CDS & CDS Ota 15 Years GS

EBD_7341
EBD_7341
Topicwise Solved Paper for CDS
General Knowledge 2020-21
9. Which one of the following combinations of source and
Physics screen would produce sharpest shadow of an opaque
1. If the linear momentum of a moving object gets doubled object? [CDS-2020-II]
due to application of a force, then its kinetic energy will (a) A point source and an opaque screen
[CDS-2020-II] (b) An extended soruce and an opaque screen
(a) remain same (b) increase by four times (c) A point source and a transparent screen
(c) increase by two times (d) increase by eight times (d) An extended source and a transparent screen
2. If the distance between two objects is increased by two 10. Which one among the following is a non-conventional
times, the gravitational force between them will source of energy? [CDS-2020-II]
[CDS-2020-II] (a) Petroleum (b) Coal
(a) remain same (b) increase by two times (c) Radioactive elements (d) Solar energy
(c) decrease by two times (d) decrease by four times 11. The radioactive isotope of hydrogen is [CDS-2020-II]
3. Which one of the following statements with regard to the (a) protium (b) deuterium
ultraviolet light is not correct? [CDS-2020-II] (c) tritium (d) hydronium
(a) It is an electromagnetic wave 12. We are given three copper wires of different lengths and
(b) It can travel through vacuum different areas of cross-section. Which one of the following
(c) It is a longitudinal wave would have highest resistivity? [CDS-2021-I]
(d) Its wavelength is shorter/ smaller than that of visible (a) Copper wire of 50 cm length and 1 mm diameter
light (b) Copper wire of 25 cm length and 0.5 mm diameter
4. If the speed of light in air is represented by c and the speed (c) Copper wire of 10 cm length and 2.0 mm diameter
in a medium is v, then the refractive index of the medium (d) All the wires would have same resistivity
can be calculated using the formula [CDS-2020-II] 13. Which one of the following is an electric conductor?
(a) v / c (b) c / v [CDS-2021-I]
(a) A plastic sheet (b) Distilled water
(c) c /(2 × v) (d) (c - v ) / c
(c) Human body (d) A wooden thin sheet
5. Which of the following lenses will bend the light rays 14. A non-spherical shining spoon can generally be
through largest angle? [CDS-2020-II] considered as a [CDS-2021-I]
(a) Lens with power +2.0 D (a) Spherical mirror (b) Parabolic mirror
(b) Lens with power +2.5 D (c) Plane mirror (d) Lens
(c) Lens with power –1.5 D 15. Who amongst the following is a pioneer in discovering the
(d) Lens with power –2.0 D heating effect of electric current? [CDS-2021-I]
6. A luminous object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a (a) Isaac Newton (b) Galileo Galilei
converging lens of focal length 25 cm. The image obtained (c) James P. Joule (d) J. J. Thomson
in the screen is [CDS-2020-II] 16. Which one of the following laws of electromagnetism does
(a) erect and magnified not give the direction of magnetic field ? [CDS-2021-I]
(b) erect and smaller (a) Right-hand thumb rule
(c) inverted and magnified (b) Fleming’s left-hand rule
(d) inverted and smaller (c) Fleming’s right-hand rule
7. When a light ray enters into glass medium from water at an (d) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
angle of incidence 0°, what would be the angle of 17. How many internal reflections of light take place in the
refraction? [CDS-2020-II] formation of primary rainbow? [CDS-2021-I]
(a) 90° (a) 0 (b) 1
(b) 45° (c) 2 (d) More than 2
(c) 0° 18. The direction of acceleration in uniform circular motion is
(d) The ray will not enter at all along the [CDS-2021-I]
8. Which one of the following phenomena verifies the fact (a) direction of motion.
that light travels much faster than sound? [CDS-2020-II] (b) tangent to the circle at the observation.
(a) Twinkling of stars in night sky (c) direction of velocity.
(b) Lighting of a matchstick (d) direction perpendicular to velocity.
(c) Thunderstorm
(d) Mirage
EBD_7341
2 Topicwise Solved Paper for CDS General Knowledge 2020-21
19. The weight of an object is due to [CDS-2021-I] (a) Sodium chloride

(a) the net force acting on it. (b) Sodium hydrogen carbonate
(b) the total of all forces acting on it irrespective of their (c) Calcium hydroxide
directions. (d) Acetic acid
(c) the force that it exerts on the ground. 13. Which one of the following sodium compounds is used
(d) its inert property. for softening hard water? [CDS-2021-I]
20. The size of particles being studied in ‘nano-technology’ is (a) Na2CO3 (b) NaHCO3
about [CDS-2021-I] (c) NaOH (d) Na2SO4
(a) 1 Å – 10 nm (b) 1 – 100 nm 14. Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce
(c) 1 – 50 µ (d) 1 mm – 10 mm > slaked lime whose solution is used for white-washing walls.
This slaked lime reacts with component (A) in air to form a
Chemistry thin layer of component (B) to give a shiny finish. What
1. Which one of the following statements about the are the components (A) and (B) ? [CDS-2021-I]
properties of neutrons is not correct? [CDS-2020-II] (a) A – O2 ; B – CaCO3
(b) A – CO2 ; B – Ca(OH)2
(a) Neutron mass is almost equal to proton mass
(c) A – O2 ; B – Ca(OH)2
(b) Neutrons possess zero charge
(d) A – CO2 ; B – CaCO3
(c) Neutrons are locatd inside the atomic nuclei
15. When we heat lead nitrate [Pb(NO3)2] in a boiling tube, we
(d) Neutrons revolve around the atomic nuclei
observe the emission of brown fumes. Which one of the
2. A mixture of sodium chloride (salt) and ammonium chloride
following is the brown gas? [CDS-2021-I]
can be separated by [CDS-2020-II] (a) NO (b) N2O2
(a) sublimation (b) filtration (c) NO3 (d) NO2
(c) chromatography (d) distillation 16. Which one of the following substances do silver articles react
3. Symbol of element was introduced by [CDS-2020-II] with, that makes the silver articles black? [CDS-2021-I]
(a) John Dalton (b) Antoine Lavoisier (a) Sulphur (b) Oxygen
(c) Jons Jacob Berzelius (d) Robert Boyle (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Phosphorus
4. Identify the correct pair of elements among the following 17. Which one of the following metals is kept immersed in
which are liquid at room temperature and standard pressure Kerosene oil to protect it and to prevent accidental fire?
[CDS-2020-II] [CDS-2021-I]
(a) Bromine and fluorine (b) Mercury and rubidium (a) Calcium (b) Sodium
(c) Bromine and thallium (d) Bromine and mercury (c) Vanadium (d) Magnesium
5. Which one of the following oxides shows both acidic and 18. A solution contains 20 g of solute in 180 g of solvent. If the
basic behaviour? [CDS-2020-II] solvent is water, what is the concentration of the solution
(a) Zinc oxide (b) Copper oxide in terms of mass by mass percentage? [CDS-2021-I]
(c) Magnesium oxide (d) Calcium oxide (a) 11.1% (b) 22.2%
6. Silver articles turn black when kept in the open for longer (c) 10% (d) 20%
time due to the formation of [CDS-2020-II]
(a) H2S (b) AgS Biology
(c) AgSO4 (d) Ag2S 1. Under the Kingdom Plantae, which of the following
7. Which one of the following does not form oxide on reaction individuals are predominantly aquatic? [CDS-2020-II]
with oxygen? [CDS-2020-II] (a) Bryophytes (b) Algae
(a) Magnesium (b) Lead (c) Pteridophyta (d) Gymnosperms
(c) Tin (d) Silver 2. All the individuals of a particular organism, such as rose plants,
8. The valency of phosphorus is [CDS-2020-II] belong to a taxonomic category called [CDS-2020-II]
(a) 2, 3 (b) 3, 4 (a) species (b) genus
(c) 4, 5 (d) 3, 5 (c) family (d) order
9. Lead nitrate on heating gives [CDS-2020-II] 3. Wings of birds and bats are considered analogous structures
(a) PbO2 and NO2 (b) PbO and NO2 because they have [CDS-2020-II]
(c) PbO and NO (d) PbO2 and NO (a) common origin and common function
10. Which one of the following elements a non-metal but is (b) different origin and common function
lustrous? [CDS-2021-I] (c) common origin and different function
(a) Carbon (b) Silicon (d) different origin and different function
(c) Germanium (d) Iodine 4. Apart from hyper acid secretion, peptic ulcers are also
11. Which one of the following metals has both malleability developed due to bacterial infection. The causative agent is
and ductility properties? [CDS-2021-I] [CDS-2020-II]
(a) Na (b) Au (a) Helicobacter pylori
(c) Ce (d) Hg (b) E. coli
12. Which one of the following is used in soda-acid fire (c) Streptococcus penumoniae
extinguishers? [CDS-2021-I] (d) Salmonella typhimurium
Topicwise Solved Paper for CDS General Knowledge 2020-21 3
5. Which one of the following statements about phloem is correct? (a) Liver fluke (b) Wuchereria
[CDS-2020-II] (c) Plasmodium (d) Planaria
(a) Phloem transports water and minerals 14. Which one of the following is the structure of a cardiac
(b) Phloem transports photosynthetic products muscle cell ? [CDS-2021-I]
(c) Phloem is a simple tissue (a) Cylindrical, Unbranched and Multinucleate
(d) Phloem gives support to the plant (b) Spinal shaped, Unbranched and Uninucleate
6. Mature sclerenchyma cells have [CDS-2020-II] (c) Spinal shaped, Branched and Uninucleate
(a) cellulose wall and are living (d) Cylindrical, Branched and Uninucleate
(b) lignified wall and are living 15. Which one of the following naturally occurring acids is
(c) suberized wall and are dead found in abundance in tomato ? [CDS-2021-I]
(d) lignified wall and are dead (a) Acetic acid (b) Citric acid
7. In human beings, the chromosomes that determine birth of (c) Oxalic acid (d) Tartaric acid
a normal female child are [CDS-2020-II] 16. Cell wall is not present in cells of [CDS-2021-I]
(a) one X chromosome from moth er and one X (a) Bacteria (b) Plants
chromosome from father (c) Fungi (d) Humans
(b) one X chromosome from moth er and one Y 17. A child receives a tall beautiful plant as a birthday gift from
chromosome from father his father with a quiz. The father asked her how she would
(c) two X chromosome from mother and one X verify whether this tall plant was the progeny of both the
chromosome from father tall parents or one tall and one short parent plant. She
(d) one X chromosome and one Y chromosome from father could verify this through [CDS-2021-I]
and one X chromosome from mother (a) cross-pollination (b) self-pollination
8. Antibiotic such as penicillin blocks [CDS-2020-II] (c) tissue culture (d) negative propagation
(a) cell wall formation in bacteria 18. A student was doing an experiment on increasing the cell
(b) RNA synthesis in bacteria division among plants. She asked her supervisor to suggest
(c) DNA synthesis in bacteria the specific plant hormone for the same. Had you been her
(d) division in bacteria supervisor, which plant hormone would you suggest?
[CDS-2021-I]
9. Which one of the following is used for storing biological
(a) Abscisic acid (b) Gibberellins
tissues? [CDS-2020-II]
(c) Cytokinin (d) Auxin
(a) Liquid nitrogen (b) Liquid helium
19. Which cell organelles have their own DNA and Ribosomes?
(c) Liquid argon (d) Liquid bromine
[CDS-2021-I]
10. Which of the following statements about ‘fission’ is
(a) Golgi body and Endoplasmic Reticulum
correct? [CDS-2021-I]
(b) Mitochondria and Plastids
1. It is related with the creation of new individuals by (c) Lysosome and Golgi body
means of cell division in unicellular organism. (d) Vacuole and Plastids
2. It is related with the transformation of heavier nuclei 20. Osmosis is the process of movement of water molecules
into smaller nuclei. from its [CDS-2021-I]
3. It is related with the creation of a heavier nuclei by (a) higher concentration to its lower concentration
means of combining two higher nuclei. through a cell wall.
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (b) lower concentration to its higher concentration
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only through a fully permeable membrane.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only (c) higher concentration to its lower concentration
11. An antibiotic is not useful against a virus whereas a vaccine through a fully permeable membrane.
is. Which one of the following is the most appropriate (d) higher concentration to its lower concentration
reason for this? [CDS-2021-I] through a semi-permeable membrane.
(a) An antibiotic can break RNA only, whereas virus has
DNA. History
(b) An antibiotic is a carbohydrate in its chemical nature,
1. During the 19th century, who among the following wrote
whereas a vaccine is a protein which works well to kill
Satapatra Series? [CDS-2020-II]
a virus. (a) M. G. Ranade
(c) Only a vaccine can break the genetic material of a virus. (b) B. G. Tilak
(d) A virus does not use biochemical pathways which (c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
can be blocked by an antibiotic. But a vaccine can (d) G. H. Deshmukh
boost an immune system to fight the virus. 2. Which one of the following was not a demand made by the
12. ‘Sleeping sickness’ is caused by [CDS-2021-I] Congress moderates? [CDS-2020-II]
(a) Trypanosoma (b) Leishmania (a) Universal adult franchise
(c) Plasmodium (d) Paramecium (b) Repeal of the Arms Act
13. Which one among the following is a free living animal? (c) Extension of Permanent Settlement
[CDS-2021-I] (d) Higher jobs for Indians in the army
EBD_7341
3. Who among the following founded the Mohammedan 14. In the Gandhara School of Art, initially blue schist and
Anglo-Oriental Defence Association (1893)? [CDS-2020-II] green phyllite were used. When did stucco completely
(a) Auckland Colvin (b) Badruddin Tyabji replace stone as main material used by Gandhara School
(c) Theodore Beck (d) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan sculptors? [CDS-2020-II]
4. After the First World War, the Triveni Sangh was formed (a) 1st century CE (b) 2nd century CE
by [CDS-2020-II] (c) 3rd century CE (d) 5th century CE
(a) the Jats and Gujjars (b) the Rajputs and Yadavs 15. Which one of the following statements about Gupta coins
(c) the Jats and Yadavs (d) the Ahirs and Kurmis is not correct? [CDS-2020-II]
5. Who among the following was the first to accept a (a) Gupta kings issued large number of gold coins known
ministerial position in the Central Provinces in October as Dinar
1925? [CDS-2020-II] (b) Chandragupta II, Kumaragupta I, Skandagupta and
(a) B. S. Moonje (b) M. R. Jayakar Budhagupta issued silver coins
(c) S. B. Tambe (d) B. N. Sasmal (c) The obverses of coins are carved with the images of
6. Who among the following formed the National Liberation the kings and on the reverse are carved deities
Federation (Liberal Party)? [CDS-2020-II] (d) The largest number of coins issued by the Guptas
(a) Motilal Nehru and C. R. Das were of copper
(b) Muhammad Ali and C. R. Das
(c) T. B. Sapru and M. R. Jayakar Economics
(d) M. R. Jayakar and C. R. Das 1. ASEEM is [CDS-2020-II]
7. The socialist idea of Sapta Kranti (Seven Revolutions) (a) Aatmanirbhar Skilled Employee Employer Mesaurement
was proposed by [CDS-2020-II] (b) Aatmanirbhar Skilled Employee Employer Mapping
(a) Ram Manohar Lohia (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Aatmanirbhar Skilled Employee Enterprises Medium
(c) M. G. Ranade (d) Jayaprakash Narayan (d) Automatic Skilled Employee Employer Mission
8. Who among the following gave evidence before the Joint 2. The Government of India programme regarding 'Stay in
Select Committee on the Government of India Bill, 1919 in India and Study in India' is initiated by [CDS-2020-II]
favour of female franchise? [CDS-2020-II] (a) the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
1. Mrs. Annie Besant (b) the Ministry of Culture
2. Mrs. Sarojini Naidu (c) the Ministry of Education
3. Mrs. Hirabai Tata (d) the Ministry of Tourism
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3. As per the Budget Estimates of 2019-20, the following are
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only some of the important sources of tax receipts for the Union
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Government : [CDS-2020-II]
9. In which one of the following places was the Ahmadiyya 1. Corporation Tax
Movement started by Mirza Ghulam Ahmad? [CDS-2020-II] 2. Taxes on Income other than Corporation Tax
(a) Patna (b) Aligarh 3. Goods and Services Tax
(c) Bhopal (d) Gurdaspur 4. Union Excise Duties
10. With whom did Subhas Chandra Bose form an alliance to Which one of the following is the correct descending order
destroy the Holwell Monument in Calcutta during 1939-40? of the forsaid tax receipts as a percentage of GDP?
