Botany - Assignment

SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
BOTANY
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 6. In a DNA molecule 35 base pairs are removed.

How many helical turns will be reduced from
1. Given below are two statements :
its structure
Statement-I : In bacteria the negatively
(1) 7.0 (2) 2.5
charged ssDNA is held with some negatively
(3) 2.0 (4) 3.5
charged proteins in the region of nucleoid.
7. Match List-I with List-II :
Statement-II : In eukaryotes DNA is
List-I List-II
wrapped around negatively charged histone
A. 2n human I. 5386
octamer in the nucleosome.
DNA nucleotides
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below : B. Bacterio II. 6.6 x 109 bp
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true phage λ
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true C. E.coli III. 48502 bp
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false D. Bacterio IV. 4.6 x 106 bp
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false phage
2. Identify the correct statement : o/ x 174
A) Euchromatin contains active genes Choose the correct answer from the options
B) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally given below :
inactive (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
C) Histones are positively charged molecules (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
D) A typical nucleosome consists of 200 bp of (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
DNA helix (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(1) A, B only (2) A, B, C, D 8. A DNA molecule consists of 20% A and
(3) A, D only (4) C, D only 30%G. What will be the percentage of T and
3. A DNA molecule length is 2.2 meters. How C?
many base pairs are found in that DNA? (1) T-30 ; C-20 (2) T-20 ; C-30.
(3) T-25, C-35 (4) T-20 ; C-35
(1) 4.6 10 b. p.
6
9. Identify A, B, C regarding central dogma of
(2) 3.3  10 b. p.
6
molecular biology respectively
(3) 5386 nucleotides
A DNA  B 
C
 protein
(4) 6.6 10 b. p.
9
4. Identify the incorrect regarding nucleosome. (1) Translation , replication, mRNA

(1) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine (2) mRNA, replication, translation
(2) Nucleosome consists of 200 bp of DNA (3) Transcription, mRNA, translation
(3) Histones are positively charged molecules (4) Replication, mRNA, translation
(4) In a nucleosome the super helix of DNA 10. Identify the incorrect about histone proteins
consists of 4 turns. (1) They are positively charged
5. One of the ds DNA has base composition as (2) They are rich in lysine and argenine
follows. A – 20%, T – 30%, G-25%, C-25%. (3) In a nucleosome the histone octamer
What will be the percentage of these bases in consists of 8 types of protein molecules
the complementary strand? (4) Histone octamer is wrapped by DNA and
(1) A – 30%, T – 20%, G – 25%, C – 25% forms superhelix DNA
(2) A – 25%, T – 30%, G – 20%, C – 25% 11. In a polynucleotide chain of DNA the
(3) A – 20%, T – 30%, G – 25%, C – 20% phosphate molecule is linked to
(4) A – 30%, T – 25%, G – 20%, C – 25% (1) 5’C pentose sugar
Sri Chaitanya Page 1
(2) 3’C pentose sugar 20. Which is not a criterion for genetic material?
(3) 4’C pentose sugar (1) It should produce its replica
(4) 2’C pentose sugar (2) It should provide the scope for slow
12. Identify the correct statement : changes (mutations)
(1) Adenine bonds with cytosine (3) It should be stable structurally and
(2) Guanine bonds with thymine chemically
(3) Two hydrogen bonds are found between (4) It should not express Mendelian characters.
Adenine and thymine 21. Identify the wrong statement regarding nucleic
(4) Three hydrogen bonds are found between acids
Thymine and cytosine (1) DNA is best to store genetic information
13. The length of DNA is 2.2 meters. How many (2) RNA can acts as catalyst
base pairs are found in it? (3) RNA generally single strand molecule
(1) 3.3 x 109 (2) 6.6 x 109 (4) DNA can act as catalyst
(3) 3 x 107 (4) 4.6 x 106 22. During cell cycle of eukaryotes, the DNA
14. Common pyrimidine found both in DNA and replication occurs in
RNA is (1) Prophase (2) ‘S’ phase
(1) Uracil (2) Thymine (3) G2 phase (4) G1 phase
(3) Adenine (4) Cytosine 23. N  dsDNA are
Twenty E.coli cells with
15
15. If the ratio of

T  C  is 0.8 in are strand of incubated in a medium containing
14
N
 A  G nucleotides. After 40 minutes how many
DNA, same ratio in the complementary strand E.coli cells will have DNA totally free from
15
is N ?
(1) 1.25 (2) 0.8 (1) 40 (2) 80
(3) 1.01 (4) 2.5 (3) 60 (4) 20
16. Arrange the following ascendingly base on 24. Given below are two statements: one is
their molecular weight labelled as Assertion A and the other is
A) Nucleoside B) Purine labelled as Reason R :
C) Pyrimidine D) Nucleotide
(1) D, A, C, B (2) D, A, B, C Assertion A : RNA viruses have shorter life
(3) C, B, A, D (4) B, C, D, A span and evolve faster.
17. Identify the correct proposition regarding Reason R : RNA mutates at a faster rate.
Griffith experiment : In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) S-strain (Heat killed)  Mice  Mice most appropriate answer from the options
died given below :
(2) S-strain (Heat killed) + R – Strain (Live) (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
 Mice  Mice died correct explanation of A
(3) R-Strain (live)  Mice  Mice died (2) Both A and R are correct but R is
(4) S-Strain (live)  Mice  Mice survived NOT the correct explanation of A
18. The DNA is the genetic material which is (3) A is not correct but R is correct
unequivocally confirmed by (4) A is correct but R is not correct
(1) F. Griffith 25. Identify the wrong regarding Hershey & Chase
(2) Avery et.al experiment.
(3) Hershey & Chase A) Viruses grown in presence of radioactive
(4) Messels on & Stahl phosphorous contain radioactive protein
19. Who conducted the experiments to prove semi B) Viruses grown in presence of radioactive
conservative mode of chromosome sulphur contain radioactive DNA
replication? C) Viruses grown in presence of radioactive
(1) Hashey & Chase sulphur contain radioactive protein.
(2) Messelson & Stahl D) Viruses grown in presence of radioactive
(3) Avery et.al phosphorus contain radioactive DNA
(4) Taylor et.al (1) C, D (2) A, C
(3) B, D (4) A, B List-I List-II
26. Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : RNA can directly participate A. RNA polymerase I I. tRNA
in the synthesis of proteins. B. RNA polymerase II II. rRNA
Statement-II : DNA can not directly
participate in the synthesis of proteins. C. RNA polymerase III III. hnRNA
In the light of the above statements, choose the Choose the correct answer from the options
correct answer from the options given below : given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (1) A-II, B-I, C-III (2) A-III, B-II, C-I
true (3) A-III, B-I, C-II (4) A-II, B-III, C-I
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is 33. Termination factor during transcription of
true eukaryotes is
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
(1) σ (2) α
false
(3) β (4) ρ
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false 34. Most abundant RNA in the eukaryotic cell?
27. What is the role of RNA polymerase-II in the (1) rRNA (2) mRNA
transcription of eukaryotes? (3) tRNA (4) SiRNA
(1) Transcribes hnRNA 35. Splicing of hnRNA does not occur in the cells
(2) Transcribes mRNA of
(3) Transcribes SnRNAs (1) Fungi (2) Bacteria
(4) Transcribes ribosomal RNAs (3) Plants (4) Animals
28. Identify the correct statement :
(1) Exons and Introns are found in the DNA of 36. The structural gene is also known as
prokaryotes (1) Muton (2) Recon
(2) In capping methyl GTP is added to 3’ end (3) Intron (4) Cistron
of hnRNA 37. Enzyme responsible in reverse transcription is
(3) Poly ‘A’ tail is added to 5’ end of hnRNA (1) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) Splicing occurs in nucleus (2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
29. Enzyme responsible for transcription in (3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
bacteria is (4) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase 38. Given below are two statements: one is
(2) RNA ligase labelled as Assertion A and the other is
(3) DNA ligase labelled as Reason R :
(4) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
Assertion A : DNA replication is semi
30. Enzyme responsible for opening of DNA helix
conservative method.
during transcription is
Reason R : After replication each daughter
(1) Helicase
DNA molecule receives 50% of its parent
(2) Unwindase
nucleotides.
(3) DNA polymerase
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) RNA polymerase
most appropriate answer from the options
31. What will be the sequence of mRNA produced
given below :
by the following stretch of DNA?
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
3 ATGCGTAGCT 5 correct explanation of A
5 TACGCATCGA 3 (2) Both A and R are correct but R is
(1) 3 UACGCAUCGA 5 NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) 3 AUGCGUACGU 5 (3) A is not correct but R is correct
(3) 5 UACGCAUCGA 3 (4) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) 5 AUGCGUACGU 3
32. Match List-I with List-II :

39. What would be the proportions of light and (1) Allolactose (2) Galactose
hybrid density DNA molecules respectively if (3) Glucose (4) Arabinose
Messelson and Sahl’s experiment was 47. Identify the incorrect regarding lac operon
continued for 40 minutes? (1) i gene produces repressor
(1) 25%, 75% (2) 75%, 25% (2) It is a negative regulator
(3) 50% 50% (4) 12.5%, 87.5% (3) Inducible operon system
40. Given below are two statements : (4) Glucose act as inducer
Statement-I : DNA polymerase catalyses 48. Which enzyme is produced if a nonsense
polymerization in 5  3 direction. mutation occur in ‘a’ gene of lac operon?
Statement-II : During DNA replication, A) β galactosidase B) Permease
lagging strand is formed in the form of C) Transacetylase
Okazaki fragments. (1) A only (2) A, B
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) C only (4) B, C
correct answer from the options given below : 49. In lac operon the inducer molecule binds to
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (1) Promotor (2) Operator
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (3) Repressor (4) Terminator
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 50. One of the following features of genetic code
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false does have exception.
41. E.coli has 4.6 x 106 bp. How much time it will (1) The code is nearly universal
take to complete the DNA replication? (2) Code is degenerate
(1) 39 minutes (2) 40 minutes (3) Code is triplet code
(3) 18 minutes (4) 80 minutes (4) A codon codes for a specific amino acid
42. The experimental proof for semi-conservative 51. For a codon 5 CAU 3 what would be the
replication of DNA in eukaryotes was first
anticodon and amino acid carried by tRNA
shown in
(1) E.coli (2) Salmonella (1) 3 GUA5 -His (2) 5 AUG 3 -Ser
(3) Yeast (4) Vicia faba (3) 3 AUG 5 - Ala (4) 5 UAC 3 - Val
43. During DNA replication the Okazaki 52. Given below are two statements :
fragments are joined by Statement-I : The codons UAU UGG code
(1) DNA polymerase for tyrosine and tryptophan respectively.
(2) RNA polymerase Statement-II : GGG and CCC both codons
(3) DNA ligase code for glycine amino acid.
(4) Helicase In the light of the above statements, choose the
44. In eukaryotes the Sn RNAs are produced by correct answer from the options given below :
this enzyme (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(1) RNA polymerase I (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) RNA polymerase II (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) RNA polymerase III (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) RNA polymerase IV 53. Under which of the following conditions there
45. Given below are two statements : is a frame shift mutation?
Statement-I : In a transcription unit the 5 UUAUCGUGGCGACAA 3
structural gene is flanked by promoter and (1) Deletion of last three nucleotides of mRNA
terminator.
Statement-II : Structural genes are (2) Deletion of ‘U’ and ‘C’ at 4th and 5th
polycistronic in prokaryotes. position
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) Deletion of 10th, 11th, 12th nucleotides
correct answer from the options given below : (4) Insertion of GCG nucleotides before 7th
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true nucleotide
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
46. Inducer molecule in Lac operon is
54. If an mRNA has 153 nucleotides that codes for 57. Peptide bond between two successive amino
a protein having 50 amino acids. If the 21st acids in a polypeptide chain in eukaryotes is
codon is changed into stop codon, then the formed by Ribozyme ______ present in
number of amino acids in polypeptide chain _______ subunit of ribosome
and number of H2O molecules released are (1) 23RrRNA, 40S
(1) 21, 19 (2) 21, 25 (2) 28SrRNA, 60S
(3) 50, 79 (4) 20, 19 (3) 16SrRNA, 50S
55. Which of the following codon performs dual (4) 5-8 SrRNA, 30S
functions? 58. The first step in translation is
(1) UAA (2) UAG (1) Binding of larger subunit with mRNA
(3) AUG (4) UGA (2) Activation of amino acid
56. Consider the following statements and choose (3) Stop codon comes to ‘A’ site of 60S
the correct option subunit
` A) IsoLeucine amino acid is coded by 3 (4) Termination
codons only
B) Tryptophan amino acid is coded by one
codon only
C) Arginine and serine amino acids are coded
by four codons each only
D) Glycine is coded by 4 codons only
(1) B, D are incorrect
(2) A, C, D are correct
(3) A, B, D are correct
(4) B, C, D are incorrect
KEY
1) 4 2) 2 3) 4 4) 4 5) 1 6) 4 7) 3 8) 2 9) 4 10) 3
11) 1 12) 3 13) 2 14) 4 15) 1 16) 3 17) 2 18) 3 19) 4 20) 4
21) 4 22) 2 23) 1 24) 1 25) 4 26) 1 27) 1 28) 4 29) 4 30) 4
31) 3 32) 4 33) 4 34) 1 35) 2 36) 4 37) 1 38) 1 39) 3 40) 1
41) 3 42) 4 43) 3 44) 3 45) 1 46) 1 47) 4 48) 2 49) 3 50) 2
51) 1 52) 3 53) 3 54) 4 55) 3 56) 3 57) 2 58) 2

