Material Metallurgy - MCQ

SEM - III Material Metallurgy
Material Metallurgy (MCQ)
MODULE NO 1
1. In terms of which of the following properties, metals are better than ceramics?
a) Hardness
b) Ductility
c) Toughness
d) Yield Strength
2. Steels mainly contain iron and carbon. Under which of the following categories do they
belong?
a) Metallic Solid
b) Polymer
c) Composites
d) Ceramics
3. GFRP is an important composite. It stands for

a) Gelatin Fibre Reinforced Polymer
b) Graphite Fibre Reinforced Polymer
c) Germanium Fibre Reinforced Polymer
d) Glass Fibre Reinforced Polymer
4. Ceramics make excellent refractory materials. A material is said to be refractory if it:

a) resists the flow of electric current
b) has high refractive index
c) retains its strength at high temperatures
d) all of the mentioned
5. Which of the following cannot be used as bio-materials?

a) Metals
b) Ceramics
c) Polymers
d) None of the mentioned
6. Which of the following is true for polymers?

a) They have very high molecular mass
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b) They do not have a linear stress-strain curve
c) They have high strength to mass ratio
d) All of the mentioned
7. The tendency of a deformed solid to regain its actual proportions instantly upon
unloading known as ______________
a) Perfectly elastic
b) Delayed elasticity
c) Inelastic effect
d) Plasticity
8. The permanent mode of deformation of a material known as _____________

a) Elasticity
b) Plasticity
c) Slip deformation
d) Twinning deformation
9. The ability of materials to develop a characteristic behavior under repeated loading

known as ___________
a) Toughness
b) Resilience
c) Hardness
d) Fatigue
10. Which of the following factors affect the mechanical properties of a material under
applied loads?
a) Content of alloys
b) Grain size
c) Imperfection and defects
d) Shape of material
11. The ability of a material to be formed by hammering or rolling is known as _________

a) Malleability
b) Ductility
c) Harness
d) Brittleness
12. Deformation that occurs due to stress over a period of time is known as ____________
a) Wear resistance
b) Fatigue

c) Creep
d) Fracture
13. The melting point of Iron (Fe) is _________

a) 660oC
b) 1084oC
c) 419oC
d) 1538oC
14. The temperature at which plastics begin to become softer and defer under a load is
known as _________
a) Softening point
b) Melting point
c) Eutectic point
d) Heat distortion point
15. The ability of a metal which helps it to form a smooth cast is known as ______
a) Machinability
b) Formability
c) Solderability
d) Castability
16. Which property helps a material to absorb lubricants?

a) Density
b) Porosity
c) Soldering
d) Absorptivity
17. Which of the following is a property of ceramics?

a) Low strength
b) Low melting point
c) Resistant to corrosion
d) Bad insulation
18. Porcelain is a type of ______ ceramic.

a) whiteware
b) stone
c) abrasive
d) cement

19. Diamond and corundum are examples of _____ ceramics.
a) glass
b) stone
c) refractories
d) abrasives
20. Which class of engineering ceramics generally includes lubricant materials?

a) Sulphides
b) Carbides
c) Metalloids
d) Intermetallics
21. Composites can be classified based on ___________

a) matrix type
b) reinforcement constituent
c) matrix type & Reinforcement constituent
d) neither on matrix type nor on reinforcement constituent type
22. Which of the following is not a laminar composite?

a) Bimetallic
b) Cladding
c) Paints
d) Wood
23. Which of the following have a greater impact on longitudinal strength of reinforced
composites?
a) Fiber orientation
b) Fiber strength
c) Fiber length
d) Fiber diameter
24. Frenkel defect belongs to which of the following classes?

a) Point defect
b) Linear dislocation
c) Interfacial defect
d) Bulk defect
25. he ratio of the number of vacancies to a total number of lattice points for a metal near
melting temperature is of the order of 10-4. For lower temperatures, the ratio:
a) increases

b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) may increase or decrease depending on the metal
26. Foreign species is present in which of the following defects?

a) Interstitial
b) Vacancy
c) Substitution
27. Burger vectors are relevant to which of the following crystalline defects?
a) Point defects
b) Line defects
c) Interfacial defects
d) Bulk defects
28. Ferromagnetic material shows strong para-magnetic behaviour due to the formation of
domains. These domains belong to:
a) Point defects
b) Linear defects
c) Interfacial defects
d) Bulk defects
29. Which of the following point defects is non-stoichiometric in nature?

a) Schottky defect
b) Metal excess defect
c) Interstitial defect
d) Impurity defect
30. Which type of defect are point defects?

a) One dimensional defect
b) Zero dimensional defect
c) Two dimensional defect
d) Three dimensional defect
31. Which is not a name given to vacancy in some ionic solid?