[CDS-2020-II] (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4
(a) The Communist Party of India (c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 2, 4, 3, 1
(b) The Muslim League 4. As per the World Bank's Ease of Doing Business Ranking.
(c) The Hindu Mahasabha India's rank has improved from 142 in 2014 to 63 in 2019.
(d) The Unionist Party During this period, in which of the following parameters
11. Who among the following created the first All India Trade has India's rank deteriorated? [CDS-2020-II]
Union Congress in 1920? [CDS-2020-II] (a) East of starting a business
(a) B. P. Wadia (b) S. A. Dange (b) Getting electricity
(c) N. M. Joshi (d) B. T. Ranadive (c) Registering property
12. Which one among the following was India's first trade (d) Paying taxes
union in the proper sense of the term? [CDS-2020-II] 5. Which one of the following statements with regard to the
(a) Bombay Labour Union National Food Security Act is not correct? [CDS-2020-II]
(b) Ahmedabad Labour Union (a) The Act was enacted in the year 2013
(c) Madras Labour Union (b) The Act was rolled out in the year 2014
(d) Allahabad Labour Union (c) The Act legally entitles 67 percent of the population
13. Who among the following formed the Seva Samiti Boy to receive highly subsidised food grains
Scouts Association in 1914? [CDS-2020-II] (d) The Act is not being implemented in all the States /
(a) Hriday Nath Kunzru (b) S. G. Vaze Union Territories
(c) Annie Besant (d) Shri Ram Bajpai 6. Which one of the following statements about Indian
economy during 2019-20 is not correct? [CDS-2020-II]
(a) There has been deceleration in growth rate 17. Exchange rates state the value of one currency in terms of
(b) There has been sluggish growth in tax revenue relative other currencies. Which one of the following statements
to the Budget Estimates with respect to thec exchange rate of currency is correct?
(c) Fiscal deficit as percentage of GDP has been as per [CDS-2021-I]
the Budge Estimates (a) Floating exchange rates are rates in which the
(d) The non-tax revenue registered a considerably higher Governments interfere by buying or selling their
growth currencies.
7. As per the Budget Estimates of expenditure on major (b) Fixed exchange rates are rates set by Government
subsidies during 2019-20, the maximum expenditure was decisions and maintained by Government actions.
likely to be on [CDS-2020-II] (c) Under the Bretton Woods System, the exchange rates
(a) urea subsidy (b) petroleum subsidy are floated in terms of rise or fall in price of gold.
(c) food subsidy (d) fertilizer subsidy (d) Under the classical gold standard, the exchange rates
8. Decadal growth rate of population in percentage was are fixed in terms of price of dollar.
highest in India in the year [CDS-2020-II] 18. Francois Bernier was physician to [CDS-2021-I]
(a) 1991 (b) 1981 (a) Prince Murad (b) Princess Jahanara
(c) 1971 (d) 1961 (c) Emperor Shah Jahan (d) Prince Dara Shikoh
9. Which one of the following States is planned to host the 19. Which one of the following approaches of human
Kehlo India Youth Games (4th Edition)? [CDS-2020-II] development was initially proposed by the International
(a) Kerala (b) Haryana Labour Organisation (ILO) and emphasised on health,
(c) Gujarat (d) Manipur education, food, water supply, sanitation and
10. Since 2014-15, India has consistently run trade surplus housing? [CDS-2021-I]
with which one among the following countries? (a) Welfare approach (b) Basic needs approach
[CDS-2020-II] (c) Income approach (d) Capability approach
(a) China (b) Saudi Arabia 20. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(c) USA (d) Germany [CDS-2021-I]
11. As per the use-based classification of the Index of Industrial
(a) Real GDP is calculated by valuing outputs of different
Production (IIP), the maximum weight has ben assigned to
years at common prices.
[CDS-2020-II]
(b) Potential GDP is the real GDP that the economy would
(a) primary goods (b) intermediate goods
produce if its resources were fully employed.
(c) consumer durables (d) consumer non-durables
(c) Nominal GDP is calculated by valuing outputs of
12. Normally, there will not be a shift in the demand curve when
different years at constant prices.
[CDS-2020-II]
(d) Real GDP per capita is the ratio of real GDP divided by
(a) price of a commodity falls
(b) consumers want to buy more at any given price population.
(c) average income rises 21. The mismatch in the regional or occupational pattern of job
(d) population grows vacancies and the pattern of worker availability results in
13. A market, in which there are a large number of firms, [CDS-2021-I]
homogeneous product, infinite elasticity of demand for an (a) Structural unemployment
individual firm and no control over price by firms, is termed as (b) Disguised unemployment
[CDS-2020-II] (c) Altered unemployment
(a) oligopoly (d) Cyclical unemploymen
(b) imperfect competition 22. The situation in an economy which is growing slowly along
(c) monopolistic competition with rapid inflation (rising price level) is called [CDS-2021-I]
(d) perfect competition (a) Stagnation (b) Deflation
14. Which one of the followmg is not a function of money? (c) Stagflation (d) Recession
[CDS-2021-I] 23. The increase in private investment spending induced by
(a) Acts as an intermediate in the exchange process the increase in Government spending is known as
(b) Acts as a store of value [CDS-2021-I]
(c) Used as the unit of account (a) Crowding in (b) Deficit financing
(d) Used for regulating consumption (c) Crowding out (d) Pumping out
15. The situation where the equilibrium level of real GDP falls 24. The asset or assets that a borrower pledges in order to
short of potential GDP is known as [CDS-2021-I] guarantee repayment of a loan is called as [CDS-2021-I]
(a) Recessionary gap (b) Inflationary gap (a) Cheque (b) Collateral
(c) Demand-side inflation (d) Supply-side inflation (c) Guarantee card (d) Bond
16. The excess of total expenditure of Government over its 25. The percentage by which the money the borrower pays
total receipts, excluding borrowmgs, is known as back exceeds the money that was borrowed is called as
[CDS-2021-I] [CDS-2021-I]
(a) Primary deficit (b) Fiscal deficit (a) Bank rate (b) Nominal interest rate
(c) Current deficit (d) Capital deficit (c) Real interest rate (d) Terms of credit
EBD_7341
26. KIRAN (Knowledge Involvement in Research (a) Central Archives

Advancement through Nurturing) is an initiative to provide (b) Sound Archives
opportunities to women scientists who [CDS-2021-I] (c) Advanced Research Unit
(a) had a break in their career due to family reasons. (d) Transcription Unit
(b) are pursuing innovative research in life sciences. 35. Which one of the following is not an objective of NITI Aayog?
(c) have collaborative projects with labs in foreign [CDS-2021-I]
countries. (a) It provides a critical direction and strategic input for
(d) have leading edge projects in Nano-Science and development process.
Technology. (b) It functions as a ‘think tank’ in providing key elements
27. NIDHI is an umbrella scheme for the promotion of of policy.
[CDS-2021-I] (c) It monitors and evaluates the implementation of the
(a) young and aspiring innovators. programmes.
(b) scientific research. (d) It offers a platform for resolution of inter-state conflicts
as ‘provider of first and last resort’.
(c) primary health care.
(d) primary education in rural areas. General Knowledge
28. The Saubhagya Scheme aims at universal [CDS-2021-I]
(a) LPG connection. 1. What is 'Little Boy'? [CDS-2020-II]
(b) household electrification. (a) The fission bomb dropped at Hiroshima
(c) primary school education. (b) The fusion bomb dropped at Nagasaki
(d) public health insurance. (c) The first nuclear bomb tested by America
(d) The first nuclear bomb tested by North Korea
29. Mission Indradhanush aims at [CDS-2021-I]
2. Who among the following is the architect of the Ram
(a) reducing child deaths due to pneumonia.
Temple being constructed at Ayodhya? [CDS-2020-II]
(b) reducing the impact of rotavirus.
(a) P. O. Sompura (b) Chandrakant Sompura
(c) elimination of maternal tetanus.
(c) Brinda Somaya (d) B. V. Doshi
(d) full immunisation of children. 3. August 12 is celebrated as [CDS-2020-II]
30. Which one of the following statements aboutn the DDU – (a) the World Environment Day
GKY is not correct ? [CDS-2021-I] (b) the World No-Tobacco Day
(a) It is a skill training programme. (c) the International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit
(b) It is for rural youth from poor families. Trafficking
(c) Its objective is placement in wage employment. (d) the International Youth Day
(d) It relies entirely on skill training by Government agencies. 4. Who among the following has won the Singles Title in
31. Which of the following statements about the Pradhan Wimbledon Tennis Championship (Women) in the year 2019?
Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana are correct ? [CDS-2021-I] [CDS-2020-II]
1. It is part of Government of India’s poverty reduction (a) Karolina Pliskova (b) Simona Halep
strategy. (c) Serena Williams (d) Naomi Osaka
2. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for rural development. 5. Which one of the following is correct about ‘Pinaka’?
3. It provides connectivity in rural areas. [CDS-2021-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) It is a multi-barrel rocket system.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (b) It is a type of battle tank.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only (c) It is an advanced submarine.
32. Which mega public sector undertaking is desiguated with (d) It is an indigenously developed drone system.
‘Navratna’ status ? [CDS-2021-I] 6. Which one of the following is the largest linguistic group
(a) Indian Oil Corporation Limited of India? [CDS-2021-I]
(b) Gas Authority of India Limited (a) Sino-Tibetan (b) Austric
(c) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (c) Indo-Aryan (d) Dravidian
(d) Bharat Electronics Limited Miscellaneous
33. Which of the following is/are social security scheme(s) ?
[CDS-2021-I] 1. Recently a rare kind of yellow turtle was discovered in
1. Atal Pension Yogana India. The State in which it was seen is [CDS-2020-II]
2. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (a) Uttarakhand (b) Odisha
3. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Seled the correct answer using the code given below : 2. Which one of the following lakes in India has a large quantity
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only of a substance found in the Moon? [CDS-2020-II]
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only (a) Lonar Lake, Maharashtra
34. Which one of the following units is not a part of All India (b) Pangong Lake, Ladakh
Radio’s Transcription and Programme Exchange Service? (c) Chilika Lake, Odisha
[CDS-2021-I] (d) Loktak Lake, Manipur
3. The Pragyan rover installed in Chandrayaan-2 mission had 13. Which one of the following British firms was taken over by
how many wheels? [CDS-2020-II] Soorajmull-Nagarmull group? [CDS-2021-I]
(a) 2 (b) 3 (a) McLeod (b) Octavius Steel
(c) 4 (d) 6 (c) Davenport (d) Andrew Yule
4. In August 2020, a blast has taken place at Beirut killing 14. Which one of the following statements about the British
about one hundred people and thousand wounded. The Indian Medical Service (lMS) is not correct? [CDS-2021-I]
blast was caused by [CDS-2020-II] (a) IMS began in 1764.
(a) dynamite (b) ammonium nitrate (b) It recruited health professionals by means of a com-
(c) RDX (d) mercury nitride petitive examination.
5. Which one of the following Indian institutes was approved (c) Indians were never admitted to IMS.
by the Drugs Controller General of India for conducting (d) The IMS was at first meant to look after the troops.
human trials of the Oxford-AstraZeneca Covid-19 vaccine 15. ‘Legal Positivism’ theory was developed by [CDS-2021-I]
candidate? [CDS-2020-II] (a) T. H. Green (b) Thomas Hobbes
(a) Bharat Biotech (c) John Austin (d) Patrick Devlin
(b) AIIMS 16. Which one of the following is not a member of the Quad
(c) Serum Institute of India group of nations? [CDS-2021-I]
(d) National Institute of Epidemiology (a) France (b) USA
6. The recent explosion near OIL well in Baghjan is due to (c) Australia (d) Japan
[CDS-2020-II] 17. The first phase of Exercise Malabar, 2020 was conducted
(a) removing the spool during the blowout control operations at [CDS-2021-I]
(b) transfer of oil from its depot to a pipeline (a) Port Blair (b) Mumbai
(c) the leakage of methyl isocyanide (c) Visakhapatnam (d) Kochi
(d) the leakage of radiations from radioactive substance 18. Hollywood actor Sir Sean Connery, who died recently, was
7. Who among the following played the role of Shakuntala popularly known for the portrayal of the role [CDS-2021-I]
Devi in the biopic movie based on the life of the famous (a) Rocky (b) Captain Jack Sparrow
mathematician? [CDS-2020-II] (c) Terminator (d) James Bond
(a) Madhuri Dixit (b) Rani Mukherjee 19. ‘CARAT Bangladesh 2020’ was a joint naval exercise between
(c) Tabu (d) Vidya Balan Bangladesh and [CDS-2021-I]
8. G. C. Murmu, who was appointed as the Comptroller and
(a) India (b) USA
Auditor General of India in August 2020, was the Lieutenant
(c) Japan (d) Thailand
Governor / Administrator of which one of the following
20. Peninsula Shield Force is a military arm of [CDS-2021-I]
Union Territories prior to this appointment? [CDS-2020-II]
(a) Organization of Islamic Cooperation
(a) Ladakh (b) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries
(c) Chandigarh (d) Puducherry
(c) Gulf Coopration Council
9. Arrange the following countries in descending order as
(d) Arab League
per the Global Human Development Index, 2019 :
[CDS-2020-II] 21. Which one of the following ships was involved in ‘Mission
1. Germany 2. USA Sagar-II’ ? [CDS-2021-I]
3. South Africa 4. India (a) INS Shakti (b) INS Vikramaditya
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (c) INS Kesari (d) INS Airavat
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4 22. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer us-
(c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1 ing the code given below the lists : [CDS-2021-I]
10. Which one of the following is a decommissioned aircraft List-I (Author) List-II (Poetical work)
carrier? [CDS-2020-II] A. Brindavan Das 1. Shivasankirttan
(a) INS Rajput (b) INS Chakra B. Krishnadas Kaviraj 2. Chandimangal
(c) INS Khanderi (d) INS Viraat C. Mukundaram 3. Chaitanyacharitamrita
11. In August 2020, who among the following was administered Chakravarti
the oath as the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka for the fourth time? D. Rameshwar 4. Chaitanyamangal
[CDS-2020-II] Bhattacharya
(a) Gotabaya Rajapaksa (b) basil Rajapaksa Code :
(c) Mahindra Rajapaksa (d) Namal Rajapaksa A B C D
12. Which one of the following Indian Ocean island nations (a) 4 2 3 1
has recently declared a state of environmental emergency (b) 4 3 2 1
due to oil spill from a grounded ship? [CDS-2020-II] (c) 1 3 2 4
(a) Maldives (b) Mauritius (d) 1 2 3 4
(c) Madagascar (d) Sri Lanka
EBD_7341
HINTS & EXPLANATIONS

15. (c) The heating effect ofthe current is also known as
Physics Joule’s heating effect. According to this effect, some
1. (b) Momentum is directly proportional to velocity. If of the energy transferred to the resister on passing
momentum of an object is doubled, but its mass does electric current and gets converted into heat energy.
not increase (so velocity remains below the speed of Inother words, we can say that when an electric
light) then its velocity is doubled. If the velocity is current is passed through a wire that has a high
doubled, then the kinetic energy increases by four resistance, it gets hot and produces heat energy. The
times. heating law of Joule’s states that the amount ofheatis
2. (d) Since gravitational force is inversely proportional to directly proportional to the:
the square of the separation distance between the i. square of electric current flowing through it.
two interacting objects, more separation distance will ii. the resistance of the conductor
result in weaker gravitational forces. So as two objects iii. time for which electric current flows through the
are separated from each other, the force of conductor.
gravitational attraction between them also decreases. 16. (d) Faraday’s law of induction is also known as
If the separation distance between two objects is Faraday’s law. This law was proposed by a chemist
doubled (increased by a factor of 2), then the force of named Michal Faraday in 1831. It is a basic law of
gravitational attraction is decreased by a factor of 4 electromagnetism. It is used to determine how a
(2 raised to the second power). magnetic field will interact withan electriccurrent to
3. (c) Ultraviolet (UV) light has shorter wavelengths than produce an electromotive force (EMF). Transformers,
visible light. Though these waves are invisible to the inductors and several types of motors work on this
human eye, some insects, like bumblebees, can see law. This law consists of two laws.The first law of
them. Ultraviolet light is a type of electromagnetic induction describes the phenomena of induction in a
radiation. All electromagnetic waves (e.g. X-ray, radio conductor, and the second law quantifies the EMF
waves and UV waves) only can travel through produced in the conductor.
vacuum. 17. (c) Thephenomenon of total internal reflection is defined
Longitudinal waves occur in the large solids and also as the complete reflection of a ray of light within a
in engineering fluids. Longitudinal waves include medium. It occurs if the angle of incidence if greater
sound waves, seismic P-waves, and ultrasound than a certain limiting angle which is known as the
waves. critical angle. During the formation of the primary
4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) rainbow, there is one internal reflectionthat takes
9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (c) place, whereas a secondary rainbow is formed by the
ray of light that undergoes two internal reflections.A
12. (d) Electrical conductivity is a measure of how well a
material transports an electric charge. Resistivity can rainbow is formed due to the refraction of light in
be defined as the electrical resistance of a conductor falling water droplets and the phenomena of reflection
of unit cross-sectional area and unit length. Copper from the back of droplets. The primary rainbow is
has the highest electrical conductivity rating of all formed between 40o to 420from the antisolar point.
non-precious metals: the electrical resistivity of 18. (d) Acceleration is in the direction of the change in
copper = 16.78 n©•m at 20 °C. It tells the capacity to velocity, which points directly toward the centre of
conduct an electric current. Poor conductors of rotation, i.e., the centre of the circular path. It can
electric current have high resistivity. Resistivity is point perpendicular to the velocity for a change in
however is not related with length of copper wire direction. An object undergoing uniform circular
rather it is related to the purity of copper. motion is moving ata constant speed. Nonetheless,
13. (c) Electric current is a flow of charges and ions. The it is accelerating due to its change in direction. The
human body containssalt and various ions such as direction of the acceleration is inwards.
sodium ion, potassium ion and chloride ion. Such 19. (c) The weight of an object can be defined as the force
ions tend to conduct electricity. Therefore, our body acting on the object. The mass of an object can be
is a very good conductor of electricity. defined as the inertia of the object. Weight and mass
14. (b) A parabolic mirror is defined as a reflective surface are related to each other as weight increases with the
that projects energy such as light and sound. The increase in mass.
surface of a spoon that is bent inwards acts like a 20. (b) Nanotechnology is the study of very small objects.
concave mirror. A diminished image is formed A more generalized description of nanotechnology
regardless of the position of an object. This can occur was subsequently established by the National
only if the mirror is convex. Therefore, we can Nanotechnology Initiative, which defined
conclude that the non-spherical part of the spoon is nanotechnology as the manipulation of matter with
considered a parabolicmirror. at least one dimension sized from 1-100 nanometres.
