GRE10-4

SECTION 1 (A) prolific

Time –30 minutes (B) sedentary
38 Questions (C) sluggish
(D) measured
1. Because the monkeys under study are ---- the (E) restive
presence of human beings, they typically ----
human observers and go about their business 6. Belying his earlier reputation for ---- as a negotiator,
(A) ambivalent about .. welcome Morgan had recently assumed a more ---- stance
(B) habituated to .. disregard for which many of his erstwhile critics praised him.
(C) pleased with .. snub (A) intransigence.. conciliatory
(D) inhibited by .. seek (B) impropriety.. intolerant
(E) unaware of .. avoid (C) inflexibility.. unreasonable
(D) success.. authoritative
2. Give he previously expressed interest and the (E) incompetence.. combative
ambitious tone of her recent speeches, the senator's
attempt to convince the public that she is not inter- 7. Although Irish literature continued to flourish after
ested in running for a second term is ----. the sixteenth century, a ---- tradition is ----
(A) laudable in the visual arts: we think about Irish culture in terms of
(B) likely the word, not in terms of pictorial images.
(C) authentic (A) rich.. superfluous
(D) futile (B) lively.. found
(E) sincere (C) comparable.. absent
(D) forgotten.. apparent
3. Many of her followers remain ---- to her, and (E) lost.. extant
even those who have rejected her leadership are
unconvinced of the ---- of replacing her during 8. SILVER: TARNISH::
the current turmoil. (A) gold: burnish
(A) opposed.. urgency (B) steel: forge
(B) friendly.. harm (C) iron: rust
(C) loyal.. wisdom (D) lead: cast
(D) cool.. usefulness (E) tin: shear
(E) sympathetic.. disadvantage
9. DISLIKE: LOATHING::
4. Unlike many recent interpretations of Beethoven's (A) appreciation: gratification
piano sonatas, the recitalist's performance was a (B) hunger: appetite
delightfully free and introspective one; nevertheless, (C) void: dearth
it was also, seemingly paradoxically, quite ----. (D) pleasure: bliss
(A) appealing (E) pain: ache
(B) exuberant
(C) idiosyncratic 10. CRAVEN: HEROIC::
(D) unskilled (A) unruly: energetic
(E) controlled (B) listless: attractive
(C) volatile: constant
5. Species with relatively ---- metabolic rates, including (D) deft: trifling
hibernators, generally live longer than those whose (E) awkward: amusing
metabolic rates are more rapid.
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11. FILLY: HORSE:: (5) published, copyrighted, and sold by professionals. Never-
(A) antennae: butterfly theless, improvisation remained central to gospel music.
(B) pullet: chicken One has only to listen to the recorded repertoire of gospel
(C) gaggle: goose songs to realize that Black gospel singers rarely sang a
(D) duck: drake song precisely the same way twice and never according to
(E) wasp: bee (10)its exact musical notation. They performed what jazzmusi-
cians call "head arrangements" proceeding from their own
12. PITHINESS: APHORISM:: feelings and from the way "the spirit" moved them at the
(A) craft: art time. This improvisatory element was reflected in the man-
(B) detail: sketch ner in which gospel music was published. Black gospel
(C) illusion: story (15)composers scored the music intended for White singing
(D) exaggeration: caricature groups fully, indicating the various vocal parts and the
(E) sophistication: farce accompaniment, but the music produced for Black singers
included only a vocal line and piano accompaniment.
13. EPHEMERAL: ENDURING::
(A) infirm: healing 17.Which of the following best describes "head arrange-
(B) insensitive: cooperating ment" as the term is used in line 11?
(C) inanimate: living (A) A published version of a gospel song produced for
(D) interminable: continuing use by Black singers
(E) ineffectual: proceeding (B) A gospel song based on a slave spiritual
(C) A musical score shared by a gospel singer and a
14. POSTURER: UNAFFECTED:: jazz musician
(A) brat: insolent (D) An informally written composition intended for
(B) hypocrite: perceptive use by a gospel singer
(C) grouch: respected (E) An improvised performance inspired by the
(D) bigot: tolerant singer's emotions
(E) rogue: empathetic
18.The author mentions "folk fashion" (line 4) most likely
15. FACETIOUS: SPEECH:: in order to
(A) precocious: learning (A) counter an assertion about the role of improvi-
(B) unbecoming: color sation in music created by Black people
(C) exemplary: conduct (B) compare early gospel music with gospel music
(D) craven: timidity written later in the twentieth century
(E) antic: behavior (C) make a distinction between gospel music and
slave spirituals
16. VAGARY: PREDICT:: (D) introduce a discussion about the dissemination of
(A) quotation: misdirect slave spirituals
(B) investigation: confirm (E) describe a similarity between gospel music and
(C) stamina: deplete slave spirituals
(D) turbulence: upset
(E) impossibility: execute 19.The passage suggests which of the following about
Black gospel music and slave spirituals?
This is not to deny that the Black gospel music of the (A) Both became widely known in the early twentieth
early twentieth century differed in important ways from the century.
slave spirituals. Whereas spirituals were created and dis- (B) Both had an important improvisatory element.
seminated in folk fashion, gospel music was composed, (C) Both were frequently performed by jazz
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GRE10-4
musicians. chemistry, such a transition can be accomplished only by
(D) Both were published with only a vocal line and going over the potential barrier between the wells, the
piano accompaniment. height of which remains constant and is called the activa-
(E) Both were disseminated chiefly by Black singing tion energy of the reaction. In tunneling, the reacting mole-
groups. (30)cules tunnel from the bottom of one to the bottom of another
well without having to rise over the barrier between the
20.Of the following sentences, which is most likely to twowells.Recently researchers havedeveloped theconcept
have immediately preceded the passage? of tunneling temperature: the temperature below which
(A) Few composers of gospel music drew on traditions tunneling transitions greatly outnumber Arrhenius transi-
such as the spiritual in creating their songs. (35)tions, and classical mechanics gives way to its quantum
(B) Spirituals and Black gospel music were derived counterpart.
from the same musical tradition. This tunneling phenomenon at very low temperatures
(C) The creation and singing of spirituals, practiced by suggested my hypothesis about a cold prehistory of life:
Black Americans before the Civil War, continued the formation of rather complex organic molecules in the
after the war. (40)deep cold of outerspace, wheretemperaturesusually reach
(D) Spirituals and gospel music can be clearly only a few degrees Kelvin. Cosmic rays (high-energy pro-
distinguished from one another. tons and other particles) might trigger the synthesis of
