National Standard Exam in Junior Science (NSEJS) – 2023 Question Paper

Duration: 120 minutes Maximum Marks: 216 1 – 48 single correct (+3/−1) 49 – 60 multi correct (+6 / 0)

01. Two blocks A and B of masses 1 kg and 4 kg respectively are moving with equal kinetic energies.
Read the following statements S1 and S2
Statement S1: Ratio of speed of the block A to that of B is 1 : 2
Statement S2: Ratio of magnitude of linear momentum of A to that of B is 1 : 2
Now choose the correct option:

(a) Both S1 and S2 are true (b) Both S1 and S2 are false (c) S1 is true, S2 is false (d) S1 is false, S2 is true

02. The mass of a straight copper wire is 20.95 g and its electrical resistance is 0.065 Ω. If the density and resistivity of copper are
d = 8900 kg/m3 and ρ = 1.7 x 10−8 ohm – meter respectively, the length of the copper wire is

(a) 3 m (b) 6m (c) 12 m (d) data is insufficient

03. It is known that speed of sound in a gas is directly proportional to square root of absolute temperature T measured in kelvin. i.e. v ∝ √𝑇. Speed of
sound in air at 0 0C is 332 m/s. On a hot day, the speed of sound was measured 360 m/s in NCR Delhi, the temperature of air in Delhi on that very
day must have been close to

(a) 40 0C (b) 42 0C (c) 44 0C (d) 48 0C

04. A small bar magnet is allowed to fall vertically through a metal ring lying in a horizontal plane. During its fall, the acceleration of the magnet in
the region close to the ring must be (g is acceleration due to gravity)

(a) equal to g (b) less than g and uniform (c) less than g and non-uniform (d) greater than g and uniform
National Standard Exam in Junior Science (NSEJS) – 2023 Question Paper

05. A U tube of uniform cross section contains two different liquids in its limbs namely water
(density 1.0 x 103 kg/m3) and mercury (density 13.6 x 103 kg/m3) as shown in figure. The difference in
heights of mercury column in two limbs of the tube is H = 1.5 cm.
The height ‘h’ of the water column in the left limb above the mercury column must be nearly
(neglect surface tension effects)

(a) 13.6 cm (b) 20.4 cm (c) 27.0 cm (d) 9.0 cm

06. An object pin is placed at a distance 10 cm from first focus of a thin convex lens on its principal axis, the lens forms a real and inverted image of
this object pin at a distance 40 cm beyond the second focus. The focal length of the lens is

(a) 16 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 25 cm (d) 40 cm

07. A bullet of mass 0.25 kg moving horizontally with velocity v m/s strikes a stationary block of mass 1.00 kg
suspended by a long inextensible string of negligible mass and length 𝑙. The bullet gets embedded in the block and
the system rises up to maximum height h = 19.6 cm (as shown in figure). The value of initial speed ‘v’ of the bullet
is

(a) 5.9 m/s (b) 7.8 m/s (c) 9.8 m/s (d) 11.8 m/s

08. The equivalent resistance between points A and B in the following electrical network is

3 4 2 9
(a) 4 Ω (b) 3 Ω (c) 5 Ω (d) 14 Ω
National Standard Exam in Junior Science (NSEJS) – 2023 Question Paper

09. The order of magnitude of the pressure (in pascal) exerted by an adult human on the Earth when he stands bare footed on the Earth on both his
legs, is

(a) 102 (b) 104 (c) 107 (d) 109

10. On the board of an experiment, three bulbs B1 (100 W, 200 V), B2 (60 W, 200 V) and B3 (40 W, 200 V) are
connected to a 200 V fluctuating supply with a fuse in series as shown in the figure. The electric current rating
of the fuse required in the circuit to protect all the three bulbs must be

(a) 0.2 amp (b) 0.3 amp (c) 0.5 amp (d) 1.0 amp

11. An ant is sitting on the principal axis of a convex mirror of focal length f, at a distance 2f from the pole in front of the mirror. It starts moving on
the principal axis towards the mirror. During the course of motion, the distance between the ant and its image

(a) throughout increases (b) throughout decreases (c) first increases, then decreases (d) first decreases, then increases

12. You are given three resistance of values 2 Ω, 4 Ω and 6 Ω. Which of the following values of equivalent resistance is not possible to get by
using/arranging these three resistors in any circuit?

