Civilforenoonsession 2024 (Set 1) - Final 1708178474375
Civilforenoonsession 2024 (Set 1) - Final 1708178474375
Civilforenoonsession 2024 (Set 1) - Final 1708178474375
CIVIL ENGINEERING
Detailed Solution
EXAM DATE: 04-02-2024
FORENOON SESSION (09:30 AM-12:30 PM)
Office Address
DELHI: F-126, Katwaria Sarai, New Delhi - 110 016
Ph: 011-41013406, Mobile: 8130909220, 9711853908
=
n
n
E
2
R
[2 301 (n 1)2]
T
2
In 60 minute number of crossings = 59
Sum of even numbered houses
59
S
In 1 minute number of crossings = = 302 + 304 + 306, …, n
60
In 50 minute number of crossings n
= [2 302 (n 1)2]
2
A
50
= 50 = 49.166 49
60 n
= [2n 602]
2
2. If ‘ ’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then
M
the meaning of the words [simmer seethe = n[n + 301]
smolder] is analogous to [break raze ___ ] According to question
Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill
n[n + 301] – n[n + 300] = 27
S
the blank?
n[n + 30] – n – 300] = 27
(a) fissure (b) obliterate
n = 27
E
(c) fracture (d) obfuscate
I
n[n + 301] – n[n + 300] = 27
Sol. (b) n[n + 30] – n – 300] = 27
Meaning of the words n = 27
simmer seethe smolder Alternate method:
is analogous to
If one house each side difference = 302 – 301 = 1
brake raze obliterate
If two house each side difference
3. In a locality, the house are numbered in the following = (302 + 304) – (301 + 303) = 2
way:
If three houses each side difference
The house-numbers on one side of a road are
= (302 + 304 + 306) – (301 + 303 + 39)
consecutive odd integers starting from 301, while
the house-numbers on the other side of the road =3
are consecutive even numbers starting from 302. So, to make difference equal to 27 number of
The total number of houses is the same on both houses on each side must be 27.
sides of the road.
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
4. Which one of the given options is a possible value
4000 1
of x in the following sequence? Capacity factor of T1 =
20 1000 0.2
3, 7, 15, x, 63, 127, 255
6000 1
(a) 31 (b) 35 Capacity factor of T2 =
30 1000 0.2
(c) 45 (d) 40
3000 1
Sol. (a) Capacity factor of T3 =
15 1000 0.2
7–3=4= 4× 1
8000 1
15 – 7 = 8 = 4 × 2 Capacity factor of T4 = 0.2
40 1000
R
x 15 16 8 2
Capacity factor of all four power generation
63 – x = 32 = 16 × 2 technologies is equal to 0.2.
127 – 63 = 64 = 32 × 2
255 – 127 = 128 = 64 × 2
x – 15 = 16 x = 31
6.
T
p
q
p q
q
p
1
q
1, = p . Then, E
For positive integers p and q, with
p
(c)
q p
qp = p2q
(b)
(d)
p
q qp
qp = pq
A
technologies, T1, T2, T3 and T4 and their Electricity
Generation (MWh) in a time of 1000 hours (h).
Sol. (b)
Installed Capacity Electricity Generation
M
14000 70 p/q p
p 1
13000 65 q
p
Eelctricity Generation (MWh)
12000 60
q
Installed Capacity (MW)
11000 55
10000 50
9000 45 p/q
p
S
8000
7000
40
35 p/q
pp/q p 1
6000 30 q
5000 25
E
4000 20
3000 15 pp/q pp/q
p/q 0
I
2000 10
1000 5 q p
0 0
T1 T1 T1 T1
1 1
Power Generation Technology
pp/q p/q 0
q p
The capacity factor of a power generation
technology is: 1 1
Electricity Generation (MWh)
p/q 0
q p pp/q 0
Capacity factor =
Installed Capacity (MW) × 1000 (h)
p/q
Which one of the given technologies has the highest pq
p/q
0
Capacity Factor? pq
(a) T3 (b) T4
p = qp/q
(c) T2 (d) T1
p = (q1/q)p
Sol. (*)
p1/p = q1/q
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
7. Three distinct sets of indistinguishable twins are to (a) 328 (b) 238
be seated at a circular table that has 8 identical (c) 382 (d) 283
chairs. Unique seating arrangements are defined
by the relative positions of the people. Sol. (c)
How many unique seating arrangements are S
possible such that each person is sitting next to
S Sun
their twin?
E Earth
(a) 28 (b) 14 M Moon
R
Sol. (d) The distance from the earth to the moon
= 240000 mile (estimated)
E
8. In the 4 × 4 array shown below, each cell of the first
three columns has either a cross (X) or a number, 240000
cos 89.85 =
as per the given rule. SE
1
2
2
1
X
X
2
3
4
S T SE = 91673351.94 mile
ES
EM
91673351.94
=
240000
= 381.97 = 382
1 2 X
Rule: The number in a cell represents the count of A 10. In the given text, the blanks are numbered (i)–(iv).
Select the best match for all the blanks.
S
breath as the Olympian artist twists his body,
possible in the empty column is
stretching the javelin behind him. Twelve strides in,
(a) 0 (b) 1
E
he begins to cross-step. Six cross-steps (iii)
I
(c) 3 (d) 2 in an abrupt stop on his left foot. As his body
(iv) like a door turning on a hinge, the javelin
Sol. (b) is launched skyward at a precise angle.