Chemistry that is formed over the silver metal on exposure to

atmospheric air is silver sulphide. The chemical
1. (d) The neutron's existence was theorized by Rutherford formula of silver sulphide is Ag2S.
in 1920 and discovered by Chadwick in 1932. A neutron 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b)
is an electrically neutral elementary subatomic particle 10. (d) Iodine is a non-metallic, dark-grey/purple, lustrous,
with mass almost 2000 times that of the electron. The solid element. It is the most electropositive halogen
neutron lifetime as a free particle is about 15 min in and the least reactive of the halogens even if it can
spite of the fact that neutrons are stable when bound still form compounds with many elements. Iodine
in an atomic nucleus. easily sublime on heating to give purple vapour iodine
2. (a) There are way in separating mixtures of chlorides salts dissolves in some solvents such as carbon
such as that of sodium chloride and ammonium tetrachloride and it is slightly soluble in water.
chloride. It can be done by crystallization, filtration or 11. (b) Gold (Au)is a metal that is both malleable and ductile.
sublimation. The easiest method among the three is This means it can be beaten into a thin film. It is
separation by sublimation. heavy metal as it has a high density. Despite being a
Ammonium chloride sublimes upon heating. Actually, heavy metal, the atoms can slide past each other quite
the sublimation is a decomposition of ammonium easily. This property of gold makes it malleable. The
chloride forming ammonia and hydrogen chloride. ductility of metal can be defined as the ability to
3. (b) Antoine Lavoisier (1743-1794) introduced the system change its shape. Gold can be drawn into a monatomic
of chemical nomenclature. His Traité Élémentaire de wire when beaten and therefore is highly ductile. The
Chimie (1789) was the first modern chemical textbook, ductility of metal is inversely proportional to the
and presented a unified view of new theories of temperature, i.e., it increases with the decrease in the
chemistry. In addition, it contained a list of 33 temperature.
elements, or substances that could not be broken 12. (b) Sodium hydrogen carbonate, commonly known as
down further. His list also included light (lumière) and sodium bicarbonate, is a rich source of carbon
caloric (calorique), which he believed to be material dioxide. Its chemical formula is NaHCO3. Due to the
substances. Lavoisier himself grouped them into four presence of a high amount of carbon dioxide, it is
categories on the basis of their chemical properties: used as an ingredient of baking powders, in
1. Simple substances belonging to all the effervescent salts, beverages and as a main dryfire
kingdoms of nature, which may be considered extinguisher.When it is heated to a high temperature,
as the elements of bodies (gases), the chemical properties of this salt make it produce a
2. Oxidable and Acidifiable simple Substances not lot of carbon dioxide and remove oxygen. This
Metallic (nonmetals), reduces the amount of oxygen and puts the fire out.
3. Oxidable and Acidifiable simple Metallic Bodies The by-products of this reaction are a small quantity
(metals), of water and sodium carbonate.
4. Salifiable simple Earthy Substances (earths). 2NaHCO3 + H2SO4 ® Na2SO4 + 2H2O + 2CO2
4. (d) Mercury and bromine are both Liquid at room 13. (a) Na2CO3 (sodium carbonate) is commonly known as
temperature. The only other element on the periodic washing soda.It is used to remove the permeant
table that is a liquid at room temperature and pressure hardness of the water. Washing soda has a chemical
is the halogen bromine. While mercury is the only formula, Na2CO3.10H2O. It binds the molecule of
liquid metal at room temperature, the elements gallium, calcium and magnesium in water. The hardness of
cesium, and rubidium melt under slightly warmer water can be removed by adding it into the water or
conditions. passing the water through an ion-exchange column.
5. (a) Zinc oxide (Zno) is an amphoteric oxide,because it 14. (d) Solid calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water and
can react with both acids and bases. while in general forms calcium hydroxide. It is a combination reaction
most oxides only react with acids alone due to its where two or more elements are combined to form one
basic nature. compound. The reaction produces heat energy and
6. (d) Silver article turns black when kept in the air because therefore is an exothermic reaction. This process is
silver reacts with sulphur compounds such as known as slaking of lime. Calcium hydroxide dissolves
hydrogen sulphide (H2S) present in air and forms in water to form its solution called lime water.
silver sulphide. When silver articles are kept in the CaO(s) + H2O(I) ® Ca(OH)2(aq)
open, then a layer of silver oxide is formed on the 15. (d) Lead (II) nitrate crystals are colourless and undergo
articles due to the reaction of silver with the oxygen the process of thermal decomposition and form a
present in the air. Silver oxide is black in colour. Finally, yellow solid precipitate of lead oxide and evolve
after sufficient time, it will form silver sulphide after “reddish-brown fumes” of nitrogen dioxide gas when
coming in contact with oxygen and Hydrogen heated. This nitrogen dioxide is produced due to the
sulphide present in the atmospheric air. Silver decomposition of lead nitrate.
sulphide is also black in colour. The black substance
EBD_7341
16. (a) On the exposure of air, the silver article becomes black 4. (a) Peptic ulcer disease is a condition in which painful
after sometimes because silver reacts with sulphur sores or ulcers develop in the lining of the stomach or
which is present in the atmosphere and then forms the first part of the small intestine (the duodenum).
silver sulphide (H2S).Thus,a thin layer of this silver Normally, a thick layer of mucus protects the stomach
sulphide is formed on the surface of the silver article, lining from the effect of its digestive juices. But many
so itappearsdull or black.This phenomenon is known things can reduce this protective layer, allowing
as corrosion. However, for silver metal, it is known stomach acid to damage the tissue.
as tarnishing. H. pylori commonly infects the stomach. About 50%
17. (b) Sodium is a highly reactive metal and reacts vigorously of the world's population has an H. pylori infection,
with the oxygen, carbon dioxide and moisture present often without any symptoms. Researchers believe
in the air such that it may even cause a fire when kept people can transmit H. pylori from person to person,
open. To prevent this explosive reaction, Sodium is especially during childhood.
kept immersed in kerosene because there is no chemical The H. pylori bacteria stick to the layer of mucus in
reaction takes place between sodium and kerosene. the digestive tract and cause inflammation (irritation),
18. (c) mass of solute = 20g which can cause this protective lining to break down.
mass of solvent = 180g This breakdown is a problem because your stomach
mass of solution = 180 + 20g = 200g contains strong acid intended to digest food. Without
concentration = 20/200 × 100 = 20/2 = 10% the mucus layer to protect it, the acid can eat into
stomach tissue.
Biology However, for most people the presence of H. pylori
doesn't have a negative impact. Only 10% to 15% of
1. (b) Kingdom Plantae includes green, brown and red algae,
people with H. pylori end up developing ulcers.
liverworts, mosses, ferns and seed plants with or
5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (a)
without flowers. Plants that do not have well-
differentiated body design fall in this group. The plants 10. (c) Fission is the process of division of a single entity
in this group are commonly called algae. These plants into two or more parts. It is the only way to reproduce
are predominantly aquatic. Examples are Spirogyra, new organisms in unicellular organisms. In
Ulothrix, Cladophora and Chara. prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, the offspring, i.e.,
daughter cells are identical to the parent cell. In this
Major division of kingdom plantae are as follows: process, the cell divides itself into smaller nuclei,
1. Thalophyta 2. Bryophyta known as fission products. The fission of a heavy
3. Pteridophyta 4. Gymnosperms element is an exothermic reaction. A huge amount of
5. Angiosperms energy is released during this process.
The basis of these divisions is whether they are 11. (d) Viruses donot have cell walls that can be attacked by
flowering or non-flowering and bearing seed or not. antibiotics; instead they aresurrounded by a
Characteristics of division Thallophyta protective protein coat.Unlike bacteria, which attack
our body’s cells from the outside, viruses actually
1. Plants do not have well differentiated body design. move into, live in and make copies of themselves in
2. These plants are predominantly aquatic. our body’s cells. Viruses can’t reproduce on their
3. The plants in this group are commonly called own, like bacteria do, instead they attach themselves
algae.They do not grow flowers or have seeds to healthy cells and reprogram those cells to make
4. Vascular tissue is absent. new viruses. It is because of all of these differences
2. (b) Genus is a group of species which are alike in broad that antibiotics don’t work on viruses.
features of their organization but different in detail. 12. (a) Sleeping sickness is caused byinflagellate protozoan,
Species in a genus have a common ancestry. A rose is Trypanosoma brucei gambiense and Trypanosoma
a woody perennial flowering plant of the genus Rosa, brucei rhodesiense. The latter one causes the more
in the family Rosaceae, or the flower it bears. There severe form of the illness. The scientific name of this
are over three hundred species and tens of thousands disease is African Trypanosomiasis. This causing
of cultivars. agent of this disease is the tsetse fly (Glossina species).
It is found in sub-Sharan Africa.It bites the healthy
3. (b) Bird and bat wings are analogous - that is, they have
person and the infection spreads through blood. Some
separate evolutionary origins, but are superficially
of the common symptoms of this disease are irritability,
similar because they have both experienced natural headache, swollen lymph and aching joints.
selection that shaped them to play a key role in flight. 13. (d) Planarians are free-living flatworms of the Turbellaria
Analogies are the result of convergent evolution. class under the phylum Platyhelminthes. They have
Interestingly, though bird and bat wings are analogous a bilaterally symmetrical body and have no external
as wings, as forelimbs they are homologous. Birds or internal septae.They are found in freshwater
and bats did not inherit wings from a common ancestor sources such as ponds, streams and lakes. They are
with wings, but they did inherit forelimbs from a nonparasitic organisms. Despite the absenceofteeth,
common ancestor with forelimbs. they are carnivores or scavengers. They are
approximatelyone-centimetre long.
14. (d) The cardiac muscle has branching fibres, one nucleus founding the association was to unite the Muslims
per cell, striations, and intercalated disks. The and reduce the influence of the Congress in India.
electrical connection between cellsis present due to Through this association, the Muslim leaders wished
the branched structure of cells and intercalated discs. to improve Anglo-Muslim/Anglo-Oriental relationships
These muscles are cylindrical. These muscles contain as well.
ordered myofibrils. 4. (d) The Triveni Sangh was formed in 1934 by the members
15. (c) There are more than 10 acids that are present in of three prominent backward castes of Bihar, namely
tomatoes. Some of the common acids are citric acid, Yadavs, Koeri, and Kurmi. Triveni Sangh was founded
ascorbic acid, malic acid and oxalic acid. All these in Shahabad, Bihar, Arjak Sangh has its roots in
acids protect health and sustain energy. The common Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh. It was Sardar Jagdev Singh
name of malic acid is vitamin C. The main organic who first mooted the idea of setting up Triveni Sangh.
acids are citric acid and malic acid. Small amounts of He shared his thoughts with many leaders. At the
fumaric acid of present in malic acid. An additional time, the demand for social justice was just beginning
peak is usually visible in standards containing malic in Bihar, but the talk of equality was anathema to the
acid due to the presence of a high UV absorption landlords and the priestly class. The backward classes
coefficient in fumaric acid. had realized that it was only the strength of unity that
16. (d) A cell wall is a rigid layer that surrounds the cell could help them fight savarna domination.
which is located outside the plasma membrane. It is Yadunandan Prasad Mehta and Shivpujan Singh had
present in most prokaryotes (except mollicute partnered in many social movements, including the
bacteria), in algae, fungi and eukaryotes including "Janeyu Andolan" and had a popular following. They
plants. It is but absent in animals.It has various consented to Sardar Jagdev Singh's proposal without
functions. It gives mechanical strength, gives shape, any demur. The organization was named "Triveni"
controls cell expansion controls intercellular after the mythical confluence of the Ganga, the
transport, protects against infective organisms, etc. Yamuna and Saraswati rivers.
17. (b) Self-pollination can be defined as thepollination of a 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d)
flower by pollen grains from the same flower or 9. (d) Qadian is a town and a municipal council in Gurdaspur
another flower on the same plant.When a tall pea District, north-east of Amritsar, situated 18 kilometres
plant was self-pollinated, one-fourth of the progeny (11 mi) north-east of Batala city in the state of Punjab,
were dwarf. When a tall pea plant was self-pollinated, India. Qadian is the birthplace of Mirza Ghulam
one-fourth of the progeny were dwarf. Ahmad, the founder of the Ahmadiyya movement. It
18. (c) Cytokinin is involved in several plant processes, remained the centre of the Ahmadiyya movement until
including cell division an d shoot and root the Partition of India in 1947.
morphogenesis. This hormone promotes shoot
10. (b) Bose's last few months in India - he would escape to
growth and restricts lateral branching. Cytokinin
Germany in January 1941 and seek a military alliance
moves from the roots into the shoots, eventually
with the Nazis against the British Raj - saw him
signalling lateral bud growth.The main role of this
consolidate his position among Bengal's Muslims in
hormoneis plant growth and development. It affects
order to build a secular alliance. He struck a seat-
the process of cell division.
sharing deal with the Muslim League for election to
19. (b) Mitochondria and plastids have DNA and therefore
the prestigious Calcutta Municipal Corporation, a
they can make their structural proteins. They are semi-
Congress stronghold. He also launched a movement
autonomous as they are only partially dependent on
to remove the Holwell monument, which
the cell to replicate and grow as they have their DNA.
commemorated the death of British soldiers in the
They have their ribosomes to make proteins.
"Black Hole prison" of Siraj-ud-Daula, the last Nawab
Mitochondria is said to be the powerhouse of the
of Bengal - a strategic move aimed at uniting Hindu
cell as ATP is generated in them.
and Muslim Bengalis against the British. Alarmed that
20. (d) The process of osmosis involves the movement of a
a joint Hindu-Muslim mass agitation could harm its
solvent, such as, water through a semipermeable
war effort, the colonial regime arrested Bose a day
membrane into a solution of higher solute
before the movement was to start.
concentration that tends to equalize the concentration
of the solute on the two sides of the membrane.There 11. (c) Narayan Malhar Joshi was an Indian trade union leader
are three types of osmosis, namely hypertonic, and follower of Gopal Krishna Gokhale. He founded
isotonic, and hypotonic. the Social Service League in 1911 with the objective -
to collect and study social facts and discuss social
History problems with a view to forming public opinion on
questions of social service. He started the All India
1. (d) 2. (c) Trade Union Congress in 1920 worked as its Secretary
3. (d) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan founded the Mohammedan till 1929. It was formed to provide representation for
Anglo-Oriental Defence Association in the year 1893 India at the League of Nations' International Labor
with the assistance of Theodore Beck. The purpose of Organization (ILO).