(a) less than 2 Ω (b) equal to 4.4 Ω (c) equal to 5.5 Ω (d) equal to 7.6 Ω

13. ABC is a 0.8 m long curved wire track in a vertical plane. A bead of mass 3 g is released from rest at A. It slides
along the wire and comes to rest at C. The average frictional force opposing the motion in a single trip from A to
C is

(a) 18.40 x 10−3 N (b) 29.4 x 10−3 N (c) 11.04 x 10−3 N (d) 7.36 x 10−3 N
National Standard Exam in Junior Science (NSEJS) – 2023 Question Paper

14. Two long straight conductors 1 and 2, carrying parallel currents I1 and I2 in the same direction, are lying parallel
and close to each other, as shown in figure. Fe and Fm respectively represent the electric and magnetic forces,
applied by conductor 1 on conductor 2.
Choose the correct alternative regarding nature of Fe and Fm

(a) Fe is repulsive while Fm is attractive (b) Fe is repulsive and Fm is repulsive too

(c) Fe is zero and Fm is repulsive (d) Fe is zero and Fm is attractive

15. A doctor measures the temperature of a patient by a digital thermometer as 37.3 0C. As a physics student, you will record his temperature in Kelvin
as

(a) 310.30 K (b) 310.45 K (c) 310.46 K (d) 310.31 K

16. Two planets P1 and P2 are moving around the Sun, in circular orbits of radii 1013 m and 1012 m respectively. The ratio of the orbital speeds of
planets P1 and P2 in their respective orbits is

(a) √10 (b) 10 (c) (d) 1

10√10
√10

17. During the formation of which of the following ionic species, the process will be exothermic and endothermic, respectively

(a) 𝑁𝑎+ and 𝐶𝑙 − (b) 𝐶𝑙 − and 𝑂2− (c) 𝐻𝑒 + and 𝑀𝑔2+ (d) 𝐹 − and 𝐵𝑟 −

18. 𝐻2 reacts faster with 𝐶𝑙2 at 13 times faster rate than 𝐷2 because

(a) 𝐻2 has high activation energy

(b) In 𝐻2 , H – H bond energy is higher than D – D bond energy in 𝐷2
(c) 𝐻2 has low activation energy because H – H bond energy is lower than D – D bond energy
(d) In 𝐻2 there is no neutron therefore it reacts faster
National Standard Exam in Junior Science (NSEJS) – 2023 Question Paper

19. Select the correct order of dielectric constant, refractive index and intermolecular forces for water (𝐻2 𝑂) and heavy water (𝐷2 𝑂) at 293 K
respectively among those given below

(i) dielectric constant - 𝐻2 𝑂 > 𝐷2 𝑂 (ii) dielectric constant - 𝐷2 𝑂 > 𝐻2 𝑂 (iii) refractive index - 𝐻2 𝑂 > 𝐷2 𝑂
(iv) refractive index - 𝐷2 𝑂 > 𝐻2 𝑂 (v) intermolecular forces - 𝐻2 𝑂 > 𝐷2 𝑂 (vi) intermolecular forces - 𝐷2 𝑂 > 𝐻2 𝑂

The option containing all correct statements is

(a) (i), (iii), (vi) (b) (i), (iv), (v) (c) (ii), (iii), (v) (d) (i), (iv), (vi)

20. The compound which is used to purify air in space shuttles, submarines and breathing masks is

(a) 𝐾2 𝑂2 (b) 𝐾𝑂2 (c) 𝐾2 𝑂 (d) 𝑁𝑎2 𝑂

21. The total number of lone pairs of electrons in 𝐼3 − is

(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 9

22. Among the elements of atomic number (Z) from 1 to 92 (i.e. from H to U), the elements having atomic number _____ and _____ are not found in
nature

(a) 89, 92 (b) 83, 89 (c) 48, 61 (d) none of these

23. Which state of matter exists at very high temperature and at very low temperature (near absolute zero) respectively?
BEC stands for Bose Einstein Condensate.

(a) BEC, fermionic condensate (b) Plasma, BEC (c) Fermionic condensate, Plasma (d) Gas, BEC
National Standard Exam in Junior Science (NSEJS) – 2023 Question Paper

24. The bond which will break in first step when following compound reacts with 𝐻3 𝑂+ is

(a) bond ‘a’ (b) bond ‘b’ (c) bond ‘c’ (d) bond ‘d’

25. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of Lewis base strength.
The option containing correct increasing order is

(a) iii, ii, i (b) i, ii, iii (c) ii, i, iii (d) iii, i, ii

26. The maximum number of −𝐶𝐻3 groups which may be present in alkane 𝐶11 𝐻24 is close to

(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 2

27. A glass bulb of 1 liter capacity contains 4 g methane. The bulb is so as to burst out if the pressure exceeds just 10 atm. The temperature, at which
the pressure of gas reaches the bursting point is close to [given: R = 0.0821 lit atm/mol K]