LTC (AIIMS) WT-17
110. Match Columns I and II. (2) ATP serves as main source of energy.
Column - I Column – II (3) On DNA template with 3' - 5' polarity, the synthesis
of daughter DNA strand is discontinuous
a) Griffith i) Concluded DNA as
(4) On DNA template with 5' - 3' polarity, the synthesis
genetic material
of daughter DNA strand is continuous.
b) Avery ii) Transformation in 114. How many deoxyribonucleotides can be polymerised
bacteria by a molecule of DNA polymerase in one second?
c) Hershey iii) Suggested (1) 1000 base pairs

semiconservative
(2) 2000 base pairs
mode of replication
in DNA. (3) 500 base pairs
(4) 4000 base pairs

d) Watson iv) Provided
unambiguous 115. DNA replication is initiated at a region of DNA known
evidence to DNA as as
genetic material
(1) promoter
Choose the correct answer from the options given (2) operator
below.
(3) ori
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) rop
(1) ii i iii iv 116. Which biomolecule was the first genetic material?
(2) ii i iv iii (1) RNA
(2) DNA
(3) i ii iii iv
(3) Protein
(4) ii iii iv i
(4) Polysaccharide
111. Semiconservative mode of replication of DNA was first
117. Choose the incorrect one with respect to Griffith's
experimentally shown in the plant
experiment on pneumococcus.
(1) Vicia faba
(1) When living R strain of pneumococcus was
(2) Vigna sinensis injected into mice, the mice survived
(2) When living S strain of pneumococcus was
(3) Chlamydomonas reinhardii
injected into mice, the mice died.
(4) Pisum sativum
(3) When living R along with heat killed S strain of
112. The main enzyme involved in DNA replication of E.coli pneumococcus was injected into mice, the mice
is survived
(4) When heat killed S strain of pneumococcus was

(1) DNA ligase
injected into mice, the mice survived.
(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
118. From his experiments Griffith concluded that
(3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase (1) DNA as genetic material
(4) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (2) RNA as genetic material
113. Choose the correct statement with respect to DNA (3) Protein as genetic material
replication.
(4) Some transforming principle transferred from heat
(1) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve as killed S strain to living R strain and R strain became
substrates and main source of energy. virulent.
13
LTC (AIIMS) WT-17
119. Prior to the work of Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and 124. Which organism was used as viral host by Hershey and
Maclyn McCarty, the genetic material was thought to Chase?
be
(1) Pneumococcus
(1) protein
(2) Staphylococcus
(2) glycolipid (3) E.coli
(3) polysaccharide (4) Lactobacillus
(4) nuclein 125. One of the following was the correct conclusion made
120. The following biochemicals were purified by Avery et al from Hershey and Chase experiments.
from S strain of pneumococcus. (1) Bacteria which were infected with bacteriophages
that had radioactive protein were radioactive
(1) only DNA
(2) Bacteria which were infected with bacteriophages
(2) only DNA and RNA
that had radioactive DNA were radioactive.
(3) only proteins and RNA
(3) Bacteria which were infected with bacteriophages
(4) DNA, RNA and proteins that had radioactive RNA were radioactive.
121. Avery and his colleagues discovered that (4) Bacteria which were infected with radioactive
bacteriophages that had radioactive glycolipid
(1) protein digesting enzymes did not prevent were radioactive.
transformation
126. DNA is not genetic material in
(2) RNA digesting enzymes did not prevent
transformation (1) bacteriophage used by Hershey and Chase
(3) polysaccharide digesting enzymes did not prevent (2) lambda bacteriophage
transformation (3) QB bacteriophage
(4) DNA digesting enzymes did prevent (4) Bacteriophage   174
transformation.
127. Statement A : DNA is preferred for storage of genetic
122. Hershey and Chase used radioactive isotopes of information over RNA.
phosphorus and sulfur because
Statement B : RNA is better for transmission of
(1) DNA and protein have both phosphorus and sulfur genetic information over DNA.
(2) DNA has sulfur and protein has phosphorus (1) Both statements A and B are correct.
(3) DNA has phosphorus but not sulfur and protein (2) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect.
has sulfur but lacks phosphorus
(3) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct.
(4) DNA has phosphorus and protein has both (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
phosphorus and sulfur.
128. Assertion : The length of Bacteriophage DNA is
123. The correct sequence of steps followed by Hershey lesser than the length of genomic DNA
and Chase in their experiment with both bacteria and of bacteria
bacteriophages.
Reason : E.coli has DNA with 4.6 X 106 bp and
(A) Blending lambda bacteriophage has DNA with
(B) Centrifugation 48502 bp.
(1) Assertion and reason are correct and reason
(C) Infection
explains the assertion.
(1) C - A - B
(2) Assertion and reason are correct and reason does
(2) A - B - C not explain the assertion.
(3) B - A - C (3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.
(4) C - B - A (4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect
14
LTC (AIIMS) WT-17
129. Select the set of nitrogen bases not common to both (3) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect
DNA and RNA.
(4) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct.
(1) Adenine, Guanine
133. This histone does not form a part of core of nucleosome.
(2) Uracil and Thymine
(1) H1
(3) Cytosine and Adenine
(2) H4
(4) Guanine and Cytosine
(3) H2
130. Match Column I and Column II
(4) H3
Column - I Column – II
134. Which statement is correct?
a) Formation of RNA on i) Translation
DNA strand (1) High degree of chromatin condensation is seen in
interphase
b) Formation of DNA on ii) Transcription
the existing DNA (2) Euchromatin is densely stained region of
chromatin
c) Formation of DNA iii) Replication
(3) Chromatin is uniformly stained throughout its
strand on RNA strand
length.
d) Flow of information iv) Reverse transcription
(4) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally inactive.
from mRNA to form
protein 135. Which pair of biomolecules can generate their replica?
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) Proteins and RNA
below.
(2) DNA and proteins
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Proteins and Polysaccharides
(1) ii iii iv i
(4) DNA and RNA
(2) ii i iv iii
SECTION - B
(3) ii iv iii i
136. Among the following cells of a plant which cell has
highest water potential?
(4) iii ii i iv
(1) Epidermal cell with root hairs
131. Choose the correct statement.
(1) DNA of prokaryote genome is not associated with (2) Endodermal cell of root
proteins (3) Mesophyll cell of leaf
(2) Genomic DNA of prokaryotes is associated with (4) Companion cell
only negatively charged proteins
137. Choose the correct statement.
(3) Genomic DNA of prokaryotes is associated with
positively charged proteins. (1) Most of the absorbed nitrogen travels through the
xylem of plant as inorganic ions.
(4) Packing of prokaryotic DNA is more complex than
eukaryotes. (2) Most of the absorbed nitrogen travels through the
xylem of the plant in organic form.
132. Statement A : Histones are basic proteins.
(3) Most of the absorbed phosphorus travels through
Statement B : Histones have only basic amino acids.
the xylem of the plant in organic form.
(1) Statements A and B are correct
(4) Most of the absorbed sulfur travels through the
(2) Statements A and B are incorrect xylem of the plant in organic form.
15
LTC (AIIMS) WT-17
138. Assertion : In dicot leaf, the magnitude of 141. Repairing mechanism to correct the wrong insertions
transpiration is more through adaxial is associated during the synthesis of following chemical
surface than abaxial surface. substance in living organisms.
Reason : Upper surface of its leaf is directly (1) DNA

exposed to light and lower surface is
not directly exposed to light. (2) RNA
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason (3) Protein
correctly explains the assertion
(4) Lipids of cell membrane
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason
does not explain the assertion. 142. Which of the following is correct?
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong (1) Meischer discovered nucleins earlier to the
proposition for principles of inheritance by Mendel
(4) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct.
(2) Mendel proposed principles of inheritance earlier
139. Match Column I and Column II to Meischer's discovery of nucleins.
Column - I Column – II (3) DNA as genetic material was established soon
a) Translocation i) Selective and uphill after the discovery of nucleins by Meischer.
b) Diffusion ii) Selective and down (4) The quest to determine mechanism of inheritance
hill reached molecular level before the rediscovery
of Mendel's results.
c) Facilitated diffusion iii) Non-selective and
down hill 143. The principle discovered by Griffith is used in genetic
engineering
d) Active transport iv) Movement of
(1) to select the desired recombinant transforming
substances through
organisms.
vessels
(2) to introduce rDNA into host cells
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. (3) to isolate the gene
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) to form rDNA
(1) iv iii ii i 144. The isotopes that were used by Hershey and Chase
were
(2) iii i iv ii
(1) P35 and S32
(3) iv i ii iii
(2) P32 and S32
(4) iv ii i iii
(3) P35 and S35
140. In Meselson and Stahl experiment, E.coli which were
incubated in 15NH4Cl, transferred to 14NH4Cl containing (4) P32 and S35
medium and allowed for two generations of binary
fission. When DNA of these bacteria was isolated and 145. Which is not a chemical difference between RNA and
subjected to CsCl density gradient centrifugation, the DNA ?
result was (1) DNA and RNA have different types of pentose
(1) Half of the DNA was heavy and another half light sugars
DNA
(2) Purines and pyrimidines usually exist in 1:1 ratio
(2) Half of the DNA was hybrid and another half light in DNA but not in RNA
DNA
(3) DNA has Thymine and RNA has Uracil
(3) All the DNA was hybrid DNA
(4) DNA has only purines and RNA has only
(4) All the DNA was light DNA pyrimidines.
16
LTC (AIIMS) WT-17
146. One of the following properties of genetic material was ZOOLOGY
proved from the experiments of Griffith.
SECTION - A
(1) Ability to generate it's replica
151. In the context of environmental pollution, PM 2.5 refers
(2) Having structural and chemical stability
to
(3) Providing scope of slow changes or mutation
required for evolution. (1) particulate matter of diameter 2.5 micrometres
or more
(4) Ability to express itself in the form of Mendelian
characters (2) particulate matter of diameter 2.5 micrometres
147. The following properties confer more stability to DNA or less
than RNA as genetic material.
(3) pesticide molecules whose concentration is more
(A) Having Deoxyribose sugar than 2.5 ppm
(B) Having Thymine in place of Uracil
(4) plastic material of molecular weight 2.5 Daltons
(C) Being usually double stranded. or more
(D) Showing catalytic role in some instances.
152. Organisms that can tolerate and thrive in a wide range
(1) A, B and C only of temperatures are termed
(2) B, C and D only (1) eurythermal
(3) A, B, C and D
(2) stenothermal
(4) A, C and D only.
(3) euryhaline
148. In a DNA molecule with 3.4nm length, if the nitrogen
base sequence of one strand is 5' ATGGCTACTG 3', (4) stenohaline
what is the number of hydrogen bonds formed between
the two strands of the DNA molecule? 153. Match column I with column II and select the correct
option using the codes given below.
(1) 23
(2) 25 Column - I Column – II
(3) 26 a) Protonephridia i) Insects

(4) 24
b) Malpighian tubules ii) Crustaceans
149. How many its own complete twists of DNA helix are
present in a nucleosome? c) Nephridia iii) Annelids
(1) 10 d) Antennary glands iv) Flatworms