(E) Improvisation was one of the primary charac - simple molecules, such as interstellar formaldehyde, in
teristics of the gospel music created by Black dark clouds of interstellar dust. Afterward complex organic
musicians. (45)molecules would be formed, slowly but surely, by means
of tunneling. After I offered my hypothesis, Hoyle and
About a century ago, the Swedish physical scientist Wickramasinghe argued that molecules of interstellar form-
Arrhenius proposed a law of classical chemistry that relates aldehyde have indeed evolved into stable polysaccharides
chemical reaction rate to temperature. According to the such as cellulose and starch. Their conclusions, although
Arrhenius equation, chemical reaction are increasingly (50)strongly disputed, have generated excitement among inves-
(5) unlikely to occur as temperatures approach absolute zero, tigators such as myself who are proposing that the galactic
and at absolute zero (zero degrees Kelvin, or minus 273 clouds are the places where the prebiological evolution of
degrees Celsius) reactions stop. However, recent experi- compounds necessary to life occurred.
mental evidence reveals that although the Arrhenius equa-
tion is generally accurate in describing thekind of chemical 21.The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(10)reaction that occurs at relatively high temperatures, at tem- (A) describing how the principles of classical chem-
peratures closer to zero a quantum- mechanicaleffect known istry were developed
as tunneling comes into play; this effect accounts for chem- (B) initiating a debate about the kinds of chemical
ical reactions that are forbidden by the principles of classi- reactions required for the development of life
cal chemistry. Specifically, entire molecules can "tunnel" (C) explaining how current research in chemistry may be
(15)through the barriers of repulsive forces from other mole- related to broader biological concerns
cules and chemically react even though these molecules do (D) reconciling opposing theories about chemical reac-
not have sufficient energy, according to classical chemistry, tions
to overcome the repulsive barrier. (E) clarifying inherent ambiguities in the laws of clas-
The rate of any chemical reaction, regardless of the tem- sical chemistry
(20)perature at which it takes place, usually depends on a very
important characteristic known as its activation energy. Any 22.According tothe passage, classical chemical reactions
molecule can be imagined to reside at the bottom of a so- and tunneling reactions are alike in which of the fol-
called potential well of energy. A chemical reaction corre- lowing ways?
sponds to the transition of a molecule from the bottom of (A) In both types of reactions, reacting molecules have
(25)one potential well to the bottom of another. In classical to rise over the barrier between the two wells.
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GRE10-4
(B) In both types of reactions, a transition is made (E)Classical chemical reactions do not occur at tem-
from the bottom of one potential well to the peratures close to absolute zero.
bottom of another.
(C) In neither type of reaction does the height of the 26.Which of the following best describes the hypothesis
barrier between the wells remain constant. of Hoyle and Wickramasinghe as it is presented in the
(D) In neither type of reaction does the rate of a passage?
chemical reaction depend on its activation (A) Cosmic rays can directly synthesize complex
energy. organic molecules.
(E) In both types of reactions, reacting molecules are (B) The galactic clouds are the places where prebio-
able to go through the barrier between the two wells. logical evolution of compounds necessary to life
occurred.
23. According to the Arrhenius equation as discussed in (C) Interstellar formaldehyde can be synthesized by
the passage, which of the following statements about tunneling.
chemical reactions is true? (D) Molecules of interstellar formaldehyde can evolve
(A) Chemical reactions are less likely to occur at tem- into complex organic molecules.
peratures close to absolute zero. (E) Complex organic molecules can be synthesized
(B) In some cases the rate of a chemical reaction is from stable polysaccharides such as cellulose and
related to temperature and in other cases it is starch.
not.
(C) Chemical reactions frequently occur at a few 27.Which of the following best describes the organization
degrees above absolute zero, but they are very of the first two paragraphs of the passage?
unpredictable. (A) The author cites a basic principle of classical
(D) The rate of a chemical reaction depends on many chemistry and then describes the research from
other factors besides temperature. which that principle was developed.
(E) Chemical reaction rate and temperature are not (B) The author cites an apparent contradiction to
related. the principles of classical chemistry and then
explains the process of a chemical reaction to
24.The author's attitude toward the theory of a cold pre- show there is in fact no contradiction.
history of life can best be described as (C) the author describes the role of heat in chemical
(A) neutral reactions and then offers a detailed explanation
(B) skeptical of its function.
(C) mildly positive (D) The author presents a law of classical chemistry in
(D) very supportive order to introduce a kind of chemical reaction
(E) pointedly critical that differs from it and then explains the essen-
tial difference between the two.
25.The author's hypothesis concerning be cold prehistory (E) The author presents the fundamental rules of clas-
of life would be most weakened if which of the follow- sical chemistry in order to introduce an explana-
ing were true? tion of a specific chemical reaction.
(A)Cosmic rays are unlikely to trigger the formation of
simple molecules. 28. PREFACE:
(B)Tunneling occurs only in a narrow band of tem- (A) improvisation
peratures around zero degrees Kelvin. (B) burlesque
(C)The synthesis of inter stellar formaldehyde can be (C) epilogue
activated by means other than cosmic rays. (D) tangent
(D)Simple molecules can be synthesized by means of (E) backdrop
tunneling.
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29. DEBILITATE: (E) thrive
(A) implicate
(B) invigorate 36. ENNUI:
(C) obfuscate (A) intimidation
(D) realign (B) sleaze
(E) encumber (C) faint recollection
(D) keen interest
30. TASTY: (E) deep reservation
(A) uninteresting
(B) unfamiliar 37.DAUNTLESS:
(C) unexpected (A) sophomoric
(D) understated (B) trifling
(E) undervalued (C) pusillanimous
(D) specious
31. ABNEGATE: (E) parsimonious
(A) refresh
(B) reaffirm 38.TEMERITY:
(C) relieve (A) credibility
(D) react (B) authority
(E) reform (C) celebrity
(D) acrimony
32. SERRIED: (E) circumspection
(A) partially formed
(B) widely separated
(C) narrowly missed
(D) extremely grateful
(E) reasonably clean