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
SECTION: CIVIL ENGINEERING C D G
R
For 3 side sum is 180°
Sol. (13)
For 4 side sum is 360°
E
D G
Sum increased by 180° C
T
2. The second-order differential equation in an
unknown function u: u(x, y) is defined as
E H
B
2
S
u
2
x 2 y
Assuming g: g(x), f: f(y) and h: h(y), the general
A
A I x
solution of the above differential equation is F
M
(b)
B x 0 B y 0
(c) u = x2 + f(y) + g(x)
(d) u = x2 + x f(y) + h(y) From inextensibility of BE and EF,
Sol. (d)
2
u
x 2
E
2
S …(i)
E x 0 E y 0
I
C x 0 C y 0
u
2
x x From inextensibility of BD and CD,
Integrating both side with respect to x
D x 0 D y 0
u
2x f(y)
x From inextensibility of DG,
Again integrating with respect to x
G x 0
u = x2 + xf(y) + f(y)
u = x2 + xf(y) + h(y) From inextensibility of EH and HF,
3. The plane frame shown in the figure has fixed Hx 0 Hy 0
support at joint A, hinge support at joint F, and
From inextensibility FI,
roller support at joint I. In the figure, A to I indicate
joints of the frame. Ix 0
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
If at joint (F), FB, FE, FH, FI are rigidly (a) Ductility test is carried out on bitumen to test
connected then possible displacements at its adhesive property and ability to stretch.
F = F . (b) Flash point of bitumen is the lowest
temperature at which application of a test
If at joint I, FI and IH are rigidly connected, possible
flame causes vapours of the bitumen to catch
displacements at I = I . an instant fire in the form of flash under
specified test conditions.
Hence unknown joint displacements are
(c) Kinematic viscosity is a measure of resistance
B, C , D , E , F , G, Gy , H, I
to the flow of molten bitumen under gravity.
Dk 9 (d) Softer grade bitumen possesses higher
R
softening point than hard grade bitumen.
Note: However, if somebody assumes all members
at joint (F) to be connected with pin then at (F) we Sol. (d)
E
hav e unknown joint displacements as
FB , FE , FH, FI . 6. The elements that DO NOT increase the strength
of structural steel are
T
Similarly, if at joint I if somebody assumes FI and
HI to be pin connected then unknown joint (a) Carbon (b) Manganese
S
displacements at I are IF , IH . (c) Chlorine (d) Sulphur
4.
Dk = 9 + 4 = 13
M
open channel flow with a mobile bed is
However, chlorine and sulphur do not increase the
(a) 3 (b) 5 strength of structural steel.
(c) 2 (d) 4 Hence, the correct option (c) and (d).
Sol. (d)
E S
Mobile boundary channels are those in which
7. A surveyor observes a zenith angle of 930000
during a theodolite survey. The corresponding
I
boundaries undergo deformation due to vertical angle is
continous process of erosion and deposition
(a) 870000 (b) 030000
due to flow.
(c) 030000 (d) 870000
In mobile channels, depth of flow, bed width,
bed slopes and layout changes with space and
Sol. (b)
time.
True zenith
Hence, mobile boundary channels have 4
degree of freedom. 93° Horizontal line
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
gradient of 2%. The driver of the car suddenly Which of the following option(s) is/are CORRECT?
observes a stopped vehicle on the car path at a
(a) hyperbolic for x < 0 and y > 0
distance 130 m ahead, and applies brake. If the
brake efficiency is 60%, coefficient of friction is 0.7, (b) elliptic for x > 0 and y > 0
driver’s reaction time is 2.5 s, and acceleration due (c) elliptic for x = 0 and y > 0
to gravity is 9.81 m/s2, the distance (in meters)
(d) parabolic for x > 0 and y > 0
required by the driver to bring the car to a safe stop
lies in the range Sol. (a)
(a) 75 to 79 (b) 33 to 37 The most general case of second-order partial
(c) 41 to 45 (d) 126 to 130 differential equation
R
2 2 2
Sol. (a) u u u u u …(i)
A B C 2 D E fu G
x xy y x y
2
E
v
SSD = vt r Given DE is
2g( 0.01n)
2 2 2 2
f f x y
T
2 x y
5 2 2
2 …(ii)
60 x y
5 18
= 60 2.5 Comparing (i) and (ii)
18 2 9.81(0.6 0.7 0.01 2)
S
= 41.67 + 35.4 A = x and B = 0, C = y
S
11. The following figure shows the arrangement of
(c) 2x4 (d) 0x2
formwork for casting a cantilever RC beam.
E
Sol. (d)
Cantilever RC Beam
I
f(0) = 0 – 45 = Negative
RC Column
f(2) = 25 – 5 × 24 – 10 × 23 + 50 × 22 + 9 × 2 –
45
= 32 – 65 – 80 + 200 + 18 – 45 S1 S2 S3 S4 S5
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
Sol. (d) 0.75 < AC < 1.25 normal active
While removing the props, we need to ensure that AC > 1.25 active
the beam type does not change i.e. if it is a Active means more prone to volume change.
cantilever beam then the props shall be removed in
such a manner that the beam at the intermediate 13. Consider the data of f(x) given in the table.
stage also shows cantilever behaviour.
i 0 1 2
If we remove prop ‘S1’ first then tensile stress will
xi 1 2 3
be generated at the bottom and no structural
f(xi ) 0 0.3010 0.4771
reinforcement is there to take care of this tension.