(a) 480 K (b) 487.6 K (c) 500 K (d) 373 K

28. The pH of 10−8 M 𝐻𝐶𝑙 is

(a) 7 (b) <7 (c) 8 (d) >8

29. An element X has two natural isotopes: 𝑋510 (atomic mass 10.013 u) and 𝑋511 (atomic mass 11.009). Relative abundance of these isotopes in nature
has been recorded 19.8% and 80.2% respectively. On the basis of these data, average atomic mass of element X is close to

(a) 10.210 u (b) 10.511 u (c) 10.799 u (d) 10.812 u

National Standard Exam in Junior Science (NSEJS) – 2023 Question Paper

30. A mass of 0.75 g of the mixture of 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3 and 𝐾2 𝐶𝑂3 is completely neutralized by 50 mL 0.25 N 𝐻𝐶𝑙. The percentage of 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3 in the mixture
is

(a) 50.6 (b) 49.4 (c) 50 (d) data insufficient

31. A boy gifted a diamond ring to his mother on her wedding anniversary. If this diamond ring contains 3 carat diamond then the number of carbon
atoms he gifted to his mother is [given: 1 carat = 200 mg]

(a) 3.01 × 1023 (b) 2.1 × 1023 (c) 3.01 × 1023 (d) 2.1 × 1023

32. Which of the following will form foam in water containing 𝐶𝑎2+ and 𝑀𝑔2+ ions?

(a) Ba – stearate (b) Na – palmitate (c) Potassium n – dodecyl benzene sulphonate (d) all of these

33. In animals, heart is the main pumping station, supplying and collecting blood from various parts of the body. In mammals, which of the following
structures regulates the unidirectional flow of blood and found between left auricle and ventricle?

(a) Tricuspid valve (b) Aortic semilunar valve (c) Pulmonary seminular valve (d) Mitral valve

34. Which of the following refer to the units involved in most of the Reflex Arcs?

(a) Stimulus receptor, afferent nerve, efferent nerve and an effector neuron
(b) Two receptor neurons, one or more internuncial neuron(s) and an effector neuron
(c) One receptor neuron, one or more internuncial neuron(s) and an effector neuron
(d) One receptor neuron, afferent nerve and an effector neuron
National Standard Exam in Junior Science (NSEJS) – 2023 Question Paper

35. Through the process of cross – breeding / mutation breeding or cytoplasmic hybridization of animals and plants, new improved, high yielding
varieties or exclusively distinct hybrids are obtained. Which of the following are cytoplasmic hybrids / cybrids?

(a) Triticale & Fairchild Mule (b) Tigon & Leopon (c) Pomato & Bromato (d) Jaya & Ratna Rice

36. In a kind of animal tissue all cells rest on a basement membrane, but the basal cells do not reach the free surface of the epithelium. Two layers of
cells and two layers of nuclei are, therefore, observable. Thus, without being stratified, the epithelium appears to have 2 or 3 layers of cells. Such
epithelia are mostly ciliated and contain mucus – secreting goblet cells. These epithelia are characteristic to which of the following?

(a) thin bronchioles, uriniferous tubules, ciliary body (b) bile ducts, lining of stomach, trachea
(c) skin epidermis, anal canal, cornea of eye (d) trachea, vasa deferentia, epididymes

37. Phenylthicarbamide (PTC) has a bitter taste. Non – tasting ability is reported to be due to recessive allele of the taster gene. In random populations
about 30% people lack the ability to taste PTC. A non – taster woman is married to a PTC taster man and has three children. The first two children
are born as non – tasters. What is the probability that their third child will be born a non – taster?

(a) 0.25 (b) 0.50 (c) 0.15 (d) 0.75

38. The diagram presented here is a sectional view of an endocrine gland. Its histologically characteristic
layers are labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Which of these is/are responsible for the secretion of 𝐶21 Cortisol and
Corticosterone hormones?

(a) 1 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

National Standard Exam in Junior Science (NSEJS) – 2023 Question Paper

39. Which of the following eye defects, arises due to gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of the eye lens?

(a) hyperopia (b) presbyopia (c) astigmatism (d) myopia

40. Which of the following is an Angoumois grain moth, causing severe damage to the stored grains, like paddy or wheat?

(a) Sitophilus sp. (b) Sitotroga sp. (c) Gnorimoschema sp. (d) Plodia sp.