EBD_7341
12. (c) The first clearly registered trade-union is considered Composition of taxe s in Gross Tax Revenue in 2019-20 BE
to be the Madras Labour Union founded by B.P.
Wadia in 1918, while the first trade union federation
to be set up was the All India Trade Union Congress
in 1920.
13. (d) Shri Ram Bajpai organised the Seva Samithi Boy
Scouts Association. It was founded in 1914 on the
line of the world-wide Baden-Powell organization,
which at that time refused to allow Indians to join it.
Although Lord Baden-Powell, as a result of his
personal visit to India, raised the colour bar, Bajpai's
organisation decided to preserve its separate
existence, as its aim was the complete Indianisation
of the Boy Scout Movement in India.
14. (b) 15. (d)
Source: Union Budget Documents & CGA GTR: Gross Tax
Economics Revenue, CIT: Corporation Tax, ToI: Taxes on Income other
than Corporation Tax (includes STT), C: Customs, UED:
1. (b) In an endeavour to improve the information flow and Union Excise Duties, GST: Goods and Services TAx
bridge the demand-supply gap in the skilled workforce 4. (c) India ranks 63rd among 190 countries improving by
market, the Ministry of Skill Development and 14 ranks from its rank of 77 in 2019 in World Bank's
Entrepreneurship (MSDE) on 10 July 2020 launched Ease of Doing Business Report 2020. India has
'Aatamanirbhar Skilled Employee Employer Mapping improved its rank in 7 out of 10 indicators and has
(ASEEM)' portal to help skilled people find moved closer to international best practices.
sustainable livelihood opportunities. Apart from
5. (b) Though the issue of 'food security' at the household
recruiting a skilled workforce that spurs business
is continuously being addressed by the Government
competitiveness and economic growth, the Artificial
since long, through the Public Distribution System
Intelligence-based platform has been envisioned to
and the Targeted Public Distribution System, the
strengthen their career pathways by handholding
enactment of the National Food Security Act, (NFSA)
them through their journeys to attain industry-relevant
2013 on July 5, 2013 marks a paradigm shift in the
skills and explore emerging job opportunities
approach to food security from welfare to rights based
especially in the post COVID era.
approach.
2. (c) The 'Study in India' programme's primary objective is
The Act legally entitles upto 67% of the population
to target foreign students by branding India as an
(75% in rural areas and 50% in urban areas)to receive
attractive education destination. As per the existing
subsidized foodgrains under Targeted Public
Government framework, provision of 10-15%
Distribution System. About two thirds of the population
supernumerary seats for foreign students is there.
therefore is covered under the Act to receive highly
'Study in India' programme would target the foreign
subsidized foodgrains. As a step towards women
students to be admitted as per this provision, which
empowerment, the eldest woman of the household of
would not have any adverse impact on the number of
age 18 years or above is mandated to be the head of
seats/ admission of Indian students.
the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards
Along with 'Study in India' scheme, the Ministry of under the Act. The Act is being implemented in all the
Human Resource Development (MHRD) has now States/UTs, and on an all India basis, out of maximum
decided to focus on 'Stay in India'. The move is aimed coverage of 81.34 crore persons, around 80 crore
at helping students have decided to stay back to persons have been covered under NFSA at present for
pursue higher education in India and Indian students receiving highly subsidized foodgrains.
who have returned because of the pandemic.
6. (c) The country's fiscal deficit widened to 4.6 per cent
3. (c) Budget 2019-20 estimated the Gross Tax Revenue (GTR) of the Gross Domestic Product in 2019-20 mainly
to be `24.61 lakh crore which is 11.7 per cent of GDP. on account of poor revenue realisation, according
This builds into growth of 9.5 per cent over the revised to official data. The deficit, which signifies the gap
estimates (RE) of 2018-19 and 18.3 per cent over 2018- between government revenue and expenditure, is
19 PA. The direct taxes, comprising mainly of corporate higher than the revised estimate of 3.8 per cent for
and personal income tax, constitute around 54 per cent the fiscal. According to the Controller General of
of GTR. These were envisaged to grow at 11.3 per cent Accounts (CGA) data, the fiscal deficit for 2019-20
relative to 2018-19 RE and 18.7 per cent relative to 2018- worked out to be 4.59 per cent of the GDP, while the
19 PA. On the other hand, the indirect taxes were revenue deficit was 3.27 per cent. The effective
expected to grow at 7.3 per cent vis-a-vis 2018-19 RE revenue deficit was 2.36 per cent, the data showed.
and 20.6 per cent as against 2018-19 PA.
7. (c) In 2019-20, the total expenditure on subsidies is 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (d)
estimated to increase to Rs 3,38,949 crore (13.3%) 14. (d) Money has three primary functions. (i) It is a medium
over the revised estimate of 2018-19. This is owing of exchange, that is, it acts as an intermediate in the
to an increase in expenditure on petroleum, fertiliser, exchange process. (ii) It acts as a store of value and
food, and other interest subsidies. Details are given (iii) Money also acts as a unit of account. However,
below: it is not used for regulating consumption.
• Food subsidy: Allocation for food subsidy is 15. (a) Recessionary gap is the situation where the
estimated at Rs 1,84,220 crore in 2019-20, a 7.5% equilibrium level of the real GDP falls short of potential
increase as compared to the revised estimate GDP. Recession refers to a significant decline in the
of 2018-19. In 2018-19 budget, Rs 1,69,323 crore general economic activity in a designated region. It
was allocated for food subsidy, however, the is a period of declining economic performance across
revised estimate is higher than the budgeted an entire economy that lasts for several months.
estimate by Rs 1,975 crore. The revised estimate 16. (b) Fiscal deficit is the difference between the total income
for 2018-19 is 71% higher than the expenditure of the government (total taxes and non-debt capital
on food subsidy in 2017-18. receipts) and its total expenditure. A fiscal deficit
• Fertiliser subsidy: Expenditure on fertiliser situation occurs when the government’s expenditure
subsidy is estimated at Rs 79,996 crore in 2019- exceeds its income. This difference is calculated both
20. This is estimated to increase by Rs 9,910 in absolute terms and also as a percentage of the
crore (1%) over revised estimate of 2018-19. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of the country.
Allocation to the subsidy in 2019-20 budget is 17. (b) An exchange rate is the price of one currency
Rs 5,010 crore higher than the allocation made expressed in terms of another currency, or against a
in 2019-20 interim budget. basket of other currencies. Exchange rates can be
• Petroleum subsidy: Expenditure on petroleum either fixed or floating. Fixed exchange rates are
subsidy is estimated to increase by Rs 12,645 decided by the central banks of a country whereas
crore (9%) in 2019-20. Petroleum subsidy floating exchange rates are decided by the mechanism
consists of subsidy on LPG (Rs 32,989 crore) of market demand and supply.
and kerosene subsidy (Rs 4,489 crore). The 18. (d) François Bernier’s was a French physician. He came
increase in allocation in 2019-20 is owing to to India via Surat port and remained here for about 12
an increase in LPG subsidy of Rs 12,706 crore years from 1658 to 1669. He initially served as personal
(62.6%) from 2018-19 revised estimates. physician to Dara Shikoh, the eldest son of the
• Oth er subsidies: Expen diture on other Mughal emperor Shah Jahan and the emperor’s
subsidies includes interest subsidies for designated successor. Bernier letters to correspondents
various government schemes, subsidies for the in France are a source of history about the economic
price support scheme for agricultural produce, conditions and religious and social customs in northern
import of pulses, and assistance to state India.
agencies for procurement, among others. In 19. (b) The basic needs approach is one of the major
2019-20, the expenditure on these other approaches to the measurement of absolute
subsidies has increased by Rs 4,251 crore (9%) poverty in developing countries. It attempts to define
over the revised estimate of 2018-19. Table 4 the absolute minimum resources necessary for long-
provides details of subsidies in 2019-20. term physical well-being, usually in terms
of consumption goods. The poverty line is then
8. (c)
defined as the amount of income required to satisfy
those needs. The ‘basic needs’ approach was
Population & its growth in India: 1901-2011 introduced by the International Labour Organization’s
Census population Decadal growth Avg. annual Progressive World Employment Conference in 1976.
year exp. growth growth rate
absolute percent rate (%) over 1901 (%) 20. (a) Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP)can be defined
1901 23,83, 96, 327 as a measure that projects the total value of goods
1911 25, 20, 93, 390 1, 36, 97, 063 5.75 0.56 5.75 and service calculating the quantities but using
1921 25, 13, 21, 213 –7, 72, 177 (0.31) -0.03 5.42 constant prices that are adjusted for inflation in a
1931 27 89, 77, 238 2, 76, 56, 025 11.00 1.04 17.02 year. This is opposed to nominal GDP that does not
1941 31, 86, 60, 580 3, 96, 83342 14.22 1.33 33.67 account for inflation.To calculate real GDP in a certain
1951 36, 10, 88, 090 4, 24, 27, 510 13.3 1.25 51.47 year, the quantities of goods produced in that year
1961 43, 92, 34, 771 7, 81, 46, 681 21.64 1.96 54.25 are multiplied by the prices for those goods in the
1971 54, 81, 59, 652 10, 89, 24, 881 24.80 2.20 129.94 base year.
1981 68, 33, 29, 097 13, 51, 69, 445 24.66 2.22 186.64
21. (a) In structural unemployment,despite the opportunities
1991 84, 64, 21, 039 16, 30, 91, 942 23.87 2.16 255.0
for job availability, there is a serious mismatch
2001 1, 02, 87, 37, 436 18, 23, 16, 397 21.54 1.97 331.5
between the need of companies and what workers
2011 1, 21, 01, 93, 422 18, 14, 55, 986 17.64 1.64 407.64
can offer.Various causes responsible for structural
EBD_7341
unemployment ar e technological changes, the government launched a website, saubhagya. gov.

technological advancements, competition, education in to spread information about the scheme.
and training, relocation subsidies and decrease or 29. (d) The Mission Indradhanush was launched on 25
remove unemployment benefits. December 2014 by Harsh Vardhan.The main objective
22. (c) Stagflation is anextreme economic situation. It is a of the mission is to fully immunise more than 89 lakh
peculiar combination of stagnant growth and rising children who are either unvaccinated or partially
inflation leading to high unemployment. Generally, vaccinated under UIP. It targets children under 2
rising inflation is a sign of a fast-growing economy years of age and pregnant women for immunisation.
as peoplehave more money to spend higher amounts 30. (d) DDU-GKY is a training initiative of the Ministry of
on the same quality of goods or services.It occurs Rural Development,Government of India (MoRD). It
when the government or central banks expand the isademand-driven placement-linked skill that aims at
money supply at the same time they constrain. It can rural poor youth between 15 and 35 years of age,to
also occur when a central bank’s monetary policies create income diversity in poor families and help rural
create credit. Both increase the money supply and youth realise their career aspirations.It provides fund
create inflation. for the projects that address the market demand with
23. (a) Crowding occurs when higher government spending funding support ranging from Rs. 25,696 to over Rs.
leads to an increase in investment in the private 1 lakh per person, depending on the duration of the
sector. It occurs because higher government project.
spending leads to an increase in economic growth 31. (a) The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY),
and therefore encourages firms to investin it, creating was launched by the Govt. of India to provide
more profitable investment opportunities. connectivity to unconnected Habitations as part of
24. (b) The term collateral refers to an asset that a lender a poverty reduction strategy.The government is
accepts as security for a loan offered by a borrower. planning at the State level to ensure sustainable
It may take the form of real estate or other kinds of management of the rural roads network.
assets, depending on the purpose of the loan. The 32. (d) Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) is among an elite
collateral acts as a form of protection for the lender. group of public sector undertakings, which has been
This means if the borrower fails to pay the loan, the designated with th e Navratna status by the
lender has the right to take the asset which was used Government of India. Any organisation is designated
as collateral.The most common type of collateral used with this status due to benefit before deterioration,
by borrowers inreal estate. intrigue and duties to capital utilised, benefit before
25. (b) The nominal interest rate, also known as the money intrigue and expenses to turnover, Between sectoral
interest rate, is defined as the interest rate before execution.In India, the other Navratna companies are:
taking inflation into account, in contrast to real • National Aluminium Company Limited
interest rates and effective interest rates. It is the • NMDC Limited
percentage increase in money the borrower pays the • Oil India Limited
lender for the use of the borrowed money.The nominal • RECL (Rural Electrification Corporation Limited)
interest rate can be calculated using the formula, • Container Corporation of India Limited
r = m × [ ( 1 + i)1/m – 1 ]. 33. (c) Atal Pension Yojana (APY), a pension scheme for citizens
26. (a) In the year 2014, the Department has restructured all of India. It is focused on theunorganised sector workers.
the women-specific programmes under one umbrella Under the APY, guaranteed minimum pension of Rs.
known as “KIRAN” (Knowledge Involvement in 1,000/- or 2,000/- or 3,000/- or 4,000 or 5,000/- per
Research Advancement through Nurturing). It offers month will be given at the age of 60
a contractual research award to women scientists and years depending on the contributions by the
enables them for independent research. They allow subscribers.The PMJJBY is available to people in the
women who had a break in their career due to family age group of 18 to 50 years having a bank account who
reasons. give their consent to join/enable auto-debit. Pradhan
27. (a) National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana(PMSBY)The Scheme is
Innovations (NIDHI) is an umbrella programme. It available to people in the age group 18 to 70 years with
was initiated by the Department of Science and a bank account who give their consent to join/enable
Technology to nurture ideas and innovations auto-debit on or before 31st May for the coverage
(knowledge-based and technology-driven) into period 1st June to 31st May on an annual renewal basis.
successful start-ups. 34. (c) International Advanced Research Centre for Powder
28. (b) The Saubhagya scheme was announced by the Metallurgy and New Materials (ARCI) established
Hon’ble Prime Minister on 25 September 2017. This in the year 1997, is an Autonomous Research and
scheme aims to provide last-mile connectivity and Development Centre of the Department of Science
electricity connections to all remaining households and Technology (DST). All India Radio Transcription
in rural as well as urban areas.On 16 November 2017, and Programme Exchange service includes central
archives, sound archives and transcription unit.
35. (d) NITI (National Institution for Transforming Miscellaneous

India)Ayog was formed on 1 January2015 by the
Government of India. It is a think tank for the 1. (b) Recently, Basudev Mahapatra, a farmer in Odisha's
government. It aims to achieve sustainable Balasore district, has spotted a yellow turtle species,
development goals with cooperative federalism by which is being speculated by experts to be an albinism.
fostering the involvement of State Governments of This turtle is also known as "Indian flap shell turtle".
India in the economic policy-making process using a This turtle is commonly found in Pakistan, Sri Lanka,
bottom-up approach. It not only implements but also India, Nepal, Bangladesh and Myanmar. It is
monitors the implementation of programmes. omnivorous; whose diet includes frogs, snails, and
even some aquatic vegetation.
General Knowledge 2. (a) Lonar Lake lies within the only known extraterrestrial
1. (a) The atomic bomb used at Hiroshima, Japan, on August crater found within the Deccan Trap (which is a vast
6, 1945, was "Little Boy". The bomb was dropped by basaltic region in India). Mineral contents of samples
a USAAF B-29 bomber, Enola Gay, piloted by U.S. from the Lonar crater-cum-lake in Buldhana district,
Army Air Force Colonel Paul Tibbets, Jr. The bomb Maharashtra, which was formed after a meteorite crash
weighed 9,000 pounds and had a diameter of only 28 around 50,000 years ago, are similar to the moon rocks
inches. The gun-type weapon possessed the power obtained from the first and third manned moon missions,
of 26,000,000 pounds of high explosives. Nuclear according to a study led by the Indian Institute of
fission was achieved by the collision of two parts of Technology (IIT), Bombay. This lake is a notified National
active material (Uranium-235). A U-235 projectile fired Geographical Heritage monument in India.
down a gun barrel collided with a stationary element, 3. (d) Chandrayaan-2 mission is a highly complex mission,
causing a mass increase leading to nuclear fission. which represents a significant technological leap
2. (b) The man who has been leading the architectural compared to the previous missions of ISRO, which
designs and commissioned the project of ram temple brought together an Orbiter, Lander and Rover with the
is Chandrakant Sompura. Chandrakant Sompura had goal of exploring South Pole of the Moon. Chandrayaan
begun work on Ram Lalla 's temple in Ayodhya after 2 Orbiter is capable of communicating with Indian Deep
first visiting the site with then Vishwa Hindu Parishad Space Network (IDSN) at Byalalu as well as the Vikram
(VHP) chairman Ashok Singhal. An industrialist Lander. The precise launch and mission management
named Ghanshyamdas Birla had asked him if he would has ensured a mission life of almost seven years instead
take over the Ram Mandir project and introduced him of the planned one year. The Lander of Chandrayaan-2
to Singhal. Sompura had then served in many of the was named Vikram after Dr Vikram A Sarabhai, the Father
Birla temples. The Sompura family has rich ancestry of the Indian Space Programme. It was designed to
of building temples as the father of Chandrakant function for one lunar day, which is equivalent to about
Sompura-Prabhashankar had built the iconic Somnath 14 Earth days.Chandrayaan-2's Rover was a 6-wheeled
Temple in Prabhas Patan on the Gujarat coast which robotic vehicle named as Pragyan, which translates to
was inaugurated in 1951 by India's first president, Dr 'wisdom' in Sanskrit.
