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Module 01
These are acts or attempted acts

Act of Unlawful Dangerous
1 such as to jeopardize the safety Sabotage Security 2
Interference Goods
of civil aviation and air transport.
Any machine that can derive

support in the atmosphere from
Push Back
2 the reactions of the air other than Aircraft HHMD XBIS 1
Trolley
the reactions of the air against
the earth’s surface.
An aircraft shall be deemed to

be inflight at any time from the
moment when all its external Aircraft in
Aircraft in Aircraft In Aircraft under
3 doors are closed following Maintenance 2
Service Flight Security checks
embarkation until the moment area
when any such door is opened for
disembarkation.
A parked aircraft which is under Aircraft

Aircraft in Aircraft not in Aircraft Security
4 surveillance sufficient to detect maintenance 1
Service flight checks
unauthorized access. area
An inspection of the interior of
an aircraft to which passengers
may have had access and an
Aircraft
inspection of the hold for the Aviation
5 Screening Security Profiling 2
purposes of discovering Security
Checks
suspicious objects, weapons,
explosives or other dangerous
devices.
An aircraft that is either parked

for a period of more than 12
Aircraft not in Aircraft in Aircraft in Unattended
6 hours or is not under surveillance 1
Service flight Service Aircraft
sufficient to detect unauthorized
access.
An area used or intended to be

used for the landing and takeoff
7 Landside Airside Apron Airport 4
of aircraft, including its building
and ‘facilities.
The movement area of an airport,

adjacent terrain and buildings or Movement Airside Baggage make
8 Airside 2
portions thereof, access to which area waiting area up area
is controlled.
Standard
Standard and
Standards and Acts and Rules
9 Annex 17 deals with ___________ Recommended 3
on AVSEC recommended on AVSEC
practices
process
A defined area, on a land
aerodrome, intended to
accommodate aircraft for
10 Airside Apron Landside Cargo building 2
purposes of loading or unloading
passengers, mail or cargo,
fuelling, parking or maintenance.
A check of a person’s identity

and previous experience,
including any criminal history, Pre
Security Background
11 where appropriate, as part of the embarkation Profiling 3
checks checks
assessment of an individual’s check
suitability for unescorted access
to a Security Restricted Are
Personal property of passengers

12 or crew carried on an aircraft by Courier Baggage Cargo Mail 2
agreement with the operator.
The area where all the arrival

Baggage Baggage
13 passenger’s bags are delivered to Arrival Aircraft 1
break up area sorting Area
them.
Space in which departure
Baggage
14 baggage is sorted into flight Cargo area Airside Are Aircraft 1
make up area
loads.
A status of alert, put in place by
competent authorities to activate
an intervention plan intended to
counter the possible
consequences arising from a
Bomb Crisis
15 communicated threat, Bomb Alert Sabotage 1
Threat Management
anonymous or otherwise, or
arising from the discovery of a
suspect device or other suspect
item on an aircraft, at an airport
or in any civil aviation facilities.
A communicated threat,
anonymous or otherwise, which
suggests, or infers, whether true
or false that the safety of an
Bomb
16 aircraft in flight or on the ground, Bomb Alert Threat Call Red Alert 2
Threat
or any airport or civil aviation
facility or any person may be in
danger from an explosive or other
item or device.
A communicated threat,
___________ or otherwise, which
suggests, or infers, whether true
or false that the safety of an
17 aircraft in flight or on the ground, Enormous Synonymous Anonymous Hoax 3
or any airport or civil aviation
facility or any person may be in
danger from an explosive or other
item or device.
Any property carried on an
aircraft other then mail, stores Dangerous Company Catering
18 Cargo 1
and accompanied or mishandled Goods stores supplies
baggage.
All items, other than catering

supplies, associated with
passenger in-flight services, for Dangerous Catering Catering
19 Cargo 2
example newspapers, magazines, goods Stores Supplies
headphones, video tapes, pillows
and blankets, amenity kits, etc.
Food, beverages, other dry stores

Dangerous Catering
20 and associated equipment used Cargo Company stores 4
Goods Supplies
on board an aircraft.
The process of reporting to an Pre

Secondary
21 aircraft operator for acceptance embarkation Check-in Reconciliation 3
check
on a particular flight. check
It means air transportation of

Aviation General Corporate
22 passengers and their belongings, Civil Aviation 3
Security Aviation Aviation
cargo, mail etc by civil aircraft.
Articles or substances which are
capable of posing risk to health,
safety, property or the
environment and which are
Dangerous Dangerous
23 shown in the list of dangerous Cargo Guns 1
Goods substance
goods in the Technical
instructions or which are
classified according to those
instructions.
The Passenger who creates or

has the potential to create
disturbance either on board the
aircraft or on ground and in the
Disruptive Crew Special
24 process could endanger the Sky Marshall 1
Passenger Member Protection Group
safety of the aircraft, fellow
passengers, crew members,
airline staff or property thereby
hampering the operations.
A device, or combination of
devices and / or procedures, Explosive
Explosive
which are intended to detect Device
25 Detection DFMD HHMD 2
amounts and types of explosives Detection
System
in passengers checked and hand System
carried baggage.
Passenger who has checked in

26 No show Go show Deportee Gate no show 4
but not shown up for boarding.
All civil aviation operations other
than scheduled air services and
General Corporate Aviation
27 non-scheduled air transport Civil Aviation 1
Aviation Aviation Security
operations for remuneration or
hire.
Any person who on board an

aircraft in flight: (i) Unlawfully, by
force or threat thereof, or by any
other form of intimidation, seizes,
or exercises control of that
28 Hijacking Sabotage Bomb Alert Bomb Threat 1
aircraft, or attempts to perform
any such act, or is an accomplice
of a person who performs or
attempts to perform any such act,
commits the offence of
Any person who _______________,

unlawfully, by force or threat
thereof, or by any other form of
intimidation, seizes, or exercises
control of that aircraft, or On board an
On board Boards an Deplanes from
29 attempts to perform any such act, aircraft in- 1
any aircraft aircraft an aircraft
or is an accomplice of a person flight
who performs or attempts to
perform any such act, commits
the offence of hijacking that
aircraft
Any person who on board an
aircraft in flight: (i) Unlawfully, by
force or threat thereof, or by any
other form of ___________, seizes,
or exercises control of that
30 aircraft, or attempts to perform Initiation Imitation Intimation Intimidation 4
any such act, or (ii) Is an
accomplice of a person who
performs or attempts to perform
any such act, commits the
offence of hijacking that aircraft.
Any baggage of the passenger Registered Hand

31 Unaccompanied Cargo 2
other than checked baggage baggage Baggage
baggage
Recognizing the shapes displayed

on x-ray units and being able to
Explosive
evaluate and classify them into Image Physical Explosive
32 Trace 2
the proper categories of NO Interpretation Inspection vapour detector
detector
THREAT, POSSIBLE THREAT, and
OBVIOUS THREAT.
A person who is or will be refused

Interline Transit Inadmissible
33 admission to a State by its Sky Marshal 3
passenger passenger passenger
authorities.
Passenger who is transferred

between aircraft of different air Transit Interline Transfer
34 Deportee 2
carriers during the course of his passenger passenger passenger
journey.
Baggage of passengers subject
to transfer from the aircraft of
Suspicious Interline
35 one operator to the aircraft of Courier bag Hand bag 4
bag baggage
another operator in the course of
the passenger’s journey.
An originator of property for

transportation by air for their
own account and who has
Known Known
36 established business with a Consignee Consignor 3
Consignee Consignor
regulated agent or an airline on
the basis of agreed criteria
addressing the security of goods.
The area of an airport and

buildings to which both travelling
37 passengers and the non- Landside Airside Airport Runway 1
travelling public have unrestricted
access.
Dispatches of correspondence
and other items tendered by and
intended for delivery to postal Diplomatic Company
38 Courier Mail 2
services in accordance with the mail stores
rules of the Universal Postal
Union(UPU).
Baggage involuntarily, or
Interline Transfer Transit Mishandled
39 inadvertently, separated from 4
baggage baggage baggage Baggage
passengers or crew.
That part of an aerodrome to be
used for the take‑off, landing Movement
40 and taxing of aircraft, consisting Runway Apron Airside 1
of the manoeuvring area and the Area
apron(s).
A person, organization or
41 enterprise engaged in or offering BCAS Operator Airport ICAO 2
to engage in an aircraft operation.
A system consists of cards or

other documentation issued to
individual persons employed on
Security
42 airports or who otherwise have Permit Ticket Boarding pass 2
Equipment
need for authorized access to the
airport, airside or Security
Restricted Are
A corridor at, above or below

Terminal Passenger
43 ground level to connect aircraft Airside Pier 4
building Gangway
stands to a passenger building.
Systematic observation of
persons and baggage and
questioning if necessary to Pre-
Baggage Access
44 categories them two group Profiling embarkation 2
search Control
threatening and non threatening checks
so that more attention can be
paid to the threatening category.
An agent, freight forwarder or
any other entity who conducts
business with an operator and
provides security controls that Regulated Customer
45 Cargo Agent Courier Agent 1
are accepted or required by the Agent Service Agent
appropriate authority in respect
of cargo, courier and express
parcels or mail.
An act or omission, intended to

cause malicious or wanton
destruction of property,
46 endangering or resulting in Sabotage Hijacking Bomb Threat Bomb Alert 1
unlawful interference with
international civil aviation and its
facilities.
A means by which the

introduction of weapons,
explosives or articles likely to be Security
47 Sabotage Sterile Area Hijacking 2
utilized to commit an act of Control
unlawful interference can be
prevented.
The application of technical or

other means which are intended
to identify and/or detect Standard and
Security
48 weapons, explosives or other Screening Security Audit Recommended 2
Control
dangerous devices which may be Practices
used to commit an act of
unlawful interference.
An in depth compliance
examination of all aspects of the Security Security Aviation
49 Screening 2
implementation of national civil Audit Control Security
aviation security programme.
A combination of measures,
human and material resources,
Aviation Security
50 intended to safeguard civil Screening Security Audit 1
Security Control
aviation against acts of unlawful
interference.
Devices of a specialized nature

for use, individually or as part of a
system in the prevention or Frisking Security
51 Communication Weapons 2
detection of acts or unlawful booths Equipment
systems
interference with civil aviation
and its facilities.
Measures adopted to safeguard

Security
52 civil aviation against acts of Screening Profiling Security Audit 4
Programme
unlawful interference.
Airside areas of an airport into

which access is controlled to
ensure security of civil aviation. Security Terminal
53 Landside Airside 3
Such areas will normally include, Restricted Area building
inter alia, the ramp, baggage
make-up areas, cargo sheds, etc
The area between any passenger
inspection or screening control
54 Terminal Sterile Area Stores Arrival hall 2
point and the aircraft into which
access is strictly controlled.
building
Passengers making direct

Transfer Transit Disruptive
55 connections between two Unaccompanied 1
different flights. minor
Baggage making direct
Transit Transfer Unclaimed
56 connections between two Unaccompanied 2
baggage baggage baggage
different flights. baggage
Passengers departing from an

Transfer Transit Interline
57 airport on the same flight as that Passenger 3
on which they arrived.
Baggage, which is transported as

cargo and may or may not be Interline Transit
58 Unidentified Unaccompanie 2
carried on the same aircraft with baggage baggage
baggage d baggage
the person to whom it belongs.
Baggage, which arrives at an

Transit Transfer Unclaimed
59 airport and is not retrieved or Unaccompani 4
baggage baggage baggage
claimed by a passenger. ed baggage
Baggage at an airport, with or

without a baggage tag, which is Transit Unidentified Transit
60 Unaccompanied 2
not picked up by or identified with baggage baggage baggage
baggage
a passenger.
A standard practice is defined as
any specification for physical
characteristics, configuration
material, performance, personnel
61 Desirable Necessary Provisional Recommended 2
or procedure, the uniform
application of which is recognized
as ____________ for the safety of
civil aviation.
Any facility on or connected with

an airport, which, if damaged or Access Vulnerable
62 Landside Bomb Alert 3
destroyed, would seriously impair control Point
the functioning of the airport.
Intrusion
Intrusion
PIDS installed at airports is a during Intrusion from Internal defence
63 during 3
measure for detecting: passengers perimeter system
deplaning
boarding
64 ICAO has its headquarters in Chicago Geneva Paris Montreal 4
Power of central government to Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule
65 Section 5A Section 5 2
make rules 8A 81B
Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule
66 Power to issue direction Section 5 Section 5A 4
8A 8
Power of central government to

make rules for securing safe
67 Section 8C Section 9A Section 5 Section 5A 1
custody any redelivery of
unclaimed property.
Power of central government to

Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule
68 prohibit or regulate construction Section 8C Section 9A 2
24B 161
of buildings, planting trees etc
Penalty for failure to comply with
69 Section 9A Section 8C Section 11A Section 5 3
direction issued under section 5A
Penalty for failure to comply with

