E2-E3 Ews Question Bank11111

E2-E3 EWS QUESTION BANK………
1. BSNL’s Ku Band HUB (Earth Station) is available at
a) Bangalore
b) Thane
c) Secundarabad
d) New Delhi
2. V-SAT antenna or dish size is typically about ------- to -------- meter in

diameter for Ku-band systems.
a) 2 to 5
b) 1 to 3
c) 0.55 to 1.8
d) None
3. Broadband V-SAT of BSNL, operating in Ku band of electromagnetic

spectrum i.e. ----- to ----- GHz,
a) 11 to 18
b) 4 to 6
c) 20 to 25
d) None
4. V-SAT equipment mainly consist of ODU & ------------.
a) Modem
b) Base band unit
c) IDU
d) All of the above

5. The outdoor unit system consists of:
a) Antenna
b) BUC
c) LNB
d) All of the above
6. On receiving side, IDU converts
a) IF to base band signals
b) Base band to IF
c) RF to IF
d) If to RF
7. V-SAT networks can be arranged in ---------------- configurations
a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Broadcast
d) All of the above
8. V-SAT Broadband (Ku band V-SAT) networks of BSNL designed in a -------

and-spoke fashion.
a) Hub
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) None
9. V-SAT systems can be operated in either ---------- or multi user

environment.
a) Single
b) Double
c) Triple
d) None
10. Point to Point Network allows two-way communications between ----------

V-SAT sites.
a) Two
b) Any number of
c) Three
d) None
11. In multi-user mode, VSAT integrates into a

a) LAN
b) MAN
c) WAN
d) All the above.
12. Figure of meantime between the failures of the VSAT is

a) 25000 Hours
b) 30000 Hours
c) 20000 Hours
13. BUC converts

a) IF into RF
b) RF into IF
c) None of the above
14. LNB converts

a) RF into IF
b) IF into RF
15. Entire VSAT network can be controlled through

a) Single Hub
b) Two hubs
16. In VSAT, internet router is connected to the NIB using multiple …….. leased
line.
a) 2 Mbps
b) STM 1 Links
c) STM 16 Links
17. In VSAT, MPLS router will work as ………….. router for the MPLS cloud.
a) CE
b) P
c) PE
d) None
18. I.F is generally in ….. band.

a) L
b)C
c) Ku
d) Ka
19. RF can be in
c) C
b) Ku
c) Ka
d) All the above
20. All Remote V-SAT locations are having ……………so that remote V-SAT users
can connect to Internet.
a) private IP
b) public IP
c) both private and public IP
21. MLLN is a ………………… managed Access Network.

a) Fully
b) Partly
22. MLLN is a
a) Fully Managed Access Network
b) Next Generation Digital Access Network
c) Overlay Network
d) All the above
23. The main NMS site for MLLN is located at

a) Bangalore
b) Pune
c) Hyderabad
24. The main feature of MLLN is …….architecture of DXCs.

a) 2 Tier
b) 3 Tier
c) Both a and b
25. The maximum port capacity of DXC in MLLN is …..
a) 128
b) 64
c) 96
d) 256
26. VMUX Type 1A can accommodate …….. E1 streams.

a) 12
b) 10
c) 20
27. MLLN stands for
a) MUX Leased line Network
b) Managed Leased Line Network
c) Multi Lease Line Network
d) Modern Leased Line Network
28. DXC Stands for
a) Data cross connect
b) Digital cross connect
c) Double cross connect
d) Duplicate Cross connect
29. V.MUX stand for
a) Versatile Multiplexer
b) Virtual Multiplexer
c) VPN Multiplexer
d) Video Multiplexer
30. NTU stands for
a) Network Terminal Unit
b) New Transport Unit
c) New Terminating Unit
d) New Telephone Unit
31. NMS stand for
a) New Module System
b) New Management System
c) Network Management System
d) New MUX System
32. what is R-DXC
a) Re-Digital Cross
b) Report Cross Connect
c) Reconfiguration Cross Connect
d) Regional Digital Cross Connect
33. What is SR-DXC
a) Sub Report DXC
b) Subscriber DXC
c) Super Report DXC
d) Sub Regional DXC

34. ROT stands for
a) Remote Operator Terminal
b) Report Operator Terminal
c) Reconfiguration Operator Terminal
d) Regional Operator Terminal
35. In MLLN circuit number is a ….. digit code

a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
36. In MLLN …… represents circuit number.

a) JKL
b) ABCD
c)XY
37. In MLLN ….. represents circuit type.
a) XY
b) JKL
c) XYZ
38. In MLLN ROT is provided for stations having more than…… leased lines.
a) 30
b) 25
c) 20
39. MLLN offers
a) Point to point connectivity
b) Point to multipoint connectivity
c) Both a and b
40.VSAT supports
a) Video Multicast
b) Internet
c) Video conferencing
d) Voice telephony
e) All the above
Correct answer is e) all the above
41. Centralised NMS for MLLN is located at…………….
a) Bangalore
B) Pune
C) Jabalpur
a) Bangalore
42. VMUX Type 1 Supports ……. Nos of E1s.
a) 12
b) 4
c) 4
Correct answer is a) 12
43. HDSL offers a speed of 2 Mbps upto a driving distance of … Kms
a) 3
b)3.5
c) 7
Correct answer is b) 3.5 Kms
44. NTU type STU 160 works upto ……… Kbps
A) 64 Kbps
B) 128 Kbps
C) 256 Kbps
Correct answer is B) 128 Kbps
45. CTU-s and CTU-R work upto …..
a) 2 Mbps
b) 1 Mbps
c) 512 Kbps
Correct answer is a) 2 Mbps
46. Disaster Recovery site for MLLN is at
a) Bangalore
b) Pune
c) Calcutta
Correct answer is b) Pune
47. TVARIT main server is located at
a) Bangalore
b) Pune
C) Hyderabad
Correct answer is a) Bangalore
48. Centralised NMS for the whole network of MLLN is situated at
a) Bangalore
b) Pune
C) Hyderabad
d) None of the above
49. In MLLN, connectivity between R-DXCs is in
a) Mesh fashion
b) Dual homed
c) Ring
Correct answer is a) Mesh fashion.
50. DXCs & SR-DXCs are based on …… tier architecture.
a) 2 tier
b) 3 tier

Correct answer is b) 3 tier architecture.
51. In MLLN, ROT has been planned for every station having more than ….. Nos of
leased circuits.
a) 30
b) 50
c) 100
52. Radio Modems work on the principle of ………….. operation.
a) Line of Sight
b) Line off sight
c) Linear
Correct answer is a) Line of Sight
53. The Radio Modems in BSNL are of ……… make
a) RADWIN
b) RADO
c) ITI
Correct answer is a) RADWIN
54. Radio Modems work in the frequency band of ……. GHz
a) 2
b)3
c) 4
Correct answer is a) 2 GHz
55. Data is transmitted in the form of……………..on the system in Radio Modems.
a) Ethernet
b) ATM
c) Frame Relay
d) Optical
Correct answer is a) Ethernet

56. Normally the antenna height at the customer site varies from
a) 3 to 10 m
b) 3 to 20 m
c) 3 to 25 m
Correct answer is b) 3 to 20 m
57. Radio Modem Hop distance depends on
a) Trans power
b) Receiver sensitivity
c) Size of the antenna
d) Tower height
e) All the above
Correct answer is e) all the above.
58. The maximum EIRP is ….. dBm
a) 20
b) 25
c) 30
Correct answer is c) 30 dBm
59. Input power supply for Radio Modem is
a) 230 V AC
b) 48 v DC
C) 60 V DC
Correct answer is a) 230 V AC
60. In Radio Modem, the 2048 Kbps signals can be
a) Framed or unframed
b) Synchronous or asynchronous
c) a) and b)

Correct answer is c) a and b
61. The RADIO Modems conform to the following modulation
a) Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
b) Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
c) a and b
62. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum uses the following to directly modulate a
carrier
a) Data to be transmitted only
b) Known code only
c) Both a] and b]
Correct answer is c) both a] and b]
63. EIRP stands for
a) Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
b) Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power
c) Effective Internal Radiated Power
d) Equivalent Internal Radiated power
Correct answer is a) Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
64. The processing gain of a direct sequence spectrum shall be at least
a) 10 dB
b) 20 dB
c) 30 dB
Correct answer is a) 10 dB
65. The converters used in Radio Modems are
a) V.35 to Ethernet
b) Optical to Ethernet converters
c) Electrical to optical converters.