a) H-center
b) F-center

c) Color center
d) Luminescence center
32. Schottky and Frenkel defects are ___________

a) Interstitial and vacancy defects respectively
b) Vacancy and interstitial defect respectively
c) Both interstitial defects
d) Both vacancy defects
33. Which of the following compound shows both Schottky and frenkel defect?
a) Silver(I) iodide
b) Silver(I) bromide
c) Magnesium sulphide
d) Titanium oxide
34. The presence of interstitial carbon atom increases the hardness of which of the
following:
a) Martensite
b) Austenite
c) Cementite
d) Pearlite
35. How are point defects classified based on the source of the atom?
a) Statistical and structural
b) Random and ordered
c) Intrinsic and extrinsic
d) Interior and exterior
36. Which of the following technique is not used to measure the concentration of vacancy to
determine the activation energy for its formation?
a) Positron annihilation technique
b) Thermal expansion measurements
c) Measuring resistivity after quenching
d) Thermal imaging
37. Which of the following phenomenon creates point defect in ceramics?

a) Thermal excitation
b) Precipitation
c) Densification
d) Electrical conductivity

38. In case of point defect in polymers probability of which part of the polymer is likely to
be defected more compared to other?
a) Center of polymer chain
b) Chain ends
c) Main chain units
d) Starting part of chain
39. In which type of dislocation an extra plane is inserted inside the crystal?
a) Edge dislocation
b) Screw dislocation
c) Jog dislocation
d) Mixed dislocation
40. What is the difference between the angle of Burgers vector and dislocation line in
edge dislocation and screw dislocation?
a) -90 degrees
b) 0 degrees
c) 45 degrees
d) 90 degrees
41. n which type of dislocation planes are displaced relative to each other through shear?
a) Edge dislocation
b) Screw dislocation
c) Jog dislocation
42. Which of the following is fields are present for screw dislocation?
a) Tensile
b) Compressive
c) Shear stress
d) Strain
43. Which of the following dislocation can glide but not climb?
a) Screw dislocation
b) Edge dislocation
c) Jog dislocation
44. What can be the unit of dislocation density?

a) mm-2

b) mm-3
c) mm2
d) mm
45. Which of the following is not a lattice strain due to dislocation?

a) Tensile lattice strain
b) Compressive lattice strain
c) Shear lattice strain
d) Torsional lattice strain
46. . For which of the following dislocation the strain is pure shear?
a) Screw dislocation
b) Jog dislocation
c) Mixed dislocation
d) Edge dislocation
47. Which of the following will decrease lattice strain?

a) Line defects
b) Point defects
c) Dislocation
d) Heating the material
48. Two edge dislocation on same slip plane and the same sign will ________
a) Exert attractive force
b) Exert no force
c) Exert repulsive force
d) Exert shearing force
49. If the material recovers the original dimensions, when an external load is removed, this
deformation is known as ______ deformation.
a) plastic
b) permanent
c) elastic
d) irreversible
50. _____ is an anisotropic property of a crystal.

a) Elastic modulus
b) Density

c) Poisson’s ratio
d) Damping
51. The restoring force depends on _____

a) Interatomic bond strength
b) Melting point
c) Crystallization
d) Thermal conductivity
52. What is the reason for elastic deformation?

a) Dislocations intersection
b) Twinning
c) Slip
d) Displacement of atoms to a fraction interatomic distance
53. Elastic modulus can’t be changed by ______

a) alloying
b) cold working
c) heat treatment
d) by increasing section thickness
54. . What is atomic density on prismatic plane?

a) 1/a2
b) 2/ac
c) 2/a2
d) 2/√3a2
55. . What is atomic density on {1 1 1} plane in fcc?

a) 4/√3a2
b) √2/a2
c) 2/a2
d) 1/a2
56. What is interplaner spacing for {1 1 1} planes in BCC?

a) a/2√3
b) a/√2
c) a/2
d) a√3/2
57. What is interplaner spacing for {1 1 0} planes in fcc?

a) a/√3

b) a/2√2
c) a/2
d) a/√2
58. {1 1 1} are called _____ planes.

a) Basal
b) Prismatic
c) Octahedral
d) Cube
59. Value of CRSS for HCP crystal _____ with increasing temperature.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) First decreases then remain unaffected
60. Value of CRSS ____ with increasing impurity contents in a metal crystal.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) May increase or decrease
61. The slope of stress-strain curve in plastic range is _____

a) Rate of strain hardening
b) Bauschinger effect
c) True strain
d) Resolved shear stress
62. How many slip system are there in FCC lattice?

a) 12
b) 6
c) 10
d) 18
63. Slip planes do not occur where ______

a) Atom density is high
b) Atom density is low
c) Atoms are closely placed
d) direction of slip plane is the same as the translation vector which is the shortest
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64. Which law is related to slip plane and slip direction?
a) Bragg’s law
b) Fick’s law
c) Schmid’s law
d) Such a law doesn’t exist
65. How many slip systems are there in BCC lattice?

a) 36
b) 48
c) 24
d) 18
66. How many slip systems are there in hexagonal closed packed crystal?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 18
67. Which of the following process does not produce the vacancy in the lattice?
a) Movement jog by dislocation intersection
b) Quenching near melting point temperature
c) Irradiation of metal with high energy particles
d) Grain growth
68. In which crystal the strain hardening will be least?
a) BCC
b) FCC
c) BCT
d) HCP
69. Which of the following is the region of highest dislocation density?