41. To effect fertilization in angiosperms, pollen grains germinate on the stigma and give out pollen tubes which grow through the style and reach the
ovule where the male gametes are discharged close to the egg. Suppose a brinjal plant has to produce 300 seeds in a particular fruit. How many cell
divisions will be required to produce the desired fruit?

(a) 250 Meiotic divisions (b) 375 Meiotic divisions (c) 375 Mitotic divisions (d) 300 Mitotic and 125 Meiotic divisions

42. In the kingdom Plantae, which of the following examples is considered peculiar for the anatomical characters namely Carinal canals and Vallecular
canals?

(a) Magnolia (b) Gnetum (c) Equisetum (d) Lycopodium

43. The secondary constriction on the chromosomes always has a constant position. Therefore, it can be used as marker to identify specific chromosomes.
In addition to the centromere, one or more secondary constrictions can be observed in Metaphase stage chromosomes. These chromosomes are called
Satellite or SAT chromosomes. In man they are usually associated with the short arm of acrocentric chromosomes. Select the correct option for such
types of chromosomes

(a) 1, 10, 15, 16 and Y (b) 13, 14, 15, 21 and 22 (c) 13, 14, 16, 18 and 21 (d) 13, 14, 18 and 22
National Standard Exam in Junior Science (NSEJS) – 2023 Question Paper

44. In some plants, the secondary cell wall has depressions or pits. Adjacent pits are separated by the middle lamella and the primary cell wall,
together forming the pit membrane. Which of the following is the thickening formed on the pit membrane by circular deposition of microfibrils?

(a) Margo (b) Torus (c) Zona occludens (d) Sclereid

45. The arrangement of flowers and their mode of distribution on the shoot system is characteristic to a
particular plant. The diagrammatic presentation given herewith, illustrates various types of
inflorescences. Select the option exemplifying a kind of Cymose type

(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 6 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 5

46. Genes that are normally important in mammalian embryogenesis include members of all of the following classes, except

(a) proto-oncogenes (b) growth factor genes (c) tumor suppressor genes (d) Hox genes

47. During a type of Carbon dioxide fixation occuring at night while the stomata are still open, the first step is the combination of CO2 with
phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) to form 4 – carbon oxaloacetate in the chloroplast of mesophyll cells. To which kind of ecological type of plant this
process is related to?

(a) Cocos (b) Rhizophora (c) Aloe (d) Vallisneria

48. Some plants are specifically called hemiparasitic epiphytes. Included among them are the plants called as mistletoes. Which of the following is the
most common hemiparasitic mistletoe occuring in India?

(a) monotropa uniflora (b) dendrophthoe falcata (c) orobanche cernua (d) cuscuta reflexa
National Standard Exam in Junior Science (NSEJS) – 2023 Question Paper

49. Crane A and Crane B take 1 minute and 2 minute respectively to lift a car of mass 2 ton (2000 kg) upward through a vertical height h = 3 m. If
the efficiencies of the engines (defined as the ratio of work output to fuel energy input) of both the Cranes are equal, your inference is that

(a) the power supplied by Crane B is 1000 kW

(b) the Crane A and the Crane B consume equal amount of fuel
(c) the power supplied by Crane A is more than the power supplied by Crane B
(d) the Crane A consumes more fuel in lifting the car than the Crane B

50. Two tungsten filament bulbs with rating 100 W, 200 V and 60 W, 200 V are connected in series with a
variable supply of 0 – 400 V range, as shown. The supply voltage is gradually increased from 0 to 400 V.
Choose the correct statement(s).

(a) when supply voltage is 200 V, 60 W bulb glows brighter

(b) when supply voltage is 200 V, total power dissipated in both the bulbs is greater than 37.5 W
(c) when the supply voltage is 400 V, the 100 W bulb gets fused
(d) when supply voltage becomes 400 V, none of the bulbs glow

51. A solid sphere of radius R = 10 cm floats in water with 60% of its volume submerged. In an oil, this sphere floats with 80% of its volume
submerged. If the density of water is 1000 kg/m3. The correct statement(s) is/are that

(a) the density of the material of sphere is 600 kg/m3 (b) the density of oil is 750 kg/m3
(c) the weight of the sphere in air is close to 24.64 N (d) the loss in weight of the sphere when floating in oil is close to 30.82 N
National Standard Exam in Junior Science (NSEJS) – 2023 Question Paper

52. A particle starts moving from origin O along X axis. The velocity – time graph of motion of particle
is given below. The positive values of v refer to direction of motion along +ve X axis, the negative
values of v refer to direction of motion along –ve X direction. Choose the correct statement(s)