66. The Radio Modem interface shall be
a) Hardware configurable
b) Software configurable
c) Both a and b
67. In Radio Modems, the maximum peak output power shall not exceed
A) 1 Watt
b) 2 Watts
c) 5 Watts
68. The modem, operating at data rate of 2048 Kbps (E1) and above, shall
operate with ……..configuration.
a) 1+1
b) N+1
c) both a and b
69. For data rates ……. and above omnibus or express order wire will be
provided.
A) 2048
b) 1024
c) 565
70. Alarms are shown in Radio Modem for

a)Transmit power failure
b) Receive power below threshold
c) Radio sync loss
d) Power up
e) DTE input loss

f) All the above
71. For data rates 2048 Kbps and above, in built tests are available which
include
i) Local loop back test
ii) Remote loop back test
iii) Loop back to remove end

iv) Receive power level determination
v) Receive power signal quality determination

vi) All the above
72. Local leads are suitable for speed below
a. 1 MBPS
b. 2 MBPS
c. 4 MBPS
d. 10 MBPS
73. Radio Modems work in ____________ band.
a. 800 MHz
b. 1800 MHz
c. 900 MHz
d. 2.4 GHZ
74. With Radio Modems data speed upto ____ Mbps is possible.
a. 1
b. 20
c. 15
d. 10
4. Antenna heights at customer end for Radio Modem can be
a. 3 mts
b. 5 mts
c. 20 mts
d. All the above
75. Transmission power limit for Radio Modem is
a. 1 W EIRP
b. 2 W EIRP
c. 4 W EIRP
d. 10 W EIRP
76. Radio Modem shall support ____________ data rates
a. 64 kbps
b. 256 kbps
c. 2048 kbps
d. All of the above
76. DWDM employs multiple light wavelengths to transmit data in parallel

through a ……..fiber.
a) Single
b) Two fibres
c) Multi fibres
77. DWDM accepts traffic such as

a) IP
b) ATM
c) SDH
d) All the above
78. DWDM systems are

a) Bit rate independent
b) Format independent
c) Both a and b
79. The two key elements of optical amplifiers are

a) Erbium doped fibre
b) Amplifier
c) Both a and b
80. In the ………….range, silica-based optical amplifiers with filters and fluoride-
based optical amplifiers perform equally well.
a) 1530 to 1565 nm
b) 1330 to 1550 nm
c) 1480 to 1550 nm
81. DWDM employs multiple light wavelength to transmit data in

parallel through ___________.
(i) Single fiber
(ii) Multiple fiber
(iii) Copper Cable

(iv) Coaxial cable
82. DWDM allows the transmission of signals over the ___________ layer.
(i) Electrical
(ii) Optical
(iii) Network
(iv) All of above
83. DWDM system is a ___________ dependent system.
(i) Time
(ii) TDMA
(iii) Frequency
(iv) FDMA
84. DWDM uses ___________ for boosting up the light wave signals to reach
farther.
(i) Optical Amplifier
(ii) Tandem connection
(iii) Fuses
(iv) All of above
85. DWDM systems are bit rate and format ___________
(i) Dependent
(ii) Network
(iii) Independent
(iv) constant
86. The network elements where wavelengths are added or dropped to or

from a fiber is ___________
(i) OTM
(ii) OLA
(iii) OADM
(iv) All of above
87. The operating wavelength of DWDM system is between ___________

nm.
(i) 1530 to 1565
(ii) 1565 to 1620
(iii) 1550
iv) 1310
88. Wavelength conversion is carried out in ___________
(i) Multiplexer
(ii) Transponder
(iii) Amplifier
(iv) All of above
89. SDH was introduced in the year

a) 1990
b) 1991
c) 1992
90. The process involved in multiplexing a PDH signal is ………

a) Bit stuffing
b) Pulse stuffing
c) Both a and b
91.SDH allows …………………. Stage multiplexing.

a) Single
b) Double
c) Multiple
92. The bytes in an SDH frame are transmitted row by row from
a) left to right
b) right to left
c) bottom to top
93. Frame length of SDH is

a) 125 Micro secs
b) 125 Milli secs
c) 125 Nano Secs
94. STM 1 bit rate is ……………
a) 155.52 Mbps
b) 155.52 Kbps
c) 164.00 Kbps
95. The frame structure of STM-N is made up of
a) MSOH
b) RSOH
c) Information payload
d) Administrative Unit Pointer
e) All the above
96. AU pointer is located at …….. row of STM 1 frame.
a) 4th
b)5th
c)2nd
97. SDH does not permit transport and networking at the _____Mbit/s level.
a.2,
b.8,
c.34,
d.140.
98. SDH frame structure is _______.

(a.rectangular,
b.square,
c.circular,
d.hexagonal.)
99. STM-1 frame consists of ____ columns and 9-row bytes.
a.269,
b.270
c.271,
d.272
100. Frame duration in SDH frame is ______μs.
a.125,
b.128,
c.2,
d.72.
101. ________is used to indicate the accurate position of the first byte of
information payload in the STM-N frame.
(a. AU pointer, b.RSOH, c.MSOH, d.Payload.)
102. The NE used at the end of the link is _______.
(a.TM, b.ADM, c.DXC, d.REG)
103. SHR stands for _______.
(a.self healing ring, b. soft headlining ring, c.short hex rate, d.self
heating regenerator
104. SDH is normally configured as mesh architecture (T/F)
False, It is configured as Ring architecture.
105. Each host on the internet is assigned a ……. Bit integer address.
a) 32
b) 48
c)20
106. SDH allows ……………….. stage multiplexing & demultiplexing.

a) Single
b) Multiple
c) None of the above.
The correct answer is a) Single stage
107. SDH transmission is in the unit of …….

a) bit
b) byte
c) bits and bytes
The correct answer is b) byte.
108. The bytes in an SDH frame are transmitted row by row from ….
a) left to right
b) right to left
c) top to bottom
The correct answer is a) left to right

109. Frame length of SDH is
a) 125 milli sec
b) 125 nano sec
c) 125 Micro sec
The correct answer is c) 125 micro sec
110. Frame frequency of sdh is …….

a) 8000 frames/sec
b) 800 frames/sec
c) 8000 frames/millisec
The correct answer is a) 8000 frames/sec
111. In SDH 1 to 3 rows are allotted for ……

a) RSOH
b) MSOH
c) None
The correct answer is a) RSOH
112. In SDH, 5 to 9 rows are allotted for ……

a) MSOH
b) RSOH
c) None
The correct answer is a) MSOH
113. SDH does not permit transport and networking at ….. Mbps level.
a) 2
b) 8
c) 34
d) 140
The correct answer is b) 8 Mbps
114. SDH frame structure is ……………..

a) circular
b) square
c) hedagonal
d) Rectangular
The correct answer is d) rectangular
115. STM 1 frame consists of……………… columns and 9 row bytes.

a) 269
b) 270
c) 271
The correct answer is b) 270

116. ________is used to indicate the accurate position of the first byte of
information payload in the STM-N frame.
(a. AU pointer, b.RSOH, c.MSOH, d.Payload.)
The correct answer is a) AU pointer
117. The NE used at the end of the link is _______
a.TM,
b.ADM,
c.DXC,
d.REG
The correct answer is a) TM
118. SHR stands for _______.
a.self healing ring,

b. soft headlining ring,
c.short hex rate,
d.self heating regenerator.
The correct answer is a) Self Healing Ring
119. SDH is normally configured as mesh architecture
(T/F) –
False it is ring and not mesh architecture.
120. The frame structure of STM-N is made up of three parts:
Section overhead, including Regenerator Section Overhead (RSOH) and

Multiplex Section Overhead (MSOH),
Information Payload (Payload) and
Administrative Unit Pointer (AU-PTR).
(T/F).
True.
121. In SDH STM 1 bit rate is calculated by using the formula
270 columns X 9 rows X 8 bits X 8000 = 155.52 Mpbs

122. In SDH , Frame repetition rate = 125 μ sec
123. In SDH the transportation capacity of one byte = 64 Kb
124. Linear protection includes

a) 1+1 protection
b) 1:1 protection
c) 1:N protection
d) All the above
The correct answer is d) all the above.
125. Ring Protection includes

