SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 31.10.

2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-1 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In every subject:
(a) In Section – A, 35 questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from section – A
(b) In Section – B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which Answer 10 questions only.
(c) Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
1. From the top of tower, a particle is thrown vertically downwards with a velocity of 20 m/s. The ratio
of the distances covered by it in the 4th and 3rd seconds of the motion is : (Take g = 10 m/s2) :
1) 5 : 7 2) 11 : 9 3) 3 : 6 4) 6 : 3
2. Starting from rest, a particle rotates in a circle of radius R = 2m with an angular acceleration
 = ( / 4) rad / s2 . The magnitude of average velocity of the particle over the time it rotates quarter
circle is :
1) 1.5 m/s 2) 2 m/s 3) 1 m/s 4) 1.25 m/s
3. The dimensional formula for surface tension is :
1) MLT–2 2) MT–2 3) LT–2 4) ML2T –2 .
4. How many gm of ice at –14oC are needed to cool 200 gm of water from 25oC to 10oC :
1) 21 gm 2) 31 gm 3) 41 gm 4) 51 gm.
5. Induced electric field due to time varying magnetic field is –
1) Conservative 2) Non Conservative
3) Both Conservative and Non Conservative 4) None of these
6. A body is dropped from a height h. If it acquires a momentum p, then the mass of the body is :
p p2 2gh 2gh
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 gh 2 gh p p
7. A metal ball of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of 36 km/h has a head-on collision with a
stationary ball of mass 3 kg. If after the collision, the two balls move together, the loss in kinetic
energy due to collision is :
1) 40 J 2) 60 J 3) 100 J 4) 140 J
8. A ring is rolling on a surface without slipping. What is the ratio of its translational kinetic energy and
rotational kinetic energy:
1) 5 : 7 2) 2 : 5 3) 2 : 7 4) 1 : 1
9. In a semiconducting material (1/5) th of the total current is carried by the holes and the remaining is
carried by the electrons. The drift speed of electrons is twice that of holes at this temperature, the
ratio between the number densities of electrons and holes is :-
1) 21 / 6 2) 5 3) 3 /8 4) 2
10. A gas undergoes a process in which its pressure P and volume V are related as VPn = constant. The
bulk modulus of the gas in this process in :
1) nP 2) P1/n 3) P/n 4) Pn
11. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely at the nth power of distance. Then time period of a
planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to :
 n +1   n −1   n−2 
     
 2   2  n  2 
1) R 2) R 3) R 4) R
12. If atoms are in certain excited state. When these return to ground state, total number of wavelengths
emitted by them is 10. Then atoms were initially in state :
1) n = 2 2) n = 3 3) n = 4 4) n = 5.
13. A gaseous mixture consists of 16g of helium and 16g of oxygen. The ratio CP / CV of the mixture is
1) 1.4 2) 1.54 3) 1.59 4) 1.62
14. Which one of the following gases possesses the large internal energy :
1) 2 moles of helium occupying 1 m3 at 300 K
2) 56 g of nitrogen at 107 Nm–2 at 300 K
3) 8 grams of oxygen at 8 atm at 300 K
4) 6 × 1026 molecules of argon occupying 40 m3 at 900 K
15. A step down transformer is used to reduce the main supply of 220V to 11V. If the primary coil draws
a current of 5A and the current in secondary coil 90A, what is the efficiency of the transformer?
1) 60 % 2) 70% 3) 80% 4) 90%
16. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2 eV, and the stopping
potential for a radiation incident on this surface 5V. The incident radiation lies in
1) X-ray region 2) ultra-violet region
3) infra-red region 4) visible region
17. A square loop and a long straight wire are situated in a common plane such that one edge of the
square is parallel to the wire. The mutual inductance between the wire and loop is :

0 a 0 a 0 a 0 a
1) ln ( 2 ) 2) ln ( 2 ) 3) 4)
4 2  2
18. If 1 g of substance of relative density 2 and 4 g of another substance of relative density 3 are mixed
together, then the relative density of the mixture is :
1) 2.4 2) 2.5 3) 2.7 4) 2.8
19. A material has Poisson's ratio 0.5. If a uniform rod of it suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 × 10–3, the
percentage increase in its volume is :
1) 0% 2) 2% 3) 4% 4) 8%.
20. For the given cyclic process CAB as shown for a gas, the work done is:

1) 1 J 2) 5 J 3) 10 J 4) 30 J
21. The voltage of cloud is 4 × 106 volt with respect to ground. In a lightning strike lasting for 100 ms, a
charge of 4 coulumb is delivered to the ground. The power of the lightning strike is:
1) 160 MW 2) 80 MW 3) 20 MW 4) 500 MW
22. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world contained in a circular horizon. If the
refractive index of water is 4/3 and the fish is 12cm below the surface, the radius of this circle in cm
is