(a) Initial acceleration of the particle is 4 m/s2

(b) The displacement of the particle from origin is 130 m after 16 sec.
(c) Average speed of the moving particle during 0 – 16 sec. is 11.88 m/s
(d) Somewhere during the motion for 0 – 16 sec, the retardation of the particle is 10 m/s2

53. Select the correct statement(s) pertaining to Bohr model of an atom

(a) an electron near the nucleus is attracted more by the nucleus; thereby has lower potential energy
(b) an electron continuously radiates energy as long as it revolves in a discrete orbit
(c) the model could not explain the spectra of multi – electron atoms
(d) this is the first atomic model based on quantization of energy

54. The correct order(s) of first ionization energy for the following pairs is/are

(a) Ag < Au (b) Pd < Pt (c) Pb > Sn (d) Sb > Bi

55. Every solvent undergoes self – ionization (autodissociation) and gives cations and anions. The substances which give solvent cations when
dissolved in that particular solvent (or) increase the concentration of solvent cations are called acids. Similarly, substances which give solvent
anions when dissolved in that particular solvent (or) increase the concentration of solvent anion are called bases. Autoionization of 𝐻2 𝑂 and 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4
are as below
2𝐻2 𝑂 ⇋ 𝐻3 𝑂+ + 𝑂𝐻 −
2𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 ⇌ 𝐻3 𝑆𝑂4 + + 𝐻𝑆𝑂4 −
(a) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 acts as a strong acid in liquid 𝑁𝐻3 solvent (b) 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 acts as strong acid in 𝐻2 𝑂 and liquid 𝑁𝐻3 solvent
(c) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 acts as base in liquid 𝐻𝐶𝑙 (d) 𝐻2 𝑂 acts as base in liquid 𝑁𝐻3 solvent
National Standard Exam in Junior Science (NSEJS) – 2023 Question Paper

56. The reaction 𝐾𝐼 + 𝐼2 ⟶ 𝐾𝐼3 involves

(a) oxidation (b) reduction (c) complex formation (d) neutralization

57. In a classroom, students were taught typical mammalian characters along with the names of Orders and representative examples. In the table given
below, column 1 includes the names of examples or Orders whereas column 2 shows related characteristics

Order Characteristics
Representative Example

1. Lagomorpha (i) First finger clawed, tail enclosed in an interfemoral membrane

2. Microchiroptera (ii) Toothless and Polyembryony

3. Armadillo (iii) Baleen

4. Proboscidea (iv) Incisors open-rooted and continue to grow throughout life

Choose the option(s) that has the correct match in the table

(a) 1 – iv (b) 2–i (c) 3 – ii (d) 4 – iii

58. Continuous inheritance of some characteristics in certain human families had attracted the attention of scientists. To improve human race by
selective breeding led Sir Francis Galton to collect and statistically analyze genealogies or pedigrees of a number of families where some or the
other traits were regularly transmitted through generations. Which of the following relate(s) to pedigree of beggars and scoundrels?

(a) Bach family of Germany (b) Zero family of Switzerland (c) Kallikaks of America (d) Jukes of New York
National Standard Exam in Junior Science (NSEJS) – 2023 Question Paper

59. An important feature of plants is the ability to adapt their growth towards or away from external stimuli such as light, water, temperature and
gravity. The physiological process of root gravitropism comprises gravity perception, signal transmission, growth response and the re-
establishment of normal growth. Following are some of the modern concept(s) explaining the mechanism of root gravitropism.
Which of the following best explain(s) the root gravitropism?

(a) Statoliths within columella cells of root cap sediment in the direction of gravity, resulting in the generation of a signal that causes asymmetric
growth
(b) Auxin influx and efflux carriers facilitate creation of a differential auxin gradient between the upper and lower side of gravi-simulated roots.
This causes differential growth responses in the gravi-responding tissue of the elongation zone, leading to root curvature
(c) Curvature in geo-stimulated roots is due to lateral redistribution of an inhibitor formed in the root cap
(d) Proplastids in root cap containing carotenoids and protochlorophyll respond to gravity

60. Photosynthesis is the process in which the phosphorylation of ADP to generate ATP occurs with the help of sunlight energy. The process is known
as photo-phosphorylation. Only two sources of energy are accessible to living organisms: sunlight and reduction-oxidation (redox) reactions.
Following are the requirements of cyclic and non-cyclic phosphorylations occuring in green plants.
Choose the correct option(s) related to cyclic photo-phosphorylation:

(a) photo system II is not involved (b) only ATP molecules are generated but no NADH
(c) water is required (d) P 680 is the active reaction centre