33. BOMBASTIC:
(A) unflappable
(B) uninspired
(C) unpretentious
(D) inscrutable
(E) incisive

34. BANAL:
(A) comfortable
(B) novel
(C) equal
(D) fatal
(E) competent
35. LANGUISH:
(A) agitate
(B) wander
(C) relieve
(D) discomfit
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GRE10-4
SECTION 2 (C)The warrior is depicted in the portrait as wearing
Time –30 minutes boots made of a material not used for boots
25 Questions until the 1700's ．
(D)Some other art treasures from the church in
1. Drug companies lose money when manufacturing which the tomb is located have been reliable
drugs that cure those suffering from rare diseases dated to the 1400's．
because selling a drug to only a few people usually (E)The portrait of the warrior on the tomb strongly
does not recoup manufacturing expenses ．Therefore, resembles a portrait of him known to have
a company manufacturing any of the drugs that cure been completed during his lifetime．
those suffering from loxemia, an extremely rare
disease, will undoubtedly lose money ． Questions 3-7
A florist is designing flower arrangements containing two
Which of the following, if true, most seriously
or more varieties of flowers selected from among six
weakens the conclusion above？
varieties of flowers：freesias, irises, lilies, peonies, tulips,
(A)Several drugs that cure those suffering from
and zinnias．All acceptable arrangements conform to the
loxemia also cure those suffering from very
following conditions：
common illnesses ．
(B)Most of those who contract loxemia also con- If an arrangement contains any freesias, it cannot
tract another illness concurrently ． contain any zinnias．
(C)Most of the drug companies that manufacture If an arrangement contains any tulips, it cannot
drugs that cure rare diseases do not manufac- contain any zinnias．
ture drugs that cure loxemia ． If an arrangement contains any peonies, it must also
(D)A sizable number of people are afflicted with contain at least one zinnia, and there must be
one or another rare disease even though each exactly as many zinnias as peonies ．
rare disease afflicts only a small number of If an arrangement contains any irises, it must alsocontain
people ． tulips, and there must be twice as many tulips as irises.
(E)The larger the amount of a drug that is manu- If an arrangement contains freesias, the number of
factured, the lower the manufacturing expense freesias must be greater than the total number of
for each unit of the drug that is produced． other flowers used ．

2.The tomb of a warrior killed in 1501 bears a sculpted 3. Which of the following flower arrangements could be
portrait depicting him dressed for battle ．Some his- made acceptable simply by adding a tulip ？
torians attribute the portrait to an artist from that (A)Three freesias, one lily, two tulips
century, but of the many references to the tomb in (B)Four freesias, two peonies, one tulip
surviving documents, none that predates the 1800's (C)Five freesias, one iris, one tulip
mentions the portrait．The portrait is therefore more (D)Two irises, two tulips, two zinnias
likely the work of a much later artist ． (E)Two lilies, two peonies, two tulips

Which of the following, if true, would also support

4.Which of the following, if added to an unacceptable
the conclusion of the argument if substituted for the
flower arrangement consisting of four tulips and two
evidence given concerning the portrait ？
freesias, would make the arrangement acceptable ？
(A)The portrait of the warrior was commissioned by
(A)Four freesias
the family of the warrior's widow ．
(B)Four irises
(B)References in surviving documents mention that
(C)Two lilies
an artist was paid in 1525 for an unspecified
(D)Two peonies
number of works for the church in which the
(E)Two zinnias
tomb is located
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an undesirable situation in order to let the child think Questions 12-15
things over．Over the last two decades, family doctors
have been advocating this technique as preferable to An art museum owns six paintings by an eighteenth-
spanking, which is now known to be potentially injurious century painter ．The paintings, listed in order by esti-
and no more effective． mated value from lowest to highest, are F, G, H, S, T,
and U．Paintings F, G, and H are landscapes; S, T, and U
10.Which of the following can properly be concluded are portraits．At any one time, exactly three of the six
from the data presented in the graph？ paintings are on exhibit, subject to the following
(A)The 1962 survey was based on a larger sample restrictions:
than the 1992 survey was．
(B)In the period between the surveys, denying tele- The paintings on exhibit cannot all be landscapes ．
vision privileges was never the disciplinary If the exhibit includes only one portrait, that portrait
technique most popular with parents ． must be U．
(C)The four disciplinary techniques featured in the H cannot be on exhibit at any time that T is on exhibit.
graph were the only disciplinary techniques
named by parents in either survey． 12.Which of the following could be the three paintings
(D)The 1962 survey allowed parents to name more on exhibit at some point？
than one disciplinary technique, but the 1992 (A)F, G, and H
survey may not have allowed this ． (B)F, G, and T
(E)In the period between the surveys, there were (C)G, H, and S
no significant changes in the popularity of lec- (D)G, S, and U
turing children as a disciplinary method． (E)H, T, and U