So, correct order is S5 S4 S3 S2 S1 The value of f(1.5) estimated using second-order
R
Newton’s interpolation formula is ______ (rounded
Hence, the correct option is (d).
off to 2 decimal places).
E
12. Consider the statements P and Q.
Sol. (0.18)
P: Soil particles formed by mechanical weathering
x0 = 1, y0 = 0
T
and close to their origin are generally
subrounded. y1 y 0
0.3010
x1 x 0
S
Q: Activity of the clay physically signifies its swell
potential. y (1, 2) y (0, 1)
0.1249
Which one of the following options is CORRECT? x 2 x1
(a)
(b)
P IS FALSE AND Q is TRUE
Both P and Q are TRUE
A x1 = 2, y1 = 0.3010
y 2 y1
0.1761
M
x 2 x1
(c) P is TRUE and Q is FALSE
f(x) = y0 + y(0, 1)(x – x0) + y(0, 12)(x – x0)(x – x1)
(d) Both P and Q are FALSE
f(x) = 0 + 0.3010(x – 1) + (–0.1249) × (x – 1)(x – 2)
S
Sol. (a)
f(x) = 0.3010(x – 1) – 0.1249(x – 1)(x – 2)
Bulky particles are formed mostly by mechanical
f(1.5) = 0.3010 × (1.5 – 1) – 0.1249(1.5 – 1)(1.5 – 2)
E
weathering of rocks and minerals. Geologists
I
use such terms as angular, subangular, = 0.1505 + 0.03125 = 0.1817 0.18
subrounded and rounded to describe the shape
14. Among the following statements relating the
of bulky particles. Small sand particles located
fundamental lines of a transit theodolite, which one
close to their origin are generally very angular
is CORRECT?
sand particles carried by wind and water for a
long distance can be subangular to rounded in (a) The Vernier of vertical circle must read zero
shape. when the line of collimation is vertical.
Activity number of clay is used to study the (b) The axis of plate level must lie in a plane
swelling behaviour. parallel to the vertical axis.
Activity number (AC) (c) The line of collimation must be perpendicular
to the horizontal axis at its intersection with
Plasticity index the vertical axis.
=
% of clay sized particles in soil
(d) The axis of altitude lev el must be
perpendicular to the line of collimation.
AC < 0.75 inactive
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
Sol. (c) Specific gravity of soil (G) = 2.68
Line of collimation must be perpendicular to Moisture content (W) = 17%
horizontal axis.
Unit weight of water w = 10 kN/m3
15. Consider the statements P and Q. Dry unit weight d = ?
P: Client’s preliminary estimate is used for
Se = WG
budgeting costs toward the end of planning
and design phase. 0.75 × e = 0.17×2.68
Q: Client’s detailed estimate is used for controlling (e) void ratio = 0.607
costs during the execution of the project. We know that
Which one of the following options is CORRECT?
(a)
(b)
(c)
Both P and Q are TRUE
P is FALSE and Q is TRUE
Both P and Q are FALSE
d
1 e
E R
G w 2.68 10
1 0.607
(d)
Sol. (a)
P is TRUE and Q is FALSE
10 0 0
0 40 0 MPa
A
and their purposes: 0 0 0
Estimate type Purpose The maximum shear stress at the point is
Project proposal indicative Feasibility stage
M
cost estimate (a) 5 MPa (b) 20 MPa
Preliminary estimate Budgeting cost towards (c) 25 MPa (d) 15 MPa
end of planning and
design phase
Sol. (b)
S
Detailed estimate Controlling costs during
the execution of project 10 0 0 xx xy xz
Definitive estimate To asses cost at completion 0 40 0 yx yy yz
Final closure cost
estimate
I E
Final cost
2 2 3 3 1
max,abs max 1
2
,
2
,
2
zz
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
1 11 = 5.7C + q – q = 5.7C
(a) (b)
18 18 Since cohesion is given to be constant, net ultimate
17 14 bearing capacity will not change with water table
(c) (d) fluctuations.
18 18
Sol. (a, b)
R
(a) Primary air pollutants
4/9
1/3 (i) Particulate matter (PM)
E
1/6 (ii) Oxides of sulphur (SOx)
P(A B C) Probability that the student passes (iii) Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx)
is atleast one subject.
1 1 4 6 3 8 17
P(A B C) =
3 6 9 18
18
A
(b) Secondary air pollutants
19. A 2 m wide strip footing is founded at a depth of 1.5
(i) Ozone
m below the ground level in a homogeneous pure
clay bed. The clay bed has unit cohesion of 40 (ii) Formaldehyde
kPa. Due to seasonal fluctuations of water table
from peak summer to peak monsoon period, the
M
net ultimate bearing capacity of the footing, as per
(iii) PAN (peroxy acetyl nitrate)
(iv) Photo chemical smog
S
Terzaghi’s theory will (v) Acid rain
(a) increase (b) decrease Lead is a particulate matter (PM) and its main
E
source in atmosphere is automobiles.