(2) 20 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) 15
(1) iii i iv ii
(4) 5
(2) iv i iii ii
150. Chromatin has
(A) DNA (3) iv ii iii i
(B) RNA (4) iv i ii iii

(C) Histones 154. Ecology at the organismic level is essentially
(D) Non-histone proteins
(1) population genetics
(1) A and C
(2) physiological ecology
(2) A, C and D
(3) A, B, C and D (3) evolutionary ecology
(4) A and B (4) community ecology

17
NEET MT-12 (08-01-24)
20. Select out the correct match. (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
24. Test cross is applied to know
(1) Phenotype
(2) Genotype of dominant phenotype
A B C (3) Genotype of dominant & recessive
(1) DNA H1 Histone phenotype
octamer (4) Both 2 and 3
(2) DNA Histone H1 25. Which among the following was not
octamer associated with rediscovery of Mendel’s
(3) RNA Histone H1 results on inheritance of characters
octamer (1) de Vries (2) Correns
(3) Morgan (4) Tschermak
(4) Histone Non histone DNA
26. Given below are two statements:
21. Select out the incorrect match for B – DNA
Statement-I: Two nucleotides are linked
(1) Helical coiling – Right handed
through 3'  5' Phosphodiester linkage to
(2) Pitch helix – 34 nm
form dinucleotide.
(3) Base pairs per turn – 10
Statement-II: The backbone of a
o
(4) Vertical rise/bp – 3.4 A polynucleotide chain is formed due to sugar
22. Double helix model of DNA proposed by & phosphate.
Watsonand crick was based on In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) X – rays diffraction data of Wilkins & the correct answer from the options given
Franklin below:
(2) Observation of Erwin Chargaff (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both 1 & 2 (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is
(4) Griffith’s transforming principle true
23. Given below are two statements: (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other false
is labelled as Reason (R): (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Assertion (A):In double stranded DNA, two false
strands of the helix are approximately at 27. Thomus Hunt Morgan proved _a__ using
uniform distance. __b__
Reason (R): Two strands of helixare held
a b
together by complimentary pairing between
purine of one strand and pyrimidine of other (1) Chromosomal theory Drosophila
strand. of inheritance
In the light of the above statements, choose
(2) Mutation theory Drosophila
the most appropriate answer from the options
given below: (3) Law of dominance Pea
(4) Law of segregation Pea
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NEET MT-12 (08-01-24)
28. Drosophila is suitable for genetic study In the light of the above statements, choose
because the correct answer from the options given
(a) They can grow on simple synthetic below:
medium (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Short generation time (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is
(c) Breeding can be done throughout year true
(d) Produce hundreds of progenies per mating (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
(e) Male and female are easily false
distinguishable (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Choose correct statements false
(1) a, b, c, dande 33. Amino acid substituted in sickle cell anaemia
(2) Only b, c, d, e is
(3) Only d, e (1)Glutamic acid by glycine in alpha chain
(4) Only a, b, c, d (2)Glutamic acid by valine in beta chain
29. Mendel’s work remain unrecognized till 1900 (3)Valine by glutamic acid in alpha chain
because (4)Valine by glutamic acid in beta chain
(a) Communication was easy 34. Which one from those given below is the
(b) His mathematical approach was new and period for Mendel’s hybridisation
unacceptable experiments?
(c) The concept of genes (factors) as stable (1)1840 – 1850 (2)1857 – 1869
and discrete units could not beaccepted by (3)1870 – 1877 (4)1856 – 1863
others 35. Read the following statements.
(d) He could not give physical proof for Statement I: The strength of linkage will be
existence of factors more when the distance between two genes is
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d lesser.
(3) a, c, d (4) a, d Statement II: In such case crossing over will
30. Which of the following bond is not present in be relatively less frequent.
nucleotide ? In light of the above statements, choose the
(1) Glycosidic bond correct answer from the options given below.
(2) Phospho-ester bond (1) Both statement A and statement B are
(3) Phosphodiester bond correct.
(4) Both 1 & 2 (2) Statement A is correct, but statement B is
31. All the following are examples of pleiotropy incorrect.
except (3) Statement A is incorrect, but statement
(1)Gene for starch synthesis in pea B is correct.
(2)Gene for sickle cell anaemia (4) Both statement A and statement B are
(3)Gene for PKU incorrect.
(4)Gene for skin colour in human SECTION - B
32. Given below are two statements: 36. If skin colour in humans is controlled by
Statement-I: DNA is a long heteropolymer of three gene pairs, then what is the number of
deoxyribonucleotides. parental combinations in F2 generation?
Statement-II: Both of the purine types are (1)62/64 (2)2/64
common in DNA & RNA but one of the (3)14/64 (4)1/14
pyrimidine type differ in both DNA & RNA.
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NEET MT-12 (08-01-24)
37. In pea plant what is the recombination In the light of the above statements, choose
frequency of gene T(height) and R (shape of the most appropriate answer from the options
seed)
given below:
(1) 37.5 % (2) 50 %
(3) 25 % (4) 62.5 % (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
38. Given below are two statements. One is correct explanation of A
labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT
labelled as reasoning(R).
Assertion (A): Mendel’s results pointed to the correct explanation of A
general rules of inheritance rather than being (3) A is not correct but R is correct
unsubstantiated ideas.
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
Reason (R):These experiments had large
43. What is the ratio of dominant and recessive
sampling size, which gave greater credibility
plants for both character in F2 generation of
to the data that he collected.
In light of the above statements, dihybrid cross ?
choose the correct answer from the (1) 1 : 1 (2) 5 : 3
options given below. (3) 9 : 1 (4) 3 : 1
(1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' 44. If gene A & B are showing 30%
is the correct explanation of 'A'. recombination then what would be proportion
(2) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' of gamete Ab, in AaBb individual
is not the correct explanation of 'A' (1) 30% (2) 15%
(3) 'A' is true and 'R' is false (3) 70% (4) 35%
(4) A is false, but R is true 45. Fruit colour in summer squash is an example
39. Which of the following exhibit codominance? of
(1) IAi (2) IA IB (1) Complimentary gene
(2) Dominant epistasis
(3) IBi (4) ii
(3) Recessive epistasis
40. Offsprings of which cross have same
(4) Supplimentary gene
phenotype & genotype?
46. Match the following.
(1) Dd  Dd (2) DD  dd
Table – I Table – II
(3) DD  Dd (4) Ww  Ww
41. What is the percentage of either type of A) E.coli (i) 5386 nucleotides
B) Haploid human cell (ii) 4.6  10 base pairs
6
recombinants in F2 generation when eye
colour and body colour genes are considered C)Bacteriophage (iii) 5386 base pairs
by Morgan in Drosophila ? lambda
(1) 1.3 % (2) 37.2 % D) Bacteriophage (iv) 48502 base pairs
(3) 98.7 % (4) 0.65 %   174
42. Given below are two statements: one is
(v) 3.3  10 base pairs
9
labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R: (1) A – ii, B – v, C – iv, D – i
Assertion A:Mendel published hiswork on (2) A – ii, B – v, C – iii, D – i
inheritance in 1865 while it remained (3) A – v, B – ii, C – iv, D – i
unrecognised till 1900. (4) A – v, B – iv, C – ii, D – i
Reason R: Mendel couldn’t provide any
physical proof for the existence of factors.
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NEET MT-12 (08-01-24)
47. Given below are two statements: one is 52. Given below are two statements:
labelled as Assertion A and the other is Statement-A:Enteric (gut) diseases generally
labelled as Reason R: spread through contaminated food and water.
Assertion (A): There are six different Statement-B:Pathogens in faeces contaminate
genotypes of human ABO blood types. food and water.
Reason (R): Human ABO blood types are In the light of the above statements, choose
determined by three alleles. the correct answer from the options given
In the light of the above statements, choose below:
the most appropriate answer from the options (1) Both statements A & B are correct
given below: (2) Statement A is correct but statement B is
(1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the incorrect
correct explanation of 'A'. (3) Both statements A & B are incorrect
(2) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is not (4) Statement A is incorrect but statement B
the correct explanation of 'A' is correct
(3) 'A' is true and 'R' is false 53. The T-cells differ from B-cells in
(4) A is false, but R is true (1) They are not produced in bone marrow
48. Select out the wrong one (2) They are not involved in anamnestic
(1) Alleles are always genes response
(2) Genes are always alleles (3) They produce immunoglobulins
(3) Allelic genes are always present on (4) They are involved in cell mediated
homologous chromosomes immunity
(4) Genes present on non homologous 54. Identify correct set of matching with
chromosome are non allelic reference to immunity
49. Separation of allelic gene pairs is related to List - I List - II
(1) Law of dominance (A)Antitetanus I) Natural passive
(2) Law of segregation serum immunity
(3) Law of independent assortment (B) Colostrum II)Innate immunity
(4) All the above (C) Chickenpox III) Natural active
50. Which of the following express only in infection immunity
homozygous condition (D) Injection of IV)Artificial passive
(1) Axillary flowers (2) Yellow seed colour tetanus toxoid immunity
(3) Round seed (4) Yellow pod colour (E) Interferons V) Artificial active
ZOOLOGY immunity
SECTION-A (1) A - V, B - I, C - III, D - IV, E – II
51. Which of the following human parasites (2) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - V, E – II
require mosquito to complete their life-cycle (3) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II, E – V
? (4) A- III, B - II, C - IV, D - V, E – I
(1) Ascaris lumbricoides and 55. Which of the following provide the sites for
Entamoeba interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen?
(2) Leishmania donovani and (A) Peyer’s patches (B) Spleen
Plasmodium vivax (C) Thymus gland (D) Lymph nodes
(3) Ascaris lumbricoides and (E) Appendix
Trypanosoma (1) B, C only (2) All except C
(4) Wuchereria bancrofti and (3) A, B, C only (4) B, D only
Plasmodium falciparum
7
NEET UT-3 (21-08-23)
BOTANY III) rY IV) ry
SECTION - A (1) I, II (2) III, IV
1. Read the following statements and select the (3) I, III (4) II, IV
correct pair from them 5. Select the correct match
A) DNA act as genetic material in all
(1) Factors - exist as pairs in gametes
cellular organisms
(2) Dominant trait – expressed only in
B) RNA act as genetic material in all
homozygous condition
viruses without exception
(3) Genotype – physical expression of a
C) DNA is double stranded in all cellular
trait
organisms
D) DNA functions as adaptor, structural, (4) Locus – specific, fixed position on a
catalytic molecule apart from being a chromosome where a gene is located
messenger 6. Match List I with List II with regard to
(1) C & D (2) A & D measurements of B, DNA
(3) B & C (4) A & C List I List II
2. Match the Column I with Column II with a Diameter of dsDNA i 3.4 nm
respect to contrasting traits studied by b Distance between two ii 2 nm
Mendel in pea successive nucleotides
Column I Column II of same strand
(character) (Dominant trait) c Angle made by two iii 0.34
a Flower colour i Axillary successive nucleotide nm
b Pod colour ii Violet pairs
c Seed colour iii Green d Pitch of a DNA helix iv 36 0
d Flower position iv Yellow a b c d
a b c d (1) ii iii iv i
(1) ii iii iv i
(2) iii ii iv i
(2) iii ii iv i
(3) ii iii i iv (3) ii iv iii i
(4) ii iv i iii (4) i ii iii iv
3. Pick the odd one out with respect to 7. Read the following table and choose the
NUMBER in a B DNA ? incorrect match with regard to the
(1) Phosphoester bonds in between two components present in biochemicals of
nucleotides of a strand column I
(2) N-glycosidic bonds present in a Column I DNA RNA Hisones Non
nucleotide pair histones
(3) Hydrogen bonds in between a purine (1) Nucleosome    
Adenine and pyrimidine Thymine (2) Chromatin    
(4) Hydrogen bonds in between a purine (3) Prokaryotic    
Guanine and pyrimidine Cytosine genome
4. The types of gametes produced by a pea plant (4) Poly    
with RrYY genotype for shape and colour of nucleotides
seeds are
I) RY II) RR
2
NEET UT-3 (21-08-23)
8. Choose the incorrect option in terms of (4) Living S III bacteria
Mendelian pattern of inheritance of one gene 13. Choose the character unrelated to Drosophila
(1) Half of individuals of F2 generation (1) XX – XY sex determination
have parental genotypes and remaining have (2) Two weeks life span
(3) Absence of morphological sex