1. Path protection
2. Line protection
3. Both 1 and 2.
The correct answer is 3) both path and line protection.
126. In BSHR, APS (Automatic Protection System) protocol is used.
127. The internal clock of a SDH terminal may derive its timing signal from
the
Synchronization Supply Unit (SSU).
128. The specific elements used to adjust the refractive indices in OF cable
are known as ………..
Dopants.
129. The first window 850 nm, is suitable for ……….. distance transmission.
a) Short
b) Meidum
c) Long
The correct answer is a) Short distance.
130. C band (Conventional) operates at the wavelength range of …….
1530 to 1563 nm.
131.Decay of signal strength or loss of light power, as the signal propagates

through the fibre is known as …………
a) absorption
b) refraction
c) attenuation
The correct answer is c) attenuation
132. Safety loss, added by system designers is of the value …… dB.
a) 1 dB
b) .5 dB
c) 2 dB
The correct answer is b ) .5 dB
133. The ITUT standard for non dispersion shifted, Single Moded Fibre is
a) G.652
b) G.653
c) G.655
The correct answer is a) G.652
134. In OFC laying, Route indicators should be installed at every 200 m route
length of showing name of route & no of indicators.
135. When the soil is rocky the depth of trench should be __.9 m
136. The light is quided through the fibre by the principle of __total
internal reflection of light.
137. The phenomenon which spreads a light pulse as it travels down the
length of fibre is called __chromatic dispersion.
138. Modal dispersion is dominant in ____multimode_ Fibre
139. The bandwidth of optical fibre is limited due to _dispersion.
140. Non-zero dispersion-shifted fiber—is used for DWDM in the 1550-nm

region .
141. Value Added Services includes
 Encryption Services
 Firewall Services
 Multicast Services
The correct answer is all the above.

142. Network Address Translation (NAT) Service enables
a) private users to access public networks.

b) Public users to access the private networks.
The correct answer is a) private users to access public networks
143. NIB I was started in the year
a) 1990
b) 1992
c) 1997
Correct answer is c) 1997
144. A1 core cities are connected in ……… topology.
a) Mesh
b) Ring
c) Star
Correct answer is a) Mesh
145. A1 core cities are linked through ……….. link.
a) STM 1
b) STM 4
c) STM 16
Correct answer is c) STM 16 link
146. For NIB II project, Primary NOC is at ………..

a) Bangalore
b) Pune
c) Hyderabad
The correct answer is a) Bangalore.
147. The functions of BRAS includes

a) Termination of customer PPP session
b) Authentication
c) IP address allocation
d) all the above
Correct answer is d) all the above

148. Distance limit between DSLAM and Tier-II switch and Tier-II to Tier-I
switch is 10 Km and 40 Km respectively with dark fibre.
149. ADSL2+ gives a maximum download rate of 26 Mb/s.
150. What is full form of NIB
a. National Internet Backbone [ CORRECT ANSWER]
b. National Intranet Backbone
c. National International Backbone
d. Nationalised Internet Bank
151. The sequence of elements of broadband
a. CPE,DSLAM, Tier II, Tier I,BRAS [ correct answer]
b. DSLAM, CPE ,Tier II, Tier I,BRAS
c. CPE,DSLAM, BRAS ,Tier II, Tier I
d. CPE, BRAS ,DSLAM, Tier II, Tier I,
152. In ADSL Channel ‘0’ is used for
a. POTS [ CORRECT ANSWER]
b. Upstream
c. Downstream
d. No use
153. What is objective of NIB II Project 2.1
a. MPLS backbone
b. Broadband access Gateway
c. Narrowband Access Gateway [correct answer]
d. Broadband Multiplay
153. Primary Data centre is located at which place
a. Pune
b. Delhi
c. Mumbai
d. Bangalore [correct answer]
154. A1 Cities are connected into
a. Mesh [ correct answer]
b. Star
c. Ring
d. Linear
155. What is full form of AAA
a. Authentication,
b. Authorization
c. Accounting,
d. All above [ correct answer]
156. Distance limit between DSLAM and Tier-II switch with dark fibre is
a. 10km [ correct answer]
b. 40km
c. 130km
d. None
157. Splitter function is performed at
a. DSLAM
b. Splitter before CPE
c. Both
d. None
158. What is full form of ADSL
a. Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line
b. Asynchronous Digital Subscriber Line
c. Asynchronous Data Subscriber Line
d. Asymmetric Data Service Line
159. DWDM stands for Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing.
160. DWDM employs multiplie wavelengths to transmit data in parallel through a
a. single fibre. [ correct answer]

b. Two fibres
c. Three fibres.
161.DWDM can carry 80 wavelengths, each of STM 16 capacity.
162.DWDM is bit rate and format independent.
163.EDFA stands for Erbium Doped Fibre Amplifier.
164. OXC stands for Optical Cross Connect.
165.Light in one fibre can be moved to another fibre using OXC in DWDM systems.
166.An optical cross connect is also known as Wave Length Cross Connect or a
Wavelength Router.
167.MEMS stands for Micro Electro Mechanical System.
168.Most advanced optical switching technology is MEMS, with tiny movable mirrors.
169. Advantage of is OXC

1. Less cost
2. Smaller Size
3. Bit rate transparency
4. Redirection of light from one fibre to another.
5. All the above
Correct answer is 1 to 5.
170. Bandwidth of a MLLN circuit can be 64 Kbps or n X 64 Kbps upto a maximum of

2 Mbps.
171. In MLLN, NMS supports

a) Service Provisioning
b) Network optimization
c) Planning and service monitoring
d) All the above
Correct answer is d)
172. A digital cross connect is equipped with several E1 interfaces.
173. A digital v mux is equipped with several channel interfaces.
174. NTUs must be capable of being managed from the centralized NMS for the following
essential parameters:
a) Speed
b) Line Loop Testing
c) Diagnostic
d) All the above
175. NMS auto recognizes any change of configuration of any network element.
176. Re-initialization of the network element shall be possible from NMS. [TRUE]
177. NMS has the capability to configure the bandwidth on demand of any leased line for
specified time of the day. [TRUE]
178. In MLLN Multiplexers will be designated as Vmuxes.
179. MLLN proposes to offer SLA for 99.5% or better efficiency.
180. TVARIT Plus main server is located at Bangalore and DR is located at Pune.
181. NIB-II Project 1 is associated with MPLS based IP infrastructure.
182. NIB-II Project 2.1 is associated with Narrowband Access (Dialup remote access).
183. NIB-II Project 2.2 is associated with Broadband access( DSL Access).
184. In NIB II, the following services are called Value Added Services.
a) Encryption Services
b) Firewall Services
c) Multicast services
d) All the above
185. . The service that enables private users to access public networks is known as
Network Address Translation.
186. BBRAS stands for Broad Band Remote Access Server.
187. DSLAM stands for Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer.
188. DSLAMs provide last mile access to subscribers over copper wire upto an
average span length of 3 Kms.
189. DSLAMs below 480 ports capacity are aggregated through Fast Ethernet
Interface and DSLAMs above 480 ports capacity are aggregated through Gigabit
Ethernet Interface.
190. The 240 ports DSLAM will have two numbers of FE interface.
191. There will be no BBRAS at B1 and B2 cities.
192. A Networking solution often requires not just bandwidth but hardware Components,
Security solutions and maintenance also. [ TRUE]
193. BSNL Managed Network services is a ……………….services

a) fully managed secured data
b) partially managed secured data
c) Hybrid
Correct answer is a) fully managed secured data
194. BSNL Managed Network services solution supports enterprise business affordable only.
False, it is not only affordable but also simple and reliable.
195. In BSNL Managed Global Conferencing Solution ,Investment at customers end is not
required
Yes. True, no investment at customer end is needed.
197. BSNL has__________________ types of product offers
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four [ correct answer]
198. SLA stands for________________
a) Standard Level Agreement
b) Scalable Level Assignment
c) Service Level Agreement
d) Security Level Agreement
199. In BizCom type of product offer the working range is_______________
a) 128 Kbps to 256 Kbps
b) 256Kbps to 1Mbps
c) 256Kbps to 2Mbps
d) 2Mbps & Above
200. In SLA event log storage duration is ______________
a) 1 month
b) 24 hour
c) 4 hour
d) 15 minutes
201. In features of SLA ,Notification to customers is within________________
a) 15 seconds
b) 15 milliseconds
c) 15 minutes
d) 4 hours
202. The pricing of MPLS VPN Port include
a) Domestic Part
b) National Bandwidth
c) International Bandwidth
d) Domestic Part& International Bandwidth
203.MLLN mainly deals with data circuits ranging from
a) 64 Kbps to 2048 Kbps
b) 64 Kbps to 256 Kbps
c) 256 kbps to 512 Kbps
Correct answer is a) 64 Kbps to 2048 Kbps
204.Leased line is a
a) Shared line
b) Dedicated line
Correct answer is b) Dedicated line.
205.Leased line passes through
a) Switching Systems only
b) Transmission systems only
c) Both Switching and Transmission systems
Correct answer is b) Transmission systems only
206.For speech circuits (Hotlines), the terminating equipment at both the ends is
a) Telephone without dialing facility
b) Telephone with dialing facility
Correct answer is a) Telephone without dialing facility