11.People who engage in scuba diving are healthier, on 13.Which of the following, if they are the first two
average, than people who do not engage in this paintings selected for inclusion in a future exhibit,
activity．Therefore, scuba diving tends to promote leave the widest choice of paintings for the third
improved health． painting in that future exhibit ？
(A)F and G
The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the (B)G and H
grounds that it (C)H and U
(A)presupposes that everyone who takes up scuba (D)S and T
diving does so solely for health reasons (E)S and U
(B)leads to a further and falsifiable conclusion that
no one can achieve good health without 14.An exhibit must include S if which of the following
engaging in scuba diving is true？
(C)fails to point out that a small number of people (A)T is included in the exhibit ．
are seriously injured in scuba diving accidents (B)T is not included in the exhibit ．
each year (C)H is the only landscape included in the exhibit ．
(D)treats a precondition for improving one's health (D)U is included in the exhibit ．
as though it were something that by itself (E)The exhibit includes either F or G, but not both．
could ensure good health
(E)overlooks the possibility that people generally do 15.If U is undergoing restoration and is not available to
not take up scuba diving unless they are in be exhibited, which of the following is a painting that
good health CANNOT then be exhibited？
(A)F
(B)G
91
GRE10-4
(C)H 19.If G cooks a meal on some day before L does, then it
(D)S must be true that
(E)T (A)G cooks the second meal
(B)J cooks the third meal
Questions 16-22 (C)H cooks the fourth meal
(D)K cooks the fifth meal
In each of the five consecutive days of a cooks' con- (E)L cooks the fourth meal
tention, exactly one of five well-known cooks? G, H, J,
K, and L? will cook a demonstration meal．Each of the 20.If J does not cook on the first day, then it must be
five cooks will cook exactly one of the five meals．The true that
schedule for the cooks is constrained by the following (A)G does not cook the third meal
conditions： (B)H does not cook the fourth meal
(C)J does not cook the second meal
H cannot cook on any of the first three days ． (D)L does not cook the third meal
L must cook on one of the days before the day on (E)K does not cook the fifth meal
which H cooks ．
J must cook on one of the days before the day on 21.If H does not cook the fifth meal, which of the fol-
which G cooks ． lowing must be true？
G must cook on one of the days before the day on (A)G cooks the second meal．
which K cooks ． (B)J cooks the first meal．
(C)J cooks the second meal．
16.Which of the following can be the order, from first to (D)K cooks the fifth meal．
fifth, in which the five cooks cook the meals？ (E)L cooks the first meal．
(A)G, K, L, J, H
(B)J, G, K, H, L 22.If G cooks the third meal, which of the following
(C)J, G, K, L, H is true？
(D)J, K, G, L, H (A)L is the only one of the five cooks who can
(E)L, J, H, K, G cook the first meal．
(B)J is the only one of the five cooks who can
cook the second meal．
17.If K cooks the fourth meal, which of the following (C)Any one of exactly three of the five cooks can
must be true？ cook the second meal．
(A)G cooks on the third day． (D)K is the only one of the five cooks who can
(B)H cooks on the fifth day． cook the fourth meal．
(C)J cooks on the first day． (E)Either one of exactly tw o of the five cooks can
(D)J cooks on the second day ． cook the fifth meal．
(E)L cooks on the third day．
23.Which of the following most logically completes the
18.Which of the following can be true？ argument below ？
(A)G cooks the first meal．
(B)J cooks the fourth meal． In recent years, the proportion of car buyers who buy
(C)L cooks the fifth meal． new cars rather than used cars has declined．Some
(D)H cooks on some day before G cooks． consumers have attributed this change to an increase
(E)L cooks on some day after K cooks ． in new-car prices．As evidence of the price increase,
they cite figures that show that, even adjusting for
inflation, the price that the buyer of a new car pays,
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GRE10-4
on average, is far higher now than a few years ago． minimum and the maximum sentences allowed
This evidence is unpersuasive, however, because by law in cases of crimes now subject to man-
(A)the value of a car that is bought new declines datory sentences ．
much more rapidly than does the value of a (E)In Bassaria judges are appointed for life and are
car that is bought used thus not easily influenced by political pressure
(B)after someone has bought a car, it might be groups ．
several years before that person next buys
a car 25.Each of two particular inspection systems that are based
(C)a dec line in the proportion of car buyers who on different principles would detect all product flaws but
buy new cars must necessarily mean that the would also erroneously reject three percent of flawless
proportion who buy used cars has increased products ．Assuming there is no overlap between the
(D)the relative increase in used-car sales might be products erroneously rejected by the two systems and
explained by the decisions of only a small also no interference between the systems if both operate,
proportion of all car buyers using both systems and rejecting only those products
(E)the change in the average price paid for a new found flawed by both would be a way of avoiding all
car could result solely from more people's erroneous rejections．
rejecting inexpensive new cars in favor of used
cars Which of the following most precisely characterizes the
reasoning in the argument？
24.In Bassaria a group of that country's most senior (A)The reasoning is conclusive, that is, the conclusion
judges has criticized the uniform mandatory sentences cannot be false if the statements offered in its
recently introduced for certain specific crimes．The support are true．
judges argue that such sentences, by depriving them (B)The reasoning is strong but not conclusive, if the
of all discretion in setting sentences, make it impos- statements offered in support of the conclusion
sible for them to consider either aggravating or exten- are
uating circumstances and so make it impossible to true, they provide good grounds for that conclu-
achieve true justice? the fitting of the severity of the sion, though it is possible that additional infor-
punishment to the gravity of the particular crime． mation might weaken the argument．
Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest (C)The reasoning is weak; the statements offered in
evidence for the claim that in Bassaria the newly support of the conclusion, though relevant to it,
introduced mandatory sentences are not necessarily a by themselves provide at best inadequate grounds
change for the worse with respect to achieving true for the conclusion．
justice as defined in the argument？ (D)The reasoning is flawed in that the conclusion is no
(A)Before mandatory sentencing, judges in eastern more than a paraphrase of one of the pieces of
Bassaria imposed strikingly different sentences evidence offered in its support ．
from those in western Bassaria for equally (E)The reasoning is flawed in that the argument treats
grave instances of the same kind of offense． evidence that a factor is necessary to bring about
(B)In Bassaria the frequency of crimes that have an event as if it were evidence that the factor is
been made subject to mandatory sentences is sufficient to bring about that event ．
lower now than it was just prior to the intro-
duction of mandatory sentencing．
(C)The law introducing mandatory sentences was
passed in the legislature of Bassaria by a large
majority and is unlikely to be repealed in the
foreseeable future．
(D)There used to be a wide difference between the
93
GRE10-4
(E) It cannot be determined from the information 4
(A)
given. 3
3
(B)
22. What percent of the sample made fewer than 4 errors? 2
(A) 17% 7
(C)
(B) 24% 3
(C) 39% 5
(D)
(D) 41% 2
(E) 58% 8
(E)
3
23. If 40 employees in the sample made exactly 5 error,
what was the total number of employees in the 27. Circular region C has a radius of 1 centimeter and a
sample? circumference of x centimeters: If the region has an
(A) 800 area of y square centimeters, what is the ratio of x to
(B) 600 y?
(C) 500 (A) 2
(D) 400 1
(B)
(E) 200 2
(C) 2p
24. If those employees who made 6 or more errors were (D) p
removed from the sample and an employee were 1
(E)
selected at random from those remaining, what is the
probability that the employee selected made no
errors?
28. If 2.5 10 5 cubic feet of earth are to be removed
1
(A)
11 in constructing a tunnel in the shape of a right
1 circular cylinder 20 feet in diameter, what will be
(B)
22 the length, in feet, of the tunnel?
1 (A) 25,000
(C)
39 (B) 12,500
1 (C) 5,000
(D)
50 (D) 2,500
1 (E) 1,250
(E)
78
29. One adult and 10 children are on an elevator. If the
25. What was the median number of errors in the sample? adult's weight is 4 times the average (arithmeuc
(A) 3 mean) weight of the children, the adult's weight is
(B) 3.5 what fraction of the total weight of the 11 people on
(C) 4 the elevator?
(D) 4.5 1
(A)
(E) It cannot be determined from the information 11
given. 1
(B)
4
26. In the rectangular coordinate system above, if P, not 2
(C)
shown, is a point on AB and if the x-coordinate of P 7
is 1, what is the y-coordinate of P?
96
GRE10-4
4 SECTION 4
(D)
11 Time-30 minutes
2 38 Questions
(E)
5
1. Although sales have continued to increase since last
5 April, unfortunately the rate of increase has ----.
0 .2
30. = (A) resurged
((0.2) 3 ) 2
(B) capitulated
(A) 0.05 (C) retaliated
(B) 0.5 (D) persevered
(C) 4.0 (E) decelerated
(D) 2.0
(E) 5.0 2. Although the mental process that creates a fresh and
original poem or drama is doubtless ---- that which
originates and elaborates scientific discoveries, there
is clearly a discernible difference between the crea-
tors
(A) peripheral to
(B) contiguous with
(C) opposed to
(D) analogous to
(E) inconsistent with