1) 36 5 2) 4 5 3) 36 7 4) 36 / 7
23. The de Broglie wavelength  associated with a proton changes by 0.25% if its momentum is changed
by p0 . The initial momentum was :-
1) 100 p0 2) p0 /400 3) 400 p0 4) p0 /100
24. The focal length of a convex mirror is 20 cm its radius of curvature will be
1) 10 cm 2) 20 cm 3) 30 cm 4) 40 cm
25. In Young's experiment with sodium light, the slits are 0.589 m apart. What is the angular position of
the third maximum ? (Given that  = 589 nm) :-
1) sin–1 (3 × 10–6) 2) sin–1 (3 × 10–8)
3) sin–1 (0.33 × 10–6) 4) sin–1 (0.33 × 10–8)
26. Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each other.
The currents flowing in them are l and 2l respectively. The resultant magnetic field induction at the
center will be:
I I 5 0 I 3 0 I
1) 0 2) 0 3) 4)
2R R 2R 2R
27. ˆ ˆ
An electron is travelling with velocity  = 3i + 5 jm / s in a magnetic field B = 6iˆ + 4 ˆj tesla. Then
what is the magnitude and direction of the force F acting on the electron:
1) 18e N along +ve z-axis 2) 18e N along –ve z-axis
3) 36e N along –ve z-axis 4) 54e N along +ve z-axis.
28. A river is flowing with speed u west to east. A boat takes t1 time to move distance S in down's stream
and t2 time to move distance in up stream time taken by boat to travel distance S in still water :
t +t t t 2t t
1) 1 2 2) t1 − t2 3) 1 2 4) 1 2
2 t1 + t2 t1 + t2
29. The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atoms is:
1) much greater than one 2) one
3) between zero and one 4) equal to zero
30. A coil of resistance 200  is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux  (wb) linked with the
coil varies with time t (sec) as  = 50t2 + 4, the current in the coil at t = 2 sec is:
1) 2 A 2) 1 A 3) 0.5 A 4) 0.1 A
The time dependence of physical quantity P is given by P = P0e−t where  is a constant and t is the
2
31.
time. The constant  :
1) is dimensionless 2) has dimension [T–2]
3) has dimension [T2 ] 4) has dimension of P.
32. Consider the following two statements
Statement I : The binding energy per nucleon is practically independent of mass number for nuclei of
middle mass number (30 < A < 170).
Statement II : Binding energy per nucleon is lower for both light nuclei (A < 30) and heavy nuclei (A
> 170).
1) only statement I is correct
2) only statement II is correct
3) Both statement I and II are correct
4) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
33. Gravitational potential differernce between a point on surface of planet and another point 10 m above
is 4J/kg. Considering gravitational field to be uniform, how much work is done in moving a mass of
2kg from the surface to a point 5 m above the surface :
1) 4 J 2) 5 J 3) 6 J 4) 7 J
34. Two infinite parallel conductors P1 and P2 have charges Q1 and Q2 on them. The charges on the sides
A, B and C and D respectively are :

Q1 + Q2 Q − Q2
1) QA = QD = and QB = −QC = 1
2 2
Q + Q2 Q − Q2
2) QA = QC = 1 and QB = QD = 1
2 2
Q + Q2 Q − Q2
3) QB = QC = 1 and QA = QD = 1
2 2
Q + Q2
4) QA = QB = QC = Q D = 1
2
35. The intensity of an electric field inside a capacitor is E. The work required to make a charge q, move
in a closed rectangular circuit is :

1) 2 ( l + b ) qE 2) 2IqE 3) 2bqE 4) Zero

SECTION – B
36. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of
repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be : (e being the
charge on an electron)
4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fe 2 4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fd 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
e2 d2 e2 e2
37. If each resistance in the figure of 9 then reading of the ammeter is :-

.
1) 8A 2) 5A 3) 2A 4) 9A
38. In the given circuit emf of cell = 12V & internal resistance of cell is zero. Reading of A is i1 when
key is opened & reading of A is i2 when key is closed then i1 / i2 will be

1) 2 2) 0.3 3) 0.6 4) 0.5

39. Two identical conducting balls A and B have positive charges q1 and q2 respectively but q1  q2 . The
balls are brought together so that they touch each other and then kept in their original positions. The
force between them is :
1) Less than that before the balls touched
2) Greater than that before the balls touched
3) Same as that before the balls touched
4) Zero.
40. Some equipotential surfaces, which are normal to x-y plane are shown in the figure given is

1) A or B 2) A or C 3) C or D 4) B or D
41. The electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from exited state (n = 3) to ground state (n = 1) and the
photons thus emitted irradiate a photosensitive material. If the work function of the material is
5.1 eV, the stopping potential is estimated to be: (the energy of the electron in nth state
−13.6
En = eV )
n2
1) 5.1 V 2) 12.1 V 3) 17.2 V 4) 7V
42. P-V curve for change in the state of the gas from A to B through 3 different paths, a, b and c are
shown. Match the options of the two columns :

Column-I Column-II
a. Change in internal energy in paths a and b i. a
b. In all the three paths, heat ii. c
c. Heat absorbed/ released by gas is maximum in path iii. is absorbed by gas
d. Work done is minimum in path iv. Equal
1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii 4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii.
43. The resonant frequency of the L-C circuit is f0 before insertion of the dielectric of r = 16. After
inserting the dielectric, the resonant frequency will be :-

1) f0 / 2 2) 2 f0 3) f0 / 4 4) 4 f0
44. A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown
in figure. The current through the diode is :

1) 5 mA 2) 10 mA 3) 15 mA 4) 20 mA
45. In the given circuit, A, B and C are inputs and Y is the output. The output Y is:

1) High for all the high inputs 2) High for all the low inputs
3) Low for all low inputs 4) Low when A = 0, B = 0, C = 1.
46. In a progressive wave along X-direction, at a particular location, the particle of the medium are
executing:
1) oscillatory motion 2) rectilinear motion
3) rotational motion 4) none of these
47. Assertion: During horizontal circular turn of a car, the centripetal force required should be less than
the limiting friction between its tyres and road
Reason: The centripetal force to car is provided by the frictional force between its tyres and road
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false
4) It the assertion is false and reason true.
48. Assertion: Path of a projectile with respect to another projectile is straight line
Reason: Acceleration of a projectile with respect to another projectile is zero
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false
4) It the assertion and reason both are false
49. Consider the following two statements
Statement-1: When a girl sitting on a swing stands up, the periodic time of the swing will increase.
Statement-2: In standing position of a girl, the length of the swing will decrease.
1) only statement I is correct
2) only statement II is correct
3) Both statement I and II are correct
4) Both statement I and II are incorrect
50. In the following circuit of PN junction diodes D1 , D2 and D3 are ideal then i is :-

