1

ESE (A), 2021

CIVIL ENGINEERING
1. A network of pipes conveying water to a city (Take g = 9.81 m/s2 )
has the following specifications. The diameter (a) 14.34 MW (b) 13.34 MW
of a main pipe is 30 cm and it branches into
(c) 12.34 MW (d) 11.34 MW
two pipes of diameters 20 cm and 15 cm
respectively. If the average velocity in the 5. A stream function is given by  = 3x2 – y3 .
main pipe is 2.5 m/s and the average velocity What is the magnitude of velocity components
in the 20 cm pipe is measured as 2 m/s, what is at the point (2,1) ?
the velocity in the 15 cm pipe ? (a) 8.52 (b) 9.17
(a) 8.84 m/s (b) 7.44 m/s (c) 10.81 (d) 12. 37
(c) 5.84 m/s (d) 6.44 m/s 6. Full load is supplied by the turbine shaft when
the diameter of jet issuing from the nozzle is
2. A centrifugal pump delivers water against a net
head of 14.5 m and a design speed of 1000 150 mm. If the load suddenly drops to 36% of
r.p.m. The vanes are curved back to an angle of the full load, what diameter of the jet should be
30° with the periphery. The impeller diameter attained by regulating the spear rod?
is 300 mm and the outlet width is 50 mm. (a) 15 mm (b) 45 mm
What is the tangential velocity of impeller at (c) 90 mm (d) 180 mm
outlet ?
7. What is the depth of a point below water
(a) 15.7 m/s (b) 13.2 m/s surface in sea, where pressure intensity is
(c) 9.7 m/s (d) 11.2 m/s 1.006 MN/m2 ? (Specific gravity of sea water is
3. A 7.5 cm diameter jet of water strikes a curved 1.025)
plate at its centre with a velocity of 20 m/s. (a) 60 m (b) 80 m
The curved plate is moving with a velocity of 8 (c) 100 m (d) 120 m
m/s in the direction of the jet. The jet is
8. Two pressure points in a water pipe are
deflected through an angle of 165°. By
connected to a manometer which has the form
assuming the plate as smooth, what is the angle
of an inverted U-tube. The space above the
made by the relative velocity at the outlet of
water in the two limbs of the manometer is
the plate?
filled with toluene (specific gravity is 0.875).
(a) 45° (b) 30° If the difference of level of water columns in
(c) 15° (d) 0° the two limbs reads 12.0 cm, what is the
4. A reservoir has a head of 40 m and a channel corresponding difference of pressure?
leading from the reservoir permits a flow rate (Take g = 9.81 m/s2 )
of 34 m3 /s. If the rotational speed of the rotor is (a) 110.49 N/m2 (b) 128.12 N/m2
150 r.p.m., what is the power of the turbine?
(c) 131.34 N/m2 (d) 147.15 N/m2
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9. What is the minimum size of glass tube that the evaporation during this year?
can be used to measure water level if the (a) 480 mm (b) 280 mm
capillary rise in the tube is to be restricted to 2
(c) 380 mm (d) 180 mm
mm? (Take surface tension of water in contact
with air as 0.073575 N/m) 14. A bridge has an expected life of 25 years and is
designed for a flood magnitude of return
(a) 1.5 cm (b) 1.0 cm
period 100 years. What is the risk of this
(c) 2.5 cm (d) 2.0 cm hydrologic design?
10. A semi-tubular cylinder of 75 mm radius with 25 25
concave side upstream (drag coefficient = 2.3)  100   99 
(a) 1    (b)  
is submerged in flowing water of velocity 0.6  99   100 
m/s. If the cylinder is 7.2 m long and density of
25 25
water is 1000 kg/m3 , what is the drag ?  99   100 
(c) 1    (d)  
(a) 150 N (b) 173 N  100   99 
(c) 955 N (d) 223 N
15. In a groundwater field test, a tracer took 8
11. A double acting reciprocating pump having hours to travel between two observation wells
piston area 0.1 m2 has a stroke length 0.30 m. which are 56 m apart. The difference in water
The pump is discharging 2.4 m3 of water per table elevations in these wells was 0.70 m. The
minute at 45 r.p.m. through a height of 10 m. volume of the void of the aquifer is 30% of the
What is the slip of the pump ? total volume of the aquifer. What is the
(a) 0.005 m3 /s (b) 0.015 m3 /s hydraulic conductivity of the aquifer, if the
dynamic viscosity of water is 0.995 × 10–3
(c) 0.025 m3 /s (d) 0.035 m3 /s
Ns/m2 ?
12. If pressure head of water is 100 m and specific
gravity of kerosene is 0.81, what is the (a) 4.664 cm/s (b) 3.664 cm/hr
pressure head of kerosene ? (c) 2.664 mm/s (d) 1.664 cm/hr
(a) 123.5 m of kerosene 16. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) 241.3 m of kerosene channel routing:
1. In channel routing, the flood hydrograph
(c) 75.1 m of kerosene
at various sections of the reach is
(d) 52.4 m of kerosene
predicted by considering a channel reach
13. A lake has an area of 15 km2 . Observation of and an input hydrograph at the upstream
hydrological variables during a certain year has end.
shown as follows :
2. As the flood wave moves down the river,
Precipitation = 700 mm/year; the shape of the wave does not change.
Average inflow Qin = 1.4 m3 /s; 3. Flood waves passing down a river have
Average outflow QQut = 1.6 m /s.3 their peaks attenuated due to friction.
Assume that there is no net water exchange 4. The addition of lateral inflows can cause
between the lake and the groundwater. What is an increase of attenuation.
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Which of the above statements are not correct? 21. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only loss of water in canals :