207.Leased Internet bandwidths upto ………. Mbps are provided using modems on copper
pair.
a) 2 Mbps
b) 8 Mbps
c) 34 Mbps
208. Project 1 of NIB II (MPLS based IP infrastructure) covers
a) 71 cities
b) 72 cities
c) 50 cities
Correct answer is a) 71 cities
209. All the ……. Nodes in the NIB I shall form the core layer.
a) A Nodes
b) B Nodes
c) C Nodes
Correct answer is a) A Nodes
210.The five major nodes are configured in the full mesh with link bandwidth of
a) STM 1
b) STM 4
c) STM 16
Correct answer is c) STM 16.
211.The core routers deployed in A1 locations are
a) CISCO 12416 routers
b) CISCO 12410 routers
Correct answer is a) CISCO 12416 routers.
212.Layer 2 Edge Network of NIB Proj I provides customer access through

a) Dial up
b) Dedicated access
c) Broadband access
d) All the above
Correct answer is d) all the above.
213.Layer 2 Edge Network of NIB Proj I provides connectivity to secure
a) VPNs only
b) Internet Data Centres only
c) Both VPNs and Internet Data Centres
Correct answer is c) Both VPNs and Internet Data Centre
214. The SLA parameters shall include measurements of
a) Service Delivery
b) Availability
c) Latency
d) Throughput and Latency
e) All the above
215. NIDS stands for………[Network Insulation Detection System]
216. Core router is divided into how many Nodes?
a. A1,A2
b. A1,A2,A3,A4
c. A,,A3
d. A1,A2,A4
217. How many A1 Node in NIB-II

a. 5
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
218. A1 Node is connected to each other by which form in NIB-II?
a. Dual form
b. Mesh form
c. Point to Point
d. Not connected
219. The maximum distance between Tier-1 to Tier-II on dark fiber is?
a. 40 Km
b. 20 Km
c. 30 Km
d. 10 Km
220. The distance between Tier-II to DSLAM is?

a. 20 Km
b. 30 Km
c. 10 Km
d. 5 Km
221. How many projects are there in NIB-II?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
222. DSLAM work as a?
a. switch
b. Multiplex
c. Demultiplex
d. Both B & C.
223. The length between DSLAM to ADSL in Km is?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. 0.5
224. In NIB-II core routers are connected by which interface?

a. STM-I
b. STM-16
c. Fast Ethernet
d. Wide area network
225. Which option is not related to value added services?
a. Encryption Services
b. Firewall Services
c. Multicast Services
d. Unicast services
226. Internet Address or IP address is a …… bit address.
a) 32
b) 48
c) 64
Correct answer is a) 32 bit
227. A Brouter servers as a
a) Bridge
b) Router
c) Both Bridge and Router
Correct answer is c) bridge and router
228. A core router in a computer network, routes data
a) Within the network
b) Between the networks
c) Both a and b
Correct answer is a) Within the network
229. An Edge router in a computer network, routes data
a) Within the network

b) Between one or more networks
c) Both a and b
Correct answer is b) between one or more networks
230. IPv4 address consists of ----bits
a. 32
b. 33
c. 128
d. 127
231. For multicasting which class is used
a. Only Class D
b. Only Class B
c. Only Class C
d. Class A, B, C
232. Class B addresses begin with A)10xx, or B) 128 to 191 decimal.
a. Both A & B are true
b. A is true
c. B is true
d. Both A & B are false
233. In order to specify the network address for a given IP address, the host section is set to all
"-------"s.
a. 1
b. 0 [correct answer]
c. No change
d. Data insufficient
234. Addresses 198.0.0.0 to 199.255.255.255 are for
a. Europe
b. North America
c. Central and South America
d. Asia and the Pacific
235. CIDR, is described in
a. RFC 1519
b. RFC 1918
c. RFC 1520
d. RFC 1920
236. No of hosts in class A network are
a. 224
b. 224 -1
c. 224 -2 [correct answer]
d. 224 -3
237. 126.0.0.3 belongs to which class?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
238. When the host section is set to all "1"s, it specifies a.

a. Broadcast address
b. Loopback address
c. Host Address
d. None of these
239. Class C addresses have how many bits used for networks?
a. 8
b. 16
c. 24
d. 0
240. How many host bits used in class B IP Addressing scheme?

a. 8
b. 16
c. 24
d. 32
241. How many Network bits are there in class A IP Addressing scheme?
a. 8
b. 16
c. 24
d. 32
242. Discuss the class field in IP address.
If the address is given in binary notation, the first few bits can tell us the class of the
address.
Class A - 0
Class B - 10
Class C - 110
Class D - 1110
Class E – 1111
243. What is the class of each of the following addresses?
a. 10011101 10001111 11111100 11001111 – Class B
b. 11011101 10001111 11111100 11001111 – Class C
c. 01111011 10001111 11111100 11001111 – Class A
d. 11101011 10001111 11111100 11001111 – Class D
e. 11110101 10001111 11111100 11001111 – Class E
244. Find the class of each addresses.
a. 4.23.145.90 – Class A
b. 227.34.78.7 – Class D
c. 246.7.3.8 – Class E
d. 29.6.8.4 – Class A
e. 198.76.9.23 – Class C
245. . Identify the class and default subnet mask of the IP address
217.65.10.7
IP address 217.65.10.7
Belongs to class C address and
Default subnet mask is 255.255.255.0.
246. When the address is given in dotted decimal notation, then look at the
first byte to determine the class of the address..
Class A - 0 to 127
Class B – 128 to 191
Class C – 192 to 223
Class D – 224 to 239
Class E – 240 to 255
247. Which of these can be a valid MAC address:
a. 10.10.0.1/16
b. 192.168.2.3/16
c. 23-A2-43-C3-43
d. C4-E4-44-A3-0A-03
248.Which of these is reserved for Private Networks?
a) 10.0.0.0/8
b) 172.16.0.0/12
c) 192.168.0.0/16
d) all of these
249. Class ‘D’ IP address is reserved for
a) Multicasting
b) Unicasting
c) Both
d) None
250. . Centralized NOC for VSAT Service is at;
a. Sikandrabad
b. Bangalore
c. Mumbai
d. None of above
251. Primary NOC of MPLS is located at
a. Mumbai
b. Chennai
c. Pune
d. Bangalore
252. ‘BSNL Live’ cam be accessed through
a. All GSM 2G Connections

b. All GSM 3G Connections only
c. Both GSM 2.5G and 3G connections
d. Only CDMA connections
253. Maximum speed offered by BSNL V-SAT is
a. 64 Kbps
b. 512 Kbps
c. 2 Mbps
d. 4 Mbps
254. ‘Sancharnet Card’ is
a. Pre-paid Internet Access Card

b. Post-paid Internet Access Card
c. Broadband Datacard
d. 3G data card.
255. IPv6 will be based upon _________ -byte addresses.
a. 32
b. 24
c. 4
d. 16
e. 8
Answer: d,
256. IPv4 uses ________ bytes per Internet address.
a. 4
b. 32
c. 8
d. 24
e. 16
Answer: a,
257. MPLS is a packet-forwarding technology that uses labels to make data forwarding decisions.
258. The MPLS label is of 20 bits length.
259. In MPLS, replacing of incoming label by a new outgoing label while forwarding the packet is
known as Swap.
260. The encapsulation and de-encapsulation operations in MPLS are referred to as Push and Pop
respectively.
261. Label Edge Router (LER) is the interface between the access network and the MPLS network
which performs Push and Pop functions.
262. Label Switch Router (LSR) performs swap functions, which is a high speed router in the
MPLS core.
263. MPLS stands for _________________________________________
a. Multi Protocol Label Switching
b. Multi Packet Label Switching
c. Multi Passage Label Switching
d. None of the above
264. VPN stands __________________________________________________
a. View Path Network
b. Virtual Path Network
c. Virtual Private Network
265. ______________________________Is often referred to as a "Layer 2.5" protocol
a. MPLS
b. VPN
c. MPUS
266. Each label stack entry contains four fields _____________________________
a. 20-bit label value
b. 3-bit Experimental field used for providing for QoS (Quality of Service)
c. 1-bit current bottom of stack flag. If this is 1, signifies that the label is the last in the stack
d. 8-bit TTL (time to live) field
e. All of the above
267. LER (Label Edge Router) performs two main functions named as ________ &
______________
a. Push & Pop of the Label
b. Push & Swap of the Label
c. Pop & Swap of the Label
d. All of the above
268. Core Routers in MPLS Domain are also termed as ________________________
a. Label Switched Router
b. Label Swapping Router
c. Link Swapping Router
269. LER (Label Edge Router) is also termed as ______________________________
a. Ingress Router
b. Ingress & Egress Router
c. Egress Router
270. FEC ( Forward Equivalence Class ) is used to ____________________________
a. represent of a group of packets that share the same requirements for their transport.
b. Does not represent of a group of packets that share the same requirements for their transport.
c. Allot the same label to all the packets
d. All of the above
271. The protocols used in MPLS-VPN domain for performing the functions are__________ &
__________
a. Resource reservation protocol (RSVP) & Open shortest path first (OSPF)
b. Internet Protocol (IP) & Open shortest path first (OSPF)
c. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) & Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)