genotype of F1 generation individuals
differentiation
(2) 75% of F2 individuals resemble (4) Hereditary variations noticed using lower
dominant parent and the remaining recessive power microscopes
parent 14. If a pea plant produces 1616 plants in F2
(3) None of the individuals of F1 have generation with respect to dihybrid cross for
parental genotypes seed colour and shape, how many of them
(4) 75% of F2 individuals are heterozygous have parental genotypes ?
(1) 202 (2) 101
dominant
(3) 606 (4) 1010
9. Stop codons present on mRNA always start 15. Mendel picked pea plant in his experiment
with due to it‟s _A_ life span and _B_ progeny
(1) 5 methyl uracil and they are naturally ___(C)__ pollinated
(2) Adenine and _(D)_ pollination can be induced
(3) Exclusive pyrimidine present in RNA (1) Short Large Self Cross
(4) Guanine (2) Long Large Self Cross
10. In pea, gene for starch synthesis influence (3) Short Small Cross Self
following phenotypes in a plant (4) Long Small Self Cross
A) Colour of seed 16. Match the Column I with Column II from the
B) Shape of seed options given below
C) Size of starch grains Column I Column II
D) Stem height a Postulates of i Sutton and
(1) A & B (2) C & D inheritance Boveri
(3) B & C (4) A & D b Linkage ii Mendel
11. Which conclusion was NOT drawn by c Chromosome iii Morgan
Mendel by observing the results of mapping
monohybrid cross in pea ? d Chromosomal iv Sturtevant
(1) Factors occur in pairs theory of
(2) In a dissimilar pair of factors, one inheritance
member of the pair dominates the other a b c d
(3) Different alleles of a gene do not blend (1) ii iii iv i
when present together (2) ii iii i iv
(4) When two pairs of traits are present (3) iii ii iv i
together in a hybrid, segregation of one pair (4) i ii iv iii
of traits of a character is independent of the 17. The presence of which biochemical inhibit
other pair of traits of another character transformation during the determination of
12. Which got “transformed” in Griffith biochemical nature of transforming principle
experiment due to transfer of transforming by Avery, Mc Leod and Mc Carty ?
principle ? (1) DNA (2) RNase
(1) Mice (3) Protease (4) DNase
(2) Heat killed S III bacteria
(3) Living R II bacteria
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NEET UT-3 (21-08-23)
18. What is the ratio in which one pair of (D) Prokaryotic DNA
contrasting characters appear in F2 (1) A and B (2) C and D
generation of a dihybrid cross ? (3) A and C (4) B and C
(1) 3 : 1 23. Match the column I with column II
(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 Column I Column II
(3) 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1 a Selectively i Marshal
(4) 5 : 3 destroyed different Nirenberg
19. Statement A : DNA is preferred for storage macromolecules in
of genetic information due to its high a cell free system
stability using enzymes
Statement B : RNA is preferred for b Unequivocal proof ii Avery,
transmission of genetic information as it act that DNA is a Mc Leod and
as messenger, adaptor along with a catalytic genetic material Mc Carty
role c Cell free system for iii Hershey and
(1) A & B are correct protein synthesis to Chase
(2) A & B are incorrect decipher genetic
(3) Only A is correct code
(4) Only B is incorrect d Elucidated first iv Jacob and
20. Statement – I : Mendel‟s laws were transcriptionally Monad
explained with physical proof by Sutton and
regulated system
Boveri after studying chromosome
a b c d
movement in meiosis and understanding
(1) i iii ii iv
parallel behaviour of chromosomes & genes
(2) ii iii i iv
Statement – II : Rediscovery of Mendel‟s
results on inheritance of characters was done (3) ii iii iv i
by deVries, Correns and von Tschermak in (4) i ii iv iii
the year 1900 24. Pick the incorrect match
(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are true (1) Polynucleotide with catalytic function :
(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is Ribozyme
false. (2) Enzymatic synthesis of RNA :
(3) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is Polynucleotide phosphorylase
true. (3) Breaking down of hydrogen bonds
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II are false during transcription : Helicase
21. Which enzyme catalyse the addition of deoxy (4) Regulate switching on and off of lac
ribonucleotides to RNA primer during DNA operon : Lactose
replication ? 25. UGG codon is an exception for
(1) Primase (1) Universal nature of code
(2) DNA polymerase (2) Degenerate nature of code
(3) Helicase (3) Non overlapping nature of code
(4) RNA polymerase (4) Unambiguous nature of code
22. Introns are present in 26. Which gene in lac operon is NOT regulated ?
(A) hnRNA (1) i gene (2) z gene
(B) DNA of eukaryotes (3) y gene (4) a gene
(C) mRNA
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NEET UT-3 (21-08-23)
27. Polymerisation in lagging strand is in _A_ 32. Which one among the following is NOT a
and polarity of template DNA strand contribution associated with Francis Crick ?
producing lagging strand is _B_. What is „A‟ (1) Central dogma in molecular biology
and „B‟ ? (2) tRNA acting as adaptor
A B (3) Effect of hard X-rays on bacteriophage
(1) 3'  5' 3'  5' multiplication
(2) 5'  3' 5'  3' (4) Proposal of double helix structure for
(3) 3'  5' 5'  3' DNA and the replication scheme
(4) 5'  3 3'  5' 33. Read the following statements
28. Read the following statements A) DNA in nucleoid is organized in large
A) Only a segment of DNA is involved at a loops held by proteins
time
B) Only one type of RNA polymerase help in
B) Primers are NOT needed
transcription
C) Only ribonucleotides are polymerized
C) 23S rRNA present in ribosome act as
D) Helicase and ligase activity is NOT
catalyst producing peptide bond
observed
D) Gene regulation occurs predominantly at
E) Only one strand of DNA act as template
transcription level
The above literature is pertinent to
The above statements are associated with
(1) DNA replication
(1) Bacteria (2) Fungi
(2) Transcription
(3) Reverse transcription (3) Plants (4) Animals
(4) Translation 34. Which process involves the transfer of
29. Statement (I) : Regulatory sequences are genetic information from a polymer of
loosely defined as regulatory genes, even nucleotides to form a polymer of aminoacids
though these sequences do not code for any without the involvement of complementarity
RNA (or) protein rule ?
Statement (II) : Operator region in lac (1) Transcription
operon do not encode for any protein but act (2) DNA replication
as binding site for repressor (3) Translation
(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are true (4) Reverse transcription
(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is 35. Assertion (A) : There exist a clear cut
false. division of labour among RNA polymerase
(3) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is in eukaryotes
true. Reason (R) : RNA polymerase I transcribe
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II are false rRNA, RNA polymerase II transcribe
30. Which is NOT present on mRNA ? hnRNA and RNA polymerase III transcribe
(1) Start codon (2) Anticodon tRNA
(3) Stop codon (4) UTR (1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and
31. To which one of the following, release factor reason explains assertion.
binds during termination of translation ? (2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but
(1) tRNA (2) Amino acid reason does not explain assertion.
(3) UAA codon (4) Ribozyme (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.
5
NEET UT-3 (21-08-23)
SECTION – B (2) Translation
36. If a cell has 100 types of amino acids (3) Splicing
participating in protein synthesis (instead of (4) Storage of genetic information
20) and there are the same four types of 43. Pick the incorrect statement
nucleotides on mRNA, then the codon coding (1) Dominant phenotype is due to the
for an amino acid would be a presence of dominant gene
(1) Singlet (2) Doublet (2) Recessive phenotype is due to absence
(3) Triplet (4) Quadruplet of dominant gene
37. How many plants exhibit dominant trait for (3) Dominant gene expresses in both
both characters in an F2 generation of a homozygous and heterozygous state
dihybrid cross if 75 plants show recessive (4) Recessive gene expresses only in
trait for both characters ? heterozygous state
(1) 50 (2) 675 44. How many characters related to flower, fruit
(3) 950 (4) 425 and seed are studied by Mendel in pea plant ?
38. Okazaki fragment possess (1) 2, 2, 2 (2) 1, 2, 1
(1) Ribonucleotides&deoxyribonucleotides (3) 2, 1, 2 (4) 3, 1, 2
(2) Ribonucleotides & polypeptides 45. Nucleosomes are present in
(3) Deoxyribonucleotides & polypeptides (1) φ 174 bacteriophage
(4) Polypeptides & polysaccharides (2) λ phage
39. The ability of a gene to have multiple (3) E.coli
phenotypic effect is known as (4) Humans
(1) Incomplete dominance 46. “Gametes are never hybrid”. This statement
(2) Multiple allelism is endorsed by law of
(3) Pleiotropy (1) Dominance
(4) Polygenic inheritance (2) Segregation
40. Inducer in lac operon is (3) Independent assortment
(1) Repressor protein (4) Paired factors
(2) CAP 47. Match the following
(3) Substrate Column I Column II
(4) Enzyme a A gene has two i Polygenic
41. Statement I : Linked genes are located on alleles in a inheritance
different loci of same chromosome population and
Statement II : Multiple alleles of a gene are determines more
located on same locus of homologous than one phenotype
chromosomes b A gene has more ii Gene
(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are true than two alleles in interactions
(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is a population and
false. determines one
phenotype
(3) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is
c More than two iii Multiple
true.
genes determine alleles
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II are false
one phenotype
42. All are essential processes in majority of the
d Non alleles of two iv Pleiotropic
living organisms are evolved around RNA
genes determine gene
except
one phenotype
(1) Metabolism
6
NEET UT-3 (21-08-23)
(1) ii iii iv i 52. Read the following and choose the correct
(2) iii ii iv i statements regarding electrical synapses
(3) iv iii i ii (a) Pre synaptic and post synaptic
(4) i ii iii iv membranes are absent
48. All the following represent recombinant (b) Impulse transmission is very similar to
types of Drosophila (based on Morgan‟s impulse conduction along a single axon
experiment) except (c) Impulse transmission is always slow
(d) Most abundant synapses
(e) Fluid filled synaptic cleft is absent
(1) a, b, e only (2) b, e only
(1) (3) b, c only (4) b, c, d only
53. Assertion (A) : Lack of menstruation may be
indicative of pregnancy
Reason (R) : During pregnancy, the
(2) endometrium degenerates
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and
reason explains assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but
reason does not explain assertion.
(3)
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
54. Match the following
(4) Column -I Column II
49. Probability of individuals with all 4 kinds of (A) Acromegaly (i) Cortisol
dominant alleles in genotype in F2 generation
of a dihybrid cross is (B) Addison‟s (ii) ADH
(1) 12.75% (2) 37.25% (iii) Growth
(C) Grave‟s
(3) 82.5% (4) 6.25% hormone
50. Occurrence of only one kind of parental (D) Diabetes insipidus (iv) Thyroxine
character in F2 generation of Mendel‟s A B C D
experiment is explained by (1) iii i ii iv
(1) Law of segregation (2) i iii iv ii
(2) Law of dominance (3) iii i iv ii
(3) Law of independent assortment (4) i iii ii iv
(4) Linkage
55. Which of the following is not the
ZOOLOGY 
characteristic of Na  K pump ?
+
SECTION – A
51. Incorrect match is (1) needs energy (ATP) to work
(1) Zona pellucida – Estrogen (2) expels 3Na  for every 2K imported
(2) Zona reticularis – Androgenic steroids (3) works along with the concentration
(3) Zona glomerulosa – Aldosterone gradient
(4) Zona fasciculata – Cortisol (4) maintains resting membrane potential
7
NEET NWT-11 (07-08-23)
BOTANY (3) A is correct, R is incorrect
SECTION - A (4) Both A & R are incorrect
1. In eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes 6. Choose incorrect statement
place at _______ phase of cell cycle (1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(1) G 1 phase (2) G 2 phase catalyse polymerization in 5'  3'
(3) S phase (4) M phase direction
2. A failure in cell division after DNA (2) On template with polarity 5'  3' ,
replication results into replication is discontinuous
(1) Frameshift mutation (3) On template with polarity 3'  5' ,
(2) Polyploidy, a chromosomal anomaly replication is continuous
(3) Point mutation (4) Average rate of DNA polymerisation
(4) Gene mutation in E.coli is 1000 base pairs per second
3. During recombinant DNA procedure, 7. E.coli that has 4.6  106 Bps , complete the
vector provides process of replication with in ____
(1) Origin of replication (1) 18 hours (2) 38 hours
(2) Template for DNA replication (3) 24 hours (4) 18 minutes
(3) Template for transcription 8. Statement I :Deoxyribonucleoside
(4) Free OH group for DNA polymerase triphosphates act as substrate during DNA
4. Choose incorrect statement related to replication