Rajendra Prasad. 4. (b) On 4 August 2020, a large amount of ammonium nitrate
3. (d) 4. (b) stored at the port of the city of Beirut, the capital of
5. (a) Pinaka is a multibarrel rocket launch (MBRL) system. Lebanon, exploded, causing at least 204 deaths, 6,500
Itwas developed for the Indian Army. It was injuries, and US$15 billion in property damage, and
developed by the Defence Research and leaving an estimated 300,000 people homeless. A cargo
Development Organisation (DRDO) and integrates of 2,750 tonnes of the substance (equivalent to around
state-of-the-art technologies for delivering superior 1.1 kilotons of TNT) had been stored in a warehouse
combat performance. This systemhas a maximum without proper safety measures for the previous six
range of 40 km for Mark-I and 75 km for Mark-II. years, after having been confiscated by the Lebanese
Also, it can fire a salvo of 12 HE rockets in 44 authorities from the abandoned ship MV Rhosus. The
seconds.India has six Pinaka regiments. explosion was preceded by a fire in the same
6. (c) Indo-Aryan is part of the Indo-European family of warehouse, but as of November 2020, the exact cause
languages. They came to India with the Aryans. It is of the detonation is still under investigation.
the biggest of the language groups in India and 5. (c) The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) had
accounts for about 74% of the total Indian granted permission to the Pune-based Serum Institute
population. It is also known as the Indic languages. of India (SII), to conduct Phase 2 and 3 human clinical
It is a subgroup of the Indo-Iranian branch of the trials of the coronavirus vaccine candidate. SII has
Indo-European language family. In the early 21st partnered with AstraZeneca for manufacturing the
century, Indo-Aryan languages were spoken by more Oxford vaccine candidate for Covid-19. The Oxford-
than 800 million people, primarily in India, Bangladesh, AstraZeneca vaccine, known as Covishield in India,
Nepal, Pakistanand Sri Lanka. is being produced locally by the Serum Institute of
India, the world's largest vaccine manufacturer.
EBD_7341
6. (a) The blowout happened at the well on May 27, 2020 British secret agent, James Bond in a film. He was
and it has been on fire since June 9,2020. An explosion starred in seven Bond films between 1962 and 1983.
left three foreign experts injured. They were trying to 19. (b) CARAT Bangladesh 2020 was a joint naval exercise
plug to blowout. Three foreign experts involved in between Bangladesh and the US. Bangladesh and
the efforts sustained minor burn injuries while working US navies launched th e ‘Cooperation Afloat
at the site. According to OIL officials, the experts from Readiness and Training (CARAT) Bangladesh 2020’
Singapore-based Alert Disaster Control were trying to expand relationships and increase maritime
to remove a spool from the well head when the incident awareness between the two countries. This exercise
happened. involves the interaction between people and a variety
7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (b) of professional exchanges.The seaphase of the
13. (a) Soorajmull Nagarmull Pvt Ltd took over the control exercise will take place in the Bay of Bengal with
of McLeod & Co. Ltd which was r eported ships from both countries. The events are designed
around1954. Both the companies were registered in to increase interoperability between the countries.
Calcutta. While McLeod & Co. dealt in steel it also Both the countries work through coordinated
had interest in tea. Soorajmull Nagarmull group of deployment of surface ships, including tactical
companies similarly had interest in jute. manoeuvres among other activities.
14. (c) In 1763, the Bengal Medical Service was established. 20. (c) The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) decided to
Similar services were established by 1764 in both create a joint military force of 10,000 soldiers divided
Madras and Bombay. The Indian Medical Service into two brigades, called the Peninsula Shield Force,
(IMS) as a single Indian Medical Service was placed based in Saudi Arabia near the Kuwaiti and Iraqi
under a single Director-General in 1858.It recruited borders in 1984. It involves the political and economic
health professionals through a competitive alliance of six Middle Eastern countries, namely Saudi
examination. Before 1855, no Indians were never Arabia, Kuwait, the United Arab Emirates, Qatar,
admitted to IMS. In January that year, the first Indian Bahrain, and Oman. The GCC was established in
joined it. Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, in May 1981. It was established
15. (c) Legal Positivism theory was developed by John to achieve unity among its members based on their
Austin. It is a school of jurisprudence that believes common objectives and their similar political and
that the only legitimate sources of law are those cultural identities, which are rooted in Arab and
written rules, regulations, and principles that have Islamic cultures.
been expressly enacted, adopted, or recognized by a 21. (d) The Indian Naval Ship (INS) ‘Airavat’ is involved in
governmental entity or political institution, including ‘Mission Sagar-II’. It reached the port of Mombasa,
administrative, executive, legislative, and judicial Kenya with food supplies as a part of its ongoing
bodies. humanitarian operation.In continuation of the
16. (a) The full form of the quad, also known as the Quad, is ongoing humanitarian mission ‘Sagar-II’, INS Airavat
Quadrilateral Security Dialogue. It is an informal arrived at Port Djibouti carrying food aid for the people
strategic forum between four countries, Australia, of Djibouti. The Government of India is assisting
India, Japan and the United States. It is maintained friendly foreign countries to overcome natural
by semi-regular summits, information exchanges and calamities and the COVID-19 pandemic.
military drills between member countries.The four 22. (b) Vrindavana Dasa Thakura or Brindaban Das (1507-
countries came together in 2017 to give shape to the 1589 CE) was the author of the Chaitanya Bhagavata,
long-pending proposal of setting up the “Quad” or the first full-length biography of Chaitanya
the Quadrilateral coalition with an objective to Mahaprabhu written in the Bengali language.The
counter China’s aggressive behaviour in the Indo- Chaitanya Charitamrita, composed by Krishnadasa
Pacific region. Kaviraja in c.1557, is written in Bengali with a great
17. (c) The 24th edition of the Malabar Naval exercise is number of Sanskrit verses in its devotional, poetic
scheduled in two phases in November 2020. Phase construction, including Siksastakam. It is one of the
1involved the participation ofthe Indian Navy (IN), primary biographies detailing the life and teachings
United States Navy (USN), Japan Maritime Self of Chaitanya Mahaprabhu, the founder of Gaudiya
Defence Force (JMSDF), and Royal Australian Navy Vaishnavism.Kabikankan Mukundaram Chakrabarti
(RAN). It was conducted from November 3 to was a 16th-century Bengali poet who is best known
November 6 at Visakhapatnam in the Bay of Bengal. for writing the epic poem Chandimangal, which is
18. (d) Sir Sean Connery, the original name, Thomas Connery considered one of the most prominent works of
was born on 25 August 1930. He died on 31 October Mangalkavya. Rameshwar Bhattacharyacomposed
2020. He was a Scottish actor. He was best known for Shivasankirttan.
the portrayal ofthe famous fictional character of a
1 Physics
1. Which one of the following Indian scientists was elected as (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
a fellow of the Royal Society of London for his contribution of A
in the field of Plant Physiology and Physics ? [2007 -II] (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
(a) Ashutosh Mukherjee (b) Jagdish Chandra Bose explanation of A
(c) Prafulla Chandra Ray (d) P C Mahalanodis (c) A is true, but R is false
2. Assertion (A): Steam is more harmful for human body (d) A is false, but R is true
than the boiling water in case of burn. [2008 -II] 11. The phenomenon of mirage occurs due to which one of
Reason (R) : Boiling water contains more heat than steam. the following? [2008 -II]
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation (a) Polarisation of light
of A (b) Dispersion of light
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct (c) Diffraction of light
explanation of A (d) Total internal reflection of light
(c) A is true, but R is false 12. Which one of the following common devices works on
(d) A is false, but R is true the basis of the principle of mutual induction? [2008 -II]
3. Why is it difficult to see through fog? [2008 -II] (a) Tubelight (b) Transformer
(a) Rays of light suffer total internal reflection from the (c) Photodiode (d) LED
fog droplets 13. Television signal cannot be received generally beyond a
(b) Rays of light are scattered by the fog droplets particular distance due to [2009 -I]
(c) Fog droplets absorb light (a) curvature of the Earth (b) weakness of antenna
(d) The refractive index of fog is extremely high (c) weakness of signal (d) absorption of signal in air
4. The density of water varies with temperature which helps 14. If a small raindrop falls through air [2009 -I]
the aquatic animals to live in cold water. At what (a) its velocity goes on increasing
temperature is the density of water maximum? [2008 -II] (b) its velocity goes on decreasing
(a) 1°C (b) 2°C (c) 3°C (d) 4°C (c) its velocity goes on increasing for sometime and then
5. Who gave the first evidence of the big-bang theory? becomes constant
[2008 -II] (d) it falls with constant speed for sometime and then its
(a) Edwin Hubble (b) Albert Einstein velocity increases
(c) S Chandrasekhar (d) Stephen Hawking 15. Consider the following satements [2009 -I]
6. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle 30° X-rays
with the normal at the point of incidence. The ray will be 1. can pass through aluminum.
deviated from its incidence direction by what angle? 2. can be deflected by magnetic field.
(a) 30° (b) 60° [2008 -II] 3. move with a velocity less than the velocity of ultraviolet
(c) 120° (d) None of these ray in vacuum.
7. What would be the best choice for window material to Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
keep the outside heat away? [2008 -II] (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1
(a) Single-pane glass (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
(b) Double-pane glass without a gap in between 16. Which one of the following is the permissible level of
(c) Double-pane glass with water filled in between noise in a silent zone at day time? [2009 -I]
(d) Double-pane glass with air in between (a) 50 dB (b) 60 dB (c) 65 dB (d) 75 dB
8. Bar is a unit of which one of the following? [2008 -II] 17. By which one of the following, an old written material
(a) Force (b) Energy which cannot be read easily, can be read [2009 -I]
(c) Pressure (d) Frequency (a) g-rays (b) X-rays
9. On which one of the following conservative laws, does a (c) IR-rays (d) Radiofrequency waves
rocket work? [2008 -II] 18. Earthquake (shock) waves are [2009 -II]
(a) Mass (b) Energy (a) infrasonic waves (b) ultrasonic waves
(c) Linear momentum (d) Angular momentum (c) seismic (d) infrared waves
10. Assertion (A): In a pressure cooker food is cooked above 19. Laser is a device to produce [2009 -II]
boiling point. [2008 -II] (a) a beam of white light (b) coherent light
Reason (R): Boiling point of water increases as the (c) microwaves (d) X-rays
pressure increases.
EBD_7341
2 Physics
20. A perfect black body has the unique characteristic feature as 30. The apparent weight of a steel sphere immersed in various
(a) a good absorber only [2009 -II] liquids is measured using a spring balance. The greatest
(b) a good radiator only reading is obtained for the liquid [2010 -II]
(c) a good absorber and a good radiator (a) having the smallest density
(d) neither a radiator nor an absorber (b) having the largest density
21. Fat can be separated from milk in a cream separation (c) in which the sphere was submerged deepest
because of [2009 -II] (d) having the greatest volume
(a) cohesive force (b) gravitational force 31. If an object having mass of 1 kg is subjected to a force of
(c) centrifugal force (d) centripetal force 1 N it moves with [2010 -II]
22. Which one of the following is not result of surface (a) a speed of 1 m/s (b) a speed of 1 km/s
tension? [2009 -II] (c) an acceleration of 10 m/s2 (d) an acceleration of 1 m/s2
(a) Vapour formation above the liquid surface 32. An athlete diving off a high springboard can perform a
(b) Convex shape of liquid meniscus variety of exercises in the air before entering the water
(c) Liquid rising in a capillary below. Which one of the following parameters will remain
(d) Spherical shape of mercury fallen on the floor constant during the fall? [2010 -II]
23. Hair of a shaving brush cling together when the brush is (a) The athlete's linear momentum
removed from water due to [2010 -I] (b) The athlete's moment of inertia
(a) viscosity (b) surface tension (c) The athlete's kinetic energy
(c) friction (d) elasticity (d) The athlete's angular momentum
24. Consider the following statements [2010 -I] 33. The pressure exerted on the ground by a man is greatest
1. Clear sky appears blue due to poor scattering of blue (a) when the lies down in the ground [2010 -II]
wavelength of visible light. (b) when the stands on the toes of one foot
2. Red part of light shows more scattering than blue (c) when the stands with both foot flat on the ground
light in the atmosphere. (d) all of the above yield the same pressure
3. In the absence of atmosphere, there would be no 34. A passenger in a moving train tosses a five rupee coin. If
scattering of light and sky will look black. the coin falls behind him, then the train must be moving
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? with a uniform [2010 -II]
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (a) acceleration (b) deceleration
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these (c) speed (d) velocity
25. The most familiar form of radiant energy in sunlight that 35. As the sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the rays are
causes tanning and sunburning of human skin, is called scattered by tiny particles of dust, pollen, soot and other
[2010 -I] minute particulate matters present there. However, when we
(a) ultraviolet radiation (b) visible radiation look up, the sky appears blue during mid-day because
(c) infrared radiation (d) microwave radiation (a) blue light is scattered most [2010 -II]
26. A boy throws four stones of same shape, size and weight (b) blue light is absorbed most
with equal speed at different initial angles with the (c) blue light is reflected most
horizontal line. If the angles are 15°, 30°, 45° and 60°, at (d) ultraviolet and yellow component of sunlight combine
which angle the stone will cover the maximum horizontally? 36. The force acting on a particle executing simple harmonic
[2010 -I] motion is [2010 -II]
(a) 15° (b) 30° (c) 45° (d) 60° (a) directly proportional to the displacement and is
27. Which one of the following statement is true? [2010 -II] directed away from the mean position
(a) Temperatures differing 25° on the fahrenheit (F) scale (b) inversely proportional to the displacement and is
must differ by 45° on the celsius (C) scale directed towards the mean position
(b) 0°F corresponds to – 32°C (c) directly proportional to the displacement and is
(c) Temperatures which differ by 10° on the celsius scale directed towards the mean position
must differ by 18° on the Fahrenheit scale (d) inversely proportional to the displacement and is
(d) Water at 90°C is warmer than water at 202°F directed away from the mean position
28. A diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of red 37. Which one of the following statements is correct?
light. Which one among the following will be the outcome, [2010 -II]
if the red light is replaced by blue light? [2010 -II] (a) The angle of contact of water with glass is acute
(a) Bands disappear while that of mercury with glass is obtuse
(b) Diffraction pattern becomes broader and further apart (b) The angle of contact of water with glass is obtuse,
(c) Diffraction pattern becomes narrower and crowded while that of mercury with glass is acute
together (c) Both the angle of contact of water with glass and
(d) No change that of mercury with glass are acute
29. Raw mangoes shrivel when pickled in brine. The (d) None of the above
phenomenon is associated with [2010 -II] 38. Why are inner lining of hot water geysers made up of copper?
(a) osmosis (a) Copper has low heat capacity [2010 -II]
(b) reverse osmosis (b) Copper has high electrical conductivity
(c) increase of surface tension of fluid (c) Copper does not react with steam
(d) decrease of surface tension of fluid (d) Copper is good conductor of both heat and electricity
Physics 3
39. Half portion of a rectangular piece of ice is wrapped with (c) The floor is perfectly rigid
a white piece of cloth while the other half with a black one. (d) The floor heats up on impact
In this context, which one among the following statements 50. If the door of a running refrigerator in a closed room is
is correct? [2011 -I] kept open, what will be the net effect on the room?
