NEET-LEADER _ PH-1,2,3&4

PRACTICE
2 TEST - 1 Date:-23-12-23
English

Topic : MOLECULAR BASIS

SECTION-A ( BOTANY ) 4. For which of the following segments of given

DNA sequence, the melting point of DNA (Tm)
1. Match list-I with List-II and select the correct must be highest?
answer using the code given below in the list:
(1) 5' – ACTAAGTTATGA – 3',
List-I List-II
3' – TGATTCAATACT – 5'
Join short DNA segments
a Ligase (2) 5' – AACTGTCATCTA – 3',
together
Remove supercoils produced 3' – TTGACAGTAGAT – 5'
DNA
b due (3) 5' – AGTTACGTAGAA – 3',
polymerase
to unwinding of DNA duplex
3' – TCAATGCATCTT – 5'
Break hydrogen bond's
between (4) 5' – TACGACCTAGCG – 3',
c Helicase the complementary base pairs
3' – ATGCTGGATCGC – 5'
during DNA replication
5. In a double stranded DNA 18 adenine and 18
(1) 'a', 'b' and 'c' are correct cytosine N2 – bases is present. How many
(2) 'a' and 'b' are correct but 'c' incorrect nitrogen bases are present in this DNA :-

(3) 'a' is correct but 'b' and 'c' are incorrect (1) 36 (2) 54 (3) 18 (4) 72
(4) 'a' and 'c' are correct but 'b' is incorrect 6. In one full turn of the helical of DNA how many
purine nucleotides are present :-
2. c-DNA probes are copied from the messenger
RNA molecules with the help of :- (1) 10 (2) 5 (3) 20 (4) 1
7. The diagram represents the "Central dogma" of
(1) Restriction enzymes molecular biology. Choose the correct
(2) Reverse transcriptase combination of labelling :-

(3) DNA polymerase

(4) Adenosine deaminase
3. Which of the following is N-base ?
(1) Cytidine (2) Cytidylic acid
(3) Cytosine (4) None of them

A B C D E
(1) Protein RNA DNA Translation Transcription
(2) DNA RNA Protein Transcription Translation
(3) RNA DNA Protein Transcription Translation
(4) Transcription Translation Protein DNA RNA

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8. The figure below show three steps (A, B, C) of 11. If both strands of DNA in a given segment of
central dogma DNA are transcribed, then the two RNA
molecules formed must be :-
(1) Parallel and identical
(2) Antiparallel and complementary
(3) Parallel and complementary
(4) Antiparallel and identical
Select the A, B and C step with their respective 12. Match the column I with column II
statement : Column-I Column-II
(1) A → Replication → In this process (I) Taylor (a) E. coli
RNA dependant RNA polymerase enzyme
is used Streptococcus
(II) Hershey and Chase (b)
pneumoniae
(2) C → Translation → In this process
reverse transcriptase enzyme is used (III) Meselson and Stahl (c) Vicia faba
(3) B → Transcription → In this process (IV) Griffth (d) Bacteriophage
RNA dependant DNA polymerase enzyme (1) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-e
is used
(2) I-c, II-b, III-d, IV-e
(4) A → Replication → In this process
DNA dependant DNA polymerase enzyme (3) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b
is used (4) I-c, II-a, III-e, IV-d
9. Find the correct match :-
13. How many phosphodiester bonds are present in
(1) ϕ × 174 phage - 5386 ribose sugars in 10bp circular plasmid DNA ?
genetic material
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 40 (4) 100
(2) λ phage - 48502 ribonucleotides
14. The okazaki fragments of discontinous strand are
(3) E. coli - 4.6 × 106 bp joined by which of the following enzyme ?
(4) Human - 3.3 × 109 nucleotides in genome (1) DNA ligase (2) DNA gyrase
10. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic (3) Endonuclease (4) Exonuclease
material came from the experiment of:-
15. In meselson and stahl's experiment 15N was used
(1) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty, they as :-
worked with E.coli
(1) Hybrid isotope (2) Radioactive
(2) Frederick Griffith, he worked with
(3) Heavy isotope (4) Light isotope
Streptococcus pneumoniae
(3) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty, they
worked with Bacteriophage
(4) Hershey and Chase, they worked with
bacteriophage and bacteria
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16. Answer the following question according to 20. DNase are :-