a) Grain interior
b) Grain boundary
c) Cell interior
d) Cell wall
70. Rate of strain hardening is equal to ___________

a) the slope of the flow curve
b) the intercept of flow curve on the x-axis at the yield point

c) the intercept of flow curve in y-axis at the yield point
d) slope at maximum tensile stress
71. The driving force for recrystallization is _________

a) the stored energy of cold working
b) the decrease in the grain area energy
c) the decrease in the point defect energy
d) the thermal energy of heating
72. The driving force for grain growth is _________

a) the stored energy of cold working
b) the decrease in the grain area energy
c) the decrease in the point defect energy
d) the thermal energy of heating
73. The Smaller the degree of deformation, the ____________ the required temperature
to cause recrystallization.
a) higher
b) lower
c) unaffected
d) cannot comment
74. If an annealing process is carried completing in 50 min at temperature T and the

annealing time is reduced to 25 min, the temperature should be increased by
________
a) 2T
b) 3T
c) T+10° Degree
d) T+100° Degrees
75. Abnormal grain growth is defined as ________________

a) growth of grain much larger than other nearby grain
b) growth of all grain to a much larger extent
c) growth in an irregular shape
d) growth in a regular shape

MODULE NO 2
1. Which of the following is not a factor affecting fracture?

a) Stress concentration
b) Temperature
c) Pressure
d) Speed of loading
2. Is the speed of loading is increased then:

a) Chances of fracture increases
b) Chances of fracture decreases
c) Chances of fracture remain the same
d) Elasticity of the body increases
3. What is the relation between fracture toughness and thickness?

a) Fracture toughness decreases with increase in thickness
b) Fracture toughness increases with increase in thickness
c) Fracture toughness does not depend on the thickness
d) Fracture toughness increase linearly with an increase in thickness
4. Which of the following elements reduce fracture toughness in steel?

a) Phosphorous
b) Manganese
c) Iron
d) Aluminium
5. The Ionic crystal generally fracture in __________

a) ductile manner
b) brittle manner
c) creep manner
d) fatigue manner
6. The tendency of brittle fracture increase on ___________

a) decreasing temperature and strain rate
b) increasing temperature and strain rate
c) decreasing temperature and increasing strain rate
d) increasing temperature and decreasing strain rate

7. . The brittle fracture is not observed in ___________
a) BCC
b) FCC
c) HCP
d) DC
8. The following diagram shows the structure of material after fracture into two parts.
Which of the following represent completely ductile material?
a)
b)
c)
d)
9. The appearance of surface of brittle fracture will be ___________

a) grey and fibrous
b) bright and granular
c) dull and granular
d) riverlike pattern
10. The appearance of surface of ductile fracture will be ___________

a) grey and fibrous
b) bright and granular
c) dull and granular
d) riverlike pattern
11. The brittle fracture of single crystal is related with __________________ on the
cleavage plane.
a) critical resolved shear stress
b) critical resolved normal stress
c) uniaxial tensile stress
d) uniaxial shear stress

12. For the given component, the critical resolved normal stress will be equal to
_________ given that the load applied is equal to P and the normal and shear angle
with loading directions are θ and λ.
a) P/A
b) P*cosθ
c) (P/A)*cosλ*cosθ
d) (P/A)*cosθ2
13. The main cause of presence of dimple in ductile fracture surface is

___________
a) slip bands
b) impurity atoms
c) micro voids
d) corrosion
14. In which way, the notch decreases the tendency of brittle failure?
a) By producing high local stresses
b) By introducing triaxial tensile state of stress
c) By providing low local strain hardening and cracking
d) By creating a local magnification to the strain rate
15. The fracture of material occurs when the flow curve _______________
a) is under the fracture curve
b) intersects the fracture curve
c) is parallel to fracture curve
d) is perpendicular to fracture curve
16. The Hydrostatic stress __________________ the dislocation pileup in the

material.
a) increases
b) decreases

c) does not increase
d) sometimes increases and then decreases
17. Failure of metals under fluctuating stress is known as __________ failure.

a) Creep
b) Fatigue
c) Dynamic
d) Tensile
18. Fatigue failures occur on stresses _________

a) Above tensile strength
b) Above fracture strength
c) Below elastic limit
d) Below tensile strength
19. What is a type of fatigue failure?

a) Rupture
b) Brittle fracture
c) Ductile fracture
d) De-cohesive
20. What initiates the crack in fatigue?

a) Cyclic stress
b) Tensile stress
c) Plastic strain
d) Compressive stress
21. In what terms, fatigue life is measured?

a) Time of failures
b) Number of cycles of failure
c) Stress of failure
d) Appearance of fracture
22. Fatigue curves are popularly known as __________ curves.

a) S
b) R
c) N
d) S-N
23. Word “endurance limit” is used for _____________

a) Plastics

b) Ferrous materials
c) Nonferrous materials
d) Alloys
24. Which ferrous material doesn’t show fatigue limit?

a) Cast iron
b) Wrought iron
c) Austenitic stainless steel
d) Low carbon steel
25. What is the reason for fatigue failure?

a) Movement of Dislocations
b) Submicroscopic cracks
c) Dynamic recovery
d) Vacancy coalescence
26. What cycles range is chosen for endurance limit?