Section
70 directions issued under section Section 11B Section 8C Section 5A 2
11A
9A
Security checks of person Aircraft Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule
71 1
boarding aircraft at aerodrome Rule 8A 13 19 24
Prohibition of intoxicated person Aircraft Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule
72 2
boarding the aircraft. Rule 8A 24 13 19
Carriage of person suffering from
Aircraft Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule
73 mental disorder or epilepsy in an 4
Rule 24 24B 24C 24A
aircraft
Carriage of prisoners in an Aircraft Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule
74 2
aircraft Rule 2003 24B 161 24
Carriage of animals, birds and Aircraft Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule
75 3
reptiles in the aircraft Rule 24B 81B 24C 91
76 Carriage of cabin crew 2
Rule 24B 38B 161 156
77 Smoking in aircraft 3
Rule 78 81 25 38B
Aircraft Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule
78 Licensing of aerodromes Section 8C 2
Rule 81A 78 91
Aircraft Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule
79 Entry into public aerodrome Section 8C 3
Rule 8A 90 91
Prohibition of slaughtering and

flaying of animals, depositing of
80 rubbish and other polluted or 2
Rule 90 91 24B 24
obnoxious matter in the vicinity of
aerodrome.
81 Carriage of Dangerous Goods 4
Rule 2004 156 161 2003
Inspection by government Aircraft Aircraft Rule
82 Section 8C Section 9A 1
officials Rule 156 161
83 Penalties 3
Rule 2003 8A 161 24B
8 feet wall 8 feet wall

6 feet wall
with 2 feet ‘Y’ with 1½ feet 7 feet wall with
with 2 feet ‘Y’
Which one of the following is the shaped angle ‘Y’ shaped 1 feet ‘Y’ shaped
84 shaped angle 2
correct size of perimeter wall overhang angle angle overhang
overhang with
with barbed overhang with with barbed wire
barbed wire
wire barbed wire
Which one of the following is the 3 cms X 2 cms X 2.5cms X 3.5 3.5 cms X 4.5
85 3
correct size of APSU stamp 2cms 2cms cms cms
Which one of the following is the 4X4X4 4X4X4 4X4X4 4X4X4

86 1
correct size of cooling pit feet cms meter inches
Sum total of all dimensions of

87 hand bag allowed at Jammu & 110cms 100cms 115cms 200cms 2
Srinagar is
Sum total of all dimensions of
88 hand bag allowed other than 115cms 110cms 111cms 100cms 1
Jammu & Srinagar
Size of hand bag allowed in India 35 X 35 X 50 X 30 X 20 60 X 30 X 25 55 X 35 X 25

89 4
other than at Jammu & Srinagar 35 cms cms cms cms
Size of hand bag allowed in 50 X 30 X 35 X 35 X 35 25 X 25 X 25 60 X 30 X 25

90 1
Jammu & Srinagar 20 cms cms cms cms
3 inches of 5 inches of
Which of the below mentioned 6 inches of 5 inches of
blade and 6 blade and 5
91 Kirpan cannot be allowed on blade and 3 blade and 3 2
inches of inches of
domestic flights in India inches of handle inches of handle
handle handle
2.14 m X 2.14 cms X 2.41 m X 2.34

92 Size of frisking booth 2mX 3m 1
2.43 m 2.43 cms m
6 inches of
6 inches of 7 inches of
Which is the correct size of Kirpan Total 10 blade and 4
93 blade and 3 blade and 3 3
allowed on domestic flights inches inches of
inches of handle inches of handle
handle
94 Aerodrome manual 2
Rule 78 81 81B 90
Carriage of Arms and Aircraft Rule Aircraft Rule
96 Aircraft Rule 8 Aircraft Rule 8B 2
Ammunition on aircraft 8A 2003
Deployment of manpower by Arun Mishra R P Singh B D Pandey Justice Kirpal

97 1
airline security at aircraft is as per Committee committee committee committee
Security Security
Security
training tamper Security tamper
98 What is STEB tempered excess 3
experience emergency evident bag
bag
baggage baggae
Liquid and Liquid and Liquids Aerosols
99 What is LAG Liquids air gels 4
Guns Grease Gels
Module 02
The convention laid down

Chicago Montreal Hague Tokyo
foundation for International Civil 1
Convention Convention Convention Convention
100 Aviation Organization.
Convention on offences and
Montreal Chicago Tokyo Hague
certain other acts committed on 3
101 board aircraft
Convention for suppression of Tokyo Hague Montreal Chicago
2
unlawful seizure of aircraft Convention Convention Convention Convention
102
Convention against suppression

Chicago Tokyo Hague Montreal
of unlawful acts against the 4
safety of civil aviation
103
After the hijack of Indian Airlines

Boeing 737 aircraft to Lahore on
Kripal B. D. Pandey R. P. Singh Arun Mishra
10th September, 1976 2
Committee Committee Committee committee
_______________ committee was
formed by then Prime Minister.
104
B. D. Pandey committee
recommendation led formation of
BCAS NCASP DCAS STP 3
a cell called
105 ________________________
____________________ was formed R. P. Singh B.N. Kirpal Arun Mishra B. D. Pandey

2
after Air India – Kanishka tragedy Committee Committee Committee Committee
106
Kirpal Committee report led to
the formation of NCASP BCAS DGCA DCAS 2
107 _________________________
Kanishka tragedy incident is the Sabotage Cyber
Hijacking Airport attack 1
108 example of of aircraft Terrorism
Airport Cyber
IC 814 incident is the example of Sabotage Hijacking 3
109 attack Terrorism
BCAS formed after ____________ R. P. Singh

B D Pandey Kirpal commi Krishna Comm 2
committee recommendations. Committee
110
Coordinating with ICAO is the Airport Appropriate
APSU Airlines 4
111 responsibility of Operators Authority
Monitor implementation of Airport
Airlines BCAS APSU/ASG 3
NCASP is the responsibility of Operator
112
Detection and disposal of
explosive devices is the Airlines BCAS CISF BDDS 4
113 responsibility of
Unlawful Misuse of Misuse of Threat from
Which one of the following is the
seizure of nuclear radioactive biological 1
oldest threat to civil aviation
114 aircraft weapons substances weapons
Which one of the following is the Unlawful

Sabotage of Cyber
new and emerging threat to civil seizure of Terrorist attack 3
aircraft Terrorism
aviation aircraft
115
Secondary security checks were

Kanishka 30th Jan, 1971
made compulsory after IC814 Hijack US Attack 2
Tragedy IC Hijacking
_______________ incident.
116
Identification of baggage was IC 814 Kanishka Air France
US Attack 2
117 made mandatory after Hijack Tragedy Hijacking
Reconciliation of baggage was Air Lanka Kanishka PanAM

US Attack 3
introduced after _________ tragedy bombing Tragedy sabotage
118
Implementation of
Kanishka Ethiopian
strengthening of cockpit doors IC 814 US Attack 4
Tragedy Hijack
119 started after
Strict implementation of locking Kanishka Ethiopian

US Attack IC 814 2
of cockpit doors started after Tragedy Hijack
120
Frisking of passengers is Anti

Anti Terrorist Anti Security Anti sabotage 1
____________________ measure hijacking
121
Measures
Security of catering item is against Anti hijacking Anti terrorist
Anti Security 2
______________________ measure terrorist measure measure
122 attack
Measures
Supervision of registered
against Security of
baggage is _________________ Anti hijacking Anti sabotage 3
terrorist personnel
measure
123 attack
Measures
Deployment of QRT is against Security of Security of
Anti sabotage 1
___________________ measure terrorist personnel catering items
124 attack
Anti Security 3
125 Provision of sky marshals in resp Anti sabota Measures aga Anti hijacking
First hijacking in the world took
1930 1931 1935 1945 2
126 place in the year
First hijacking in India took
1976 1945 1971 1931 3
127 place in the year
IC – 814 was hijacked in the
1999 1971 1976 2001 1
128 year
Chennai airport bomb blast
1985 1986 2000 1984 4
129 took place in the year
Kanishka Aircraft was bombed
1985 1971 1986 2001 1
130 in the year
Colombo airport attack by LTTE
2000 1999 2001 2005 3
131 in the year
Airport
Quick Reaction Team is a unit of Airline ASG/APSU BCAS 2
132 Operator
Secondary ladder point check is Airport

BCAS ASG/APSU Airlines 4
the responsibility of ________ Operator
133
Access control of aircraft is the Airport
ASG/APSU Airlines BCAS 2
responsibility of ________ Operator
134
Passenger baggage
Airport
reconciliation is the responsibility BCAS ASG/APSU Airlines 3
Operator
135 of ________
X-ray screening of registered Airport
baggage the responsibility of Operator / ASG APSU BDDS 1
136 ________ Airline
X-ray screening of hand
Airport
baggage is the responsibility of Airlines ASG/APSU BCAS 3
Operator
137 ________
Receiving, carriage and disposal

Airport
of security removed articles is the Airlines ASG/APSU BCAS 2
Operator
responsibility of ________
138
Security of catering at pre – set
Airport
stage is the responsibility of BCAS Airlines ASG/APSU 3
Operator
139 ________
Provision and maintenance of
perimeter/ fencing, perimeter Airport
BCAS ASG/APSU Airlines 1
road is the responsibility of Operator
140 ________
Aircraft can
Aircraft can
Aircraft can be hijacked by
be hijacked
be hijacked carrying arms Aircraft can be
secretly
Which one of the following is not by bluffing and hijacked by
smuggling arms 2
correct about ammunition collusion with
and ammunition
possession of concealed in airport staff
concealed on
weapons registered
person
141 baggage
Anti
Which one of the following is the Pre- Secondary
sabotage Screening of
example of recommended embarkation ladder point 4
search of cargo
practice checks checks
142 aircraft
Following organisation is
responsible for detection and EDDS BDDS EDS ASG 2
143 disposal of explosives
Advise Co-
Provision and
government ordination
Which one of the following is maintenance of Develop
of India on among 3
NOT the function of BCAS infrastructure of NCASTP
security different
airport
144 matters organizations
Which one of the following is Misuse of Misuse of Aircraft can

NOT a New and emerging threats nuclear radioactive be used as a Hijack 4
faced by civil aviation weapons substances missile
145
Which one of the following is
Perimeter
NOT a physical measure taken at Turnstile Frisking Watch Tower 3
wall
146 airport.
IC814 aircraft was hijacked
Delhi Kathmandu Kandahar Dubai 2
147 from
First hijacking in the world took
India England Peru Australia 3
148 place in
CISF was introduced after IC 814 Kanishka 1931 Peru
US Attack 1
149 __________ incident. Hijacking Tragedy hijacking
Random checking of baggage

manually even after x-ray IC 814 1931 Peru Kanishka
US Attack 4
screening was lesson learned Hijacking hijacking Tragedy
after _______ incident.
150
Pistol IED Weapons Dangerous
concealed in concealed in concealed on articles 3
technique to hijack the plane
151 cargo registered bag person concealed in mail
Preparation of Airline security Airport
Airline BCAS DGCA 2
manual is ________ responsibility operator
152
The appropriate authority on

DGCA RDCOS DCAS COSCA 4
Civil aviation security in India is
153
The regulatory authority for Civil

BCAS ASG DGCA DCAS 1
Aviation Security in India is
154
The regulatory authority for the

ASG BCAS DCAS DGCA 4
safety of civil aviation is
155
_____________ is responsible for

RDCOS COSCA CASO DCOS 2
coordinating with ICAO
156
Anti hijacking unit is one of the Airport
BCAS Airline ASG 3
157 four units of operator
Protection unit is one of the four Airport
Airline BCAS ASG 4
158 units of operator
Chicago convention was held in
1963 1944 1970 1988 2
159 the year
Tokyo convention held in the
1963 1944 1970 1988 1
160 year
Hague convention held in the
1963 1944 1970 1988 3
161 year
Montreal convention held in the
1963 1944 1988 1971 4
162 year
Protocol supplementary to
Montreal convention held in the 1963 1944 1971 1988 4
163 year
Convention on the marking of
plastic explosive for the purpose 1963 1944 1971 1991 4
of detection held in the year
164
Module 03
To mark the
boundary
To keep
between To prevent To prevent
The main purpose of boundary cattle and
fencing is landside and people looking capture of 2
livestock off
airside at aircraft airport land
the runway
restricted
165 areas
Within a
building such
Only at the Only at the
Access control points are as terminal Only at the
vulnerable catering 1
located and within cargo complex
points premises
airport
boundary
166
Only
manned Manned only
Only manned Manned at all
Access control points are during during high 3
at night times
daylight threat
167 hours
Only when Only if they Whenever they
Airport workers are required to Only if they
they are off do not have enter restricted 4
use access control points have permit
168 duty permit area
Whenever Whenever
Airline employees are authorized Whenever
they are in they are off Not ever 4
to by-pass access control points they are on duty
uniforms duty
169
Which one of the following is notPhotograph Employee Period of Permit serial 2
170 shown on the AEP of holder code number validity number
Which color pass is issued to

those persons whose duty
Orange Orange-C Light Green Navy Blue 1
warrants them to visit all areas of
civil airport/ civil enclaves in India
171
Which color pass is issued for

crew members of Indian
registered airlines whose duty Orange Orange-C White Navy blue 2
civil airports in Indi
172
Which color pass is issued for
persons whose duty warrants
Orange C Navy Blue Purple White 3
them to visit all areas of a specific
173 airports
For persons whose duty
Purple Navy blue White Light Brown 2
a specific airport except security
174 hold area
warrants them to visit the
operational area only, in a specific Navy blue Light Brown Light Green White 4
airport, excluding SHA and
175 terminal building

warrants them to visit the arrival
Navy Blue Orange-C Light Brown Light Green 3
or departure halls of a specific
airport which color pass is issued
176
Which passes may be issued to
persons whose duty warrants
them to visit one specific airport
Light Transferable
for passenger facilitation up to Light Green Purple – ‘G’ 2
Brown passes
check-in area of departure side
and up to visitor areas on arrival
side.
177
For GHA persons whose duty