(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only 1. The water lost by evaporation is generally
very small, as compared to the water lost
17. Consider the following statements related to
by seepage in certain channels.
water logging control:
2. In percolation, there exists a zone of
1. It is evident that water logging can be
continuous saturation from the canal to
controlled only if the quantity of water
the water-table and a direct flow is
into the soil below is checked and
established.
reduced.
3. In absorption, a small saturated soil zone
2. Attempts should be made to reduce the
exists around the canal section and is
seepage of water from the canals and
surrounded by a zone of decreasing
water courses.
saturation.
3. The entire irrigable land should receive
Which of the above statements are correct ?
canal water in all seasons.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
22. The chief aim of river training is
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
18. If wheat requires 7.5 cm of water after every (a) to protect water from loss.
28 days and the base period for wheat is 140 (b) bed scouring.
days, what is the value of delta for wheat ?
(c) to achieve ultimate stability of river with
(a) 7.5 cm (b) 27.5 cm the aid of river training measures.
(c) 37.5 cm (d) 17.5 cm (d) pitching of banks and provision of
19. A tile drainage system draining 12 hectares, launching aprons.
flows at a design capacity for two days,
23. Which one of the following conditions is
following a storm. If the system is designed
correct for a channel to behave in true regime?
using a drainage coefficient of 1.25 cm, how
much of water will be removed during this (a) Discharge is non-uniform
period ? (b) Flow is non-uniform
(a) 1500 m3 (b) 4500 m3 (c) Silt grade is varying
3 3
(c) 3000 m (d) 3500 m (d) Silt charge is constant
20. What is the hydraulic radius of a stable canal
24. What is the delta for a crop when its duty is
carrying a discharge of 27 m3 /s using Lacey's
864 hectares/cumec on the field and the base
method ? (Assume silt factor is 1.0)
period of this crop is 120 days ?
(a) 1.44 m (b) 2.67 m
(a) 120 cm (b) 140 cm
(c) 3.14 m (d) 4.28 m
(c) 160 cm (d) 172 cm
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25. Which one of the following is the merit of 30. Sludge thickening is commonly achieved by
combined sewer system ? the following methods :
(a) Rain water dilutes the sewage, therefore, 1. Gravity thickening
it can be easily and economically treated. 2. Air flotation
(b) Initial cost is high as compared with 3. Centrifugation
separate system.
Which of the above methods are correct ?
(c) If the whole sewage is to be disposed off (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
by pumping, it is uneconomical.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) During heavy rains, the overflowing of 31. Which one of the following is the process
sewers will endanger the public health. whereby chemicals are added to a wastewater
resulting in a reduction of the forces tending to
26. Which one of the following is a device used
keep suspended particles apart ?
for measuring the velocity of flowing water in
pipes or open channels ? (a) Coagulation (b) Flocculation
(c) Clarification (d) Sedimentation
(a) Pitottube (b) Piezometer
32. Which one of the following is a grit-removal
(c) Venturimeter (d) Venturi tube
unit which also removes silt as well as some
27. Which one of the following is the process in organic matter along with grit ?
which ammonia is oxidised to nitrites and then (a) Detritus Tank (b) Skimming Tank
to nitrates by aerobic bacteria ? (c) Detention Tank (d) Suspension Tank
(a) Nitrification (b) Denitrification 33. The domestic sewage of a town was tested for
total solids and the following results were
(c) Adsorption (d) Regeneration
obtained :
28. A tank into which raw or partly treated sewage
Weight of sample of sewage = 1000 gm
is collected, left to stay, and discharged at such
Weight of solids after evaporation of liquid =
a rate as may be necessary for subsequent
0.952 gm
treatment, is called
Weight of dry residue after ignition = 0.516
(a) Dosing tank gm
(b) Sedimentation tank What is the value of volatile solids ?

(c) Skimming tank (a) 952 ppm (b) 516 ppm

(c) 436 ppm (d) 694 ppm
(d) Settling tank
34. The quantity of nitrogen present in wastewater
29. In the context of sludge conditioning,
before the decomposition of organic matter has
Elutriation is synonymous to
started, is indicated by
(a) Washing (b) Heating (a) Albuminoid Nitrogen
(c) Compacting (d) Filtering (b) Free Ammonia
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(c) Organic Nitrogen (a) 16.42 kN/m2