given, one strand of DNA ?
(1) Enzymes for synthesis of DNA
3 - TAC ACC TCC AAG ATT - 5
What will be the sequence of N-bases in it's (2) Multiple molecules of DNA
complementary strand of DNA ?
(3) Enzymes for digestion of DNA
(1) 3 - AUG AGG UGG UUC UAA - 5
(4) Small fragments of DNA
(2) 5 - ATG TGG AGG TTC TAA - 3
21. In DNA replication, RNA primer is formed by
(3) 3 - AUG UGG AGG UUC UAA - 3 which enzyme ?
(4) 5 - AUG AGG UGG UUC UAA - 3 (1) DNA polymerase
17. Which of the following feature generates (2) RNA polymerase
approximetely uniform distence between the two
strand of DNA :- (3) Reverse transcriptase
(1) Presence of hydrogen Band (4) DNA Lygase
(2) Antiperelles polarity of two strand 22. In DNA-replication leading strand replicates in –
(3) One purine always comes opposite to (1) 5' – 3' direction, continuously
pyrimidine (2) 3' – 5' direction, continuously
(4) None (3) 5' – 3' direction, discontinuously
18. The diagram shows an important concept in the (4) 3' – 5' direction, discontinuously
genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the balnks A
to C : 23. During replication of DNA, unwinding creates
tension in the uncolied part by forming more
superocils.
(1) A-Translation, B-Transcription, This tension is released by enzyme
C-Erwin Chargaff
(1) RNA primase (2) Primosome
(2) A-Transcription, B-Translation,
(3) Topoisomerase (4) DNA polymerase
C-Francis Crick
24. Taylor used _____ to detect that chromosomes
(3) A-Translation, B-Extension,
replicates in semiconservative manner
C-Rosalind Franklin
(1) Radioactive thymidine
(4) A-Transcription, B-Replication,
C-James Watson (2) Heavy isotope of nitrogen
19. Which of the following processes do not require (3) Radiative adenyline
RNA primer ? (4) Heavy isotope of carbon
(1) Synthesis of new DNA strand over DNA
template.
(2) Lagging strand of DNA.
(3) Leading strand of DNA.
(4) Synthesis of new RNA.
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25. Isotopes used for proving semiconservative 31. Replication does not initiate randomly at any
replication of DNA are :- place in DNA. There is a definite region where
the replication originates. Such regions are
(1) N14 and P31 (2) N14 and N15 called:-
(3) N14 and C14 (4) S35 and P32 (1) Replication fork (2) Promoter site
26. DNA replication is :- (3) Initiator codon (4) Origin of replication
(1) Autocatalytic function of DNA 32. Main enzyme of DNA replication is :-
(2) Semiconservative process (1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(3) Semidiscontinuous process (2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) All of these (3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
27. In Meselson and Stahl experiment they used (4) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
which compound as the source of nitrogen ? 33. Which of the following process is occur in the s-
(1) NaNO3 (2) NH4Cl phase of cell cycle :-
(1) Transcription
(3) C6H5-NH2 (4) HCN
(2) Reverse transcription
28. Which enzyme is/are responsible for formation
of phosphodiester bonds during DNA (3) Chromosome separation
replication? (4) Replication
(1) Helicase 34. Which of the following diagram correctly
(2) Ligase represents the replication of DNA :-
(3) DNA polymerase
(4) Both '2' and '3' (1)
29. Which histone protein is not a part of histone
octamer ?
(1) H2A (2) H3 (3) H1 (4) H4
30. Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate serves the (2)
dual purpose of ___ and ___ in the process of
replication of DNA :-
(1) Enzyme, substrate
(2) Catalyst, substrate (3)
(3) Substrate, energy provider
(4) Energy, mutage provider

