MCQsin ENTwith Explanations Module 2 Otology

MCQS in ENT with explanations : Module 2
Otology
1. False statement regarding Tympanic membrane is
a. It is round in shape
b. It is placed obliquely forming acute angle with meatus anteriorly
c. Light reflex is due to the concavity of the membrane
d. Normal tympanic membrane is pearly white in color
2. Pain on mastication is present in:
a. Acute mastoiditis
b. Otosclerosis
c. Furunculosis of the external ear
d. Allergic otitis externa
3. Sagging of the postero-superior canal wall of the EAC occurs in:
a. Furunculosis of the external ear
b. Acute mastoiditis
c. Otitis media
d. Petrositis
4. Ramsey-Hunt syndrome is:
a. Herpes-zoster affection of the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve.
b. Dysphagia in middle aged female
c. Dysphagia in old male
d. Sensori -neural deafness in newly born
5. Pulsatile bloody discharge from the ear is suggestive of:
a. Fracture base of the skull
b. Hemorrhagic otitis media
c. Rupture drum
d. Glomus jugulare tumor
6. Commonest cause of deafness in children is:
a. Acute otitis media
b. Chronic otitis media
c. Secretory otitis media
d. Cholesteatoma
7. Crescentic hairline is an otoscopic finding in:
a. Otomycosis
b. Otosclerosis
c. Secretory otitis media
d. Acute otitis media
8. In traumatic ossicular disruption, all are true EXCEPT:
a. The audiogram shows 55 dB loss
b. Separation of the incudo -stapedial joint is the commonest lesion
c. Tympanic membrane is bulged out
d. C.T scan is indicated
9. Reservoir is a characteristic sign in:
a. Acute coalescent mastoiditis
b. Acute otitis media
c. Chronic otitis media
d. Secretory otitis media
10. Gradenigo’s syndrome occurs in:
a. Acute mastoiditis
b. Acute petrositis
c. Chronic otitis media
d. Secretory otitis media
11. Griesinger's sign is:
a. Edema & tenderness over the posterior border of the mastoid process
b. Unilateral pulsating otorrhea
c. Vertigo & nystagmus on increasing the pressure of the EAC
d. Tenderness on the tip of mastoid bone
12. Watery discharge from the ear occurs in all EXCEPT:
a. Cerebro -spinal otorrhea
b. Parotid fistula
c. Acute otitis media
d. Endolymphatic sac surgery
13. Schwabach’s test compares:
a. Air and bone conduction of the same ear
b. Bone conduction of the patient with the examiner
c. Bone conduction of both ears at the same time
d. Bone conduction of one ear with air conduction of the other ear
14. The following is FALSE about impedance audiometry:
a. It measures the pressure changes in the middle ear
b. It can diagnose fixation and dislocation of the ossicular chain
c. It can diagnose the patency of the Eustachian tube
d. It measures the sound emitted from the cochlea
15. In lesion of facial nerve at vertical part below the nerve to stapedius, there is:
a. Loss of taste
b. Impairment of salivation
c. Impairment of lacrimation
d. Hyperacusis
16. Early symptom of Bell's palsy is:
a. Dropping of angle of the affected side
b. Obliteration of the angle of the mouth
c. Pain of acute onset behind the ear
d. Inability to close the eye
17. All are correct about Meniere's disease EXCEPT:
a. It is an endolymphatic hydrops
b. Males are more affected than females
c. The type of deafness is conductive
d. Decompression of the labyrinth is indicated if the vertiginous attack is crippling.
18. The aim of radical mastoidectomy is:
a. To make ear safe from disease
b. To preserve hearing
c. Reconstruct the ossicles
d. Reconstruct the tympanic membrane
19. The pain in acute suppurative otitis media in the suppurative stage is:
a. Dull aching
b. Throbbing
c. Boring
d. Burning
20. FALSE statement in malignant otitis externa is:
a. It is common in old diabetic
b. There may be facial paralysis
c. The commonest organism is pseudomonas
d. It is mainly treated surgically
21. Mc Ewen's triangle is the surgical landmark for:
a. The tympanic part of the facial nerve
b. Mastoid antrum
c. Dome of the lateral semicircular canal
d. Incudo-stapedial joint
22. Longitudinal fracture of the temporal bone may be associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
a. LMNL facial palsy.
b. Traumatic perforation of the tympanic membrane.
c. Conductive hearing loss.
d. Profound hearing loss
23. The middle ear magnifies the sound:
a. 20 times.
b. 21 times
c. 22 times
d. 23 times
24. The test of hearing in infants is:
a. Rinne test
b. Weber test
c. Pure tone audiometry.
d. Auditory Brain stem Response
25. Progressive conductive deafness in middle aged female with normal drum & Eustachian tube function is most
probably due to:
a. Otitis media with effusion
b. Otosclerosis
c. Malingering
d. Tympanosclerosis
26. Most accurate diagnostic test to detect degeneration of the facial nerve is:
a. Nerve excitability test
b. Electromyography
c. Electroneurography
d. Stapedial reflex
27. Commonest cause of vertigo is:
a. Acoustic neuroma
b. Ototoxicity
c. Meniere's disease
d. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
28. Which of the following condition may lead to mixed hearing loss?
a. Otosclerosis
b. Meniere's disease
c. Ear wax
d. Acoustic neuroma
29. The triad of ear discharge, retro-orbital pain and VI th nerve paralysis is due to:
a. Mastoiditis
b. Labyrinthitis
c. Petrous apecitis
d. Lateral sinus thrombosis
30. Fluctuant SNHL usually occurs in:
a. Presbycusis
b. Meniere's disease
c. Otosclerosis
d. All the above
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MCQS in ENT with explanations : Module 2

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