a) 10 – 103
2
b) 105 – 106
c) 107 – 108
d) 1011 – 1012
27. Which of the following is not a reason for crack initiation?

a) Inclusions
b) Gas pores
c) Local soft spots
d) Vacancy
28. Crack mostly starts at _________

a) Surface
b) Inclusion
c) Pore
d) Soft spots
29. Orowan’s theory is related to _________

a) Grain boundaries
b) Weak crystal
c) Slip band
d) Gas pores

30. Wood’s theory is described by _________
a) Microscopic voids
b) Microscopic slip bands
c) Weak crystal
d) Grain boundaries
31. Slip band are notch root of _________ dimensions.

a) Micro
b) Macro
c) Nano
d) Atomic
32. Which theory defines fatigue failure using microscopic slip bands?
a) Orowan’s theory
b) Wood’s theory
c) Cottrell’s theory
d) Dislocation theory
33. . What term is used for initial crack formation during fatigue?
a) Cracking
b) Stage I fatigue
c) Stage II fatigue
d) Micro cracking
34. Material with a high surface to volume ratio have _________ fatigue life.
a) Very low fatigue life
b) Very high fatigue life
c) Lower fatigue life
d) Improved fatigue life
35. Which of the following material fails by both hysteric heating and crack
propagation?
a) Nylon
b) Polyethylene
c) Propylene
d) PMMA
36. Fatigue strength of iron and steel _________ with an increase in temperature.
a) Increases
b) Decreases

c) Remains constant
d) First increases and then decreases
37. What temperature gives maximum fatigue strength of steels?

a) Below 100˚C
b) 100-200˚C
c) 200-400˚C
d) 500-600˚C
38. Find the mean stress in the given stress cycle?
a) 30 MPa
b) 50 MPa
c) 60 MPa
d) 10 MPa
Solution : The mean stress is given as (σmax+σmin)/2

σmax=50 MPa σmin=10 MPa
(50+10)/2=30 MPa]
39. Find the range of stress in the given stress cycle?
a) 30 MPa
b) 50 MPa
c) 40 MPa
d) 10 MPa
Solution : The range of stress is equal to: (σmax-σmin)

=50-10 = 40 MPa.]
40. Stress rupture curves show the variation in stress as a function of ___________
a) Temperature
b) Time
c) Cycles
d) Notch depth
41. The first stage of creep is also known as ___________ creep.

a) Transient
b) Viscous
c) Flow
d) Tertiary
42. second stage of creep is also known as ___________ creep.

a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Transient
d) Viscous
43. The most common creep rate corresponds to which the creep strength is specified
is _________
a) 1% in 100 hrs
b) 1% in 1000 hrs
c) 1% in 10,000 hrs
d) 1% in 100,000 hrs
44. Transient creep is also known as _________ flow.

a) k
b) β
c) ε
d) t
45. Viscous creep is represented by _________ constant in Andrade empirical

equation.
a) β
b) k
c) ε
d) t
46. ___________ dominates at all temperatures but above the normalized stress of
10-2.
a) Coble creep
b) Nabarro-Herring creep

c) Dislocation creep
d) Dislocation glide
47. ____________ favors the creep resistance of the metal.

a) Lower SFE
b) High temperature
c) High stress
d) Pre-strain
48. . Which steel is preferred in creep conditions?

a) Normalized
b) Overaged
c) Annealed
d) Quenched
49. In ferrite the self-diffusion coefficient _________ with increasing carbon content.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) First increases, then decrease
50. Which method improves creep resistance but not strength?

a) Solution strengthening
b) Alloying
c) Grain coarsening
d) Precipitation hardening
51. What is the most important method of improving creep strength?

a) Solid solution strengthening
b) Precipitation hardening
c) Dispersion hardening
d) Quenching
52. _________ are difficult to weld.

a) Austenitic steels
b) Ferritic steels
c) Aluminum
d) Cast iron

53. Which of the following is not a superalloy category?
a) Iron-base
b) Nickel-base
c) Copper-base
d) Cobalt-base
54. What is the advantage of ferritic steels?

a) Weldable
b) Oxidation resistant
c) Sub-zero temperature
d) Ductility

MODULE NO 3
1. Which of the following is/are the components of a brass alloy?

a) Brass, Copper, Zinc
b) Copper only
c) Zinc only
d) Both Copper and Zinc
2. At certain temperature the maximum concentration of solute atoms that dissolve in

solvent to form solid solution, this condition is called __________
a) Solubility
b) Formation of phase
c) Solubility limit
d) Formation of super saturated solution
3. . What is a phase?
a) The substance which is physically distinct
b) The substance which is homogenous chemically
c) The substance which is both physically distinct and chemically homogenous
d) The substance which is both physically distinct and chemically heterogeneous
4. What is the line that defines the solubility limit of A in B and B in A from the figure?
a) Solidus line
b) Liquidus line
c) Solvus line
d) Solidus line and Liquidus line