272. MPLS supports following three characteristics ___________________________
a. Low Latency, QoS & Any to any connectivity
b. Low round trip time, Qos & Any to any connectivity
c. High Latency, QoS & Any to any connectivity
d. All of the above
273. The access code for internet using BSNL sancharnet card is
a) 172233
b)172222
c)1500
The correct answer is a) 172233
274. The uniform all India access no. for ISDN access is
a) '172225'.
b) 172222
c) 172233
The correct answer is a) 172225
275. The access code for internet using Account free Internet dial up access based on CLI, is
a) 172225
b) 172233
c) 172222
The correct answer is c) 172222
276. Broadband services offer speed ranging from …….. to ………
256 Kbps to 24 Mbps
277. The access code for Free Phone Service (FPH) is ……
1800
278. The access code for Virtual Card Calling Service (VCC) is …..
1802
279. The access code for Virtual Private Network (VPN) is …..
1801
280. On landline numbers by dialing 12555 the subscribers can have many types of services
like:
 Latest Bollywood songs
 Old classic songs
 Jokes
 Horoscope
 International/National news
All the above.
281. ARPU stands for ----------
AVERAGE REVENUE PER USER.
282. The revenue sharing ratio in VAS is …..
70:30
283 Astrology, Bollywood and Cricket related content is termed as ABC of VAS content.
284. STK stands for …….
SIM TOOL KIT.
285. Pull based services are …….. initiated.

a) User
b) Service Provider
Correct answer is a) User (customer sends sms)
286. In 3 G higher bandwidth, maximum up-to 2 Mbps, would be available to end users.
287. Mandi Bhav – Mandi Bahv service provides rate list of more than 500 commodities from
over 3000 Mandis across India.
288. Humshakal: This application helps to understand the similarities a person has with other
celebrities, icons etc.
289. BSNL Live‟ can be accessed by all GSM
a) (2.5 G and 3G) subscribers
b) 2G customers
Correct answer is a)
290. An ISDN subscriber can establish ……. Simultaneous independent calls.
a) 2
b) 3
Correct answer is a) 2.
291. ISDN offers a data transmission speed of ……. Kbps with ISDN controller card.
a) 56 kbps
b) 64 Kbps
c) 28 Kbps
Correct answer is b) 64 Kbps
292. The internet access code through Sancharnet is
a) 172222
b) 172233
Correct answer is b) 172233
293. The ISDN access code for internet is
a) 172222
b) 172233
c) 172225
Correct answer is 172225
294. Audio conferencing facility is available to
a) All customers
b) Existing subscribers only
Correct answer is b) Existing subscribers only
295. 12555 service offers
a) Latest Bollywood songs

b) Old classic songs
b) Jokes
c)Horoscope
d) All the above
Correct answer is d) all the above
296. ARPU stands for Average Revenue Per User.
297. Centralised NMS for MLLN is located at…………….
a) Bangalore
B) Pune
C) Jabalpur
a) Bangalore
298. VMUX Type 1 Supports ……. Nos of E1s.
a) 12
b) 4
c) 4
299. HDSL offers a speed of 2 Mbps upto a driving distance of … Kms
a) 3
b)3.5
Correct answer is b) 3.5 Kms
300. NTU type STU 160 works upto ……… Kbps
A) 64 Kbps
B) 128 Kbps
C) 256 Kbps
Correct answer is B) 128 Kbps

301. CTU-s and CTU-R work upto …..
a) 2 Mbps
b) 1 Mbps
c) 512 Kbps
302. Disaster Recovery site for MLLN is at
a) Bangalore
b) Pune
c) Calcutta
Correct answer is b) Pune
303. TVARIT main server is located at
a) Bangalore
b) Pune
C) Hyderabad
304. Centralised NMS for the whole network of MLLN is situated at
a) Bangalore
b) Pune
C) Hyderabad

305. In MLLN, connectivity between R-DXCs is in
a) Mesh fashion
b) Dual homed
c) Ring
Correct answer is a) Mesh fashion.
306. DXCs & SR-DXCs are based on …… tier architecture.
a) 2 tier
b) 3 tier
Correct answer is b) 3 tier architecture.
307. In MLLN, ROT has been planned for every station having more than ….. Nos of leased
circuits.
a) 30
b) 50
c) 100
308. Radio Modems work on the principle of ………….. operation.
a) Line of Sight
b) Line off sight
c) Linear
Correct answer is a) Line of Sight
309. The Radio Modems in BSNL are of ……… make
a) RADWIN
b) RADO
c) ITI
Correct answer is a) RADWIN
310. Radio Modems work in the frequency band of ……. GHz
a) 2
b)3
c) 4
Correct answer is a) 2 GHz
311. Data is transmitted in the form of……………..on the system in Radio Modems.
a) Ethernet
b) ATM
c) Frame Relay
d) Optical
Correct answer is a) Ethernet
312. Normally the antenna height at the customer site varies from
a) 3 to 10 m
b) 3 to 20 m
c) 3 to 25 m
Correct answer is b) 3 to 20 m
313. Radio Modem Hop distance depends on
a) Trans power
b) Receiver sensitivity
c) Size of the antenna

d) Tower height
e) All the above
314. The maximum EIRP is ….. dBm
a) 20
b) 25
c) 30
Correct answer is c) 30 dBm
315. Input power supply for Radio Modem is
a) 230 V AC
b) 48 v DC
C) 60 V DC
Correct answer is a) 230 V AC
316. In Radio Modem, the 2048 Kbps signals can be
a) Framed or unframed
b) Synchronous or asynchronous
c) a) and b)
317. The RADIO Modems conform to the following modulation
a) Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
b) Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum

c) a and b
318. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum uses the following to directly modulate a carrier
a) Data to be transmitted only
b) Known code only
c) Both a] and b]
Correct answer is c) both a] and b]
319. EIRP stands for
a) Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
b) Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power
c) Effective Internal Radiated Power
d) Equivalent Internal Radiated power
Correct answer is a) Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
320. The processing gain of a direct sequence spectrum shall be at least
a) 10 dB
b) 20 dB
c) 30 dB
Correct answer is a) 10 dB
321. The no. of DWDM rings working in BSNL network is
a) 16
b) 32
c) 20
322. The accepted industry thumb rule is that 80% revenue comes from
a) 90% customers
b) 75% customers
c) 20 % customers
Correct answer is c) 20% customers
323. There should be one agency for every ……. Outstanding accounts.
a) 1000
b) 2000
c) 3000
Correct answer is b) 2000
324. The entire exercise of identifying and appointing agencies should be completed in 20 days.
325. After a period of 3 months the accounts should be shifted to the next bucket.
326. What is the Revenue Assurance Project of Project Shikhar ?
(a) Project Udaan

(b) Project Vijay
(c) Project Dosti
(d) Project Kuber
327. Bucket 1 denotes
(a) outstandings of 3-6 months

(b) 6-12 months
(c) 12-36 months
(d) none
328. Only outstanding dues of ____________ shall be allocated to private recovery
agencies.
(a) Private customers

(b) Central Govt
(c) Defence
(d)None of these
329. If an SSA is divided in to 3 areas, how many portfolios are prepared?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
330. Out standing dues of more than Rs. 20000/- should be persuaded by
(a) Private Recovery agencies (b) BSNL Internal Teams (c) To be written Off
331. No agency is allocated more than ____________ accounts for whole SSA
(a) 1000
(b) 1500
(c) 2000
(d) 2500
332. The outstanding accounts are to be reviewed and shifted to the next bucket
(a) After 2 months

(b) After 3 months
(c) After 6 months
(d) After one year
333. Internal Team of SSA report to
(a) SSA head

