b) Write some differnces between aerobic and anaerobic process.
OR
Why human body respire anaerobically?
(c ) Draw a flow chart showing the different pathways involved in the breakdown of
glucose in different organisms.
Answer: (a) Correct option :(c)
(b) Differences: Aerobic respiration takes place in presence of oxygen; whereas anaerobic
respiration takes place in absence of oxygen. Carbon dioxide and water are the end products of
aerobic respiration, while alcohol is the end product of anaerobic respiration.
Anaerobic respiration in humans occurs primarily in muscle cells during high-intensity exercise
and produces lactic acid and less amount of energy instead of carbon dioxide and water to fulfil
the extra energy need of muscle cells.
(c )For answerrefer to the mind map diagram.
Question related to the nutrition and respiration in living organisms

Very short answer type questions (1 mark)
1.Which one of the following conditions is true for the state of stomata of green leaf shown in
the given diagram?
Close stomata
(a)Large amount of water flows into the guard cells.
(b)Gaseous exchange is occurring in large amount.
(c)Large amount of water flows out from the guard cells.
(d)Large amount of sugar collects in the guard cell.
Ans(c)
2. In the sketch of stomatal apparatus given below,the parts I,II,III and IV were labelled differently
by four students.The correct labeling is shown in:
(a) I.guard cells,II.stoma,III.starch granule,IV.nucleus

(b) I.cytoplasm,II.nucleus,III.stoma,IV.chloroplast
(c) I.guard cells,II.starch,III.nucleus,IV.stoma
(d) I.cytoplasm,II.chloroplast,III.stoma,IV.nucleus
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Ans: (b)
3.Without regular transpiration,which of the following can not takes place?
(a)conduction of food through the plant
(b)conduction of CO2 for photosynthesis
(c)conduction of water and minerals for photosynthesis
(d)absorption of energy from the sun
Ans: (c)
4.Which one of the following pairs of teeth perform one common function as stated against
it?
(a)Incisors,canines – holding
(b)Canines,premolars – tearing
(c)Premolars,molars – grinding
(d)Molars,incisors – tearing
Ans: (c)
5.Choose the event that does not occur in photosynthesis.
(a)Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
(b) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates
(c)Oxidation of carbon to carbon dioxide
(d)Conversion of light energy to chemical energy
Ans: (c)
6.Choose the function of pancreatic juice from the following.
(a)Trypsin digests proteins and lipase carbohydrates
(b)Trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase proteins
(c)Trypsin and lipase digest fats
(d)Trypsin digests proteins and lipase emulsified fats
Ans: (d)
7. The correct name of X,Y,Z and W respectively in the figure given below are
(a)Diaphragm,larynx,nasal passage and alveoli

(b)Nasal passage,larynx,alveoli and diaphragm
(c)Alveoli,diaphragm,larynx and nasal passage
(d)Larynx,alveoli,nasal passage and diaphragm
Ans: (b)
8.Which of the following statements are correct?
(i)Pyruvate can be converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide by yeast
(ii)Fermentation takes place in aerobic respiration
(iii)fermentation takes place in mitochondria
(iv)fermentation is a form of anaerobic respiration
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Ans: (c)
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
9.In the given transverse section of the leaf,the upper epidermis has a cuticle layer.What is the
role of the cuticle?
(a)Protection
(b)Gaseous exchange
(c)Reduce loss of water from the leaf
(d)Both (a) and (c)
Ans: (d)
10.Observe the experimental set up shown below,a watch glass containing potassium hydroxide
is placed by the side of one of the plants.What is the role of potassium hydroxide in the
experiment?
(a)KOH absorbs the moisture

(b)KOH absorbs the oxygen
(c)KOH absorbs carbon dioxide
(d)KOH removes chlorophyll
Ans: (c)
11.The figure given below shows that chlorophyll is necessary for photosynthesis.Why it is
important to boil the leaf in alcohol in this experiment?
(a)To remove the chlorophyll from the leaf

(b)To dissolve the waxy cuticle
(c)To make the cells more permeable to iodine solution
(d)To stop chemical reactions in the cells
Ans: (a)
12.The diagram shows human gut.Which numbered structure secrete protein digesting
enzymes?
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 5 and 7
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 9 and 11
Ans: (c)
13.The best results for the experiment ,that light is necessary for photosynthesis,would be
yielded by using leaves from a plant kept for over twenty four hours:
(a)in a pitch dark room
(b)in a dark room with the table lamp switched on
(c)outside the garden
(d)outside the garden,covered by a glass case
Ans: (a)
14.A black strip of paper was clipped on a destarched leaf in a potted plant to cover a part of the
leaf.The plant was then exposed to sunlight for four hours.The paper strip was removed and the
leaf tested for starch.When iodine solution was added
(a)the uncovered part of the leaf became blue black
(b)the colour of iodine solution remained unchanged
(c)the entire leaf became blue black
Ans: (a)
15.During deficiency of oxygen in tissues of human beings,pyruvic acid is converted into lactic
acid in the
(a)Cytoplasm
(b)Chloroplast
(c)Mitochondria
(d)Golgi body
Ans: (a)
The questions given below consist of an assertion and a reason.Use the following key to
choose the appropriate answer.
(a)Both assertion(A) and reason(R) are correct statements and reason(R) is the correct
explanation of assertion(A)
(b) Both assertion(A) and reason(R) are correct statements and reason(R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion(A)
(c)Assertion(A) is true but reason(R) is false
(d) Assertion(A) is false but reason(R) is true
16.Assertion(A) :Lungs always contain residual air in their cavity.
Reason(R):It provides sufficient time for gaseous exchange.
Ans: (a)
17. Assertion(A):Respiration is a biochemical process opposite to respiration.
Reason(R):Energy is released during respiration.
Ans: (a)
18. Assertion(A):All terrestrial vertebrates are air breather.
Reason(R):They have developed lungs for air breathing,an adaptation for land life.
Ans: (a)
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
19. Assertion(A):Plant closes stomata when it does not need carbon dioxide for
photosynthesis.
Reason(R):Large amount of water can be lost by stomata.
Ans: (b)
20.Assertion(A):Small intestine is the site of complete digestion.
Reason(R)Large intestine is the longest part of the alimentary canal.
Ans: (c)
21. Choose the correct pathway of urine in our body:
(a) kidney → ureters → urethra → urinary bladder
(b) kidney → urinary bladder → urethra → ureters
(c) kidney → ureters → urinary bladder →urethra
(d)urinary bladder → kidney → ureters →urethra
Ans: (c)
22. Which of the following components is not reabsorbed by the capillaries from the tubule?
(a) Glucose (c) Water
(b) Urea (d) Amino acids
Ans: (b)
Short answer type questions:
1.The leaves of a healthy potted plant were coated with Vaseline. Will this plant remain
healthy for long? Give reasons for your answer.Ans: The plants will not get sufficient
carbon dioxide for photosynthesis, gaseous exchange will not take place, and there will
be no transpiration. Thus, the plants will not remain healthy for long.2. How is small
intestine designed to absorb digested food?
Ans: The small intestine has millions of tiny finger-like projections called villi. These villi increase
the surface area for efficient food absorption
3.How are lungs designed in human beings to maximize the area for exchange of gases?
Ans: Lungs maximize the area for a gaseous exchange through the presence of large numbers
of alveoli which are richly supplied with blood.
4. Write the balanced chemical equation for photosynthesis? What are the two raw
materials required for photosynthesis?
Ans: 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O
Raw materials are – Carbon dioxide and water
5.A variegated leaf with green and yellow patches is used for an experiment to prove that
chlorophyll is required for photosynthesis. Before the experiment, the green portion A
and pale yellow portion B are marked.What will be the colour of ‘A’ just before and after
the starch test/Also write the equation of photosynthesis and mark as well as validate
from which molecule the byproduct is obtained?
Ans: Just before Starch test – Pale yellow Just after Starch test – Blue black
6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O
O2 is obtained from water (H2O), as splitting of water results in formation of Hydrogen
(used for making glucose) and oxygen (by-product).
6.What is the role of acid in our stomach?
Ans: The hydrochloric acid in the gastric juice breaks down the food and the digestive enzymes
split up the proteins. The acidic gastric juice also kills bacteria.
7.What advantage does a terrestrial organism possess over aquatic organism with regard
to obtaining oxygen for respiration? OR
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
8.Why is the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms much faster than in terrestrial
organisms?
Ans: Terrestrial organisms take up oxygen from the atmosphere whereas aquatic animals obtain
oxygen dissolved in water. Air contains more O2 as compared to water. Since the content of O2
in the air is high, the terrestrial animals do not have to breathe faster to get more oxygen.
9.How is oxygen and carbon dioxide transported in human beings?
Ans: The oxygen enters into the blood from the lungs and carried by the blood and transported into the
cells.
10.Why the lung alveoli are covered with blood capillaries?Ans: To allow the oxygen to pass
from alveoli to the blood.
11.Two green plants are kept separately in oxygen free containers, one in dark and the
other in continuous light.Which one will live longer? Give reasons. Ans: The plant kept in
continuous light will live longer, because it will be able to produce oxygen required for its respiration by
the process of photosynthesis.
12.If a plant is releasing carbon dioxide and taking in oxygen during the day, does it mean
that there is no photosynthesis occuring? Justify your answer.
Ans: If plant is releasing carbon dioxide and taking in oxygen during the day, it means that respiration
is happening in plant. But it does not mean that photosynthesis is not happening. Carbon dioxide
released after respiration comes out of stomata. Respiration is independent of photosynthesis.
13.A student was asked to perform an experiment “To demonstrate that carbon dioxide
is given out during respiration.”Name at least two precautions which he should take while
performing the experiment.
Ans: .(a) Both potted plants are kept in dark room for at least three days. (b) Bottom of the bell
jars is sealed to make them air tight. (c) Both potted plants are kept in sunlight after the starch
test.
14.In an experiment ‘to demonstrate that carbon dioxide is given out during respiration”
gas emitted by germinating seeds is absorbed by KOH. Write two consequences that
happen because of absorption of carbon dioxide by KOH.
Ans: Potassium hydroxide absorbs the carbon dioxide gas released during the aerobic
respiration and it creates a vacuum and causes the water to rise in the bent tube.
15.Mohan set up the experiment to demonstrate that CO 2 is given out during respiration
.After completion of the experiment, teacher asked him to answer the following
questions:
(i) Why is some KOH solution/pellets placed in a small test tube in the flask?
Ans: To absorb carbon dioxide and create partial vacuum in the flask.
(ii) Why are germinating seeds kept in the flask?
Ans:The germinating seeds perform respiration by uptaking the oxygen to release the carbon
dioxide gas.
17.Where are stomata located in the leaves? List two functions that they perform? Ans:
The epidermis of leaves has tiny pores like features through which passage of gases and water
takes place is, termed stomata.
Functions of stomata: 1.The
process of transpiration is regulated by stomata. 2.Stomata
regulate gaseous exchange in the leaves.
18.A student, after examining temporary mount of epidermal leaf peel,has drawn the
following diagram and labeled four parts as I to IV. Name these parts.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Ans: I- Cytoplasm II-Nucleus III-Stoma IV-Chloroplast

19.Give reasons for the following:
(i) Presence of cartilaginous rings in trachea.
Ans: They prevent it from collapsing during the "absence of air" and it also aids in protecting
it. These rings stabilise the trachea and make it rigid while permitting it to "expand in
length" when the person breathes.
(ii)What will happen if mucus is not secreted by the gastric glands?
Ans: Mucus protects the inner lining of the stomach from the action of hydrochloric acid and
enzyme pepsin. If mucus is not released, it will lead to erosion of the inner lining of the stomach
leading to acidity and ulcers.
20. How does air reach every cell of an insect?
Ans: Air enters the respiratory systems of insects through a series of external openings
called spiracles. These external openings, which act as muscular valves in some insects, lead
to the internal respiratory system, a densely networked array of tubes called tracheae.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(MARKS 3)
1.How do plants obtain food? What are the two phases of photosynthesis?
Ans :During photosynthesis, chlorophyll absorbs energy from blue- and red-light waves, and
reflects green-light waves, making the plant appear green. While there are many steps behind
the process of photosynthesis, it can be broken down into two major stages: light-dependent
reactions and light-independent reactions.
2.Draw the labeled diagram of human alimentary canal and associated digestive glands.
Ans:
3.Draw a labeled diagram of human

respiratory system. Also mention function of it.
Ans: The oxygen inhaled during breathing breaks down the food absorbed in the body to release
energy with the help of respiration by respiratory system.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
4.Draw the diagram of cross section of a leaf and label the following in it: (i)Chloroplast
(ii) Guard cell (iii) Lower epidermis (iv) Upper epidermis.Also write the functions of
stomata and mesophyll cells.
Ans: Epidermis covers the top and lower surfaces of the leaf.
The mesophyll has layers, a top palisade layer and a lower spongy layer.Photosynthesis takes
place in the mesophyll cells. Stomata at the leaf underside permit gas exchange.5.Name the
main organs of human digestive system in the order in which they are involved in
digesting food.In what steps and how does digestion of carbohydrates and proteins take
place in our bodies Ans: The main organs of human digestive system in the order in which
they are involved in digesting food are as follows: i)Mouth ii)Buccal cavity iii)Pharynx
iv)Oesophagus v)Stomach vi)Small intestine vii)Large intestine
Digestion of carbohydrates: -Carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth only and continues up
to the stomach and small intestine.
Salivary amylase present in the saliva, pancreatic amylase secreted by pancreas helps in the
digestion of carbohydrates.
Digestion of proteins:- Protein digestion mainly takes place in the stomach. Gastric glands of the
stomach secrete enzymes such as pepsin which digests the proteins.Trypsin secreted by
pancreas also helps to break proteins into amino acids.
6.Explain the process of aerobic respiration in mitochondria of a cell and anaerobic
respiration in yeast and muscle with the help of a word picture.
Ans: For diagram refer to mind map
Aerobic respiration in mitochondria:∙-Pyruvate completely breaks down to form carbon dioxide,
water and energy in the presence of oxygen Anaerobic respiration in yeast and muscle cells:
∙ In the absence of oxygen, partial break down of pyruvate occurs in yeast cell to produce ethanol,
carbon dioxide and a very small amount of energy.
∙ Lack of oxygen results in partial breakdown of pyruvate in muscle cells to release lactic acid and
little energy.
7.What is stomata? What function do they perform? With the help of a diagram, explain
opening and closing of stomata.
Ans:Refer to answer 17When water enters the guard cells, they become turgid. This results in
opening of stomata) pore. When water exits from the guard cells, they become flaccid. This results
in closing of stomata
8. (a)“Respiration is a vital function of the body”. Justify this statement.
Ans: Since respiration is essential to obtain energy for bodily functions and remove carbon
dioxide, it is said to be a vital function of the body. Without respiration, the person will die in a
few minutes.
(b)What is the main difference between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration.
Ans: Refer ans. No. 7 of long question
(c)What type of respiration takes place in (i) yeast and (ii) humans
Ans: (i) Anaerobic respiration (ii) Aerobic respiration
9.Describe the process of nutrition in Amoeba. Draw the labeled diagrams to show the
various steps in the nutrition in Amoeba .Ans: Following are the steps involved in the nutrition
in Amoeba:(i) Ingestion: Amoeba ingests food along with a little amount of the surrounding water.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
It does this using its pseudopodia and forms a food vacuole.

(ii) Digestion: The food in the food vacuole is digested by the digestive enzymes that enter from
the cytoplasm.
(iii) Absorption: The digested food is directly absorbed in the cytoplasm of the Amoeba cell by
diffusion.
(iv) Assimilation: Some part of the digested food is used for acquiring energy for various life
processes. This is done through respiration.
(v) Egestion: The undigested food is thrown out of the body through the cell membrane.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(5 marks)

1.(a) Draw a diagram to show open stomatal pore and label on it; (i)guard cells (ii)
chloroplast
(b)State two functions of stomata.
Ans: Refer to ans. No. 17.((c) How do guard cells regulate the opening and closing of
stomatal pore? Ans: Refer to ans. No. 7
2.(a) Draw a diagram of human alimentary canal and label on it: (i)stomach (ii)liver (iii)
pancreas (iv) small intestine
Ans: Please refer to the answer of short answer type question no.2
(b) Explain the role of bile juice in digesting food. Ans: The food coming from the stomach
is acidic and has to be made alkaline for the pancreatic enzyme to act. Bile juice accomplishes
thus. Bile salts breakdown larger globules of fats into smaller globules increasing the efficiency
of enzyme action.
3.Describe the process of digestion of food in mouth ,stomach and small intestine in
human beings.
Ans: Digestion in mouth :digestion of food begins in the mouth. Saliva present in mouth contains
a digestive enzyme, called salivary amylase, which breaks down starch into sugar.
Digestion in stomach:Stomach stores and mixes the food received from the oesophagus with
gastric juices. The main components of gastric juice are hydrochloric acid, mucus and
pepsinogen.Hydrochloric acid dissolves bits of food and creates an acidic medium.In this
medium, pepsinogen is converted to pepsin, which is a protein-digesting enzyme .Mucus
protects the inner lining of the stomach from the action of HCl.
Digestion in small intestine:
1. Small intestine is the site for complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
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2. It produces intestinal juice from the glands present in its wall.

3. The intestinal juice helps in further digestion of food.
4. Small intestine also obtains digestive juices from liver and pancreas that helps in mixing
of food.
5. The liver produces bile juice that causes emulsification of fats and the pancreas produces
pancreatic juice for digesting proteins and emulsified fats.
6. This digested food is finally absorbed through the intestinal walls.
4.Mention the location of four major glands associated with digestive system of
humans and explain function of each.
Ans:The four major glands in our body that is associated with the digestive system are:
1) Salivary gland - salivary gland is located between the ear and the jaw. they
produce saliva which moisturizes food and makes it easy for us to chew and helps
to create a food bolus.
2) Pancreas - pancreas are located across the back of the abdomen. pancreas
secretes enzymes and digestive juices. they regulate blood sugar and they transform
the food we eat into fuel.
3)Liver - Liver secretes bile that ends up back in the intestines.it also detoxifies and
digests fats. it is located in the upper right part of your abdomen.
4)Gastric glands-inside stomach,secrete HCl for acidification and disinfection of food
and pepsin for partial digestion of proteins to form peptones.( For location refer to
the diagram of ans. No.2)
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CHAPTER - 7
CONTROL AND COORDINATION

1a) Stimuli: -
The changes in the environment to which living organisms respond are called stimuli.
E.g. : - heat, cold, sound, smell, taste, touch, pressure, gravity, water etc.
Living organisms respond to stimuli in the form of body movements.
b) Coordination: -
For a proper response to a stimulus many organs in the body should work together. The
working together of various organs in an organism to produce a proper response to a stimulus
is called coordination.
i) In animals, control and coordination is done by the nervous system and endocrine system.
ii) In plants, control and coordination is done by chemical substances called plant hormones or
phytohormones.
2) Coordination in animals: -
In animals, control and coordination is done by the nervous system and endocrine system.
The nervous system consists of the brain, spinal cord and nerves.
a) Receptors: -
Receptors are the sense organs which receive the stimuli and pass the message to the brain or
spinal cord through the sensory nerves.
E.g.: - Photoreceptors in the eyes to detect light.
Phono receptors in the ears to detect sound.
Olfactory receptors in the nose to detect smell.
Gustatory receptors in the tongue to detect taste.
Tango receptors in the skin to detect touch.
b) Effectors: -
Effectors are the muscles and glands which respond to the information from the brain and spinal
cord through the motor nerves.
c) Sensory nerves: -
Sensory nerves are nerves which carry information from the receptors (sense organs) to the
brain and spinal cord.
d) Motor nerves: -
Motor nerves are nerves which carry information from the brain and spinal cord to the effectors
(muscles and glands).
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HUMAN NERVOUS SYSTEM
3) Human nervous system: -

a) Parts of the nervous system: -
The human nervous system consists of the Central Nervous System and Peripheral
Nervous System.
i) The central nervous system: - It consists of the brain, and spinal cord.
ii) The peripheral nervous system: - It consists of cranial nerves arising from the brain and
spinal nerves arising from the spinal cord.
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b) Nerve cell (Neuron): -

Neuron is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system. It has a cell body called cyton
containing a nucleus and cytoplasm. It has several branched structures called dendrites. It has
a long nerve fibre called axon which is covered by a protective covering called Myelin sheath.
The junction between two neurons is called synapse.
Messages pass through the nerve cell in the form of chemical and electrical signals called
nerve impulse. The dendrites receive the information and starts a chemical reaction which
produce electrical impulse which passes through the axon.
Transmission of messages through neurons
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c) Brain: -
The brain is the main coordinating centre in the human body. It is protected by the cranium. It is
covered by three membranes called meninges filled with a fluid called cerebrospinal fluid which
protects the brain from shocks.
The brain has three main parts. They are fore brain, mid brain and hind brain.
i) Fore brain: -
It consists of the cerebrum and olfactory lobes. It is the thinking part of the brain and controls
voluntary actions. It controls touch, smell, hearing, taste, sight, mental activities like thinking,
learning, memory, emotions etc.
ii) Mid brain: - It controls involuntary actions and reflex movements of head, neck, eyes etc.
iii) Hind brain: - It consists of cerebellum, pons and medulla.
Cerebellum: - It controls body movements, balance and posture.
Pons: - It controls respiration.
Medulla: - It controls heartbeat, blood pressure, swallowing, coughing, sneezing,
vomiting etc.
HUMAN BRAIN
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d) Spinal cord: -
The spinal cord starts from the brain and extends through the vertebral column. It has 31 pairs
of spinal nerves.It carries messages to and from the brain. It also controls reflex actions.
4a) Reflex action: -Reflex action is a sudden, unconscious and involuntary response of the
effectors to a stimulus.
E.g.: - We suddenly withdraw our hand if we suddenly touch a hot object.
In this reflex action, the nerves in the skin (receptor) detects the heat and passes the
message through the sensory nerves to the spinal cord. Then the information passes through
the motor nerves to the muscles (effector) of the hand and we withdraw our hand.
b) Reflex arc: -
The pathway of a reflex action is called reflex arc. In a reflex arc the stimulus is received by the
receptors (sense organs) and it passes through the sensory nerves to the spinal cord. From the
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spinal cord the information passes through the motor nerves to the effectors (muscles/glands)
for the response.
5) Coordination in plants: -
In plants control and coordination is done by chemical substances called plant hormones or
phytohormones.
There are five main types of plant hormones. They are: -
Auxins, Gibberellins, Cytokinins, Abscisic acid and Ethylene.
i) Auxins: - help in cell division, cell elongation and growth.
ii) Gibberellins: - help in growth of stem and branches.
iii) Cytokinins: - help in cell division, formation of fruits and seeds.
iv) Abscisic acid: - inhibits growth and affects wilting of leaves.
v) Ethylene: - helps in flowering and ripening of fruits.
6) Movements in plants: -
Movements in plants are of two main types. They are: -Tropic movements and Nastic
movements.
a) Tropic movements: - These are directional movements towards or away from the stimulus
and it depends on growth. They are of different types like Phototropism, Geotropism,
Chemotropism, Hydrotropism etc.
i) Phototropism: - It is movement of plants in response to light. If it is towards light, it is called
positive phototropism. e.g.: - Bending of shoot towards light. If it is away from light, it is called
negative phototropism. e.g.: - Bending of root away from light.
ii) Geotropism: - It is the movement of plants in response to gravity. If it is towards gravity, it is
called positive geotropism. e.g.: - Downward growth of roots. If it is away from gravity, it is called
negative geotropism. e.g.: - Upward growth of shoot.
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iii) Chemotropism: - It is movement of plant in response to chemical stimuli. e.g.: - Growth of

pollen tube towards the ovule.
iv) Hydrotropism: - It is the movement of plants in response to water. e.g.: - Growth of roots
towards water.
b) Nastic movements: - These are non-directional movements which are neither towards or
away from the stimulus and it does not depend on growth.
Eg :- If we touch the leaves of touch me not plant, its leaves fold up and droops down
immediately due to the change in the amount of water in the leaves. Depending upon the amount
of water in the leaves, it swells or shrinks.
7) Endocrine glands in human beings: -
The endocrine glands also help in control and coordination. The endocrine glands produce
chemical substances which help to control and coordinate various activities in the body.
The endocrine glands in our body are: - pineal, hypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid,
parathyroid, thymus, adrenal, pancreas, testes and ovary.
Examples of coordination by endocrine glands: -
i) When we are frightened or angry, the adrenal glands produce more adrenalin hormone which
is sent through the blood to the heart, rib muscles and diaphragm. These increases breathing
rate to supply more oxygen to the muscles to prepare the body to either run away or fight with
the enemy.
ii) Iodine is needed by the thyroid gland to produce the hormone thyroxin. Thyroxin controls the
metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and proteins and helps in proper growth. If the diet is deficient
in iodine, it causes goitre.
iii) The pituitary gland produces growth hormones. Deficiency of this hormone in childhood
causes dwarfism. Excess of this hormone causes tall growth.
iv) The pancreas produces the hormone insulin which controls the blood sugar level. Increase
in blood sugar level causes diabetes. A diabetic patient has to take insulin injections to control
his blood sugar level.
v) The testes in males produces the hormone testosterone which controls the production of
sperms and changes during puberty.
vi) The ovary in females produces the hormone estrogen which controls the production of eggs
and changes during puberty.
GLANDS HORMONES Functions
Pituitary GH Stimulates growth in all organs
Thyroid Thyroxine 1. Regulates metabolism for body growth