(d) Nitrate Nitrogen (b) 26.53 kN/m2
35. Which one of the following is that (low) water (c) 36.12 kN/m2
content of the soil at which plants can no (d) 40.51 kN/m2
longer extract sufficient water for their
40. Which one of the following is a characteristic
growth?
of local shear failure?
(a) Wilting point
(a) Failure pattern is not clearly defined.
(b) Tail water
(b) Failure surfaces reach ground surfaces.
(c) Irrigating head
(c) There is no bulging of soil around the
(d) Capillary water footing.
36. Which one of the following is the advantage of (d) Failure is not sudden and there is no
using activated carbon for water treatment ? tilting of footing.
(a) When used in powdered form after 41. A sample of silty clay has a volume of 14.88
coagulation, it does not aid in coagulation. cm3 , a total mass of 28.81 gm, a dry mass of
(b) It increases the chlorine demand of treated 24.83 gm and a specific gravity of solids 2.7.
water. What is the void ratio?
(c) It removes organic matter present in (a) 0.412 (b) 0.521
water. (c) 0.618 (d) 0.663
(d) Its overdose is harmful. 42. A constant head permeability test is carried out
3
37. A soil has bulk density of 20.1 kN/m and on a cylindrical sample of sand 10 cm diameter
water content 15%. What is the water content and 15 cm height. 160 cm3 of water is
if the soil partially dries to a density of 19.4 collected in 1.75 minutes, under a head of 30
kN/m3 and the void ratio remains cm. What is the coefficient of permeability in
unchanged ? m/year ?

(a) 10.86% (b) 10.76% (a) 1257 m/year (b) 2111 m/year

(c) 10.68% (d) 10.66% (c) 3060 m/year (d) 3332 m/year

38. A fine grained soil is found to have a liquid 43. Which one of the following is the correct
limit of 90% and a plasticity index of 50. The assumption of Rankine's theory ?
natural water content is 28%. What is the (a) The soil mass is infinite.
liquidity index ?
(b) The soil mass is non homogeneous.
(a) –0.34 (b) –0.14
(c) The soil mass is cohesive.
(c) –0.24 (d) –2.40
(d) The ground surface is a plane which may
39. A concentrated load of 2000 kN is applied at be horizontal or inclined.
the ground surface. What is the vertical stress
44. If a retaining wall 5 m high is restrained from
at a point 6 m directly below the load ?
yielding, what is the at-rest earth pressure per
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meter length of wall? (Consider the backfill is (a) The prediction of the position of the line
cohesionless soil having  = 30° and  = 18 of seepage in the longitudinal section.
kN/m3 ). (b) The computation of seepage loss.
(a) 108 kN/m (b) 112.5 kN/m
(c) The seepage line should cut the
(c) 115 kN/m (d) 124 kN/m down-stream slope.
45. Consider the following steps related to
(d) The seepage loss through the dam should
construction with the use of geotextiles :
be maximum.
1. Start with an adequate working surface
49. Which one of the following is not an
and staging area.
instrument for setting out right angles ?
2. Lay a geotextile sheet of proper width on
(a) Cross staff (b) Site square
the ground surface.
3. Construction equipment must work from (c) Prism square (d) Optical staff

the soil backfill and be kept off the 50. Which one of the following is correct for
unprotected geotextile. Prismatic Compass ?
Which of the above steps are correct ? (a) The graduated ring rotates with line of
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only sight.

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Instrument cannot be used without tripod.

46. The void ratio of a clay sample is 0.5 and the (c) The graduations are engraved inverted.
degree of saturation is 70%. What is the bulk (d) The readings can directly be taken by
unit weight of the soil ? (Assume G = 2.7) seeing through the top of the glass.
(a) 10.46 kN/m3 (b) 14.32 kN/m3 51. Magnetic declination at a place is the
(c) 17.77 kN/m3 (d) 19.95 kN/m3 horizontal angle between

47. What is the coefficient of volume change (a) the true meridian and the arbitrary
(using change in void ratio method) for meridian.
pressure range 100 kN/m2 to 200 kN/m2 ? (b) the magnetic meridian and the arbitrary
(Consider  '0 = 100 kN/m2 , e0 = 1.121, ' = meridian.

200 kN/m2 , e0 = 0.964, ' = 100 kN/m2 and (c) the true bearing and the magnetic bearing.

and e = –0.157) (d) the true meridian and the magnetic

meridian.
(a) 0.25 m2 /MN (b) 0.48 m2 /MN
52. The magnetic bearing of a line AB is
(c) 0.69 m2 /MN (d) 0.74 m2 /MN
S28°30'E. What is the true bearing of line AB
48. Which one of the following problems is
if the magnetic declination is 7°30' towards
required to be studied in the design of earth
west ?
dams ?
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(a) S36°E (b) N21°W wealth such as gold, coal, etc.

(c) S21°E (d) N36°W Which of the above statements are correct ?
53. The Zenith is/are (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) the point on the upper portion of the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
celestial sphere marked by plumb line 57. In setting up of plane table at a station P, the
above the observer. corresponding point on the plan was not
(b) the point on the lower portion of the accurately centered above P. If the
celestial sphere marked by plumb line displacement of P was 30 cm in a direction at
below the observer. right angles to the ray and scale is 1 cm = 2 m,
(c) the two points in which the Earth's axis of how much on the plan would be the
rotation meets the Earth's sphere. consequent displacement of point from its true
position ?
(d) the great circle of the Earth, the plane of
which is at right angles to the axis of (a) 0.15 mm (b) 6.0 mm
rotation. (c) 1.5 mm (d) 0.3 mm
54. Which one of the statements is not correct for 58. A photographic survey is carried out to a scale
remote sensing ? of 1 : 20000. A camera with a wide angle lens
(a) It requires energy source. of f = 170 mm was used with 25 cm × 25 cm
plate size for a net 65% overlap along the line
(b) It requires propagation of energy
of flight. What is the error in height given by
through atmosphere.
an error of 0.15 mm in measuring the parallax
(c) It requires energy interaction with the of the point ?
Earth's surface features.
(a) 5.15 m (b) 5.27 m
(d) It requires absorption of energy by the
(c) 5.83 m (d) 6.45 m
Earth's surface.
59. What is the aeroplane flying height to obtain
55. Energy in remote sensing deals with which
the average scale of the photograph equal to
region of electromagnetic spectrum ?
1
(a) Ultraviolet (b) Infrared (Ground surface elevations vary from
7200
(c) X-Ray (d) Gamma Ray 160 m to 430 m and focal length of the camera
56. Consider the following statements related to lens is 153 mm)