(b) IFA of SSA
(c) CAO(TR) of SSA
(d) DGM(ADMN)
334. ____________ is the Agency Manager in SSA.
(a) SSA head

(b) IFA of SSA
(c) CAO(TR) of SSA
(d) DGM(ADMN)
335. What is the security deposit payable by the approved private recovery agency?
( a) Rs. 10000/-
(b) Rs. 15000/-
(c) Rs. 20000/-
(d) Rs. 25000/-
336. ______________ is the project Sponsor(Collections) of project Kuber at Corporate Office.
(a) Director (CFA)
(b) Director (CM)
(c) Director(EB)
(d) ED (Finance )
337. Life of VRLA battery:
 Batteries upto 200AH: 4 Years
 Batteries more than 200 AH: 6 years
338. Life of Power Plant:
Static P/P : 15 years
SMPS P/P: 15 years
339. Earthing is provided for the following purposes:
 Reduction of Crosstalk and Noise.
 Protection of costly apparatus and persons against foreign voltages and leakage currents
from power wirings touching the metallic frame of the equipment.
 Protection of buildings and equipments from lightning strikes.
 Earthing of power supply systems is used to ensure reliability of power as it helps to provide
stability of voltage conditions preventing excess fluctuations and providing a measure of
protection against lightning.
Correct answer is all the above.
340. Three types of earth electrodes are commonly used for earthing systems.
1. Spike electrodes: are used where space is not a problem.
2. Plate electrodes: Where there is not much space but digging is not a problem.
3. Strip electrodes: In hilly areas where digging beyond 2-3ft depth is not possible and space is
available.
341. The following points are to be remembered with respect to earthing
Earth resistance should be less than 0.5 Ώ for electronic exchanges
 Earth resistance is to be measured every six months.
 One dry season must be included in these two occasions.
 For lightning prone areas, it should be measured every month

342. Air-conditioning system in use may be categorized in to the following types:
1) Window Type Units
2) Split Type Units.
3) Package Type unit
343. Important Monthly Checks wrt AC.
Micro –filter Cleaning.
Fresh Air Filter cleaning.
Check for leakage of conditioned air
Check lubrication of all bearings
344. Important Maintenance Checks For Engine Alternator Set Daily
1. Check Engine oil level and leakage if any.
2. Check Radiator for water level and leakage if any.
3. Check fuel level.
4. Check that battery charger is in trickle charging position.
345. The inverters may not be loaded beyond 80%of its rated capacity(T/F)
TRUE
346. In split AC units, the condenser & Compressor Unit [outdoor unit] and cooling coil unit
[indoor unit] are housed in two separate enclosures. (T/F)
TRUE
347. Earth resistance should be less than 0.5 Ώ for electronic exchanges(T/F)
TRUE
348. All buildings above 15 m hight and all Digital Electronic exchanges and all the exchanges
of 1K or above shall be provided with an automatic fire detection system, in addition to
manual fire alarm system. (T/F)
TRUE
349 Active fire protection measures are those which are adopted at the planning stage of the
building or facility.(T/F)
FALSE, IT IS PASSIVE FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEM.
350. Which of the following is not true with respect to CDR?
a) It covers Landline
b) It covers Broadband
c) It covers Leased Lines
d) It includes mobile
Correct answer is d) it includes mobile – This is not true.
351. Payment Management system is designed by……… for BSNL.
a) TCS
b) Wipro
c) Infosys
Correct answer is a) TCS
352. The Electronic Stapling software has been installed at
a) Hyderabad
b) Bangalore
C) Pune
Correct answer is a) Hyderabad
353. CRM stands for
a) Customer Relationship Management
b) Customer Retail Management
c) Customer Resource Management
354. Web Self Care Module of CDR enables subscribers to
a) place any request
b) view their bills

c) Make online payment of bills
d) all the above
355. Each LE router is connected to the Aggregation Router through E1 links.
356. Each Aggregation Router in each SSA shall be connected over STM-1 link to the nearest
MPLS node.
357. In CDR project, Hyderabad is configured as the DR site for Kolkata and vice versa. Similarly,
Pune is configured as the DR site for Chandigarh and vice versa.
358. In CDR, billing will be based on MOU i.e. Minutes of Usage instead of MCU.
359. The entire CDR project is going to be implemented with____________ Data Centres.
a. Four
b. Five
c. Six
d. Eight
360. ______________is configured as the DR site for Kolkata in CDR Project.
a. Bangalore
b. Pune
c. Hyderabad
d. Chandigarh
361. ______________is configured as the DR site for Chandigarh in CDR Project
a. Bangalore
b. Pune
c. Hyderabad
d. Chandigarh
362. The South and East Zones are considered as____________.
a. Project-I
b. Project-II
363. North and West Zones are considered as the ___________
a. Project-I
b. Project-II
364. The CDR project is going to replace all existing systems for Commercial, TRA, FRS and
DQ.
a. True
b. False
365. The project will cover the customer care and billing for the following services.
a. Landline
b. Broadband
c. CDMA
d. Leased line
e. All a, b, c & d
366. OYT connection shall be provided in CDR
a. True
b. False
367. The tariff in CDR System is based on MOU (Minutes of Usage) based system.
a. True
b. False
368. Each LE router is connected to the Aggregation Router through E1 links.
a. True
b. False
369. VSAT service of BSNL covers
a) All parts of India
b) Only selected parts of India
Correct answer is a) all parts of India.
370. VSAT supports
f) Video Multicast
g) Internet
h) Video conferencing
i) Voice telephony
j) All the above

371. 3G data cards support
a) Single Band operation only
b) Triband operation only
c) a and b
372.VSAT stands for Very Small Aperture Terminal.
373. VSAT equipment consists of Outdoor Unit and Indoor Unit.
374.. Point to point network allows two-way communications between two VSATs.
[TRUE]
375. All remote VSAT locations are having private IP.
376. In VSAT network, customers can take 64 Kbps or multiple of it, for their office
connectivity.
377 BSNL’s Ku band Hub (Earth Station) is located at Bangalore.
378. I.F is generally in ………. Band.

a) Ku Band
b) Ka band
c) L band
Correct answer is c) L band
379. VSAT offers maximum download speed of up to 4 Mbps and maximum upload speed of
up to 2 Mbps
380. In VSAT, Point to Point Network allows two-way communications between…… V-SAT
sites.
a) two
b) more than two
Correct answer is a) two
381. Star Network allows any number of V-SAT sites to have two-way communication with a
central hub.
382. V-SAT Broadband (Ku band V-SAT) networks of BSNL designed in a hub-and-spoke
fashion with customer locations connecting directly over the air to a central “hub” facility.
383. BSNL’s Ku Band HUB (Earth Station) is available at

a) Bangalore
b) Thane
c) Secundarabad
d) New Delhi
384. V-SAT antenna or dish size is typically about ------- to -------- meter in diameter for Ku-
band systems.
a) 2 to 5
b) 1 to 3
c) 0.55 to 1.8
d) None
385. Broadband V-SAT of BSNL, operating in Ku band of electromagnetic spectrum i.e. -----
to ----- GHz,
a) 11 to 18
b) 4 to 6
c) 20 to 25
d) None
386. V-SAT equipment mainly consist of ODU & ------------.
a) Modem
b) Base band unit
c) IDU
d) All of the above

387. The outdoor unit system consists of:
a) Antenna
b) BUC
c) LNB
d) All of the above

388. On receiving side, IDU converts
a) IF to base band signals
b) Base band to IF
c) RF to IF
d) If to RF
389. V-SAT networks can be arranged in ---------------- configurations
a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Broadcast
d) All of the above
390. V-SAT Broadband (Ku band V-SAT) networks of BSNL designed in a ------- and-spoke
fashion.
a) Hub
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) None
391. V-SAT systems can be operated in either ---------- or multi user environment.
a) Single
b) Double
c) Triple
d) None
392. Point to Point Network allows two-way communications between ---------- V-SAT sites.
a) Two
b) Any number of
c) Three
d) None
393. Spreading of light pulse as it travels down optical fiber is known as:
(a) Attenuation
(b) Absorption
(c) Dispersion
(d) Reflection
394. Access code for PRM (Premium Rate Service) is
(a) 1864
(b) 1867
(c) 1802
(d) 1800
395. Which Third optical window is having central frequency of :
(a) 850 nm
(b) 1550 nm
(c) 1310 nm
(d)1600 nm
396. What is frame duration of basic SDH frame ?.