2. Hypersecretion causes goitre
Parathyroid PTH 1. Lack of PTH causes Tetany; low calcium
and high phosphate levels
2. Hypersecretion causes osteoporosis
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Pancreas Insulin 1. Regulates blood sugar level

2. Lack of insulin causes diabetes
Adrenal Adrenaline Regulation (increasing) of blood pressure, heart
beat, carbohydrate metabolism (during
emergency)
Releasing Hypothalamus Stimulates pituitary gland to release hormones

hormones
Testes Testosterone Development of male sex organs, regulates

sperm formation etc.
Ovaries oestrogen Development of female sex organs, regulates

menstrual cycle, etc
MIND MAP
HUMAN NERVOUS SYSTEM
CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM AUTONOMIC

NERVOUS SYSTEM
BRAIN SPINAL CORD 12 PAIRS OF 31 PAIR OF

CRANIAL SPINAL
NERVES NERVES
FOREBRAIN HINDBRAIN
SYMPATHETIC PARASYMPATHETIC
SYSTEM SYSTEM
MIDBRAIN
Question bank
MCQs - 1 mark each
1. Junctions of two neuron in called.
a) Synapse
b) Synapsis
c) Joint
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
d) Junction
Ans. a) Synapse
2. Dwarfism results by –
a) Excess secretion of thyroxin
b) Less secretion of growth hormone
c) less secretion of adrenaline
d) Excess secretion of growth hormone.
Ans. d) Excess secretion of growth hormone.
3. The substance that result into the fall of mature leave and fruits from plants is due to :
a) auxin
b) gibberellin
c) ABA
d) cytokinin
Ans. b) gibberellin
4. Which of the following is a plant hormone?
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Oestrogen
(d) Cytokinins
Ans. (d) Cytokinins
5. Which of the following statements is correct about receptors?

1) Olfactory receptors detect taste and gustatory receptors smell
2) Gustatory receptors detect taste while olfactory receptors detect smell
3) Auditory receptors detect smell and olfactory receptors detect taste
4) Both gustatory and olfactory receptors detect smell
Sol. 2) Gustatory receptors detect taste while olfactory receptors detect smell
6. Which of the following statements are true about the brain?
i. The main thinking part of brain is hind brain.

ii. Centres of hearing, smell, memory, sight, etc are located in fore brain.
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iii. Salivation, vomiting, blood pressure is controlled by the medulla in the hind brain.
iv. Cerebellum does not control posture and balance of the body.
1) (i) and (ii)

2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
3) (ii) and (iv)
4) (ii) and (iii)
Sol. 4) (ii) and (iii)

7. Posture and balance of the body is controlled by.
1) Pons
2) Medulla
3) Cerebrum
4) Cerebellum
Sol. 4) Cerebellum
8. Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which hormone?
1) Thyroxin
2) Insulin
3) Adrenaline
4) Auxin
Sol. 1) Thyroxin
9.
VERY SHORT ANSWERS – 2 marks each
1.Identify the labelled parts A, B, C and

D.
Sol. A. Sensory neuron/nerve.

B. Relay neuron / interneuron.
C. Effector.
D. Receptor.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
2. Label the endocrine glands in Figure.
Sol. Following endocrine glands are indicated in the diagram as follows:
a. Pineal gland
b. Pituitary gland
c. Thyroid
d. Thymus
3.Label the parts of a neuron in Figure.
Sol. Following parts of the neuron are indicated as follows:
a. Dendrite
b. Cell body
c. Axon
d. Nerve ending
4.What is a tropic movement? Explain with an example.
Sol. Tropic movements are induced growth movements of curvature that occur due to
differential growth. These are directional movements that occur in response to external
stimuli such as light, gravity, chemicals, water, etc.
e.g. Roots of a plant move downward in the soil in the direction of gravity and the shoot
moves against the direction of gravity.
5. What will happen if intake of iodine in our diet is low?
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Sol. Thyroxine hormone needs Iodine for its synthesis. If its amount will be low in the diet
then the hormone production will lower down causing hypothyroidism and goitre.
6. Write a and b in the given flow chart of neuron through which information travels as
an electrical impulse. Dendrite ⎯→ a ⎯→ b ⎯→ End point of Neuron (CBSE 2018)
Sol. a) Cell body/ cyton b) Axon
7. Answer the following:
a. Which hormone is responsible for the

changes noticed in females at puberty?
b. Dwarfism results due to deficiency of
which hormone?
c. Blood sugar level rises due to deficiency of
which hormone?
d. Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of
which hormone?
Sol. a. Oestrogen
b. Growth hormone
c. Insulin
d. Thyroxin
ASSERTION REASONING BASED QUESTION – 1 mark each
1. Assertion (A): Abscisic acid is a stress hormone.

Reason (R): Stimulation of ABA occurs in adverse conditions.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
Sol. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Abscisic is a stress hormone as its production is stimulated by drought, water-
logging and other adverse (stressful) conditions.
2. Assertion (A): A receptor is a specialized group of cells in the same organ that perceive
a particular type of stimulus.
Reason (R): Different sense organs have different receptors for detecting stimuli.
Sol. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
3. Assertion (A): Medulla oblongata causes reflex actions like vomiting, coughing and
sneezing.
Reason (R): It has many nerve cells which control autonomic reflexes.
Sol. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS – 3 marks each
1. “Nervous and hormonal systems together perform the function of control and coordination
in human beings.’’ Justify the statement. (CBSE 2019)
Sol. Control and coordination of functioning of various systems is under the direct Control of
nervous system. It is the nervous system which governs the way, a particular organ has to work.
This control is achieved by complex network of neurons which carry signals in the form of electric
impulse, to and from the brain. The hormonal system on the other hand co-ordinates the
functioning of nervous system. The hormonal system has indirect control on various functions.
It tells a system to either slow down or pace according to the situation. Nervous and hormonal
systems are complimentary to each other thus we can say that nervous and hormonal system
perform their function of control and coordination together.
2. Name the hormones secreted by the following endocrine glands and specify one function
of each : (a) Thyroid (b) Pituitary (c) Pancreas (CBSE 2018)
a. Thyroxine, regulates carbohydrate protein and fat metabolism/ controls
metabolism for balance of body growth
b. Growth hormone, regulates growth and development of body (or any other correct
answer)
c. Insulin, regulates/ decreases blood sugar level Or Glucagon, regulates / increases
blood sugar
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS – 4 marks each
Case study
Smita's father was complaining about frequent urination, pain in legs and a frequent weight loss
to Smita's mother, and she discussed the things with Smita when she returned from her school.
Listening to this, Smita said to her mother that her father should visit a doctor, who told her
mother that her husband is having an elevated level of blood glucose. He should take care of
his diet and should exercise regularly to maintain his normal glucose level.
On the basis of the given text, answer the following questions.
1. Name the disease he is suffering from and name the hormone, whose
deficiency causes it.
2. Identify the gland that secretes it and mention the function of this hormone.
3. Explain, how the time and amount of secretion of this hormone is regulated
in the human system?
4. What values were shown by Smita and her father?
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Sol.
1. Smita's father is suffering from Diabetes mellitus. It is caused due to deficiency of Insulin
hormone.
2. Insulin is secreted by Pancreas and it helps in maintaining glucose level in blood.
3. When the level of sugar increases in the blood, it is detected by the cells of the pancreas,
which respond by producing more insulin. When blood sugar level falls, secretion of
insulin gets reduced.
4. The values shown by Smita are caring nature and intelligent decision-making and the
values shown by her father are carelessness for health.
Case study
The control and coordination in plants is done by plant hormones. The plant hormones
coordinate the activities of the plant by controlling one or the other aspect of the growth of the
plant. So, the plant hormones are also known as plant growth substances. The growth of a plant
can be divided into three stages B cell division, cell enlargement and cell differentiation (or cell
specialisation), and these stages have particular locations in a plant. These three stages of plant
growth as well as promotion of dormancy, breaking of dormancy, stomata control, falling of
leaves, fruit growth, ripening of fruits and ageing in plants are controlled by the various plant
hormones.
1. By which hormone the control and coordination of plants is done?

a. Photo hormones
b. Phytohormones
Sol. b. phytohormones
2. Which hormone promotes cell division-
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
a. Auxins b. Gibberellins c. Cytokinins d. Abscisic acid
Sol. c. cytokinins
3. Which hormone promotes cell the dormancy in seeds and buds-

Sol. d. Abscisic acid
4. Which hormone promotes the wilting and falling of leaves-

Sol. d. Abscisic acid

‘
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION – 5 marks each
1.What are the major parts of the brain? Mention the functions of different parts.
Sol. The brain is covered by a three-layered system of membranes; called meninges.
Cerebrospinal fluid is filled between the meninges. The CSF provides a cushion to the brain
against mechanical shocks. The brain is located inside the skull for maximum protection. The
human brain can be divided into three regions, viz. forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain.
Forebrain: It is divided into three regions:
1. Olfactory Lobes - These lobes receive impulses from olfactory receptors of nose region.
2. Cerebrum - It is the largest part of the brain and helps in speech, intellectuality, mapping,
hearing, sight, taste, smell, etc.
3. Diencephalon - It has Hypothalamus which has control centre for hunger, thirst, sweating,
emotions, etc.
Midbrain: It controls the reflex movements of head, neck and trunk in response to visual and
auditory stimuli, changes in pupil size, etc.
Hindbrain: It consists of three parts:
1. Cerebellum - It maintains posture, equilibrium and Muscle tone.

2. Pons Varolii - It controls some aspects of respiration.
3. Medulla Oblongata - It controls heart rate, breathing movements, coughing, sneezing,
vomiting, etc.
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How does organism reproduce
Gist of the lesson
Asexual Reproduction
● It involves only one parent.

● There is no formation and fusion of gametes.
● The young ones formed are almost identical to each other as well as to the
parent cell.
Types of Asexual Reproduction is Unicellular Organism
(i) Binary Fission: the nucleus of the parent cell divides and then the cytoplasm divides
resulting in the formation of two daughter cells). It occurs during highly favourable
conditions. Example ,bacteria, protozoa like Amoeba, Paramecium.
Multiple Fission: In this during unfavourable conditions, the parent cell develops a thick
resistant wall around itself forming a cyst. Within the wall, the cytoplasm divides many
times to form many plasmodia. When conditions become favourable, the cyst wall breaks
and the Plasmodium are released. Example ,Plasmodium
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Budding: The parent yeast cell develops a bud or an outgrowth at its upper end. The
nucleus of the parent cell divides and one of them moves into the outgrowth which grows
bigger and finally separates from the parent cell to lead an independent existence. Very
often if the conditions are highly favourable, a chain of buds is formed.
Fragmentation: Spirogyra has a filamentous body. (If it breaks into smaller pieces or
fragments). Each fragment has the capacity to form a new individual
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Regeneration: It is the ability of organisms to develop their lost parts. example; Planaria.
(Regeneration is carried out by specialized cells which redivide to form a mass of cells
from which different cells undergo changes to become different cell types and tissues.
(iii) Budding: Seen in Hydra. Parent Hydra develops a bud at its lower end. This grows in
size and finally breaks off to live independently.
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(iv) Spore Formation: Spores are asexually reproducing bodies having a thick protective
wall. They are produced during unfavourable times and help to tide over the unfavourable
environmental conditions. When the spores fall on a suitable medium, each on forms a
new individual.
Vegetative Propagation: Method by which plants reproduce by their vegetative parts such
as roots, stems, and leaves.
Types of Vegetative Propagation: It is two types
● Natural vegetative propagation.

● Artificial vegetative propagation (Tissue culture).
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Mint reproduces naturally by roots. Sugarcane, jasmine by stems and Biyophyllum by

leaves. In bryophyllum buds are produced in the notches along the leaf margins and when
they fall on the soil, they
develop into new plants.
Importance of Vegetative Propagation
● Plants which have lost the ability to produce viable seeds can also reproduce
by vegetative propagation.
● All plants are genetically almost similar to the parent plant.
● Seedless varieties can be obtained.
● The property of vegetative propagation is used by horticulturists in
developing methods like layering, grafting to grow many plants like
sugarcane, roses, or grapes.
● Plants can bear flowers and fruit
Tissue Culture: The technique of developing new plants from a cell or tissue in a nutrient
medium under aseptic conditions. The cell or tissue is placed in a nutrient medium where
it forms a mass of cells called callus. This callus is then transferred to another nutrient
medium where it differentiates and forms a new plant.
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Sexual Reproduction: Sexual reproduction in plants, Sexual reproduction in human

beings. The mode of reproduction that takes place with the involvement of two individuals
of two different sexes i.e. male and female.
Pollination: The process of transfer of pollen grains from an anther to the stigma of the
flower is pollination. Two types of pollination are:
(i) Self-pollination: The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same
flower or another flower of the same plant.
(ii) Cross-pollination: The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of
another flower or another flower of a different plant of the same species. It generally takes
place with the help of some agents like insects, birds, wind and water.
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Seed and its parts: The advantage of seed

is that it protects the future plant i.e.
embryo.
Seed has two parts: Cotyledons and

Embryo Cotyledons store food for the
future plant.
Male Reproductive System: Male reproductive

system consists of the following components
Female reproductive system
Reproductive Health: Sexually transmitted diseases and birth control.
A number of diseases occur as a result of sexual intercourse if one of the partners is

infected. These are known as sexually transmitted diseases (STD’s). They can be caused
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by bacteria for example; syphilis, gonorrhoea; or caused by a virus for example; HIV-
AIDS, warts etc. The transmission of these diseases can be avoided by using birth control
measures such as wearing a condom during the sexual act.
Mechanical methods: These are used to prevent the passage of semen to the fallopian
tube:
(i) Use of condoms: Condoms are thin rubber tubes worn over the penis before sexual
intercourse. The semen gets collected in this and is not discharged into the vagina.
(ii) Diaphragm: It is a thin rubber fixed over a flexible metal ring which is fitted over the
cervix in a woman’s body by a doctor.
(iii) Intra Uterine Contraceptive Device (IUCD) or loop: It is inserted in the uterus and its
insertion causes certain secretion which prevents the implantation of the embryo in the
uterine wall.
Both methods (ii) and (iii) cause side effects.
Chemical methods
● Use of spermicides: These are strong sperm-killing chemicals available in the

form of creams, jellies etc. which are injected into the vagina just before
copulation.
● Oral contraceptive pills: These are hormonal pills which prevent ovulation but
do not stop menstruation.
Surgical methods
● Vasectomy: It involves cutting and ligating the vas deferens in males.
● Tubectomy: It involves cutting and ligating Reproductive organs the fallopian
tubes in females.
● Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) or abortions is carried out to
eliminate the developing embryo. This practice can, however, be misused to
carry out female foeticide which involves the killing of the female foetus. It
should be avoided at all cost as it disturbs the male-female ratio in a
population.
QUESTION BANK
1. In vegetative reproduction, the new individuals are genetically –
Similar
Dissimilar
Abnormal
None of these
Ans: a) Similar
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2. When an organism breaks into a number of parts and each part develop into an
individual, it is called –
a. Budding
b. Binary fission
c. Regeneration
d. Spore formation
Ans: c) Regeneration
3. In Female, fertilization of ovum takes place in
a. Vagina
b. Ovary
c. Uterus
d. Fallopian tubes
Ans: Two gametes are produced by pollen grains.
4. During grafting, the swcxq zportion of plant that is grafted is called –
a. Stock
b. Scion
c. Stalk
d. Stem
5. Which part of the flower forms the fruit?
a. Whole flower
b. Only stamens and carpel
c. Only ovary
d. Only carpel
Ans: c) Only ovary
6. A common feature of reproduction in Amoeba, spirogyra and yeast is that –
a. Asexual reproduction occurs after sexual reproduction

b. Asexual reproduction occurs before sexual reproduction
c. Asexual reproduction does not involve gametes
d. Asexual reproduction involves only one parent
7. The normal duration of menstrual cycle is
a. 7 – 8 days
b. 13 – 15 days
c. 3 – 4 days
d. 28 days
8. Which of the following is an IUCD?
a. Copper – T
b. Diaphragm
c. Oral pills
d. Tubectomy
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9. Which among the following diseases is not sexually transmitted?
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
c. HIV – AIDS
d. Hepatitis
10. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in
a. Amoeba
b. Yeast
c. Plasmodium
d. Leishmanial
11. Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system in human
beings?
a. Ovary
b. Uterus
c. Vas deferens
d. Fallopian tube
12. Which among the following does not reproduce by spore formation:
(a) Penicillium fungus (b) Yeast fungus (c) Mucor fungus (d) Rhizopus fungus
13. Fruits are formed from
a. Stamen b. Stigma c. Ovary d. Ovule
Short questions
1.What is tubectomy?
2. What is the product of fertilization?
3. How many male gametes are produced by pollen grains?
4. The simple animals such as planaria can be cut into a number of pieces and each piece grows
into a complex organism. What is this process known as?
5. Name the unicellular organism which caused the disease known as kala-azar.
6. Which process taking place in the nucleus of a cell leads to variation in the offspring during
reproduction
7. What is reproduction. Why is it important?
8. What happens if the mature ovum is not fertilized in a female? Name the process.
9.Give two examples each of IUD and STD.
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS:
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DIRECTION: Each of these questions contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read

them carefully and answer the question on the basis of following options. You have to
select the one that best describes the two statements.
(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b)Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c)A is true but R is false.
(d)A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion: Condom is a safe contraceptive method to prevent pregnancy

Reason: Condom prevent transmission of infection during sexual act
2. Assertion: Testes lie outside the body.

Reason: Sperms require a temperature lower than the body temperature for development.
3. Assertion: Ovary is not an organ in the female reproductive system.

Reason: Ovary secrete female sex hormones estrogen and progesterone.
4, Assertion: Surgical methods are most effective methods of contraception.

Reason: Surgical methods block gametes’ transport and hence prevent fertilization.
5. Assertion: Fertilisation will not occur in the absence of pollination.

Reason: Pollination brings male gametes closer to the female reproductive part of the flower.
6. Assertion(A) : Asexual reproduction is a primitive type of reproduction.

Reason (R) : Asexual reproduction involves only mitotic cell division.
7. Assertion: Sexual reproduction involves two parents of different sexes, a male and a
female
Reason: Male and female gametes fuse to form a zygote in sexual reproduction.
Case based questions
The growing size of the human population is a cause of concern for all people. The rate
of birth and death in a given population will determine its size. Reproduction is the
process by which organisms increase their population. The process of sexual maturation
for reproduction is gradual and takes place while general body growth is still going on.
Some degree of sexual maturation does not n ecessarily mean that the mind or body is
ready for sexual acts or for having and bringing up children. Various contraceptive
devices are being used by human beings to control the size of population.
1) What should be maintained for healthy society?
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a) Rate of birth and death rate
b) Male and female sex ratio
c) Child sex ratio
d) None of these
2) Which contraceptive method changes the hormonal balance of the body?
a) Condoms
b) Diaphragms
c) Oral pills
d) Both a) and b)
3) Common sign of sexual maturation in girls is
a) Low pitch voice
b) Appearance of moustache and beard
c) Development of mammary glands
d) Broadening of shoulders
4) What are common signs of sexual maturation in boys?
a) Broadening of shoulders
b) Development of mammary glands
c) Broadening of waist
d) High pitch of voice
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CHAPTER – 09
HEREDITY AND EVOLUTION
CONCEPT MAP
HEREDITY
Transmission of characters/traits from one generation to another
VARIATION TRAITS
Difference in the character /trait Trait and characteristics that are

shown by individuals of a species reliably inherited to next
during reproduction. generation.
ENVIRONMENTAL VARIATION ACQUIRED TRAITS
Variation due to education, diet, Characteristics of an organisms

chemicals, environment etc. that are not inheritable. Ex-
language, art etc. they are not
genetically controlled.
GENETIC VARIATION INHERETED TRAITS

Genetic variation in population Characteristics of the organisms
give rise to mutation, meiosis and that are inherited (caused due to
sexual reproduction of gametes change in DNA).
leading to variation in offspring.
RULE FOR INHERITANCE OF SEX DETERMINATION

TRAITS (Mendalism).
A mechanism by which sex of new
Studied by G J Mendel on pea plant born is determined.
Factors (genes) are the carriers of
trait. Child determination in human.
1. Law of dominance
2. Law of segregation
3. Law of independent
• assortment.
•
• Genetics: Branch of science that deals with Heredity and variation.
• Heredity: It means the transmission of features/ characters/ traits from one generation to the
next generation.
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• Variation: The differences among the individuals of a species/ population are called
variations. It takes place due to environment changes, crossing over, and recombination of
genes and mutation.
Types of variation
VARIATION
Somatic variation Gametic variation

• Takes place in the body • Takes place in the gametes/
Cells, Reproductive cells.
• Neither inherited nor transmitted. • Inherited as well as transmitted.
• Also known as acquired traits. • Also known as inherited traits.
• Example, boring of pinna, • Example, human height, skin colour.
cutting of tails in dogs.
CAUSES OF VARIATION
• The most common causes of variations are mutation, recombination, and random mating.
Recombination or crossing over is one of the important reasons for variation.
• It is an exchange of chromosome segment at the time of gamete formation.
• Accumulation of Variation during Reproduction: -
VARIATION
Appear during reproduction whether organisms
multiply.
• Asexually
• Sexually
•
• Variations are fewer. • Variations are large.
• Occurs due to small • Occurs due to crossing over,
inaccuracies in DNA copying. separation of chromosomes,
mutation. mutation.
Importance of Variation:
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• Depending upon the nature of variations different individuals would have different kinds of
advantage.
Example, Bacteria that can with stand heat will survive better in a heat wave.
• Main advantage of variation to species is that it increases the chances of

its survival in a changing environment.
MENDELAND HIS WORK ON INHERITANCE
• Gregor Johann Mendel (1822 & 1884): Started his experiments on plant breeding and
hybridization
• Mendel was known as Father of Genetics
• Plant selected by Mendel: Pisum sativum (garden pea). Mendel used several
contrasting characters for garden pea.
Seven pairs of contrasting characters in Garden Pea.