(4)

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35. A N15 – N15 DNA molecule is continuously 41. The proof reading during replication of DNA is
replicated in N14 medium, then what is the % of brought about by :
heavy DNA in 4th generation ? (1) 3'-5' exonuclease activity of DNA
(1) 25% (2) 0% polymerase Ι and ΙΙΙ
(3) 12.5% (4) 100% (2) 3'-5' endonuclease activity of DNA
polymerase Ι and ΙΙΙ
SECTION-B ( BOTANY )
(3) 5' – 3' exonuclease activity of DNA
36. Process used by Meselson and Stahl for study polymerase ΙΙΙ
semiconservative replication of DNA was :- (4) 3'-5' exonuclease activity of DNA
(1) Radio tracer polymerase ΙΙΙ only
(2) Centrifugation 42. Which statements are correct in relation with the
(3) Density gradient centrifugation diagram given below ?

(4) Electrophoresis
37. The salient feature of the DNA are :-
(i) It is made up of two polynucleotide chains
(ii) Backbone is constituted by sugar & nitrogen
base
(iii) Two chains have parallel polarity
(iv) Bases in two strands are paired through
hydrogen bonds
(1) (i), (iv) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) (A) More than one primer are required for the
synthesis of leading strand.
(3) (i), (ii), (iv) (4) (ii), (iv) (B) Okazaki fragments are polymerized
38. If a B-DNA molecule is composed of 4800 bp, in 3'→5' direction.
how many helical pitches are present ? (C) Continuously synthesizing strand is the
(1) 10 (2) 380 (3) 480 (4) 4800 leading strand.
(D) Okazaki fragments are polymerized opposite
39. A bacterium was grown for several generations to the fork movement.
on 15NH4Cl and then transferred to 14NH4Cl.
(1) A, B, C, D (2) B, C, D
What percentage of DNA will have heavy chains
after 3 generations? (3) A, C, D (4) C, D
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 12.5% (4) 6.25% 43. The Hershey-Chase experiments show the
40. DNA replication in prokaryotes have how many following steps chronologically :-
ori units :- (1) Blending, Infection, Centrifugation
(1) One (2) Two (2) Centrifugation, Infection, Blending
(3) Three (4) Many (3) Infection, Centrifugation, Blending
(4) Infection, Blending, Centrifugation

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44. A molecule that can act as a genetic material 48. Which of the following is a nucleoside of RNA?
must fulfill the criteria (1) cytosine
(i) It should be able to generate its replica.
(ii) It should be chemically and structurally (2) deoxyadenylic acid
stable. (3) uridine
(iii) It should provide the scope for slow changes
(4) deoxy guanosine
mutation that are required for evolution.
(iv) It should not be able to express itself in the 49. Read the following statements and select the
form of Mendelian factor. correct option :-
(1) i, ii, iii (2) i, ii, (1) Hetero chromatin is densely packed and
stains light.
(3) i, ii, iii, iv (4) i only
(2) Euchromatin is loosely packed and stains
45. In a double-stranded DNA, if the amount of dark.
Adenine is 38% then the amount of pyrimidine
bases should be :- (3) Process of transformation is not affected by
RNase, protease and lipase enzyme but is
(1) 19% (2) 38% affected by DNase enzyme.
(3) 12% (4) 50% (4) Hexose sugar is found in nucleic acid
46. Which of the following option is incorrect with 50. Right handed DNA with 20Å diameter will have
reference to the transforming principle ? how many base pair and length of one turn :-
(1) S strain → injected into mice → mice (1) 10 and 34 Å (2) 11 and 25 Å
died
(3) 12 and 46 Å (4) 12 and 3.8 Å
(2) R strain → injected into mice → mice
lived
(3) S strain (heat killed) → injected into mice
→ mice died
(4)
→ injected into
mice → mice died
47. 32P was used to radiolabel the component of λ -
bacteriophage in Hershey and Chase experiment :-
(1) Viral protein
(2) Viral DNA
(3) Viral RNA
(4) Both DNA and protein