Purple ‘G’ Purple ‘T’ Light Brown Purple “P” 1
a specific airports which color
pass is issued
178
warrants them to visit only all
areas of the terminal building of a Purple ‘G’ Purple ‘T Purple ‘P’ Light Green 2
specific airport which color pass
179 is issued
Given to casual workers who Casual labor

Purple P Light Green Orange C 2
are hired only on daily wages token
180
Which one of the following is not Hand Finger

Frisking Iris Recognition 3
considered as biometrics? Geometry printing
181
Designated
Which of the following details Registered Color
access gate to Safety status 2
will be checked in AEP number indicating area
182 be used
Designated
Which of the following details Registered
Photograph access gate to Safety status 2
will be checked in AEP number
183 be used
To see staff
Background checks are To check his To check his To check his
is medically 3
conducted to qualifications police record family status.
fit
184
MLAs of state legislature have Up to Not permitted
free access up to which area of Aircrafts Terminal All areas in the airport 4
185 airport Building. without valid
Maintain radio contact with the

airport ground operations taxiways Vital
Apron Parking Bays 1
control(GOC) or ATC when and runways Installations
moving in the vicinity of
186
Which one of the following is not Employee Period of Permit serial

Photograph 2
shown on the AEP code number validity number
187 of holder
Designated
Which of the following details Registered
access gate to Name Safety status 3
will be checked in AEP number
188 be used
Security
Ticket counter areas would Non-restricted
Restricted Sterile Area Airside are 4
normally be identified as. Are
189 Are
all persons
having
only those
Which of the following unescorted all persons
persons who only contract
employees must undergo a access to who work on the 1
work full time personnel
background check? restricted airport territory
at an airport
areas of the
airport
190
Which of the following details Safety Registered

Organization Safety status 3
will be checked in AEP status number
191
Runway Use a vehicle
Look left and should be with hazard
during high
right then crossed only warning light to 2
Which of the following is the right threat
cross after clearance cross runway at
way to cross runway in
from ATC any time
192 emergency situation
Access control points are located: within a bui only at the ca Only at ATC Only at fuel stor 1
193
Which of the following would
Sterile Baggage Ticket
not be considered "restricted" Ramp areas 3
areas make-up area counters
194 areas?
You can
Red revolving light on top and Engines are You can open You can drive
align front 2
below the aircraft if lit indicates running aircraft hold close to aircraft
195 step ladder
cards
visitors
authorizing
cards stating personal
access to the personal
Permits or "Authorized ID" are: that this identification 1
restricted name tags.
person works documents
areas of the
at the airport
airport
196
At all times
At all times At all times
Airport movement rules apply to except when
except in an At all times except bad 3
security staff they are on
emergency weather
patrol
197
Color Designated
Which of the following details will Registered
indicating Safety status access gate to be 1
be checked in AEP number
198 area used
Which one of the following is Normal ID
SLPC Frisking Finger prints 4
199 considered as biometrics? Cards
Which one of the following is Iris
PEC Manual Gates Barriers 1
200 considered as biometrics? Recognition
Stamping
Which one of the following is Voice Manual
Boarding CCTV 2
considered as biometrics? Recognition Access Control
201 cards
When moving airside in a vehicle itOnly during

Only during When crossing
is necessary to use hazard conditions of At all times 4
darkness the runway
warning lights poor visibility
202
For protocol persons whose duty
Light Green Purple Tokens Purple “P” 4
a specific airport which color of
203 pass is issued
Know
Which of the following is NOT a Know the boundary Pre-
Use vehicle
safety rule while moving at ICAO between embarkation 3
hazard light
airport definitions landside and checks
204 airside
Do not Do not cross

Which of the following is NOT a
assume that runway unless Drive vehicle
safety rule while moving at the Use vehicle light 4
it is safe to clearance without ADP
airport
cross runway given by ATC
205
Which of the following is the Access Reservation

ATC Arrival Hall 1
vulnerable point of the airport control gate counter
206
Maintain radio contact with the
airport ground operations control Vital
Apron Runways Parking Bays 3
(or ATC) when moving in the Installations
vicinity of
207
Which one of the following is the Reservation Access

SHA ATC 4
vulnerable point of the airport counter control gate
208
Fuel
Which one of the following is the Terminal Check in
Storage City Offices 1
vulnerable point of the airport Building Counters
209 areas
Who has the Authority to access

Employees Security staff all persons
departure & arrival Hall of the Members of
of the of the who work on the 2
terminal using ID card issued by parliament
parliament parliament airport territory
Parliament Secretariat?
210
Which one of the following is the Passenger

Bars &
typical location/installation of theterminal City Offices Visitors area 1
restaurants
airport building
211

Fuel storage Reservation
typical location/installation of the City Offices City area 2
area counter
airport
212
Which one of the following is the Navigational

Arrival Visitors area City Offices 3
vulnerable point of the airport Facilities
213
all time
AEPs for Airport employees are for official personal name
accessibility for facilitation 2
issued for the purposes of duty tags.
to the airport
214
Which one of the following is the Communicatio Bars &
Access gates Power houses 2
vulnerable point of the airport ns facilities. restaurants
215
Module 04
Which are the category of Hotel
Airline
people who need authorized representativ Local Public Visitor 2
employee
216 access to airside e
Which are the category of Diplomatic

Emergency
people who need authorized representativ Visitors Local Police 1
people
access to airside e
217
Passengers can be given

Pan card Id card Ticket Passport 3
access to airport on the basis of
218
Staff can be given access to Company ID
Pan card ADP AEP 4
219 airside on the basis of card
Labors can be given access to Company id Casual labor Membership
ID card 2
220 airside on the basis of card token Card
Member of parliament can be
Driving
given access to airside on the ADP ID Card Passport 3
license
221 basis of
To control
movement of To allow To allow non
To allow visitor
Purpose of access control people from everyone to traveling people 1
in airside are
landside to enter enter airside
airside
222
Only Automatic and
Access control system can be Only manual CCTV 4
223 automatic manual
Details of
What details to be maintained Passport
vehicle Ticket details Visitors details 1
in access control point log details
224 admitted
Which of the following is not a Person
part of Physical access control manning entry Automatic 3
225 system Bollards Turnstile gate gates
Which of the following is not a Person
Drop arm Tyre
part of Physical access control Gates manning entry 4
barrier breakers
226 system? gate
Have to
Need not Need not pass Can be
Airport staff members who need submit to a submit to the
through the permitted
to pass the screening point for same 2
performance of their duties physical walkthrough without search
procedure as
search. metal detector. by the CASO
227 passengers.
For operational reasons who can

Exempted
move from land side to airside APD COSCA Local Police 4
Category
without security Check
228
To mark the
To keep boundary
To prevent To prevent
The main purpose of boundary cattle and between
people looking capture of 3
fencing is livestock off landside and
at aircraft airport land
the runway airside
229 restricted areas
Whenever Whenever
Airline employees are authorized Whenever
they are in they are off Not ever 4
to by-pass access control points they are on duty
uniforms duty
230
Set of rules which control the acce AEP & Vehic Vehicle Permi AEP Company Ident 1
231
Bonafide Any one
Airside area of airport is Authorized Only to Airport
passengers holding visitor 3
accessible to person employees
232 only ticket
Those staff
All Those having
having
Local rules & regulation of the employees permanent Those having
Airside 2
Airport should be known to working at Airport Entry Bonafide ticket
Driving
Airport Pass
233 Permit
All staff working at Airport must Once in two Once in 5 When pass is
have under gone AVSEC Once in a year 4
years year re-issued
234 awareness training
Which of the following is not a
Angular Simulation Close circuit
equipment used at access control Flash lights 2
Mirrors Chambers televisions
235 point
Module 05
Authority to drive a
Airport Vehicle Airfield Airside
vehicle in the operational 4
entry permit permit Driving Permit Driving Permit
236 area (Airside) is
Vehicle should be Prohibited

Contraband Weapons 3
searched for Narcotics items
237 items
Airport
ADP is issued by BCAS DGCA Airlines 3
238 Operator
Access Control points should Barrier Only Only

Nothing 1
have and Gates Barriers Gates
239
Oral
To drive a vehicle in Driving
ADP permission by Recommendati 1
operational area, one needs License
240 AAI on by APD
How many gates are More
As less
required for better access gates are 10 8 1
as possible
241 control? required
Which one of the given
Body Vehicle
equipment is not used to Mirror Flash light 1
scanner scanner
242 conduct check on vehicle?
What is common for every
Barrier DFMD X-Ray BIS HHMD 1
243 duty post?
Maximum Speed for
30
driving vehicle in airport 25 KMPH 50 KMPH 15 KMPH 1
KMPH
244 premises is
Speed of vehicle near parked
5 KMPH 7 KMPH 10 KMPH 15 KMPH 1
245 aircraft must be
What is the highest speed
15 km/
limit for driving a motor 25 km/hr 20 km/pr 35 km/hr 1
hr
246 vehicle at Apron
Which of the given is not
Drop arm
a part of Physical access Turnstile Monitoring Gates 3
barrier CCTV from
247 control system
C t l
Which one of the given Colour Designated
BCAS
details will be checked in Photo indicating access gate to 3
stamp
248 vehicle permit area be used
Which one of the given is

Registered Area of Period of
NOT mentioned in vehicle Photo 1
number of validity validity
permit
249 vehicle
We
should
The equipment which we use never
at the vehicle access control disclose to Better It is
point should be in passenger access requirement aintenance of e 2
satisfactory working that the control of DGCA
condition because equipment
is not
working
250
Vehicle permits are issued Airport
BCAS DGCA Airlines 4
251 by Operator
Any
time
security Any kind
staff can of Communicatio
Effective communication He can
talk to his emergency n system gives
system is required at vehicle talk to his 2
family he can sophisticated
access control point because colleagues
member or contact look to check
friends to control room point.
release
stress.
252
Registration number given

Vehicle
on vehicle should match with Vehicle ADP AEP 2
permit
the number given on
253
Which of the given
equipment is not used to stop Drop arm Explosive
Bollards Gates 3
the vehicle at the access barrier detectors
254 control point?
Which of the given
equipment is used to stop the Drop arm
Explosive Mirror Flash light 4
vehicle at the access control barrier
detector
255 point?
ADP is AEC is For ADP
ADP is
Which of the given issued only issued only NOC from
issued by 1
statement is correct? after AEC after ADP commissioner
BCAS
256 issuance issuance is required.
Only Checking
Vehicle occupants can be Checking
checking Only frisking AEC and 3
checked by ADP
257 AEC frisking
A departing passenger Vehicle Entrance Any
Emergency
can access the airport from gate of the to the entrance to 2
doors
the airport terminal the airport
258
Access control to airport Airport APSU/

Airlines BCAS 3
is the responsibility of Operator ASG
259
Which vehicle is allowed
to enter airside if driver is ADP but AEC but
ADP ADP & AEC 4
having which of the given not AEC not ADP
260 document
Status of equipments and Access
Beat Personal Equipment
records of incidents will be control 4
book diary Log Register
261 maintained in point log
To
To
control the
control the
movement Control
The main aim of access movement of
of people Both a & b movement of 3
control points are: vehicle from
from land aircraft
land side to
side to
airside
262 airside
His ADP
If the AAI’s driver is violating
and
the Airside driving discipline He will Both a
identification 2
what penalty will be imposed be excused and b Terminated
permit will be
upon him
263 withdrawn
Need to
Every vehicle, which is have anti- needs Need not have
Occupants 1
running in operational area collision only flag ADP
light or flag
264
Equipments for operating Only
Manual Both a & b 3
barrier and turnstiles can be Automatic manual
265
At an airport, Airside
Airport Airlines
vehicle access control point ASG/APSU Immigration/ 2
operator Security
266 are manned by Custom
Name the areas of Interior & Engine
Both A &
vehicles to be checked for chassis of compartmen Holds 3
B
267 prohibited items vehicle t
Vehicle can be searched Trolley Physical

Both A & B X-Ray BIS 3
by mirror checking
268
At what safe distance radios
should be used from suspicious 20meters 25meters 50meters 100meters 2
269 device.
What are the points which Status Records Contact