the classification based upon the object of (a) 1021 m (b) 1145 m

survey : (c) 1284 m (d) 1397 m

1. Archaeological surveys for unearthing 60. Which one of the following conditions shall be
relics of antiquity. fulfilled when a transition curve is inserted

2. Geological surveys for determining between the tangent and circular curve ?
different strata in the Earth's crust. (a) It should not meet the original straight
3. Mine surveys for exploring mineral tangentially.
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(b) It should not meet the circular curve 63. Consider the following statements related to
tangentially. the advantages of concrete sleepers :
(c) Its radius at the junction with the circular 1. Concrete sleepers can generally be mass
curve should be the same as that of the produced using local resources.
circular curve. 2. Concrete sleepers are not suitable for
(d) The rate of decrease of curvature along beater packing.
the transition curve should be same as that 3. Concrete sleepers have a very long
of increase in superelevation. lifespan.
61. Consider the following statements related to 4. Concrete sleepers have no scrap value.
road pavements : Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
1. Deflections measured near cracks are (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
normally much lower than the
(c) 2 only (d) 2 and 4 only
measurements in non-distressed areas.
64. Which one of the following is not the method
2. Deflection measurements near
of tunneling in hard rock ?
longitudinal joints, transverse joints or
corners are higher than those measured at (a) Full-face heading method
mid-slab for concrete pavements. (b) Heading and bench method
3. Thermal and moisture gradient in the (c) Drift method
vertical direction of concrete slabs does (d) Shaft method
not have any influence on deflection
65. Consider the following statements related to
measurements.
the advantages of uniformity of rail gauges :
4. Measurements taken at night or in the
1. As transhipping is not required, there is
early morning are considerably different
breakage of goods.
from those obtained in the afternoon.
2. Large sheds to store goods are not
Which of the above statements are not correct?
required.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
3. Labour strikes, etc. do not affect the
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only service and operation of trains.
62. Which one of the following tunnelling methods Which of the above statements are correct ?
is adopted for the situations where the metro
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
alignment passes under residential buildings or
a canal ? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

(a) Earth pressure balance tunneling 66. Which one of the following are provided to
machine method give access to properties along an important
highway with controlled access to expressway
(b) Tunnel boring machine method
or freeway ?
(c) Tube tunneling method
(a) Lay-bys (b) Frontage roads
(d) Driven shield tunneling method
(c) Driveways (d) Cycle tracks
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67. When properly designed traffic signals are (c) 1450 Vehicles/hour (per lane)
used, which one of the following is the (d) 2900 Vehicles/hour (per lane)
advantage of traffic signals ?
72. For a street lighting system, having the
(a) The signals allow crossing of the heavy following conditions :
traffic flow with safety.
Street width = 15 m
(b) The rear-end collision may increase.
Mounting height = 7.5 m
(c) Improper design and location of signals
Lamp size = 6000 lumen
may lead to violation of the control
system. Luminaire type = II

(d) Failure of the signal due to electric power Coefficient of utilization = 0.44
failure may cause confusion to the road Maintenance factor = 0.8
users. What is the spacing between lighting units to
68. If the ruling gradient is 1 in 150 on a particular produce average Lux = 6?
section of broad gauge and at the same time a (a) 18 m (b) 20 m
curve of 4 degree is situated on this ruling
(c) 23 m (d) 27 m
gradient, what is the allowable ruling gradient
? 73. Consider the following for the objects of
seasoning wood :
(a) 1 in 10 (b) 1 in 72
1. Reduce the shrinkage and warping after
(c) 1 in 196 (d) 1 in 245
placement in structure
69. What is the value of headlight sight distance
2. Increase its tendency to split and decay
for a highway with a design speed of 65 kmph?
(Take f = 0.36 and t = 2.5 sec) 3. Decrease workability

(a) 66.5 m (b) 81.3 m 4. Reduce its weight

(c) 91.4 m (d) 182.8 m Which of the above objects are correct ?

70. What is the minimum stopping sight distance (a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 4 only
on a –3.5% grade for a design speed of 110 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
kmph ? (Consider friction coefficient f = 0.28, 74. The hardness of aggregate is tested by
t = 2.5 sec and G = 0.035)
(a) Impact test
(a) 76.4 m (b) 194.4 m
(b) Crushing strength test
(c) 214.6 m (d) 270.8 m
(c) Abrasion test
71. The free mean speed on a roadway is found to
(d) Soundness test
be 80 kmph. Under stopped condition, the
average spacing between the vehicles is 6.9 m. 75. Which one of the following statements is
correct in respect of mild steel ?
What is the capacity flow?
(a) 5800 Vehicles/hour (per lane) (a) It has high carbon content.