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Topic : BIOTECHNOLOGY PART-I : PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES

SECTION-A ( ZOOLOGY ) 55. Which method is used to check the progression

of restriction enzyme ?
51. Stanley and Cohen isolated the antibiotic (1) PCR
resistance gene and linked it to a plasmid native
of (2) Gel Electrophoresis
(1) Salmonella typhimurium (3) Downstream processing
(2) Salmonella pneumoniae (4) DNA finger printing
(3) Saccharomyces cereviseae 56. The enzyme which catalyses the removal of
nucleotides from the ends of DNA is
(4) E. coli
(1) Endonuclease (2) Exonuclease
52. How many restriction fragments are obtained
with 5 restriction site in linear & circular DNA (3) DNA ligase (4) DNA polymerase
respectively ? 57. Choose the option with the correct order of
(1) 5 & 5 (2) 6 & 5 (3) 5 & 6 (4) 6 & 6 processes carried out in one cycle, in the most
commonly used process for amplification of
53. Which of the following is used to deliver gene of interest.
desirable gene in to animal cell?
(1) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
(1) Disarmed retrovirus
(2) Extension, Annealing, Denaturation
(2) Disarmed Agrobacterium
(3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(3) Disarmed E.coli
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(4) Disarmed plant pathogen
58. Today more than ___________ restriction
54. Assertion: The convention for naming restriction
enzymes that has been isolated from over
enzymes is the first letter of the name comes
___________ strains of bacteria are there.
from the species and the second two letters come
from the genus of the prokaryotic cell from (1) 800, 230 (2) 900, 230
which they were isolated (3) 900, 250 (4) 900, 260
Reason: In EcoRI, the letter 'R' is derived from
the order in which the enzymes were isolated
from that strain of bacteria.
(1) both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
(2) both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion
(3) assertion is true but reason is false
(4) both assertion and reason are false

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59. The flowchart given below represent the process 61. DNA ligase is known as molecular glue as it
of recombinant technology. Identify A to D links two DNA fragments by forming
(1) Hydrogen bonds
(2) Phosphodiester bonds
(3) Glycosidic bonds
(4) Disulphide bonds
62. If restriction endonuclease cuts the DNA a little
away from the centre of the palindromic site,
then what would happen?
(A) The DNA fragments obtained would have
sticky ends.
(1) A- Restriction endonuclease, B- Restriction (B) Construction of rDNA molecule would not
exonuclease, C- RNA ligase, D- be possible.
Transformation (C) Resultant DNA fragments with overhanging
(2) A- Restritction endonuclease B- Restriction streches can be ligated with the help of DNA
endonuclease, C- DNA ligase, D- ligase.
Transformation Choose the correct statement(s).
(3) A- Restriction exonuclease B- Restriction (1) A & B (2) A & C
endonuclease, C- DNA polymerase, D- (3) B & C (4) A, B & C
Transduction
63. Ori refers to :
(4) A- Restritction endonuclease, B-
(1) Origin of replication
Restriction endonuclease, C- DNA
polymerase, D- Transformation (2) Origin of transcription
60. Which of the following statement is not correct (3) Start translation
regarding Eco RI restriction endonuclease (4) Operon
enzyme?
I. It is isolated from Escherichia coli RY 13. 64. Which of the following is not used in polymerase
II. Its recognition sequence is palindromic DNA chain Reaction ?
(1) Taq polymerase
(2) Two sets of DNA primers
(3) Helicase
(1) I and II (2) I and III (4) Denaturation at a temperature of about
(3) I, II and III (4) Only III 94°C

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65. To be a cloning vector, a plasmid does not 69. If pBR322 is used as a vector and Pvu-I or Pst-I
necessarily require is used as the molecular scissor. The resultant
(1) an origin of replication recombinant host cell will be