1) E/R 2) E/2R 3) 2E/3R 4) Zero

CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
51. Riemer-Tiemann reaction and Kolbe’s reaction are respectively
1) Electrophilic addition and nucleophilic addition reactions
2) Both are electrophilic aromatic substitution reactions
3) Free radical addition reaction and electrophilic substitution reactions
4) Both are nucleophilic substitution reactions
52. The correct order of metallic character is
1) Si < Be < Mg < Na
2) Si < Mg < Be < Na
3) Na < Mg < Be < Si
4) Na < Be < Mg < Si
53. Assertion: The carbon-oxygen bond in phenol is slightly stronger than that in methanol.
Reason: In phenol, conjugation of unshared electron pair over oxygen with aromatic ring results in
partial double bond character in carbon-oxygen bond
1) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
2) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
3) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
4) Both assertion and reason are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
54. Statement I : Electrolysis of NaCl solution gives chlorine at anode instead of O2 .
Statement II : Formation of oxygen at anode requires overvoltage.
1) Both statements are false
2) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
4) Both statements are true
55. XeF2 is iso-structural with
1) NaCl 2) SF4 3) I 3− 4) BCl3
56. 0.01 M Acetic acid is 12.5 % dissociated. Its pH will be (log 1.25 = 0.0969)
1) 4.509 2) 3.723 3) 2.903 4) 5.623
57. Which one of the following statements regarding Henry’s law is NOT correct?
1) The value of K H increases with increase of temperature
2) Higher the value of K H at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas in the liquids
3) The partial pressure of the gas in vapor phase is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas in the
solution
4) Different gases have different K H (Henry’s law constant) values at the same temperature
58. The momentum of a moving particle which has a de-Broglie wave length of 2 Å is
(Planck’s constant, h = 6.62 10−34 m2 kg/sec)
1) 3.31  1024 Kg ms –1 2) 3.31 1020 Kg ms –1
3) 6.26  10−24 Kg ms –1 4) 3.31  10–24 Kg ms –1
59. 20 mL of 0.1 M H 2 SO4 solution is added to 30 mL of 0.2 M NH 4OH solution. The pH of the
resultant mixture is approximately [ pkb of NH 4OH = 4.7 ]
1) 9.4 2) 5.0 3) 8.99 4) 5.2
60. Although +3 is the characteristic oxidation state for lanthanoids but cerium also shows +4 oxidation
state because
(i) it has variable ionisation enthalpy
(ii) it has a tendency to attain noble gas configuration
(iii) it has a tendency to attain f 0 configuration
(iv) it resembles Pb
1) i and ii only 2) ii and iii only 3) i, ii and iv only 4) iv only
61. Arrange following complex ions in increasing order of crystal field splitting energy ( o )
3− 3− 3+
I. Cr ( Cl )6  II. Cr ( CN )6  III. Cr ( NH 3 )6 
1) I < II < III 2) II < I < III 3) III < II < I 4) I < III < II
62. Wrong match of the following is
1) SO2 – turns acidified K2Cr2O7 to green
2) Cl2 – disproportionates in KOH solution
3) K2Cr2O7 can disproportionate in acidic medium
4) Sulphuric acid – di basic acid
63. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. The energy of second excited state of He+
ion in eV is
1) -6.04 eV 2) -27.2 eV 3) -54.4 eV 4) -3.4 eV
64. How many of the following are amphoteric oxides ?
MgO , Cr2O3 , Mn2O7 , As2O3 , Cl2O7 , Sb2O3
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 5
65. Match the geometry with the complex ion -
X Y
(a) Octahedral (I) [ Ni(CN)4]2–
(b) Square Planer (II) [ Fe(CN)6]4–
(c) Tetrahedral (III) Ni(CO)4
a b c
1) I II III
2) II I III
3) III I II
4) I III II
66. Which of the following species are paramagnetic in nature?
1) O2− 2) O2 3) S2 4) All of these
67. The eclipsed and staggered forms of ethane cannot be isolated because
1) Both the conformers are equally stable
2) There is a small energy barrier of rotation about the bond and they interconvert rapidly
3) There is a large energy barrier of rotation about the bond
4) The energy difference between the conformers is very large
68. A first order reaction is 20% completed in 10 min. The rate constant of the reaction is
1) 0.223 min−1 2) 0.0223 min−1 3) 2.23 min−1 4) 22.3 min−1
69. Which of the following does not follow Huckel rule?

I II III IV

1)Only IV 2)II and IV only 3)II and III only 4)I and IV only
−1
70. The enthalpy of vaporization of liquid is 30 kJmol and entropy of vaporization is 75 JK −1mol −1 .
The boiling point of the liquid at 1 atm is
1) 127 K 2) 400 K 3) 450 K 4) 600 K
− −
71. The Conjugate bases of H 2 PO4 and H 2 PO3 are respectively
1) PO43− and HPO32− 2) HPO42− and HPO32−
3) PO43− and HPO3− 4) HPO42− and no Conjugate base
72. The relationship between the structures shown below is
Cl Cl