(a) Ice melts more easily under black wrap (a) It will cool the room [2011 -II]
(b) Ice melts more easily under white wrap (b) It will heat the room
(c) No ice melts at all under the black wrap (c) It will make no difference on the average
(d) No ice melts at all under the white wrap (d) It will make the temperature go up and down
40. In scuba-diving, while ascending towards the water surface, 51. The focal length of convex lens is [2011 -II]
there is a danger of bursting the lungs. It is because of (a) the same for all colours
(a) Archimedes' principle [2011 -I] (b) shorter for blue light than for red
(b) Boyle's law (c) shorter for red light than for blue
(c) Gay-Lussac's law of combining volumes (d) maximum for yellow light
(d) Graham's law of diffusion 52. When you pull out the plug connected to an electrical
41. The blackboard seems black because it [2011 -I] appliance, you often observe a spark. To which property
(a) reflects every colour (b) does not reflect any colour of the appliance is this related? [2011 -II]
(c) absorbs black colour (d) reflects black colour (a) Resistance (b) Inductance
42. Mr X was advised by an architect to make outer walls of (c) Capacitance (d) Wattage
his house with hollow bricks. The correct reason is that 53. The time period of a simple pendulum having a spherical
such walls [2011 -I] wooden bob is 2 s. If the bob is replaced by a metallic one
(a) make the building stronger twice as heavy, the time period will be [2013 -II]
(b) help keeping inside cooler in summer and warmer in (a) more than 2 s (b) 2s
winter (c) 1 s (d) less than 1 s
(c) prevent seepage of moisture from outside 54. A liquid is kept in a regular cylindrical vessel upto a certain
(d) protect the building from lightning height. If this vessel is replaced by another cylindrical
43. If a ship moves from freshwater into seawater, it will vessel having half the area of cross-section of the bottom,
[2011 -I] the pressure on the bottom will [2013 -II]
(a) sink completely (b) sink a little bit (a) remain unaffected
(c) rise a little higher (d) remain unaffected (b) be reduced to half the earlier pressure
44. Viewfinders, used in automobiles to locate the position of (c) be increased to twice the earlier pressure
the vehicles behind, are made of [2011 -I] (d) be reduced to one-fourth the earlier pressure
(a) plane mirror (b) concave mirror 55. In SONAR, we use [2013 -II]
(c) convex mirror (d) parabolic mirror (a) ultrasonic waves (b) infrasonic waves
45. The cat can survive fall from a height much more than human (c) radio waves (d) audible sound waves
or any other animal. It is because the cat [2011 -II] 56. Two identical piano wires have same fundamental frequency
(a) can immediately adjust itself to land on all four paws when kept under the same tension. What will happen if
and bend the legs to absorb the impact of falling tension of one of the wire is slightly increased and both the
(b) has elastic bones wires are made to vibrate simultaneously? [2013 -II]
(c) has thick and elastic skin (a) Noise (b) Beats
(d) also gets injury equally with other animals, but has (c) Resonance (d) Non-linear effects
tremendous endurance, resistance and speedy recovery 57. After rising a short distance the smooth column of smoke
46. Fire fly gives us cold light by virtue of the phenomenon from a cigarette breaks up into an irregular and random pattern.
of [2011 -II] In a similar fashion, a stream of fluid flowing past an obstacle
(a) fluorescence (b) phosphorescence breaks up into eddies and vortices which give the flow
(c) chemiluminescence (d) effervescence irregular velocity components transverse to the flow
47. Transformer is a kind of appliance that can [2011 -II] direction. Other examples include the wakes left in water by
1. increase power 2. increase voltage moving ships the sound produced by whistling and by wind
3. decrease voltage instruments. These examples are the results of [2013 -II]
4. measure current and voltage (a) laminar flow of air (b) streamline flow of air
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (c) turbulent flow of air (d) viscous flow at low speed
(a) Only 4 (b) 1 and 4 58. Which one among the following correctly defines a unit
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 magnetic pole in SI units? [2013 -II]
48. A body has a mass of 6 kg on the Earth; when measured It is the pole which when placed in air at a distance of
on the Moon, its mass would be [2011 -II] (a) 1 foot from an equal and a similar poled repels it with
(a) nearly 1 kg (b) less than 1 kg a force of 1 pound
(c) less than 6 kg (d) 6 kg (b) 1 m from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a
49. When a ball drops onto the floor it bounces. Why does it force of 1 N
bounce? [2011 -II] (c) 1 cm from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a
(a) Newton's third law implies that for every action (drop) force of 1 dyne
there is a reaction (bounce) (d) 1 metre from an equal and a similar pole repels it with
(b) The floor exerts a force on the ball during the impact a force of 1 N/m2
EBD_7341
4 Physics
59. Before X-ray examination (coloured X-ray) of the stomach, (a) 54.55 km/h (b) 55 km/h
patients are given suitable salt of barium because (c) 55.55 km/h (d) 54 km/h
[2013 -II] 68. A device, which is used in our TV set, computer, radio
(a) barium salts are white in colour and this helps set for storing the electric charge, is [2013 -II]
stomach to appear clearly (a) resistor (b) inductor
(b) barium is a good absorber of X-rays and helps (c) capacitor (d) conductor
stomach to appear clearly 69. Which type/types of pen uses/use capillary action in
(c) barium salts are easily available addition to gravity for flow of ink? [2013 -II]
(d) barium allows X-rays to pass through the stomach (a) Fountain pen
60. The best colours for a sun umbrella will be [2013 -II] (b) Ballpoint pen
(a) black on top and red on inside (c) Gel pen
(b) black on top and white on inside (d) Both ballpoint and gel pens
(c) red on top and black on inside 70. If two conducting spheres are separately charged and
(d) white on top and black on inside then brought in contact [2013 -II]
61. When ice melts, its [2013 -II] (a) the total energy of the two spheres is conserved
(a) volume decreases (b) the total charge on the two spheres is conserved
(b) volume increases (c) both the total energy and the total charge are conserved
(c) volume and mass both decrease (d) the final potential is always the mean of the original
(d) volume decreases while mass increases potential of the two spheres
62. In step-down transformer, the AC output gives the 71. The gas used in a refrigerator is [2013 -II]
(a) current more than the input current [2013 -II] (a) cooled down on flowing
(b) current less than the input current (b) heated up on flowing
(c) current equal to the input current (c) cooled down when compressed
(d) voltage more than the input voltage (d) cooled down when expanded
63. A rectifier is an electronic device used to convert 72. The celsius temperature is a/an [2013 -II]
(a) AC voltage into DC voltage [2013 -II] (a) relative temperature (b) absolute temperature
(b) DC voltage into AC voltage (c) specific temperature (d) approximate temperature
(c) sinusoidal pulse into square pulse 73. Light Emitting Diode (LED) converts [2013 -II]
(d) None of the above (a) light energy into electrical energy
(b) electrical energy into light energy
DIRECTION (Q. 64) : The following question consist of two (c) thermal energy into light energy
statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine (d) mechanical energy into electrical energy
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these 74. Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DEXA) is used to measure
items using the codes given below. (a) spread of solid tumour [2013 -II]
Codes (b) bone density
(a) Both the statements are true and statement II is the (c) ulcerous growth in stomach
correct explanation of statement I (d) extent of brain haemorrhage
(b) Both the statements are true, but statement II is not 75. The main source of energy in sun is [2013 -II]
the correct explanation of statement I (a) nuclear fusion (b) nuclear fission
(c) Statement I is true, but statement II is false (c) chemical reaction (d) mechanical energy
(d) Statement I is false, but statement II is true 76. By what mechanism does scent spread all over the room if
64. Statement I: Pulling a lawn roller is easier than pushing it. the lid is opened? [2013 -II]
Statement II: Pushing increases the apparent weight and (a) Pressure in the bottle
hence the force of friction. [2013 -II] (b) Compression from the bottle
65. It is difficult to cut things with a blunt knife because (c) Diffusion
[2013 -II] (d) Osmosis
(a) the pressure exerted by knife for a given force 77. Which one among the following is not a correct
increases with increase in bluntness statement? [2013 -II]
(b) a sharp edge decreases the pressure exerted by knife (a) Cathode rays are negatively charged particles
for a given force (b) Cathode rays are produced from all the gases
(c) a blunt knife decreases the pressure for a given force (c) Electrons are basic constituents of all the atoms
(d) a blunt knife decreases the area of intersection (d) Hydrogen ions do not contain any proton
66. When deep sea fishes are brought to the surface of the 78. Which one among the following colours has the highest
sea, their bodies burst. This is because the blood in their wavelength? [2013 -II]
bodies flows at very [2013 -II] (a) Violet (b) Green (c) Yellow (d) Red
(a) high speed (b) high pressure 79. Dispersion process forms spectrum due to white light
(c) low speed (d) low pressure falling on a prism. The light wave with shortest wavelength
67. A bus travels at a speed of 50 km/h to go from its origin of (a) refracts the most [2013 -II]
its destination at a distance of 300 km and travels at a (b) does not change the path
speed of 60 km/h to return to the origin. What is the (c) refracts the least
average speed of the bus? [2013 -II] (d) is reflected by the side of the prism
Physics 5
80. Magnetic, electrostatic and gravitational forces come (c) between focus and optical centre, diminished and virtual
under the category of [2013 -II] (d) between focus and optical centre, magnified and real
(a) non-contact forces (b) contact forces 91. The upper and lower portions in common type of bi-focal
(c) frictional forces (d) non-frictional forces lenses are respectively [2014-II]
81. A ray of white light strikes the surface of an object. If all (a) concave and convex
the colours are reflected the surface would appear (b) convex and concave
[2013 -II] (c) both concave of different focal lengths
(a) black (b) white (c) grey (d) opaque (d) both convex of different focal lengths
82. Motion of an oscillating liquid column in a U-tube is 92. Tungsten is used for the construction of filament in electric
(a) periodic but not simple harmonic [2013 -II] bulb because of its [2014-II]
(b) non-periodic (a) high specific resistance (b) low specific resistance
(c) simple harmonic and time period is independent of (c) high light emitting power (d) high melting point
the density of the liquid 93. Inactive Nitrogen and Argon gases are usually used in
(d) simple harmonic and time period depends on the electric bulbs in order to [2014-II]
density of the liquid (a) increase the intensity of light emitted
83. Dirty cloths containing grease and oil stains are cleaned (b) increase the life of the filament
by adding detergents to water. Stains are removed because (c) make the emitted light coloured
detergent [2013 -II] (d) make the production of bulb economical
(a) reduces drastically the surface tension between water 94. In the phenomenon of dispersion of light, the light wave
and oil of shortest wavelength is [2014-II]
(b) increases the surface tension between water and oil (a) accelerated and refracted the most
(c) increases the viscosity of water and oil (b) slowed down and refracted the most
(d) decreases the viscosity in detergent mixed water (c) accelerated and refracted the least
84. You are asked to jog in a circular track of radius 35 m. (d) slowed down and refracted the least
Right one complete round on the circular track, your 95. An oscilloscope is an instrument which allows us to see
displacement and distance covered by you respectively waves produced by [2014-II]
[2014 - I] (a) Visible light (b) X-rays
(a) zero and 220 m (b) 220 m and zero (c) Sound (d) Gamma rays
(c) zero and 110 m (d) 110 m and 220 m 96. The distribution of electrons into different orbits of an
85. When an incandescent electric bulb glows [2014 - I] atom, as suggested by Bohr; is [2014-II]
(a) the electric energy is completely converted into light (a) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 6 electrons in the L-orbit,
(b) the electric energy is partly converted into light 18 electrons in the M-orbit
energy and partly into heat energy (b) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 electrons in the L-orbit,
(c) the light energy is converted into electric energy 32 electrons in the M-orbit
(d) the electric energy is converted into magnetic energy (c) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 electrons in the L-orbit,
86. In cricket match, while catching a fast moving ball, a fielder 18 electrons in the M-orbit
in the ground gradually pulls his hands backwards with (d) 2 electrons in the K-orbit, 8 electrons in the L-orbit,
the moving ball to reduce the velocity to zero. The act 16 electrons in the M-orbit
represents [2014 - I] 97. Carbon or Graphite rods are used in atomic reactors as
(a) Newton's first law of motion moderators for sustained nuclear chain reaction through
(b) Newton's second law of motion nuclear fission process. In this process [2014-II]
(c) Newton's third law of motion (a) the neutrons are made fast
(d) Law of conservation of energy (b) the protons are made fast
87. Two layers of a cloth of equal thickness provide warmer (c) the neutrons are made slow
covering than a single layer of cloth with double the (d) the protons are made slow
thickness. Why? [2014 - I] 98.
(a) Because of the air encapsulated between two layers
(b) Since effective thickness of two layers is more
distance
(c) Fabric of the cloth plays the role

(d) Weaving of the cloth plays the role
88. A mobile phone charger is [2014 - I]
(a) an inverter (b) a UPS
(c) a step-down transformer (d) a step-up transformer
89. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image time
appears erect. The mirror is likely to be [2014 - I] The distance-time graph for an object is shown above.
(a) either plane or convex (b) plane only Which one of the following statements holds true for this
(c) concave (d) convex only object ? [2014-II]
90. The position, relative size and nature of the image formed by (a) The object is moving with uniform speed
a concave lens for an object placed at infinity are respectively (b) The object is at rest
(a) at focus, diminished and virtual [2014 - I] (c) The object is having non-linear motion
(b) at focus, diminished and real (d) The object is moving with non-uniform speed
EBD_7341
6 Physics
99. For a harmonic oscillator, the graph between momentum p (c) Its kinetic energy increases by two-thirds, while
and displacement q would come out as [2014-II] potential energy increases by one-third.
(a) a straight line (b) a parabola (d) Its kinetic energy increases by one-third, while
(c) a circle (d) an ellipse potential energy decreases by one-third.
DIRECTION (Q. 100): The following question consist of two 107. Two pieces of conductor of same material and of equal
statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine length are connected in series with a cell. One of the two
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these pieces has cross-sectional area double that of the other.
items using the code given below : Which one of the following statements is correct in this
regard ?
Code : (a) The thicker one will allow stronger current to pass
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement through it.
II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) The thinner one would allow stronger current to pass
(b) Both the statements are individually true, but Statement through it.
II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Same amount of electric current would pass through
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. both the pieces producing more heat in the thicker one.
(d) Statement I is false, but statement II is true. (d) Same amount of electric current would pass through
100. Statement I : When a gun is fired it recoils, i.e., it pushes both the pieces producing more heat in the thinner one.
back, with much less velocity than the velocity of the bullet. 108. A wire-bound standard resistor used manganin or
Statement II : Velocity of the recoiling gun is less because constantan. It is because
the gun is much heavier than the bullet. [2015-I] (a) these alloys are cheap and easily available
101. In an observation, a-particles, b-particles and g-rays have (b) they have high resistivity
same energies. Their penetrating power in a given medium (c) they have low resistivity
in increasing order will be (d) they have resistivity which almost remains unchanged
(a) a, b, g (b) b, g, a (c) a, g, b (d) b, a, g with temperature
102. A person standing 1 m in front of a plane mirror approaches 109. Which one among the following is used in making lead
the mirror by 40 cm. The new distance between the person pencils ?
and his image in the plane mirror is (a) Charcoal (b) Graphite
(a) 60 cm (b) 1.2 m (c) 1.4 m (d) 2.0 m (c) Coke (d) Carbon black
103. In respect of the difference of the gravitational force from 110. Sodium metal should be stored in
electric and magnetic forces, which one of the following (a) Alcohol (b) Kerosene oil
statements is true ? (c) Water (d) Hydrochloric acid
(a) Gravitational force is stronger than the other two. 111. A body is falling freely under the action of gravity alone
(b) Gravitational force is attractive only, whereas the in vacuum. Which one of the following remains constant
electric and the magnetic forces are attractive as well during the fall? [2015-II]
as repulsive. (a) Potential energy (b) Kinetic energy
(c) Gravitational force has a very short range. (c) Total linear momentum (d) Total mechanical energy
(d) Gravitational force is a long range force, while the 112. X-rays are [2015-II]
other two are short range forces. (a) deflected by an electric field but not by a magnetic
104. Creation of something from nothing is against the law of field
(a) constant proportions (b) deflected by a magnetic field but not by an electric
(b) conservation of mass-energy field
(c) multiple proportions (c) deflected by both a magnetic field and an electric
(d) conservation of momentum field
105. An electron and a proton are circulating with same speed (d) not deflected by an electric field or a magnetic field
in circular paths of equal radius. Which one among the 113. The focal length of the lens of a normal human eye is
following will happen, if the mass of a proton is about about [2015-II]
2,000 times that of an electron ? (a) 25 cm (b) 1 m (c) 2.5 mm (d) 2.5 cm
(a) The centripetal force required by the electron is about 114. Newton's laws of motion do not hold good for objects
2,000 times more than that required by the proton (a) at rest [2015-II]
(b) The centripetal force required by the proton is about (b) moving slowly
2,000 times more than that required by the electron (c) moving with high velocity
(c) No centripetal force is required for any charged particle (d) moving with velocity comparable to velocity of light
(d) Equal centripetal force acts on both the particles as 115. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
they rotate in the same circular path [2015-II]
106. An object is raised to a height of 3 m from the ground. It (a) Weight of a body is different on different planets.
is then allowed to fall on to a table 1 m high from ground (b) Mass of a body on the earth, on the moon and in
level. In this context, which one among the following empty space is the same.
statements is correct ? (c) Weigh tlessness of a body occurs when the
(a) Its potential energy decreases by two-thirds its gravitational forces acting on it are counter-balanced.
original value of total energy. (d) Weight and mass of a body are equal at sea level on
(b) Its potential energy decreases by one-third its the surface of the earth.
original value of total energy.