3. It is disappointing to note that the latest edition of

the bibliography belies its long-standing reputation
for ---- by ---- some significant references to
recent publications.
(A) imprecision.. appropriating
(B) relevance.. adding
(C) timeliness.. updating
(D) meticulousness.. revising
(E) exhaustiveness.. omitting

4. Although Simpson was ingenious at ---- to appear

innovative and spontaneous, beneath the ruse he
remained uninspired and rigid in his approach to
problem-solving.
(A) intending
(B) contriving
(C) forbearing
(D) declining
(E) deserving

5. She was criticized by her fellow lawyers not because

she was not ----, but because she so ---- pre-
pared her cases that she failed to bring the expected
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GRE10-4
number to trial.
(A) well versed.. knowledgeably 11. EQUIVOCATION: MISLEADING::
(B) well trained.. enthusiastically (A) mitigation: severe
(C) congenial.. rapidly (B) advice: peremptory
(D) hardworking.. minutely (C) bromide: hackneyed
(E) astute.. efficiently (D) precept: obedient
(E) explanation: unintelligible
6. Schlesinger has recently assumed a conciliatory atti-
tude that is not ---- by his colleagues, who con- 12. CENSORSHIP: COMMUNICATION::
tinue to ---- compromise. (A) propaganda: ideology
(A) eschewed.. dread (B) preservative: decay
(B) shared.. defend (C) revision: accuracy
(C) questioned.. reject (D) rest: atrophy
(D) understood.. advocate (E) exercise: fitness
(E) commended.. disparage
13. BUS: PASSENGERS:
7. The National Archives contain information so ---- (A) flock: birds
that researchers have been known never to publish (B) tanker: liquid
because they cannot bear to bring their studies to an (C) envelope: letter
end. (D) bin: coal
(A) divisive (E) automobile: gasoline
(B) seductive
(C) selective 14. BALLAD: STANZA::
(D) repetitive (A) novel: chapter
(E) resourceful (B) poem: meter
(C) play: dialogue
8. HILL: MOUNTAIN:: (D) movie: script
(A) grass: rocks (E) photograph: caption
(B) autumn: winter
(C) creek: river 15. DISABUSE: FALLACY::
(D) star: sun (A) cure: disease
(E) cliff: slope (B) persevere: dereliction
(C) belittle: imperfection
9. AERATE: OXYGEN:: (D) discredit: reputation
(A) eclipse: light (E) discern: discrimination
(B) desiccate: moisture
(C) precipitate: additive 16. BLANDISHMENT: CAJ OLE::
(D) hydrate: water (A) prediction: convince
(E) striate: texture (B) obstacle: impede
(C) embellishment: praise
10. ORCHESTRA: MUSICIAN: (D) deficiency: compensate
(A) cube: side (E) compliment: exaggerate
(B) kilometer: meter
(C) sonnet: poem Although the hormone adrenaline is known to regulate
(D) biped: foot memory storage, it does not pass from the blood into brain
(E) pack: wolf cells. We are faced with an apparent paradox: how can a
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GRE10-4
hormone that does not act directly on the brain have such a (D) The ways that memory storage modifies the struc-
(5)large effect on brain function? ture of the brain
Recently, we tested the possibility that one of the (E) The kinds of training used to test memory enhance-
hormone's actions outside the brain might be responsible. ment in rats
Since one consequence of adrenaline release in an animal
is an increase in blood glucose levels, we examined the 20.The author refers to the results of the experiment using
(10)effects of glucose on memory in rats. We found that glu- adrenergic antagonists as "negative findings" (line 13)
cose injected immediately after training enhances memory most likely because the adrenergic antagonists
tested the next day. Additional evidence was provided by (A) failed to disrupt adrenaline's effect on memory
negative findings: drugs called adrenergic antagonists, (B) did not affect glucose's ability to enhance memory.
which block peripheral adrenaline receptors, disrupted (C) did not block adrenaline's ability to increase blood
(15)adrenaline's ability to regulate memory but did not affect glucose levels
memory enhancements produced by glucose that was not (D) only partially affected adrenaline's ability to
stimulated by adrenaline. These results are as they should enhance memory
be if adrenaline affects memory modulation by increasing (E) disrupted both adrenaline's and glucose's effect
blood glucose levels. on memory

