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    Algebra Discussion Assignment Unit 4

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    zatunur.badar
    Discussion assignment for Algebra Course unit 4

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    Algebra Discussion Assignment Unit 4

    Uploaded by

    zatunur.badar
    4 views3 pages
    Discussion assignment for Algebra Course unit 4

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    Algebra Discussion Assignment unit 4

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    Discussion assignment for Algebra Course unit 4

    Copyright:

    © All Rights Reserved
    Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online from Scribd
    Download as docx, pdf, or txt
    4 views3 pages

    Algebra Discussion Assignment Unit 4

    Uploaded by

    zatunur.badar
    Discussion assignment for Algebra Course unit 4

    Copyright:

    © All Rights Reserved
    Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online from Scribd
    Download as docx, pdf, or txt
    You are on page 1of 3

    Hi Everyone,

    let's dive into our discussion:

     What happens if we graph both and on the same set of axes, using the x-
    axis for the input to both and ?

    When you graph a function and its inverse on the same set of axes, the graphs are
    symmetric with respect to the line y = x. The point of intersection is always on this line, and
    the graphs essentially swap x and y coordinates. The graph of appears on one side, and its
    reflection across y = x represents .

     My inverse function example:

    1. The graph for Function: \( f(x)=x^2-4\) {-4 < x < 0} is in Red


    2. The graph for the inverse which is: \( f(x) = - \sqrt{x+4} \) {-4 < x < 10} is in Blue
    3. The axis of symmetry is in Green
     Is it true that ? why?

    Since \( f(x) = x+1 \) & \( f^2 \circ f = f \circ f \), it makes:

    o \( f^2 = (x+1)+1 \)
    o \( f^2=x+2 \)

    Following:

    o \( f^2 \circ f = (x+1)+2 \)


    o \( f^2 \circ f = (x+3) \)
    As also we can asume:

    o \( f \circ f^2 = (x+2)+1 \)


    o \( f \circ f^2 = x+3 \)

    Since it is true that \( x+3 = x+3 \), \( f^2 \circ f = f \circ f^2 \).
    <LINE>

     Is the set { l } infinite? Why?

    The domain of \( g \circ f \) is dependent to the range of \( f(x) \): (\( -\inft, \inft \)) and that \
    ( g \circ f \) = \( f \circ g \) and \( g: R \rightarrow R \) is the reason that the domain \( f \circ g
    \) mus also be (\( -\inft, \inft \)) which is infinite.

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