(c) remain the same (d) become zero
I
SO2 is first abundant atmospheric contaminant
Sol. (c) in many cities. It is produced by chemical
interaction between sulphur and oxygen.
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
22. A 30 cm diameter well fully penetrates an unconfined 23. The following table gives various components of
aquifer of saturated thickness 20 m with hydraulic Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) and a list of
conductivity of 10 m/day. Under the steady pumping treatment/separation techniques.
rate for a long time, the drawdowns in two
Component of MSW
observation wells located at 10 m and 100 m from
the pumping well are 5 m and 1 m, respectively. P. Ferrous metals
The corresponding pumping rate (in m3/day) from Q. Aluminum and copper
the well is ______ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
R. Food waste
Sol. (1854.61) S. Cardboard
Given Treatment/separation technique
Radius of well (rw) = 15 cm
Hydraulic conductivity (k) = 10 m/day
(r1) distance of first observation well = 10m
i.
ii.
iii.
Incineration
R
Rapid composting
E
Eddy current separator
T
(r2) distance of second observation well = 100m iv. Magnetic separator
(S1) drawdown in first observation well = 5m The CORRECT match is
S
(S2) drawdown in second observation well = 1m (a) P-iv, Q-iii, R-i, S-ii
(H) thickness of unconfined aquifer/initial water table (b) P-iii, Q-iv, R-i, S-ii
A
height = 20m (c) P-iv, Q-iii, R-ii, S-i
(Q) puming rate/discharge (m3/day) =? (d) P-iii, Q-iv, R-ii, S-i
GL
S2
S1
M GWT
Sol. (c)
I. Various MSW separation techniques
(a) Screening process
S
h2 h1 20m=H
r2 (b) Size reduction process
E
r1 h Reduction in size of MSW can be done using
I
following mechanical devices:
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
It is carried out using magnetic separators. Sol. (a, d)
(e) Current separation process In a doubly reinforced balance section, the Ast and
It is the process of separating aluminium and Asc are such that the depth of neutral axis is xu,lim
copper from MSW. or xbal.
It is carried out using Eddy current separator. To make the above section an under-reinforced
section, the strength of compression side has to be
II. Various MSW treatment technique
increased compared to that of tension side.
(a) Sanitary landfills
This can be done by either increasing the amount
(b) Composting
of compression reinforcement or decreasing the
(c) Incineration amount of tension reinforcement.
24.
(d) Pyrolysis
Hence, correct option is (c).
E
The number of trains and their corresponding
speeds for a curved Broad Gauge section with 437
T
required. If 40 specimens of concrete cubes are to m radius are
be tested, the minimum number of specimens
20 trains travel at a speed of 40 km/hr
having at least 30 MPa strength should be
(a)
(c)
38
35
(b)
(d)
39
37
S
15 trains travel at a speed of 50 km/hr
12 trains travel at a speed of 60 km/hr
Sol. (a)
Characteristic strength = 30 MPa A
8 trains travel at a speed of 70 km/hr
3 trains travel at a speed of 80 km/hr
M
If the gauge (center-to-center distance between the
No. of cubes = 40 rail heads) is taken as 1750 mm, the required
Characteristic strength is the strength below which equilibrium cant (in mm) will be ________ (rounded
S
not more than 5% of the test results are expected off to the nearest integer).
to fall.
Sol. (88)
E
95% of the test results are having strength
20 40 15 50 12 60 8 70 3 80
I
characteristic strength. Veq =
20 15 12 8 3
0.95 × 40 = 38
= 52.93 km/hr
Hence, the correct option is (a).
2
GVeq
25. Consider a balanced doubly-reinforced concrete Equilibrium cant =
127 R
section. If the material and other sectional properties
remain unchanged, for which of the following cases 1.75 52.932
=
will the section becomes under-reinforced? 127 437
(a) Area of tension reinforcement is decreased. = 0.08834 m
(b) Area of compression reinforcement is 88.3 mm
decreased.
Closest integer = 88 mm < 165 mm
(c) Area of tension reinforcement is increased.
(d) Area of compression reinforcement is 27. Find the correct match between the plane stress
increased. states and the Mohr’s circles.
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
The magnitude of the reaction (in kN) at the pin
support L is _____ (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
P. I.
10 10 –10 Sol. (7.5)
10 kN
10
Q. 10 10 II. 10 kN
–10 D J RK
10
10
HA
R
HL
R. III.
10 RA RL
10
E
10
FV 0 RA + RL – 10 = 0 …(i)
T
S. IV.
10 10 10
–10 FH 0 HA + HL – RK + 10 = 0 …(ii)
10
(a)
(b)
P-I, Q-IV, R-III, S-II
P-III, Q-II, R-I, S-IV
S MA 0 10 × 2 + 10 × 5 – RL × 6 – RK × 2=0
A
…(iii)
(c) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV
BM at D = 0 RA × 2 – HA × 2 = 0 …(iv)
(d) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II
M
BM at J = 0 HL × 2 = 0 …(v)
Sol. (d)
From (v), HL = 0
28. The plane truss shown in the figure has 13 joints From (iv), RA =HA
S
and 22 members. The truss is made of a
From (ii), RA + 0 – RK + 10 = 0 RK = RA + 10
homogeneous, prismatic, linearly elastic material.