(b) 7200 Vehicles/hour (per lane) (b) It is tougher than hard steel.
 10

(c) It is more elastic than hard steel. (c) Gypsum

(d) It can be forged and welded easily. (d) Plaster of Paris
76. The chemical composition 'Silicates of iron 82. The most suitable type of cement for mass
and alumina' is found in which one of the concreting works is
following minerals ? (a) Rapid Hardening Cement
(a) Garnet (b) Serpentine (b) High Alumina Cement
(c) Olivine (d) Calcite (c) Low Heat Portland Cement
77. The drawback of electric seasoning of timber (d) Quick Setting Cement
is.
83. Which one of the non-destructive tests can be
(a) Checks performed on fresh concrete ?
(b) Splitting (a) Ultrasonic test
(c) Cracks (b) Penetration test
(d) Reduced Strength (c) Core test
78. Which one of the following is a product (d) Hammer test
obtained by distilling tar and is used largely as
84. In a concrete mix, for given cement content
an effective preservative for wood ?
and workability, higher proportion of fine
(a) Creosote (b) Solignum aggregate will be required if
(c) Coal tar (d) Wax polish (a) maximum size of aggregate is large.
79. Pozzolanas are (b) maximum size of aggregate is small.
(a) argillaceous materials (c) rounded aggregate is used.
(b) calcareous materials (d) all in aggregate is used.
(c) accelerators 85. A central steel rod 18 mm diameter passes
(d) siliceous materials through a copper sleeve with 24 mm inside and
80. For better chemical resistance, proportion of 39 mm outside diameter. It is provided with
which one of the following compounds in nuts and washers at each end and the nuts are
cement clinker shall be increased ? tightened until a stress of 10 N/mm2 is set up in
the steel. Then, the stress developed in copper
(a) Tricalcium Silicate
tube is.
(b) Dicalcium Silicate
(a) 29.1 N/mm2 , Compressive
(c) Tetracalcium Aluminate
(b) 3.4 N/mm2 , Compressive
(d) Tetracalcium Aluminoferrite
(c) 3.4 N/mm2 , Tensile
81. The finishing coat in X-ray room walls is done
(d) 29.1 N/mm2 , Tensile
preferably with
86. A 2 m long alloy bar of 1500 mm2 cross-
(a) Barium plaster
sectional area hangs vertically and has a collar
(b) Cement plaster securely fixed at its lower end. What is the
 11

stress induced in the bar when a weight of 2 91. A 1.4 m long laminated carriage spring has
kN falls from a height of 100 mm on the leaves of 100 mm width and 10 mm thickness.
collar? (Take E = 120 GPa) The spring has to absorb 125 N-m of energy
(a) 126.5 Mpa (b) 158.3 MPa when straightened, without exceeding the
bending stress of 160 MPa. What is the
(c) 161.2 MPa( d) 181.3 MPa
number of leaves ? (Take the elastic modulus
87. Normal stresses of 126 MN/m2 (Tensile) and of material of spring as 200 GPa)
94 MN/m2 (Compressive) are acting at a point
(a) 11 (b) 9
in an elastic material at right angles to each
other. If the maximum principal stress is (c) 7 (d) 5
limited to 146 MN/m2 , the shear stress that 92. A wooden floor is required to carry a load of
may be allowed at that point in the same plane 12 kN/m2 and is to be supported by wooden
is. joists of 120 mm × 250 mm in section over a
(a) 170 MN/m2 (b) 89 MN/m2 span of 4 m. If the bending stress in these
wooden joists is not to exceed 8 MPa, what is
(c) 69 MN/m2 (d) 96 MN/m2
the spacing of the joists ?
88. A plane element in a body is subjected to a
(a) 356 mm (b) 318 mm
tensile stress of 100 MPa and shear stress of 25
MPa. What is the normal stress on a plane (c) 432 mm (d) 417 mm
inclined at 15° with the tensile stress? 93. A motor driving a solid circular shaft transmits
(a) 5.8 MPa (b) –4.8 MPa 30 kW at 500 r.p.m. What is the torque activity
on the shaft, if allowable shear stress is 42
(c) –3.8 Mpa (c) –2.8 MPa
MPa ?
89. A load of 2100 N is dropped axially on a
(a) 427 Nm (b) 573 Nm
closed-coiled helical spring from a height of
240 mm. The spring has 22 coils each of mean (c) 180 Nm (d) 219 Nm
diameter 180 mm and wire diameter is 25 mm. 94. An open-coiled helical spring of wire diameter
If modulus of rigidity C = 84000 N/mm2 and 12 mm, mean coil radius 84 mm, helix angle
amount of compression 5 = 255 mm, what is 60° carries an axial load of 480 N. What is the
the maximum shear stress produced in the twisting moment ?
spring? (a) 10.22 Nm (b) 20.16 Nm
2 2
(a) 156 N/mm (b) 346 N/mm (c) 14.24 Nm (d) 24.11 Nm
2 2
(c) 239 N/mm (d) 123 N/mm 95. The stresses at a point of a machine component
90. An I-section purlin of span 4 m is subjected to are 150 MPa and 50 MPa, both tensile. What is
a total uniformly distributed load of 5 kN. The the intensity of normal stress on a plane
purlin will be designed for maximum bending inclined at an angle of 30° with the axis of
moment of major tensile stress ?
(a) 2000 Nm (b) 20 kNm (a) 25 Mpa (b) 50 Mpa
(c) 2500 Nm (d) 25 kNm (c) 75 Mpa (d) 100 MPa
 12