Both a
should be maintained in of the of the number of 3
and b
access control point log equipment incident other agencies
270
Don’t try
What will be the course of
Remain to restrain
action when a prohibited or Both a
suspicious item is discovered
calm and the driver or
and b
Only a 3
polite use physical
during search of a vehicle
271 force
In a vehicle permit what
are the important points Registration Designated Both a
Only a 3
which should be seen while number of access gate and b
272 checking vehicle to be used
Module 06
Transmissi
Remote control bomb
on of Command Infrared Humidity 4
cannot be activated by
electromag wire bomb
netic waves
273
Change
Remote control bomb can be
Time in Infrared Humidity 3
activated by
274 temperature
The abbreviation of POD Proof of Point of Power of Postal
2
275 stands for departure detonation detonator order
IED with IED with IED with IED with

A _______________ type of
Ambient Delayed Anti handling Remote control 3
IED is activated by the victim
mechanism mechanism mechanism mechanism
276
Which of the given IED
IED IED IED
method of concealment of concealed in
concealed concealed in a concealed in a 4
IED would be difficult to a wooden
in a book plastic bottle laptop
277 identify in XBIS box
Which of the given type of IED with IED with IED with IED with
IED is most dangerous to Ambient Delayed Anti handling Remote control 3
handle mechanism mechanism mechanism mechanism
278
A micro switch with a

Anti Remote
pressure release mechanism Delayed
Ambient handling control 3
is _______________ type of mechanism
mechanism mechanism mechanism
switch
279
An IED which may explode
once atmospheric pressure
Barometer Altimeter Thermometer Micro switch 1
changes, uses ____________ as
280 a switch
An IED which would explode
Anti Remote
once aircraft reaches exactly Delayed
Ambient handling control 1
35000 feet, uses ____________ mechanism
mechanism mechanism mechanism
to activate the device
281
An IED planted at night
automatically explodes on Micro Remote Light
Watch 4
sunrise, uses ___________ as a switch control sensor
282 switch
Only Chemicals
Which of the given is true for Only digital Maximum
mechanical can also be
time / delay mechanism in clock can delay can be 3
clock can be used to cause
IED be used for 24 hours
283 used a delay
By
means of a
wire Handling it
IED with a command wire connecting Loud any way such
Electromag 2
mechanism is activated by from bomber sound as lifting,
netic waves
to the tilting
intended
284
target
________________ can be cast

Sheet
into shapes such as dolls RDX TNT Cordtex 2
explosive
heads, animals, wall plaques
285
Which of the given is an

Semtex Flares Fireworks 1
example of high explosive Gunpowder
286
ANFO Semtex C4 2
287 example of low explosive Gunpowder
In EVD presence of
Image
explosives is detected by Traces Smell 1
Vapours detection
288 collection of
In ETD presence of
Image
explosives is detected by Vapours Traces Smell 2
detection
289 collection of
Limited Low Limited
Low
The abbreviation LTPE Threat Temperature Temperature
Time Plastic 3
stands for Plastic Plastic Plastic
Explosive
290 Explosive Explosive Explosive
Low Small Electrical
Traditional
Explosives are of two explosive explosive and non
and Modern 1
types and high and big electrical
explosive
291 explosive explosive explosive
Anti handling bomb in the Change in

Lifting Pulling Opening 4
bag cannot be activated by temperature
292
What is the colour of the Dirty
Yellow White Chocolate 2
293 safety fuse black
What is the colour of gelatine Greenish Yellow Black White 2

294
Requires Does not

Which one of the given is Requires
Burns initiating require 3
true for an IED incendiary
mechanism detonator
295 device
Concealing
Which of the given falls Concealing Concealing
Concealing explosive in
under concealment of explosive in explosive in 3
explosive in false bottom
explosives on person a box carried the sole of
handbag of bag
296 in handbag shoe
It is It does not
Which of the given is NOT It can take It can be of
easy to require 2
true for IED? any shape any size
297 conceal detonator
__________ is an explosive
device designed, fabricated, Incendiary Inert Impact Improvised
placed and activated to Explosive Explosive Exploding Explosive 4
create panic and chaos Device Devi Device Device
298 among public
IED can be IED is IED device
IED has always uses
Which of the given is true of any always of
fixed incendiary 1
for IED shape, size specific
mechanism material for
299 or colour shape
explosion
An IED which may explode if Anti Remote
Ambient Delayed
you tilt the package, has handling control 1
mechanism mechanism
____________ mechanism mechanism mechanism
300
Transmissi Transmission
Remote control bombs Transmissio
on of Transmission of 4
can be activated by n of sound
electric of light electromagneti
waves
301 current c waves

Semtex RDX TNT ANFO 1
example of plastic explosive
302

PEK RDX TNT ANFO 1
example of plastic explosive
303
FM Transmission and
Remote Anti- Ambient
Radio Control mechanism are Delayed 1
Control handling Condition
________ type of Switch.
304
Explosives are of _______
One Two Three Four 2
305 types?
Detonator is also known
Switch Initiator Explosive 2
306 as Mechanism
Nitroglycerine is Not an
Liquid Plastic Solid 1
………………………. Explosive. explosive
307
How many types of
One Two Three Four 2
308 detonators are available?
- PTD switch comes in which Remote Ambient
Time delay Anti-handling 2
309 category control condition
To avoid
Dismantling is one of the To avoid For easy
effect before For safety 1
method to carry I.E.D detection carriage
310 decided time
Anti
Pyro technique is a Delay
handling Command Ambient 2
________ switch mechanism Mechanism
311 switch
Anti
Pressure release mechanism Delayed
Handling Time control Remote 1
is based on mechanism
312 mechanism
IED is which type of

Economic Military Home Made 4
Explosive Commercial
313
IED has how many
1 2 3 4 4
314 components
Not Not using
Not
With regard to discovery of throwing radio radio
manipulatin Failing to
an explosive device, which of water or any equipment in
g or moving take threat 2
the given would be an other the vicinity of
the suspect seriously
incorrect action? substance on the subject
object
315 the object device
Metal sensitive switch is a
Anti
_____________________________ Delayed Ambient Remote 3
handling
___ type of switch.
316
Total permissible size of
6” 3” 9” 8” 3
317 Kirpan is
An item a passenger can

Knife Lighter Book Blade 3
carry in his hand baggage
318
An item a passenger cannot
Walking
carry in his hand baggage or Knife Laptop Mobile 1
stick
319 on person
The switch mechanism is
2 3 4 1 3
320 classified into _____ types
Airlines security staff working
Dispose Relocate
at the airport should be able Diffuse IED Recognize 2
IED IED
321 to IED
Unconventional weapons Modern Chemical Disguised

Traditional 4
are weapons weapons Weapons
322 weapons
IID is designed to Explode Burn Burst Blast 2

323
Which one of the given is
TNT RDX Semtex Gun Powder 4
324 incendiary material
Which one of the given item

Machine Starter
can be carried in checked in Pistol Revolver 4
gun pistol
luggage without license
325
Which of the given is an Hockey
Kirpan Pocket knife Box cutter 1
326 example of weapon stick
An IED planted in the day Anti Remote
Ambient Delayed
explodes at night, uses handling control 1
mechanism mechanism
_________________ switch mechanism mechanism
327
X-ray sensitive switch is a Remote Delay

Ambient Time delay 1
_________type of switch. control mechanism
328 condition
Requires
Which one of the given is Easy to
incendiary Explodes Burns 2
true for an IED ? identify
device
329
Small pieces (approx 50 g)
of blasting gelatine (nitro-
glycerine based) explosives
embedded with pistachio and
other nuts covered with icing disguising
disguising hidden 1
sugar and wrapped in and concealing
cellophane to give the concealing
appearance of Arab
sweetmeat is the method
used for
330
Any Any
Kirpan of 6 inches blade is Fully
flight registered
permitted with a Sikh domestic International 3
operated aircraft in
passenger to be carried in flight in India flight
331 from India India
Which one of the given is Requires Requires a Less

Burns 3
NOT applicable for an IID? incendiary high explosive destruction
332 device
Which one of the given is Sulphur
TNT RDX Semtex 3
333 NOT an explosive powder
Write number of categories
prohibited items are divided Three four two five 2
334 into
In addition to prohibited
( large
items, screeners should be dangerous ( plants and
food items quantity of 1
attentive to the discovery of goods animals
money
335 any
Airlines Airlines
Airlines
security staff security staff
security
to obtain should hand
staff should
If passenger fails to declare necessary the passenger
immediatel
ammunition carried in his declaration with a
y summon
registered baggage or hand and register complaint to Passenger will
the Local 2
baggage before it is detected a complaint the local be released.
Police for
by screener but is having a with the local police along
necessary
valid license with him: police. There with the
legal action
is no need to ammunition
in this
detain the for necessary
regard.
passenger. legal action.
336
Not
Not permitted Not permitted
permitted to Allowed in
to be carried to be used
Prohibited items are be carried on cockpit but not in 3
while enteringwhile aircraft in
board an cabin
an airport flight
aircraft
337
Module 07
To make Look for

The main aim to search to find To check
the area left out 1
the SHA is ___________ ? narcotics cleanliness
sterile baggage
338
Make
What is the course of
Don’t announcement
action when you see Screen it. Immediately 2
touch it. to find the
unauthorized weapon in SHA safeguard it.
339 owner.
If weapon discovered Check all
while conducting search of Find hand bags of Immediately Evacuate
3
SHA searcher should owner passenger in safeguard the area
340 immediately SHA weapon
Check all
If IED discovered while Keep in
Notify hand bags of
conducting search of SHA Find owner security control 1
supervisor passenger in
searcher should immediately room
341 SHA
It is small
When conducting search Very few
area to be
of the SHA more attention to It is dirty Passenger is passengers 2
controlled and
be paid to toilets because unsupervised use it
342 secured
More
More the facilities in the Passengers
Cost checks to be Passengers do
SHA greater the problem make SHA 3
involved conducted of lot of shopping
because dirty
343 facilities
What are the different
Physical X-Ray
methods of screening of By cooling
search of examination A&B 4
passenger in Sterile Hold pit
passenger of baggage
344 Area
X-rays &
Pax
physical Both a & b
SHA is secured by Screening & Only b 3
checking of above
searching
345 baggage
Which one of the Chief Deputy chief
Airlines Governor of
following will be screened Justice of minister of 1
staff State
346 before entering into SHA High Court Union Territory
Searching and securing SHA ASG/ Airport
Airlines BDDS 1
is _________ responsibility APSU operators
347
Conduct
Conduct
search of
SHA search of SHA Maintain
“Maintain sterility of SHA” SHA but
should be and maintain strict access 3
signifies. access need
clean strict access control
not to
control
348 maintain
Before
allowing
After After
Search of SHA to be any During bomb
boarding passenger 1
conducted passenger threat
over entered SHA
to enter
349 inside
Which one of the
Owner Orange Exempted
following is exempted from
of shop CISF colour pass category of 4
screening before entering into
inside SHA holders people
350 SHA
Effective Observing
Keeping all screening of Screening operational
Which of the following is the
entry points passenger of passenger holding area 4
method to secure SHA and not and not staff and keeping
open
hand surveillance
351
baggage
Anti Allowing
Effective
Sterility of SHA is sabotage & pax & goods Only (a) &
screening of 4
maintained by access without (b)
pax
352 control search
As a
In routine
The search of a holding area Whenever
response to precaution to To keep
is conducted for the given a high level of 2
an airport detect SHA clean
reasons threat exists
bomb threat prohibited
353 items
At least At the Before

A sterile holding area 60 minutes time the passengers At the time
located at a boarding gate before the passengers are screened passengers
3
must be searched at the passengers start to and allowed start to enter
given times board the board the into the SH
aircraft aircraft holding area
354
There are ____ types of sterile
1 2 3 4 3
355 holding are
Pax can go
It is the part
there It’s another It is the secure
Which statement is true of the airport
directly by name for the area beyond 4
about the airports sterile area? where food is
way of the public area. the checkpoint.
prepared.
356 exit lane.
One of the action that will be Submerge Close all Place sand
taken on identification of package in windows and bags around Open package 3
357 suspicious object will be the water doors the package
It will be
It is
Which of the following is not immediately
treated as a It will not be It should not be
applicable for an unclaimed taken to the 3
potential touched opened
article local police
bomb
358 station
ensure
passengers throw the
Windows should kept in open reduce the allow BDDS to
can evacuate package out of
condition on the discovery of impact of enter through 1
through the window or
suspicious object, to explosion any window
windows as door.
359 well
Module 08
Which of the given is the False alarm

Power
sign of interference or given by Broken
failure at Malfunction of 3
attempted unauthorized security doors
airport CCTV
access equipment
360
Landside is an area where Non-

Restricted Strict Free 2
movements are_________. restricted
361
Guarding is basically a static
duty but patrolling is Moving Stable Standing Effective 1
362 a__________ .function.
The movement area of an

airport, adjacent terrain &
building or partitions thereof Landside Airside Apron Tarmac 2
to which access is controlled
is called _________.
363
Perimeter
an element of Physical DFMD HHMD Light House 3
Wall
364 Barrier.
Patrolling is done at _______ Perimeter
Aircraft Building X-ray 1
365 (Location). road
Guarding is done at _______
APM office X-ray Aircraft Hanger 3
366 location.
Surveillanc Anti- Anti
Objective of patrolling is Intelligence 1
367 e sabotage Hijacking
Guarding is basically a _____
Moving Static duty Check post Frisking. 2
368 function
369 Patrolling is basically a _____ f Moving Static duty Check post Frisking. 1
Patrolling is done _____ Round the