(a) 125 ms
(b) 126 μs
(c) 64 μs
(d) 125 μs
397. Which fiber is designed specifically to meet the needs of DWDM application?
(a) Dispersion shifted fiber

(b) Non-dispersion-shifted fibre
(c) Non-zero dispersion-shifted fibre
(d) None of these
398. What is the maximum value of earth resistance recommended for electronic
Exchanges?
(a) 1 Ω
(b) (b)2 Ω
(c) (c)0.2 Ω
(d) 0.5 Ω
399. The minimum speed of broadband connection in BSNL is:

(a) 128 kbps
(b) 256 kbps
(c) 512 kbps
(d) 1Mbps
400. While laying OFC, route indicators are to be placed after every:
(a) 100meter
(b) 150meter
(c) 200 meter
(d) 500meter
401. Number of time slots in 2Mbps PCM are

(a) 24
(b) 30
(c) 31
(d) 32
402. Access code for BSNL’s FLPP service is?.

(a) 1805
(b) 1804
(c) 1800
(d) 1900
403. Which of the following is used to aggregate the broad band connections from different
subscribers
(a) Splitter
(b) (b) DSL Modem
(c) DSLAM
(d) BRAS
404. What is the per cell float voltage recommended for VRLA battery ?
(a) 2.25 V
(b) 2.30 V
(c) 2.50 V
(d) 2.45 V
405. Which one is not the stroke of diesel engine
(a) Admission
(b) Compression
(c) Ignition
(d) Power
406. Subnet mask for IP address 10.10.20.0/24 is:
(a) 255.255.192.0
(b) 255.255.255.192
(c) 192.192.128.0
(d) 255.255.255.0
407. The life of VRLA battery increases with increase in temperature. (FALSE)
408. In OF cable refractive index of core material is less than cladding material.
(FALSE)
409. ADSL provides faster speed in the downstream direction.(TRUE)
410. What are the instructions for monitoring of Earth.? List two benefits of good earthing
Instruction for monitoring of Earth resistance issued from Corporate office. As per the instruction:
(1.) E/R is to be measured every six months.
(2.) Earth resistance should be less than 0.5 Ώ for electronic
(3.) One dry season must be included in these two occasions.
(4.) For lightning prone area, it should be measured every month.
411. Benefits of good earth:

(1.) Reduction of Crosstalk and Noise
(2.) Protection of buildings and equipments from lighting strikes.
(3.) Voltage stability
(4.) Protection of costly apparatus and persons against foreign voltages and leakage currents
(5.) Used as return path for the conductors in some telegraph and voice circuits
412. Access code for PRM service is:

(a) 1802
(b) 1860
(c) 1867
(d) 1868
413. Access code for BSNL landline IVR based VAS is:
(a) 12558
(b) 12775
(c) 12555
(d) 12888
414. Recommended placement of Route indicator for OFC is every:

(a) 100m
(b) 200m
(c) 500m
(d) 1Km
415. Recommended Trench depth for OFC in cross country route is:
(a) 0.9m
(b) 1 m
(c) 1.5m
(d) 1.65m
416. C-Band in OFC communication is:
(a) 1260-1360nm
(b) 1460-1530nm
(c) 1530-1565nm
(d) 1625-1675nm
417. IP address class reserved for multicasting is:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
418. In CDR project, Disaster recovery site for Chandigarh data center is:
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Kolkata
(c) Pune
(d) Banaglore
419. MAC adderess length is:
(a) 16 bit
(b) 32 bit
(c) 48 bit
(d) 64 bit
420. The minimum speed of broadband connection in BSNL is:

(a) 128kbps
(b) 256 kbps
(c) 512kbps
(d) 1Mbps
421. Automatic fire detection system is required if height of building is more than:
(a) 10 meter
(b) 15 meter
(c) 25 meter
(d) 30 meter
422. Frequency of voltage in Engine alternator has to be checked:
(a) Daily
(b) Weekly
(c) Fortnightly
(d) Monthly
423. Disk cleanup targets files:
(a) setup log
(b) Recycle
(c) Temp Internet
(d) All
424. The RI of core is 1% more than that of the cladding.
425. The phenomenon of Total Internal Reflection of Light is used in OF communications.
426. Based on the mode of propagation, fibres can be classified into Single Mode Fibre (SM) and Multi
Mode Fibre(MM).
427. Based on Index, fibres can be classified as Step index (SI)and Graded Index (GRIN) fibres.
428. The first window lies in the range of 800 to 900 nm.
429. The first window is suitable for short distance communication.
430. Third window (1500 nm- C band) is suitable for DWDM/DWDM applications.
431. Conventional C band range is 1530nm to 1565 nm.
432. Two types of attenuation are intrinsic and extrinsic.
433. Spreading of light pulses or pulse widening is called dispersion.
434. Three types of dispersion are Modal, Material and Waveguide.
435. CDR project covers the customer care and billing for
a) Landline
b) Broadband
c) CDMA
d) Leasedline
f) Above all
Correct answer is f) above all.
436. The Electronic Stapling software has been installed at

a) Hyderabad
b) Pune
c) Bangalore
Correct answer is a) Hyderabad.
437. Networking is required for sharing

a) hardware resources
b) software resources
c) information/database
d) communication- chatting, email etc
e) all the above
438. Type of computer networks include

a) Local Area Network
b) Metropolitan Area Network
c) Wide Area Network
d) all the above
439. All computers on the internet communicate with one another using the Transmission Control
Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) suite.
440. Computers on the internet use a Client-Server architecture.
441. Data Terminal Equipments (DTE) include

a) PCs
b) Servers
c) Printers
d) All the above

442. Data Communication Equipments (DCE) include
a) Hubs
b) Modems
c) Switches
d) Routers
e) Gateways
f) All the above
Correct answer is f) all the above.
443. Network Interface Card (NIC ) links the DTE and DCE.
444. System Software includes
a) Operating System
b) Device Drivers
c) Utilities
d) All the above
445. Examples of Network Operating System are
a) MS Windows Server
b) Unix
c) Linux
d) Sun-Solaris
e) All the above
446. VRLA battery works on the principle of Constant Voltage Charging.
447. For VRLA batteries, the voltage is set at 2.23 V per cell and total float voltage is 53.5 V.
448. Battery capacity is always measured in Ampere.
449. The life of a VRLA battery is 4 years upto 200 AH & 5 years above 200 AH.
450. Life of static and SMPS power plant is 15 years.
451. The most commonly used earthing systems include

a) Spike electrodes
b) Plate electrodes
c) Strip electrodes
452. A1 city core routers are fully meshed between locations on ……….. link.
a) STM 16
b) STM 1
c) STM 4
Correct answer is a) STM 16
453. B1 and B2 cities have only
a) CORE
b) EDGE
c) PE
Correct answer is b) EDGE
454. 480 Port and above capacity DSLAMs will have ……….. port for uplink traffic.
a) FE
b) GE
c) None
Correct answer is b) GE
455. A BRAS in the Broadband Network
a) Terminates customer session

b) Authenticates
c) Allots IP address
d) Keeps track of user session for billing alongwith RADIUS
e) All the above.
Correct answer is e) all the above
456. LDAP stores

a) User name
b) Pass word
c) Default services
d) All the above
457. Broadband Network core components include
a) BBRAS
b) Tier 1 Switch
c) Tier 2 Switch
d) Access components/DLAM/CPE
e) All the above
458. DISPERSION [Spreading of light pulses] types are:-
a)MODAL,
b)MATERIAL,
c)WAVEGUIDE
d) All the above
Correct answer is d) All the above
459. Non Dispersion Shifted fibres are suitable for
a) TDM
b) DWDM
c) FDM
Correct answer is b) DWDM
460. NIB-II has been implemented in._____________states
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five.
c) Two
461. Primary Network Operating center at_______________________
a) Nagpur
b) . Hyderabad
c) Bangalore
d) Pune
462. Disaster Recovery Network Operating center is at ___________________
 Nagpur
 Hyderabad
 Bangalore
 Pune
463 .__________DSLAM, will be aggregated through Gigabit Ethernet Interface.
a) 64 port
b) 120 port
c) 240 port
d) 480 port
464. . Class “C” IP addresses begin with
a) 0
b) 10
c)110
465. IP addresses from 224 to 239 are used for……
a) Future use
b) IP Multicasting
466. Addresses beginning with 127 decimal are called
a) Class A address
b) Class B address
c) Loop Back address.
467. To calculate the no. of subnets or hosts, the formula is
A) 2n-2
n
b) 2 -2
c) 2n-1
468. BSNL Instant Messenger can be used for
a. Online chat (one-to-one) with all the users of BSNL Mail
b. Online conference (Multiple users)
c. Exchange / Transfer of files
d. To know the availability of user
e. All the above.
469. PDF stands for

a) Portable document Format
b) Portable Document File
c) Printable Document File
470. Optical fibers are composed of fine threads of glass in layers, called
(a).core
(b).Cladding
(c) Conductor
(d) a&b
471. First optical window is having central frequency of:
a) 850 nm
(b) 1550 nm
(c) 1310 nm
(d)1600 nm
472. Which fiber is designed specifically to meet the needs of DWDM application?
(a) Dispersion shifted fiber

(b) Non-dispersion-shifted fibre
(c)Non-zero dispersion-shifted fibre
(d) None of these.
473. While laying OFC, route indicators are to be placed every after:
a)100meter
b) 150meter
c) 200meter
(d) 500meter
474. In an OF communication Optical transmitter uses
a) APD
b) Diode
c) LED /LASER
d) None
475. The core has a __higher__ refractive index than the cladding.
476. By using single mode fibre ___modal___dispersion is reduced.
477. For long distance OF communication _Single Mode____type of fibre is used.