(2) an antibiotic resistance marker (1) Having inactivation of tetR gene

(3) a restriction site (2) Unable to grow in the presence of

tetracycline
(4) to have a high copy number
(3) Unable to grow in the presence of
66. Vector which is commonly used to transfer ampicillin
foreign gene in a crop plant is :
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Plasmids of Salmonella
70. __________ is responsible for controlling
(2) λ bacterio phage vector copying numbers of the linked DNA.
(3) Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens (1) Ori (2) Cloning sites
(4) None of the above (3) Selectable marker (4) Vector
67. Identify A,B, C and D in the given diagram of E. 71. Microinjection introduces recombinant DNA
coli cloning vector pBR322. :- ____ into the nucleus of a/an ____ cell.
Fill in the given blanks respectively by choosing
suitable option.
(1) Directly, animal (2) Indirectly, animal
(3) Directly, plant (4) Indirectly, plant
72. About gene gun method.
I. This method is also known as biolistic
technique.
II. In this method cells are bombarded with high
velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten
coated
with DNA in plants.
(1) A-EcoRI, B-BamHI, C-ori, D-ampR
III. Imoportant crop plants like maize, rice and
(2) A-ampR, B-ori, C-BamHI, D-EcoRI wheat have now been transformed by this
(3) A-ori , B-BamHI, C-EcoRI, D-ampR method.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(4) A-BamHI, B-EcoRI, C-ampR, D-ori
(1) I and II (2) I and III
68. A selectable marker is :-
(3) II and III (4) I, II and III
(1) β -gal gene (Lac-z-gene)
(2) Ampicillin resistant gene
(3) Tetracyclin resistant gene
(4) More than one as mentioned above

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73. EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases _______ and 77. The separated bands of DNA are cut out from
______ only when the recognition sequence the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece.
GAATTC is present in the DNA. This step is known as
Select the correct option to fill the blanks (1) Precipitation
respectively.
(2) Elution
(1) A and T (2) T and C
(3) Spooling
(3) G and A (4) A and C
(4) Fragmentation
74. Which of the following method can be termed as
vectorless approach to introduce foreign DNA 78. A part of plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens
into host cells :- which is able to deliver a piece of DNA to
(A)Microinjection transform normal plant cells into a tumor.
(B) Biolistics (1) T-DNA (2) F-DNA
(C) Bacterial Artifical chromosome (3) T-RNA (4) F-RNA
(1) (A) only (2) (A) & (C) both
79. Which of the following DNA is undigested by
(3) (C) only (4) (A) & (B) both restriction endonuclease in this diagram ?
75. For transformation, microparticles coated with
DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made
up of
(1) silver or platinum (2) platinum or zinc
(3) silicon or platinum (4) gold or tungsten
76. Given below is a typical agarose gel in which
electrophoresis had occurred.
(1) Lane 1 (2) Lane 2
(3) Lane 3 (4) Lane 4
80. While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the
following enzymes is not used?
(1) Lysozyme (2) Ribonuclease
In this agarose gel -
(3) Protease (4) Deoxyribonuclease
(1) Lane - 1 shows migration of digested DNA
fragments
(2) Only Lane - 3 shows migration of digested
DNA fragments
(3) Lane - 2 to 4 shows migration of digested
set of DNA fragments
(4) Wells are always placed towards positive
electrode during electrophoresis
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81. Purified DNA ultimately precipitates out after 85. How many DNA molecules will be obtained
the addition of chilled ethanol. This can be from one DNA molecule after 3
collected as fine threads in the suspension as PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) cycles?
seen in the figure. It refers to -
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 6 (4) 32
SECTION-B ( ZOOLOGY )