Physics 7
116. A brick is thrown vertically from an aircraft flying two 127. Which one of the following physical quantities has the
kilometres above the earth. The brick will fall with a same dimensions as that of Planck's constant h?
(a) constant speed [2015-II] [2016-II]
(b) constant velocity (a) Linear momentum (b) Angular momentum
(c) constant acceleration (c) Force (d) Potential energy
(d) constant speed for some time then with constant 128. In total internal reflection, the light travels from[2016-II]
acceleration as it nears the earth (a) rarer to denser medium and it occurs with no loss of
117. The outside rearview mirror of modern automobiles is intensity
marked with warning "objects in mirror are closer than (b) denser to rarer medium and it occurs with no loss of
they appear". Such mirrors are [2015-II] intensity
(a) plane mirrors (c) rarer to denser medium and it occurs with loss of
(b) concave mirrors with very large focal lengths intensity
(c) concave mirrors with very small focal lengths (d) denser to rarer medium and it occurs with loss of
(d) convex mirrors intensity
118. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? 129. The energy of a photon, whose momentum is 10 MeV/ c,
[2016-I] where c is the speed of light, is given by [2016-II]
(a) Sounds wave in gases are longitudinal in nature (a) 10MeV (b) 100 MeV (c) 1 MeV (d) 0.1 MeV
(b) Sounds wave having frequency below 20 Hz are 130. Liquids and gases never show [2016-II]
known as ultrasonic waves (a) diamagnetic property (b) paramagnetic property
(c) Sounds waves having higher amplitudes are louder (c) ferromagnetic property (d) electromagnetic property
(d) Sound waves with high audible frequencies are sharp 131. Light travels in a straight line (rectilinear propagation of
119. A myopic person has a power of 1.25 dioptre, what is the light). This statement does hold if the medium of travel for
focal length and nature of his lens ? [2016-I] light is [2016-II]
(a) 50 cm and convex lens (b) 80 cm and convex lens (a) of variable refractive index
(c) 50 cm and concave lens (d) 80 cm and concave lens (b) made up of slabs of different refractive indices
(c) homogeneous and transparent
120. Which one of the following statements about bar magnet
(d) inhomogeneous and transparent
is correct ? [2016-I]
132. When a piece of pure silicon is doped with aluminium,
(a) The pole strength of the north-pole of a bar magnet
then [2017-I]
is larger than that of the south-pole
(a) the conductivity of the doped silicon piece will remain
(b) When a piece of bar magnet is bisected perpendicular
the same
to its axis, the north and south pole get separated (b) the doped silicon piece will become n-type
(c) When a piece of bar magnet is bisected perpendicular (c) the doped silicon piece will become p~type
to its axis two new bar magnets are formed (d) the resistivity of the doped silicon piece will increase
(d) The poles of a bar magnet are unequal in magnitude 133. Suppose voltage V is applied across a resistance R, The
and opposite in nature power dissipated in the resistance is P. Now the same
121. A person rings a metallic bell near a strong concrete wall. voltage V is applied across a parallel combination of three
He hears the echo after 0.3 s. if the sound moves with a equal resistors each of resistance R. Then the power
speed of 340 m/s, how far is the wall from him? [2016-I] dissipated in the second case will be [2017-I]
(a) 102 m (b) 11 m (c) 51 m (d) 30 m (a) P (b) 3P (c) P/3 (d) 2P/3
122. The rate of change of momentum of a body equal of the 134. Which one of the following is not a semiconductor?
resultant : [2016-I] [2017-I]
(a) energy (b) power (c) force (d) impulse (a) Silicon (b) Germanium
123. The SI unit of mechanical power is : [2016-I] (c) Quartz (d) Gallium arsenide
(a) Joule (b) Watt 135. A parallel-plate capacitor, with air in between the plates,
(c) Newton-Second (d) Joule-Second has capacitance C. Now the space between the two plates
124. The spring constant of a spring depends on its[2016-II] of the capacitor is filled with a dielectric of dielectric
(a) length only constant 7. Then the value of the capacitance will become
(b) material only [2017-I]
(c) length and its diameter C
(d) thickness, its diameter and its material (a) C (b) (c) 7C (d) 14C
125. In a bipolar junction transistor [2016-II] 7
136. For which one of the following does the centre of mass lie
(a) all the three regions (the emitter, , the base and the
outside the body? [2017-I]
collector) have equal concentrations of impurity
(a) A fountain pen (b) A cricket ball
(b) the emitter has the least concentration of impurity
(c) A ring (d) A book
(c) the collector has the least concentration of impurity 137. Consider the electromagnetic radiations having
(d) the base has the least concentration of impurity wavelengths 200 nm, 500nm and 1000 nm. Which
126. The pressure exerted by a 760 mm column of mercury at wavelength(s) of the following can make visual sensation
0°C is known as [2016-II] to a human eye? [2017-I]
(a) 1 pascal (b) 1 atmosphere (a) 200 nm and 500 nm (b) 500 nm and 1000 nm
(c) 1 bar (d) 1 poise (c) 500 nm only (d) 200 nm and 1000 nm
EBD_7341
8 Physics
138. A copper wire of radius r and length l has a resistance of (a) The wavelength of infrared is more than that of
R. A second copper wire with radius 2r and length l is ultraviolet radiation.
taken and the two wires are joined in a parallel combination. (b) The wavelength of ultraviolet is smaller than that of
The resultant resistance of the parallel combination of the visible light.
two wires will be [2017-I] (c) The photon energy of visible light is more than that
4 R of infrared light.
5
(a) 5R (b) R (c) R (d) (d) The photon energy of ultraviolet is lesser than that
4 5 5 of visible light.
139. A parallel-plate capacitor of capacitance C1 is made using 146. After using for some time, big transformers get heated up.
two gold plates. Another parallel-plate capacitor of This is due to the fact that [2017-II]
capacitance C2 is made using two aluminium plates with 1. current produces heat in the transformers
same plate separation, and all the four plates are of same 2. hysteresis loss occurs in the transformers
area. If rg and ra are respectively the electrical resistivities 3. liquid used for cooling gets heated
of gold and aluminium, then which one of the following Select the correct answer using the code given below.
relations is correct? [2017-I] (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) C1 > C2 (b) C2 > C1 (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) C1Cra = C2Crg (d) C1 = C2 147. A person is standing on a frictionless horizontal ground.
140. A photon of X-ray has energy of 1 keV. A photon of visible How can he move by a certain distance on this ground?
radiation has energy of 3 eV. In this context, which one of [2017-II]
the following statements is not correct? [2017-I] (a) By sneezing (b) By jumping
(a) The wavelength of X-ray photon is less than the (c) By running (d) By rolling
wavelength of visible radiation photon. 148. Which one of the following types of glasses is used for
(b) Both the photons have different energies. making optical instruments? [2017-II]
(c) The speeds of both the photons in vacuum are (a) Pyrex glass (b) Soft glass
different. (c) Hard glass (d) Flint glass
(d) The frequency of X-ray photon is higher than the 149. Joule-Thomson process is extremely useful and economical
frequency of visible radiation photon. for attaining low temperature. The process can be categorized
141. The optical phenomenon that is primarily responsible for as [2017-II]
the observation of rainbow on a rainy day is [2017-I] (b) isobaric process (b) isoenthalpic process
(a) diffraction (b) interference (c) adiabatic process (d) isochoric process
(c) dispersion (d) reflection 150. Ultrasonic waves are produced by making use of
142. Which one of the following statements is not correct? [2017-II]
[2017-I] (a) ferromagnetic material (b) ferrimagnetic material
(a) The cathode rays originate from cathode and proceed (c) piezoelectric material (d) pyroelectric material
towards the anode in a cathode-ray discharge tube. 151. A person thrown an object on a horizontal frictionless
(b) The television picture tubes are nothing but cathode- plane surface. It is noticed that there are two forces acting
ray tubes. on this object– (i) gravitational pull and (ii) normal reaction
(c) The cathode rays themselves are not visible. of the surface. According to the third law of motion, the
(d) The characteristics of cathode rays depend upon net resultant force is zero. Which one of the following can
the nature of the gas present in the cathode-ray tube. be said for the motion of the object? [2017-II]
143. The wires are made having same length l and area of cross- (a) The object will move with acceleration.
section A. Wire 1 is made of copper and wire 2 is made of (b) The object will move with deceleration.
aluminium. It is given that the electrical conductivity of (c) The object will move with constant speed, but
copper is more than that of aluminium. In this context, varying direction.
which one of the following statements is correct? (d) The object will move with constant velocity.
[2017-II] 152. Desalination of seawater is done by using reverse osmosis.
(a) The resistance of wire 1 will be higher than that of The pressure applied to the solution is [2017-II]
wire 2. (a) larger than osmotic pressure
(b) The resistance of wire 2 will be higher than that of (b) smaller than osmotic pressure
wire 1. (c) equal to osmotic pressure
(c) The resistance of both the wires will be the same. (d) equal to atmospheric pressure
(d) If same current is flown through both the wires, the 153. Which one of the following elements is used as a
power dissipated in both the wires will be the same. timekeeper in atomic clocks? [2018-I]
144. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of (a) Potassium (b) Caesium
40° with respect to surface normal. When it gets reflected (c) Calcium (d) Magnesium
from the mirror, it undergoes a deviation of [2017-II] 154. Why is argon gas used along with tungsten wire in an
(a) 40° (b) 100° (c) 90° (d) 80° electric bulb? [2018-I]
145. Infrared, visible and ultraviolet radiations/light have (a) To increase the life of the bulb
different properties. Which one of the following (b) To reduce the consumption of electricity
statements related to these radiations/light is not correct? (c) To make the emitted light colored
[2017-II] (d) To reduce the cost of the bulb
Physics 9
155. Which one of the following is the correct relation 165. A particle moves with uniform acceleration along a
between the Kelvin temperature (T) and the Celsius straight line from rest. The percentage increase in
temperature (tc)? [2018-I] displacement during sixth second compared to that in
(a) These are two independent temperature scales fifth second is about [2018-II]
(b) T = tc (a) 11% (b) 22% (c) 33% (d) 44%
(c) T = tc – 273.15 166. If two miscible liquids of same volume but different
(d) T = tc + 273.15 densities PI and P2 are mixed, then the density of the
156. Sound waves cannot travel through a [2018-I] mixture is given by [2018-II]
(a) copper wire placed in air P1 + P2 2P1P2
(b) silver slab placed in air (a) (b) P + P
2 1 2
(c) glass prism placed in water
(d) wooden hollow pipe placed in vacuum 2P1P2 P1P2
157. Which one of the following is the value of one nanometer? (c) P1 - P2 (d) P1 + P2
[2018-I] r
(a) 10–7 cm (b) 10–6 cm (c) 10–4 cm (d) 10–3 cm 167. The position vector of a particle is r = 2t 2 xˆ + 3tyˆ + 4zˆ .
r r r
158. Consider the following statements : [2018-I] Then the instantaneous velocity v and a cceleration a
1. There is no net moment on a body which is in respectively lie [2018-II]
equilibrium. (a) on xy-plane and along z-direction
2. The momentum of a body is always conserved. (b) on yz-plane and along x-direction
3. The kinetic energy of an object is always conserved. (c) on yz-plane and along y-direction
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (d) on xy-plane and along x-direction
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only 168. Two persons are holding a rope of negligible mass
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 only horizontally. A 20 kg mass is attached to the rope at the
159. Working of safety fuses depends upon [2018-I] midpoint; as a result the rope deviates from the horizontal
1. magnetic effect of the current direction. The tension required to completely straighten
2. chemical effect of the current the rope is (g = 10 m /s2) [2018-II]
3. magnitude of the current (a) 200 N (b) 20 N
4. heating effect of the current (c) 10 N (d) infinitely large
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 169. Which one of the following does not convert electrical
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only energy into light energy? [2018-II]
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 4 only (a) A candle (b) A light-emitting diode
160. Which of the following represents a relation for ‘heat lost (c) A laser (d) A television set
= heat gained’? [2018-I] 170. The visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is
(a) Principle of thermal equilibrium (a) infrared (b) radiowave [2018-II]
(b) Principle of colors (c) microwave (d) light
(c) Principle of calorimetry 171. When a convex lens produces a real image of an object,
(d) Principle of vaporization the minimum distance between the object and image is
161. Two metallic wires made from copper have same length equal to [2018-II]
but the radius of wire 1 is half of that of wire 2. The (a) the focal length of the convex lens
resistance of wire 1 is R. If both the wires are joined (b) twice the focal length of the convex lens
together in series, the total resistance becomes [2018-I] (c) four times the focal length of the convex lens
(d) one half of the focal length of the convex lens
R 5 3 172. The direction of magnetic field at any location on the
(a) 2R (b) (c) R (d) R
2 4 4 earth’s surface is commonly specified in terms of
162. When the Sun is near the horizon during the morning or (a) field declination [2018-II]
evening, it appears reddish. The phenomenon that is (b) field inclination
responsible for this observation is [2018-I] (c) both field declination and field inclination
(a) reflection of light (b) refraction of light (d) horizontal component of the field
(c) dispersion of light (d) scattering of light 173. In which of the following, heat loss is primarily not due
163. A wire of copper having length l and area of cross-section to convection? [2018-II]
A is taken and a current I is flown through it. The power (a) Boiling water
dissipated in the wire is P. If we take an aluminium wire (b) Land and sea breeze
having same dimensions and pass the same current (c) Circulation of air around blast furnace
through it, the power dissipated will be [2018-I] (d) Heating of glass surface of a bulb due to current in filament
(a) P (b) < P (c) > P (d) 2P 174. If the wavelengths corresponding to ultraviolet, visible
164. The pressure of a fluid varies with depth h as P = P0 + rgh, and infrared radiations are given as lUV , lVIS and lIR
where r is the fluid density. This expression is associated respectively, then which one of the following gives the
with [2018-I] correct relationship among these wavelengths?[2019-I]
(a) Pascal’s law (b) Newton’s law (a) lUV < lIR < lVIS (b) lUV > lVIS > lIR
(c) Bernoulli’s principle (d) Archimede’s principle (c) lUV > lIR > lVIS (d) lUV < lVIS < lIR
EBD_7341
10 Physics
175. An electron and a proton starting from rest get accelerated (c) actual size of specimen – observed size
through potential difference of 100 kV. The final speeds of (d) actual size of specimen ´ observed size
the electron and the proton are Ve and Vp respectively. 187. Consider the following statements : [2019-II]
Which one of the following relations is correct? [2019-I] 1. Particles of matter intermix on their own.
(a) Ve > VP (b) Ve < VP 2. Particles of matter have force acting between them.
(c) Ve = VP (d) Cannot be determined Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
r r (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
176. If two vectors A and B are at an angle then [2019-I]
r r r r r r r r (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2.