All members have identical axial rigidity. A to M From (iii), 70 – 6RL – 2(RA + 10) = 0
E
indicate the joints of the truss. The truss has pin
I
supports at joints A and L and roller support at joint
K. The truss is subjected to a 10 kN vertically
downward force at joint H and a 10 kN horizontal
force in the rightward direction at joint B as shown.
From (i),
50 – 6RL – 2RA = 0
2RA + 2RL – 20 = 0
… ( )
… ()
30 – 4RL = 0 R L 7.5 kN
I 10kN
1m
F
H 29. A homogeneous shaft PQR with fixed supports at
10kN B D J K 1m both ends is subjected to a torsional moment T at
1m point Q, as shown in the figure. The polar moments
E G of inertia of the portions PQ and QR of the shaft
1m
A C L M with circular cross-sections are J 1 and J 2 ,
respectively. The torsional moment reactions at the
2m 1m 1m 1m 1m 2m supports P and R are TP and TR, respectively.
(Figure NOT to scale)
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
L1 L2 1000
Vf K j 60
8
qmax = = 1875 veh/hr
4 4
J1 J2
31. The figure presents the trajectories of six vehicles
T
within a time-space domain. The number in the
parentheses represents unique identification of each
P Q R
vehicle.
(Figure NOT to scale) (1) (2)
500 (3)
If TP/TR = 4 and J1/J2 = 2, the ratio of the length 450
L1/L2 is
R
400 (4)
(a) 4.00 (b) 0.25 (5)
Distance (meters)
350
Sol. (c)
Tp
L1 L2
TR
T
250
200
150
100
E (6)
S
J1 T 50
J2
Q R 0 5 10 15 20 25 30
P
Time (seconds)
A
Given: (Figure NOT to scale)
QP RQ
M Sol. (57)
the nearest integer).
TP L1 TR L 2
J1 G1 G2 J2
E S Mean speed =
Total distance travelled
Total time taken
100 250 400 400 350 150
I
1 =
L T J G 10 15 30 25 15 10
1 R 1 1
L 2 TP J2 G2 = 15.714 m/sec
L1 1 1 = 56.57 km/h
2 0.50
L2 4 2 57 km/h
32. The initial cost of an equipment is Rs. 1,00,000. Its
30. The free mean speed is 60 km/hr on a given road.
salvage value at the end of accounting life of 5
The average space headway at jam density on this
years is Rs. 10,000. The difference in depreciation
road is 8 m. For a linear speed-density relationship,
(in Rs.) computed using ‘double-declining balance
the maximum flow (in veh/hr/lane) expected on the
method’ and ‘straight line method’ of depreciation
road is
in Year-2 is _______ (in positive integer).
(a) 2075 (b) 938
Sol. (6000)
(c) 1038 (d) 1875
Initial cost = 100000
Sol. (d)
Salvage value = 10,000
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
Accounting life = 5 years
q
(i) Depreciation using straight line method
Annual depreciation J.
H. y2
Initial cost – Salvage value y1 = 0.5 m
=
Accounting life or Service life Discharge = 7.5 m3/sec/m
R
method 1
In this method asset is assumed to loose its value Initial Froude number (Fr1)
by a fixed factor of the book value i.e. double the
E
v1 15
=
straight line rate. gy1 9.81 0.5
T
Fixed factor for double declining balance method = = 6.7729 > 1
FDDB
Let y2 be the sequent depth corresponding to initial
S
2 depth y1 = 0.5 m
FDDB = , here n = 5 years
n y2 1
= 1 8Fr12 1
y1 2
A
2
FDDB = = 0.4 y2 1
5 or 1 8 6.77292 1
y1 = 2
Depreciation for first year = FDDB × Initial cost
M
y2
or y1 = 9.0914
= 0.4 × 100000
= 40000 y2 = 0.5 × 9.0914 = 4.5457
S
Book value at end of 1st year = Initial cost – So, tail water depth after rounding off 2 decimal
Depreciation places = 4.55 m.
E
= 100000 – 40000
I
34. A bird is resting on a point P at a height of 8 m
= 60000
above the Mean Sea Level (MSL). Upon hearing a
Depreciation for 2nd year = 60000 × 0.4 = 24000 loud noise, the bird flies parallel to the ground
Difference in depreciation between double declining surface and reaches a point Q which is located at
balance and straight line method a height of 3 m above MSL. The ground surface
= 24000 – 18000 has a falling gradient of 1 in 2. Ignoring the effects
of curvature and refraction, the horizontal distance
= 6000
(in meters) between points P and Q is _____ (in
33. A spillway has unit discharge of 7.5 m3/s/m. The integer).
flow depth at the downstream horizontal apron is
Sol. (10)
0.5 m. The tail water depth (in meters) required to
form a hydraulic jump is _____ (rounded off to 2 P 2
1 5
decimal places).
8m Q
Sol. (4.55) 3m
MSL
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
Bird travelled parallel to ground and slope of ground V = 3iˆ (5x) ˆj
is given as 1 in 2.
In the context of the fluid and flow, which one of the
Horizontal distance 10 m. following statements is CORRECT?
35. The ordinates of a 1-hour unit hydrograph (UH) are (a) The fluid is incompressible and the flow is
given below. rotational.