One During watch During Flight 1
(times in a day) clock
370 Hours operations
Aircraft Guarding is primary Airport Airline
ASG State Police 3
371 responsibility of Operator Operator
8 ft wall 8 ft wall
Height of Perimeter wall at with 1.5 ft with 1 ft “Y”
9 ft 8 ft 1
airport is “Y” Barbed Barbed wire
wire fencing fencing
372
Which electronic gadget is Radio Biometric Passive
CCTV Infrared 2
373 used for surveillance? Set Devices
Terminal building comes S
Airside Operational Both ( & (b) 4
374 under Landside
In night, aircraft should be Dark well-lit Without Under
2
375 parked in __________ area area guard camouflage
Security
Guarding and Patrolling Airline Airport
personal of Immigration 1
inside the airport is done by security operator
ASG staff
376
In an airport, Apron area is Fuel
Airside ATS 2
377 within Landside Storage
Patrolling can be by Watch Control
Foot From ATC 2
378 __________ tower room
What is the prescribed Focused
Focusing
position of the lights used at Focusing out at duty Very dim 1
down
379 perimeter points
Separate
Not to To not to
restricted Marking
Physical barriers are used to allow any allow any 1
and non- of building
person vehicle
restricted
380 areas
Only Only
How many types of Both a
Foot Vehicle Profiling 3
patrolling are there and b
381 patrolling patrolling
Module 09
Which one of the following Body

HHMD X-BIS DFMD 3
equipment is used to screen bags scanners
382
Screening of passenger is done
with the help of X-BIS EVD ETD DFMD 4
383
Which one is not the search
equipment used for Passenger HHMD MRTD DFMD WTMD 2
384 screening
The staff requirement at a
4 3 5 2 3
385 screening Point is
Person under
Everyone will be subjected to Women
Staff exempted Medical patient 3
screening except &Children
386 category
Subjected to
100%
screening by
means of x-
Subjected to
What security measures shall be Hand or rays and walk
Answers 1and search only when
applied to passengers and their physically through metal 3
cabin baggage? searched 2 equipment
detectors
alarms
supported by
hand-held
metal
387 detectors
The abbreviation HHMD stands Hand Held Hand Held Hand Held Hand Held Man
for? 2
Man Detector Metal Detector Metal Detection Detection
388
Back Electro-magnetic
Radio
HHMD works on the principle of Scattering Infra red Pulse field 4
transmission
389 Principle technology
Every day
when using it Every week on Only when
How often should HHMD be Before Frisking
checked or verified? in the a random problems are 3
Passenger
screening basis identified
390 point
Check that the battery is fully None of the
DFMD HHMD X-BIS 2
391 charged is applicable to above
Do not hold
Do not place Do not hold or
Do not use it as HHMD away
Select the wrong answer HHMD on wet swing it by the 4
a hammer from body, it
surface head
392 should touch the
Hold HHMD at the distance of
2.5 cms 3 cm 5 cm 1 inch 1
393 ____ from passenger
While checking passenger, Long &
Passenger is He is carrying Faulty
Continuous beep in HHMD No Metal is there 2
clear metal equipment
394 indicates
He has to
remove all He has to
He can carry all
Before checking passenger with metallic remove all He can carry
his personnel 2
HHMD objects metallic coins
items with him
except cell objects
395 phone
If the metal
If it comes in Detector placed
HHMD can detect metal items items is in a
direct contact 2.5 cm from pax Both 2 & 3 4
only specific range
with metal body
396 only
Safety Health Gives fair Gives pin point
Select the wrong one in case of Gives Audio
standards location of location of metal 3
HHMD & Video alarm
397 satisfied metal on person on person
Door Frame
The abbreviation DFMD stands Dual Fast Door Frame Door Frame
Multi 4
for? Metal Detector Metal Detection Metal Detector
398 Detector
Pacemakers , Pacemakers,
Metals,
DFMD is safe for ……….. And ………..? non-metallic Pregnant Weapons , Drugs 3
Facemakers
399 material Women’s
DFMD is used to detect metallic
30gms and 30gms and
items on person’s body which is 0.30gms 0.5gms 3
below above
400 of
Electro-
magnetic Electric Pulse Radio
DFMD works on the principle of Infra red 1
Pulse field technology transmission
401 technology
Ferrous and
Non metallic Metals of all
DFMD can detect Explosives Non ferrous 2
item range
402 items
The DFMD resets after a
30 Minutes 3 Minutes 3 Sec 30 Sec 3
403 maximum time of
DFMD has ______ overlapping
06 08 10 05 2
404 zones
Calibration of DFMD is done by
OTS CTP OTP OCC 3
405 _______
406 The size of OTP is 10X10 cm 20X20 cm 05X05 cm 10 X 10 mm 1
Every day
Every week on Only when
How often should equipment when staffing
a random Every month problems are 1
calibration be checked or verified? the screening
basis identified
point
407
Distance between 02 passengers

3 meters 3 feet 30cm 30 feet 2
passing through DFMD should be
408
Red light illuminates on the Alarming

Electronic unit of DFMD, indicates Weapon Explosive quantity of IED 3
passenger is carrying metal
409
LEDs give what kind of locations
Exact Fair Pin point Perfect 2
410 of metal on person
Pat down search is divided into Whole body Half body
Partial search Both 1and 2 3
411 how many parts search search
Performance of X-BIS is checked
CTP OTP EVD Sniffer dogs 1
412 by
Non detection of IED or replicas

of weapons made of non-metallic CCTV HHMD HHMD & DFMD X-BIS 3
material is the short coming of
413
Need not
Pre-
undergo the
embarkation
pre- Pre-
Passengers who are ambulance security check
embarkation embarkation Exempted from
cases, and are directly taken of passenger
checks if security check Pre-embarkation
through the security gates to the of passenger and vehicle 3
accompanied will be carried check on Medical
aircraft for boarding due to their search will be
by Doctor out at the grounds
exceptional condition/illness, etc. carried out at
and has valid security gate.
the security
medical
gate
certificate.
414
If mixing or contact between

All passengers
passengers subjected to security It must be Those
No further and cabin
control and other persons not reported to passengers must 2
action baggage must
subjected to such control takes ICAO be segregate
be re-screened
place, what action shall be taken?
415
Asking the Performing

passengers additional
security
to go back checks on
When performing screening on
through the passengers in
passengers and cabin baggage, it Isolate the Isolate the
screening addition to 2
is essential to make sure that all those passenger baggage
point until
alarms are cleared by: performed at
they do not the normal
generate an screening
alarm signal point
416
What must take place in the event
that a passenger is able to Re-screening Re-screening of
bypass the normal security Nothing of all all carry-on Both b and c 4
controls and become mixed with passengers items
other passengers?
417
In the
terminal On the top of
In case of inclement weather,
building just the step ladder
when the aircraft is parked at At entry of Inside the
before the step ladder just before 1
remote stand SLPC should be passenger coach
passenger passenger gets
carried out
get into the into the aircraft
bus
418
It is a group
check-in so it Check-in of
There is group check-in out of In group check-in
No extra can checked in weapon bag
which one passenger is carrying passenger will
precaution on any one should be on the 3
weapon in registered bag. What not carry
required passenger’s license holder’s
extra precaution you will take. weapon bag
name who is in name only
419 the group
As
At SLPC passenger denies to documentati
You will not You can inform
open bag and says it contains on proves
physically him it is a You will tell him
gold and currency. By him to be
check the bag procedure or to carry as 3
documentation it he proves to be goldsmith,
but only screen else he cannot registered bag
goldsmith. What action you will not required
it travel
take. to check the
bag
420
He is within his
Only allow limits , but he Allow him to
If the passenger is not ready to him to pass Do not check
through can’t be allowed board the 3
get frisked then him
DFMD to board the aircraft
421 aircraft
If during physical inspection of Inform Unscrew the

Hold Baggage, a passenger is Take no passenger that container and
Notify supervisor 3
found to be carrying an unsealed action he cannot smell the
bottle of gin. You will: carry the bottle. contents.
422
Not more than ____ LEDs should
glow when no one is passing 3-4 01-02 2-3 3-5 2
423 through DFMD
Module 10
X-ray
X-ray Bag X-ray Baggage X-ray Baggage
Baggage
XBIS stands for Image Identification Inspection 4
Initiating
Software Solution System
424 System
Stand-alone XBIS commonly

Gas
used at airports for screening of Ion Mobility Multi-Energy Backscatter
Chromatograp 3
hand baggage works on the Spectrometry technology technology
hy
principle of:
425
In how many maximum stages/
levels the baggage is screened in 5 stages 3 stages 2 stages 4 stages 1
426 inline baggage
Load officer of the X-BIS is also
Senior Profiler Pilot Loader 2
427 known as
As per approved technical
specifications, the approx weight 30 Kgs 25 Kgs 40 kgs 50 kgs 3
428 of ETD should be
Gas
Ion mobility Ion stability Ionization of
ETD works on which principle? Chromatograph 1
spectrometry spectrometry particles
y
429
Gas
Ion mobility Gas
EVD works on which principle? chromatogra Vapourization 1
spectrometry spectrometry
430 phy
How much time should the EVD

take for analysis of a sample, as 3 sec 2 sec 2.5 sec 10 sec 3
per approved specification?
431
Simulation chamber operates on

the principle of activating the Physical Gaseous Liquid
Chemicals 1
explosive device in the suspect conditions conditions conditions
object by simulating the
432
In how many colors does the X-
One Two Four Three 4
433 BIS project images?
434 How many test are in CTP 4 6 8 9 2
Which one Is not a test to check Single Wire Thick Metal Simple
Multi energy 3
435 the efficiency of X-BIS Resolution Imaging penetration
In Single wire resolution test
which SWG wire should be seen 24 SWG 26 SWG 40 SWG 42 SWG 3
436 on Perspex sheet?
The un insulated Copper wire are

Perplex Plastic Perspex Preflux 3
placed in S shape on which Sheet
437
What material is used to make the

Iron Steel Lead Aluminum 4
Step wedge in second test
438
Multi energy test discriminates Atomic Molecular Serial number in

Atomic Number 3
the material as per their Weight Weight clerks table
439
Strip of which metal is used in
Tin Copper Lead Steel 4
440 Simple penetration test
Lead should be visible beneath
26 SWG 24mm 26mm 42 SWG 2
441 which steel block
In spatial resolution test the

horizontal and vertical gratings is Nickel Brass Copper Aluminum 3
made on Plate made up of
442
In thin metal imaging test which

0.1 0.05 0.01 1 1
mm strip should be seen
443
How many minimum screening

staff are required for each X-BIS 4 3 6 2 1
for screening of baggage
444
To control To control To detect
What is the main aim of the To detect
movement of movement of weapon, 4
screening drugs
445 people vehicle explosive or
Name the test of CTP in which a
Spatial Simple Single wire Thin metal
lead strip is placed beneath 2
resolution penetration resolution imaging
446 26mm steel
Dangerous
Dangerous goods register at X- Manufactures
goods Date of expiry czkM dk uke 1
BIS will contain details of name
447 detected
Activate X- BIS
Ensure X-BIS
Measure as it will not
Pre-operation check of X-BIS is works as per
Radiation work without Both 1 & 2 3
carried out to BCAS
level pre-operation
specification
448 check
Lower the SWG number, how is
Thicker Denser Wider Thinner 1
449 the wire
Feedback of detected TIP object
Red Green Yellow Blue 2
appears in which colour
450
Feedback of TIP object not

Red Green Yellow Blue 1
detected appears in which colour
451
Module 11
Airports are protected by Layers of Covers of Circles of Areas of

1
providing one of the following tection protection rotection protection
452
Which facilities or locations will be

Perimeter ATC SHA Aircraft 1
protected by first line of defence?
453
Windows of
Which facilities or locations will be Departure Cargo
terminal Apron 1
protected by first line of defence? entry gate warehouse
454 Building
Exterior of
Which facilities or locations will be
building
protected by second line of ATC Aircraft Arrival gate 1
towards
defence?
455 airside
Exterior of
Which facilities or locations will be building Security Hold
ATC Boarding gate 2
protected by third line of defence? towards Area
456 airside
Who is responsible for protection Airport

Police Airline Security ASG/APSU 4
of the first line of defence? Operator
457
ASG/APSU/
Who is responsible for protecting Agency working
Airport BDDS Airline Security 1
an vulnerable point in an airport in airport
458 Operator
Maximum protection required Outer line of Inner line of Middle line of Key line of
2
under which line of defence defence defence defence defence
459
Who is responsible for protecting
Handling Pilot in
an diverted aircraft where the ASG/APSU Police 4
Agency command
airlines doesn’t has its set up
460
Who is primarily responsible to Airport

ASG Airline operator BCAS 3
protect an aircraft? operator
461
To look for left To look for