H Br Br CH3

CH3 H
1) Enantiomers 2) Identical compounds
3) Structural isomers 4) Conformational isomers
73. During photoelectric effect, the kinetic energy of the electron ejected from metal surface depends on
1) The intensity of incident light 2) The brightness of the incident light
3) The frequency of incident light 4) Both 1 and 2
74. The solubility of A2 X 3 in pure water is ( Ksp( A2 X3 ) = 1.1 X 10−23 )
1) 1.01X 10−25 mol / L 2) 9.9 X 10−25 mol / L 3) 1X 10−5 mol / L 4) 1X 10−15 mol / L
75. Consider the following reaction:

X and Y are isomeric compounds. Wrong statement about the above reactions is
1) X is a mixture of o- and p- chlorotoluenes
2) Y is a mixture of o- and p- Chloro toluenes
3) X is Benzyl chloride
4) Formation of Y is Electrophilic substitution reaction
Hg 2 / H 2 SO4
76. CH3 C CH HOH A
The number of sigma and pi bonds that are present in the molecule ‘A'
1) 9 sigma and 1 pi 2) 8 sigma and 2 pi
3) 8 sigma and 1 pi 4) 9 sigma and 2 pi
77. The set of reagents for the conversion of Aniline to 2, 4, 6- tribromofluorobenzene are
1) (i)Br2/H2O (ii) NaNO2/HCl-00C (iii) HBF4 ,∆
2) (i) Br2/H2O (ii) NaNO2/HCl-00C (iii) H3PO2 (iv) HBF4 followed by heating
3) (i) NaNO2/HCl-00C (ii) HBF4 /  (iii) Br2/H2O
0
4) (i) NaNO2/HCl-0 C (ii) H3PO2 (iii) Br2/H2O
78. Which of the following compounds gives Iodoform test?
1) Benzaldehyde 2) Acetophenone 3) Benzophenone 4) 3- Pentanone
79. Which of the following anions has d  − p bonding?
1) SO32 − 2) CO32 − 3) BO33− 4) NO3−
80. Articles can be electroplated with silver and gold smoothly and evenly from solutions of the
complexes containing
2)  Au ( CN ) 2  and  AgCl2 
− − −
1)  Au ( OH ) 4  and  Ag ( OH ) 2 
−

3)  Au ( NH 3 ) 2  and  Ag ( CN ) 2 
+ − − −
4)  Au ( CN ) 2  and  Ag ( CN ) 2 
81. Which of the following tests can be used to distinguish Phenol from carboxylic acid?
1) 2RCOOH + 2 Na → 2 RCOONa + H 2
2) RCOOH + NaOH → RCOONa + H2O
3) RCOOH + NaHCO3 → RCOONa + H 2O + CO2
4) All the above
CH CH NH
82. C6 H5COOH + SOCl2 → A ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
3 2 2→ B

Compounds A and B are the main products and which are respectively
1) C6H5COCl & CH3CH2-NH-COC6H5
2) C6H5SO2Cl & CH3CH2-NH- SO2C6H5
3) C6H5COCl & CH3CH2-CO-NH-C6H5
4) C6H5Cl & CH3CH2-NH-CH2CH3
83. What is the major product of the following reaction?

COOH CH 3
1) 2)
C H 3C H 2 HOOC
COOH

3) 4)
CH 3OOC
84. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the property indicated?
1) Electronegativity: F > Cl > Br 2) Electron affinity: Cl > F > Br
3) Oxidising power: F2  Cl2  Br2 4) Bond energy: F2  Cl2  Br2
85. The standard potentials for the half reactions are given below
Zn2+(aq) + 2e → Zn( s ) E 0 = −0.76 V
Fe2+( aq) + 2e → Fe( s ) E 0 = −0.44 V
E 0 for the cell reaction
Fe+2 + Zn → Zn+2 + Fe is
1) - 0.35 V 2) -1.17 V 3) + 1.17 V 4) +0.32 V
SECTION – B
86. Statement –I: Fructose is a reducing sugar
Statement – II: Fructose contains a keto group
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct 2) Both S-I and S-II are wrong
3) S-I is correct but S-II is wrong 4) S-I is wrong but S-II is correct
87. Which of the following group shows +M and – I effects
1) –CHO 2) -COOR 3) –NO2 4) -OH
88. NH2OH is an important derivative of Ammonia. Which of the following compounds does not react
with NH2OH?

1) CH 3COCH 3 2) C2 H 5CHO 3) 4) Glucose pentaacetate

89. The diazonium ion of Benzenediazonium chloride can be replaced by Cl − , Br −or CN − in presence
of
1) Cu (II) ions 2) Cu (I) ions 3) OH − ions 4) H + ions
90. In which of the following pairs of compounds 1st compound is more acidic than 2nd compound

1)

2) CH3COOH and Cl 3C − COOH

3) HCOOH and C6 H5COOH
4) NC − CH2 COOH and NO 2 − CH2 COOH
3 −29
91. For the reaction O2( g ) → O3( g ) at 298 K if KC is 2 X 10 , then G0 is approximately
2
(Given R=8.314 JK-1mol-1)
1) 163700 KJmol −1 2) 16.37 KJmol −1 3) 163.7 KJmol −1 4) 0.1637 KJmol −1
92. Assertion : All collisions of reactant molecules lead to product formation.
Reason : Only those collisions in which molecules have correct orientation and sufficient kinetic
energy lead to compound formation.
1) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
2) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
3) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
4) Both assertion and reason are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
93. Match the following equilibria with the corresponding condition
(i) Liquid Vapour (a) Saturated solution
(ii) Solid Liquid (b) Boiling point
(iii) Solid Vapour (c) Sublimation point
(iv) Solute (s) Solute (solution) (d) Melting point

1) (i ) → ( a ) (ii ) → ( d ) (iii ) → ( c ) (iv ) → (b)

2) (i ) → (b) (ii ) → ( d ) (iii ) → ( c ) (iv ) → ( a )