96. In case of lintel design, the load enclosed in an 99. Consider the following statements regarding
equilateral triangle is fully transferred to the shearing force and bending moment:
lintel provided the height of wall above lintel 1. Point of contraflexure is the point where
is. bending moment changes its sign.
(a) not less than 1-25 times the height of the 2. Shear force is the rate of change of
equilateral triangle. bending moment.
(b) less than twice the height of the 3. For bending moment to be the maximum
equilateral triangle. or minimum, shear force should change
(c) less than 1-25 times the height of the its sign.
equilateral triangle. 4. Rate of change of loading is equal to shear
(d) greater than twice the height of the force.
equilateral triangle. Which of the above statements are correct?
97. Consider the following statements for Euler's (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
equation to find critical load of a column :
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. Critical load of a column is proportional
100. Consider the following statements :
to the flexural rigidity.
Moment Area Method proves advantageous in
2. Critical load of a column depends upon
analyzing
yield stress.
1. cantilever beams.
3. Critical load of a column is inversely
2. symmetrically loaded simply supported
proportional to the length of column.
beams.
4. Critical load of a column is inversely
3. fixed beams.
proportional to the square of the length of
4. continuous beams.
column.
Which of the above statements are correct ? Which of the above statements are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 4 only (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only

98. A steel plate 120 mm wide and 20 mm thick is 101. Consider the following statements regarding
bent into a circular arc of radius 10 m. What is continuous beam :
the maximum stress produced and the bending 1. A beam is said to be a continuous beam if
moment which can produce this stress it is supported on more than two supports.
respectively ? (Take E = 200 GPa) 2. A continuous beam is a statically
(a) 100 MPa, 32 kN-m indeterminate structure.
(b) 200 MPa, 160 N-mm 3. The degree of indeterminacy depends
(c) 200 MPa, 1600 N-m upon the number of supports and also on
the nature of the supports.
(d) 20 MPa, 160 kN-m
Which of the above statements are correct ?
 13

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
102. In case of flexural tension or flexural 106. A cantilever beam of 4 m span carries a UDL
compression, the minimum length of the bar of 3 kN/m over its entire span and a point load
which must be embedded in concrete beyond of 3 kN at the free end. If the same beam is
any section to develop its full strength, is simply supported at two ends, what point load
termed as. at the centre should it carry to have same
(a) Twisted length deflection as the cantilever ?

(b) Flexural length (a) 60 kN (b) 120 kN

(c) Bond length (c) 160 kN (d) 210 kN

(d) Development length 107. A beam AB of span 5 m fixed at both ends

carries a UDL of 12 kN/m over the whole
103. It is observed experimentally that the
span. If the right end B settles down by 12 mm,
amplitude of free vibration of a certain
what are the end moments for the beam? (Take
structure modelled as a single degree of
EI = 15000 kNm2 )
freedom system, decreases from 10 to 0-4 in
10 cycles. What is the percentage of critical (a) Ma = 68.2 kNm (hogging) and
damping ? Mb = 18.2 kNm (sagging)
(Take In 2 = 0.693 and In 10 = 2.303) (b) Ma = 18.2 kNm (hogging) and
(a) 5.21% (b) 1.46% Mb = 68.2 kNm (sagging)
(c) 2.37% (d) 3.22% (c) Ma = 68.2 kNm (hogging) and
104. The ultimate tensile strain in steel is in the Mb = 68.2 kNm (sagging)
range of (d) Ma = 18.2 kNm (hogging) and
(a) 0.012 – 0.020 (b) 0.0012 – 0.0020 Mb = 18.2 kNm (sagging)
(c) 0.12 – 0.20 (d) 0.00012 – 0.00020 108. A cable is suspended between two points, 75 m
105. Consider the following statements regarding apart horizontally with its left end lower than
statically determinate structures : the right end by 10 m. The cable supports a
1. Conditions of equilibrium are sufficient to UDL of 5 kN/m along the horizontal span.
fully analyse the structure. What is the horizontal tension in the cable if
central sag is 7.5 m ?
2. The bending moment at a section or the
force in any member is independent of the (a) 385.13 kN (b) 468.75 kN
material of the components of the (c) 145.15 kN (d) 528.62 kN
structure. 109. Consider the following statements related to
3. The bending moment at a section or the merits of construction in structural steel:
force in any member is independent of the 1. Structural steel has high strength per unit
cross-sectional areas of the components. weight as compared to RCC.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
 14