DNA replication Statement II :Deoxyribonucleoside
(1) DNA polymerase can initiate DNA triphosphate provide energy for DNA
replication polymerization reaction.
(2) Replication does not initiate (1) Both statements incorrect
randomly at any place in DNA (2) Both statements correct
(3) There is definite region in E.coli (3) Only I correct
where replication originates, such regions (4) Only II correct
are known as origin of replication 9. Which of the following radioactive
(4) The discontinuously synthesised substance was used by Taylor in his
fragments are joined by DNA ligase experiment?
5. Assertion (A) : For long DNA molecules, (1) N15
the two strands of DNA cannot be (2) N14
separated in its entre length, the (3) S35
replication occur with in a small opening (4) Tritiated thymidine
of DNA helix, referred to as replication 10. Which of the following experiment proved
fork
that the DNA in chromosome replicate
Reason (R) : DNA strand unwinding and semiconservatively?
DNA polymerization require energy (1) Meselson and stahl experiment
(1) Both A & R are correct. R is correct
(2) Taylor‟s experiment
explaination of A
(3) Avery‟s experiment
(2) Both A and R are incorrect but R is
(4) Grifith experiment
not correct explanation of A
2
NEET NWT-11 (07-08-23)
11. If E.coli ( N15  N15 in DNA) is allowed to (2) All bacteria will have heavy DNA
14
grow in N medium for 80 minutes, then (3) All bacteria will have hybrid DNA
what would be the proportions of light and
(4) 50% bacteria will have hybrid DNA,
hybrid densities DNA molecules?
50% will have light DNA
(1) 2 hybrid DNA molecules, 14 light
DNA molecules 16. Which property of DNA double helix lead
Watson and Crick to hypothesise semi
(2) 2 hybrid DNA molecule, 14 heavy
conservative mode of DNA replication?
DNA molecules
(3) 2 hybrid, 2 heavy, remaining light (1) Specific base pairing  A  T, G  C
DNA molecules
(2) Stabililty
(4) 2 light DNA molecules, 14 hybrid
DNA molecules (3) Capability to express in form of
12. DNA replicates semiconservatively. This characters
was first shown in (4) Mutation
(1) Bacteriophage (2) Viciafaba 17. During DNA replication
(3) E.coli Bacteria (4) Viruses (1) Both parental strand act as template
13. What is significance of Meselson and strand
Stahl‟s experiment ? (2) Each daughter DNA molecule would
(1) Demonstration of semiconservative have only new strand not parental strand
replication in DNA in chromosome of (3) Replication is continuous not semi
eukaryotes discontinuous
(2) DNA is genetic material in all living (4) Replication is conservative not semi
things conservative
(3) Demonstration of semiconservative 18. Choose incorrect statement
replication in DNA in E.coli
(1) Essential life processes evolve
(4) RNA is genetic material in some around RNA
viruses
(2) RNA can act as catalyst
14. If E.coli is grown in medium containing
15
(3) DNA has evolved from RNA
NH 4 Cl as only nitrogen source for many
(4) DNA is first genetic material
generations. 15 N will be incorporated into
19. Which of the following is not a criteria of
(1) DNA as well as other N – Containing genetic material?
compounds
(1) It should be able to generate its
(2) DNA, protein, lipids, carbohydrates replica
(3) DNA, Carbohydrates (2) It should not be chemically and
(4) DNA, RNA, Carbohydrates structurally stable
15 15
15. E.coli divides in 20 minutes. If N N (3) It should provide scope for slow
containingE.coli is culture in N14 medium changes
then after 20 minutes (4) It should be able to express itself in
(1) All bacteria will have light DNA the form of Mendelian characters
3
NEET NWT-11 (07-08-23)
20. RNA is genetic material in (4) RNA is preferred for storage of
(1) Mycoplasma genetic information, for transmission of
(2) Bacteria genetic information DNA is better
25. The unequivocal proof that DNA is
(3) Monerans
genetic material came from experiments
(4) Tobacco mosaic virus, QB
of
bacteriophage
(1) Meselson and Stahl
21. Which of the following property of
(2) Taylor et.al
genetic material was very evident in
Grifith experiment? (3) Avery et.al
(1) Replication (4) Hershey and Chase
(2) Mutation 26. Radio isotopes used by Hershey and
Chase are
(3) Stability
(4) Replication, stability (1) S32 , N15 (2) N15 , N14
22. Which of the following is main reason for (3) P32 and S35 (4) C14
unstable nature of RNA? 27. In Hershey and Chase experiment
(1) 2' OH on terminal nucleotide only a) Radioactive S35 is detected in
(2) 5' OH at every nucleotide bacterial cell in sediment
(3) 1  OH at every nucleotide b) Radioactive P32 is detected in
(4) 2' OH group present at every supernatant in viral capsid
nucleotide in RNA c) Radioactive S35 is detected in capsid
23. Read the following statements in supernatant
a) Thymine confer stability to DNA d) Radioactive P32 is dected in bacterial
b) Both DNA and RNA are able to cell in sediment
mutate (1) a, c correct (2) b, d correct
c) RNA mutate at faster feate (3) c, d correct (4) a, b correct
d) Viruses having RNA genome mutate 28. Following are steps in Hershey and Chase
and evolve faster experiment
e) Only DNA has ability to direct their Centrifugation (A), Infection (B),
duplications not RNA Blending (C), Growing viruses on medium
f) Protein is able to generate its replica with radioactive substance (D)
How many statements are correct? Arrange these steps in correct order
(1) 4 (2) 5 (1) D  B  C  A
(3) 6 (4) 3 (2) A  D  B  C
24. Choose correct statement (3) B  D  A  C
(1) DNA can directly code for synthesis (4) C  B  A  D
of protein. It is not dependent on RNA 29. Which of the following enzyme prevent
(2) Protein synthesisingmachinary has transformation?
evolved around DNA (1) Protease (2) Lipase
(3) Both DNA and RNA can function as (3) DNase (4) Carbohydrase
genetic material
4
NEET NWT-11 (07-08-23)
30. Prior to the work of Avery, Mc leod Mc (1) Nucleosome
Carty, the genetic material was thought to (2) Informosome
be a _____ (3) Chromatosome or solenoid
(1) DNA (2) Carbohydrates (4) Supra Solenoid
(3) Protein (4) Lipids SECTION – B
31. Biochemical characterization of 36. Choose incorrect statement
transforming principle was done by (1) Distance between two consecutive
(1) Grifith base pairs is 0.34  109 meter
(2) Lederberg and Zinder (2) 6.6  109 Bps in mammalian cell can
(3) Khorana form 2.2 meter long structure
(4) Avery, Mcleod, Mo Carty (3) In prokaryotes DNA is scattered
32. Heterochromatin is throughout cytoplasm
(1) Early replicating part in S phase (4) The DNA in nucleoid is organized in
(2) loosely packed region of chromatin large loops held by proteins
(3) Lightly stained part of chromatin 37. Histones are in rich in basic amino acids
(4) More densely packed and stains dark like
33. The packaging of chromatin at higher (1) Tryptophane, Tyrosine
level requires additional set of proteins (2) Alanine, valine
that collectively are referred to as (3) Arginine, Tryptophane
(1) RNA binding proteins (4) Lysine and arginine
(2) Non histone chromosomal protein 38. Read the following statements
(3) Ribosome binding proteins a) The negatively charged DNA is
(4) Ribonucleoproteins wrapped around positively charged
34. The beads on string structure in chromatin histone octamer to form a structure called
is packaged to form chromatin fibres that nucleosome
are further coiled and condensed at b) A typical nucleosome contains 200
________ stage of cell division to form Bp of DNA helix
chromosome c) The nucleosomes in chromatin are
(1) Telophase (2) Anaphase seen as beads on string structure when
(3) Metaphase (4) Interphase viewed under electron microscope
35. Identify the figure given below d) Histones are positively charged basic
proteins
Choose correct statements
(1) Only a and b (2) Only b, c
(3) Only c, d (4) a, b, c, d
39. _______ proposed the central dogma in
molecular biology
(1) Benzer (2) Monod
(3) Francis Crick (4) Nirenberg
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NEET NWT-11 (07-08-23)
40. Which of the following is not a salient 46. Choose correct statement
feature of double helical structure of (1) Two nucleotides are linked through
DNA? 3'  5' phosphodiester linkage
(1) It is made up of two polynucleotide (2) DNA polymer has phosphate moiety
chains, where backbone is constituted by at 3 ' end of sugar
sugar-phosphate, and bases project outside (3) DNA is basic substance present in
(2) Two chains have anti parallel polarity nucleus was first identified by F. Meischer
(3) The bases in two strands are paired (4) Term nuclein was given by Meselson
through hydrogen bond 47. In a ds DNA, if adenine is 15%, what is %
(4) The two strands are coiled in a right of T, G, C respectively
handed fashion (1) 15, 35, 35 (2) 35, 35, 15
41. Assertion (A) : There is approximately (3) 35, 15, 35 (4) 35, 15, 15
uniform distance between two strands of 48. How many base pairs are present in DNA
DNA helix of bacteriophage lamda?
Reason (R) :In ds DNA purines comes (1) 97004 (2) 48502
opposite to a pyrimidine or vice versa (3) 5386 (4) 4.6  106
(1) Both A & R are correct. R is correct 49. Assertion (A) : DNA and RNA are two
explaination of A types of nucleic acid
(2) Both A and R are incorrect but R is Reason (R): DNA act as genetic material
not correct explanation of A in most of the organisms
(3) A is correct, R is incorrect (1) Both A & R are correct. R is correct
(4) Both A & R are incorrect explanation of A
42. How many base pairs are present in one (2) Both A and R are incorrect but R is
turn of dsDNA? not correct explanation of A
(1) 20 (2) 10 (3) A is correct, R is incorrect
(3) 5 (4) 30 (4) Both A & R are incorrect
43. The distance between a base pair in a helix 50. Which of the following is not a function of
is approximately RNA?
(1) 0.34 nm (2) 0.34 Å (1) Adapter molecule
(3) 0.34 meter (4) 0.34 mm (2) Structural molecule
44. Which of the following confer stability to (3) Catalytic molecule
helical structure of DNA? (4) Genetic material in most organisms
(1) Base pair stacking and H-bonds ZOOLOGY
(2) Ester bond SECTION – A
(3) C  O  C glycosidic bond 51. In females, oxytocin stimulates
(4) Base pair stacking, ester bond (1) Formation of milk in mammary glands
45. X-ray diffraction details of DNA was (2) Relaxation of uterine muscles at the
given by time of child birth
(1) Crick (2) Watson (3) Milk ejection from the mammary
(3) Wilkins and Franklin glands
(4) Brenner (4) Growth of mammary glands
6
NEET NWT-12 (14-08-23)
BOTANY 5. Match the following:
SECTION - A A) DNA, an acedic
I) F.Crick
1. Which of the following is correct with respect substance in nucleus
to E.coli.? B) „X‟-ray diffraction II) J.Watson and
data providers F.Crick
(1) E.coli divides once in 40 minutes.
III) Mourice
C) Proposal of Double
(2) E.coli is parasite in human digestive track. Wilkins and
Helix model for DNA
R.Franklin
(3) The genetic material of E.coli has
D) Central dogma in
4.6x106bp. IV) F.Meisher
molecular biology
(4) The genetic material of E.coli has (1) A-I; B-IV; C-III; D-II
4.6x109bp
(2) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
2. Assertion: In the molecular structure of RNA, (3) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
uracil is present instead of thymine. (4) A-IV; B-II; C-III; D-I
Reason: 5-methyl uracil is another chemical 6. Which one of the following is a false
name for thymine. statement?
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and (1) The backbone of DNA strands constituted
reason explains assertion. by Sugar-Phosphate.
(2) Uniform distance between the two strands
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but
of DNA helix is present, because purine
reason does not explain assertion.
comes opposite to a pyrimidine.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. (3) The two strands are coiled in a right-
handed fashion and the pitch of the helix is
0.34A0
3. Which of the following is a true statement? (4) The plane of one base pair stacks over the
(1) Bacteriophage Lambda has 48502 bases in other in double helix.
its DNA structure. 7. Identify the correct match.
(2) Thymine is common for both DNA and (1) Histones – rich in Lysine and Leucine.
RNA, cytosine is present only in DNA. (2) A Nucleosome – has 200 bases of DNA
helix.
(3) Haploid content of human DNA is
(3) R-strain of bacteria – produce smooth
3.3x106bp.
colonies.
(4) Two nucleotides are linked through 31x51 (4) Euchromatin – transcriptionally active
phosphodiester linkage to form a 8. Which one of the following experiments
dinucleotide. concluded that “DNA is the hereditary
4. DNA is negatively charged because of the material” but not convinced by all biologists.
present of ….. (1) Frederick Griffith
(2) M.Meselson and F.Stahl
(1) Deoxyribose (2) Phosphate group
(3) A.Hershey and M.Chase
(3) Thymine (4) Guanine (4) O.Avery, C.McLeod and Mc carty.
2
NEET NWT-12 (14-08-23)
9. Whose experiment did not define the (1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are
biochemical nature of the genetic material. correct.
(1) F.Crick (2) F.Griffith (2) Statement-1 is correct, statement 2 is
(3) A.Hershey et.al. (4) F.Meischer incorrect.
10. The packaging of chromatin at higher level (3) Statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 is
requires correct.
(1) Histone proteins (4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are