The Primary aim to search an To look for To look for
behind items prohibited 3
aircraft is drugs currency
by Passenger articles
462
Who will Search the interior of the Handling
Engineering Airline Security Cleaners 3
463 aircraft Agency
Searching the Galley & toilets will
Cleaners Catering staff Technician Airline Security 4
464 be carried out by
Checking the Cargo hold is the
Cargo staff Loaders Airline Security Technician 3
465 responsibility of
Checking Engine cowl, Wheel well

and other exterior of the aircraft Captain Engineers In-flight Airline Security 2
is carried by
466
If searched If searched by If searched by a
Search of aircraft will be effective Both 1 & 2 4
467 by ASG QRT well trained staff
To conduct an effective search of Know the Know to

Be familiar Both 1 & 3 1
the aircraft the searcher should mechanism operate
468
For an effective search the Contingency Anti-hijacking

Search Plan Emergency Plan 2
searcher should have a Plan plan
469
To carry out the aircraft search in
Aircraft Engineering
a systematic way the searcher Crew checklist Transit checklist 1
checklist checklist
470 should carry a
Which tool is required to carry out Mirror, mirror Night vision
HHMD EVD 1
the search in an efficient manner? extension lamps
471
What will be the course of action Open and look
Deposit it to Lift and Screen
when you notice an unattended Don't touch inside for 2
APM it
472 baggage? dangerous
Starter sockets, refueling wells

Anti hijacking Anti Sabotage Anti terrorist
and battery access hatches of an Anti theft
checks of checks of checks of 2
aircraft shall be opened and measures
aircraft aircraft aircraft
searched as a part of
473
Controlled
Safe and
For security purposes, all aircraft and well Patrolled and Safe and Vital
Controlled 1
should be parked in illuminated Guarded areas areas
areas
474 areas
Not
necessary, as
crew
members are
The aircraft operator should have True, as it Searches
obliged to As and when
a search checklist placed on facilitates depend on 2
memorize the required
board an aircraft. searches threat
areas to be
searched
during
training.
475
Engineering,
Aircraft security release Engineering, BCAS,
DGCA, Engineering,
certificate’ is signed by which five Commercial, Commercial,
Catering, Commercial,
departments related to Aviation DGCA, Ground Catering, 4
Ground Catering, Ground
before it is handed over to the Support, Ground Support,
Support, Support, Security
commander? Security Security
476 Security
Interiors of
an aircraft to
Aircraft security check may be Hold of an (1) is true but (2)
which pax both (1) & (2) 4
defined as an inspection of aircraft is false
may have
had access
477
Module 12
Which one is not a method of Physical Explosive Simulation

X-ray 4
Screening a passenger’s bag Check detectors chamber
478
The bag The passenger

Physical inspection of baggage The bag has Higher level of
has valuables misbehaves with 3
is required when currency in it threat exist
in it you
479
Contents
There is no Give some To show that
Physically check of few bag has cannot be
crowd near X- work to Physical you do some 2
to be carried out as determined by
ray BIS searcher work at X-ray BIS
480 X-ray
Which is not a category of
Clear Doubtful Unsafe Oversize 4
481 bags
Start at Start from Check Start from top

This is a recommended
bottom and center and portions of the and work
technique for physical search of 4
work toward work towards bag in a random towards the
bag
the top the edges way bottom
482
One of the security measures Don’t hand Affix security Don’t leave Deploy a staff
ensured for registered bag after over the bag sticker / the bag to secure the bag 2
screening is to pax strapping unattended always
483
Notify
Action on detecting prohibited Escort the
Alarm the Restrain the supervisor by
item during physical inspection of pax upto 4
pax pax pre-arranged
a baggage aircraft
484 signal
Tell the pax
Action on detecting dangerous Don’t allow the
Notify Clear the he can’t carry it
article during physical inspection pax to board the 3
Police bag with him as per
of a baggage aircraft
485 DGR
The size of hand baggage 50 x 25 x 50 x 35 x 15 50 x 30 x 20 45 x 35 x 20

3
allowed in Jammu and Kashmir is 25 cms cms cms cms
486
The size of hand baggage
55 x 25 x 50 x 40 x 25 55 x 35 x 20 55 x 35 x 25
allowed other than Jammu and 4
35 cms cms cms cms
487 Kashmir is
Scale Questioning
X-raying the
To find out false bottom of method or the pax about
empty EVD / ETD 1
baggage, the method used are weighing any such
baggage
488 method possibilities
The checks should be made on

not not spilling
all supplies of LAGs and STEBs to Protected to prohibit it 1
damaged out
establish they are
489
Security tamper-evident bags

Airport on board Check-in
are the bags which should only be Both 1 and 2 3
outlets aircraft. counters
used for the sale of LAGs by
490
SPG personnel can carry one

Pistol with ____cartridges and one
60 & 150 70 & 100 50 & 100 100 & 150 1
Sub Machine Gun /Assault Rifle
with ____cartridges
491
100% physical baggage For British On Threat

Normal time Always 2
checking is required? Airlines flight call
492
What will be the course of Open and look
Deposit it Lift and
action when you notice an Don’t touch inside for 2
to APM search it
493 unattended baggage? dangerous
Tallying no.
of baggage
checked in
and accepted Counting of
Counting of Counting of
for loading in Hand Baggage
Baggage Reconciliation is Registered Pax at boarding 1
the Aircraft loaded in the
baggage gate
with the Pax Cabin of Aircraft
reported for
boarding the
Aircraft
494
The bag containing any
component of I.E.D is categorized Threat bag Clear bag Doubtful Mishandled bag 1
495 into
Essential equipment for
conducting physical searches of Torch Mirror 15 cm rule. Search table 4
496 baggage is
Which item can be carried in

Pistol Revolver Assault Rifle Starter Pistol 4
check in luggage without licence
497
The relevant document to be

checked at the time of accepting Travel
Duty Slip Gate Pass Driving Licence 1
a weapon in X-BIS from a Document
bonafide Staff on duty is
498
Who can carry weapon and Dignitaries
Chief of
ammunition on person inside the of high risk 1&2 Sky Marshal 4
Army
aircraft categories
499
People in
Dignitaries of
Who Can carry weapon in Exempted PSO of Prime
SPG high risk 3
Cabin baggage category list Minister
categories
500 for PEC
Who can carry a weapon in PSO of
PSO of Chief Air chief
fully loaded condition on board of Prime Sky Marshal 4
Minister Marshal
501 an aircraft Minister
Any Gazetted
While carrying a service
rank officer of
weapon Movement order / Duty Army staff PSO of VIP SPG 3
Police dept and
slip is not required for
502 army.
Whose permission is required

to carry more number of weapon Police CISF BCAS DGCA 4
& ammunitions by sports person.
503
There is no
Which Is a recommended The item sign of Unit securing
The behaviour
procedure to check electronic operates tampering or screw show 3
of pax is normal
items satisfactorily modification of sign of damage
504 case
Inspection by holding and
Packed Aerosol Electronic
determining weight of the Medicine 2
food containers goods
505 contents applicable for
The relevant document to be
checked at the time of accepting Passport Weapon Travel
Driving Licence 2
a weapon in X-BIS from a Copy Licence Document
506 bonafide pax is
To check the
How many
Checking the Film number numbers are The camera
Photos have Both 1 & 2 4
indicator is to see displayed contains film roll
been taken
correctly
507
In BMA baggage reconciliation Load & BMA Grid Baggage Passenger

4
is done with the help of Trim Sheet Sheet Tally List Name List
508
Which of the item shall be paid
special attention while Aerosol
Jewellery Cash Food items 1
conducting physical checks of containers
509 baggage
Module 13
Immediately
Immediately
disembark all
disembark all
passengers Immediately
Which of the following action is passengers
who have disembark all
implemented immediately after a who have Do not take
boarded along passengers who
bomb threat call is received for an boarded any action till
with their hand have boarded 2
aircraft where boarding has along with BTAC decision is
baggage and but leave hand
completed but BTAC decision is their hand communicated
keep aircraft bags in the
awaited baggage and
ready to be aircraft itself
shift aircraft
shifted to
to isolated
isolated bay
bay
511
Help to get
The recipient of bomb threat Be useful in Help in
an idea of Help in tracing
call should try to prolong the call recognising the Locating the 3
age of the the call
because it will caller Bomb
512 caller
Most bomb Most of the Most of the Bomb threats
Which of the following is true in threats are bomb threats bomb threats should not be
3
case of a bomb threat preceded by are declared as are hoax in taken too
warnings specific threats nature seriously
513
All
This passengers
A passenger who reports for
passenger travelling on
check in after bomb threat call He could have This passenger
could have that flight have
has been received for the flight on checked in the could be a VIP as
been to be handed 1
which he is travelling, is bag containing he has reported
responsible over to APSU/
immediately referred to the the bomb at the last minute
for making ASG, hence he
APSU/ASG because
the threat call should also be
referred
514
Immediately You will be As airport

rush to extra alert and targeted, you will
You are allocated at remote bay
terminal vigilant at the call security in
guarding grounded aircraft and
Immediately building to see aircraft and charge to send
you received news that bomb 3
run out of the damage conduct CISF to man the
exploded in terminal building,
airport and check if periodical aircraft and to
what action you will take.
your help is checks of relieve you at the
required aircraft earliest
515
In case of a non specific bomb
Bomb Airline security/
call search of aircraft will be ASG/APSU DOG Squad 3
Technician Engineering
516 conducted by
Station Air
Airport In charge of
Who is the coordinator of BTAC Manager of Worthiness 3
Director BDDS
517 airline Officer
List out the AGENCY whose
representative is involved to
DGCA ASG/APSU Airline BDDS 2
cordon off an aircraft in case of a
specific call
518
A warning where the threat

permits identification of a specific Non-
Specific
target, or where the caller has specific Hoax call Bomb Alert 2
threat
positively identified himself or the threat
organization involved is
519
How much
time is Whether the
‘What time is the bomb set to
What type available in bomb was Who must have
explode’ is the question asked to 2
of device is it hand before placed in the placed the bomb
the caller of bomb threat to know
the bomb day or at night
520 explodes
A warning that can be related

to one or more targets but where
Non specific
there is doubt about its credibility Specific call Hoax call Enquiry Call 2
call
or about the effectiveness of
existing countermeasures
521
Which one of the following is Emergency

APD Commandant BDDS 3
NOT the member of BTAC service people
522 of ASG
Diplomatic
representativ Commandant DGCA APD 1
NOT the member of BTAC
e of ASG
523
Inform
Which one of the following Aircraft to Passengers to
passenger to Do not offload
action will be taken in case of be taken to deplane without 1
remain seated catering
specific bomb threat call isolated bay hand baggage
524 in the aircraft
All registered
All Registered
baggage will
registered bags will be
Which one of the following be offloaded Registered
baggage will offloaded and
action will be taken in case of and taken to bags will not be 4
be offloaded kept 100mtr
specific bomb threat terminal offloaded
and taken to away from
building for
BMA aircraft
525 rescreening
In case of specific threat

agencies carrying out search will
sign a completion certificate and CASO COSCA ATC BDDS 3
forward it to which agency to get
clearance for aircraft to take off
526
Aircraft to
Aircraft to Aircraft to be
remain at its Aircraft to be
In case of non specific call be taken to taken to 2
normal parking checked by BDDS
isolated bay taxiways
527 bay
Aircraft to be Aircraft to be
Aircraft to Aircraft to be
checked by checked by CISF
In case of non specific call be checked checked by 3
airlines security, and airline
by BDDS dog squad
528 airlines engineer security
Which one of the following you Submerge Close all Place sand
will follow on the identification of package in windows and bags around the Open package 3
suspicious object the water doors package
529
Coordinator
Passengers Coordinator Coordinator
In case of specific threat to to make
will remain in will ensure to will ensure to
terminal building which one of the announceme 2
terminal switch off air open emergency
following is not correct nt on PA
building conditioner door
system to
530 evacuate
Evacuation of
All passengers
In case of non specific threat to Evacuation Evacuation only passenger is
except ones in
terminal building which of the of building is of building is required, staff 1
SHA should be
following is true not required required will not leave
evacuated
531 office
Pre-
Which of the following is a Perimeter
embarkation Installation of
counter measure to reduce bomb wall around QRT’s 3
security caller ID
threats at airport the airport
532 check
All
passengers
and their
Which of the following is true hand No additional Only hand Only registered
for a Non specific threat call baggage checks will be bags of bags of
1
where all passengers have have to carried out on passengers will passengers will
boarded the aircraft. undergo passengers be re-checked be re-checked
security
checks again
at SHA
533
Installing
Which of the following is a Introduction Up gradation Patrolling
watch towers
counter measures to tackle bomb of Sky of EDS and around the 2
around the
threat incidents at airport marshals on EDDS perimeter
perimeter
534 the aircraft
In case of a specific bomb call
Watch
which agencies one of the Bomb Security
Representative Supervisory 4
following will not be involved in squad Officer of airline
from CISF Officer
535 search of aircraft
in getting an
The recipient of bomb threat in
To get an In idea of the
call should try and hear understanding
idea of age of recognising the location from 3
background sounds because it the motive of the
the caller caller where call was
will help caller
536 made
Floor to Ceiling to
Search area should be divided Waist to floor, Floor to waist,
head, head to waist, waist to
into which three levels while floor to head, waist to head, 4
waist, waist head, head to
searching for a suspect device head to ceiling head to ceiling
to ceiling floor
537
A safe It should be
Which of the following is NOT It is treated
It will not be distance should opened to check
the correct way to handle an as a potential 4
touched be maintained if owner can be
unclaimed article bomb
538 from it traced
Recipient of
Appendix “A” of BWAF is filled By ASG By airline
the bomb Bomb squad 1
by personnel Personnel
threat call
539
Give wide
Pre-
Which of the following is a Perimeter publicity in local
embarkation
counter measure to reduce bomb wall around newspaper if QRT’s 3
security
threat at the airport the airport caller is
check
540 identified
Which is not a medical Collapsed Injured in Delivery of Sabotage to
2
541 emergency in aviation? person Tsunami new born terminal building
Sabotage to Fire in
The emergency, which is not
New born terminal Terminal Sudden death 3
related to aircraft?
542 building Building
To assess
To maintain
specific and To assess
Why is the BWAF required? perfect data Formality 1
non specific the Caller
about the caller
543 calls
Which is not a medical Sudden Collapsed
New Born Illness 4
544 emergency ? death person
Asking
While receiving a bomb threat intimating to Intimating to intimating to
informative 1
call what will be the first action? supervisor APD CASO
545 questions
To Check
To show
the
more people in To keep force
Mock exercises are done? preparedness It's a duty 1
uniform at personnel busy
for
airport
546 contingency
Which committee is coordinated
BTAC CCS COSAH DGCA 1
547 by the APD
Which one is not an immediate Filling
Notify Intimating to
action when you receive a Bomb Questioning appendix “A” of 3
supervisor APD
548 Threat Call BWAF
Who circulates the draft Bomb
Threat Contingency Plan on the
basis of which each airport AAI ASG BCAS BDDS 3
prepares its own Contingency
549 Plan
Emergency Emergency Emergency