17.The primary purpose of the passage is to The age at which young children begin to make moral
(A) reconcile two opposing theories discriminations about harmful actions committed against
(B) compare two different explanations for a phe- themselves or others has been the focus of recent research
nomenon into the moral development of children. Until recently,
(C) describe experimental research that appears to (5)child psychologists supported pioneer developmentalist Jean.
support an unpopular theory Piaget in his hypothesis that because of their immaturity,
(D) present evidence that may help to resolve an children under age seven do not take into account the inten-
apparent contradiction tions of a person committing accidental or deliberate harm,
(E) describe a hypothesis that has cause a con- but rather simply assign punishment for transgressions on
troversy (10)the basis of the magnitude of the negative consequences
caused. According to Piaget, children under age seven
18.It can be inferred from the passage that the author occupy the first stage ofmoral development, which is char-
would most likely describe the "additional evidence" acterized by moral absolutism (rules made by authorities
(line 12) provided by experiments with adrenergic must be obeyed) and imminent justice (if rules are broken,
antagonists as (15)punishment will be meted out). Until young children mature,
(A) revolutionary their moral judgments are based entirely on the effect
(B) disappointing rather than the cause of a transgression. However, in recent
(C) incomplete research, Keasey found that six- year-old children not only
(D) unexpected distinguish between accidental and intentional harm, but
(E) corroborative (20)also judge intentional harm as naughtier, regardless of the
amount of damage produced. Both of these findings seem
19.The passage provides information about which of the to indicate that children, at an earlier age than Piaget
following topics? claimed, advance into the second stage of moral develop-
(A) The mechanism by which glucose affects memory ment, moral autonomy, in which they accept social rules
storage (25)but view them as more arbitrary than do children in the
(B) The evidence that prompted scientist to test the first stage.
effects of adrenaline on memory regulation Keasey's research raises two key questions for develop-
(C) The reason that the effects of glucose on memory mental psychologists about children under age seven:do
were tested they recognize justifications for harmful actions, and do
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GRE10-4
(30)they make distinctions between harmful acts that are pre- tism and moral autonomy
ventable and those acts that have unforeseen harmful con-
sequences? Studies indicate that justifications excusing 23.According to the passage, Piaget and Keasey would not
harmful actions might include public duty,self-defense, and have agreed on which of the following points?
provocation. For example, Nesdale and Rule concluded that (A) The kinds of excuses children give for harmful
(35)children were capable of considering whether or not an acts they commit
aggressor's action was justified by public duty: five year (B) The age at which children begin to discriminate
olds reacted very differently to "Bonnie wrecks Ann's between intentional and unintentional harm
pretend house" depending on whether Bonnie did it "so (C) The intentions children have in per petrating harm
somebody won't fall over it" or because Bonnie wanted "to (D) The circumstances under which children punish
(40)make Ann feel bad."Thus, a child of five begins to under- harmful acts
stand that certain harmful actions, though intentional, can (E) The justifications children recognize for mitigating
be justified; the constraints of moral absolutism no longer punishment for harmful acts
solely guide their judgments.
Psychologists have determined that during kindergarten 24.It can be inferred that the term "public duty" (line 33)
(45)children learn to make subtle distinctions involving harm. in the context of the passage, means which of the fol-
Darley observed that among acts involving unintentional lowing?
harm, six-year-old children just entering kindergarten could (A) The necessity to apprehend perpetrators.
not differentiate between foreseeable, and thus preventable, (B) The responsibility to punish transgressors
harm and unforeseeable harm for which the perpetrator (C) An obligation to prevent harm to another
(50)cannot be blamed. Seven months later, however, Darley (D) The assignment of punishment for harmful action
found that these same children could make both distinc- (E) A justification for punishing transgressions
tions, thus demonstrating that they had become morally
autonomous. 25.According to the passage, Keasey's findings support
which of the following conclusions about six-year-old
21.Which of the following best describes the passage as children?
a whole? (A)They have the ability to make autonomous moral
(A) An outline for future research judgments.
(B) An expanded definition of commonly misunder - (B)They regard moral absolutism as a threat to their
stood terms moral autonomy.
(C) An analysis of a dispute between two theorists (C)They do not understand the concept of public duty.
(D) A discussion of research findings in an ongoing (D)They accept moral judgment made by their peers
inquiry more easily than do older children.
(E) A confirmation of an established authority's theory (E)They make arbitrary moral judgments.