false.
(2) Non-histone chromosomal proteins
15. The polarity of a template strand of DNA
(3) Non-histone nucleoplasic proteins
which produce discontinuously synthesised
(4) Proteins of nucleolus. DNA fragments is
11. Which statement is true in the context of (1) 51→ 31 (2) 31→51
histones?
(3) 31→ 31 (4) 51→51
(1) They are positively charged acedic
16. Which one of the following is a true
proteins.
statement?
(2) They are positively charged amphoteric
(1) Monocistronic structural genes of
proteins.
eukaryotes have uninterrupted coding
(3) They are positively charged basic proteins. sequence.
(4) They are negatively charged acedic (2) The transcription and translations can be
proteins. coupled in Bacteria.
12. The experiments which provides unequivocal (3) Unexpressed coding sequences on mRNA
proof that DNA is the genetic material – are called exons.
conducted by
(4) Introns appear in matured or processed
(1) Avery, McLeod and Mc Carty. RNA.
(2) Hershy and Chase. 17. In Eukarytic cells, RNA polymerase III is
(3) Wilkins and Franklin. transcribing _____.
(4) Watson and Crick. (1) 28S.Rrna, 18S-rRNA and 5.85-rRNA
13. Hershy – Chage experiments shows following (2) hn RNA

steps, chronologically (3) 5.srRNA; 5.8 srRNA; tRNA
(1) Blending, Infection, Centrifugation. (4) tRNA; 5 srRNA and „snRNA‟
(2) Centrifugation, Infection, Blending. 18. Which statement of the following is true, with
(3) Infection, Centrifugation, Blending. respect to splicing of hn RNA?
(4) Infection, Blending, Centrifugation. (1) Removal of exons and joining of introns is
called splicing – in mRNA.
14. Statement 1: A molecule that can act as a
genetic material should be able to express (2) Removal of only exons is called splicing.
itself in the form of Mendelian characters. (3) Removal of introns and joining of exons
Statement 2: RNA being unstable mutate at a in a defined order.
faster rate. (4) Removal of introns only.
3
NEET NWT-12 (14-08-23)
19. Assertion:The codon is read in mRNA is a (3) Some amino acids are coded by more than
contiguous fashion. one codons.
Reason: There are no punctuations between (4) Genetic code is read is mRNA without
codons in genetic code. any punctuations.
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and 24. Which loop of tRNA (sRNA) has
reason explains assertion. complimentary bases to the genetic code?
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but (1) amino acid acceptor loop
reason is not the correct explanation of (2) DHU loop
assertion. (3) T.loop
(3) Assertion is true but reason is incorrect. (4) anticodon loop
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct. 25. How many of these statements given below
20. Which one of the following is called Severo are is true?
Ochoa enzyme? (1) tRNA is a compact molecule with inverted
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase. „L‟ shape.
(2) Polynucleotide phosphorylase (2) Amino acylation of tRNA require ATP.
(3) Helicase (3) The reading frame does not change from
(4) DNA gyrase the point where insertion or deletion of three
21. „Sickle cell anemia‟ condition is due to a or its multiple bases takes place.
point mutation, this is due to the change of (4) There are no tRNAs for stop codons.
(1) Valine to glutamine (1) A & B only
(2) Glutamine to Leucine (2) B and C only
(3) Glutamate to Valine (3) A, B and C only
(4) Valine to Phenylalanine (4) A,B,C and D are correct
22. Match the column I to column II 26. The process of translation of the mRNA to
Column-I Column-II proteins begins when…..
(Codons) (Aminoacids) (1) Small subunit of ribosome encounter with
A) UUA; UUG I) Methionine mRNA.
(2) Large subunit encounter with mRNA.
B) AUG. II) Valine
(3) When both subunits of ribosome
C)GUU;GUC; III) Stop codons
encounter with mRNA simultaneously.
GUA;GUG
(4) When rRNA of ribosome encounter with
D) UAA;UAG;UGA IV) Leucine
mRNA.
(1) A-IV; B-I; C-III; D-II 27. In bacteria which one of the following acts as
(2) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III a catalyst for the formation of peptide bonds,
(3) A-IV; B-II; C-III; D-I during polymerisation of polypeptide.
(4) A-III; B-I; C-II; D-IV (1) 5. S rRNA (2) 5.8 S-rRNA
23. Which one of the following indicate that (3) 18 S-rRNA (4) 23 S rRNA
genetic code is „degenerate‟? 28. For efficient translation process, which of the
(1) Same genetic code is applicable from following is required.
bacteria to human. (1) Promoter (2) UTR
(2) Having „UUU‟ code for Phenylalanine. (3) Terminator (4) Operator
4
NEET NWT-12 (14-08-23)
29. Terminating translation and releasing the 35. The amino acid is attached to the tRNA at its
complete polypeptide from the ribosome (1) 51 – end (2) 31 – end
when ____
(3) Anticodon site (4) DHU loop
(1) Releasing factor binds with stop codon.
SECTION-B
(2) Releasing factor binds with initiate codon.
36. Statement 1: „AUG‟ codes methionine and
(3) Promoter sequence of DNA in bacteria also act as initiation codon.
binds with amino acids.
Statement 2: AUG codes for methionine only
(4) Releasing factor binds with mRNA. in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes.
30. Removal of RNA polymerase III from (1) Bothe statement-1 and statement-2 are
nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of correct.
(1) 28. S-rRNA (2) hn RNA (2) Statement-1 is correct, statement 2 is
(3) sn RNAs (4) 5.8 S-rRNA incorrect.
31. The one aspect which is not a salient feature (3) Statement 1 is incorrect, statement 2 is
of genetic code is, it‟s being correct.
(1) Degenerate (4) Bothe statement-1 and statement-2 are
(2) Ambiguous incorrect.
(3) Universal 37. Which of the following statements is true with
respect to a completely processed hnRNA,
(4) The codon is triplet
called mRNA?
32. If the templet strand of DNA has the
(1) Exons and Introns do not appear in the
nitrogenous base sequence as 31 “ATCTG”
mRNA.
51, then what would be the complimentary
RNA strand sequence? (2) Only Introns appear but Exons do not
appear in this mRNA.
(1) 31 TTAGU 51 (2) 51 UAGAC 31
(3) Both Exons and Introns appear in this
(3) 31 UGCAC 51 (4) 51 UCCAC 51
mRNA.
33. The RNA polymerase transcribes
(4) Only Exons appear but Introns do not
(1) The promoter, structural gene and the appear in this processed hnRNA.
terminator region.
38. Assertion:Viruses having shorter life span,
(2) The promoter and the terminator region. mutate and evolve faster.
(3) The structural gene and the terminator Reason:Viruses have generally RNA genome.
regions.
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and
(4) The structural gene only. reason explains assertion.
34. If the sequences of nitrogen bases of the (2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but
coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit reason does not explain assertion.
is 51– ATGAATG 31. The sequences of bases
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
in its RNA transcript would be
(1) 51 – AUGAAUG – 31
39. „ρ‟ – factor in the process of transcription in
(2) 51 – UACUUAC – 31
bacteria is called known as
(3) 51 – CAUUCAU – 31
(1) Initiation factor (2) Elongation factor
(4) 51 – GUAAGUA – 31
(3) Rho – factor (4) Inhibitory factor
5
NEET NWT-12 (14-08-23)
40. Tayler et, al – experimentally proved the semi 47. During DNA replication, the discontinuously
conservation DNA replication in the synthesized fragments are joined by…
chromosomes during mitosis in „fababean‟ by (1) DNA helicase
using. (2) DNA-gyrases
(1) Radioactive guanosine (3) DNA polymerase I
(2) Radioactive cytidine (4) DNA ligase
(3) Radioactive thymidine 48. The initial structure formed at the beginning
(4) Radioactive adenosine of coiling of DNA around histones is called.
41. In DNA recombination procedures, vector is (1) Nucleon (2) Nucleoid
required because it provides (3) Nucleosome (4) Solenoid
(1) “Origin of replication”
AG
(2) “Promoter region” 49. is always 1, for all
TC
(3) “Terminator region”
(1) ds DNA molecules of all eukaryotes
(4) “Operator region”
(2) ds DNA molecules of some organisms and
42. Polyploidy in certain organism may result due all viruses
to
(3) ds DNA molecules of all prokaryotes and
(1) A failure is DNA replication after cell eukaryotes and also viruses (with ds DNA)
division.
(4) ssDNA of ϕ - x – 174 – B. phage
(2) A failure in cell division after DNA
50. In bacterial during the process of transcription
replication.
is bacteria, the opening of the helix of DNA is
(3) A mistake in DNA replication. by the activity of
(4) A failure in the interphase after DNA (1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
replication.
(2) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
43. RNA is unstable because it is
(3) Helicase
(1) a catalyst with non-reactive nature
(4) Topoisomerase
(2) a catalyst hence reactive
ZOOLOGY
(3) a non-catalyst which is reactive
SECTION – A
(4) having single strand and with uracil
51. The number of chromosomes observed in
44. 2,4 – dioxy pyrimidine is also called human Ootid is/are
(1) Thymine (2) Cytosine (1) 16 (2) 23
(3) Guanine (4) Uracil
(3) 46 (4) 69
45. Hershey and chase in their experiments
52. The spermatogonia produces the primary
used… (to prove that DNA is the genetic
spermatocytes by
material)
(1) 32S ;35P (2) 35S ; 32P (1) Mitosis (2) Meiosis-I
(3) 30S ;32P (4) 35S ; 35P (3) Meiosis-II (4) Amitosis
46. If the length of human cell DNA is 2.2m, then 53. The shortest duration phase, which occurs
the number of base pairs in in human cell? almost at the middle of the menstrual cycle is
(1) 4.6 x 109bp (2) 46 x 106bp (1) Follicular Phase (2) Proliferative Phase
(3) 6.6 x 109bp (4) 4.6 x 106bp (3) Secretory Phase (4) Ovulatory Phase
6
NEET WT-13 (28-08-23)
BOTANY (1) Out of 20 types of amino acids, majority
SECTION - A of them are coded by more than one codon
01. Which is incorrect with reference to the (2) One codon codes for more than one
transforming principle ? amino acid hence genetic code is ambiguous
(1) S strain  Inject into mice  Mice die (3) AGU has a dual function, it codes for
(2) R strain  Inject into mice  Mice live methionine, and it also acts as initiator codon
(3) S strain (heat killed)  Inject into mice (4) Polynucleotide dehydrogenase enzyme is
 mice live called severo ochoa enzyme
(4) S strain(heat killed) + R strain(live)  07. Which of the following is not salient feature
inject into mice  Mice live of double helical structure of DNA ?
02. Which of the following can perform (1) It is made up of two polynucleotide
polymerization in template independent chains
manner ? (2) Two chains are antiparallel
(1) DNA polymerase III (3) The chains are complementary to each
(2) Reverse transcriptase other
(3) Polynucleotide phosphorylase (4) Two chains are always coiled in a left
(4) Restriction endonuclease handed fashion
03. RNA polymerase III is responsible for 08. Read the following statements about Hershey
transcription of and Chase experiment
(1) tRNA, 5srRNA, snRNA Statement I: Radioactivity is detected in
(2) hnRNA, snRNA, tRNA
sediment if bacteria are infected with P32
(3) 23srRNA, 5 SrRNA, snRNA radiolabelled bacteriophage
(4) 28 srRNA, 5.8 SrRNA, tRNA Statement II: Radioactivity is not detected
04. According to O.Avery, Mc Leod and in bacterial cell, if it is infected with S 35
Mc Carty, one of the following events is
radiolabelled bacteriophage
correct
In the light of above statements choose
(1) Digestion of DNA of heat killed ‘R’ cells
correct answer from the options given below
did not inhibit transformation (1) Both statement I and statement II are
(2) Digestion of RNA by protease did no incorrect
affect transformation (2) Statement I is correct and statement II is
(3) Digestion of proteins by RNase did not incorrect
affect transformation (3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is
(4) Digestion of DNA with DNase of heat correct
killed ‘S’ cells did inhibit the transformation (4) Both statement I and statement II are
05. In chloroplast and mitochondria, all the three correct
types of RNA molecules are transcribed by 09. In E.coli the Lac operon gets switched on
(1) RNA polymerase-I and II when
(2) RNA polymerase-I and II (1) Repressor binds to the operator
(3) RNA polymerase-I, II and III (2) Lactose is present and its binds to the
(4) Single RNA polymerase repressor
06. Select the correct statement (3) RNA polymerase binds to the operator
(4) Lactose is present and it binds to RNA
polymerase
2
NEET WT-13 (28-08-23)
10. Read the following statements (2) Adenine present on DNA template pairs
i) Prokaryotic mRNA is capless and tailess with thymine added to the growing chain of
where as eukaryotic mRNA is with cap and RNA
tail (3) In transcription only a segment of DNA
ii) The precursor of prokaryotic mRNA is and only one of the strands is copied into
hnRNA RNA
iii) In eukaryotes and prokaryotes (4) A transcription unit in DNA is defined
transcription occurs in nucleus and primarily by three regions promoter
translation in cytoplasm structural gene and terminator
15. Match List I with List II
(1) i & ii are correct
List-I List-II
(2) ii & iii are correct
a) Watson and Crick i) Semiconservative
(3) i only is correct
DNA replication in
(4) i, ii, iii are correct
E.coli
11. What would happen if the second letter in a b) Hershey and Chase ii) Proposed scheme
codon UGC is changed to UAG by a for DNA replication
mutation in mRNA ? c) Tayler’s experiment iii) DNA in
(1) The ribosome would skip that codon chromosome replicate
and translation would continue semiconservatively
(2) Translation would continue but the d) Messelson and Stahl iv) Unequivocal
reading frame would be shifted proof that DNA is
(3) Translation would stop and no genetic material
functional protein would be formed (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) Translation would continue but the (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
second aminoacid in the protein would be (3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-I
different (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
12. tRNA with following anticodons are not 16. Distance between two polynucleotide chains
present in DNA remains almost constant because
(1) UAA UAG, UGA (1) Always purine pairs with pyrimidine
(2) Bases in two strands are paired through
(2) AAU, GAU, AGU
H-bonds
(3) AUU, AUC, ACU
(3) Two chains are antiparallel
(4) AAA, GGG, CCC
(4) The two chains are coiled in right
13. What would be the length of recognition handed fashion
sequence of EcoRI ? 17. Which of the following is not a criteria of
0
(1) 18A genetic material ?
(2) 20.4A0 (1) It should be able to generate replica
(3) 32A0 (2) It should be chemically and structurally
(4) Not possible to calculate unstable
14. Identify the incorrect statement related to (3) It should provide scope for slow
Transcription changes
(1) The principle of complementarity (4) It should be able to express itself in the
governs the process of transcription form of Mendelian characters
3
SEC : SR ELITE DATE: 06-12-2024
Sub: BOTANY NEET PRE WEEKEND TEST - 13 Max.Marks: 720
01. Read the following statements A+G