5. What is the point at which three phases (L+α+β) coexist at point E?
a) Peritectic point
b) Eutectic point
c) Eutectoid point
d) Peritectoid reaction
6. The micro structure of hypoeutectic alloys at room temperature consists of ________
a) Proeutectic β and α
b) Eutectic mixture (α+β)
c) Proeutectic β and eutectic mixture (α+β)
d) Proeutectic α and eutectic mixture (α+β)
7. Why Pb-Sn eutectic alloys are used for soldering purpose?
a) The melting point at eutectic point is maximum
b) The melting point at the eutectic point is minimum
c) The melting point at the eutectic point is constant
d) The boiling point at the eutectic point is maximum

8. The inflection in the cooling curve between points a and e is due to _________
a) Latent heat
b) Low temperature
c) High temperature
d) Specific heat
9. At the eutectic point (e) the eutectic reaction proceeds at a constant temperature as
________
a) F = 1
b) F = 0
c) F = 2
d) F = 3
10. On heating, one solid phase results in another solid phase and a liquid phase
during __________ reaction.
a) Eutectoid
b) Peritectic
c) Eutectic
d) Peritectoid

11. first solid phase results in a second solid phase another third solid phase on
cooling during __________ reaction.
a) Eutectoid
b) Peritectic
c) Eutectic
d) Peritectoid
12. A first solid phase results in a second solid plus another third solid phase upon
heating during __________ reaction.
a) Eutectoid
b) Peritectic
c) Eutectic
d) Peritectoid
13. Which phase will crystallize first just below the liquidus line?
a) α phase
b) β phase
c) (L+α) phase
d) (L+β) phase

14. At what temperature, all liquid and α will convert to β?
a) Eutectic temperature
b) Peritectic temperature
c) Eutectoid temperature
d) Peritectoid temperature
15. What is the eutectoid structure of Iron?

a) Cementite
b) Ferrite
c) Pearlite
d) Austentite
16. The phase above eutectoid temperature for carbon steels is known as _______
a) Cementite
b) Ferrite
c) Pearlite
d) Austentite
17. In a binary isomorphous system which of the following is true?

a) The two metals are completely miscible in each other in liquid as well as solid
form
b) The two metals are completely immiscible in each other in liquid as well as solid form
c) The two metals are completely miscible in each other in liquid form only
d) The two metals are completely miscible in each other in solid form only
18. An alloy 30 wt% Ni- 70wt % Cu at 1315 °C (2400 °F) will lie in which state?
a) Solid state
b) Liquid state

c) Mixture of solid and liquid state
d) α state
19. In which of the following the alloy is rapidly cooled?

a) Anealing
b) Coring
c) Hot working
d) Cold working
20. What is the Peritectic reaction at 1495°C?

a) L (0.53% C) + δ(0.09% C) → γ(0.17% C)
b) L (4.3% C) → γ(2.1 % C) + Fe3C (6.67% C)
c) γ (0.8 % C) → α (0.025% C) + Fe3C (6.67% C)
d) L (0.53% C) + δ(0.09% C) → γ (0.8 % C)
21. What is the Eutectic reaction at 1146°C?

a) L (0.53% C) + δ(0.09% C) → γ(0.17% C)
b) L (4.3% C) → γ(2.1 % C) + Fe3C (6.67% C)
c) γ (0.8 % C) → α (0.025% C) + Fe3C (6.67% C)
d) L (0.53% C) + δ(0.09% C) → γ (0.8 % C)
22. What is Eutectoid reaction at 727°C?

a) L (0.53% C) + δ(0.09% C) → γ(0.17% C)
b) L (4.3% C) → γ(2.1 % C) + Fe3C (6.67% C)
c) γ (0.8 % C) → α (0.025% C) + Fe3C (6.67% C)
d) L (0.53% C) + δ(0.09% C) → γ (0.8 % C)
23. . The eutectic mixture of austenite (γ) and cementite (Fe3C) is called __________
a) Ledeburite
b) Pearlite
c) Hyper and hypo eutectoid steel
d) Cast iron
24. The eutectoid mixture of ferrite (α) and cementite (Fe3C) is called __________
a) Ledeburite
b) Pearlite
c) Hyper and hypo eutectoid steel
d) Cast iron

25. From the following figure if Diffusion rates below Ms is so low that γ → M
transformation is a diffusionless process then what is change in crystal structure
a) FCC → BCT
b) FCC → BCC
c) BCC → BCT
d) BCT → BCC
26. Finer size pearlite is called _______

a) Troostite
b) Ledeburite
c) Ferrite
d) Sorbite
27. Time temperature transformation diagrams are drawn for ______________

a) Iron
b) Manganese
c) Any alloy
d) Only steel
28. Which of the following is not a name for time temperature transformation
diagrams?
a) S curve
b) C curve isothermal diagram
c) D curve isothermal diagram
d) Bain’s curve

29. Which of the following phase will be resulted when the transformation
temperature of steel is more than 750 °C?
a) Austenite
b) Pearlite
c) Bainite
d) Martensite
temperature of steel is in the range of 500 °C to 750 °C?
a) Austenite
b) Pearlite
c) Bainite
d) Martensite
a) Austenite
b) Pearlite
c) Bainite
d) Martensite
a) Austenite
b) Pearlite
c) Bainite
d) Martensite
33. Which of the following is the hardest?