TABLE OF CONTRASTING CHARACTERS. (SEVEN PAIRS)
CHARACTER DOMINANT TRAIT RECESSIVE TRAIT
Flower colour Purple White
Flower position Axial Terminal
Seed colour Yellow Green
Seed shape Round Wrinkled
Pod shape Inflated Constricted
Pod Colour Green Yellow
Height of plant Tall Dwarf
Mendel’s Experimental Material:

He chose Garden Pea (Pisum sativum) as his experiment material because of:
• Availability of detectable contrasting traits of several characters.

• Short life span of the plant.
• Normally allows self-fertilization but cross-fertilization can also be carried out.
• Large no. of seeds produced.
Mendel’s Experiments:
• Mendel conducted a series of experiments in which he crossed the pollinated plants to

study one character (at a time).
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Monohybrid Cross
• Cross between two pea plants with one pair of contrasting characters is called a
monohybrid cross.
Example: Cross between a tall and a dwarf plant (short).
MONOHYBRID CROSS
PARENT → Tall plant × Dwarf plant
ALLELIC PAIR OF GENES → TT × tt
GAMETES → T T × t t
F1 GENERATION → Tt Tt Tt Tt
(First filial generation) (All tall plants)
SELF POLLINATION → Tt x Tt
OF GAMETS
GAMETES → T t T t
F2 GENERATION
GAMETES → T t
TT Tt
T Tall Tall
Tt tt
t
Tall Dwarf
Phenotypic ratio → 3:1 Tall

: Dwarf (Physical appearance ) 3 : 1
Genotypic ratio → 1:2:1 TT : Tt : tt (Genetic make
up) 1 : 2 : 1
TT Both dominant gene Pure or homozygous condition
tt Both recessive gene
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Tt One dominant, one recessive gene → Heterozygous condition. [Hybrid]
Observations:
1. All F1 progeny were tall.
(No medium height plant (half way characteristic)
2. F2 progeny ¼ were short.
Conclusions:
• TT and Tt both are tall plants while tt is a short plant.

• A single copy of T is enough to make the plant tall, while
both copies have to be 't' for the plant to be short.
• Characters/Traits like 'TT' are called dominant trait (because it expresses itself), 'tt' are
recessive trait (because it remains supressed).
Dihybrid Cross
• A cross between two plants having two pairs of contrasting characters is

called dihybrid cross.
PARENT → Round green × Wrinkled yellow
GENERATION seeds seeds
RRyy × rrYY
↓ ↓
GAMETES → Ry rY
RrYy
F1 → [Round, yellow]
F1 × F1
Selfing F1 → RY RY
Gametes RrYy Ry RrYy Ry
rY rY
ry ry
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F2 gametes →
RY Ry rY ry
RY RRYY RRYy RryY RrYy
Ry RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy
rY RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy
ry RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy
PHENOTYPIC RATIO:
Round, yellow : 9
Round, green : 3
Wrinkled, yellow : 3
Wrinkled, green : 1
GENOTYPIC RATIO:
RRYY → 1
RRYy → 2
RrYY → 2
RRyy → 1
RrYy → 4
Rryy → 2
rrYY → 1
rrYy → 2
rryy → 1
RATIO : 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
Observations:
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• When RRYY was crossed with rryy in F1 generation all were RrYy round and yellow
seeds.
• Self-pollination of F1 plants gave parental phenotype + two mixtures (recombinants)
Round wrinkled, green yellow: seeds plants appeared in the ratio of 9:3:3:1
Conclusions:
• Round and yellow seeds are DOMINANT characters

• Occurrence of new phenotypic combinations show that genes for round and yellow seeds
are inherited independently of each other.
MENDEL’S LAWS OF INHERITANCE

• The Law of Dominance
• The Law of Segregation
• The Law of Independent Assortment.
Law of Dominance:
When parents having pure contrasting characters are crossed then only one character
expresses itself in the F1 generation. This character is the dominant character and the
character/factor which cannot express itself is called the recessive character.
Law of segregation:
The phenomenon of separation of the two alternating factors of one character, during gamete
formation so that one gamete receives only one factor of a character is called as Law of
Segregation.
Law of Independent Assortment-
'When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is
independent of the other pair of characters'.
SEX DETERMINATION
Determination of sex of an offspring.
FACTORS
Responsible for Sex Determination
Environmental Genetic
In some animals, the temperature In some animals like humans
at which the fertilized eggs are kept gender or individual is determined by
decides the gender. a pair of chromosomes called sex
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E.g., in turtle chromosome.

XX – Female
XY – Male
Sex Chromosomes: In human beings, there are 23 pairs of chromosomes.
Out of these 22 chromosomes pairs are called autosomes and the last pair of
chromosome that helps in deciding gender of that individual is called sex chromosome.
XX – Female
XY – Male
Sex determination in Human beings
PARENTS: FATHER MOTHER
XY XX
GAMETES X Y X X
(Reproductive cells)
Zygote formed
after fusion
of gametes XX XX XY XY
FEMALE FEMALE MALE MALE
50 % 50%
• 50% probability of a female child

• 50% probability of a male child
• This shows that half the children will be boys and half will be girls. All children will inherit
an X chromosome from their mother regardless whether they are boys or girls. Thus, sex
of children will be determined by what they inherit from their father, and not from their
mother.
●●●
QUESTIONS - VERY SHORT ANSWERS
1. Each gamete carries only one allele. This is proposed in which law?
Ans: law of segregation.
2. In case of round yellow and green wrinkled, which is dominant trait set?
Ans: Round shape of seed and yellow colour of seed.
3. The sex of the children is determined by what they inherit from their father and not
their mother.” Justify
Ans: because Y sex chromosome is inherited only from father.
4. What are variations?
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Ans. Structural, functional, or behavioural changes from the normal characters.

5. Who is called ‘Father of Genetics’?
Ans. Gregor Johann Mendel.
6. Give reasons why acquired characters are not inherited?
Ans. Take place in somatic cells and not in germ cells.
7. What are genes?
Ans: A gene is the basic physical and functional unit of heredity. It is made up of DNA.
8. What is a clone?
Ans. Genetically uniform population got from a single organism by asexual method.
Short Answer Questions

1. Why did Mendel select Pea plant for his experiment?
Ans: availability of pure line plant, clearly visible observable characters, contrast characters
of same features, easily pollinated (self and cross) etc.
2. Describe genotype and phenotype with one example of each.

Ans: The genotype of an organism is its complete set of genetic material. Eg- TT, Tt, tt
The phenotype is observable feature. E.g.- tall, dwarf
3. What is monohybrid cross?

Ans. Cross in which only one pair of contrasting character is involved is called monohybrid
cross for e.g., cross between tall x dwarf, round and wrinkled seeds.
4. State law of dominance?

Ans. In a monohybrid cross, when one pair of traits is crossed, only one trait appears in F1
generation and that is called dominant trait, the other trait remains hidden. This is
called law of dominance.
5. Why did Mendel choose pea plant for his experiments?

Ans.
• Short life cycle
• easy to grow
• has 7 pairs of contrasting characters
• Self-pollinated and could also be cross pollinated.
•
6. What is significance of variation?
Ans: Variation enables organisms to adjust and adapt better according to the changing
conditions of the environment (Survival advantage). Different kinds of variations in
organisms lead to the development of new species.
7. In human beings, the statistical probability of getting either a male or female
child is 50:50. Give a suitable explanation.
Ans. Human cell-46 chromosomes, 22 pairs autosomes + 1 pair sex chromosome
• 01 pair sex chromosome: -
• Male- X Y – Gametes X, Y
• Female- X X – Gametes X, X
• Fertilization - XX, XX/ 50 %, XY, XY/ 50%
8. Explain with the help of suitable examples why certain traits cannot be passed
on to the next generation. What are such traits called?
Ans: There are certain traits which are developed during the lifetime of an individual. For
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example, many people get their gall bladder removed by surgery due to certain
complications. But the children of these people are born with gall bladder. Thus, this
trait is not passed on from one generation to the next generation. Traits whose
characteristics are not genetically controlled and cannot be passed on from one
generation to the next generation are called acquired traits.
Long Answer Questions

1. Describe law of dominance, law of segregation and Law of independent
assortment?
ANS: Low of dominance: - When parents having pure contrasting characters are crossed
then only one character expresses itself in the F1 generation. This character is the dominant
character and the character/factor which cannot express itself is called the recessive character.
• Law of segregation: - The phenomenon of separation of the two alternating factors

of one character, during gamete formation so that one gamete receives only one
factor of a character is called as Law of Segregation.
• Law of independent assortment: - The genes of different characters located in
different pairs of chromosomes are independent of one another in their
segregation during gamete formation.
2. A blue colour flower plant denoted by BB is crossed with a white colour flower plant
denoted by ww.
(a) State the colour of flower we expect in F1 progeny?
(b) Write percentage of plants bearing white flower in F2 generation when the flowers of
F1 plants were selfed?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotype BB and Bw in the F2 progeny?
Ans. a) Blue coloured b) 25% c) BB: Bw = 25: 50 = 1: 2
3. Pooja has green eyes while her parents and brother have black eyes. Pooja’s
husband Ravi has black eyes while his mother has green eyes and father has black eyes.
(a) On the basis of the above given information, is the green eye colour a dominant or
recessive trait? Justify your answer.
(b) What is the possible genetic makeup of Pooja’s brother’s eye colour?
(c) What is the probability that the offspring of Pooja and Ravi will have green eyes? Also,
show the inheritance of eye colour in the offspring with the help of a suitable cross.
Ans.
a. Yes, green eye colour is recessive as it will express only in homozygous condition
b. BB, Bb
c. bb*Bb
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B B
B Bb Bb
B Bb bb
Genetic cross
50% of the offspring can have green eye colour
4. Describe the sex determination in human?
Ans : Sex Chromosomes: In human beings, there are 23 pairs of chromosomes. Out of these
22 chromosomes pairs are called autosomes and the last one pair of chromosomes that helps
in deciding gender of that individual is called sex chromosome.
XX – Female
XY – Male
Sex determination in Human beings
PARENTS: FATHER MOTHER
XY XX
GAMETES X Y X
X
(Reproductive cells)
Zygote formed
after fusion
of gametes
XX XX XY XY
FEMALE FEMALE MALE

MALE
50 % 50%
• 50% probability of a female child

• 50% probability of a male child
This shows that half the children will be boys and half will be girls. All children will inherit an X
chromosome from their mother regardless whether they are boys or girls. Thus, sex of children
will be determined by what they inherit from their father, and not from their mother.
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CASE BASED QUESTION

1. In our country, mother is blamed for producing female child. Also, cases of illegal
abortion of female foetuses are on the rise. To curb such social evils in the society,
state government has launched adult literacy programme, particularly in the
villages to educate people. In this regard,
answer the following questions:
a) How many types of chromosomes are present in each human diploid cell? Which
of these types is responsible for sex determination?
Ans. Two types- Autosomes and sex chromosomes; sex chromosomes
b) On the basis of sex chromosomes, who (male or female) is responsible for the
determination of the sex of the baby and how?
Ans. Male
c) What is meant by the term ‘Female foeticide’?
Ans. Illegal medical termination of pregnancy.
d) Should government totally ban the techniques that help to determine the sex of
the foetus? Give your comments.
Ans. Comment………………
2. Each human cell has 46 chromosomes. Out of these 22 pairs are similar and 1 pair
is Dissimilar. This dissimilar pair of chromosome plays very important role in sex
Determination in humans.
Answer the following questions based on it.
a) What is the name given to similar chromosomes?
Ans. Autosomes
b) By what name dissimilar chromosomes are known?
Ans. Sex chromosomes
c) How sex chromosome of females is represented?
Ans. XX
d) How male sex chromosomes are represented?
Ans. XY
e) What will happen if X chromosome of female fuses with Y chromosome of male?
Ans. Resulting baby will be a boy.
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3. Anita had a huge scar on her cheek after she met with an accident during her
school days. She is worried if her baby would inherit the scar she had acquired.
Her doctor, a sincere medical Practitioner and successfully convinced Anita.
Answer the following questions based on it.
a) What type of trait is scar?
Ans. Acquired trait
b) What are acquired traits?
Ans. Traits acquired during lifetime.
c) How is it different from inherited traits?
Ans. Inherited traits are obtained from parents from birth and transferred to next
generation.
d) Mention the values the doctor exhibits.
Ans. Your comment.
ASSERTION AND REASON:
DIRECTION: In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation
of assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of
assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
(e) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion: The experience of an individual during its lifetime cannot be passed on

to its progeny.
Reason: Change in non-reproductive tissues cannot be passed on to DNA of germ
cells.
Ans: b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
2. Assertion: The principle of segregation given by Mendel is the principle of purity

of gametes
Reason: Gametes are pure for a character.
Ans: a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
3. Assertion: Mendel choose pea plants for his experiment.

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Reason: Pea plants were the only plants available to him.

Ans: c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
4. Assertion: Height in pea plants is controlled by efficiency of enzymes and is thus

genetically controlled.
Reason: Cellular DNA is the information source for making proteins in the cell.
Ans: a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
5. Assertion (A): The sex of a child in human beings will be determined by the type of
chromosome he/she inherits from the father.
Reason (R): A child who inherits ‘X’ chromosome from his father would be a girl
(XX), while a child who inherits a ‘Y’ chromosome from the father would be a
boy (XY).
Ans: Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and ® is the correct explanation of the assertion
(A).
6. Assertion : The genetic complement of an organism is called genotype.

Reason : Genotype is the type of hereditary properties of an organism.
Ans : (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
7. Assertion : A geneticist crossed two pea plants and got 50% tall and 50% dwarf in
the progeny.
Reason : One plant was heterozygous tall and the other was dwarf.
Ans : (a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
8. Assertion: Changes in non-reproductive tissues can be passed on the the DNA of

the
germ cells.
Reason: Inherited traits include the traits developed during the lifetime of an
individual
that cannot be passed on to its progeny.
Ans: (d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
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Light- Reflection and Refraction

Concept Map
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Light-Reflection and Refraction

Gist of the chapter:-
Reflection of light:- The phenomenon of bouncing back of light rays when it strikes with a highly
polished surface.
Law of reflection of light:-
The angle of incidence is always

equal to angle of reflection i.e. angle
i = angle r
The incident ray, the reflected ray,
and the normal at the point of
incidence all lie in the same plane.
Recap of terms related to reflection of
light:-
Terms Meaning
Incident ray :- light ray which strikes with a highly polished surface
Reflected Ray Ray of light which goes back in same medium after striking
with a highly polished surface.
Normal The perpendicular drawn to the reflecting surface.

Angle of incidence Angle formed between the normal and incident ray at the
point of incidence is called angle of incidence.
Angle of reflection Angle formed between the normal and reflected ray at the
point of incidence is called angle of incidence.
Image formed by plane mirror:-

a. Virtual (cannot be obtained on screen) , erect
b. Image is laterally inverted.
c. Image size = object size.
d. Image formed is far behind the mirror as the object is in front of it.
Spherical mirror:- Mirror whose reflecting surface is curved inward and outward spherically.
Spherical mirror are of two types:-
Concave mirror:- mirror whose reflective surface is curved inward. It is also known as
converging mirror.
Convex mirror:- :- mirror whose reflective surface is curved outward. It is also known as
Diverging mirror.
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Terms related to spherical mirror:-

Pole (P):- centre of the reflecting Surface of the spherical mirror.
Centre of Curvature ( C ):- it is the centre of the hollow sphere which the mirror forms a part.
Radius of Curvature (R):- radius of the hollow sphere of which the mirror is a part.
Principal axis:- straight line passing through pole and centre of curvature of the spherical
mirror.
Principal focus (F):- point on the principal axis where parallel light rays intersect or emerge to
deviate after reflection.
Focal length (f):- distance between the pole and the principal focus of a spherical mirror.
Important note: - Focal length Is half of radius of curvature i.e. ( f = R/2)

Ray diagrams rules: -
1. Light ray parallel to principal axis passes through principal focus after reflection.
2. Light ray passing through principal focus become parallel to the principal axis after
reflection.
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3. Light ray passing through Centre of Curvature get reflected on the same path.
4. A ray incident obliquely to the principal axis at pole of mirror on spherical mirror is
reflected obliquely.
Mirror image formation for concave mirror:-

S.No. Position of object Position of Size of image Nature of Uses
image image
a. Object is at At F Highly Real Collect
infinity Diminished inverted solar
radiations
in solar
devices
b. Object is beyond Between F Diminished Real
C and C inverted
c. *Object is at C Image is at Same as that Real Reflector
C of object inverted mirror for
projector
lamps
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d. When object is Beyond C Enlarged Real

placed between F inverted
and C
e. *When object is at At infinity Highly Real, Torches,
F enlarged Inverted headlight
reflectors
f. *When object Behind the Enlarged Virtual, Shaving
between F and P mirror erect, mirror,
Dentist
mirror
Ray diagrams for image formation in concave mirror :-
Mirror image formation for convex mirror:-

S.No. Position of Position Size of image Nature of image Uses
object of image
a. Object is at At F Point size Virtual, Erect Used as
infinity and Point sized. rear view
mirror
b. Between Between Diminished Virtual Erect. Used as
infinity and F and P rear view
pole mirror.
Ray diagram for image formation in convex mirror:-
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Spherical mirror uses:-

Concave mirrors:- • Concave mirrors are used in torches, search lights and head lights of
vehicles to get parallel beams of light.
• They are used as shaving mirrors to see larger image of the face.
• They are used by dentists to see larger images of the teeth.
• Large concave mirrors are used to concentrate sunlight to produce heat in solar furnaces.
Convex mirrors:-
• Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles because they form erect diminished
images of objects. They also have a wider field of view.
• Used as Reflector in street Lamps.
The new Cartesian Sign Convention:-
On the basis of new Cartesian Sign Convention features of distances measured are followed:-
a. Object distance (u) is always negative (–)
b. Focal length of concave mirror is negative (-) and convex mirror is positive(+)
c. Image distance (v) in convex mirror is always positive (+), image distance (v) in
concave mirror is negative for real image and positive (+) for virtual image. ( Hence
for real image v is negative and for virtual image v is positive)
d. The height measured upwards perpendicular to the principal axis is taken as + ve. The
height measured downwards perpendicular to the principal axis is taken as – ve.
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Mirror formula :-
Mirror formula is a relationship between object distance (u), image distance (v) and focal
length (f) of spherical mirror.
1/f = 1/v + 1/u
Magnification:- ratio of image distance (v) to object distance (u) is known as
magnification
Or
Ratio of the height of the image to the height of object.
Magnification formula = height of image / height of object
m = h’/h
Magnification formula = - image distance/ object distance
m = - v/ u
important points :- if magnification is Positive indicate image is virtual erect, and
if magnification is negative indicate image formed is inverted and real.
If magnification is one means image size = object size
If magnification is greater than one means image size will be greater than object
size (enlarge image)
If magnification is less than one means image size will be smaller than object size
(Diminished image)
Refraction of Light
Refraction of Light : Happens in Transparent medium when a light travels from one medium to
another, refraction takes place.
A ray of light bends as it moves from one medium to another Refraction is due to change in the
speed of light as it enters from one transparent medium to another.
Speed of light decreases as the beam of light travel from rarer medium to the denser medium.
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Refraction through a Rectangular Glass Slab
Laws of Refraction of Light
The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two transparent media at
the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
● The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is a

constant i.e. Sin i/ sin r = constant.
For given colour and pair of media, this law is also known as Snell’s Law. Constant n is the
refractive index for a given pair of medium. It is the refractive index of the second medium with
respect to first medium.
Refractive Index
The refractive index of glass with respect to air is given by ratio of speed of light in air to the
speed of light in glass i.e. nga= c/v.
c Speed of light in vacuum = 3*108 m/s speed of light in air is marginally less, compared to
that in vacuum.
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Refractive index of air with respect to glass is given by
Refractive index of water nw= 1.33
Refractive index of water ng=1.52
Spherical Lens
A transparent material bound by two surfaces, of which one or both surfaces are spherical, forms
a lens.
Convex lens Concave lens
1. Bulging outwards 1. Bulging inwards.
2. Converging lens. 2. Diverging lens.
Concave Lens
A lens bounded by two spherical surfaces, curved inwards is known as double concave lens (or
simply concave lens)
It is also known as diverging lens because it diverges the light.
Few Basic Terms Related to Spherical Lens
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1. Centre of curvature : A lens, either a convex lens or a concave lens is combination of two
spherical surfaces. Each of these surfaces forma part of sphere. The centre of these two spheres
are called centre of curvature represented by C1 and C2.
2. Principal axis :Imaginary straight line passing through the two centres of curvature.
3. Optical Centre : The central point of lens is its optical centre (O). A ray of light, when passes
through ‘O’ it remains undeviated i.e. it goes straight.
4. Aperture : The effective diameter of the circular outline of a spherical lens.
5. Focus of lens : Beam of light parallel to principal axis, after refraction.
1. Convex lens, converge to the point on principal axis, denoted by F, known as Principal focus
2. Concave lens, appear to diverge from a point on the principal axis known as principal focus.
The distance OF2 and OF1 is called as focal length
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Tips for Ray Diagram
1. After refraction, a ray parallel to principal axis will pass through F.