2. The steel members are slender or small in structural shapes and plates :
size as compared to RCC. 1. The common single structural shapes are
3. The steel structures are useful in angle sections, tee sections and channel
construction of tall buildings, long-span sections.
bridges and airplane hangars. 2. Single angles are not used for bracing, for
Which of the above statements are correct ? light truss tension members.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 3. Occasionally, I sections are also used as
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only tension members as they have more
rigidity.
110. For a laced column, the minimum width of the
lacing bars when using 20 mm nominal Which of the above statements are correct ?
diameter rivets is (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 65 mm (b) 60 mm (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 55 mm (d) 50 mm 114. Consider the following statements regarding
111. A beam simply supported over an effective the advantages of a good organization :
span of 9 m, carries a uniformly distributed 1. It increases cooperation and a feeling of
load of 60 kN/m, inclusive of its own weight. freedom.
What is the section modulus of the beam, if fy 2. It prevents duplication of work.
= 250 N/mm2 and E = 2 × 105 N/mm2 ?
3. It makes communication easier.
(Assume width of support is 200 mm)
4. It increases the likelihood of run-arounds.
(a) 2612 × 103 mm3 (b) 3682 × 103 mm3
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(c) 4682 × 103 mm3 (d) 5124 × 103 mm3
(a) 1,2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
112. Consider the following statements related to
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
batten plates :
115. For design of a roof truss, if the design wind
1. These normally consist of flat plates, velocity is 20 m/s, what is the design wind
connecting the components of the built-up pressure ?
columns in two parallel planes.
(a) 400 N/m2 (b) 240 N/m2
2. These are used for triaxial loading.
(c) 40 N/m2 (d) 200 N/m2
3. The design of battened columns and the
116. Consider the following statements :
design of battens are usually governed by
IS code requirements. 1. The working stress design is based on
explicit consideration of the various
Which of the above statements are correct ?
conditions under which the structure may
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only cease to fulfil its intended function.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only 2. In case of working stress design, structure
113. Consider the following statements related to will directly take into consideration the
design of tension member with single various relevant modes of failure.
 15

3. In working stress method, regulatory 119. Consider the following for local capacity of
bodies or classification societies usually section :
specify the value of the allowable stress as 1. Local section failure is usually
some fraction of the mechanical properties encountered in the case of short stocky
of materials. beam-columns with relatively smaller
axial compression ratio and beam-
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
columns bent in reverse curvature.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
2. The strength of end section reached under
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only combined axial force and bending,
117. Consider the following statements regarding governs the failure.
the working stress design method : 3. The strength of the section may be
1. Working stress design is based on the governed by plastic buckling of plate
elements in the case of plastic, compact
elastic theory.
and semi-compact sections.
2. The working stress in the member should
Which of the above statements are correct ?
be less than the permissible stress.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
3. The permissible stress is the ratio of the
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
factor of safety to the yield stress.
120. A tension member of a roof truss carries a
4. The permissible stresses for fasteners are
factored load of 430 kN. By considering the
usually based on the ultimate strength of
strength in yield, what is the gross area
the connection.
required to carry this load ? (Consider Fe 250
Which of the above statements is/are not grade steel)
correct ? (a) 1892 mm2 (b) 1978 mm2
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only (c) 1903 mm2 (d) 2150 mm2
(c) 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only 121. Stirrup area in excess of that required for shear
118. A steel cantilever beam is proposed to build and torsion is provided along each terminated
into a concrete wall at one end and other end is bar over a distance from the cut-off point equal
to
free. It supports a dead load of 20 kN/m and a
live load of 10 kN/m. The length of the beam (a) three-fourth the effective depth of the
is 5 m. What are the shear force and bending member.

moment respectively ? (Take yield strength of (b) one-third the effective depth of the
steel as 250 N/mm2 .) member.

(a) 225 kN and 562.5 kNm (c) two-third the effective depth of the
member.
(b) 22.5 kN and 56.25 kNm
(d) one-fourth the effective depth of the
(c) 225 kN and 56.25 kNm member.
(d) 22.5 kN and 562.5 kNm
 16

122. Which one of the following is not a type of 4. develop sufficient bond strength along
mortar ? surface area of reinforcement bars.
(a) Lime surkhi mortar Which of the above statements are correct ?
(b) Cement sand mortar (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Cement stone chips mortar (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Cement lime mortar 127. In slab design, ratio of maximum diameter of
123. The grade of concrete and reinforcement are reinforcing bars to the total thickness of slab
M-20 and Fe-250 respectively. Consider 25 should not be more than
mm diameter bars and bd is 1.2. What is the (a) 1/12 (b) 1/6
development length at support for a simply (c) 1/8 (d) 1/7
supported beam of a rectangular section ? 128. To prevent cracking of edges, the corners in
(a) 1133 mm (b) 1033 mm two way slabs are provided with

(c) 1321 mm (d) 1232 mm (a) shear reinforcement

(b) torsion reinforcement
124. In a singly reinforced beam, for given grade of
concrete, permissible bond stress in deformed (c) tensile reinforcement
bars (d) compression reinforcement
(a) is lesser than that of plain bars. 129. Critical section for two way shear in case of
isolated footing design is at
(b) is equal to that of plain bars.
(a) the face of column.
(c) may be greater than or smaller than that of
(b) effective depth from the face of column.
plain bars.
(c) half of the effective depth from the face of
(d) is greater than that of plain bars.
column.
125. The safe load carried by the helically
(d) two-third of the effective depth from the
reinforced column is face of column.
(a) 1.05 times the load carried by the similar 130. Accepted relationship between tread and riser
column with ties. in case of staircase design is
(b) 2.15 times the load carried by the similar (a) Riser × Tread = 60,000 mm2
column with ties. (b) 2 × Riser + Tread = 600 mm
(c) 1.15 times the load carried by the similar (c) Riser + Tread = 600 mm
column with ties.
(d) 2 × Tread + Riser = 600 mm
(d) 2.05 times the load carried by the similar 131. Loss of pre-stress is not directly related to
column with ties.
(a) creep of concrete.
126. Nominal cover to reinforcement is provided to
(b) shrinkage of concrete.
1. protect reinforcement against corrosion.
(c) grade of concrete.
2. provide shear resistance.
(d) slipping of steel tendons from concrete.
3. protect reinforcement against fire.
 17