Delivery of a new born in an Medical
involving not involving involving 3
aircraft is an emergency
aircraft aircraft terminal building
550
Which is the highest body in India

CCS CC CMC AC 1
to deal with hijacking situation
551
The receiver of the Bomb threat
BTAC BTCF BWAF Initial Report 2
call should fill which form
552
Who is not included in BTAC at Representative
CASO APD WSO 4
553 a domestic airport of Immigration
The alert status put on place at Non Specific
High alert Red alert Bomb alert 1
554 the time of crisis alert
The aircraft
Hijackers should
should be
Which procedure to be followed Fuelling should be provided all QRT action to be
immobilizes/
when an hijacked aircraft lands at be provided & the facilities as started 1
runway
an Indian airport allowed to fly per their immediately
should be
demand
555 blocked
During the bomb threat declared
to the flight, very first to Captain Cabin crew Passengers Engineer 3
556 Disembark should be
What is the response time of fire

Can take their
fighting services in case of any 2-3 minutes 10 minutes 15 Minutes 1
own time
fire emergency of the aircraft
557
For an aircraft approaching the

airport which is in danger of an
Full Aircraft
accident or is suspected to be in Local standby VVIP Standby 1
emergency accident
such danger, the drill at the
airport would be of
558
In case of specific threat agencies

carrying out search will sign a
completion certificate and
CASO COSCA ATC BDDS 3
forward it to which agency for
getting aircraft clearance to take
off
559
Bomb Threat
Bomb Threat Bomb Threat Bomb Threat
BTCL stands for Contingency 1
Check List Control List coordinator List
560 List
Positive Target Identification Natural Aircraft Medical

Bomb Threat 1
come in context with Calamities accident Emergency
561
Module 14
The persons who need not be Person in Authorized
VIP Passengers 4
562 escorted is custody visitor
Sky Marshals can carry arms

and ammunition in the Aircraft,
COSCA DG/CISF DG/NSG DGCA 1
concealed on their person, only by
authorization of
563
Guarding of deportee /
Airport
inadmissible pax in refusal room ASG Airlines Local police 1
operator
564 is the responsibility of
Permission for the carriage of
BCAS DGCA AAI BDDS 1
565 prisoner given by
Along with After all the Before all the

Prisoner while boarding the Before the crew
the other pax have pax have 3
aircraft has to board the aircraft have boarded
passengers boarded boarded
566
No of dangerous prisoner allowed

3 2 1 4 3
on board the aircraft
567
Minimum no of escorts require

4 2 3 1 2
for dangerous prisoner
568
A bonafide passenger is
In
carrying a weapon what would In weapon In hand
registered In the cockpit 3
be the procedure for carriage of compartment baggage
baggage
569 weapon in ATR
Sky marshals are from which
BCAS ASG/APSU NSG Airline 3
570 organization
Sky marshals travel as per Airline
DGCA BCAS NSG 2
571 schedule given by operator
Which colour AEP sky marshal
Orange C Orange Purple Navy Blue 2
572 carry
Who can carry weapon and Bonafide
PSO’s of PSO’s of Any person on
ammunition on person or in hand passenger 1
VVIP’s VIP’s bonafide duty
573 baggage holding valid
Who can carry weapon and SPG’s when Bonafide
PSO’s of
ammunition in registered Sky marshal accompanying passenger 4
VVIP
574 baggage SPG Protectee holding valid
Maximum no of weapon and 1 weapon 2 weapon 2 weapon

1 weapon and
ammunition can be carried by and 25 and 50 and 25 3
50 ammunition
passenger ammunition ammunition ammunition
575
Registered/
Passenger’s with a valid weapon Hand Not at all
checked On person 2
license can carry weapon in their baggage allowed to carry
baggage
576
In case of carriage of more

number of weapons by sports BCAS DGCA COSCA APM 2
person permission is given by
577
Deportees
are persons
They are
who have They are The one who
Who is the deportee unruly 1
been ordered terrorist carry drugs.
passengers.
to leave the
state.
578
Weapon
For carriage of weapon sky Movement Letter from
authorization License 1
marshal are issued with order DGCA
579 card
Prisoner
Permission Prisoner Give plastic
Which of the following is incorrect should not be
to be should not be cutlery to
measure applied for carriage of under 4
obtained handcuffed prisoner and
prisoner? surveillance
from BCAS while in aircraft escort
580 when using
Law
Enforcement
Primary responsibility for Airline
Agency of the ASG DGCA 1
escorting a deportee is with the Security
deporting
country
581
Pilots shall The weapon

Pilots shall The carriage of
be notified of may be stowed
Which is not a normal measure to be notified as weapons is
the number in an area
be taken with regard to special to the seat allowed only for 3
of armed accessible to
categories of passengers? locations of authorized
persons on everybody
armed persons officers
board during the flight
582
Adequate
While escorting prisoners, escorts , Adequate sets weapon on
restraining Money 1
should be equipped with of dress person
583 devices
SPG’s when Bonafide
Who can carry loaded gun in PSO’s of
Sky marshal accompanying passenger 2
flight VVIP
584 SPG Protectee holding valid
Is deemed to
Is not a threat Should be seated
Which one is true for, persons be threat to Should not be
to the safety of on emergency 1
suffering from mental illness the safety of accompanied
a flight exit
a flight
585
A passenger who creates or has
the potential to creates or has the
potential to create disturbance
either on board the aircraft or on
ground and in the process could Unruly
Sky marshals AME SPG 3
endanger the safety of the passenger
aircraft ,fellow passengers, crew
members, airline staff or property
thereby hampering the operation
is known as a
586
The number of passenger
2 4 6 8 2
587 disturbance threat level are
How many days in advance.the

policing authority requiring
transportation of a prisoner by air 30 days 15 days 07 days 02 days 3
shall send their request in written
to BCAS
588
A person who had legally been

admitted to a state by its
authorities or who had entered a
Inadmissible Diplomatic
state illegally, and who at some Deportees Unruly person 1
person person
later time is formally ordered by
the competent authorities to
leave the state is known as
589
That they are
To check how
not carrying To check the
The purpose of frisking a much money
any quality of cloths To create panic 1
passenger is to ensure they are
prohibited the are wearing
carrying
590 objects
Extended angle Not at all
Passengers shall be screened by . DFMD Flash light 1
591 mirror screened
Module 15
Access control
Which one of the following is the Sealing of Preparation of
of catering Checking trays 2
responsibility of caterer? carts dispatch slip
592 premises
Access Security of
Which one of the following is the Supervise the
control of chilling room Delivery of
duty of airlines in catering pre-setting of the 4
catering and raw material
security catering uplift
593 premises refrigerators
How do you check catering X-ray BIS,
X-ray BIS andCooling off and
supplies like newspaper and toilet HHMD and ETK 3
Hand Search EDS
594 cleaning items? Manual Search.
Module 16
The concerned
Diplomatic In case of
Prior diplomat will
Security procedure of bag will not be doubt protocol
permission report in airport 1
Diplomatic bags doesn’t include opened in any division of MEA
from BCAS security control
circumstances to be contacted
595 room
Provides
security Conducts
control for business with To ensure they
Ticketing of
Regulated Agent has not been Cargo which is the aircraft have trained
the 1
involved in the function of accepted and operator for staff as per
passengers
required by freight NCASTP
appropriate forwarding
596 authority
Which one is the method of Pat down Simulation Screening not
Frisking 3
597 screening cargo search chamber required
How many days / hour prior On One day

5hrs prior 2hrs prior 10hrs prior 3
board courier will be accepted prior
598
Which shipment is exempted
Documents Food items AVI Flower 3
from x-ray screening
599
Whichdocument is required in Letter from Approval Embalming Approval from

3
case of acceptance of HUM embassy from BCAS certificate DGCA
600
In case of acceptance of AVI Veterinary

Police BCAS Airport director 2
letter from whom is required doctor
601
Can be Subjected to
Accompanied diplomatic mail bag Not to be
Screened physically stimulation 2
can screened
602 searched chamber
Module 17
Quick
Which is not the characteristic
decision Intelligent Rigid Endurance 3
of profiler?
603 maker
Who is not exempted from pre- Prime Dy. Prime Judges of High
President 3
embarkation check? minister minister Court
604
On the grounds of protocol the Former

Chief Justice
who is allowed in their own President President of Chief Ministers 1
of India
vehicles with an escort India
605
On the grounds of protocol the Former Lt Governors

Visiting Visiting Heads
following is allowed in their own President of of Union 1
Heads of State of Govt.
vehicles without an escort India Territories
606
On the grounds of protocol the Former

Prime
following is allowed in their own Prime President Governors 1
Minister
vehicles without an escort Minister
607
Who is allowed in their own
vehicles without escort up to Prime Vice Visiting Heads
Governors 3
tarmac area within their states/ Minister President of states
union territories.
608
Who is not exempted from pre- Prime Dy. Prime Judges of High
President 3
embarkation check? minister minister Court
609
Minute
Which is not one of the Feeling of Posing as a observation of Following
4
suspicious signs in a person? fear VIP security procedures
610 personnel
Who among the following has All union
Vice president All members
access up to aircraft in their own COS(CA) Minister of 2
of India of Parliament
611 vehicle Cabinet rank.
Grenade is categorized as_______
a) Explosive c) Dangerous Art d) Dangerous Goods
MODEL TEST PAPER - 2
1 Grenade is categorized as_______

a) Explosive c) Dangerous Art d) Dangerous Goods
2 In what color is explosive seen in X-BIS?

a) Green c) Orange d) Opaque
3 Profiling can be done on ______ things

a) One c) Six
4 Security staff on duty may cross a runway:

a) At any time when answering an emergency call, taking reasonable care.
b) Only when the runway is clear.
c) Only after clearance from ground control or the Air Traffic Control Tower.
d) All the above
5 100% physical baggage checking is required?
a) For British Airlines flight b) on Threat c ) Normal time d) Always
6 Minimum quantity of metal that a DFMD should detect?

a) 35 gms b) 30 gms c) 25 gms d) 20 gms
7 Baggage Reconciliation is the responsibility of _________?

a) APSU b) APD c) CASO d) Airlines
8 Security of Cargo is related to?

a) Regulated agent b) Airlines & A
c) APSU d) both a & b
9 In how many colors does the X-BIS project images?