(b) The fluid is incompressible and the flow is
3
Time (hours) Ordinates of 1-hour UH (m /s) irrotational.
0 0
(c) The fluid is compressible and the flow is
1 13
irrotational.
2 50
R
(d) The fluid is compressible and the flow is
3 80
rotational.
4 95
E
5 85 Sol. (a)
6 55
T
7 35 v = 3iˆ (5x) ˆj
8 15
Here, u = 3, v = (5x)
S
9 10
10 3 Check for incompressibility
11 0 u v (3) (5x)
A
0
x y x y
These ordinates are used to derive a 3-hour UH.
The peak discharge (in m3/s) for the derived 3-hour u v
Since, 0
UH is _______ (rounded off to the nearest integer).
M
x y
Fluid is incompressible.
Sol. (87)
Check for rotationality
t I II III
S
1h UH 1h UH 1h UH
lagged I + II + III 1 v u
lagged 3h UH =
by 1 hr by 2 hr 3 z = 2 x y
0 0 0
1
2
3
4
5
13
50
80
95
85
0
13
50
80
95
I E
0
13
50
80
13/3 = 4.33
63/3 = 21
47.6
75
86.67
=
1 (5x) (3)
= 2 x y
[5 0] 2.5 0
6 55 85 95
7 35 55 85
37. A vector field p and a scalar field r are given by
8 15
2 2 2 2
9 10 p (2x 3xy z )iˆ (2y 3yz x )ˆj
10 3 (2z 2 3xz x 2 ) kˆ
11 0
r = 6x2 + 4y2 – z2 – 9xyz – 2xy + 3xz – yz
Consider the statements P and Q.
36. A flow velocity field V : V(x, y) for a fluid is
represented by P: Curl of the gradient of the scalar field r is a
null vector.
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
Given: Emission standard (based on 11% oxygen)
Q: Divergence of curl of the vector field p is zero.
For HCl = 50 mg/Nm3
Which one of the following options is CORRECT?
Measured concentration of HCl and oxygen in flue
(a) Both P and Q are FALSE
gas are 42 mg/Nm3 and 13% respectively.
(b) Both P and Q are TRUE
As per CPCB,
(c) P is TRUE and Q is FALSE
Calculated emission concentration at the standard
(d) P is FALSE and Q is TRUE percentage oxygen concentration (ES)
Sol. (b) 21 OS
ES = EM
21 OM
Curl of gradient r
R
EM = Measured emission concentration at the
= Curl (r) standard percentage oxygen concentration
E
OS = Standard oxygen concentration
= r
OM = Measured oxygen concentration
T
= 0 ( curl of a gradient vector is the zero vector)
So,
Divergence of curl of the vector p
21 11
S
ES = 42 = 52.5 mg/Nm3 > 50 mg/Nm3
= ( p) 21 13
Here, no compliance as the corrected HCl emission
A
= 0 ( The divergence of the curl is zero in all is greater than the emission standard.
circumstances)
39. An inverted T-shaped concrete beam (B1) in the
38. For assessing the compliance with the emissions
M
figure, with centroidal axis X–X, is subjected to an
standards of incineration plants, a correction needs effective prestressing force of 1000 kN acting at
to be applied to the measured concentrations of air the bottom kern point of the beam cross-section.
pollutants. The emission standard (based on 11% Also consider an identical concrete beam (B2) with
S
Oxygen) for HCl is 50 mg/Nm3 and the measured the same grade of concrete but without any
concentrations of HCl and Oxygen in flue gas are prestressing force.
42 mg/Nm3 and 13%, respectively.
(a) I E
Assuming 21% oxygen in air, the CORRECT
statement is:
No compliance, as the Oxygen is greater than
11% in the flue gas.
2H
3
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
R
P Pe M1
= AZ Z
b b 1
1.5 y y
E
3 3 90° 1
1000 10 1000 10 M y 90°
1 1.5
=
A Zb Zb
For no crack, stress at bottom = f cr
1000 10
A
3
1000 10 100 M1
Zb
3
Zb
fcr
M
For no crack, stress at bottom = f cr
1
M
2 fcr …(ii) y 1.5
Zb
S
Also, for beam B1, without the moment M1
P Pe cot 1.5
0
E
A Zt 0.588 rad
I e
AZ
I
A Zt
t
e
0
I
2
Area (A) = y cot
A = 2.088y2
p = 2y cot
y
Zt R =
A= 2
e
Using chezy’s equation :
Zb (I/y b ) y t 2H
2 Q = AV = A C RS
Z t (I / y t ) y b 3(H/3)
Zt = 0.5Zb 2 y 1
20 = 2.088y 150
2 200
0.5Zb
A= 20 2 10
e y5/2 =
2.088 150
Adding equation (i) and (ii)
y = 1.102m
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
41. The total primary consolidation settlement (Sc) of a (a) –5, –1, 2 (b) –5, 1, 2
building constructed on a 10 m thick saturated clay (c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 5
layer is estimated to be 50 mm. After 300 days of
the construction of the building, primary Sol. (d)
consolidation settlement was reported as 10 mm. Sum of eigen values
The additional time (in days) required to achieve
= Trace (A)
50% of Sc will be _____ (rounded off to the nearest
integer). = 2+4+ 2= 8
Product of eigen values
Sol. (1575)
= det (A)
R
(Sc) Ultimate primary consolidation settlement =
= 2(8 – 1) – (2 – 1) + 1(1 – 4)
50mm
= 10
E
(Si) Consolidation settlement after 300 day = 10mm
Hence option (d) is correct.