3) ( )
i → ( d ) (ii ) → ( a ) (iii ) → ( c ) (iv ) → (b )
4) (i ) → ( d ) (ii ) → ( a ) (iii ) → (b) (iv ) → ( c )
94. One mole of any substance contains 6.022  1023 atoms/molecules. Number of molecules of H 2 SO4
present in 100 mL of 0.02M H 2 SO4 solution is ______.
1) 12.044 X 1020 molecules 2) 6.022 X 1023 molecules
3) 1X 1023 molecules 4) 12.044 X 1023 molecules
95. XY2 dissociates as, XY2(g) XY(g) + Y(g) when the initial pressure of XY2 is 600 mm Hg, the total
equilibrium pressure is 800 mm Hg. Calculate Kp for the reaction assuming that, the volume of the
system remains unchanged
1) 50 2) 400 3) 166.6 4) 100
96. IUPAC name of the given compound is

1) 4-methyl-5-chloronitrobenzene 2) 1-chloro-3-nitro-6-methylbenzene
3) 2-Chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene 4) 1-chloro-2-nitro-4-methylbenzene
97. The energy required to completely separate one mole of a solid ionic compound into its gaseous
constituent ions is called
1) Hydration enthalpy 2) Ionization enthalpy
3) Electron gain enthalpy 4) Lattice enthalpy
98. Which of the following equilibrium is affected by pressure?
I. N 2( g ) + 3H 2( g ) 2 NH 3( g ) II. 2SO2( g ) + O2( g ) 2SO3( g )
III. 2 HI ( g ) H 2( g ) + I 2( g ) IV. 2NO2( g ) N2O4( g )
1) II and III only 2) III only 3) I and II only 4) I, II and IV only
99. Which of the following regarding ‘Alkenes’ is a wrong statement?
1) Peroxide effect is not observed in the addition of HCl to propene
2) All alkenes except Ethene are odourless substances
3) Alkynes on reduction with sodium in liquid ammonia form cis- alkene
4) If dipole moment of trans – but -2–ene is zero, cis – but – 2 –ene might be 0.33D

100.

In the above sequence of reactions X and Y are respectively

1) NH2OH and Oximes 2) NH2-NH2 and Hydrazone
3) NH2-NH-Ph and Phenylhydrazone 4) R- NH2 and Schiff’s bases
BOTANY
SECTION – A
101. Which of the following has abundant reserve food materials in the ovule?
1) Integuments 2) Hilum 3) Nucellus 4) Funicle
102. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option
Column I Column II
(a) False fruit (i) Black pepper
(b) Perisperm (ii) Banana
(c) Parthenocarpic fruit (iii) Ricinus
(d) Albuminous seed (iv) Strawberry
1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
103. Which type of linkage/bond is formed when two nucleotides are linked to form a dinucleotide?
1) N-glycoside linkage 2) Peptide bond
3) Phosphodiester linkage 4) Hydrogen bond
104. The gene _____has been introduced in Bt-cotton to protect from corn borer
1) Cry I Ac 2) Cry II Ab
3) Cry IAc and Cry II Ab 4) Cry IAb
105. State true (T) or false (F) for the given statements and choose the correct option.
a. The lac operon consists of two regulatory genes and four structural genes.
b. The y gene codes for permease, which increases permeability of the cell to  -galactosides.
1) a-T, b-T 2) a-T, b-F 3) a-F, b-T 4) a-F, b-F
106. Select the incorrect statement.
1) A translational unit in mRNA is the sequence of RNA that is flanked by the start codon (AUG)
and the stop codon and codes for a polypeptide.
2) An mRNA has some additional sequences that are not translated and are referred as untranslated
regions (UTR)
3) The UTRs are present only at 5 ' -end
4) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred as negative regulation
107. A: The DNA-dependent DNA polymerases catalyse polymerization only in one direction, that is
5 ' → 3' .
B: The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses the polymerization only in one direction, that is
3' → 5 ' .
Choose the correct option for the given statements
1) Only statement A is correct 2) Only statement B is correct
3) Both the statements are correct 4) Both the statements are incorrect
108. All of the following are correct w.r.t. the spring wood, except
1) Lighter in colour 2) Has a higher density
3) Vessels have wider lumen 4) Is also called early wood
109. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. anatomy of the monocotyledonous stem?
1) The ‘ring’ arrangement of vascular bundles is a characteristic of monocot stem
2) Phloem parenchyma is generally absent
3) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed
4) Monocot stem has a sclerenchymatous hypodermis
110. Gonyaulax is an example of
1) Chrysophytes 2) Euglenoids 3) Dinoflagellates 4) Slime moulds
111. Find out wrong statement regarding bryophytes
1) The plant body of bryophytes is more differentiated than that of algae
2) The sporophyte of bryophyte is haploid
3) The sex organs in bryophytes are multicellular
4) The male sex organs is called antheridium
112. Match the classes of pteridophytes with their example given below and choose the correct option
Column – I Column – II
(a) Lycopsida (i) Equisetum
(b) Psilopsida (ii) Dryopteris
(c) Pteropsida (iii) Selaginella
(d) Sphenopsida (iv) Psilotum
1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv 4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
113. The stroma lamellae membrane lacks
(a) PS I (b) PS II (c) NADP reductase enzyme
The correct ones are
1) (a) and (b) only 2) (b) and (c) only 3) (a) and (c) only 4) All (a), (b) and (c)
114. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. C 4 plants
1) They are adapted to dry tropical conditions
2) They have a special type of leaf anatomy
3) They perform a process called photorespiration
4) They tolerate higher temperatures
115. State true (T) or false (F) w.r.t. the Calvin cycle and choose the correct option.
A: Reduction is the most crucial step of the Calvin cycle.
B: Reduction involves utilization of 2 molecules of ATP for phosphorylation and two of NADPH for
reduction per CO2 molecule fixed.
C: The fixation of six molecules of CO2 and 6 turns of the cycle are required for the formation of one
molecule of glucose.
1) A-T, B-T, C-T 2) A-F, B-F, C-F 3) A-T, B-F, C-T 4) A-F, B-T, C-T
116. Select the mismatched pair about PGRs
1) Cytokinins - Used to prepare weed-free lawns
2) Ethylene - Causes sprouting of potato tubers
3) Abscisic acid - Inhibits seed germination
4) Gibberellins - Promotes bolting in beet
117. During the tricarboxylic acid cycle (TCA), a molecule of GTP is synthesized during conversion of
1)  -Ketoglutaric acid to succinyl-CoA 2) Succinic acid to fumaric acid
3) Succinyl CoA to succinic acid 4) Malic acid to oxaloacetic acid
118. In a pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed
with a green seeded plant, what ratio of green and yellow seeded plants would you except progeny.
1) 3 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 1 : 1 4) 9 : 1
119. Select the incorrect match
1) Aspergillus niger – Acetic acid 2) Lactobacillus – Lactic acid
3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae – Ethanol 4) Clostridium butylicum – Butyric acid
120. Which of the following is a member of Phaeophyceae?
1) Vovlox 2) Porphyra 3) Laminaria 4) Chara
121. Select the mismatch from the following options
1) Form bloom in polluted water bodies – Cyanobacteria
2) Presence of cell wall – Mycoplasma
3) Help in making curd – Heterotrophic bacteria
4) Heterocysts – Anabaena
122. Which of the following is an example of opposite phyllotaxy?
1) Alstonia 2) Mustard 3) Guava 4) China rose
123. Select the incorrectly matched pair regarding placentation and the examples
Placentation Examples
1) Axile Chine rose and tomato
2) Basal Sunflower and marigold
3) Free central Mustard and Argemone
4) Marginal Pea
124. Which of the following is correct sequence of different phases of prophase I of meiosis?
(a) Zygotene (b) Pachytene (c) Leptotene (d) Diplotene
(e) Diakinesis
1) a → b → c → e → d 2) b → a → d → c → e
3) c → b → a → d → e 4) c → a → b → d → e
125. All of the following are correct w.r.t. anaphase of mitosis, except
1) Chromatids move to opposite poles 2) Centromeres split
3) Chromatids separate 4) Chromosomes move to spindle equator
126. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. examples of classes of fungi
1) Phycomycetes – Alternaria, Colletotrichum
2) Basidiomycetes – Ustilago, Puccinia
3) Deuteromycetes – Trichoderm, Alternaria
4) Ascomycetes – Neurospora, Calviceps
127. Read the following Assertion and Reason and select correct option
Assertion (A): Golgi bodies are the site of synthesis of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
Reason (R): SER is site of synthesis of steroidal hormones in animal cells.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false
4) It the assertion is false and reason true.
128. Select a polymer of fructose
1) Glycogen 2) Cellulose 3) Starch 4) Inulin
129. Identify the following compound and select the correct option