2. A ray passes through F, after refraction will emerge parallel to principal axis
Image formation by a convex lens for various position of object
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Image Formation by Concave Lens
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Sign Convention for Refraction by Spherical Lens
Similar to that of spherical mirror, only the difference is that all the measurement are made from
optical centre ‘O’
Lens formula
Magnification
It is defined as the ratio of the height of image to the height of object.
It is also related to ‘u’ & ‘v’
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From equation (1) & (2)
If magnification
m > 1,then image is magnified
m = 1 ,image is of same size
m < 1, image is diminished
Few Tips to Remember Sign Convention for Spherical Lens
f u v
CONCAVE -ve -ve -ve(virtual image always)
CONVEX +ve -ve +ve(real)
-ve(virtual)
h is always +ve
h´ –ve for Real and +ve for Virtual & Erect.
Power of Lens
The degree of convergence or divergence of light ray achieved by a lens is known as power of
a lens.
It is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length Represented by P.
If F is given in meter, then
P = 1/ f
If F is given in cm , then
SI unit of power of a lens is “diopter” denoted by ‘D’
I diopter or ID It is the power of lens whose focal length is I m
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Power of concave lens or diverging lens is always negative
If any optical instrument has many lens, then net power will be
P = P1+P2+P3………………………………
Question Bank Light-Reflection Refraction

Multiple choice Question
Set -1 Reflection through Spherical Mirrors
1. Rays from sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a concave mirror. Where should an object
be placed so that size of its image is equal to the size of the object?
(a) 15 cm in front of the mirror
(b) 30 cm in front of the mirror
(c) Between 15 cm and 30 cm in front of the mirror
(d) More than 30 cm in front of the mirror
Ans. B.
Explanation- in case of a concave mirror, image size becomes equal to the object size when the
object distance equals to the radius of curvature i.e., twice the focal length.
2. What is not a characteristic of a rear view mirror in a car?
(a) Convex in nature (b) Concave in nature (c) They have wider field of coverage (d) They give
a virtual image
Ans. B.
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Explanation- As rear view mirror is a convex mirror. It has wider field of coverage and gives a
virtual, erect and diminished image of an object.
3. Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a concave mirror
as shown in figure?
(A) Fig. A (B) Fig. B (C) Fig. C (D) Fig. D

Ans. Option (D) is correct.
Explanation-In case of concave mirror, an incident ray parallel to principle axis passes through
F after reflection.
4. Magnification of rear view mirror is
a. less than 1
b. more than 1
c. equal to one
d. dependent on the position of object.
Ans: a.
Explanation-for rear view mirror magnification is always positive and less than 1 as it form virtual
diminished image.
5. for the formation of ray diagram in case of a concave or convex mirror the following rule should
be kept in mind:-
a. a light ray passing through focus becomes parallel to principal axis after reflection.
b. a light ray coming parallel to principal axis pass through focus after reflection.
c. a light ray coming through centre of curvature is reflected on the same path without any
deviation.
d. all of the above.
Answer d
6. The laws of reflection hold true for: (Board question)
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(A) plane mirrors only (B) concave mirrors only (C) convex mirrors only (D) all reflecting surfaces
R
Ans. Option (D) is correct
7. Consider the following properties of virtual images: (Board question)
(i) cannot be projected on the screen
(ii) are formed by both concave and convex mirror.
(iii) are always erect
(iv) are always inverted
The correct properties are:
(A) (i) and (iv) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
Explanation- A virtual image is formed when reflected rays appear to meet. Such images cannot
be obtained on screen. Plane mirrors, convex mirror and concave mirror always forms virtual
image. They are always erect.
8. Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light when light from a point source is
incident on it?
(A) Concave mirror as well as convex lens
(B) Convex mirror as well as concave lens
(C) Two plane mirrors placed at 90° to each other
(D) Concave mirror as well as concave lens
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
Explanation-When a point source of light is placed at the focus of concave mirror then all light
rays after reflection through mirror will become parallel to the principal axis. When this point
source of light is placed at the focus of convex lens then after refraction by light rays convex
lens will become parallel to the principal axis.
9. A student conducts an activity using a flask of height 15 cm and a concave mirror. He finds
that the image formed is 45 cm in height. What is the magnification of the image?
(a) 45 times (b) 1/ 45 times (c) 1/ 3 times (d) 3 times
Ans :- d option
10. A full length image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen by using
(a)a concave mirror (b) a convex mirror (c) a plane mirror (d) both concave as well as plane
mirror
Ans:- b. a convex mirror
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Set – 2 Refraction part

1. A light ray enters from medium A to medium B as shown in figure. The refractive index of
medium B relative to A will be
(a) greater than unity

(b) less than unity
(c) equal to unity
(d) zero
Ans: Greater than unity
2. A beam of light is incident through the holes on side A and emerges out of the holes on
the other face of the box as show in the figure. Which of the following could be inside the box?
(a) Concave lens

(b) Rectangular glass slab
(c) Prism
(d) Convex lens
Answer: (d) Convex lens
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3. The path of a ray of light coming from air passing through a rectangular glass slab traced
by four students are shown as A, B, C and D in figure. Which one of them is correct?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans: B
4. You are given water, mustard oil, glycerine and kerosene. In which of these media a ray
of light incident obliquely at same angle would bend the most?
(a) Kerosene
(b) Water
(c) Mustard oil
(d) Glycerine
Ans Glycerine
5. Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a lens shown
in figure?
(a) Fig. A (b) Fig. B (c) Fig. C (d) Fig. D
Ans (a) Fig. A

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6. The deviation of light ray from its path when it travels from one transparent medium to
another transparent medium is called
(a) reflection
(b) refraction
(c) dispersion
(d) scattering
Ans (b) refraction
7. Rahul conducts an experiment using an object of height 10 cm and a concave lens with
focal length 20 cm. The object is placed at a distance of 25 cm from the lens. Can the image be
formed on a screen?
(a) yes, as the image formed will be real
(b) yes, as the image formed will be erect
(c) no, as the image formed will be virtual
(d) no, as the image formed will be inverted
Answer: Option (c)
8. A student studies that the speed of light in air is 300000 kms/ sec where that of speed in
a glass slab is about 197000 kms/ sec. What causes the difference in speed of light in these two
media?
(a) difference in density
(b) difference in temperature
(c) difference in amount of light
(d) difference in direction of wind flow
Answer: Option (a)
9. Power of the lens is -40, its focal length is
(a) 4m
(b) -40m
(c) -0.025m
(d) -25m
Ans: (C) -0.025m
10. The unit of power of lens is

(a) Metre
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(b) Centimeter
(c) Dioptre
(d) M-1
Ans (c) Dioptre
11. As light travels from a rarer to a denser medium it will have

(a) increased velocity
(b) decreased velocity
(c) decreased wavelength
(d) both (b) and (c)
Ans (d) both (b) and (c)
12. The refractive index of transparent medium is greater than one because
(a) Speed of light in vacuum < speed of light in tansparent medium
(b) Speed of light in vacuum > speed of light in tansparent medium
(c) Speed flight in vacuum = speed of light in tansparent medium
(d) Frequency of light wave changes when it moves from rarer to denser medium
Ans (b)
13. You are given three media A, B and C of refractive index 1.33, 1.65 and 1.46. The medium
in which the light will travel fastest is
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) equal in all three media
Ans (a) A
Case based questions

Answer the questions that follow on the basis of your understanding of the following
case and the related studied concepts:
1. Shyam participated in a group discussion in his interschool competition on the practical
application of light and was very happy to won the award for his school. On that very evening,
his father celebrated the day with a family dinner. At a particular moment, Shyam observed in a
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curve plate, the image of a person's mobile sitting on his back side. Person's mobile was fell off
which the person didn't know about it. Shyam went to the person and informed about this. The
person was thankful to Shyam.
(a) From which side of the plate Shyam observed the incident?
(i) Outward curved. (ii) Inwards curved. (iii) Plane surface. (iv)The side of the plate which have
both outward and inward curves alternately.
Ans. i. outward Curve
(b) The part of the curve plate from which Shyam observed the incidence acts like a
(i) concave mirror (ii) convex mirror (iii) plane mirror (iv) concave-convex lens
Ans. ii. Convex Mirror
c) .Name the type of mirror used in (i) Headlights of a car (ii) Side/rear-view mirror of a vehicle
Ans. i. mirror used in headlight of car – Concave mirror.
ii. side/ rear-view mirror of a vehicle- Convex Mirror.
(d) An object is placed at a large distance in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 40
cm. How far is the image behind the mirror?
Ans. the rays coming from an object placed at large distance can be considered parallel rays.
After reflection they appear to meet at its Focus which is 20 cm.
2. Following figure illustrates the ray diagram for the formation of image by a concave mirror.
The position of the object is beyond the centre of curvature of the concave mirror. On the basis
of given diagram answer any four questions from Q.1. to Q.4
1. If the focal length of the concave mirror is 10 cm, the image formed will be at a distance
___________.
(A) Between 10cm and 15cm (B) Between 10cm and 20cm (C) Beyond 20cm (D) At 20 cm
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
Explanation: If the focal length of the concave mirror is 10 cm, the image formed will be at a
distance between 10 cm and 15 cm.
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2. In case of concave mirror, the image distance is _________ when image is formed in front
of the mirror and _________________ when the image is formed behind the mirror.
(A) positive, negative(B) negative, negative (C) negative, positive (D) positive , positive
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
Explanation: If an image formed behind the concave mirror, the image distance is positive but
if an image is formed in front of the mirror, the image distance is negative.
3. If the size of the object in the given figure is 5 cm and the magnification produced is –0.5.
The size of the image is (in cm) ___________
(A) –2.5 (B) –0.1 (C) 2.5 (D) 0.1
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
Explanation: As we know, magnification, m = h’/ h
h’ = m x h
h’ = -0.5 X 5 = – 2.5 cm
4. An image formed by concave mirror is virtual, when the object is placed
: (A) at infinity (B) at C (C) Between C and F (D) Between P and F
Explanation: An image formed by concave mirror is virtual, when the object is placed between
P and F.
Set – 2 Refraction part

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
Case study question 1
The lenses forms different types of images when object placed at different locations. When a
ray is incident parallel to the principal axis, then after refraction, it passes through the focus or
appears to come from the focus.
When a ray goes through the optical centre of the lens, it passes without any deviation. If the
object is placed between focus and optical center of the convex lens, erect and magnified image
is formed.
As the object is brought closer to the convex lens from infinity to focus, the image moves away
from the convex lens from focus to infinity. Also the size of image goes on increasing and the
image is always real and inverted.
A concave lens always gives a virtual, erect and diminished image irrespective to the position of
the object.
(i) The location of image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed at infinity is
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(a) at focus
(b) at 2F
(c) at optical centre
(d) between F and 2F
Ans (a)
(ii) When the object is placed at the focus of concave lens, the image formed is
(a) real and smaller
(b) virtual and inverted
(c) virtual and smaller
(d) real and erect
Ans (b)
(iii) The size of image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed at the focus of convex
lens is
(a) small
(b) point in size
(c) highly magnified
(d) same as that of object
Ans (c)
(iv) When the object is placed at 2F in front of convex lens, the location of image is
(a) at F
(b) at 2 F on the other side
(c) at infinity
(d) between F and optical center
Ans (b)
(v) At which location of object in front of concave lens, the image between focus and optical
centre is formed
(a) anywhere between centre and infinity
(b) at F
(c) at 2F
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(d) infinity
Ans (a)
Case based question 2
When the rays of light travels from one transparent medium to another, the path of light is
deviated. This phenomena is called refraction of light. The bending of light depends on the
optical density of medium through which the light pass.
The speed of light varies from medium to medium. A medium in which the speed of light is more
is optically rarer medium whereas in which the speed of light is less is optically denser medium.
Whenever light goes from one medium to another, the frequency of light does not change
however, speed and wavelength change. It concluded that change in speed of light is the basic
cause of refraction.
(i) When light travels from air to glass, the ray of light bends
(a) towards the normal (b) away from normal
(c) anywhere (d) none of these
Ans (a)
(ii) A ray of light passes from a medium A to another medium B. No bending of light occurs if
the ray of light hits the boundary of medium B at an angle of
(a) 0° (b) 45°
(c) 90° (d) 120°
Ans (c)
(iii) When light passes from one medium to another, the frequency of light
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains same (d) none of these
Ans (c)
(iv) When light passes from glass to water, the speed of light
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains same (d) first increases then decrease
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Ans (a)
(v) The bottom of pool filled with water appears to be ______ due to refraction of light
(a) shallower (b) deeper
(c) at same depth (d) empty
Ans (a)
Case based question 3

The refractive index of a medium with respect to vacuum is called the absolute refractive index
of the medium. It is given by, μ = sin i/sinr. Absolute refractive indices of some of the materials
A, B, C and D are given in the following table:
Medium Refractive Index
A 1.54
B 1.33
C 2.42
D 1.65
i) How is absolute refractive index related to speed of light?

(a)μ = C/vm
(b)μ=cvm
(c)μ=Vm
(d)vμ=c
Ans (d)
(ii) In which of the materials given in the above table, light travels fastest?
(a) A
( b) B
(c) C
(d) D
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Ans (b)
(iii) The speed of light in air is 3x108 ms-1 and that in medium A is 2.5 x 108 ms-1. The refractive
index of A will be
(a) 1.2
(b) 0.5
(c) 4.5
(d) 1.5
Ans (a)
(iv) When light travels from air to glass,

(a) angle of incidence > angle of refraction
(b) angle of incidence < angle of refraction
(c) angle of incidence = angle of refraction
(d) Can't say
Ans (a)
(v) The refractive index of P with respect to Q is 2. Find the refractive index of Q with respect to
P.
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.2
(c) 2
(d) 2.5
Ans (a)
Assertion and Reason questions

In each of the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(D) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A) : Convex mirrors are used for rear view on vehicles.
Reason(R):The size of the image formed by a convex mirror will be same.
Ans. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
2. Assertion (A): concave mirror are used as Makeup mirrors.
Reason (R): when the face is held within Focus of a concave mirror, then a diminished
image of the face is seen in concave mirror.
Answer:- (c )assertion is true but reason is false.
3. Assertion (A): The focal length of the convex mirror will increase, if the mirror is placed in
water.
Reason (R): The focal length of a convex mirror of radius R is equal to, f = R /2.
4. Assertion(A):- The mirrors used in shaving mirrors are concave mirrors
Reason (R) : In concave spherical mirror, the image formed is always virtual.
Ans. (c) assertion is true but reason is false.
5. Assertion (A): We cannot produce real image by a plane or convex mirrors under any
circumstances.
Reason (R) : focal length of convex mirror is always taken as positive
Ans. (D) Assertion is false but reason is true.
6. Assertion (A) : A convex mirror is used as a driver’s mirror.
Reason (R) : convex mirror have a wider field of view as they are curved outwards. They
also give an erect though diminished image.
Answer (A) both assertion and reason are true, reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
Set -2 Refraction
1. Assertion (A) : Light does not travel in the same direction in all the media.
Reason (R) : The speed of light does not change as it enters from one transparent medium
to another
Ans (c)
2. Assertion(A) : A ray of light travelling from a rarer medium to a denser medium slows
down and bends away from the normal. When it travels from a denser medium to a rarer
medium, it speeds up and bends towards the normal.
Reason (R) : The speed of light is higher in a rarer medium than a denser medium.
Ans (d)
3. Assertion(A) : Refractive index has no units.
Reason (R) : The refractive index is a ratio of two similar quantities.
Ans (a)
4. Assertion(A): Virtual images are always erect.
Reason (R) : Virtual images are formed by diverging lenses only.
Ans (c)
Short Answer type

1. Answer the following:- ( Board question)
i. What should be the position of the object, when a concave mirror is to be used :-
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
a. as a shaving mirror.
b. in torches producing parallel beam of light.
ii. a man standing in front of a mirror finds his image having a small head and legs of normal
size, what type of mirror are used in designing such mirror?
Ans:- i. a. object should be placed between focus and pole of the mirror.
b. at focus as rays coming from focus be come parallel after reflection.
ii. it is a combination of convex mirror ( small head) and plane mirror ( legs of normal size).
2. What is meant by radius of curvature of spherical mirror? How it is related to focal length of
the mirror? (Board question)
Ans. Radius of Curvature is defined as radius of the hollow sphere of which the mirror is a part.
The radius of curvature and focal length related to each other as :- R = 2f
3. if the image formed by a spherical mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it, is
always erect and diminished, what type of mirror is it? Draw a labelled ray diagram to support
your answer? (Board question)
Ans :- it is a convex mirror, ray diagram for any position of the object is
4. “The magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -3”. List all information you obtain from
this statement about the mirror/ image.
Ans. Negative sign of magnification indicates that the image is real and inverted. Since the
image is real and inverted, the mirror is concave and magnification of -3 indicates that the
image is magnified.
5. Three mirrors, one plane, one concave and one convex are lying on the table. identify them
without touching them or using any other apparatus or device?
Ans. Plane mirror produces the image of same size. Concave mirror produced the magnified
image while the convex mirror will produce a diminished image.
Set-2 Refraction Part-
1. “A ray of light incident on a rectangular glass slab immersed in any medium emerges
parallel to itself.” Draw a labelled ray diagram to justify the statement. (2013 D)
Answer:
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Angle of incidence = 55°

Angle of refraction = 40°
Angle of emergence = 55°
2. Define, ‘refractive index of a transparent medium’. What is its unit? Which has a higher
refractive index – glass or water? (2011 D)
Answer:
● The light bending ability of a transparent medium is called the refractive index of
that medium.
● The ratio of speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is called the
refractive index of that medium.
refractive index (of a medium) = Speed of light in vacuum /Speed of light in medium
● Since refractive index is a ratio of two similar quantities therefore it has no units.
● The refractive index of glass is more than water.
3. Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light through triangular glass prism and mark
angle of deviation on it. (2011 D)
Answer:
Refraction of light through triangular glass prism:
4. (i) “The refractive index of diamond is 2.42”. What is the meaning of this statement?
(ii) Name a liquid whose mass density is less than that of water but it is optically denser
than water. (2011 D)
Answer: (i) The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. It means that the ratio of the speed
of light in air and the speed of light in ciiamond is equal to 2.42.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Higher is the refractive index of a medium, lower is the speed of light in that medium.
Because the refractive index of diamond is very high, therefore the speed of light in
diamond is very low.
(ii) Kerosene has the mass density less than water but it is optically denser than water
5. A real image 2/3rd of the size of an object is formed by a convex lens when the object is
at a distance of 12 cm from it. Find the focal length of the lens. (AI 2019)
Answer:
Given, h’ = 2/3
h, u = -12 cm
∴ Focal length of the convex lens = 4.8 cm
6. Draw ray diagrams to show the formation of three times magnified (a) real, and (b) virtual
image of an object by a converging lens. Mark the positions of O, F and 2F in each
diagram. (AI 2017)
Answer:
(b) Ray diagrams of an object placed between F1 and optical centre O of lens can be
drawn as follows:
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(i) The image formed is virtual and erect.

(ii) Image is formed in front of the lens.
(iii) Image formed is enlarged.
7. A divergent lens has a focal length of 30 cm. At what distance should an object of height
5 cm from the optical centre of the lens be placed so that its image is formed 15 cm away
from the lens? Find the size of the image also.
Ans Given f = -30 cm, v = -15 cm, h = 5 cm From the lens formula,
Object should be placed 30 cm from the optical centre.

Also m = height of the image/height of the object
=v/u
or h’ = 5 × −15/−30
= 2.5 cm
Size of image formed is 2.5 cm
8. If the speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 m/s, find the absolute refractive index of a
medium in which light travels with a speed of 1.4 × 108 m/s. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
The speed of light in vacuum = 3 × 108 m/s
The speed of light in a medium = 1.4 × 108 m/s
∴ Absolute refractive index
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9. If the focal length of this lens is 10 cm, the lens is held at a distance of 5 cm from the
palm, use lens formula to find the position and size of the image.
Given focal length, f = 10 cm and u = -5 cm According to lens formula,
Thus, the image will be formed at 10 cm on the same side of the palm and the size of the
image will be enlarged.
Short answer questions (3 marks)
1. A student project the image of a candle flame on a screen 60 cm in front of a mirror by
keeping the flame at a distance of 15 cm from its pole.
a. write the type of mirror be should use
b. find the linear magnification of the image produced.
c. what will be the distance between the object and its image?
d. draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case. (Board Question)
Ans. given
v= -60 cm
u= -15 cm
a. since the image is real so mirror is concave mirror.
b. m = -v/u
m= -(-60)/ -15 = -4
m= -4
c. distance between object position and image position = 60- 15 = 45 cm.
2. The image formed by a spherical mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification -2, if the image
is at a distance of 30 cm from the mirror. Where is the object placed? Find the focal length of
the mirror. List two characteristics of the image formed if moved 10 cm towards the mirror. (Board
question)
Solution:- Given magnification m= -2
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Distance of the image (v) = -30 cm

(a) As m= -v/u so u = - v/ m
u = - (-30) / -2
u = -15 cm
(b) Substituting these values in the mirror formula to get value of focal length:-
1/f = 1/v + 1/u
1/f = 1/-30 + 1/ -15
1/f = -1/30 – 1/15
1/f = -1 -2/30
1/f = -3/30
F = -10 cm
(c) characteristics of image formed when moved 10 cm towards the mirror =
New object distance u’ = -5 cm
f = -10 cm
Substituting the new value in the mirror formula
1/f = 1/v + 1/u
1/f – 1/u = 1/v
1/v = -1/10 +1/5
v’= 10cm
m = -10 /-5
m=2
since m is positive the image is virtual erect and it is magnified as value of m is 2 ( greater than
1)
3. A spherical mirror produces an image of magnification -1 on a screen placed at a distance of
50 cm from the mirror.
(a) Write the type of mirror.
(b) Find the distance of the image from the pole of mirror.
(c) What is the focal length of the mirror?
(d) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case. (Board question)
Answer:
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
If magnification, m = -1; v = 50 cm If the magnification has minus sign, then the image is real
and inverted.
∴ v = -50 (for real image)
m = −v/u
⇒ -1 = − (−50)/ u
= -50 cm
(a) Since image is formed on the screen therefore the mirror formed real image which is formed
by concave mirror only.
(b) Image distance = 50 cm in front of the mirror.
(c) focal length = by using mirror formula
1/f = 1/v + 1/u
1/f = 1/ -50 + 1/ -50
1/f = -1 -1/50
1/f = -2/50
1/f = -1/25
f= -25cm
(d) ray diagram for image formation
4. Amit wants to have an erect image of an object using a converging mirror of focal length 40
cm. (sample paper 2022-23)
(a) Specify the range of distance where the object can be placed in front of the mirror. Justify.
Answer:- the object has to be placed at a distance between 0-40 cm. this is because image is
Virtual, Erect and magnified when object placed between F and P.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show image formation in this case.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(c) State one use of the mirror based on the above kind of image formation.
Answer: used as Shaving mirror or used by Dentist to get Enlarged image of teeth.
Long Answer Question (5 marks questions)