(U) degree of consolidation at 10mm settlement
T
43. Activated carbon is used to remove a pollutant from
Si 100 10
U1 = 100 20% wastewater in a mixed batch reactor, which follows
Sc 50
S
first-order reaction kinetics.
(t1) time to achieve 10mm settlement = 300 days
At a reaction rate of 0.38/day, the time (in days)
Given, (U2) degree of consolidation = 50% required to remove the pollutant by 95% is _____
Tv
Cv t
d2
A (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
Sol. (7.9)
M
Tv t Let,
where, (Tv) time factor and (t) time needed to No = Number of pollutant present in waste water
achieve a particular degree of consolidation intially i.e. at t = 0
Tv1 t1
Tv2 t 2
2
I
Tv U for U 60% Treatment of activated carbon to remove pollutant
4
in mixed batch reactor follows 1st order kinetics.
U1 2 t
1,
So, i.e. N t No e kt …(i)
U2 2 t2
As, removal efficiency at any time ‘t’ = 95%
20 2 300
2
No Nt
50 t2 i.e. 100 95
No
(t 2) time needed to achieve 50% degree of
consolidation = 1875 days Nt
So, N 0.05
o
So, additional time needed = 1875 – 300
On putting in eq. (i)
1575 days
So, 0.05 = e–0.38t
2 1 1
1 4 1 On solving,
42. What are the eigenvalues of the matrix ?
1 1 2 t 7.88 days 7.9 days
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
44. A water treatment plant treats 25 MLD water with a Sol. (33.27)
natural alkalinity of 4.0 mg/L (as CaCO3). It is 4
estimated that, during coagulation of this water, 450 Axle load
VDF = EWLF =
kg/day of calcium bicarbonate (Ca(HCO 3)2) is Standard axle load
required based on the alum dosage. 4
12000
= 4.677
Consider the atomic weights as: Ca-40, H-1, C-12, 8160
O-16. A = P(1 + r)x
The quantity of pure quick lime, CaO (in kg) required = 800(1.04)5 = 973.322
for this process per day is _____ (rounded off to 2
decimal places). 365A((1 r)n 1)
CSA = LDF VDF
R
r
Sol. (155.55)
365 973.322[1.0415 1]
Given: = 1 4.677
E
0.04
Q = 25 MLD = 33.27 msa
T
Natural alkalinity = 4 mg/L as CaCO3 Assuming LDF to be 1.
Artificial alkalinity = 450 kg/day as Ca(HCO3)2
46. A soil sample was consolidated at a cell pressure
S
450 of 20 kPa and a back pressure of 10 kPa for 24
So, artificial alkalinity = 50 kg/day of CaCO3
81 hours during a consolidated undrained (CU) triaxial
A
Artificial alkalinity = 277.77 kg/day of CaCO 3 test. The cell pressure was increased to 30 kPa on
the next day and it resulted in the development of
Also, 1 kg/day of CaCO3 alkalinity requires 0.56 pore water pressure of 1 kPa. The soil sample failed
kg/day of quick lime. when the axial stress was gradually increased to
So,
Quantity of quick lime required
M 50 kPa. The pore water pressure at failure was
recorded as 21 kPa. The value of Skempton’s pore
pressure parameter B for the soil sample is _______
S
= 0.56 × 277.77 kg/day (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
45.
survey at a site:
I E
The following data is obtained from an axle load
10 kPa
20 kPa
The pavement at this site would be reconstructed
over a period of 5 years from the date of survey. 10 kPa
The design life of the reconstructed pavement is 15
(Initial condition)
years. Use the standard axle load as 8160 kg and
the annual average vehicle growth rate as 4.0%.
Assume that Equivalent Wheel Load Factor (EWLF)
and Vehicle Damage Factor (VDF) are equal. When the cell pressure was increased to 30 kPa
The cumulative standard axle (in msa) for the
3 = (30 – 20) = 10 kPa
pavement design is ______ (rounded off to 2
decimal places).
u1 = 1 kPa
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
u1 1 S
R 6.8 w
B = 10 0.1
3
4m F1
B 0.1 Q T 10
w
4m F2
47. A 5 m × 5 m closed tank of 10 m height contains 14 w
water and oil and is connected to an overhead water 2m
reservoir as shown in the figure. Use w = 10 kN/ 16 w
P U
m3 and specific gravity of oil = 0.8.
Considering force prism QRST
(6.8 10)
R
F1 = w 4 5 168 w 1680 kN
2
Considering force prism PQTU
8m
2m
4m
R
T
F2 =
(10 16)
2
E
w 6 5 3900 kN
S
Q
48. A infinite slope is made up of cohesionless soil with
2m seepage parallel to and up to the sloping surface.
The angle of slope is 30° with respect to horizontal
2m
5m
P
M
(Figure NOT to scale)
The minimum angle of shearing resistance of the
The total force (in kN) due to pressure on the side
soil (in degrees) for the critically stable condition of
PQR of the tank is _____ (rounded off to the nearest
the slope is ______ (rounded off to the nearest
S
integer).
integer).