1) Adenine 2) Adenosine 3) Uracil 4) Uridine

130. The process of translation begins when
1) tRNA binds with amino acid
2) There is inactivation of amino acids
3) The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
4) The large subunit of ribosome binds with mRNA
131. Read the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Larger and more numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out protein
synthesis.
Reason (R): Nucleolus are a site of active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false
4) It the assertion is false and reason true.
132. Choose the odd statement w.r.t. enzymes
1) Enzymes lower the activation energy and make the transition of substrate to product easy.
2) Succinic dehydrogenase enzyme is inhibited by a non competitive inhibitor called malonate.
3) Isomerases catalyses interconversion of optical, geometric and positional isomers.
4) The formation of enzyme substrate complex is a transient phenomenon
133. Match the following columns and select the correct option
Column I Column II
a. Cyclosporin A (i) Lactobacillus
b. Streptokinase (ii) Monascus Purpureus
c. Statin (iii) Trichoderma polysporum
d. Lactic acid (iv) Streptococcus
1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
134. The separated bands of DNA are cut from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece by a step
known as
1) Spooling 2) Elution 3) Transformation 4) Cloning
135. Triticum aestivum is not classified in the category named as
1) Poaceae 2) Monocotyledonae 3) Polymoniales 4) Angiospermae
SECTION – B
136. Which of the following spores are mitospores produced during favourable conditions in fungi?
a. Sporangiospores b. Zoospores c. Conidia
1) Only a 2) All a, b and c 3) Only c 4) Only b
137. Due to the apical dominance
1) The lateral buds do not grow 2) Apical buds do not grow
3) Bushy growth of plants take place 4) Lateral buds start developing into branches
138. Which of the following pathogens have ability to transform normal cells into tumor cells in plants
and animals, respectively?
1) Retroviruses and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
2) Meloidogyne incognita and Retroviruses
3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens and Retroviruses
4) Salmonella typhimurium and Retroviruses
139. Which of the following is not a fermented product of bacteria?
1) Dosa 2) Idli 3) Bread 4) Swiss cheese
140. “Ramachandran plot” is used to confirm the structure of
1) Sucrose 2) DNA 3) Collagen 4) Cholesterol
141. The starch synthesis regarding the grain size in garden pea show A for Bb genotype. Here A is
1) Codominance 2) Dominance
3) Incomplete dominance 4) Multiple allelism
142. The graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of offspring in a
genetic cross is called
1) Pedigree 2) Punnett square 3) Idiogram 4) Karyotype
143. The process by which multiple copies of the gene (or DNA) of interest are synthesized in-vitro
requires all, except
1) DNA polymerase 2) Primers 3) DNA templates 4) Stirrer
144. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. electron transport system in mitochondria
1) NADH dehydrogenase – Complex I
2) Cytochrome bc1 - Complex III
3) Succinate dehydrogenase – Complex II
4) Cytochrome c oxidase – Complex V
145. How many documented varieties of Basmati rice are grown in India?
1) 50 2) 30 3) 27 4) 25
146. What is antisense technology
1) RNA polymerase producing DNA
2) Production of somaclonal variants in tissue culture
3) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for synthesis of antigens
4) Post transcriptional m-RNA silencing
147. Presence of conjunctive tissue is a characteristic feature of
1) Dicot leaf 2) Dicot root 3) Monocot stem 4) Monocot leaf
148. CO2 is not released during
(a) Glycolysis (b) Link reaction (c) Kreb’s cycle (d) ETS
(e) Alcoholic fermentation (f) Lactic acid fermentation
1) ‘d’ and ‘f’ only 2) b, c, e only 3) a, d, f only 4) a, f only
149. What will be the amount of DNA in meiosis II product if meiocyte is containing 20 pg DNA in G1
phase?
1) 10 pg 2) 5 pg 3) 20 pg 4) 15 pg
150. All of the following plant hormones are acidic in nature except
1) Gibberlin 2) Auxin 3) ABA 4) Cytokinin
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
151. Which event occur during Forcible expiration?
1) Except functional residual capacity the remaining air of the lungs is breathed out
2) Complete air is breathed out of lungs
3) Except residual volume, the remaining air is breathed out of lungs
4) Except residual volume, the remaining air is breathed into lungs
152. Most of the CO2 is transported in the form of A by B of blood
1) A = Bicarbonates, B = R.B.C 2) A = Carbamino compounds, B = R.B.C
3) A = Bicarbonates, B = Plasma 4) A = Carbamino compounds, B = Plasma
153. Assertion: Vertebro Chondral ribs are attached to 7th rib with the help of hyaline cartilage.
Reason: The Hyaline cartilage between vertebro chondral and 7th ribs is located on the dorsal surface
of the body.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of A
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true
154. During Oogenesis of female human being second polar body is formed along with
1) Secondary oocyte is Ampulla 2) Ootid in the ovary
3) Secondary oocyte in ovary 4) Ootid in the ampulla
155. Assertion: During HIV infection, TH cell count gets progressively decreased in the infected person.