A) DNA acts as the genetic material in 04. If on one strand of DNA is 0.80, then
T+C
most of the organisms
A+G
B) Nitrogen base is linked to OH of 5'C what is on opposite strand of DNA ?
pentose sugar, whereas phosphate group is
T+C
linked to OH of 1'C pentose sugar in a (1) 0.80
nucleotide of a DNA (2) 1.25
C) Two chains are coiled in a right handed (3) 0.40
fashion in a DNA (4) 1.00
D) The backbone of a polynucleotide chain 05. During the course of A experiment a living
in a DNA is formed due to sugar and a organism B has changed in physical form
nitrogen base. into C. What is A, B & C ?
Pick the correct pair A B C
(1) A & B (1) Griffith Mice Capsulated
(2) B & D (2) Hershey Bacteria Non capsulated
(3) B & C (3) Avery Mice Capsulated
(4) A & C (4) Griffith Bacteria Capsulated
02. The two copies of a gene in an organism 06. Read the following statements
(diploid) need not always be identical. This is A) In Mendel’s experiment on pea, the
possible in the expression of the following
contrasting traits showed blending in F1 but
trait in pea plant
(1) Wrinkled seed not in F2 generation
(2) Inflated pod B) Though the parent possess two alleles
(3) White flowers during gamete formation, but these alleles
(4) Yellow pods segregate from each other such that a gamete
receives only one of the two factors
03. A list of viruses are given below
C) A modified recessive allele produce a
A)   174 bacteriophage non functional protein (or) no protein at all
B) TMV whereas modified dominant allele could
produce a normal (or) less efficient protein
C) Bacteriophage lambda
D) Genotypic ratios can be known using
D) QB bacteriophage
mathematical probability by simply looking
Pick the correct statements with respect to at the phenotype of the dominant trait
genetic material in them
Pick the correct pair
(1) A & B : RNA
(1) A & B
(2) B & C : RNA
(2) B & C
(3) A & C : DNA
(3) B & D
(4) B & D : DNA
(4) C & D

07. Phenotype predicts the exact genotype in all B) A hybrid genotype always gives an
the cases listed below except intermediate phenotype.
(1) Pink flowers in snapdragon C) Humans possess any two of the three I
(2) “B” blood group in humans gene alleles for blood group
(3) White flowers in pea D) Mendel made mathematical concepts of
(4) White eyed fruit flies his hybridization experiments simple for
08. Given below are two statements. biologists to understand
Statement I : During DNA replication, the Pick the correct pair
template strand is read in 3'to5' direction.
(1) A & C
Statement II : During DNA replication
polymerization of deoxyribonucleoside tri (2) B & C
phosphates is in 5'to3' direction. (3) C & D
In light of the above statements, choose the (4) B & D
correct answer from the options given below.
12. The biochemical nature of transforming
(1) Both statement I and statement II are principle according to Avery, Mac Leod &
correct. Mac. Carty is
(2) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect. (1) DNase
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is (2) Protein
incorrect. (3) RNA
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
is correct. (4) DNA
09. Non parental phenotypes in Mendel dihybrid 13. Sickle cell anaemia is due to
cross are due to (1) Chromosomal aberrations
(1) Crossing over between homologous (2) Frame shift mutations
chromosomes
(3) Point mutations
(2) Translocation between non homologous
chromosomes (4) Linkage
(3) Different possible alignment of 14. Pick the incorrect statement
homologous pairs on metaphase plate and (1) Mendel could not provide any physical
their disjunction during meiosis. proof for the existence of factors (or) say
(4) Absence of segregation of homologous what they are made of
chromosomes in anaphase of meiosis – I (2) One pair of genes may not segregate
10. Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit of independent of another pair when they are
a structure in nucleus called physically linked
(1) Chromatin (3) Morgan used the frequency of
recombination between gene pairs on the
(2) Histones same chromosome as a measure of the
(3) Nucleic acid distance between genes and mapped their
(4) NHC proteins position on the chromosomes
11. Read the following statements (4) Drosophila complete its life cycle in
about two weeks and a single mating could
A) Hybrid of F1 contain alleles of produce large number of progeny flies
contrasting traits but express only one of the
parental character is in accordance to law of
dominance
15. Given below are two statements. One is 20. Mendel proposed the concept of all except
labelled Assertion (A) and the other is (1) Dominance
labelled Reason (R).
(2) Segregation
Assertion (A): DNA is preferred for storage
of genetic information over RNA. (3) Incomplete dominance
Reason (R): DNA is more stable to RNA. (4) Independent assortment
In light of the above statements, choose the 21. Given below are two statements. One is
correct answer from the options given below. labelled Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled Reason (R).
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A). Assertion (A): Vector is needed if a piece of
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not DNA need to be propagated during
the correct explanation of (A). recombinant DNA procedures.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false. Reason (R): Vector provide the origin of
replication in the production of recombinant
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false. DNA.
16. Genetic information flows from DNA In light of the above statements, choose the
 RNA  protein in true in all organisms correct answer from the options given below.
except in some
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(1) Bacteria correct explanation of (A).
(2) Viruses (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(3) Fungi the correct explanation of (A).
(4) animals (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
17. Crossing over in diploid organisms is (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
responsible for 22. Read the following statements & pick the
(1) Linkage between genes incorrect one
(2) Segregation of alleles (1) Taylor experiment provided
experimental proof that DNA in chromosome
(3) Recombination of linked genes
also replicate semi conservatively
(4) Dominance of genes
(2) In Hershey & Chase experiment viral
18. A cross between hybrid and recessive parent coats were removed form the bacteria by
is agitating them in a blender and virus particles
(1) Back cross were separated from the bacteria by spinning
them in a centrifuge
(2) Test cross
(3) In Messelson and Stahl experiment
(3) Monohybrid cross
when E.coli were grown in a medium
(4) Dihybrid corss
containing 15 NH 3Cl as the only nitrogen
19. Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic 15
material working on bacteriophage came source for many generations, then N got
from incorporated into a newly produced DNA
(1) Griffith only but not into any other nitrogen
compounds
(2) Messelson & Stahl
(4) In Griffith experiment ‘R’ strain
(3) Watson & Crick bacteria got transformed by heat killed ‘S’
(4) Hershey & Chase strain bacteria

SEC : SR ELITE DATE: 21-01-2023
Sub: BOTANY NEET PRE WEEKEND TEST - 10 Max.Marks: 360
BOTANY 4) Polymerisation of nucleotides catalysed