1. Answer the following questions:- ( Board Question )
(a) Define real image of an object.
(b) Name the mirror that:
- can give real as well as virtual image of an object.
- will always give virtual image of same size of an object.
- will always give virtual and diminished image of an object.
- is used by a doctor in examining teeth,
(b) With the help of a ray diagram explain the use of concave mirror as solar concentrators.
Ans :- a. When the reflected rays after reflection actually meet at a point then real image is
formed. b.
Concave mirror
Plane mirror
Convex mirror
Concave mirror
c. The rays coming from the sun are parallel to principal axis and will concentrate at focus after
reflection.
2. (a) Draw a ray diagram in each of the following cases to show the position and nature of the
image formed when object is placed: (Board question)
(i) between focus and centre of curvature of a concave mirror.
(ii) between focus and pole of a concave mirror.
(iii) between centre of curvature and infinity for a concave mirror.
(b) (i) Give mathematical formulae for determining magnification produced by a spherical mirror.
(ii) What does m =- 1 signify? Identify the mirror that can produce it.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Ans. A.
i. When object between C and F

ii. when object is between focus and pole of a concave mirror
iii. when object is between centre of curvature and infinity for a concave mirror.
b.
i. m =- (v) / (u)
ii) Minus sign mean that the image is real and inverted. A concave mirror can produce it when
object is kept at centre of curvature.
3. The focal length of a concave mirror is 30 cm. Find the position of the object in front of the
mirror so that the image is three times the size of the object. (Board question)
Ans : Given f =- 30 cm, m =- 3 u = ?
a. For real image m= - v/u
-3 = -v/u
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
v= 3u
Mirror formula 1/f = 1/v + 1/u
1/-30 = 1/3u + 1/u
-1/30 = 4/3u
u = -40 cm
object must be 40 cm in front of mirror to get a real inverted image by the concave mirror.
b. For virtual image m = v/u
+3 = - v/u
v = - 3u
using mirror formula
1/f = 1/v + 1/u
1/- 30 = 1/ -3u + 1/ u
-1/30 = -1+3/3u
-1/30 = 2/3u
u = -20cm
i.e. if the object is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front of mirror then virtual, an erected image
is produced by the concave mirror.
Content Preparation: Ms. Prakarti Mudgal

Mr. Ankush Kumar
Mrs. Mohini Ratnagiri
Proof- Reader : Ms. Shivangi Mishra
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOuRFUL WORLD

MIND MAP
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HUMAN EYE: -
➢ The sense organ that helps us to see.
➢ Located in eye sockets in skull.
Parts of human eyes: -

➢ Cornea- It is the outermost part of the eye,It acts like a lens which refracts the light
entering the eye.
➢ Eye lens- It is a convex lens made of transparent and flexible jelly like material. Its
curvature can be adjusted with the help of ciliary muscles.
➢ Ciliary muscles-The ciliary muscles are involved in lens accommodation and help in
changing the focus of the lens in order to see things near or far accordingly. [CBSE 2017]
➢ Iris- The part of the eye which controls the size of the pupil. It gives colour to the eyes.
more amount of light

When Light is dim Iris expands
enters in eye
less amount of light

When ,Light is bright Iris contract
enters in eye
➢ Pupil- It is a hole in the middle of iris through which light enters the eye. It appears black
because light falling on it goes into the eye and does not come back.
➢ Retina- The light-sensitive screen, where the image of any object is formed, is called
retina.It contains rods and cones.The image formed on the retina is real and inverted.
➢ Rods -They are responsible for vision at low light levels (night vision).
➢ Cones -The cones help in seeing colour but only when light is at a high level.
➢ Optic nerve-The Optic Nerve is the largest sensory nerve of the eye. It carries
impulses for sight from the retina to the brain.
➢ Power of accommodation: - The ability of eye to adjust its focal length and view the
nearby and far away objects by forming an image on retina is called power of
accommodation of human eye. [CBSE 2019]
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
focal length is
To see the far away increased and the
ciliary muscles get relaxed lens becomes thin image of the distant
objects
object is formed on
the retina..
focal length
decreased and the
To see the nearby ciliary muscles get
lens becomes thicker image of the nearby
objects contraction
object is formed
clearly on the retina.
➢ The minimum distance and maximum distance that a normal eye can see clearly is
called the near point and far point respectively. For a young adult Near point is 25
cm and far point is infinity.
Defect of vision and their correction: -
Cataract:-Cataract is a condition of partial or complete loss of vision.
➢ During old age, the crystalline lens becomes milky and cloudy.
➢ It is possible to restore vision through a cataract surgery.
➢ In this surgery, the cloudy lens is removed and replace with an artificial lens.
(1)MYOPIA / Near-sightedness → Problem to see far → Image formed in front of retina→

Corrected using
concave lens
(2)HYPERMEMETROPIA / Far-sightedness →Problem to see near →Image formed behind
the retina →
Corrected using convex lens[CBSE 2019, CBSE 2020]
Myopia Hypermetropia
The defect Near object can be seen clearly but Far things are seen clearly
the far things are not clear but the things that are near
are not clear.
Effect Image is formed in front of the retina. Image is formed behind the retina.
Causes Shortening of the eyeball Elongation of the eyeball
Elongation of the eye lens Shortening of the lens

Correction Using a concave lens Using convex lens
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(3)PRESBYOPIA: - The person suffering from this defect cannot see nearby as well as
far off objects.
This defect of eye arises due to the -
(i) Diminishing flexibility of eye lens (ii) Weakening of ciliary muscles
➢ corrected by bifocal lens
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Dispersion of light by a glass prism: - The splitting of white light into seven colours
on passing through a transparent medium like glass prism is called dispersion of light.
A prism can split the incident white light into a band of colours. the sequence of
colours is Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red. We remember it with
“VIBGYOR”.
(1) The band of the coloured components of a light beam is called its spectrum.
(2) The red light bends the least while the violet the most.
Isaac Newton was the first to use a glass prism to obtain the spectrum of sunlight.
Recombination of dispersed spectrum of white light
Isaac Newton was a first to use two glass prism arrangements as shown in the figure
above in which the second identical prism is inverted with respect to the first prism. He
observed that the light passing through the second prism was white light due to
recombination of the spectrum of light. This gave him the idea that the sunlight was made
up of seven colors.
Rainbow –
➢ A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after a rain shower.
➢ It is caused by dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present in the
atmosphere.
➢ A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun.
➢ The water droplets act like small prisms. They refract and disperse the incident
sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally refract it again when it comes out of the
raindrop.
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Atmospheric refraction –
➢ The refraction due to the atmosphere is called atmospheric refraction.
➢ Due to the temperature difference between the air, refraction occurred.
➢ The hotter air is lighter (less dense) than the cooler air (denser) above it. Here
refractive index of hotter air is slightly less than that of the cooler air.
Twinkling of stars
The twinkling of stars is a phenomenon due to the atmospheric refraction.
Scattering of light: It is the phenomenon of spreading of light caused by minute particles

(dust, smoke etc.) in the atmosphere.
• Scattering of light makes the particles visible.

• Tyndall effect is the phenomenon of scattering of light by colloidal particles.
• Colour of the sky appears Blue.
• Danger signals are red in colour.
QUESTION BANK
One marks questions-MCQ
Question 1-A student traces the path of a ray of light through a triangular glass prism
for different values of angle of incidence. On analysing the ray diagrams, which
one of the following conclusions is he likely to draw?[CBSE 2015]
(a) The emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray.
(b) The emergent ray bends at an angle to the direction of the incident ray.
(c) The emergent ray and the refracted ray are at right angles to each other.
(d) The emergent ray is perpendicular to the incident ray.
Answer: (b)
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Question 2-Which of the following colors is least scattered by fog, dust of smoke?
(a)Violet (b) Blue (c) Red
(d)Yellow Answer: (c )
Question 3- After tracing the path of a ray of light through a glass prism a student marked
the angle of incidence (∠i), angle of refraction (∠r), angle of emergence (∠e) and the angle
of deviation (∠D) as shown in the diagram. The correctly marked angles are:
(a) ∠i and ∠r
(b) ∠i and ∠e
(c) ∠i, ∠e and ∠D
(d) ∠i, ∠r
and ∠e
Answer:(
b)
Question 4- At noon the sun appears white as
(a) light is least scattered. (b) All the colors of the white light are scattered away.
(c) Blue color is scattered the most. (d) Red color is scattered
the most. Answer: (a)
Question 5- In the following diagram, the path of a ray of light passing through a glass
prism is shown: In this diagram the angle of incidence, the angle of emergence and the
angle of deviation respectively are (select the correct option):
(a) X, R and T
(b) Y, Q and T
(c) X, Q and P
(d) Y, Q
and P
Answer: (d)
Question 6- The colored light that refracts most while passing through a prism is-
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(a)Yellow (b) Violet (c ) Blue (d)

Red
Answer: (b)
Question 7- A student is observing the diagram showing the path of a ray of light passing
through a glass prism. He would find that for all angles of incidence the ray of light bends:
(а) Towards the normal while entering into the prism and away from the normal while
emerging out the prism
(b) Away from the normal while entering into the prism and towards the normal while
emerging out of the prism.
(c) Away from the normal while entering as well as while emerging out of the prism.
(d) Towards the normal while entering as well as while emerging out
of the prism. Answer:(a)
Question 8- Twinkling of stars is due to
Atmospheric-
(a) Ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere.
(b) Refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
(c) Scattering of light by dust particles
(d) Internal reflection of light by
clouds. Answer:(b)
Question 9- The clear sky appears blue because-
a) Blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere.
b) Ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere.
c) Violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colors by the atmosphere.
d) Light of all other colors is scattered more than the violet and blue color lights by the
atmosphere.
Answer: (c)
Question 10- While performing the experiment to trace the path of a ray of light
passing through a glass prism, four students marked the incident ray and the
emergent ray in their diagrams in the manner shown below.
The correct path of the rays has been shown by:

(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer: (c)
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Question 11- In the following diagram the correctly marked angles are:
(a)∠A and ∠e
(b)∠i, ∠A and ∠D
∠A, ∠i and ∠e
(c)
(d)∠A, ∠r and ∠D
[CBSE 2017]
Answer: (a)
Question 12- The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in color.
These can be easily seen from a distance because among all other colors, the red light-
(a) Is scattered the most by smoke or fog.
(b) Is scattered the least by smoke or fog.
(c) Is absorbed the most by smoke or fog.
(d) Moves
fastest in air.
Answer:(b)
Question 13- Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of
light of different colors of white light in air?
(a) Red light moves fastest.
(b) Blue light moves faster than green light.
(c) All the colors of the white light move with the same speed.
(d) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and the
violet light. Answer:(c)
Question 14- The bluish color of water in deep sea is due to
(a) The presence of algae and other plants found in water
(b) Reflection of sky in water
(c) Scattering of light
(d) Absorption of light by
the sea. Answer:(c)
Question 15- Stars appears to be twinkling because of
(a) Atmospheric refraction
(b) Reflection
(c) Tyndall effect
(d) Spectr
um
Answer:(
a)
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Two Marks questions

Question 1-Why is red color selected for danger signal lights? (CBSE 2008)
Answer: Because the red light has the largest wavelength of all colors, it is the least
dispersed. Because of this, much of the light gets reflected back and can travel longer
distances through clouds, fog, dust etc. to effectively enter our eyes.
Question 2-What happens to the image distance in the normal human eye when we
decrease the distance of an object, say 10 m to 1 m? Justify your answer. [CBSE 2019]
Answer: The image distance will remain unaffected even if we change the object distance
because the image is formed on the Retina.
Question 3-What is a spectrum? Why do different coloured rays deviate

differently on passing through a glass prims? (CBSE 2012)
Answer: The band of seven colour of visible light is called spectrum. The seven
colour of light are VIBGYOR, i.e. violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange. The
speed of light of these colours is different when they travel into denser medium from
the rare medium and also bends differently showing different deviation.
Question 4- Explain why the planets do not twinkle but the stars twinkle?
Answer: The planets are much closer to the earth. A planet can be considered as a collection
of large number of point-sized sources of light. So the total variation in the amount of light
entering our eye from all the individual point-sized sources will average out to zero thereby
nullifying the twinkling effect.
Question 5- When white light passes through a glass prism; seven colors namely
red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet are seen on the white screen. All
these colors have different angles of deviation. Explain why?
Answer: Speed of color in a medium depends upon its wavelength. All the colors have
different wavelength. The red color has the longest wavelength and violet color has the last
wavelength. Therefore, red color has the highest speed in the glass prism and the violet
color has the lowest speed in the glass prism. Hence, all colors of white light are refracted
by different amounts while passing through the glass prism. Therefore, all the colors have
different angles of deviations.
Question 6- What is atmospheric refraction? List two phenomena which can be explained
on the basis of atmospheric refraction. [CBSE 2019, CBSE 2016]
Answer:In atmosphere, there are layers of differ ent densities and refractive indices, when
light ray is passed through these layers refraction of light takes place which is called
atmospheric refraction.
Two phenomenon that can be explained on the basis of atmospheric refraction are:
(i) Twinkling of stars.
(ii) Early sunset and delayed sunrise.
Question 7- Write the structure of eye lens and state the role of ciliary muscles in the
human eye.[CBSE 2019]
Answer: The eye lens of the human eye is a convex lens that is thick in the middle and thin from
the edges. It converges the incident light rays and forms the image on retina.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Role of ciliary muscles: (i) It changes the shape of the lens in eye.
(ii) It helps to regulate the flow of aqueous humor in eye to help with focusing.
Question 8- What is the colour of the clear sky during day time? Give reason for it. (CBSE
2012)
Answer: Clear sky appears blue because the white light of sun when enters the earth’s
atmosphere the large number of molecules present in the earth’s atmosphere scatter the blue
colour more strongly than red light. As blue light scatters the maximum it reaches our eyes.
Question 9- Draw a ray diagram to explain the term angle of deviation. [CBSE 2017]
Answer: The emergent ray bends at an angle to the direction of the ’incident, thus the angle
between them is known as angle of deviation (D).
Question 10- A star sometimes appears brighter and some other times fainter. What is
this effect called? State the reason for this effect. (CBSE 2012)
Answer: This effect is called the twinkling effect. This is due to the various layers present in the
atmosphere which causes the change in the refractive index and the light undergoes multiple
refraction. The amount of light entering our eye keep changing and hence the star appears to
be twinkling, bright sometimes and fainter other times.
Three Marks questions
Question 1- Why is Tyndall effect shown by colloidal particles? State four instances of
observing the Tyndall effect.[CBSE 2020]
Answer:. The Tyndall effect is the scattering of light as a light beam passes through a colloid.
The individual suspension particles scatter and reflect light, making the beam visible.
(i) The visible beam of headlights in fog is caused by the Tyndall effect. The water
droplets scatter the light, making the headlight beams visible.
(ii) The Tyndall effect is used in commercial and lab settings to determine the particle
size of aerosols.
(iii) Opalescent glass displays the Tyndall effect. The glass appears blue, yet the light
that shines through it appears orange.
(iv) Blue eye colour is from Tyndall scattering through the translucent layer over the eye’s
iris.
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Question 2- The near point of the eye of a person is 50 cm. Find the nature and power
of the corrective lens required by the person to enable him to see clearly the objects
placed at 25 cm from the eye.[CBSE 2020]
Question 3- Explain in brief the reason for each of the following:

(a) Tyndall effect
(b) dispersion of light
(c) Twinkling of stars(CBSE 2016)
Answer:(a) The Tyndall effect is the scattering of light as a light beam passes through a colloid.
The individual suspension particles scatter and reflect light, making the beam visible. The Tyndall
effect is the scattering of light as a light beam passes through a colloid. The individual suspension
particles scatter and reflect light, making the beam visible.
(b) When white light is passed through a glass prism it splits into its spectrum of colours and this
process of white light splitting into its constituent colour is termed as dispersion.
(c) Stars twinkle due to atmospheric refraction of light from the stars and changing density of air
around the earth.
Question 4- A student needs spectacles of power –0.5 D for the correction of his vision.
(i) Name the defect in vision the student is suffering from.
(ii) Find the nature and focal length of the corrective lens.
(iii) List two causes of this defect.[CBSE 2019]
Answer: i) Myopia.
ii) Concave lens with the focal length of 200 cm
Given, P = – 0.5 D
We have,
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
P= 1/f(m)
f =1/P =1/-0.5D
f = -2m
f = -200cm
(ii) Two causes of Myopia are:

1. Elongation of eye ball.
2. High converging power of eye lens.
Question 5- A star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position in the sky.
Illustrate it with the help of a label diagram. [CBSE 2016]
Answer: Light from a star is refracted as it leaves vacuum and enters the earth’s atmosphere.
Air at higher altitudes is rarer and is denser nearer to the earth’s surface. Thus when light coming
from the star comes down, the dense air bends the light more. Due to this refraction of star’s
light, the star appears
to be at a higher position.
Five Marks questions

Question 1- (a) A person is suffering from both myopiaand hypermetropia.
(i) What kind of lenses can correct this defect?
(ii) How are these lenses prepared?
(b) A person needs a lens of power + 3D for correcting his near vision and – 3D for
correcting his distant vision. Calculate the focal lengths of the lenses required to correct
these defects.[CBSE 2020]
Answer: (a) (i) If a person suffer from both myopia and hypermetropia, such people often require
bifocal lenses.
(ii) A common type of bifocal lenses consists of both concave and convex lenses. The upper
portion consists of a concave lens. It facilitates distant vision. The lower part is a convex lens. It
facilitates near vision.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
The focal length of the lens for correcting distant vision = + 0.33 m.
Plus sign of focal length tells us that it is a convex lens.
Question 2- What happens to a beam of white light when it gets refracted through glass
prism? Which colour deviates the most and the least after refraction through a prism?
What is likely to happen if a second identical prism is placed in an inverted position with
respect to the first prism. Justify your answer. [CBSE2019, CBSE 2017]
Answer: When white light is refracted through a glass prism, it gets split into its constituting
colours at different angles. This phenomenon is called Dispersion of Light. Forming a rainbow,
Least deviated colour is red whereas most deviated colour is violet. When second identical prism
is placed in an inverted position with respect to first prism, recombination of the spectrum will
take place and white light will be obtained.
Question 3- Nitin and his four friends were sitting on his roof on a pleasant day. All
of them were enjoying Ludo. Suddenly Aryu saw seven colors in the sky. He
jumped with joy and shouted “Look, there is an Indradhanush in the sky”. Then
Nitin explained all about the rainbow. After that everyone clapped for him.
(a) What information is given by Nitin to his friends about a rainbow?
(b) Is it possible to obtain rainbow phenomenon on the earth?
(c) Which term is used for the seven colors of the rainbow?
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Answer:
(a) Rainbow is a natural phenomenon in which an arch of seven colors visible in the
sky is produced by the dispersion of white sunlight by raindrops in the atmosphere.
Each raindrop acts as a tiny glass prism splitting the sunlight into seven colors.
(b) Yes, in daily life, when white light of the Sun is passed through a glass prism, it
splits into seven colors.
(c) The band of seven colors obtained by the splitting of white light is called spectrum.
(d) red color appears at the top of the rainbow whereas violet color appears at its bottom.
Question 4- What is meant by scattering of light? Use this phenomenon to explain why
the clear sky appears blue[CBSE 2016] [CBSE 2015]
Answer: Scattering of light is the phenomenon by which a beam of light is redirected in many
different directions when it strikes minute particles in the atmosphere.
Clear sky appears blue because the white light of sun when enters the earth’s atmosphere the
large number of molecules present in the earth’s atmosphere scatter the blue colour more
strongly than red light. As blue light scatters the maximum it reaches our eyes.
Question 5-(a) Write the importance of ciliary muscles in the human eye. Name the defect
of vision that arises due to gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles in old age. What type
of lenses are required by the persons suffering from this defect to see the objects clearly?
(b) Akshay, sitting in the last row in his class, could not see clearly the words written on
the blackboard. When the teacher noticed it, he announced if any student sitting in the
front row could volunteer to exchange his seat with Akshay. Salman immediately agreed
to exchange his seat with Akshay. He could now see the words written on the blackboard
clearly. The teacher thought it fit to send the message to Akshay’s parents advising them
to get his eyesight checked.
In the context of the above event, answer the following questions:
(i) Which defect of vision is Akshay suffering from? Which type of lens is used to correct
this defect?
(ii) State the values displayed by the teacher and Salman.
(iii) In your opinion, in what way can Akshay express his gratitude towards the teacher
and Salman?
Answer:
(a) Ciliary muscles modify the curvature of the eye lens to enable the eye to focus objects at
varying distances and help in adjusting the focal length of the eye lens.
The gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles in old age causes presbyopia. The persons
suffering from this defect need to use bifocal lenses.
(b) (i) Akshay is suffering from Myopia/Near sightedness. Concave/Diverging lens is used to
correct this defect.
(ii) The values displayed by the teacher and Salman are concerned and caring respectively.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(iii) Akshay can express his gratitude by thanking the teacher and Salman.
ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion: A normal human eye can clearly see all the objects beyond certain
minimum distance.
Reason: The human eye has capacity of adjusting the focal length of eye lens.
Answer: (a)
2. Assertion: On a clear summer night twinkling of stars is observed.
Reason: The twinkling of stars is caused by dispersion of star light by the atmosphere.
Answer: (c)
3. Assertion: The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particles gives
rise to Tyndall effect.
Reason: The colour of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering
particles.
Answer (b)
4. Assertion: Tyndall Effect is an optical phenomenon of light used to explain
atmospheric refraction.
Reason: The tiny particles of dust disperse sunlight in it falls through foliage in a forest.
Answer: (c)
5. Assertion: On mid-day, the colour of the sunlight becomes white.
Reason: No atmospheric refraction is caused due to overhead sun.
Answer: (a)
CASE BASED QUESTIONS-
Question 1- A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after a rain shower. It is
caused by dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere. A
rainbow is always formed ina direction opposite to that of the Sun. The water droplets act
like small prisms. They refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally,
and finally refract it again when it comes out of the raindrop. Due to the dispersion of light
and internal reflection, different colours reach the observer’s eye. You can also see a
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rainbow on a sunny day when you look at the sky through a waterfall or through a water
fountain, with the Sun behind you.
Question 1- Rainbows are caused due to:

(a) scattering of white light (b) dispersion of white light
(c) reflection of white light (d)None of the above
Answer-(b)
Question 2- The colours are in the order in rainbow:
(a) Violet, blue, green, yellow, indigo, orange and red
(b) Violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red
(c) Violet, green, blue, yellow, indigo, orange and red
(d) Violet, blue, green, yellow, indigo, orange and red
Answer (b)
Question 3- What is the shape of a rainbow?
(a) Straight line (b) circle shape (c)arc shape (d)Oval shape
Answer (b)
Question 4- Water droplet act like as:
(a) Tiny prism (b)tiny glass slab (c) tiny lens (d) tiny mirror
Answe (a)
Question 2- The human eye is like a camera. Its lens system forms an image on a light-
sensitive screen called the retina. Light enters the eye through a thin membrane called
the cornea. It forms the transparent bulge on the front surface of the eyeball as shown in
the figure. The crystalline lens merely provides the finer adjustment of focal length
required to focus objects at different distances on the retina. We find a structure called
iris behind the cornea. Iris is a dark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the
pupil. The pupil regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye.
There are mainly three common refractive defects of vision. These are (i) myopia or near-
sightedness, (ii) hypermetropia or far-sightedness, and (iii) Presbyopia. These defects
can be corrected by the use of suitable spherical lenses.
Question 1- What is the function of pupil in the human eye?
Answer: It controls the amount of light that enters the eye.
Question 2- What is the far point and near point of human eye with normal vision?
Answer: For a young adult near point is 25cm and far point is infinity.
Question 3- A student has difficulty reading the blackboard while sitting in the last row.
What could be the defect the child is suffering from?
Answer: Myopia
Question 4- What is the function of iris in human eye?
Answer: The part of the eye which controls the size of the pupil. It gives colour to the eyes.
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CHAPTER 12- ELECTRICITY

Think life without “electricity” in this modern society. Is it possible to survive without electrical
energy in world of technology. Since we are science student, so it is necessary to understand
the basic concept behind the word “electricity”
Charge (Q)
It is a very small particles present in an atom it can be either negative (electron) or positive
(proton)
“Coulomb” is the SI unit of charge, represented by C.
Net charge (Q)– Total charge
IC Net charge is equivalent to the charge contained in nearly electrons 6x1018
Current (I)
Rate of flow of net charge is called current. Denoted by (I)
SI unit of current is “Ampere” rep. by A.