Reason: During HIV infection, HIV after its entry into TH cells, replicate and produce progeny virus
which are released into blood and attack other TH cells.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of A
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true, R is false
4) A is false, R is true
156. During counter current exchange in the kidney, NaCl is transported from
1) The blood of Ascending limb of vasa recta into the descending limb of Henle’s loop
2) Renal filtrate of ascending limb of Henle into the blood of descending limb of vasa recta
3) Renal filtrate of descending limb of Henle into the blood of ascending limb of vasa recta
4) More than one options
157. Statement I: During each cardiac cycle lungs receive deoxygenated blood from heart and send
oxygenated blood into heart.
Statement II: During each cardiac cycle, the left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood into Aorta and
Right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood into pulmonary trunk. (Pulmonary artery)
1) Only statement A is correct 2) Only statement B is correct
3) Both statement A and B are correct 4) Both statement A and B are incorrect
158. During muscle contraction, cross bridge is broken due to the
1) Hydrolysis of ATP at Myosin head
2) Hydrolysis of ATP at acto-myosin junction
3) Attachment of ATP to ATP binding site of myosin head
4) Attachment of ATP to myosin head when it is in detached condition
159. Choose the incorrect one
1) Adipocytes of Adults – Nucleus is peripheral in position
2) Cardio-myocytes – Characterized by inter vertebral discs
3) Multipolar neurons – Located in grey matter of brain
4) Antigen sensitive B Lymphocytes – Mature cells in red bone marrow
160. Non overlapping region of sarcomere with respect to Anisotrophic band is
1) not overlapped by thin filaments
2) decreased in its length during muscle contraction
3) over lapped by thick filament
4) more than one option
161. Statement I: Compound epithelium possess many layers of cells, each layer of cells are arranged on
basement membrane.
Statement II: Compound epithelium exist in skin.
1) Only statement A is correct 2) Only statement B is correct
3) Both statement A and B are correct 4) Both statement A and B are incorrect
162. Excess ADH cause
1) Diuresis 2) Dehydration
3) Decreased B.P 4) Decreased urine output
163. This character exist in Tendon
1) Parallel arranged collagen bundles
2) Rows of collagen fibres
3) Elastic fibres
4) More than one option
164. SAN generates an action potential while
1) The semilunar valves are in closed conditions
2) The Atrio-ventricular valves are in closed condition
3) The blood is not flowing into ventricles
4) More than one option
165. Cartilage present in the pubic symphysis is
1) Hyaline cartilage 2) Elastic cartilage
3) Fibrous cartilage 4) Having non pliable matrix
166. Match the following
List I List II
I) VNTR (a) 1.4 million locations
II) SNPs (b) Vectors
III) BAC, YAC (c) Mini satellites
IV) ESTs (d) Identify all the genes that are expressed as RNA
1) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
2) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d
3) I-a, II-c, III-b, IV-d
4) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b
167. Choose the correct w.r.t. haemophilic daughter
1) The mother should to be at least haemophilic
2) The father should be non haemophilic
3) The mother should be carrier only
4) The father should be hemophilic only
168. Source of energy for the respiration of plants is
1) NPP 2) GPP 3) GSP 4) NSP
169. Statement I: In human beings, insulin is synthesized as pro hormones.
Statement II: Pro insulin possess peptide chains in the order of A-B-C sequence.
1) Only statement A is correct 2) Only statement B is correct
3) Both statement A and B are correct 4) Both statement A and B are incorrect
170. In Plasmodium, Gametocytes are produced in
1) Human – hepatocytes
2) Mosquito – Lumen of gut
3) Human being – RBC
4) Mosquito – Gut wall
171. Presence of water vascular system is a characteristic feature of
1) Antedon 2) Chiton 3) Aedes 4) Pinctada
172. Basophil cells do not produce
1) Histamine 2) Heparin 3) Serotonin 4) Erythropoietin
173. A person having only anti-B antibodies in his plasma, can donate blood to people with blood groups
1) A and AB 2) Only B 3) O and B 4) O and A
174. Intercalated discs are present in
1) Smooth muscles
2) Striated voluntary muscles
3) Skeletal muscles
4) Cardiac muscles
175. Which of the following hormones will be detected in a sample of blood taken from hypophyseal
portal vein?
1) GnRH, GH, TSH
2) GnRH, somatostatin, TRH (releasing hormone)
3) GnRH, FSH, TRH (releasing hormone)
4) FSH, prolactin, GnRH
176. Generation of secondary messengers is associated with the mechanism of action of
1) Estrogen and ACTH 2) Insulin and TSH
3) Cortisol and ACTH 4) Progesterone and androgens
177. Total number of girdle bones are equal to
1) Number of facial bones 2) Number of ear ossicles
3) Number of cranial bones 4) Number of limb bones
178. In a sarcomere, only __________ filaments are present in H zone.
Choose the option that correctly fills the blank.
1) Actin 2) Myosin 3) Troponin 4) Tropomyosin
179. Which of the following is obtained from Cannabis sativa?
1) Opium 2) Charas 3) Morphine 4) Crack
180. Among the following terms, how many are related to physiological barrier of innate immunity
Skin, Tears, Interferons, Monocyte, Saliva, Mucus coating