a) Austenite
b) Pearlite
c) Bainite
d) Martensite
34. In an isothermal curve, which of the following is true when the temperature is
increased?
a) The curve shifts rightward
b) The curve shifts leftward
c) The curve goes down
d) The curve goes up
35. What is maximum solubility % of carbon and temperature range that α-ferrite
exist?
a) 0.05% and 273°c to 910°c

b) 0.025% and 273°c to 910°c
c) 2.1% and 910°c to 1394°c
d) 0.05% and 910°c to 1124°c
36. What is maximum solubility % of carbon and temperature range that Austenite
(Ɣ) exist?

a) 0.05% and 273°c to 910°c

b) 0.025% and 273°c to 910°c
c) 2.1% and 910°c to 1394°c
d) 0.09% and 1394°c to 1539°c

MODULE NO 4
1. Which of the following factors does not influence the variety and quality of metal?
a) Rate of heating and cooling
b) Quenching medium
c) Furnace
d) Grain size
2. How does the rate of cooling affect the hardness of the metal?
a) Slow cooling, hard material
b) Slow cooking, soft material
c) Rapid cooling, soft material
d) No effective change
3. Which of the following is not a stage of annealing?

a) Heating
b) Soaking
c) Tempering
d) Quenching
4. Full annealing is applied to which kind of materials?

a) Steel castings
b) Steel wires
c) High carbon steels
d) Sheet products
5. For full annealing of hypoeutectoid steels, they are heated in a range above
__________
a) 153-250oC
b) 273-350oC
c) 551-770oC
d) 723-910oC
6. Cooling of hypoeutectoid steels in done is furnace by decreasing the temperature to at

least ________ below the A1 line.
a) 4oC
b) 10oC
c) 16oC
d) 30oC
7. What is the result of full annealing of hypoeutectoid steels?

a) Coarse pearlite
b) Bainite
c) Cementite
d) Silicon
8. How does heating for hypereutectoid steels differ from hypoeutectoid steels?
a) Heated 30-60oC above A1 line
b) Heated 30-60oC below A1 line
c) Heated 30-60oC below A2 line
d) Heated 30-60oC below A3 line
9. Heating of hypereutectoid steels results in formation of coarse pearlite with excess

__________
a) Ferrite
b) Bainite
c) Cementite
d) Austenite
10. Process annealing is applied to which kind of materials?

a) Steel castings
b) Low carbon steels
d) Medium carbon steels
11. For process annealing, the steel is heated at a temperature range of _________
a) 550-650oC
b) 723-910oC
c) 723-1138oC
d) 750-800oC
12. Which among the following is not applicable to process annealing of steels?
a) Low scaling
b) Rapid
c) Expensive
d) Single phase morphology

13. What happens when internal residual stresses are not removed?
a) Coarse structure
b) Reduction of grain size
c) Distortion
d) Recrystallization
14. Which of the following is not a result of tempering?

a) Increased ductility
b) Improved toughness
c) Increased electrical conductivity
d) Internal stresses are relieved
15. Tempering of martensite steel is done _________

a) Below eutectic temperature
b) Below eutectoid transformation temperature
c) At room temperature
d) At 1000oC
16. Internal stresses in martensite steel are relieved by heating at __________

a) 200 C
o
b) 500oC
c) 800oC
d) 1000oC
17. How is the tensile strength of the material affected due to tempering?
a) Increases with an increase in temperature
b) Decreases with an increase in temperature
c) Increases constantly
d) Does not change
18. How is the ductility of the material affected due to tempering?

a) Increases with an increase in temperature
b) Decreases with an increase in temperature
c) Increases constantly
d) Does not change
19. Low temperature tempering occurs at __________

a) 50-150oC
b) 150-250oC
c) 350-450oC
d) 500-650oC

20. Tempering that results in a reduction of toughness is known as __________

a) Caustic embrittlement
b) Temper embrittlement
c) End-temper
d) Quench-temper embrittlement
21. Which tempering process is used to increase the endurance and elastic limit of
the material?
a) Low-temperature tempering
b) Medium temperature tempering
c) High-temperature tempering
d) Endurance limit cannot be increased
22. For hardening of steel by quenching, the steel is cooled in __________

a) Furnace
b) Still air
c) Oil bath
d) Cooling tower
23. The cooling rate must be _________ the critical cooling rate for hardening of
steel by quenching.
a) Higher than
b) Lower than
c) Equal to
d) Half of
24. The hardening process is carried out on ________ steel.

a) No carbon
b) Low carbon
c) Medium carbon
d) High carbon
25. How is cooling of the material done is normalising process?

a) Furnace
b) Cooling tower
c) Still air
d) Liquid chamber
26. Normalising is best used for is what kind of materials?

a) Steel castings

b) Steel wires
d) Low and medium carbon steels
27. For normalising, the steel is heated ___________ its upper critical temperature.
a) 30-40oC above
b) 30-40oC C below
c) 50-60oC C above
d) 50-60oC C below
28. Which of the following is not applicable for normalising process?

a) Economical
b) Time-consuming
c) Fine grain structure
d) Variable properties
29. Steels containing ________ carbon are used for carburizing.