22.According to the passage, Darley found that after seven 26.It can be inferred form the passage that Piaget would
months of kindergarten six year olds acquired which of be likely to agree with which of the following state-
the following abilities? ments about the punishment that children under seven
(A) Differentiating between foreseeable and unforesee- assign to wrongdoing?
able harm (A) The severity of the assigned punishment is deter-
(B) Identifying with the perpetrator of a harmful action mined by the perceived magnitude of negative
(C) Justifying harmful actions that result from provo- consequences more than by any other factor.
cation (B) The punishment is to be administered immediately
(D) Evaluating the magnitude of negative consequences following the transgression.
resulting from the breaking of rules (C) The children assign punishment less arbitrarily
(E) Recognizing the difference between moral absolu- than they do when they reach the age of moral
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GRE10-4
autonomy. (B) ardent
(D) The punishment for acts of unintentional harm is (C) clever
less severe than it is for acts involving accidental (D) incautious
harm. (E) noble
(E) The more developmentally immature a child, the
more severe the punishment that the child will 32. ADJUNCT:
assign. (A) expert appraisal
(B) generous donation
27.According to the passage, the research of Nesdale and (C) essential element
Rule suggests which of the following about five-year- (D) mild reproof
old children? (E) impartial judgment
(A) Their reactions to intentional and accidental harm
determine the severity of the punishments they 33. CANONICAL:
assign. (A) imprecise
(B) They, as perpetrators of harmful acts, disregard (B) ubiquitous
the feelings of the children they harm. (C) superfluous
(C) They take into account the motivations of actions (D) nontraditional
when judging the behavior of other children. (E) divisive
(D) They view public duty as a justification for acci-
dental, but not intentional, harm. 34. TICKLISH:
(E) They justify any action that protects them from (A) heavy-handed
harm. (B) significant
(C) tolerant
28. DEBUT: (D) impartial
(A) collaboration (E) imperturbable
(B) monologue
(C) farewell performance 35. PREVALENT:
(D) repertoire standard (A) invasive
(E) starring role (B) inconsistent
(C) indistinct
29. WITHER: (D) unpalatable
(A) disagree (E) unusual
(B) shine
(C) plant 36. PENURY:
(D) adhere (A) approbation
(E) revive (B) affluence
(C) objectivity
30. BUCK: (D) compensation
(A) cover over (E) grandiosity
(B) assent to
(C) brag about 37. MINATORY:
(D) improve (A) convenient
(E) repair (B) nonthreatening
(C) straightforward
31. MEAN: (D) fastidious
(A) trusting (E) rational
101
GRE10-4
SECTION 6 (A) Monday
Time –30 minutes (B) Tuesday
25 Questions (C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday
Questions 1-8 (E) Friday
A bakery makes nine kinds of cookies. Of these nine,
three kinds are fruit cookies—G, H, and J; three kinds 4.If cookie J is featured on Friday, Saturday, and
are nut cookies—K, L, and O; and three kinds are plain Sunday; if cookie K is featured on Monday, Tuesday,
cookies—X,Y, and Z. Each day of the week, Monday and Wednesday, and if cookie G is featured only on
through Sunday, the bakery will feature a special price Thursday, then cookie L can be featured on
on exactly three different kinds of cookies. The three (A) Monday only
featured cookies will be selected according to the (B) Thursday only
following rules: (C) Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday only
(D) Friday, Saturday, and Sunday only
Each day at least one fruit cookie must be featured,
(E) any two of the first four days of the week
and each day at least one nut cookie must be
featured.
5. If each kind of nut cookie is featured three times in
On any day on which cookie J is featured, cookie L
one week, what is the maximum number or days on
cannot be featured.
which plain cookies can be featured during that week?
On any day on which cookie k is featured, cookie Y
(A) Three
must also be featured.
(B) Four
No kind of cookie can be featured more than three
(C) Five
times in a week.
(D) Six
(E) Seven
1.Which of the following lists three cookies that can be
featured together?
6.If cookie H and cookie Y are each featured on
(A) G, L, Z
Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday, and if cookie G
(B) H, K, X
and cookie X are each featured on Thursday, Friday
(C) J, L, Y
and Saturday, then the cookies featured on Sunday
(D) J, O, Z
must include both
(E) K, O, Y
(A) J and K
(B) J and L
2. On a day on which both cookie L and cookie Z are
(C) J and O
featured, which of the following can be the third kind
(D) K and L
of cookie featured?
(E) K and Z
(A) H
(B) J
7.If exactly seven kinds of cookies are featured during
(C) O
one week, which of the following must be true about
(D) X
that week?
(E) Y
(A) X is the only kind of plain cookie that is featured
(B) Y is the only kind of plain cookie that is featured
3.A partial schedule of featured cookies is shown below. (C) Z is the only kind of plain cookie that is featured.
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday (D) On at least one day, both cookie G and cookie Z
L H O G Z are featured.
According to this schedule, which of the following is a day on (E) On at least one day, both cookie J and cookie X
are featured.
which cookie X CANNOT be one of the featured cookies?
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GRE10-4
8.If cookie X is featured exactly twice and cookie Z is however, unless many of them marry women who
featured exactly three times in one week, which of are not Prenlandic, all but a minority will remain
the following must be true? unmarried.
(A)Cookie G is featured exactly three times during
the week. The argument makes which of the following assump-
(B)Cookie J is featured at most twice during the tions?
week. (A) Emigration from Preland is more common
(C)Cookie K is featured at most twice during the among women than among men.
week. (B) A greater proportion of Prelandic women
(D)Cookie L is featured at most twiceduring the in their thirties than of Prenlandic men of the
week. same age would prefer to remain unmarried.
(E) Cookie Y is featured exactly twice during the (C) It is unlikely that many of these unmarried
week. Prenlandic men will marry women more than
a few years older than themselves.
9. In recent years, there has been a dramatic decline in (D) Prenland has a high rate of divorce.
the population of the shrike, a predatory bird that (E) Most of the unmarried Prenlandic men are
inhabits flat land, such as farms and pastures. Some unwilling to marry women who are not
ornithologists hypothesize that this decline is due to Prenlandic.
the introduction of new, more effective pesticides to
control the insect species on which shrikes prey. 11.Certain extremely harmful bacteria found only in
sewage are difficult to detect directly. Testing for
The answer to which of the following questions is E. coli, an easily detected and less harmful type of
NOT relevant to evaluating the ornithologists' bacteria, in ocean water would be a reliable way of
hypothesis? determining whether or not these more harmful bac-
(A) Was there a decline in the shrike population teria are present, since ocean water contains E. Coli
before the new pesticides were first used? only if the water is contaminated with sewage that
(B) Have shrike populations declined significantly contains the harmful bacteria.
in those habitats where the new pesticides have
not been used? Which of the following, if true, most seriously
(C) Have the new pesticides more significantly weakens the argument?
reduced the population of insect species on (A) There are many different strains of the E. coli
which shrikes prey than did the pesticides bacteria, and only some of these strains are
previously harmful.
used? (B) Some types of bacteria found in sewage are
(D) Are insects that have consumed the new pesti- neither disease-causing nor difficult to detect
cides more toxic to the shrikes that eat those directly.
insects than were insects that consumed the (C) Some of the types of bacteria found in sewage
less effective pesticides? along with E. coli are not harmful to people
(E) Are the new pesticides considered by most unless the bacteria are ingested in large quantities.
people to be less harmful to the environment (D) E. coli dies out much more quickly than some of
than the old pesticides were considered to be? the more harmful bacteria found in sewage and
then can no longer be easily detected.
10. Census data for Prenland show that unmarried (E) Some of the types of bacteria found in sewage
Prenlandic men in their thirties outnumber unmarried along with E. coli reproduce at a slower rate
Prenlandic women in that age group by about ten to than E. coli.
One. Most of these men do wish to marry. Clearly,
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GRE10-4
Questions 12-17 sarily in that order, are stationed at immediately
adjacent windows, which of the following must be
A bank has exactly four cashier windows, arranged in a stationed at window 4 during this period?
row and numbered consecutively 1through 4 from one (A) Joan
end of the row to the other. The bank has exactly six (B) Karim
cashiers: two supervisors (Joan and Karim); and four (C) Lorraine
trainees (Lorraine, Mark, Nora, and patrick). Throughout (D) Mark
a particular peak-hour period, the stationing of cashiers at (E) Patrick
windows is restricted as follows:
15.If during this period Lorraine and Mark, not neces-
There must be exactly one cashier at each window. sarily in that order, are stationed at immediately
The cashier at window 2 must be a supervisor. adjacent windows, which of the following can be
Lorraine must be at a window but cannot be at window stationed at window 1 during this period?
3. (A) Joan
If Mark is at one of the windows, Joan must be at a (B) Karim
window immediately adjacent to it. (C) Lorraine
The cashiers at the windows must include either Nora (D) Mark
or Patrick, but they cannot include both Nora and (E) Nora
Patrick.
16.If during this period Lorrained and Nora, not neces-
12.Which of the following lists the cashiers who can be sarily in that order, are stationed at immediately
stationed at windows 1 through 4 during this period? adjacent windows, which of the following must be
1 2 3 4 true during this period?
(A) Joan Karim Mark Lorraine (A) Joan is stationed at window 1.
(B) Joan Karim Nora Lorraine (B) Joan is stationed at window 2.
(C) Karim Nora Joan Lorraine (C) Karim is stationed at window 2
(D) Mark Joan Lorraine Patrick (D) Nora is stationed at windows 3.
(E) Patrick Joan Nora Lorraine (E) Patrick is stationed at window 1.