1) One 2) Two 3) Four 4) Three

181. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. disease and vector
1) Dengue - Culex
2) Malaria - Anopheles
3) Chikungunya - Aedes
4) Filariasis - Culex
182. Koala, Banded anteater and Tasmania tiger cat represents example of
1) Analogous organ 2) Convergent evolution
3) Adaptive radiation 4) Adaptive convergence
183. Mammals directly evolved from
1) Thecodonts 2) Therapsids 3) Dinosaurs 4) Sauropsids
184. Complete the analogy w.r.t cranial capacity of hominids.
Homo habilis : 750 cc : : Homo erectus : ____________
1) 650 cc 2) 900 cc 3) 1450 cc 4) 160 cc
185. In the year 1947, India’s population was A and crosses B in may 2011.
1) A – 350 million, B – 35 billion 2) A – 35 million, B – 1.2 billion
3) A – 350 million, B – 1.2 billion 4) A – 35 million, B – 35 billion
SECTION – B
186. In human embryonic development first movement of foetus and appearance of hair on head are
observed by the end of
1) First month 2) Second month 3) First trimester 4) Fifth month
187. During oogenesis, a glycoprotein layer called zona pellucida is formed by
1) Primary oocyte 2) Theca cells
3) Secondary oocyte 4) Medullary stroma of ovary
188. All of the following are associated with test tube baby programme except
1) In vitro fertilization 2) ZIFT
3) IUI 4) ET
189. All of the following functions are attributed to ADH except
A : Increase in glomerular blood flow
B : Promoting diuresis
C : Decrease in blood pressure
D : Increase in body fluid volume
1) A and B 2) C and D 3) B and C 4) A and D
190. Protonephridia is an excretory organ of
1) Echinoderms 2) Arthropods 3) Molluscs 4) Cephalochordates
191. Addison’s disease is associated with
1) Hypothyroidism 2) Adrenal cortex 3) Pancrease 4) Pineal gland
192. Triploblastic, metamerically segmented, dioecious and coelomate animals are
1) Apis, Hirudinaria 2) Nereis, Locusta
3) Pheretima, Periplaneta 4) Nereis, Pila
193. The partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide in blood of superior vena cava are respectively
1) 104, 40 mm Hg 2) 40, 45 mmHg 3) 95, 40 mmHg 4) 45, 40 mmHg
194. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?
1) Bone marrow 2) Spleen 3) Payer’s patches 4) MALT
195. Axial skeletal bones and Appendicular skeletal bones are not connected by
1) Pectoral girdles 2) Pelvic girdle 3) Clavicle 4) Tibia – Fibula
196. Assertion : During the process of muscle contraction the length of H zone gets shortened.
Reason: During muscle contraction process, H-zone gets shortened due to the shortening of length of
thin filament.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false
4) It the assertion is false and reason true.
197. Which disease spread through contamination by the eggs of pathogen.
1) Filariasis 2) Amoebiasis 3) Ascariasis 4) Malaria
198. In neuron, when Na-K-ATP pump is failed to function, then
1) Neuron immediately enters into Rest
2) Proteins present in axoplasm moves in the extracellular fluid present outside the axon
3) Positive charge increases in Axoplasm
4) Positive charge increases in extra cellular fluid
199. Colostrum provide
1) Active immunity 2) Innate immunity
3) Artificial acquired immunity 4) Passive immunity
200. Which of these is not an in-situ conservation method
1) Sacred Grooves 2) Biosphere reserves
3) Wild life safari parks 4) National parks