1 Ampere is Defined as one coulomb of charge following per second.
In an electric circuit the electric current flow in the opposite direction of the flow of electron (–ve
charge) conventionally. It flows from the +ve terminal of battery or cell to –ve terminal.
Small quantity of current are expressed in
mA (milli Ampere) = 10–3 A uA (micro Ampere) = 10–6 A
Ammeter– It is an instrument used to measure the electric current in a circuit.
It is always connected in series m a circuit
–
It is represented by the symbol ––––––––+ A ––––––– in an electric circuit. It has low
resistance.
Electric Circuit– It is a closed path along which an electric current flow.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
The arrow shows the direction of electric current

Bulb in circuit.
–
Ammeter A In this circuit ammeter is connected in series.
+
Key
+ –
Battery
(Having 3 cells )
The electron can only flow when there is difference of electric pressure. For example
“water flowing through a tube” It is only possible when there high pressure at one side and low
at another side, then it will move from high pressure to low pressure.
In case of electric current, the flow of charge is made possible due to chemical action with in a
cell that generates the potential difference across the terminals of the cell.
8. Electric potential Difference– It is defined as the work done in carrying a unit charge from one
point to another between the two points of an electric circuits.
SI unit of potential difference – Volts rep. by “V”

One Volt is defined as When 1 Joule of work is done to carry one coulomb (1C) of charge from
one point to another of a current carrying conductor then the potential difference is send to be
IV.
1J
IV =
1C
Voltmeter - It is an instrument, used to measure the potential difference and represented by the
symbol + V– in an electric circuit. It is always connected in parallel across the points
between which the potential difference is to be measured. It has high resistance.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Symbols for some commonly used instrument in circuit diagrams
(1) Cell + –
(2) Battery + –
(3) Key (switch) open OR
(4) Key (Close) OR
(5) Joint wire
(6) Wires with no join
(7) Bulb
+ –
(8) Ammeter A
+ –
(9) Voltmeter V
Georg Simon Ohm (physicist) 1787 – 1854

Found the relationship between the current (I) flowing through a conductor and potential
difference (V) across the terminals of a conductor using the circuit diagram.
+ V– GRAPH
–
A
+ V VaI
(V )
O I (A)
+ –
In this circuit diagram we come across two new symbols
RESISTANCE (R)
OR RHEOSTAT (Variable Resistance)
Ohm’s Law : It states that the electric current flowing through a conductor is directly proportion
at to the potential difference across its ends, provided the temperature remain constant
VαI
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
V = IR
Where “R” is the proportionality constant for the given metal at given temperature and is said to
be resistance, the graph between V and I is always straight line.
Resistance– It is the property of a conductor that opposes the flow of current. It is represented
by ‘R’ and symbol is
SI unit of resistance “Ohm” OR Ω
So to increase or decrease the current accordingly in the circuit a component is used is called
“Rheostat”, that regulates the current without changing potential difference. Represented by “Rh”
Its symbol is OR it a conductor has less Resistance, then

more current will flow through it.
FACTORS ON WHICH RESISTANCE OF A CONDUCTOR DEPENDS–
(1) On its length (l)
(2) On its cross sectional area (A)
(3) On the nature of material
Where “ ” (rho) is a proportionality constant known as resistivity of the material of conductor.

11. Resistivity ( ) – the resistance offered by a wire of unit length and unit cross sectional
area is called resistivity.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
For a material irrespective of length and area, the resistivity is a constant.

Resistance of a material vary with temperature
Resistivity of an alloy (homogeneous mixture of metals) is generally higher than of its constituent
metals. Example Constantan (alloy of Cu & Ni)
Alloys have high resistivity and do not oxidise (burn) readly at high temperature, for this reason
they are commonly used in electrical heating devices, like electric iron, heater, toasters etc. For
example “Tungsten” as filament of electric bulb.
Resistance in Series– (Maximum Effective Resistance)

Let us take three resistance R1, R2 and R3 that are connected in series in a circuit.
R1 R2 R3
V1 V2 V3
I
+ –
V
Ohm’s low stated
V = IR
The current (I) flowing through the resistance in series will remain same, where as the potential
difference (V) across each resistor will be different. V = IR
Thus, we conclude that effective Resistance of the several resistors joined in series is equal to
the sum of their individual resistance.
Resistance in Parallel (Minimum Effective Resistance)
Let us take three R1, R2 and R3, that are connected in parallel in the electric circuit.
R1
I1
I2 R2
I1 R3
I3
+ –
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Thus, we conclude that the reciprocal of total effective resistance of the several resistors
connected in parallel is equal to the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistance.
Disadvantage of series connection in on electric circuit :–
1. In series connection if any of the component fail to work, the circuit will break and then none
of the component (ex. TV, bulb, fan..) will work.
2. It is not possible to connect a bulb and a heater in series, because they need different value
of current to operate properly.
Hence, to overcome this problem we generally use parallel circuit.
Mathematical Expression :–
Let us suppose that current (I) is flowing through a resistor of resistance (R) for the time (t). The
potential difference across the resistance is (V).
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
The law stated that the heat produced in a resistor is

(i) directly proportional to square of the current(I)
(ii) directly proportional to resistance (R) for given current
(iii)directly proportional to time (t) for which current flow through resistor.
Application of Heating Effect of Electric Current :–
(1) Used in electric iron, toaster, oven, heater etc.
(2) It is also used in bulb to produce light.
(Filament of bulb is made of strong metal with high melting point such as tungsten (m.pt =
3380°C). This filament can retain as much of the heat generated as possible, to become
very hot and emit light)
(3) It is also used in the “fuse connected in an electric circuit {Fuse a safety device, protect the
circuits and appliance by stopping the flow of high current. The wire of fuse is made of an
alloy of metals for ex Aluminium Copper, Iron
lead etc. The alloy should be of low m.pt and high resistivity, fuse is always connected in
series circuit. When large current flow through the circuit, the temperature of fuse wire will
increase. This melts the fuse wire and break the circuit.
“ Fuses” used for domestic purposes are rated as 1A, 2A, 3A, 5A, 10A etc. for various
operation depending upon the power of appliance using.
Example- let us consider an appliance “electric Iron” which consume 1KW electric power,
at 220V
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Electric Power :– In case of electricity, it is defined as the rate of change electrical energy
dissipated or consumed in an electric electrical energy dissipated or consumed in an electric
circuit.
SI unit of electric power is “Watt” (W).

Watt Defined as the power consumed by a device, when 1A of current passes through it at the
potential difference of 1V.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
MIND MAP
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
CONCEPT BASED QUESTIONS
1. What is Charge?
Protons and electrons possess some charge. Protons have a positive charge. Electrons
have a negative charge. Neutron does not possess any charge. Like charges repel each
other and unlike charges attract each other.
2. What are Conductors and Insulators? Give example also.

Conductors are those materials in which electrons can move freely. All metals are
conductors. Insulators do not have any free electrons to move. For example, wood and
plastic.
3. Define Electric Current. State its SI unit.

The flow of electric charge is known as Electric Current. It is expressed in terms of the
rate of flow of charges.
I= Q/t
The SI unit of electric current is Ampere (A).
4. What is the direction of flow of conventional current?

The direction of conventional current is from positive terminal to negative terminal.
5. What is the direction of flow of electric current?

The direction of electric current is the same as the direction of positive charges and
opposite to the direction of flow of negative charges.
6. Define Potential Difference. Write its SI unit.

Work done per unit charge when taking charge from one point to another is known as the
Potential Difference.
V=W/Q
The unit of potential difference is volt (V).
7. Define 1 volt.
1V is defined as the potential difference between two points if 1 Joule of work is
done to move 1-coulomb charge from one point to another.
8. Define 1 Ampere.
1 Ampere is defined as 1 coloumb of charge moves per second from 1 point to
another.
9. Define Ohm’s law.

The potential difference between the two points is directly proportional to the current,
provided the temperature is constant.
V∝l
⇒ V = lR
R is a constant known as Resistance.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
10. What is resistance? State its SI unit.

Resistance is a measure of the opposition to current flow in an electrical circuit.
The SI unit of resistance is the ohm (Ω)
11. What are the factors on which resistance of a conductor depends?

Factors on which resistance of a conductor depends-
• It is directly proportional to the length of the conductor.
• Inversely proportional to the area of cross-section.
• Directly proportional to the temperature.
• Depends on the nature of the material.
12. What do you understand by term Resistivity? What is its SI unit?

a) Resistivity is the property of the material.
b) Resistivity is defined as the resistance offered by the material per unit length for a
unit cross-section.
c) The SI unit of resistivity is ohm-metre.
o Resistance = Resistivity * Length of Conductor/Cross-Sectional Area
R=ρl/A
13. What will be the resultant resistance of Resistors connected in series?

When two or more resistors are joined in series, then their total resistance is given by the
formula-
RS = R1 + R2 + R3
The current will remain the same through all resistors.
Total voltage is given by-
V = V1 + V2 + V3
Voltage across each resistor is given as –
V1 = lR1
V2 = lR2
V3 = lR3
From Ohm’s-
V = lR
⇒ V = lR1 + lR2 + lR3
lR = l(R1+ R2 + R3)
R = R1 + R2 + R3
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
14. What will be the resultant resistance of Resistors connected in parallel?

In this case, voltage is the same across each resistor and is equal to the applied voltage.
The total current is given as-
Potential Difference across the each resistor remains the same and current through each
resistor is represented by–
I1= V/R1
I2=V/R2
I3=V/R3
Total current in a parallel circuit is represented by-
I=V/Rp
Therefore,
I=I1+I2+I3
V/R = V/R1 + V/R2 + V/R3
1/Rp = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3
15. Describe the Advantages of Parallel circuit over Series circuit.
Parallel circuits have two advantages when compared with series circuits.
a) The first advantage of a parallel circuit is that a failure of one component does
not lead to the failure of the other components. This is because a parallel circuit
consists of more than one loop and has to fail in more than one place before the
other components fail.
b) The second advantage of parallel circuits is that more components may be added
in parallel without the need for more voltage.
16. Define Heating effects of Electric Current. Give some application of it.
When an electric current passes through a high resistance conductor, it becomes hot after
some time. This is called heating effect of electric current.
Practical Applications of the Heating Effect of Electric Current
• The electric laundry iron, electric toaster, electric oven, electric kettle and
electric heater are some of the familiar devices based on Joule’s heating.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
• Electric heating is also used to produce light in a bulb. The filament of an electric
bulb is made up of tungsten because it has a very high melting point and also
does not oxidise readily at a high temperature.
• An electric fuse is a safety device to protect the electrical appliance from a short
circuit. The fuse is placed in series with the device. It consists of a piece of wire
made of a metal or an alloy of appropriate melting point, for example, aluminium,
copper, iron, lead etc. If a current larger than the specified value flows through
the circuit, the temperature of the fuse wire increases. This melts the fuse wire
and breaks the circuit.
17. State Joule’s Law of Heating.

• The heat produced in a resistor is directly proportional to the square root of the
current.
• It is also directly proportional to resistance for a given current.
• Also, directly proportional to the time
2
H = l Rt
18. Define Electric Power. Write its SI unit.

The rate at which electric energy is dissipated or consumed in an electric current. The SI
unit of power is Watt.
P = Vl
⇒ P = l2 R
P= V 2/R
The commercial unit of electric energy is a kilowatt-hour (KWh).
19. Define the following:

(i) 1 joule
(ii) 1 Watt
(iii) 1 kWh
(iv) 1Ω
(i) 1 joule- 1 joule is defined as the energy released in 1 second of 1 ampere
through a resistance of 1 Ω.
(ii) 1 W- 1 watt is the power when 1 ampere current flows through a circuit having
a potential difference of 1 volt.
(iii) 1 kWh- 1 kWh is defined as the amount of electrical energy consumed when a
1000watt electrical appliance is used for an hour.
(iv) 1 Ω- 1 ohm is equal to the resistance of a conductor through which a current of
1 ampere flows when a potential difference of 1 volt is applied to it.
HOTS
NUMERICALS
1. How many electrons pass through a lamp in one minute if the current be 220
mA?
Solution: GIVEN, I = 220 mA
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
I=220 X 10 -3 A= 0.22 A
TIME(t)= 1 min= 60s
We know that,
I = Q/T
0.22 = Q/60
Q= 0.22 x 60 = 13.2 C
No of electron carry 1 C charge = 6 x 10 18
No of electron carry 13.2 C charge = 6 x 10 18 x 13.2 C = 79.2 x 10 18 electons.
2. A 2 Volt cell is connected to a 1 Ω resistor. How many electrons come out of

the negative terminal of the cell in 2 minutes?
Solution:
Given, R=1 Ω
Time(t) = 2 minutes
We know that,
V = IR =>
I = V/R = 2/1 = 2 A
I = Q/t => Q = It = 2 x 2 x 20 = 80 C
No of electron carry 1 C charge = 6 x 10 18 electrons

18
No of electron carry 80 C charge = 6 x 10 x 80 = 108 x 10 18 = 1. 08
x10 20 electrons.
3. A wire of length 3 m and area of cross-section 1.7 × 10-6 m2 has a resistance 3 × 10-
2 ohm.
a. What is the formula for resistivity of the wire and what is the unit of it
b. Calculate the resistivity of the wire
4. Solution
a) Resistivity of the wire is given by
ρ=RA/L
And It unit is Ohm-m
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
b) In this case
L=3 m
A=1.7×10 -6 m2
R=3×10-2 Ω
So,
ρ=3x10 -2 x 1.7×10 -6 Ω / 3
ρ = 1.7 x 10 -8 Ω m
5. An electric bulb draws a current of 0.8 A and works on 250 V on the average 8 hours a
day.
a) Find the power consumed by the bulb
b) If the electric distribution company changes Rs 5 for 6 KWH, what is the monthly bill
for 60 days
Solution: Power of the electrical bulb is given by
P=V×I=0.8×250=200W=0.2KW
Total energy consumption by the bulb in 60 days

E=P×t=0.2×8×60=96KWH
So, cost will be = 5×96/6=Rs80
6. Calculate the resistance of a metal wire of length 2m and area of cross section 1.55 ×
106 m², if the resistivity of the metal be 2.8 × 10-8 Ωm.
Solution:
For the given metal wire,
length, l = 2 m
area of cross-section, A = 1.55 × 10-6 m²
resistivity of the metal, p = 2.8 × 10-8 Ω m
Since, resistance, R = ρl/A
So R = (2.8×10 -8 ×2 /1.55×10 )Ω
= 5.6/1.55 × 10-2 Ω = 3.6 × 10-2Ω or R = 0.036Ω
7. Show how would you join three resistors, each of resistance 9 Ω so that the equivalent
resistance of the combination is (i) 13.5 Ω, (ii) 6 Ω (2018)
Answer:
(i) The resistance of the series combination is higher than each of the resistances. A
parallel combination of two 9 Ω resistors is equivalent to 4.5 Ω. We can obtain 13.5 Ω by
coupling 4.5 Ω and 9 Ω in series. So, to obtain 13.5 Ω, the combination is as shown in
figure (a).
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(ii) To obtain a equivalent resistance of 6 Ω, we have to connect two 9 Ω resistors in

series and then connect the third 9 Ω resistor in parallel to the series combination as
shown in the figure (b).
8. Two identical resistors are first connected in series and then in parallel. Find the ratio of
equivalent resistance in two cases.
Answer:
Let resistance of each resistor be R.
For series combination,
Rs = R1 + R2
So, Rs = R + R = 2R
For parallel combination,
9. (a) A 6 Ω resistance wire is doubled on itself. Calculate the new resistance of the wire.
(b) Three 2 Ω resistors A, B and C are connected in such a way that the total resistance
of the combination is 3 Ω. Show the arrangement of the three resistors and justify your
answer.
Answer:
(a) Given resistance of wire, R = 6 Ω
Let l be the length of the wire and A be its area of
cross-section. Then
R = ρlA = 6 Ω
Now when the length is doubled, l’ = 2l and A’ = A/2
∴ R’ = ρ(2l)/A/2=4ρl/A = 4 × 6 Ω = 24 Ω
10. State ohms law. Represent it graphically. In the given circuit diagram calculate
(i) the total effective resistance of the circuit.
(ii) the current through each resistor.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Answer:
Ohm’s law: The potential difference between the two points is directly proportional
to the current, provided the temperature is constant.
V∝l
⇒ V = lR
R is a constant known as Resistance.
Graphical representation of Ohm’s law
For the given circuit

R1 = 3 Ω, R2 = 4 Ω., R3 = 6 Ω and V = 6V.
(i) Total effective resistance of the circuit, Req is given by
1/Req=1/R1+1/R2+1/R3=1/3+1/4+1/6=9/12
or Req = 12/9 Ω = 4/3 Ω = 1.33 Ω
(ii) Since, potential difference across each resistor connected in parallel is same.
So, V1 = V2 = V3 = 6 V
Applying Ohm’s law,
V1 = I1R1 or I1 = V1 / R1 or I1 = 6/3 A = 2A
Similarly, I2 = 6/A4 = 1.5 A and I3 = 6/6 A = 1 A
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
1. If two or more resistances are connected in such a way that the same potential
difference gets applied to each of them, then they are said to be connected in parallel.
The. current flowing through the two resistances in parallel is, however, not the same.
When we have two or more resistances joined in parallel to one another, then the same
current gets additional paths to flow and the overall resistance decreases.
The equivalent resistance is given by 1Rp=1R1+1R2+1R31Rp=1R1+1R2+1R3
(i) Three resistances, 2 Ω , 6 Ω and 8 Ω are connected in parallel, then the equivalent
resistance is
(a) less than 6 Ω but more than 2 Ω
(b) less than 8 Ω but more than 6 Ω
(c) less than 2 Ω
(d) more than 8 Ω
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(ii) A wire of resistance 12 Ω is cut into three equal pieces and then twisted their ends
together, the equivalent resistance is
(a) 3/8Ω (b) 4/3Ω
(c) 3/4Ω (d) 5/6Ω
(iii) Three resistances are connected as shown. The equivalent resistance between A and
B is
(a) 2/3Ω (b) 3/2Ω

(c) 4/3Ω (d) 3/4Ω
(iv) Which of the following relation is correct?
(a) I1 = 2I2 = 3I3 (b) I1 = 4I2 = 3I3

(c) 2I1 = I2 = 3I3 (d) 3I1 = 2I2 = I3
(v) Find the current in each resistance.
(a) 1 A (b) 2 A
(c) 3 A (d) 0.25
2. Several resistors may be combined to form a network. The combination should have two
end points to connect it with a battery or other circuit elements. When the resistances are
connected in series, the current in each resistance is same but the potential difference is
different in each resistor. When the resistances are connected in parallel, the voltage
drop across each resistance is same but the current is different in each resistor.
(i) The household circuits are connected in
(a) series combination(b) parallel combination
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

(ii) The two wires of each of resistance R, initially connected in series and then in
parallel. In the graph it shows the resistance in series and in parallel. Which of the
following is correct?
(a) A denotes parallel combination.

(b) B denotes series combination.
(c) A denotes series combination and B denotes parallel combination.
(d) None of these.
(iii) The equivalent resistance of r1 and r2, when connected in series is R1 and when
they are connected in parallel is R2. Then the ratio is
(a) r1:r2 (b) r1+r2:r1r2
(c) (r1+r2) 2 : r1r2 (d) r1r2 :2r1+2r2
(iv) The equivalent resistance between A and B is
(a) 6 Ω (b) 9 Ω
(c) 3 Ω (d) 12 Ω
(v) Two resistances 10 Ω and 3 Ω are connected in parallel across a battery. If there is a
current of 0.2 A in 10 .Q resistor, the voltage supplied by battery is
(a) 2 V (b) 4 V
(c) 1 V (d) 8 V
3. The heating effect of current is obtained by transformation of electrical energy in heat

energy. Just as mechanical energy used to overcome friction is covered into heat, in the
same way, electrical energy is converted into heat energy when an electric current flows
through a resistance wire. The heat produced in a conductor, when a current flows
through it is found to depend directly on (a) strength of current (b) resistance of the
conductor (c) time for which the current flows.
The mathematical expression is given by H = I2Rt.
The electrical fuse, electrical heater, electric iron, electric geyser etc. all are based on
the heating effect of current.
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(i) What are the properties of heating element?

(a) High resistance, high melting point
(b) Low resistance, high melting point
(c) Low resistance, high melting point
(d) Low resistance, low melting point.
(ii) What are the properties of electric fuse?