Sol. (5580)
Sol. (49)
Considering PQR
Oil
I E R
Q
PR + 4 × (0.8w)
10w
Seepage is occuring upto the ground surface
WT
Cohesionless soil
Water
14w
P 30°
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
R
2 × 2 × 3 × 0.25 = 2 /s 1 /s t1sec 10 3
Angle of shearing resistance 49.106 49
2 2 3 0.25
E
t1 = sec 3000 sec
10 3
49. A 2 m × 2 m tank of 3 m height has inflow, outflow
Hence, at t1 = 3000 sec, ‘m’ is given by
T
and stirring mechanisms. Initially, the tank was half-
filled with fresh water. At t = 0, an inflow of a salt m
0.01(ln(6000 3000)) 0.081995
solution of concentration 5 g/m3 at the rate of 2 6000 3000
litre/s and an outflow of the well stirred mixture at
the rate of 1 litre/s are initiated. This process can
S m 81.49 gram
A
be modelled using the following differential equation:
50. The return period of a large earthquake for a given
dm m
0.01 region is 200 years. Assuming that earthquake
dt 6000 t
occurrence follows Poisson’s distribution, the
where, m is the mass (grams) of the salt at time t
(seconds). The mass of the salt (in grams) in the
tank at 75% of its capacity is ______ (rounded offM probability that it will be exceeded at least once in
50 years is ________ %. (rounded off to the nearest
integer).
S
to 2 decimal places).
Sol. (22)
Sol. (81.49)
E
T = 200 yrs
I
dm m
0.01 1
dt 6000 t =
200
1 dm m 0.01 Probability of non occurrence in 50 years
2
6000 t dt (6000 t) (6000 t)
t
= e
d m 0.01
dt 6000 t (6000 t) = 0.7788
Probability of occurrence atleast once = 1 – 0.7788
d m 0.01
dt 6000 t dt 6000 t dt = 0.2212
m 0.01 22.12%
d 6000 t 6000 t dt
51. W hich of the f ollowing statement(s) is/are
m CORRECT?
(0.01)ln(6000 t) c
6000 t
(a) Swell potential of soil decreases with an
g [2 2 3] 3
At t = 0, m = 5 m 30 g increase in the shrinkage limit.
m3 2
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
(b) In electrical resistivity tomography, the depth 53. A map is prepared with a scale of 1 : 1000 and a
of current penetration is half of the spacing contour interval of 1 m. If the distance between two
between the electrodes. adjacent contours on the map is 10 mm, the slope
of the ground between the adjacent contours is
(c) Both loose and dense sands with different
initial void ratios can attain similar void ratio (a) 35% (b) 30%
at large strain during shearing. (c) 10% (d) 40%
(d) Among the several corrections to be applied
to the SPT-N value, the dilatancy correction is Sol. (c)
applied before all other corrections. 1
Scale , horizontal distance on map = 10 mm
1000
Sol. (a, c)
=
10
Scale
E R
Horizontal distance between two contour on
10
1000
1
mm = 10 m
T
by air. Vertical 1m
Slope = 100 = 100 10%
Higher is the shrinkage limit lower is the Horizontal 10 m
S
compressibility (volume change).
54. A vertical smooth rigid retaining wall is supporting
Dilatancy correction is applied to the already horizontal ground with dry cohesionless backfill
A
corrected N-values for overburden pressure. having a friction angle of 30°. The inclinations of
At large value of shearing strain, both the initially failure planes with respect to the major principal
loose and initially dense sands approach a plane for Rankine’s active and passive earth
M
constant value of void ratio called critical void pressure conditions, respectively, are
ratio. (a) 30° and 30° (b) 60° and 60°
52. A slab panel with an effective depth of 250 mm is (c) 60° and 30° (d) 30° and 60°
S
reinforced with 0.2% main reinforcement using 8
mm diameter steel bars. The uniform center-to-
E
center spacing (in mm) at which the 8 mm diameter
Sol. (b)
I
bars are placed in the slab panel is _________
(rounded off to the nearest integer). For active state
z = 1 (Major principal stress)
Sol. (100) major principal plane
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Detailed Solution CE
04-02-2024 | FORENOON SESSION
c 60 Sol. (c)
q
For passive state A B C
Minor
z = 3
principal RA RB RC
plane (minor principal stress)
60° BM at hinge = 0
x = 1 = passive pressure
i.e. major principal stress
q 2
RA 0
2
Failure
plane Major principal plane q
RA upward i.e. (+)ve
R
2
Failure plane inclination with major principal plane
FV 0 RA + RB + RC = 2q
E
c 45
2 RB + RC = 2q R A
c 45
30
2
60
55.
is 60°
M
2
uniformly distributed downward load of intensity q q R C 0
between supports A and B.
R C q
q
S
R C q downward
E
hinge
I
R B 2.5 q upward i.e. (+)ve
l l l
Hence, correct answer is (c).
Considering the upward reactions as positive, the
support reactions are
5q q
(a) R A q; RB ; RC
2 2
q q
(b) RA ; RB q; RC
2 2
q 5q
(c) RA ; RB ; R C q
2 2
q 5q
(d) RA ; RB ; RC 0
2 2
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