86. Select the correct match w.r.t steps involved in

PCR.
(1) Denaturation – Phosphodiester bonds
break
(1) DNA Spooling (2) DNA digestion (2) Annealing – Primers anneal at 5’ end of
DNA template
(3) DNA recognition (4) DNA elution
(3) Extension – Taq polymerase forms
82. In recombinant DNA technology, the term vector
hydrogen bonds between adjacent
refers to
nucleotides of growing DNA strand
(1) The enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction
(4) Elongation – Thermostable DNA
fragments
polymerase adds nucleotide to 3’ end of
(2) The sticky end of a DNA fragment primers
(3) A plasmid used to transfer alien DNA into 87. If gene of interest was inserted at PvuI site in
a cell pBR322 the resulting plasmid will confer
(4) A DNA fragment which carries only resistance
origene. to :-
83. During isolation of DNA, addition of which of (1) Ampicillin (2) Tetracyclin
the following causes precipitation of purified (3) Kanamycin (4) Both (1) and (3)
DNA?
88. Match the Column I with Column II w.r.t. PCR
(1) Chilled ethanol
and choose the correct option.
(2) Ribonuclease enzyme Column I Column II
(3) DNA polymerase a. Denaturation (i) 72°C
(4) Proteases b. Extension (ii) 94°C
84. During the process of gel electrophoresis DNA c. Annealing (iii) 50-60°C
move toward the .....A.... because they are ....B....
charged. Hore A and B are. (1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
(1) Cathode and Positive respectively (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
(2) Cathode and Negative respectively (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(3) Anode and Positive respectively (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(4) Anode and Negative respectively
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89. Statement-I : Micro injection technique is mainly 93. Match the column-I with column-II.
used for animal cells. Column-I Column-II
Statement-II : Biolistic method is suitable for Separation
plants. (i) (a) Bioreactor
of DNA fragments
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are Separation and
correct. (ii) (b) Gel Electrophoresis
purification of products
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (iii) Large scale production (c) Downstream processing
correct
(1) (i) - a, (ii) - b, (iii) - c
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect. (2) (i) - b, (ii) - a, (iii) - c

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) (i) - b, (ii) - c, (iii) - a
incorrect. (4) (i) - c, (ii) - b, (iii) - a
90. When a recombinant DNA is inserted within the 94. According to EFB, “The integration of natural
coding sequence of an enzyme, B-galactosidase science and organisms, cells, parts thereof and
(1) This results into inactivation of the enzyme molecular analogues for products and services,”
is known as.
(2) This is called insertional inactivation
(1) Biochemistry (2) Bioinformatics
(3) In the presence of insert, the colonies do
not produce any colour (3) Biotechnology (4) Biology
(4) All of these 95. Sparger component of bioreactor helps in
91. Normal E. coli cells carry resistance against (1) Purification of product
which of the following antibiotics? (2) Dramatically increasing availability of
(1) Chloramphenicol (2) Ampicillin oxygen
(3) Tetracycline (4) None of these (3) Release of preservatives into the product

92. Inactivation of one of the selectable marker in a (4) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the
vector by insertion of an alien DNA is known as ? culture vessel
(1) Direct inactivation 96. Downstream processing is:
(2) Indirect inactivation (1) Process of separation of DNA fragments

(3) Insertional inactivation (2) Process of joining the vector and the host
DNA
(4) Alien inactivation
(3) Process including separation and
purification of the product
(4) Process of transferring DNA

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97. Identify the figures (A) and (B) and select the 98. DNA cannot pass through cell membrane as it is:
correct option. (1) hydrophilic (2) hydrophobic
(3) Lipophilic (4) All the above
99. Match the organism with its use in
biotechnology.
Cloning
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis (i)
vector
(b) Taq polymerase (ii) T-DNA
Thermus
(c) Agrobacterium tumifaciens (iii)
aquaticus
(A) (B)
Cry
Sparged stirred- Simple stirred- (d) pBR-322 (iv)
(1) protein
tank tank
bioreactor bioreactor Select the correct option from the following:
Sparged stirred- Sparged stirred- (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2)
tank tank
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
bioreactor bioreactor
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Simple stirred- Sparged stirred-
(3) (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
tank tank
bioreactor bioreactor (4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Simple stirred- Simple stirred- 100. The separated DNA fragments can be visualised
(4)
tank tank
(1) Only after staining with a compound
bioreactor bioreactor ethidium bromide
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (2) Under visible light
(3) Under UV light
(4) Both (1) & (3)

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