(a) Low resistance, low melting point
(b) High resistance, high melting point.
(c) High resistance, low melting point
(d) Low resistance, high melting point
(iii) When the current is doubled in a heating device and time is halved, the heat energy
produced is
(a) doubled (b) halved
(c) four times (d) one fourth times
(iv) A fuse wire melts at 5 A. It is is desired that the fuse wire of same material melt at 10
A. The new radius of the wire is
(a) 4 times (b) 2 times

(c) 12 times (d) 14 times
(v) When a current of 0.5 A passes through a conductor for 5 min and the resistance of
conductor is 10 Ω, the amount of heat produced is
(a) 250 J (b) 5000J
(c) 750J (d) 1000J
4. The electrical energy consumed by an electrical appliance is given by the product of its
power rating and the time for which it is used. The SI unit of electrical energy is Joule.
Actually, Joule represents a very small quantity of energy and therefore it is
inconvenient to use where a large quantity of energy is involved. So for commercial
purposes we use a bigger unit of electrical energy which is called kilowatt hour. 1
kilowatt-hour is equal to 3.6 x 106 joules of electrical energy.
(i) The energy dissipated by the heater is E. When the time of operating the heater is
doubled, the energy dissipated is
(a) doubled (b) half
(c) remains same (d) four times
(ii) The power of a lamp is 60 W The energy consumed in 1 minute is
(a) 360J (b) 36J

(c) 3600J (d) 3.6 J
(iii) The electrical refrigerator rated 400 W operates 8 hours a day. The cost of electrical
energy is ₹₹5 per kWh. Find the cost of running the refrigerator for one day?
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(a) ₹32 (b) ₹16

(c) ₹8 (d) ₹4
(iv) Calculate the energy transformed by a 5 A current flowing through a resistor of
2Ω for 30 minutes?
(a) 90 kJ (b) 80 kJ
(c) 60 kJ (d) 40 kJ
(v) Which of the following is correct?
(a) 1 watt hour = 3600 J
(b) lkWh = 3.6x106J
(c) Energy (in kWh) = power (in W) x time (in hr)
(d) Energy (in kWh) =V( volt )×I( ampere )×t( sec )1000
Answer Keys of case study based questions
1. (i) (c) :The equivalent resistance in the parallel combination is lesser than the least
value, of the individual resistance.
(ii) (b): Resistance of each piece=12/3=4Ω
1/Rp=1/4+1/4+1/4=3/4⇒Rp=4/3Ω
(iii) (a): All the three resistors are in parallel.
1/Rp=1/6+1/3+1/1=1+2+6/6=9/6
Rp/=69=2/3Ω
(iv) (a): Voltage is same across each resistance.
So, I1 x 5 = I2 X 10 = 15 x I3
I1 = 2I2 = 3I3
(v) (d): All are in parallel.
1/Rp=1/12×4=13⇒Rp=3Ω I=3/3=1 A
So,current in each resistor I′=3/12=1/4 A
2. (i) (b)
(ii) (c): In series combination, resistance is maximum and in parallel combination,
resistance is mcm.
(iii) (c) : R1 = (r1 + r2 )2 : r1r2
(iv) (c): In the given circuit, 3 ΩΩ resistors are in series. RS = 3 + 3 = 6 Ω

Now, RS and 6 Ω are parallel.
1/Rp=1/6+1/6=2/6=1/3⇒Rp=3Ω
(v) (a): V = 0.2 x 10= 2 V
So, total voltage supplied is same as 2 V.
3. (i) (b)
(ii) (c)
(iii) (a): Given: H = I2Rt
So,H′=(2I)2⋅R/2 t=2H
(iv) (b): Given: 1= 5 A, resistance = R. Let r be the new radius.
Now,H=I2Rt
Also H' = I'2 R' t
From (i) and (ii)52×ρL/πr2 t=102 ×ρL/πr′2 ⋅t
25/r2 =100/ r′2 ⇒r′/r=2
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⇒r′=2r
(v) (c): Given: I=0.5 A, R=10Ω, t=5 min
H=I2 Rt=0.5×0.5×10×5×60H=750 J
4. (i) (a): E∝t
(ii) (c): Given: P = 60W, t = 1 min
E = 60 x 1 x 60 = 3600J
(iii) (b): Given: P = 400Ω, t = 8 hour
E = 400 x 8 = 3200Wh = 3.2kWh
Cost = 3.2 x 5 = ₹₹ 16
(iv) (a): Given: I= 5 A, R = 2 Ω , t = 30 min
E = I2Rt = 5 x 5 x 2 x 30 x 60
E = 90000J = 90 kJ
(v) (a): 1watt hr = 3600J
ASSERTION REASON BASED QUESTIONS
In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read the
statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
(e) The statement of the Assertion and the Reason is are false.
1)Assertion: When a battery is short circuited, the terminal voltage is zero.

Reason: In short circuit, the current is zero.
2) Assertion: In an open circuit, the current passes from one terminal to another of the electric
cell
Reason: Generally, the metal disc of a cell acts as a positive terminal.
3) Assertion: Tungsten is used exclusively for making the filament of bulb.

Reason : Tungsten has very high melting point.
4.) Assertion: Voltmeter is always connected in series in a circuit.

Reason: Voltmeter measures electric current in circuit.
5.) Assertion: Electric power is the amount of electric energy consumed per unit time.
Reason: Kilowatt is the unit of electric power.
Answer
1. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
2. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
3. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
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CHAPTER 13 : MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

Magnetic Fields and Field Line : The region around a magnet where the force of attraction or
repulsion can be detected is called magnetic field.
Magnetic field around a magnet can be detected by using a magnetic compass.
➢ A compass needle gets reflected when

brought near a bar magnet because the
needle behaves like a small bar magnet .
FIGURE 13.1 COMPASS NEEDLE
(fig 13.1) SHOWS DEFLECTION
➢ When iron fillings are sprinkled around

a bar magnet, they experience the force
of magnetic field and arrange themselves
in lines that are in a pattern. These lines
are called magnetic field lines. (Fig 13.2)
FIGURE 13.2 IRON FILLINGS ARRANGE
Properties of magnetic field lines: (Fig 13.3) THEMSELVES AROUND THE FIELD LINES
I. Outside the magnet the direction of magnetic

field lines is from north pole and to the south
pole. Inside the magnet the direction of magnetic
field lines is opposite.
II. No two field lines cross each other.
III. Magnetic field lines are closed curves. FIGURE 13.3 FIELD LINES
IV. Field lines decreases as we move away from the magnet. AROUND A BAR MAGNET
V. Density of field lines give the strength of magnetic field.
Magnetic field due to a current through a straight conductor :
➢ Magnetic field lines are concentric circles around
a straight conductor.
➢ Magnetic field lines increases if current is increased.
➢ Magnetic field lines decreases as the distance from
the wire increases.
➢ Direction of magnetic field lines changes if the
direction of current is changed
FIGURE 13.4 FIELD PATTERN OF STRAIGHT WIRE
Right Hand Thumb rule (Maxwell corkscrew rule):
If we hold a current carrying conductor on our right
hand in such a way that our thumb points towards
the direction of current, then the other four fingers
will give us the direction of the magnetic field.
FIGURE 13.5 RIGHT HAND THUMB RULE
Magnetic field due to a current through a circular loop :
The strength of the magnetic field at the center of a loop depends on :
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
1. The radius of the coil : If the radius

increases the magnetic strength at the
center decreases.
2. The number of turns in the coil : As the
number of turns in the coil increases the
magnetic strength at the center increases.
3. The strength of the current flowing in the coil: FIGURE 13.6 MAGNETIC FIELD PRODUCED BY
As the strength of the current increases the
A CURRENT CARRYING CIRCULAR COIL
strength of the magnetic field also increases.
Solenoid:. A coil of many circular turns of insulated copper wire wrapped closely in the shape
of a cylinder is called a solenoid.
➢ Magnetic field produced by a solenoid is similar
to a bar magnet.
➢ One end of a solenoid behaves as a magnetic
north pole while the other behaves as the
South pole.
➢ The field lines inside the solenoid are in the
form of parallel straight lines i.e. the magnetic
field inside a solenoid is uniform ( the same
FIGURE 13.7 FIELD LINES OF THE MAGNETIC
at all points).
FIELD THROUGH AND AROUND A CURRENT
CARRYING SOLENOID
The strength of the magnetic field of a solenoid depends on :

1. The number of turns in the solenoid : larger the number of turns in the solenoid ,greater
will be the magnetism produced.
2. The strength of current in the solenoid : larger the current passing through the
solenoid, stronger will be the magnetic field produced.
3. The nature of “core material” used in making solenoid : the use of soft iron rod as
core in a solenoid produces the strongest magnetism.
Electromagnet : The strong magnetic field produced
inside a solenoid can be used to magnetize a piece of
magnetic material like soft iron when placed inside the
coil. The magnets so formed is called as electromagnet.
Bar Magnet ( Permanent Electromagnet ( Artificial Magnet )

Magnet)
The bar magnet is a permanent An electromagnet is a temporary magnet as it can work

magnet. only when current is passed through the coil.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
A permanent magnet produces a An electromagnet can produce very strong magnetic force.
comparatively week force of
attraction.
The strength of permanent The strength of an electromagnet can be changed by

magnet cannot be changed. changing the number of turns in its coil or by changing the
current passing through it.
The polarity of a permanent The polarity of an electromagnet can be changed by

magnet is fixed and cannot be changing the direction of current in its coil.
changed.
Force on a current carrying conductor in a

magnetic field : When a current carrying conductor
is placed in a magnetic field, a mechanical force is exerted
on the conductor which can make the conductor move.
FIGURE 13.8 A CURRENT CARRYING ROD EXPERIENCES A FORCE

PERPENDICULAR TO ITS LENGTH AND THE MAGNETIC FIELD
The direction of force acting on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is:
1. Perpendicular to the direction of the current.
2. Perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field
➢ Maximum force is exerted on a current carrying conductor when the conductor is

perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field
➢ No force acts on a current carrying conductor when it is placed parallel to the magnetic
field.
The direction of force on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field can be reversed
1. By reversing the direction of current flowing in the conductor
2. By reversing the direction of magnetic field.
Fleming’s Left Hand Rule :If the thumb, fore finger and middle finger of our left hand is
stretched mutually perpendicular to each other and the fore finger points in the direction of the
magnetic field, the middle finger points in the direction of the current, then the thumb will point
in the direction of motion of the force acting on the conductor.
THUMB MOTION OF THE FORCE

F
FORE FINGER MAGNETIC FIELD
M
MIDDLE FINGER
C CURRENT
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(Try to remember as FMC or Father, Mother, Children.) FIGURE 13.9 FLEMING'S LEFT HAND RULE
Direct current and alternating current
If the current flows in one direction only it is called a direct current. It is written as DC. The
current that we get from a cell or a battery is direct current because it always flows in the same
direction. Some of the sources of direct current are dry cell, dry cell battery, car battery, DC
generator etc.
If the current reverses its direction after equal intervals of time, it is called alternating current.
It is written as AC. Most of the power stations in India generate alternating current. The
alternating current produced in India reverses its direction every 1/100 second i.e. the frequency
of AC is 50 Hz.
Advantage of AC over DC is that alternating current can be transmitted over long distances
without much loss of electrical energy.
Many of our household electrical devices like radio television, laptop etc. need DC supply. They
have a special device inside them which changes the AC supplied to them into DC.
Domestic electric circuit
➢ In our houses we receive Electric supply through mains supported through the poles or
cables.
➢ We receive AC electric power of 220 volt with a frequency of 50 Hertz.
➢ From the poles two insulated wires enter the meter board (wire with red insulation cover
is called as the live wire ; wire with black insulation cover is called the neutral wire)
➢ The potential difference between the livewire and the neutral wire is 220 V
➢ Through the main switch the two wires are connected to the line wires in the house
➢ These wire supply electricity to separate circuits within the house
The 3 wires are
1. Live wire- it has red insulated plastic covering and is positive
2. Neutral wire – it has black plastic covering and is negative
3. Earth wire – it has green insulated plastic covering.
The earth wire is usually connected to a metal plate deep in the earth near the house. This is
used as the safety measure specially for those appliances that have a metallic body like electric
press, toaster, table fan etc . It ensures that any leakage of current to the metallic body of the
appliance does not give any severe electric shock to the user .
Switch is always used on the live wire so that flow of current is cut off when not in use.
Two separate circuits are used. One is of 15A for appliances with high power rating like
geysers, air conditioners etc. The other is of 5A for fans, bulbs etc.
The different appliances are connected in parallel so that every appliance gets equal voltage
and even if one is switched off the others are not affected.
Overloading:
Overloading is caused due to increase in voltage, or if the live wire and neutral wire comes
in contact or if too many appliances are connected to a single socket. It results in overheating of
the wires and can cause damage to the circuit and appliances.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Short circuit
Short circuit is caused when the live wire and neutral wire comes in contact and the current
suddenly increases in the circuit. It causes spark, fire and damage to the circuit and appliances.
Fuse : Electric fuse is a safety device used in electric circuits to protect the circuit and appliances
from damage due to overloading and short circuit. It is a wire having high resistance and low
melting point. If excess current flows through the circuit, the fuse wire melts and breaks the
circuit. Fuse wire is made of a metal or an alloy of metals like lead, tin, aluminium and copper.
Fuse wire is connected in series with the live wire.
FIGURE 13.10 A SCHEMATIC DIAGRAM OF ONE OF THE COMMON DOMESTIC CIRCUITS
Very short answer questions 1 marks

1. Suggest one way of differentiating between a wire carrying current from a wire carrying
no current.
Ans. If a magnetic needle is brought near the wire carrying current, the needle will show
deflection whereas the needle will not show any deflection near the wire with no current.
A
2. Identify the poles of the magnet in the given figure.
Ans. A for North pole and B for South pole B

3. An alternating electric current has a frequency of 50 Hertz. How many times does it
change its direction in one second ?
Ans. 50 Hz AC will change its direction 100 times in 1 sec
Multiple Choice Questions
1. A uniform magnetic field exist in the plain of paper pointing from left to right as shown in
the figure. In the field an electron and a proton move as shown. The electron and the
proton experience
Proton
magnetic
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(a) Forces both pointing into the plane of the paper.

field
(b) Forces both pointing out of the plane of the paper.
Electron
(c) Forces pointing into the plane of paper and out of the plane of paper respectively
(d) Force pointing opposite and along the direction of the uniform magnetic field
respectively.
Ans. option a
2. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid carrying current :
a) Is zero
b) Decreases as we move towards its end.
c) Increases as we move towards its end
d) is same at all points.
Ans. Option (d)
Assertion and Reason
The questions given below consists of an assertion and reason. Use the following options to
choose the appropriate answer.
a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
e) Both assertion and reason are false
1. Assertion : The magnetic field inside a solenoid is uniform.
Reason : The magnetic field lines inside a solenoid are parallel.
2 Assertion : The ground pin in a plug is longer and thicker than the other two pins.
Reason : Shorter the pin, the quicker is its connection.
3. Assertion : No two field lines cross each other.
Reason : Field lines are closed curves.
Ans. 1 ( a) ; 2 ( c ) ; 3 ( b)
Short answer type questions (2 marks )
1. State Fleming’s Left Hand Rule.
2. Briefly discuss any 2 situations that can cause electrical hazards in domestic circuits.
Ans. (i) connecting too many devices into a single socket which exceeds the current rating
of the wires causes the wires to melt resulting in a short circuit.
(ii) old and worn of wires due to which live wire and neutral wire come in contact leading
to fire.
Short answer type questions (3 mzrks )
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
1. Under what conditions permanent electric magnet is obtained if a current carrying

solenoid is used? Support your answer with the help of a labelled circuit diagram.
Answer. (i) By passing a direct current through the solenoid
(ii) by placing a core inside the solenoid which becomes a permanent magnet on passing
electric current.
( for diagram refer to text)
2. Draw a sketch of pattern of field lines due to a :
(i) current flowing into a circular coil (page 228, fig 13.8 )
(ii) solenoid carrying current ( refer to text )
Long answer question (5marks)

1.Why does a magnetic compass needle pointing North and South in the absence of a nearby
magnet get deflected when a bar magnet or current carrying loop is brought near it ? Describe
some salient features of magnetic field lines.
Answer. A current carrying loop behaves like a bar magnet. In the presence of current carrying
loop, the magnetic field of earth acting on compass needle gets modified. This causes a
deflection in the compass needle.
Features of magnetic field line ( refer text )
2 (i)What is meant by the terms alternating current and direct current ?
(ii) Name of source of alternating current and a source of direct current?
(iii) Mention the frequency of AC supply in India.
(iv) State 2 important advantages of alternating current over direct current.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
MIND MAP
Magnetic Effect of
Fleming’s left hand
Electric Current
rule
Magnetic fields and field

Field around current lines
carrying conductor
S N Thumb - force
Closed curves Fore finger – Magnetic field
Do not intersect Middle finger - Current
Crowding : strong field
5 A current rating
Two lines ( bulbs, fans )
DOMESTIC
ELECTRIC 15 A current rating
CIRCUIT
Three wires ( geysers, air cooler )
Live wire Neutral wire Earth wire
Red insulator cover black/blue insulator green insulator
Positive negative connected to metallic body
Carries current returns current safety wire
Comes in contact
Short circuit Fuse is a safety device
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
CHAPTER 15 OUR ENVIRONMENT
MAJOR CONCEPTS
15.1 Waste added to the environment
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
All wastes cannot be broken down by microorganisms as they cannot produce all types of
enzymes required for breaking down those wastes.
The substances which cannot be broken down by biological processes are known as
biodegradable substances (plant and animal wastes) and the substances which cannot be
broken down by biological processes are known as known non-biodegradable substances
(plastics, glass, metals etc). Non-biodegradable substance is acted upon by heat and pressure
but persist in the environment for long time and harm the various members of the ecosystem.
15.2- Ecosystem and its Components
Ecosystem- All the interacting organisms in an area together with the non-living constituents
of the environment form an ecosystem. The living components of the ecosystem are known as
biotic components (Plants, animals and microorganisms) and the non -living components are
known as abiotic components (sunlight, temperature, rain fall, wind soil and minerals)
Two types of Ecosystems- Natural Ecosystem like forests, ponds, lakes grasslands etc and
Manmade (Artificial)Ecosystem. (Garden, crop field, aquarium, terrarium etc.)
The Biotic Components are Classified into Producers,Consumers and Decomposers
• Producers are the organisms which can produce food (organic compounds like sugar and
starch) using sun’s energy from inorganic substances (Green plants and Blue Green
Algae(Cyano-bacteria)
• Consumers depend on producers for food directly (Herbivores/Omnivores/Parsites) or

indirectly(Carnivores/Omnivores/Parasites) Herbivores are known as primary
consumers and carnivores are known as secondary or tertiary consumers.
• Decomposers are the microorganisms which breaks down the dead remains or waste
products of organisms and thus release the simple inorganic substances back into the
environment. Example-Bacteria, Fungi
Importance pf Decomposers-
-Break down dead remains and waste products of organisms.
-Break down the complex organic substance into simple inorganic substances.
-Release minerals into the soil. Thus, helps in maintaining the fertility of soil.
-Clean the environment
-Help in recycling the materials in the biosphere
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
15.2.1 Food Chains and Food Webs

The sequence of living organisms in an ecosystem in which one organism consumes
another organism to transfer food energy, is called a food chain.
i- Grass Goat…Tiger
ii- Grass---- insects…..frog……snake .. eagle
iii- Planktons…..insects……fish……crane
The various levels of steps in food chain are known as Trophic Levels at which transfer
of food or energy takes place.
The first trophic level is formed of producers which absorb 1% of solar energy. Every trophic
level uses 90% of energy and transfers only 10% of energy to the next level. So a food chain
cannot be too long as there is only very little usable energy remains in the fourth trophic level.
The number of organisms reduces after each trophic level and so the greatest number of
organisms are present in the first trophic level.
• Flow of energy ids unidirectional in food chain.

• Non-biodegradable chemicals get accumulated in every trophic level. So the
concentration of these chemicals increases in higher trophic levels. This phenomenon is
known as
• Biological magnification.
FOOD WEB
It is inter-connected food chains in an ecosystem.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
It forms a network of relationship between various species.

In a food web, one organism may occupy a position in more than one food
chain. More stable food chain / food web means more stable ecosystem.
15.3. Ozone Layer and its depletion
• Ozone (O3) is a molecule formed by three atoms of oxygen and is highly poisonous
• Ozone layer is in the stratosphere and shields the surface of the earth from ultraviolet
(UV) radiation from the Sun.
• UV radiation is highly damaging to organisms. It may cause even skin cancer
in human beings.
• Ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere is a product of UV radiation
acting on oxygen (O2) molecule.
• The higher energy UV radiations split apart some molecular oxygen (O2) into
free oxygen (O) atoms. These atoms then combine with the molecular oxygen
to form ozone as shown—
• The ozone layer depletion takes place at higher rate. The major cause is
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which are used as refrigerants and in fire
extinguishers.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
As per UNEP- United Nations Environment Programme’s decision CFC production should be
limited to 1986 levels
15.3.2 Waste management
- Try to minimize the garbage we produce by changing the life style and attitude
-Use more bio degradable items
-Recycle and reuse various items possible
-Dispose the wastes properly
-Sewage treatment should be done
MIND MAP
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QUESTION BANK
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. In a given food chain if the amount of energy at the fourth trophic level is 6 kJ, what
will be the energy available at the producer level?
(a) 6000 kJ (b) 20 kJ (c) 60 kJ (d) 600 KJ
2. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?
(a) DDT (b) Aluminum can
(c) Plastic bag (d) Cow dung
3. Which of the following is the best way for disposal of vegetable and fruit peels?
(b) Landfill (b) Recycling (c) Composting (d) Burning
4. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain in increasing

amount at each higher trophic level is known as:
(c) Eutrophication (b) Pollution (c) Biomagnification (d) Accumulation
5. In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic level to the
next is in the form of :
(d) heat energy (b) light energy (c) chemical energy (d) mechanical energy
6. In the given Figure, the various trophic levels are shown in a pyramid. At which
trophic level is maximum energy available?
a) T4 (b) T2 (c) T1 (d) T3

7. Which of the statements is incorrect?
(а) All green plants and blue green algae are producers
(b) Green plants get their food from organic compounds
(c) Producers prepare their own food from inorganic compounds
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(d) Plants convert solar energy into chemical energy
8. What will happen if Deer is missing in the food chain given below?
Grass → Deer → Tiger
(а) The population of tiger increases
(b) The population of grass decreases
(c) Tiger will start eating grass
(d) The population of tiger decreases and the population of grass increases
9. When is the World Environment Day celebrated?
(e) 16 June (b) 5 December (c) 5 June (d) 5 July
10. Which of these is a greenhouse gas?
(f) Hydrogen Sulphide (b) Methane (c) Ozone (d) Carbon

monoxide
11. The transfer of Energy in a food chain is always:
(g) Unidirectional (b) Methane
(c) Bi-directional (d) Random

12. If a grasshopper is eaten by frog, then the energy transfer will be from:
(h) producers to decomposers
(i) producer to primary consumer
(j) primary consumer to secondary consumer
(k) secondary consumer to primary consumer
13. The % of solar radiation absorbed by all green plants for photosynthesis is about
———–.
(a) 1% (b) 5% (c) 8% (d) 10%
14. Study the image given below and answer the following questions.
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(i) Which among the following are the Primary Producers?
(a) Algae (b)Phytoplankton (c) Algae and phytoplankton (d)Green plants
(ii) Which group of organisms may have higher Bio-magnification?
(a) Producers (b) Primary consumers (c) Secondary Consumer (d) Tertiary
consumers
(iii) Which is the Primary source of energy in an ecosystem?
(a) Soil (b)Water (c) Sun (d) Carbon dioxide
(iv) The image given above is an example of
(a) Aquatic ecosystem (b) Terrestrial ecosystem
(c) Land ecosystem (d) Natural aquatic ecosystem
15. In 1987 the ------------------------- Succeeded in forging an agreement to freeze CFC

Production
(a) UNESCO (b) UNEP (c) UNCTED (d) UNICEF
16. O2 ----UV → O + O ;
O + O2 →O3 (Ozone)
The role of UV rays in this reaction is -
------
(a) To Split Oxygen molecule (b) To unite oxygen molecule
(c) To Destroy Ozone (d) None

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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
17. O3---------??? ---------------- → O2 + (O+O)

Which substance catalyzes the reaction?
(a) Chlorine (b) Sulphur dioxide

(c) Hydrogen sulphide (d)Neon
18. Find out the energy available to the bird if energy of the plant is 10000 KJ :
(a) 100 KJ (b) 10 KJ (c) 1KJ (d). 5KJ
19. Which group of waste materials can be classified as Non-biodegradable ?