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
10 Pre-embarkation Check (PEC) is a __________
a) Recommended practice b) Standard Practice c) a & b d) None of these
11 What you should not do, when you find a suspicious person?
a) Keep under observation b) Inform the supervisor
c) Alarming the passenger d) Documents profiling
12 There are ________ Components of ASG?

a) One b) Three c) Four d) Seven
13 Airport staff members who need to pass the screening point for performance of
Their duties:
a) Need not submit to a physical search.
b) Need not pass through the walkthrough metal detector.
c) Have to submit to the same procedure as passengers.
d) Can be permitted without search by the CASO.
14 Which is not one of the suspicious signs in a person?
a) Feeling of fear
b) Posing as a VIP
c) Minute observation of security personnel
d) Following procedures
15 Airport has how many rings of protection?

a) One b) Three c) Four d) Seven
16 Which electronic gadget is used for surveillance?

a) Radio Set b) CCTV c) Biometric Dd) Passive Infrared Sensors
17 The persons who need not be escorted _________

a) VIP b) Person in cuc) Authorized vid) Passengers
18 X-RAY moves at the speed of ________

a) Electricity b) light c) Rocket d) Wind
19 AEP is issued by __________

a) BCAS b) AAI c) APSU d) None of these
20 SLPC is __________ practice?

a) Recommended b) Standard c) a & b d) None of these
21 In a boarding gate plan

a) There are separate queue for airlines
b) All are having the same area
c) Main entrance screening is done
d) Screening starts at boarding gate
22 Apron guarding is the duty of _________

a) ASG/APSU b) AIRLINE c) BCAS d) AAI
23In X-BIS all organic material will be seen in____________
a) Green & Blue b) Orange c) Purple d) all
24 Guarding is done for ____________
a) Psychological deterrence b) to protect the vulnerable points
c) Physical deterrence d) all the above
25 In night, aircraft should be parked in __________

a) Dark area b) well-lit area
c) Without guard d) under camouflage
26 Safety fuse comes under which category?

a) Weapon b) Dangerous substances c) Dangerous articles d) Explosives
27 Screener should not monitor the screen at a stretch for more than
a) 18min b) 30 min. c) 20 min. d) 40 min.
28 Which one is not the aim of terrorists?

a) Publicity b) Discredit the government
c) Broaden their base d) to pose as a VIP at airports
29 Deployment of CISF at airports was a result of __________

a) IC-814 hijack b) Kaniska inc) Lockerbee incident d) none of these
30 Security of Parked Aircraft is done by.

a) CISF b) AIRLINES c) BCAS d) AAI
31 Deployment of Sky marshals is a result of ____________

a) IC-814 hijack b) Kaniska incident c) First hijack d) none of these
32 What is through put rate of registered baggage?

a) 300 bags / hr b) 400 bags /c) 350 bags / hd) 450 bags / hr
33 Chamber which creates similar pressure and real flight situation?

a) Personnel chamber b) Sterile chamber c) Simulation chamber d) a & b
34 Chisels come under which category?

a) Weapon b) Dangerousc) Dangerous ad) Explosives
35 What was the main outcome of Chicago Convention?

a) Formation of ICAO b) Formation of IATA
c) Formation of IAEA d) a & b
36 Which is not a suspicious sign in a passenger?

a) Nervous behavior b) luring others
c) First & last passenger d) Reporting in time
37 There are …………… test in CTP
a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 9
38 TIP stands for

a) Threat Image Projection b) Threat Item Projection
c) Threat Item Protection d) Three Image Projection
39 What is included in the outer ring of protection?

a) Perimeter b) Windows oc) Apron d) None of these
40 In the concourse plan the screening starts at

a) Main entrance to the Concourse b) at boarding gate
c) Main entrance to the airport d) entrance to the SHA
41 In the holding area plan.

a) There is a separate area calleb) screening is not required
c) Screening is done at main end) Screening is done at boarding gate
42 Which is the way to conceal a prohibited item?

a) Disguise b) Dismantle c) Camouflage d) All the above
43 Power given to Appropriate Authority to issue directions
a) Action 5A of Aircraft Act 193b) Section 5A of Aircraft Act 1934
c) Section 5 of Aircraft Rule 193d) Rule 5 of Aircraft Rule 1939
44 Vehicle should be searched for

a) Narcotics b) Contraband items c) Prohibited ited) All above
45 Which is not a medical emergency in aviation?

a) Collapsed person b) Injured in Tsunami
c) Delivery of new born d) Communicable disease
46 Which is not used in security?

a) HHMD b) RT SET c) CCTV d) Laptop
47 The main aim to search the SHA is ___________?

a) To make the area sterile b) Look for left out baggage
c) To find narcotics d) to check cleanliness
48Explain BIPPS
a) Barometric integrated passenger permit system
b) Biometric integrated passenger profiling system
c) Bomb intelligence pick & parcel squad
d) Biometric integrated passenger pass system
49 What is Ambulift?
a) A vehicle/machine to lift Pax with reduced mobility into aircraft
b) Machine used to wrap machine
c) Lift for 100 people
d) None of these
50 Ramamithran committee was formed in

a) 1979 b) 1980 c) 1981 d) 1982
51 IGI Airport falls under which category?
a) Sensitive b) Normal c) Hypersensitivd) Red alert airport
52 Which is not the duty of Airlines Security?

a) Hand baggage screening b) Registered baggage screening
c) Surveillance in BMA d) Reconciliation of baggage
53 Access point should contain?

a) RT set & communication faci b) Radio for entertainment
c) Magazine to read & relax d) News papers for latest news
54 Distance to be maintained from person to person through DFMD?
a) 90 cms b) 100 cms c) 102 cms d) 105 cms
55 Which is not a benefit of TIP?

a) Motivation b) Immediate feedback
56 The emergency, which is not related to aircraft?

a) New born b) Sabotage c) Fire in Terminal Building d) None of these
57 Why is the BWAF required?

a) To assess specific and non sb) To assess the Caller
c) To maintain perfect data abod) Formality
58 What will be the course of action when X-BIS does not pass one of CTP tests?
a) Stop the machine b) Avoid it &work
c) Stop the machine & notify sud) none of these
59 Explosives are of _______ types?

60 Which is not a duty of BCAS?

a) Planning b) Monitoring c) Guiding d) Training
61 Srinagar Airport falls under which category?
a) Sensitive b) Normal c) Hypersensitivd) Supersensitive
62If a pistol is detected during screening of hand baggage

a) Take action as per local SOP b) Inform BDDS
c) Inform BCAS d) Inform Police
63 Protection of employees & airport is the responsibility of?

a) ASG/APSU b) NSG c) SPG d) Local Police
64 Which is not a medical emergency?
a) Sudden death b) Collapsed person c) New Born d) Illness
65 Anti-Hijacking mock drill is done by………………..?

a) QRT b) ASG c) NSG d) All the above
66 The duty of QRT is?

a) To prevent take off of hijacked flight b) To cordon hijacked aircraft
c) Quick response at the times of crisis d) All the above
67 Airport entry permit does not contain?

a) Photo b) Name of Pass holder
c) Area of Validity d) Permanent address
68 What do you mean by APSU?

a) Airport Security Unit b) Airport Sterile Unit
c) Airport Security Union d) Airport Safety Unit
69 Who is the head of ASG at an Airport?

a) CASO b) BCAS c) COSCA d) APD
70 To provide training on aviation security is the responsibility of?

a) CASO b) BCAS c) APD d) AAI
71When was CISF first inducted at airports?
a) 3 Feb’2000 b) 31 Dec’199c) 10 March 20d) 3 Feb’2001
72 While receiving a bomb threat call what will be the first action?
a) Asking informative questions b) intimating to supervisor
c) Intimating to APD d) intimating to CASO
73 Checked-in passenger not reported to board would be?

a) Cancelled passenger b) Deportee
c) Gate no show d) Transit passenger
74 The Authority responsible for regulating Safety aspects of aircrafts in India?

a) ICAO b) Commander of concerned airports
c) BCAS d) DGCA
75 Aircraft security is concerned with?
a) APSU b) APD c) CASO d) Airline security
To cross the runway at non-operational time?

76
a) Requires permission from ATb) permission not required
c) Permission from CASO d) a & c
77 If a person is denying to be frisked, what is the course of action?

a) Allow him to board b) Apply - No search No fly
c) Use force to search him d) Frisk as a formality
78 What will be the course of action when you notice an unattended baggage?
a) Deposit it to APM b) don't touch
c) Lift and Screen it d) Open and look inside for dangerous articles
79 The alert status put on place at the time of crisis?

a) High alert b) Red alert c) Bomb Alert d) None of these
80 Which security measure is not related to post Kandahar hijacking?

a) Deployment of sky marshals b) Deployment of CISF
c) PEC d) SLPC
81 In which year was the first International convention on aviation held?

a) 1937 b) 1944 c) 1947 d) 1934
82 CTX stands for?

a) Complex topographic X-Ray b) Crystal trace X-Ray
c) Computerized tomography X-d) Computerized telescopic X-Ray
83 BCAS stands for

a) Bureau of Civil Aircraft Securb) Bureau of Civil Aircraft Safety
c) Bureau of Civil Aviation Security d) Bureau of Central aviation Security
84 Which color pass holder can enter all area of all civil airports?
a) Orange b) Purple c) Green d) Blue
What is your action if you find Explosive inside the bag while screening?
85
a) Ask the passenger, why is he carrying it
b) Allow passenger to board
c) Stop the conveyor & inform supervisor
d) Remove the article and leave the passenger
86 How many International Conventions have been held?

a) One b) Four c) Five d) Eight
87 Which one is a Standard Practice?

a) PEC b) SLPC c) ABC d) SSLC
88 Which one is a Recommended Practice?

a) PEC b) SLPC c) ABC d) EVD
89 Which rule deals with pre-embarkation check of passengers?
a) Rule 8B of Aircraft Rule 1937 b) Rule 8A of Aircraft Rule 1937
c) Section 8B Aircraft Rule 1937d) Section 10A Aircraft Rule 1937
90 Blue color pass holder can enter?
a) All areas except SHA b) All areas
c) Only in operational area d) only till check-in area
91 The baggage not carried on the same aircraft on which the Pax travels is called
a) Unclaimed baggage b) Unidentified baggage
c) Transfer baggage d) Unaccompanied baggage
92 What is the radiation distance from the tunnel of X-BIS?

a) 1 cm b) 5 cms c) 15 cms d) 25 cms
93 When should you man the access control points?

a) Only during daylight b) Only at night
c) Manned at all times d) whenever required
94 Who is not exempted from pre-embarkation check?

a) Prime minister b) Dy. Prime minister
c) Judges of High Court d) President
95 Access Control points should have?

a) Barrier and Gates b) Only Barriers
c) Only Gates d) Nothing
96 Every vehicle, which is running in operational area

a) Need to have anti-collision light or flag b) needs only flag
c) Need not have ADP d) none of these
97 To drive a vehicle in operational area, one needs?

a) ADP b) Driving License
c) Oral permission by AAI d) Recommendation by APD
98 How many gates are required for better access control?

a) As less as possible b) More gatesc) 10 d) 8
99 What is common for every duty post?

a) Barrier b) DFMD c) Standing order/SOP d) HHMD
100 How many types of detonators are available?

MODEL PAPER – 2 KEY
1 A 2 C 3 B 4 C
11 C 12 C 13 C 14 D
21 D 22 A 23 B 24 D
31 A 32 A 33 C 34 C
41 A 42 D 43 B 44 C
51 C 52 A 53 A 54 A
61 C 62 A 63 A 64 D
71 A 72 A 73 C 74 D
81 B 82 C 83 C 84 A
91 D 92 B 93 C 94 C
d) Seven
c) Alertness d) tests calibration of X-BUS
5 B 6 B 7 D 8 D 9 C
15 B 16 B 17 D 18 B 19 A
25 B 26 D 27 C 28 D 29 A
35 A 36 D 37 B 38 A 39 A
45 B 46 D 47 A 48 B 49 A
55 D 56 C 57 A 58 C 59 B
65 D 66 D 67 D 68 A 69 A
75 D 76 A 77 B 78 B 79 A
85 C 86 C 87 A 88 B 89 B
95 A 96 A 97 A 98 A 99 C
10 B
20 A
30 B
40 A
50 A
60 C
70 B
80 C
90 A
100 B

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Option1 Correct

S.NO English Question Option2English Option3English Option4English

These are acts or attempted acts

Any machine that can derive

An aircraft shall be deemed to

A parked aircraft which is under Aircraft

An aircraft that is either parked

An area used or intended to be

The movement area of an airport,

A check of a person’s identity

Personal property of passengers

The area where all the arrival

All items, other than catering

Food, beverages, other dry stores

The process of reporting to an Pre

It means air transportation of

The Passenger who creates or

Passenger who has checked in

Any person who on board an

Any person who _______________,

Any baggage of the passenger Registered Hand

Recognizing the shapes displayed

A person who is or will be refused

Passenger who is transferred

An originator of property for

The area of an airport and

A system consists of cards or

A corridor at, above or below

An act or omission, intended to

A means by which the

The application of technical or

Devices of a specialized nature

Measures adopted to safeguard

Airside areas of an airport into

Passengers making direct

Passengers departing from an

Baggage, which is transported as

Baggage, which arrives at an

Baggage at an airport, with or

Any facility on or connected with

Power of central government to

Power of central government to

Penalty for failure to comply with

Prohibition of slaughtering and

8 feet wall 8 feet wall

Which one of the following is the 4X4X4 4X4X4 4X4X4 4X4X4

Sum total of all dimensions of

Size of hand bag allowed in India 35 X 35 X 50 X 30 X 20 60 X 30 X 25 55 X 35 X 25

Size of hand bag allowed in 50 X 30 X 35 X 35 X 35 25 X 25 X 25 60 X 30 X 25

2.14 m X 2.14 cms X 2.41 m X 2.34

Deployment of manpower by Arun Mishra R P Singh B D Pandey Justice Kirpal

The convention laid down

Convention against suppression

After the hijack of Indian Airlines

____________________ was formed R. P. Singh B.N. Kirpal Arun Mishra B. D. Pandey

BCAS formed after ____________ R. P. Singh

Which one of the following is the Unlawful

Secondary security checks were