13.Which of the following must be true about the 17.If during this period Mark is stationed at a window,
stationing of the cashiers during this period? which of the following CANNOT be stationed at a
(A) Joan is at window 1 or at window 2. window during this period?
(B) Karim is at window 2 or at window 4. (A) Joan
(C) Lorraine is at window 1 or window 4. (B) Karim
(D) Nora is at window 1 or at window 3. (C) Lorraine
(E) Patrick is at window 3 or at window 4. (D) Nora
(E) Patrick
14.If during this period Patrick and Mark, not neces -

Questions 18-22
Seven photographs —three landscapes:F, H, and J; and four still lifes:
Q, R, T and W—will appear on the first seven pages —numbered
consecutively from page 1 through page 7—of an exhibit catalog.
Each page will contain exactly one of the photographs. The ordering
of the photographs in the catalog is governed by the following
conditions.
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GRE10-4

J and W, not necessarily in that order, must appear on consecu-

tively numbered pages.
The three landscapes cannot appear on-consecutively numbered
pages.
Neither page 2 not page 4 is a page on which a landscape can
appear.
A landscape must appear on page 7

18.Which of the following is an acceptable ordering of the photographs in

the catalog?

Page 1 Page 2 page 3 Page 4 page 5 page 6 page 7

(A) F T H Q W R J
(B) H Q J W R F T
(C) J W H R T Q F
(D) Q T R W J F H
(E) T F Q W J R H

19.Any of the following can appear on page 3 EXCEPT (A) J appears on page 1
(A) J (B) J appears on page 5
(B) Q (C) R appears on page 6
(C) R (D) W appears on page 1
(D) T (E) W appears on page 5
(E) W
23.The organizers of tomorrow's outdoor concert
20. If F appears on page 6, H must appear on page announced that it will go on tomorrow on schedule
(A) 1 unless bad weather is forecast or too few advance
(B) 2 tickets are sold. If the concert is canceled, refunds
(C) 3 will be made to ticket holders. Since some ticket
(D) 5 holders have already been issued refunds even though
(E) 7 more than enough advance tickets were sold, it must
be the case that bad weather is forecast.
21.If the still lifes all appear on consecutive pages,
which of the following must be true? Which of the following is an error of reasoning con-
(A) A still life appears on page 1. tained in the argument?
(B) A still life appears on page 5. (A) It proceeds as if a condition, which by itself is
(C) J appears on page 6. enough to guarantee a certain result, is the only
(D) T appears on page 4. condition under which that result would occur.
(E) W appears on page 5 (B) It bases a conclusion that is known to require
two conditions on evidence that bears on only
22.If F and H, not necessarily in that order, appear on one of those conditions.
consecutive pages, which of the following can be (C) It explains one event as being caused by another
true? event, even though both events must actually
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GRE10-4
have been caused by some third, unidentified argument?
event. (A) The machinery that is now obsolete was used by a
(D) It treats evidence for the absence of one condi- large number of manufacturing companies before
tion under which a circumstance would occur it became obsolete.
as conclusive evidence that that circumstance (B) Among the people already holding jobs as tech-
will not occur. nicians at Equip Corp, those who are most skillful
(E) Evidence given to support the conclusion actually at operating the new machinery had been some of
undermines it. the least skillful at operating the old machinery
(C) Most people applying for jobs as technicians today
24. Although the prevailing supposition has been that it is have much broader skills than did people applying
too hot for microorganisms to survive deep below the for jobs as technicians 20 years ago.
Earth's surface, some scientists argue that there are (D) The skills required to operate and repair the
living communities of microorganisms there that have obsolete machinery are useful in operating and
been cut off from surface life for millions of years. maintaining many other types of machinery at
These scientists base their argument on the discovery EquipCorp that are not obsolete.
of living microorganisms in samples of material that (E) Much of the machinery that EquipCorp now uses in
were taken from holes drilled as deep as 1.74 miles. manufacturing is very likely to become obsolete
within the next 20 years.
The scientists' argument depends on which of the fol-
lowing assumptions?
(A)The microorganisms brought up were of a
species that is related to those previously
known to science.
(B)No holes have been drilled into the Earth's
surface to a distance deeper than 1.74 miles
(C)The microorganisms did not come from surface
soil that came into contact with the drilling
equipment.
(D) The stratum from which the samples came has
been below the surface of the Earth ever since
the Earth came into existence.
(E) The temperature at the bottom of the holes drilled
was not significantly hotter than that of the
hottest spots on the Earth's surface.

25. For 20 years all applicants for jobs as technicians at

EquipCorp were requiredto demonstrate that they could
operate and repair the machinery that was centralto
EquipCorp's manufacturing business. Now, however,
that particular machinery is obsolete, and very different
machinery fills the central role. Therefore, the old
requirement is no longer a useful method for evaluating
whether applicants for jobs as technicians at EquipCorp
have the skills necessary for the job.

Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the

110