478. This disparity between the times that the light rays arrive is called modal dispersion.
479. Decay of signal strength, or loss of light power, as the signal propagates through the fiber is
known as_attenuation._
480. For Fault Localizations/Break Fault in an OFC cable Optical Time Domain
Reflecto_meter is used.
481. CDR project will cover the customer care and billing for the following services:
a) Landline
a) Broadband
b) Leased line
c) Above all
Correct answer is d) above all
482. CRM stands for ….

a) Customer Relationship Management
b) Customer Relation Management
c) Customer Retention Management
d) Customer Review Management
Correct answer is a) Customer Relationship Management
483. In CDR project, payment management system is developed by …….. for BSNL.
a) TCS
b) Wipro
c) Cognizant
Correct answer is a) TCS
484. In CDR, each exchange shall be connected to the Data Centre over ……..end links and
through the MPLS network.
a) E1
b) STM I
c) STM IV
Correct answer is a ) E1 link
485. The entire CDR project is going to be implemented with____________ Data Centres.
a. Four
b. Five
c. Six
d. Eight
486. ______________is configured as the DR site for Kolkata in CDR Project.
a. Bangalore
b. Pune
c. Hyderabad
d. Chandigarh
487. ______________is configured as the DR site for Chandigarh in CDR Project
a. Bangalore
b. Pune
c. Hyderabad
d. Chandigarh
488. The South and East Zones are considered as____________.
a. Project-I
b. Project-II
489.----------- is a powerful computer runs on Network Operating System.
a. Client
b. Server
c. Personal Computer
490.____________ is used to allocate IP address & configure other parameters like Gateway
Address, DNS address, Alternate DNS address.
a. DNS
b. DHCP
c. Proxy
491. …………………..controls & restricts outgoing & incoming traffic.
a. Proxy
b. Database
c. Mail
492…………………………… sorts dispatches & delivers electronic mails.
a. Proxy
b. Database
c. Mail
493. ……………………..links Data Terminal Equipment & Data Communication Equipment.
a. MODEM
b. NIC
c. Router
4 494. ……. …….. is physically a star topology but logically a Bus topology.
a. HUB
b. Switch
c. Router
495. The three primary components of IT Infrastructure are

a)Servers,
b) Desktop PCs and
c)network
d) above all
496. The functions of DHCP includes

a) IP address allocation
b) configuration of parameters like Gateway Address,
c) DNS address,
d) Alternate DNS Address on lease basis.
497. Why do we need Computer Networking?
 To share Hardware resources
 To share Software Resources
 To share Information or Databases
 For Communications: E-mail, e-commerce, video conferencing, chatting, etc

498. What are the components of Network?
A network has three types of components –
a. Data Terminal Equipment (DTE),

b. Data Communication Equipment (DCE) and
c. Media.
499. DTEs include
I. PCs,
II. Servers, and
III. Printers
500. The MAC (media access control) address is a ………..unique hard coded address.
a) 32 bit
b) 48 bit
c) 128 bit
501. Commonly used DCEs are
I. Modems,
II. Switches, and
III. Routers etc.
502. Modems, Hub, Switch are called
a) Inter networking devices

b) Intra networking devices
c) None
503. Examples for Inter Networking Devices are
A. Routers,
B. Gateways
C. Both A and B
504. Number of LANs can be connected with the help of some inter Networking Devices
like
a) Routers
b) Hub
c) Switch
505. Information is exchanged between different DTEs in a LAN by sending packets, which are
called ………………….packet.
a) udp
b) electrical
c) Ethernet
d) usb6.
506. Individual Computers in a LAN are identified by a unique address associated with each
NIC. This address is 48 bit unique binary number hardwired in every NIC and this known as
a) MAC (Media Access Control) or Physical address.

b) IP address or logical address
c) Socket address
507. System Software includes:
a) Operating Systems,
b) Device Drivers,
c) Utilities etc
d) All the above
508. Application Software includes
a) Word-Processor,
b) Spread-sheet,
c) Database,
d) Presentation
e) Graphic,
f) Multimedia etc
509. Desktop Operating System includes:
a. MS Windows XP,
b. Vista,
c. Macintosh etc.
510. Network Operating System includes:
a) MS Windows Server,
b) UNIX,
c) Linux,
d) Sun-Solaris etc.
511. ____________ is a powerful computer runs on Network Operating System.
a. Client
b. Server
c. Personal Computer
512.____________ is used to allocate IP address & configure other parameters like Gateway
Address, DNS address, Alternate DNS address.
a. DNS
b. DHCP
c. Proxy
513…………….controls & restricts outgoing & incoming

traffic.
a. Proxy
b. Database
c. Mail
514. ___ sorts dispatches & delivers electronic mails.
a. Proxy
b. Database
c. Mail
515. ……………links Data Terminal Equipment & Data

Communication Equipment.
a. MODEM
b. NIC
c. Router
516. .____________ is physically a star topology but

logically a Bus topology.
a. HUB
b. Switch
c. Router
517. ………uses maximum available bandwidth.
a. HUB
b. LAN Switches
c. Router
518.____________ is internetworking device which

Connects a number of LANS.
a. HUB
b. LAN Switches
c. Router
519. …………… is system software.
a. Word Processor
b. Multimedia
c. Operating System
520. .____________ is a Desktop Operating
System.
a. Windows Vista
b. Unix
c. Sun Solaris

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E2-E3 EWS QUESTION BANK………

1. BSNL’s Ku Band HUB (Earth Station) is available at

2. V-SAT antenna or dish size is typically about ------- to -------- meter in

3. Broadband V-SAT of BSNL, operating in Ku band of electromagnetic

4. V-SAT equipment mainly consist of ODU & ------------.

b) Base band unit

d) All of the above

d) All of the above

6. On receiving side, IDU converts

a) IF to base band signals

7. V-SAT networks can be arranged in ---------------- configurations

d) All of the above

8. V-SAT Broadband (Ku band V-SAT) networks of BSNL designed in a -------

9. V-SAT systems can be operated in either ---------- or multi user

10. Point to Point Network allows two-way communications between ----------

11. In multi-user mode, VSAT integrates into a

12. Figure of meantime between the failures of the VSAT is

13. BUC converts

14. LNB converts

15. Entire VSAT network can be controlled through

18. I.F is generally in ….. band.

21. MLLN is a ………………… managed Access Network.

23. The main NMS site for MLLN is located at

24. The main feature of MLLN is …….architecture of DXCs.

26. VMUX Type 1A can accommodate …….. E1 streams.

27. MLLN stands for

a) MUX Leased line Network

b) Managed Leased Line Network

c) Multi Lease Line Network

d) Modern Leased Line Network

28. DXC Stands for

a) Data cross connect

b) Digital cross connect

c) Double cross connect

d) Duplicate Cross connect

29. V.MUX stand for

a) Network Terminal Unit

b) New Transport Unit

c) New Terminating Unit

d) New Telephone Unit

31. NMS stand for

a) New Module System

b) New Management System

c) Network Management System

d) New MUX System

32. what is R-DXC

b) Report Cross Connect

c) Reconfiguration Cross Connect

d) Regional Digital Cross Connect

33. What is SR-DXC

a) Sub Report DXC

c) Super Report DXC

d) Sub Regional DXC

a) Remote Operator Terminal

b) Report Operator Terminal

c) Reconfiguration Operator Terminal

d) Regional Operator Terminal

35. In MLLN circuit number is a ….. digit code

36. In MLLN …… represents circuit number.