a) 0.1-0.2%
b) 0.2-0.35%
c) 0.4-0.6%
d) 0.7-0.9%
30. Which of the following is not a method of carburizing?

a) Pack carburizing
b) Gas carburizing
c) Cyaniding
d) Nitriding
31. What kind of carbon-rich material is used in the carburizing mixture?

a) Charred leather
b) Sodium carbonate
c) Barium carbonate
d) Carbon black
32. What is the carburizing temperature?

a) 150-250oC
b) 400-450oC
c) 650-700oC
d) 900-950oC

33. Liquid carburizing temperature range lies between ________
a) 120-250oC
b) 300-375oC
c) 425-660oC
d) 870-950oC
34. Nitriding involves the addition of ___________ for the hardening of surface.
a) Nitrogen
b) Nichrome
c) Neon
d) Niobium
35. Which of the following is required for the nitriding process?

a) Carbon
b) Nitralloy
c) Niobium
d) Zirconium
36. Why is nitriding not used for plain carbon steels?

a) Formation of oxides
b) Formation of cracks
c) Formation of iron nitrides
d) Formation of spots
37. What is necessary to be done before the nitriding process?

a) Heat Treatment
b) Washing the material
c) Chamfering of sample
d) Shaping of material
38. Why is atmospheric nitrogen inappropriate for use in the nitriding process?
a) Cannot be heated
b) Insufficient density
c) Inability to be absorbed
d) Expensive process
39. Which of the following is not applicable for nitriding process?

a) Surface formed is extremely hard
b) Minimized cracking and distortion
c) Expensive
d) High-temperature treatment

40. Cyaniding is usually done for _________

a) Plain carbon steels
b) Cast irons
c) Stainless steels
d) Pig iron
41. Which of the following does not apply to cyaniding?

a) Requires less time
b) Operated at lower temperatures
c) Low corrosion resistance
d) Costly process
42. Gas cyaniding is otherwise known as __________

a) Nitriding
b) Carbonitriding
c) Induction Hardening
d) Flame Hardening
43. What are the applications of nitriding?

a) Gears, camshafts
b) Valve guides and seatings
c) Chain links, nuts, bolts, and screws
d) Gears, nuts, bolts
44. Nitriding steels are tempered at about ________

a) 100-200oC
b) 300-450oC
c) 600-700oC
d) 800-950oC
45. Which of the following factors affect the hardenability of a material?

a) Composition of steel
b) Grain size
c) Temperature of specimen
d) Quenching medium

MODULE NO 5
1. What kind of steel requires definite amounts of other alloying elements?

a) Carbon steel
b) Alloying steel
c) Stainless steel
d) Tool steel
2. Which of these is not a function of alloy steels?

a) Increases strength
b) Improves ductility
c) Reduces cost
d) Improves machinability
3. Steels containing up to 3% to 4% of one or more alloying elements are known as

________
a) Low alloy steels
b) HSLA steels
c) High alloy steels
d) Stainless steels
4. Steels containing more than 5% of one or more alloying elements are known as
________
a) HSLA steels
b) High alloy steels
c) Tool and die steels
d) Stainless steels
5. Which of the following groups of alloying elements stabilize austenite?

a) Ni, Mn, Cu, and Co
b) Cr, W, Mo, V, and Si
c) Cr, W, Ti, Mo, Nb, V, and Mn
d) Co, Al, and Ni
6. Alloy steels containing 0.05% to 0.15% of alloying elements are called _______
a) Weathering steel
b) Stainless steel
c) Tool and die steel
d) Microalloyed steel
7. Which is the primary element used for making stainless steel alloy?
a) Chromium
b) Zirconium
c) Vanadium
d) Indium
8. Addition of _______ gives stainless steels an austenitic structure.

a) Molybdenum
b) Carbon
c) Nickel
d) Vanadium
9. Stainless steels with little carbon and no nickel are called ________
a) Ferritic stainless steel
b) Austenitic stainless steel
c) Martensitic stainless steel
d) Duplex stainless steel
10. Stainless steels with high strength, but low corrosion resistance are known as
_______
a) Austenitic stainless steel
b) Ferritic stainless steel
c) Martensitic stainless steel
d) Duplex stainless steel
11. The low-carbon, high-alloyed steels which possess high strength and toughness
are known as _______
a) Carbon steels
b) Alloy steels
c) Maraging steels
d) Stainless steels
12. Which of these is not a function of alloy steels?

a) Increases strength
b) Improves ductility
c) Reduces cost
d) Improves machinability

13. What does AISI steel stand for?

a) American-Indian Steel Institute
b) American-Indian Society of Iron
c) American Iron and Steel Institute
d) Alloys, Iron and Steel Institute
14. Which element is known as the softest heavy metal?

a) Copper
b) Lead
c) Iron
d) Nickel

MODULE NO 6
1. Composites can be classified based on ___________

a) matrix type
b) reinforcement constituent
c) matrix type & Reinforcement constituent
d) neither on matrix type nor on reinforcement constituent type
2. Which of the following is not a laminar composite?