1. Find the correct match. by polymerase enzyme in one direction, that
1)  × 174 phage – 5386 ribose sugars in is 3  5
genetic material 7. Find odd one w.r.t. structure of
2)  phase – 97004 ribonucleotides transcription unit.
3) E. coli – 4.6 × 10 6 base pairs 1) Promoter 2) Terminator
4) Human – 3.3  109 nucleotides in genome 3) mRNA 4) Structural gene
2. Central Dogma was proposed by 8. Find the correct statement w.r.t.
1) Francis Crick 2) James Watson transcription
3) F. Miescher 4) Erwin Chargaff 1) There is single DNA dependent RNA
3. Nucleosome consists of all, except polymerase that catalyses transcription of all
1) 400 nucleotides types of RNA in plant cell
2) Basic proteins 2) Elongation is controlled by sigma factor
3) Lysine and aspartic acid rich proteins 3) Rho factor terminates the transcription
4) Histone octamer when it associates with DNA polymerase
4. Mark correct one w.r.t. euchromatin. enzyme
1) Transcriptionally inactive 4) Alternation of specification of RNA
2) Densely packed chromatin polymerase is due to association of  or 
3) Lightly stained chromatin factor during transcription
4) More then one option is correct 9. The adapter molecule is
5. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the 1) Soluble RNA
genetic material came from the 2) tRNA
experiment of. 3) mRNA
1) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty, they 4) More than one option is correct
worked with E.coli 10. In eukaryotic cells, charging of tRNA
2) Frederick Griffith, he worked with occurs in
Streptococcus pneumoniae 1) Cytoplasm 2) Nucleoplasm
3) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty, they 3) Ribosomes 4) nucleolus
worked with Bacteriophage 11. RNA with unusual bases is/are
4) Hershey and Chase, they worked with 1) hnRNA 2) tRNA
bacteriophage and bacteria 3) mRNA
6. DNA replication is 4) More than one option is correct
1) Polymerisation of nucleotides by RNA 12. Which of the following enzymes did not
dependent DNA polymerase activity. affect transformation in bacteria?
2) Energetically very expensive process 1) Nuclease, Protease
3) An important process of central dogma to 2) DNase, RNase
from RNA and proteins 3) Protease, RNase
4) RNase, DNase, Protease
13. Find correct statement w.r.t. capping 3) Heat killed S-strain combined with live R
1) Attachment of ribosomes on mRNA strain bacteria
during protein synthesis 4) Only heat killed S-strain bacteria
2) Binding of SSB proteins during 20. Choose correct option for A and B w.r.t.
replication on single strands of DNA schematic representation of a transcription
3) Addition of unusual nucleotide to unit given in figure.
heterogenous nuclear RNA
4) Binding of RNA polymerase with
promoter site
14. Anticodon for the codon which has dual
functions during translation is
A B
1) AUG 2) UAG
3) GUA 4) GAG 1) Non-template Coding strand
15. RNA polymerase-I transcribes all, except strand
1) 5SrRNA 2) 5.8SrRNA 2) Coding strand Non-template
3) 18SrRNA 4) 28SrRNA strand
16. Read the following statements. 3) Template strand Coding strand
A. Severo Ochoa enzyme is helpful in 4) Sense strand Antisense strand
polymerisation of RNA in template 21. Consider the following statements
independent manner. a. Purines and pyrimidines are in equal
B. Regulation of lac operon by repressor is amounts
referred to as negative regulation. b. Functions as genetic material
Mark correct option c. Can be adaptor or structural molecule
1) Only A is correc d. A long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides
2) Both statements are incorrect Which of these are correct for DNA found in
3) Both statements are correct
4) Only B is correct eukaryotes?
17. Some mutations can be silent because of 1) a, b and d only 2) a, c and d only
1) Non-ambiguous codon 3) b, c and d only 4) All a, b, c and d
2) Degeneracy of codon
22. Examine the figure given below and select
3) Termination codon
4) Dual function of codon the correct match
18. Mark odd one (w.r.t. regulation of gene
expression in eukaryotes)
1) Translation level
2) Formation of primary transcript
3) Regulation of splicing
4) Transport of mRNA from nucleolus to
cytoplasm
19. In Griffith’s experiments, mice died when
injected with 1) ‘i’ – Constitutive expression
1) Heat killed R-strain bacteria 2) ‘z’ – Produce transcetylase
2) Live R-strain bacteria 3) ‘a’ – Codes for permease
4) ‘o’ – Binding site for RNA polymerase
LTC (AIIMS) WT-17
109. (2)
BOTANY
Sol. DNA is the most interesting molecule in living system
101. (3)
as it is the genetic material in all living organisms.
Sol.  w is the symbol for water potential.
110. (2)
102. (1)
Sol.
Sol. During plasmolysis, the water present in the protoplast
of a cell is osmosed out. It is exosmosis. During entry Avery – Concluded DNA as genetic material
of water into a cell through cell membrane there is Griffith – Transformation in bacteria
osmosis which does not lead to plasmolysis, instead
the cell becomes turgid. Watson – Suggested semiconservative mode
of replication in DNA.
103. (3)
Hershey – Provided unambiguous evidence to
Sol. Pressure flow hypothesis acceptably explains the
DNA as genetic material
mechanism of phloem transport or transport of organic
solutes through sieve elements of phloem. 111. (1)
104. (1) Sol. Among eukaryotes, semiconservative mode of
Sol. replication of DNA was first shown by Tayler and
colleagues in 1958 in the plant Vicia faba by using
Guttation – Loss of water from plant as radioactive thymidine.
liquid through hydathodes
112. (4)
Plasmolysis – Shrinkage of protoplast of cell
due to exit of water Sol. The main enzyme involved in DNA replication is DNA
dependent DNA polymerase.
Imbibition – Increase in the volume of
solids due to absorption of 113. (1)
water
Sol. ATP is not the main source of energy in DNA replication.
Osmosis – Movement of water through It is used to break hydrogen bonds by the catalytic
semi or selectively permeable activity of helicase after the formation of replication
membrane. fork. On one DNA template with 3' - 5' polarity, the
105. (3) synthesis of daughter DNA strand is continuous. On
another DNA template with 5' - 3' polarity, the synthesis
Sol. Cobalt chloride paper method or experiment of daughter DNA strand is discontinuous.
demonstrates the involvement of leaf in transpiration
or water loss as vapour. 114. (2)
106. (2) Sol. A molecule of DNA polymerase can attach or polymerise

2000 pairs of deoxyribonucleotides in one second.
Sol. Apoplastic movement of water takes place through
non-living system of plants such as cell walls, 115. (3)
intercellular spaces and lumen of tracheary elements
like tracheids and vessels. Since sieve tubes are living Sol. DNA replication is initiated at a region known as origin
and anucleated, movement of substances or water of replication which is rich in AT.
through it is symplastic. 116. (1)
107. (4)
Sol. RNA was the first genetic material.
Sol. RNA is genetic material in all viroids.
117. (3)
108. (1)
Sol. When Griffith injected living R along with heat killed S
Sol. RNA is polymer of ribonucleotides. Each nucleotide strain of pneumococcus into mice, the mice developed
has a nitrogen base, a phosphate and a sugar ribose pneumonia symptoms and died. In the mice living S
but not deoxyribose. strain pneumococci were found.
11
LTC (AIIMS) WT-17
118. (4) 127. (1)
Sol. Some transforming principle transferred from heat Sol. Being more stable DNA is preferred as genetic material
killed S strain to living R strain and R strain became for storage genetic information over RNA. RNA is
virulent. preferred over DNA as genetic material because RNA
can directly code for protein synthesis where is DNA is
119. (1) dependent on RNA for the purpose.
Sol. Prior to the work of Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and 128. (1)
Maclyn McCarty, the genetic material was thought to
be protein. Sol. As bacteriophages do not show metabolism due to
lack of protoplasm and bacteria have metabolism and
120. (4) protoplasm, there is requirement of more genes and
accordingly longer DNA than viruses like
Sol. The biochemicals DNA, RNA, proteins and bacteriophages.
polysaccharides were purified by Avery et al from S
strain of pneumococcus. 129. (2)
121. (4) Sol. Both DNA and RNA have purines Adenine and Guanine
and pyrimidine Cytosine. Thymine is mainly present in
Sol. Avery and his colleagues discovered that protein, RNA DNA and Uracil in RNA.
and Polysaccharide digesting enzymes did not prevent
130. (1)
transformation but DNA digesting enzymes did prevent
transformation. Sol.
122. (3) Formation of RNA on – Transcription
Sol. Hershey and Chase used radioactive isotopes of DNA strand

phosphorus and sulfur because DNA has phosphorus
but not sulfur and protein has sulfur but lacks Formation of DNA on – Replication
phosphorus.
the existing DNA
123. (1)
Formation of DNA – Reverse transcription
Sol. The correct sequence of steps followed by Hershey
strand on RNA strand
and Chase in their experiment with both bacteria and
bacteriophages are Infection (Infecting the bacteria with Flow of information – Translation
labelled bacteriophages), Blending to detach the viral
ghosts from the bacterial cell after infection and from mRNA to form
Centrifugation to separate the viral coats from
bacteria. protein
124. (3) 131. (3)
Sol. In the nucleoid of prokaryotic cell, the DNA is held with

Sol. The bacterium E.coli was used as viral (T 2
some positively charged proteins and organised as
bacteriophage) host by Hershey and Chase.
large loops.
125. (2)
132. (3)
Sol. Hershey and Chase found that bacteria infected with Sol. Histones are basic proteins as they are rich in basic
radioactive DNA (P32) had shown radioactivity but not amino acids arginine and lysine. They also have little
those with radioactive protein (S35). amounts of acidic and neutral amino acids.
126. (3) 133. (1)
Sol. In Q bacteriophage the genetic material is single Sol. Core of nucleosome has two copies each of H2A, H2B,
stranded RNA. H3 and H4. H1 is linker histone but not core histone.
12
LTC (AIIMS) WT-17
134. (4) by removal and replacement by a variety of DNA
polymerases that show nuclease and polymerase
Sol. Euchromatin is lightly stained region of chromatin and activity or proof reading activity.
transcriptionally active where as heterochromatin is
transcriptionally inactive and densely stained. 142. (2)
Chromatin shows high degree of condensation in
metaphase. Sol. Mendel proposed principles of inheritance (1863)
earlier to Meischer's (1869) discovery of nucleins.
135. (4)
143. (2)
Sol. Both DNA and RNA can generate their own replica
because of the ability of showing base pairing and Sol. The transformation principle discovered by Griffith in
complementarity. pneumococcus has been used to introduce rDNA into
desirable host cells or bacterial cells.
136. (1)
144. (4)
Sol. In a plant trichoblast of root epidermal cell with root
hair has highest water potential and mesophyll cell Sol. The isotopes that were used by Hershey and chase
has lowest water potential and hence water moves were P32 and S35.
from root epidermal cell to mesophyll cells where the
water is evaporated during transpiration to keep the 145. (4)
water potential of mesophyll cell as lowest among the Sol. Both DNA and RNA have purines and pyrimidines. DNA
plant cells. and RNA have purines Adenine and Guanine and
137. (2) pyrimidine Cytosine. Thymine is present in DNA and it
is substituted by Uracil in RNA.
Sol. Much of nitrogen and a little of phosphorus and sulfur
move through xylem of the plant in organic form. 146. (2)
138. (4) Sol. Griffith's experiments provided evidence for structural

and chemical stability to the genetic material.
Sol. In dicot leaf adaxial or upper surface of leaf is directly
exposed to light but the magnitude of transpiration is 147. (1)
more through abaxial surface than adaxial as abaxial
Sol. DNA shows more stability than RNA in being stable at
side has more stomata and spongy mesophyll which
high temperatures, having deoxyribose sugar, not having
acts as ventilating system.
uracil but having thymine and non-catalytic and usually
139. (1) double stranded.
Sol. 148. (2)
Active transport – Selective and uphill Sol. In the given stand the number of G + C is 5 and A + T is
also 5. Same must be the case in opposing strand. i.e.
Facilitated diffusion – Selective and down hill there are 5 A=T pairs which form 10 hydrogen bonds
and 5 G  C pairs that form 15 hydrogen bonds
Diffusion – Non-selective and down
between them. In the DNA the total hydrogen bonds
hill
formed would by 10 + 15 = 25.
Translocation – Movement of substances
149. (2)
through vessels
Sol. A nucleosome has 200bp in its DNA. Each twist of DNA
140. (2)
has 10bp. Hence the number of twists of DNA in each
Sol. Half of the DNA was hybrid as such DNA has one heavy 200
nucleosome is  20
strand and one light strand another half has both 10
strands as light strand DNA.
150. (3)
141. (1)
Sol. Chromatin has more amounts of DNA and histones
Sol. Repair mechanism to replace the wrongly inserted and also has non-histone chromosomal proteins and
nucleotides and RNA primer nucleotides are repaired RNA.
13
NEET MODULE TEST –12 KEY DATE: 08-01-2024

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SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 6. In a DNA molecule 35 base pairs are removed.

4. Identify the incorrect regarding nucleosome. (1) Translation , replication, mRNA

15. If the ratio of

Sri Chaitanya Page 3

Sri Chaitanya Page 5

c) Hershey iii) Suggested (1) 1000 base pairs

(4) 4000 base pairs

(2) ii i iv iii (1) RNA

(4) When heat killed S strain of pneumococcus was

(3) B - A - C (3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.

(4) C - B - A (4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect

Reason : Upper surface of its leaf is directly (1) DNA

(3) 26 a) Protonephridia i) Insects

(1) 10 d) Antennary glands iv) Flatworms

(B) RNA (4) iv i ii iii

(4) A and B (4) community ecology

(1) Histone proteins (4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are

(4) Watson and Crick. (1) 28S.Rrna, 18S-rRNA and 5.85-rRNA

13. Hershy – Chage experiments shows following (2) hn RNA

01. Read the following statements A+G

Sri Chaitanya Page 1

Sri Chaitanya Page 3

BOTANY 4) Polymerisation of nucleotides catalysed

106. (2) Sol. A molecule of DNA polymerase can attach or polymerise

Sol. Hershey and Chase used radioactive isotopes of DNA strand

124. (3) 131. (3)

Sol. In the nucleoid of prokaryotic cell, the DNA is held with

126. (3) 133. (1)

138. (4) Sol. Griffith's experiments provided evidence for structural

Sol. 148. (2)

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