(a) Plant waste, used tea bags (b) Polyethene bags, plastic toys
(c) Used tea bags, paper straw (d) Old clothes, broken footwear
20. Environment includes:
(a) Land, air, water (b) Light, temperature, rainfall
(c) Plants, animals, microbes (d) All of these
ANSWER KEY
Q. NO. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
ANS A D C C C B C D C B
Q. NO. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
ANS A C A C B A A B B D
2.ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) If both Assertion and reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion
(c)If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
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(d)If both Assertion and Reason are false

2.1 Assertion (A) : Man is a herbivore.
Reason(R) : Omnivores eat both plant food and meat of animals.
2.2 Assertion (A) : Garden is an artificial ecosystem.
Reason(R) : Biotic and abiotic components are manipulated by humans.
2.3 Assertion (A) : Biotic components of ecosystem continuously require energy to

carry on life processes.
Reason(R) : Abiotic components are non-living factors of ecosystem.
2.4 Assertion (A) : Decomposers act as cleaning agents of the environment.
Reason (R) : The decomposers recycle waste material in the hydrosphere.
2.5 Assertion (A) : Food chain is responsible for the entry of harmful chemicals in our bodies.
Reason(R) : The length and complexity of food chain vary greatly.
ANSWER KEY
Q. NO. 2.1 2.2 2.3 2.4 2.5
ANS D A B C B
CASE STUDY QUESTIONS
Q.1. Read the following and answer the questions :
The belief the Ganga River is "holy" has not, however, prevented over-use, abuse
and pollution of the river. All the towns along its length contribute to the pollution load.
It has been assessed that more than 80 per cent of the total pollution load (in terms
of organic pollution expressed as biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)) arises from
domestic sources, i.e., from the settlements along the river course. Due to over-
abstraction of water for irrigation in the upper regions of the river, the dry weather flow
has been reduced to a trickle. Rampant deforestation in the last few decades,
resulting in topsoil erosion in the catchment area, has increased silt deposits which,
in turn, raise the river bed and lead to devastating floods in the rainy season and
stagnant flow in the dry season. Along the main river course there are 25 towns with
a population of more than 100,000 and about another 23 towns with populations
above 50,000. In addition, there are 50 smaller towns with populations above 20,000.
There are also about 100 identified major industries located directly on the river, of
which 68 are considered as grossly polluting. Fifty-five of these industrial units have
complied with the regulations and installed effluent treatment plants (ETPs) and legal
proceedings are in progress for the remaining units. The natural assimilative capacity
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of the river is severely stressed. The principal sources of pollution of the Ganga River
can be characterized as follows:
1.1. Accumulation of toxic substances at higher trophic levels of an ecosystem

through the food chain in water bodies affects which of the following
organisms more?
(a) Phytoplankton (b) Zooplankton (c) Small fishes (d) Large fishes
1.2. When toxic chemicals and nutrients get deposited in the water bodies, which of
the following gases get depleted in the water bodies?
(a) Oxygen (b)Carbon dioxide (c) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide
(d)Nitrogen
1.3. Which of the following activities may pollute the river water more?
(a) Bathing using detergent and soap (b) Discharging animals excreta
(c) Deposit flowers and leaves as the part of puja (d) Bathing without soap and
detergent
1.4. Which of the following organisms grow abundant in water when the water
get mixed with nutrients like sulphates, phosphates etc.?
(a) Algae (b) Zooplankton (c) Small fishes (d) Large fishes
1.5 .Green Algae and Diatoms are the major producers of Aquatic ecosystem
.Which of the following will be more in the aquatic ecosystem:
(a) Small fishes (b) Large fishes (c) Algae and phytoplankton (d) Tadpole
The atmosphere is a blanket of air and a precious natural resource for sustaining
life on the Earth. Unfortunately, human activities based on national/personal
interests are causing harm to this common resource, notably by depleting the
fragile ozone layer, which acts as a protective shield for life on the Earth. Ozone
molecules consist of three oxygen atoms, Ozone molecules are exceeding rare:
fewer than ten in every million molecules of air. However, for
nearly a billion years, their presence in the atmosphere has played a vital role in
safeguarding life on Earth. The ozone in the troposphere (up to 110 kilometers
above the Earth's surface) is 'bad' ozone which can damage lung tissues and
plants. But about 90 per cent of ozone found in the stratosphere (between 10 and
40 kilometers above the Earth's surface) is "good" ozone which plays a beneficial
role by absorbing dangerous ultraviolet (UV-B) radiations from the Sun. Without
this beneficial ozone layer, humans would be more susceptible to certain diseases
due to the increased incidence of ultraviolet rays from the Sun.
2.1. Ozone molecules consists of:
(a) Three oxygen atoms only (b) two oxygen atoms only
(c) Only one atom of oxygen (d) None of the above
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
2.2. Depletion of ozone layer is mainly due to

(a) Use of CFC’s (b) Use of halogens (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the
above
2.3. U-V rays can cause diseases in humans like
(a) Skin cancer only (b) Cataract only (c) Lung cancer (d) Both (a) and (b)
2.4. Ozone holes are more pronounced at the :
(a) Equator (b) Tropic of cancer (c) Tropic of Capricorn (d) Poles
2.5. Which of the following is an ozone depleting substance?
(a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Methyl chloride (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Methane
Q.1. . Read the following and answer the questions :
Food chains are very important for the survival of most species. When only one
element is removed from the food chain it can result in extinction of a species in
some cases. The foundation of the food chain consists of primary producers.
Primary producers, or autotrophs, can use either solar energy or chemical energy
to create complex organic compounds, whereas species at higher trophic levels
cannot and so must consume producers or other life that itself consumes
producers. Because the sun's light is necessary for photosynthesis, most life could
not exist if the sun disappeared. Even so, it has recently been discovered that there
are some forms of life, chemotrophs, that appear to gain all their metabolic energy
from chemosynthesis driven by hydrothermal vents, thus showing that some life
may not require solar energy to thrive.
3.1. If 10,000 J solar energy falls on green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem, what
percentage of solar energy will be converted into food energy?
(a) 10,000 J (b) 100 J (c) 1000 J (d) It will depend on the type of the terrestrial
plant
3.2. Mr. X is eating curd/yogurt. For this food intake in a food chain, he should be
considered as occupying
(a) First trophic level (b) Second trophic level
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(c) Third trophic level (d) Fourth trophic level
3.3. The decomposers are not included in the food chain. The correct reason
for the same is because decomposers:
(a) Act at every trophic level of the food chain
(b) Do not breakdown organic compounds
(c) Convert organic material to inorganic forms
(d) Release enzymes outside their body to convert organic material to inorganic forms
3.4. Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?
(a) Decrease in energy in higher trophic levels (b) Less availability of food
(c) Polluted air (d) Water
3.5. Matter and energy are two fundamental inputs of an ecosystem. Movement of
(a) Energy is bidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating.

(b) Energy is in repeated circulation and matter is unidirectional.
(c) Energy is unidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating.
(d) Energy is multidirectional and matter is bidirectional.

Observe the food web and answer the Questions given below :
4.1. The mussel can be described as:-
(a) Producer (b) Primary consumer (c) Secondary consumer (d) Decomposer
4.2. Which trophic level is incorrectly defined?

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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
(a) Carnivores – secondary or tertiary consumers (b) Decomposers – microbial

heterotrophs
(c) Herbivores – primary consumers (d) Omnivores – mold, yeast and

mushrooms
4.3 The given figure best represents:
(a) Grass food chain (b) Parasitic food chain (c) Forest food chain
(d) Aquatic food chain
4.4. In the food web, what two organisms are competing for food?
(a) A and B (b) A and C (c) D and F (d) B and D
4.5. Why do all food chains start with plants ?
(a) Because plants are easily grown. (b) Because plants are nutritious.
(c) Because plants can produce its own energy. (d) Because plants do not require
energy.
Study the image given below and answer the following questions.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
5.1 The ecosystem consists of
(a) Biotic components only (b) Abiotic components only
(c) Both biotic and abiotic components (d) None of the above
5.2. Which among the following are the Primary Producers?
(a) Algae (b) Phytoplankton (c) Algae and phytoplankton (d) Green plants
5.3. Which group of organisms may have higher Bio-magnification?
(a) Producers (b) Primary consumers (c) Secondary Consumer (d) Tertiary
consumers
5.4. Which is the Primary source of energy in an ecosystem?
(a) Soil (b) Water (c) Sun (d) Carbon dioxide
5.5. The image given above is an example of
(a) Aquatic ecosystem (b) Terrestrial ecosystem
(c) Land ecosystem (d) Natural aquatic ecosystem
ANSWER KEY
Q. NO. 1.1 1.2 1.3 1.4 1.5 2.1 2.2 2.3 2.4 2.5
ANS D C A A A A C D D B
Q. NO. 3.1 3.2 3.3 3.4 3.5 4.1 4.2 4.3 4.4 4.5
ANS B C A A C C D A D C
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Q. NO. 5.1 5.2 5.3 5.4 5.5
ANS C C D C D
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.1. What is the full form of CFCs and UNEP?
Ans: CFC=Chlorofluorocarbons UNEP = United Nations

Environment Programme
Q.2.Construct an aquatic food chain showing four trophic levels.
Ans: Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Small fish
→ Bird.
Q.3.List two causes of depletion of ozone layer
Ans: Two causes of depletion of ozone layer are as follows:
a. Use of CFC’s b. Use of Halogens
Q.4 Why are crop fields known as artificial ecosystems?
Ans: Crop fields are man made and some biotic and abiotic components are manipulated
by humans
Q.5. What are decomposers? Give two examples.
Ans: Decomposers are organisms that live on dead and decaying matter. They convert
complex organic material into simple materials and mix with soil. Eg: fungi, bacteria.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.1. Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances with the

help of one example each. List two changes in habit that people must adapt to
dispose non-biodegradable waste for saving the environment.
Ans: A. Biodegradable substances: Substances that can be slowly destroyed and
broken down into very small parts by natural processes i.e., by bacteria, fungi, etc.
For example, organic wastes like vegetables and fruit peels.
B. Non-biodegradable substances: Substances that cannot be broken down or
decomposed into the soil by natural agents are called as nonbiodegradable. For
example, plastic. a. Segregating and treating the non-biodegradable waste before
putting in dustbins. b. Recycle the plastics or glass
present in non-biodegradable wastes. c. Motivate people to use paper or jute bags
instead of plastic bags.
Q.2 How is ozone formed in the higher level of the atmosphere? “Damage to ozone
layer is a cause of concern”. Justify this statement.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Ans: Ozone is formed due to action of UV rays on oxygen molecules to form free oxygen
atom which subsequently combines with another molecule of oxygen to form ozone.
The reaction is: O + O2
→ O3 (Ozone) Ozone depletion is a cause of concern because it protects us
from the harmful ultraviolet radiations of the Sun by absorbing them. The UV
rays can cause skin cancer, ageing, cataract, etc. to human beings if they are
not absorbed by ozone due to ozone depletion.
Q.3. Explain phenomenon of “biological magnification”. How does it affect organisms
belonging to different trophic levels particularly the tertiary consumers?
Ans: The levels of harmful toxicants/pesticides like DDT get increased at successive
trophic levels as they are neither metabolized nor excreted by the organism. They
get accumulated in organism’s body with their higher concentrations at higher
trophic levels. This is called as biological magnification Since, the tertiary
consumers are at the top of the food chain, so a higher amount of these toxicants
is present in them compared to the lower trophic levels
Q.4. Pesticides like DDT which are sprayed to kill pests on crops are found to be
present in the soil, ground water, water bodies etc. Explain. How do they reach
these places?
Ans: Soil: Pesticides are used to protect plants from insects. They consequently get
settled into soil particles, when used on plants. Groundwater: Through irrigation
in the fields, these pesticides present in soil pass into lower layers of soil and
reach ground water.
Q.5. Food web increases the stability of an ecosystem. Justify.
Ans: Food web shows food relationship in an ecological community. It consists of many food
chains.
Thus, if any one organism becomes endangered or extinct, the one dependent
in it has an alternative option available to him for survival. In this way food web
increases stability in the ecosystem
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.1. Explain some harmful effects of agricultural practices on the environment.
Ans: Harmful effects of agricultural practices on the environment are
a. Change in the chemistry of soil and killing of useful microbes due to

excessive use of fertilizers.
b. Biological magnification occurs due to excessive use of chemical pesticides.
c. Water table gets lowered due to the excess use of ground water.
d. Soil fertility is lost due to extensive cropping.
e. The natural ecosystems are harmed due to ploughing during agriculture.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
Q.2. In a food chain, if 10000 Joules of energy is available to the producer, how much
energy will be available to the secondary consumer to transfer it to the tertiary
consumer?
Ans: . Energy which will be available to the secondary consumer to transfer it to the
tertiary consumer are
a. Energy available to producers = 10,000 Joules. Energy transfer to producer = 1% of
10,000 Joules
= 100 Joules.
b. According to Ten per cent law, Energy transfer to primary consumer = 10100 × 100 =
10 Joules.
c. Energy transfer to secondary consumer = 10100 × 10 = 1 Joule. d. Energy

transfer to tertiary consumer = 10100 × 1 = 0.1 Joule
Q.3. Suggest any four activities in daily life which are eco-friendly.
Ans: The eco-friendly activities in life are
a. Planting of trees
b. Segregating biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes
c. Using cloth bags, jute bags or paper bags instead of plastic bags
a. Creating awareness on environment protection through initiatives and
campaigns e. Using of manures and organic agricultural methods Using less
of chemical fertilizers and pesticides f. Controlling pollution by using fuels like
CNG.
Q.4 “Energy flow in a food chain is unidirectional”. Justify this statement. Explain how
the pesticides enter a food chain and subsequently get into our body.
Ans: Because the energy moves progressively through the various trophic levels and is
no longer available to the previous trophic level. The energy captured by
autotrophs does not revert to the solar input.
b. Pesticides, used for crop protection when washed down into the soil/
water body, are absorbed by the plant along with water and minerals
c. Plants are consumed by animals and these chemicals get into animal body
d. Being non-biodegradable, these chemicals get accumulated progressively in

the food chain and into our body
e. As we go into higher levels of food chain amount of harmful substances will
increase in the body of organisms as a result of biomagnification
Q.5 (a) In the following food chain, 5 J of energy is available to man. How much energy was
available at the producer level?
Plants→Sheep→Man
(b) Explain phenomenon of “biological magnification”. How does it affect organisms
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
belonging to different trophic levels particularly the tertiary consumers?

Ans: (a) By 10% energy law the required energy available at the producer level was 500
Joules.
(b) The levels of harmful toxicants/pesticides like DDT get increased at

successive trophic levels as they are neither metabolized nor excreted by the
organism. They get accumulated in organism’s body with their higher
concentrations at higher trophic levels. This is called as biological magnification
Since, the tertiary consumers are at the top of the food chain, so a higher amount
of these toxicants is present in them compared to the lower trophic levels
CBSE SAMPLE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?
a) Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels b) Less availability of food

c) Polluted air d) Water
(Ans.a)
Observe the food web and answer the questions given below –
2.1 The mussel can be described as
a) Producer b) Primary consumer c) Secondary consumer d) decomposer
2.2 Which trophic level is incorrectly defined?
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
a) Carnivores – secondary or tertiary consumers

b) Decomposers – microbial heterotrophs
c) Herbivores – primary consumers
d) Omnivores – molds, yeast and mushrooms
2.3 The given figure best represents:
a) Grassland food chain b) Parasitic food chain

c) Forest food chain d) Aquatic food chain
2.4Why do all food chains start with plants?
a) Because plants are easily grown b) Because plants are nutritious
c) Because plants can produce its own energy d) Because plants do not requi
2.5In the food web, what two organisms are competing for food?
a) A and B c) A and C b) D and F d) B and D
(Answer Key 2.1 c)Secondary consumer

2..2 d) Omnivores
2.3 a) Grassland food chain
2.4 c) Because plants can produce its own energy
2.5 d)
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
3. Observe the following diagram and answer the questions
3.1 Choose the waste management strategy that is matched with correct example.
a) Refuse-------- Choose products that use less packaging

b) Reduce ------- Give unwanted toys and books to hospitals or schools
c) Reuse----------- Not using single use plastic
d) Repurpose -----Making flower pot from used plastic bottle
3.2 Recycling of paper is a good practice but recycled paper should not be used as food
packaging because
a) recycled papers may release color /dyes on food items
b) recycled papers are not absorbent
c) recycled papers can cause infection due to release of methane d) recycled papers are
costly
3.3 According to the ‘Solid Waste Management Rule 2016’, the waste should be segregated
into three categories. Observe the table below and select the row that has correct
information
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
3.4 Effective segregation of wastes at the point of generation is very important. Select the
appropriate statements giving the importance of waste segregation.
i) less waste goes to the landfills
ii) better for public health and the environment
iii) help in reducing the waste
iv) resulting in deterioration of a waste picker’s health
a) both i) and ii)

b) both i) and iii)
c) both ii) and iii)
d) both i) and iv)
3.5When recycling a plastic water bottle, what should you do with the cap?
a) The cap goes into a garbage can and the bottle goes in a recycling bin
b) Screw the cap back on the bottle, then put the bottle and cap in a recycling bin
c)Screw the cap back on the bottle, then put the bottle and cap in the garbage can
d) Recycle the cap separately.
(Answer Key-3.1 – d 3.2 -c 3.3 -b 3.4 -a 3.5 -.a)
4.Read the following and answer the questions any four from (i) to (v)
Food chains are very important for the survival of most species. When only one element is
removed from the food chain it can result in extinction of a species in some cases. The
foundation of the food chain consists of primary producers. Primary producers, or autotrophs,
can use either solar energy or chemical energy to create complex organic compounds, whereas
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
species at higher trophic levels cannot and so must consume producers or other life that itself
consumes producers. Because the sun's light is necessary for photosynthesis, most life could
not exist if the sun disappeared. Even so, it has recently been discovered that there are some
forms of life, chemotrophs, that appear to gain all their metabolic energy from chemosynthesis
driven by hydrothermal vents, thus showing that some life may not require solar energy to thrive.
4.1 If 10,000 J solar energy falls on green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem, what percentage of
solar energy will be converted into food energy?
a) 10,000 J b) 100 J c) 1000 J

d) It will depend on the type of the terrestrial plant.
4.2 Mr. X is eating curd/yogurt. For this food intake in a food chain he should be considered as
occupying
a) First trophic level b) Second trophic level

c) Third trophic level d) Fourth trophic level
4..3 The decomposers are not included in the food chain. The correct reason for the same is
because decomposers:
a) Act at every trophic level of the food chain
b) Do not breakdown organic compounds c) Convert organic material to inorganic forms
d) Release enzymes outside their body to convert organic material to inorganic forms
4.4 Matter and energy are two fundamental inputs of an ecosystem. Movement of a) Energy is
bidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating. b) Energy is repeatedly circulation and matter
is unidirectional. c) Energy is unidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating. d) Energy is
multidirectional and matter is bidirectional.
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)
4.5 Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?
a) Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels b) Less availability of food
c) Polluted air d) Water
(Answer Key ---
4 .1 b) 100 J
4.2 c) Third Trophic level
4.3 a) Act at every trophic level of the food chain
4.4 c) Energy is unidirectional and matter is repeatedly circulating
4.5 a) Decrease in energy at higher trophic level)
5.Read the following and answer the questions any four from (i) to (ii) Biosphere is a global
ecosystem composed of living organisms and abiotic factors from which they derive energy and
nutrients. And ecosystem is defined as structural and functional unit of the biosphere comprising
of living and non-living environment that interact by means of food chains and chemical cycles
resulting in energy flow, biotic diversity and material cycling to form a stable, self-supporting
system
5.1 Consider the following statements concerning food chains:

(i) Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted in greatly increased growth of vegetation
(ii) Removal of most of the carnivores resulted in an increased population of herbivores.
(iii)The length of the food chains is generally limited to 3 – 4 trophic levels due to energy loss
(v) The length of the food chains may vary from 2 to 8 trophic levels
Which two of the above statements are correct?
a) (i), (iv) b) (i), (ii)
c) (ii), (iii) d) (iii), (iv)
5.2Which of the following group of organisms are not included in ecological food chain?
a) Carnivores b) Saprophytes c) Herbivores d) Predators
(Answer Key
5.1c) (ii), (iii)
5.2b) Saprophytes)
_________________________________________
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SCIENCE (CLASS X)

CHAPTER- CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS

Characteristics of Chemical Equations

Types of Chemical Reactions-

II. Decomposition- Splitting of a compound into two or more simple products.

V. Precipitation- The insoluble compound called precipitate forms in this reaction.

VII. Endothermic- Reactions which absorb energy are called endothermic

VIII. Oxidation: Gain of oxygen or removal of hydrogen or metallic element from a

IX. Reduction: Addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen from a compound is

Eg - NaOH + HCl ⇒ NaCl + H2O

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ( 1Mark each):----

(a) Change in temperature

7. The oxidation of oils or fats in a food is known as:

(a) X-4, Y-3, Z-3

17. The given diagram represents a .............reaction.

The colour of silver chloride after sometime is:

After one week, the colour of sulphate solution is:

The colour of crystals after heating is:

3. Assertion: Chemical equations can be made more informative.

5. Assertion : A chemical equation should be balanced.

Reason: It adds taste to chips

7. Assertion: Decomposition reactions are similar to combination reactions.

8. Assertion : During digestion, carbohydrates are broken down to form glucose.

9. Assertion: Carbon dioxide turns lime water milky.

10. Assertion : Photosynthesis is considered as an endothermic reaction.

VERY SHORT QUESTIONS (2 Marks each):-

State which is more reactive, Mn or Al and Why? [CBSE2016,2018]

Ans:-Al is the reducing agent. Al is more reactive than Mn.

Answer the following questions:

a. The gas liberated is H2.

9. Identify the type of each of the following reactions:

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 Marks each):-

Thermal decomposition reaction:

Photo chemical decomposition reaction

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 Marks each):-

2.(a) Explain two ways by which food industries prevent rancidity.

a. Decomposition reaction: It is a process in which a compound is broken down into

e. CuO(s) + 2HCl → CuCl2 + H2O

SOURCE BASED/CASE-BASED QUESTIONS (4Marks):-

1.) What do you mean by the word RANCIDITY?

Ex: 2AgCl + sunlight → 2Ag + Cl2

GIST OF THE CHAPTER

Chemical Properties of Acid:

Chemical properties of bases:

✓ Salts may be transparent or opaque.

Some Important Chemical Compounds

Use of Bleaching Powder:

Properties of Sodium Bicarbonate:

Use of Baking Soda:

4. Washing Soda (Sodium Carbonate) Preparation Method: Sodium carbonate is

(v) Plaster of Paris: Calcium sulphate hemihydrate [CaSO4. ½ H2O]

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. Name the natural source of each of the following acid

Q4. What is formed when zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide?

Q3. 15 mL of water and 10 mL of Sulphuric acid are to be mixed in a beaker

(ii)The process is called dilution.

Q4. (a) Three acidic solutions A, B and C have pH = 0, 3 and 5 respectively.

Answer: (A) (i) Alkali, for example, NaOH (Sodium hydroxide).

CASE STUDY QUESTIONS

i) What is the molecular formula of gypsum?