a) Bimetallic
b) Cladding
c) Paints
d) Wood
3. In sandwich composites, which of the following material can be used for filling purpose?
a) Wood
b) Cement
c) Polymer
4. Which of the following have a greater impact on longitudinal strength of reinforced

composites?
a) Fiber orientation
b) Fiber strength
c) Fiber length
d) Fiber diameter
5. Which of the following may alter the mechanical properties of reinforced composites?
a) Constituent properties
b) Fiber length
c) Fiber orientation
6. Which of the following property can be enhanced by reinforcing an aluminum alloy?

a) Density
b) Torsion resistance
c) Wear resistance
d) Strength

7. The four types of Artificial nanomaterials are __________
a) Carbon-based, non-metallic, composites and ceramics
b) Carbon-based, metallic, composites and ceramics
c) Carbon-based, non-metallic, composites and dendrimers
d) Carbon-based, metallic, composites and dendrimers
8. Nano sized polymers built from branched units are called __________
a) Dendrimers
b) Composites
c) Carbon-based materials
d) Metal-based materials
9. Which property of nanoparticles provides a driving force for diffusion?

a) Optical Properties
b) High surface area to volume ratio
c) Sintering
d) There is no such property
10. On both ends of the CNTs, which carbon nanostructure is placed?

a) Graphite
b) Diamond
c) C60
d) Benzene
11. Which property of Nanomaterials make them suitable to be used for elimination
of pollutants?
a) High purity
b) Better thermal conductivity
c) Enhanced chemical activity
d) Small size
12. ano crystalline materials synthesised by sol-gel technique results in a foam like
structures called ___________
a) Gel
b) Aerosol
c) Foam
d) Aerogel

13. Which nanomaterial is used for cutting tools?
a) Fullerene
b) Aerogel
c) Tungsten Carbide
d) Gold
14. A Carbon monoxide sensor made of zirconia uses which characteristic to detect
any change?
a) Capacitance
b) Resistivity
c) Activity
d) Permeability
15. Nanoscale aluminium oxide increases the _________

a) Conductivity
b) Resistance
c) Ductility
d) Stability

Material Metallurgy - MCQ

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SEM - III Material Metallurgy

Material Metallurgy (MCQ)

3. GFRP is an important composite. It stands for

4. Ceramics make excellent refractory materials. A material is said to be refractory if it:

5. Which of the following cannot be used as bio-materials?

6. Which of the following is true for polymers?

8. The permanent mode of deformation of a material known as _____________

9. The ability of materials to develop a characteristic behavior under repeated loading

11. The ability of a material to be formed by hammering or rolling is known as _________

Page |2 +91-9158248287 By - Amit Mahto

13. The melting point of Iron (Fe) is _________

16. Which property helps a material to absorb lubricants?

17. Which of the following is a property of ceramics?

18. Porcelain is a type of ______ ceramic.

Page |3 +91-9158248287 By - Amit Mahto

20. Which class of engineering ceramics generally includes lubricant materials?

21. Composites can be classified based on ___________

22. Which of the following is not a laminar composite?

24. Frenkel defect belongs to which of the following classes?

Page |4 +91-9158248287 By - Amit Mahto

26. Foreign species is present in which of the following defects?

29. Which of the following point defects is non-stoichiometric in nature?

30. Which type of defect are point defects?

31. Which is not a name given to vacancy in some ionic solid?

Page |5 +91-9158248287 By - Amit Mahto

32. Schottky and Frenkel defects are ___________

37. Which of the following phenomenon creates point defect in ceramics?

Page |6 +91-9158248287 By - Amit Mahto

44. What can be the unit of dislocation density?

Page |7 +91-9158248287 By - Amit Mahto

45. Which of the following is not a lattice strain due to dislocation?

47. Which of the following will decrease lattice strain?

50. _____ is an anisotropic property of a crystal.

Page |8 +91-9158248287 By - Amit Mahto

51. The restoring force depends on _____

52. What is the reason for elastic deformation?

53. Elastic modulus can’t be changed by ______

54. . What is atomic density on prismatic plane?

55. . What is atomic density on {1 1 1} plane in fcc?

56. What is interplaner spacing for {1 1 1} planes in BCC?

57. What is interplaner spacing for {1 1 0} planes in fcc?

Page |9 +91-9158248287 By - Amit Mahto

58. {1 1 1} are called _____ planes.

61. The slope of stress-strain curve in plastic range is _____

62. How many slip system are there in FCC lattice?

63. Slip planes do not occur where ______

P a g e | 10 +91-9158248287 By - Amit Mahto

65. How many slip systems are there in BCC lattice?

69. Which of the following is the region of highest dislocation density?

70. Rate of strain hardening is equal to ___________

P a g e | 11 +91-9158248287 By - Amit Mahto

71. The driving force for recrystallization is _________

72. The driving force for grain growth is _________

74. If an annealing process is carried completing in 50 min at temperature T and the

75. Abnormal grain growth is defined as ________________

P a g e | 12 +91-9158248287 By - Amit Mahto

1. Which of the following is not a factor affecting fracture?

2. Is the speed of loading is increased then:

3. What is the relation between fracture toughness and thickness?