132. Which one of the following statements is the (c) Length of arrow should be in proportion
disadvantage of post-tensioning method ? to the time consumed by that activity.
(a) The loss of pre-stress is less as (d) The number of arrows should be equal to
compared to pre-tensioning system. the number of activities in the project.
(b) Post-tensioning method is costly as 137. A-O-N system of network
compared to pre-tensioning method. (a) completely eliminates the use of dummy
(c) Post-tensioning can be done in factories activities.
and at the site also. (b) requires judicious use of dummy
(d) Post-tensioning method is used for large activities.
spans and heavily loaded structures. (c) does not distinctly show pre-operation and
133. What is the main limitation of bar chart ? post-operation of the activities.
(a) It does not help in material and labour (d) is not suitable for projects with large
planning. number of activities.
(b) It does not show all the activities of a 138. Which one of the following types of cost-plus
project. contracts allows the amount of the re-
(c) It does not indicate critical activities of a imbursement to increase if the contractor's cost
project. increases ?
(d) Project duration cannot be estimated. (a) Cost-plus award fee contract
134. Graders are not suitable for
(b) Cost-plus incentive fee contract
(a) levelling of earthwork.
(c) Cost-plus fixed fee contract
(b) cutting ditches.
(d) Cost-plus percentage fee contract
(c) working on steeper slopes.
(d) heavy excavation. 139. Number of bricks required for 15 cu.m of

135. Line of Balance technique is brickwork is approximately

(a) modified bar chart. (a) 6750 (b) 7200

(b) planning of repetitive activities of a (c) 7500 (d) 6000

project.
140. The plinth area of a building does not include
(c) modified form of PERT.
area of
(d) used for planning milestones of a project.
136. Which one of the following statements is not (a) the walls at the floor levels.
correct in respect of drawing network ? (b) internal shaft for sanitary installations
(a) No activity can start until its tail event has upto 2 sq.m area.
occurred.
(c) lifts.
(b) An event cannot occur twice.
(d) cantilevered porches.
 18

141. Which one of the following statements is not (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
correct ? 144. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) The circulation area of any floor includes inspection and quality control :
entrance halls. 1. Coefficient of variation is a relative
(b) Floor area of a building includes area of measure of dispersion.
sills of doors and other openings. 2. Standard deviation is the root mean square
(c) Cube rate estimate of a building is more of the deviation of all the results.
accurate as compared to plinth area 3. Standard deviation is relative measure of
estimate. dispersion.
(d) The preliminary estimate for water supply 4. Lower value of standard deviation
and sewerage project can be prepared on indicates low degree of uniformity of
the basis of per head of population served. observations.
142. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the above statements are correct ?
the advantages in Line or Military
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Organization of management technique :
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 4 only
1. The command and control is very
Directions : Each of the next six (06) items
effective.
consists of two statements, one labelled as the
2. It is simple to work and easily understood 'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement (II)'.
by the employees. You are to examine these two statements
3. Responsibilities in all levels are definite carefully and select the answers to these items
and fixed. using the codes given below :
4. The organization is rigid. Codes:
Which of the above statements are correct ? (a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only individually true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of Statement (I)
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
143. Project management audit consists of which of
individually true, but Statement (II) is not
the following ? the correct explanation of Statement (I)
1. Project work-breakdown structure
(c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is
verification and the relevance. false
2. Risk identification, cost, levels and
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is
security.
true
3. Measurements of risk impacts.
145. Statement (I) :
Select the correct answer using the code given
The theoretical strength of concrete as per Gel-
below :
Space ratio theory is less than the actual
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only strength of concrete.
 19

Statement (II) : Lateral deflection of slender columns, under

In the Gel-Space ratio theory, it has been axial load, is substantial and causes
assumed that the concrete is perfectly additional moments.
homogeneous and flawless. 149. Statement (I):
146. Statement (I) : To achieve maximum value for minimum
Spur length is kept longer than 1*5 to 2 times radius of gyration of compression members,
the depth of flow. without increasing the area of the section, a
number of elements are placed away from the
Statement (II) :
principal axis using suitable lateral systems.
Shorter spur length in deeper rivers induces
Statement (II) :
swirling motion on both the upstream and
downstream sides of the spur. Batten shall be placed at 40° to 70° to the axis
of built-up members.
147. Statement (I) :
150. Statement (I) :
Both the Empirical formulae given by
American Insurance Association and Buston Chain surveying is that type of surveying in
for the determination of fire demand of water which only linear measurements are made in
are not suitable for Indian conditions. the field.

Statement (II) : Statement (II) :

Kuichling's formula estimates lesser value of Traversing is that type of survey in which a
fire water demand. number of connected survey lines from the
framework and the directions and lengths of
148. Statement (I) :
the survey lines are measured with the help of
For the design of slender column, additional an angle measuring instrument and a tape
moments are required to be considered. respectively.
Statement (II) :

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