(a) | A | + | B | =| A + B | (b) | A | + | B | > | A + B | 188. If an object is at rest, then the time (X-axis) versus distance
r r r r r r r r (Y-axis) graph [2019-II]
(c) | A | + | B |< | A + B | (d) | A | + | B |=| A - B | (a) is vertical (b) is horizontal
177. When hot water is placed into an empty water bottle, the (c) has 45° positive slope (d) has 45° negative slope
bottle keeps its shape and does not soften. What type of 189. If the speed of a moving magnet inside a coil increases,
plastic is the water bottle made from? [2019-I] the electric current in the coil [2019-II]
(a) Thermoplastic (b) PVC (a) increases (b) decreases
(c) Polyurethane (d) Thermosetting (c) reverses (d) remains the same
178. Which one of the following methods is/are state function/ 190. The frequency (in Hz) of a note that is one octave higher
functions? [2019-I] than 500 Hz is [2019-II]
1. q + w 2. q 3. w 4. H - TS (a) 375 (b) 750 (c) 1000 (d) 2000
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 191. A car undergoes a uniform circular motion. The
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 , 2 and 4 acceleration of the car is [2019-II]
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 only (a) zero
179. For a certain reaction, DGq = -45 kJ/mol and DHq = -90 kJ / (b) a non-zero constant
mol at 0°C. What is the minimum temperature at which (c) a non-zero but not a constant
the reaction will become spontaneous, assuming that DHq (d) None of the above
and DSq are independent of temperture? [2019-I] 192. An echo is heard after 5 seconds of the production of
(a) 273 K (b) 298 K (c) 546 K (d) 596 K sound which moves with a speed of 340 m/s. What is the
180. In spherical polar coordinates (g, q, a), q denotes the distance of the mountain from the source of sound which
polar angle around z-axis and a denotes the azimuthal produced the echo ? [2019-II]
ur (a) 0.085km (b) 0. 85 km (c) 0.17 km (d) 1 . 7 km
angle raised from x-axis. Then the y-component of P is
given by [2019-I] 193. A 100 W electric bulb is used for 10 hours a day. How
(a) P sin q sina (b) P sin q cos a many units of energy are consumed in 30 days ? [2019-II]
(c) P cos q sin a (d) P cos q cos a (a) 1 (b) 10 (c) 30 (d) 300
181. For an ideal gas, which one of the following statements 194. Scattering of a-particles by a thin gold foil suggests the
does not hold true? [2019-I] presence of [2020-I]
(a) The speed of all gas molecules is same. (a) electron in an atom
(b) The kinetic energies of all gas molecules are not same. (b) proton in an atom
(c) The potential energy of the gas molecules is zero. (c) positively charged nucleus at the centre of an atom
(d) There is no interactive force between the molecules. (d) isotopes of gold
182. The Hooke’s law is valid for [2019-I] 195. The property of the sound waves that determines the
(a) only proportional region of the stress-strain curve pitch of the sound is its [2020-I]
(b) entire sress-strain curve (a) frequency (b) amplitude
(c) entire elastic region of the stress-strain curve (c) wavelength (d) intensity
(d) elastic as well as plastic region of the stress-strain curve 196. Which one of the following is not a property of the
183. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of X-rays? [2020-I]
passage of light in a compound microscope? [2019-I] (a) They are deflected by electric fields.
(a) Condenser - Objective lens-Eye-piece - Body tube (b) They are not deflected by magnetic fields.
(b) Objective lens - Condenser-Body tube-Eyepiece (c) They have high penetration length in matter.
(c) Condenser-Objective lens-Body tube-Eyepiece (d) Their wavelength is much smaller than that of visible
(d) Eyepiece-Objective lens-Body tube-Mirror light.
184. Soap solution used for cleaning purpose appears cloudy. 197. Which one of the following is not true about the image
This is due to the fact that soap micelles can [2019-II] formed by a plane mirror? [2020-I]
(a) refract light (b) scatter light (a) It is of the same size as the subject.
(c) diffract light (d) polarize light (b) It is laterally inverted.
185. People prefer to wear cotton clothes in summer season. (c) It is real image.
This is due to the fact that cotton clothes are [2019-II] (d) It is formed as far behind the mirror as the object is in front.
(a) good absorbers of water (b) good conveyors of heat 198. In a periscope, the two plane mirrors are kept [2020-I]
(c) good radiators of heat (d) good absorbers of heat (a) parallel to each other
186. Magnification is [2019-II] (b) perpendicular to each other
(a) actual size of specimen/observed size (c) at an angle of 60° with each other
(b) observed size of specimen/actual size (d) at an angle of 45° with each other
Physics 11
199. If the speed of light in air is 3 ´ 108 m/s, then the speed of 202. If x is the temperature of a system in Kelvin and y is the
3 temperature of the system in °C, then the correct relation
light in a medium of refractive index is [2020-I] between them is [2020-I]
2
(a) x = 273 – y (b) x = 273 + y
9 (c) x = 173 + y (d) x = 173 –y
(a) 2 ´ 108 m/s (b) ´ 108 m/s
4 203. The resistivity r of a material may be expressed in units of
3 [2020-I]
(c) ´ 108 m /s (d) 3 ´ 108 m/s
2 (a) ohm (b) ohm/cm
200. Which one of the following types of radiation has the (c) ohm-cm (d) ohm-cm2
shortest wavelength? [2020-I] 204. The electromagnetic waves, which are used for satellite
(a) Radio waves (b) Visible light communication, are [2020-I]
(c) Infrared (IR) (d) Ultraviolet (UV) (a) infrared radiations (b) ultraviolet radiations
201. The unit of the force constant k of a spring is [2020-I] (c) radio waves (d) visible lights
(a) N-m (b) N/m (c) N-m2 (d) N/m2
1. (b) Jagdish Chandra Bose was elected as a fellow of the X-rays and UV rays are electromagnetic wave, so they move
Royal Society of London for his contribution in the field with same velocity in vacuum i.e. 3 × 108 m/s.
of Plant Physiology and Physics. 16. (a) The permissible level is 50 dB.
2. (c) Steam burns are more serious than burns from boiling 17. (c) Infrared rays helps in reading an old written material.
water even though both are at 100°C becasue when steam 18. (c) An Earthquake is the result of a sudden release of
condenses it give up very high heat energy i.e. additional energy in the Earth's crust that creates seismic waves.
22.6 × 10 5 joule of heat (latent heat of vapourisation) 19. (b) A laser is a device that emits coherent light through
compared to boiling water. a process called stimulated emission.
3. (b) The rays of light are scattered by the fog droplets 20. (c) A perfect black body emits and absorbs all colours
due to which it become difficult to see through fog. of light. A good absorber is a good emitter.
4. (d) Density of water is maximum at 4°C. 21. (c) Centrifugal force separates fat from milk.
5. (a) Edwin Hubble gave the first evidence of the big- 22. (a)
bang theory. 23. (b) When brush is taken out, the water film is formed
6. (b) The given situation can be shown as between the hairs and they contract due to surface tension.
N 24. (c) The appearance of blue colour of sky is due to scattering
A B of light which is not possible in absence of atmosphere.
25. (a) The tanning and sun burning of human skin is due
to the harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
u 2 sin 2q
26. (c) Horizontal range R =
g
30° 30°
For maximum horizontal range q should be 45°
ir
u2
O
Rmax =
g
[Q sin 2q = sin 90° = 1]
By law of reflection, angle of incidence i is equal to angle 27. (c) By the relation in different temperature scales
of reflection r
Total deviation of ray = 30° + 30° = 60° C-0 F - 32 K - 273 R - 0
= = =
7. (d) To keep the outside heat away, windows of double- 5 9 5 4
pane glass with air in between is the best choice because We can calculate that temperature which differ by 10° on
air is the bad conductor of heat. the celsius scale must differ by 18° on the fahrenheit scale.
8. (c) 1 Bar = 105 Pa. Both bar and Pa are the unit of pressure. 28. (c) Diffraction pattern becomes narrower and crowded
9. (c) Rocket works on the principle of conservation of together.
linear momentum. 29. (a) Raw mangoes shrivel when pickled in brine due to
10. (a) In a pressure cooker while cooking pressure increases osmosis i.e. flow of water from higher concentration to
due to which boiling point of water also increases as P µ T . lower concentration through a semi-permeable membrane.
11. (d) Total internal reflection is responsible for mirage 30. (a) When a body immersed in a liquid, then the apparent
formation in deserts. weight of the body depends upon the densities of the
12. (b) Transformer is based on the principle of mutual induction. liquids and volume of the portion of the solid immersed in
13. (a) Curvature of the earth does not allow the television liquid. So, the apparent weight of a steel sphere will be
signals to be received beyond a particular distance. greatest for the liquid with the smallest density.
14. (c) Velocity of raindrop increases until it reaches the F
31. (d) As we know, F = ma or a =
terminal velocity. m
15. (b) X-rays cannot be deflected by magnetic field as they 1N
consists of no charge. \a= = 1 m/s2
1kg
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12 Physics
32. (d) When a athlete jumps from the spring board, he curls 50. (b) It will heat the room because the heat removed from
his body by rolling his arms and legs in. By doing so, he the inside is released into the room, counter acting any
decreases moment of inertia of his body and hence angular cooling, plus the energy that is used to operate the
speed increases to conserve the angular momentum, as I1 compressor eventually winds up being heat, therefore
w1 = I2 w2 = constant. increasing the room temperature.
33. (b) Pressure is normal force per unit area, therefore, for 51. (b) The focal length of a convex lens is shorter for blue
lesser value of area pressure is greatest. light than for red.
34. (a) As the passenger tosses the coin, it goes up and is 52. (a) As the plug is pulled out, the value of resistance in
in motion with the initial speed of the train but if the train is the circuit decreases and hence more current tries to flow
accelerated, so its speed increases. But the coin is in the air through the circuit. Pulling out the plug breaks the circuit
with initial speed of train, so the train slightly moves forward and to complete the circuit for the flow of electricity a
from the coin with the person and coin falls behind him. It spark is observed.
happens when train is moving with accelerated motion.
53. (b) Time period of a simple pendulum
1
35. (a) As, scattering µ 4 l
l T = 2p depends on its length 'l ' and acceleration due
Since, wavelength of blue colour is least among three g
primary colours red, green and blue, so violet colour to gravity 'g' and independent of mass of the bob.
scattered most. The scattered light in the sky contains 54. (a) Pressure exerted by the fluid column depends on height
blue colour in plenty and therefore sky appears blue. (h), density r and acceleration due to gravity (g).
36. (c) The restoring force acting on the particle is always P = hrg
proportional to the displacement of the particle from the i.e. independent of area of cross-section of the vessel.
equilibrium position and is always directed towards the 55. (a) Sonar (sound navigation and ranging) is a technique
equilibrium position. that uses sound propagation to navigate (usually under
37. (a) For ordinary water and glass it is about 8° (acute angle) water, as in submarine navigation), communicate with or
and for mercury and glass it is about 135° (obtuse angle). detect objects on or under the surface of the water, such
38. (d) Copper is a good conductor of both heat an as the vessels as ultrasonic waves which is used having
electricity due to this it is used in all such appliance where very high frequency > 20,000 Hz.
quick heat transfer is required. 56. (b)
39. (a) Ice under black wrap will melt easily because dark 57. (c) Turbulent flow is accompanied by random, irregular,
colour (black) absorbs the most of light energy falling on it. local circular currents called vortices.
40. (b) As scuba driver ascends towards the water surface, 58. (b)
water pressure decreases, so according to Boyle's law air in 59. (b) Barium is a good absorber of X-rays and helps
his lungs expands to occupy a greater volume. Which stomach to appear clearly.
increase the chances of bursting the lungs. 60. (d) As white colour reflects all the components of white
41. (b) Blackboard absorbs all the colours of light falling on it
light and black colour absorbs all the components of white
and does not reflect any colour due to which it appears black.
light. So, the best colours for a sun umbrella, white on top
42. (b) The hollow bricks provide thermal insulations; the
air in hollow bricks, does not allow outside heat or cold in and black on inside.
the house to go out or come in the house. So, it keeps 61. (a) When ice melts its density increases i.e. its volume
house cool in summer and warm in winter. decreases. Mass is an invariant quantity.
43. (c) When a body is immersed in a fluid, the fluid exerts 62. (a) In step-down transformer Np > Ns, Ep > Es, Ip < Is
an upward force on it, called buoyant force. Here N, E and I used for no. of turns, emf and current
and buoyant force µ density of fluid. respectively.
As the density of sea water is higher than that of the fresh 63. (a) A rectifier is used to convert AC voltage into DC
water. voltage and invertor converts DC voltage into AC voltage.
So extra buoyant force and ship will rise a little higher. 64. (a) It is easier to move any body by pulling it than by
44. (c) In automobiles, convex mirror is used as a rear view pushing it. A body starts to move when the applied force
mirror because the image of the vehicle formed is small in is more than the frictional force. This frictional force is
size due to this the field of view is increased and the proportional to the weight of the body under which it
driver of automobile can see the traffic over large area. acts. When the lawn roller is pushed by the force (F), the
45. (a) As the cat falls from a height, it bends the legs to vertical component of the pushing force now increases
absorb the impact of falling and immediately adjust itself. the weight (w = mg) of the roller which in turn results in
46. (c) Fire fly gives us cold light due to chemiluminescence increase of normal reaction and hence the friction is more.
i.e. light produced by chemical reaction. force
47. (c) Transformer is an appliance that can increase or 65. (c) Pressure =
area
decrease voltage. Bluntness of knife increases area, hence decreases the
48. (d) Mass of an object does not change when an objects pressure for a given force.
location changes. It is the weight of the body (w = mg) 66. (b) When deep sea fishes are brought to the surface of
which changes with value of 'g' at that place. the sea, their bodies burst, this is because the blood in
49. (b) When a ball drops on to the floor then floor exerts a their bodies flows at very high pressure.
force for small time which is equal to change in momentum
300 + 300
of the ball. total distance
67. (a) Average speed = = 300 300
total time +
50 60
Physics 13
æ distance ö 85. (b) When current flows through the filament of

çQ Time = ÷ incandescent electric bulb, it gets heated up. Soon it
è speed ø becomes white hot and starts emitting light.
300 + 300 600 86. (b) We know from Newton’s second law of motion
= = = 54.55 km/h
6+5 11 dP
68. (c) Capacitor (condenser) is used to store energy in an Fext = when dt is more Fext will be less.
dt
electric field. Capacitance of a capacitor C, defined as the The greater the rate of change of momentum, the greater
ratio of charge ± Q on each conductor to the voltage V is the force and vice-versa.
between them.
Q 87. (a) Two layers of a cloth are warmer because air trapped
C= between the layers acts as thermal insulator restricting
V the heat transfer.
69. (a) Fountain pen uses capillary action in addition to
gravity for flow of ink. 88. (c) A mobile phone charger is basically a step-down
70. (b) If two conducting spheres are separately charged and transformer which converts high voltage to low voltage.
brought in contact, then the total charge on the two spheres 89. (a) Image formed by a plane and a convex mirror is always
is conserved. This is the law of conservation of charge. erect. Concave mirror forms image both erect and inverted
71. (c) depends on the position of the object from the mirror.
72. (b) The degree celsius (°C) can refer to absolute temperature. 90. (a) From the ray diagram, it is very clear that the image
73. (b) Light Emitting Diode (LED) is semiconductor device of the object placed at infinity from a concave lens is
– a forward bias p-n junction diode which converts virtual diminished and at the focus of the lens.
electrical energy into light energy.
74. (b) Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DEXA) is used Rays from
to measure the density or strength of bones. the object
75. (a) The sun is the star at the centre of the solar system. placed at F
It generates its energy by nuclear fusion of hydrogen infinity
nuclei into helium.
2 Concave lens
1H + 1H 2 + 1H2 ®2 He4 +1H 1 + 0n1 + 21.6 Mev 91. (a) The upper and lower portions in common type of
76. (c) Diffusion refers to the process by which molecules bifocal lenses are concave and convex respectively.
intermingle as a result of their kinetic energy of random 92. (d) Tungsten has the highest melting point and lowest
motion. vapour pressure of all metals.
77. (d) Hydrogen ion has one proton i.e. , 1H1. Atomic 93. (b) The inert gas within the bulb prevents the filament from
number = no. of proton =1 for atom like hydrogen. evaporating.Thus it increases the life of the filament.
78. (d) Different colours in increasing order of their wavelength: 94. (b) Short wavelength is slowed down and refracted the most
violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. 95. (c) Oscilloscope is an instrument which allows us to see
79. (a) The light wave with shortest wavelength i.e. violet waves produced by sound. The microphone can then pick
refracts the most. up the sound and convert it to an electrical signal which
80. (a) All of these forces doesn’t need any physical contact can be displayed on the oscilloscope.
to exist hence, non-contact forces. 96. (c) Maximum n of electrons in K,L, M and N is 2, 8, 18
81. (b) When an object reflects all the colours of a white and 32 respectively.
light, then it would appear white. White light is the 97. (c) Moderators like carbon and Graphite are used for
combination of all seven colours (VIBGYOR) of light. slowing down the neutrons in a nuclear reactor. Neutrons
82. (c) Motion of an oscillating liquid column in a U-tube is
from fission have very high speeds and must be slowed
called simple harmonic motion with time period
greatly by "moderation" to maintain the chain reaction.
independent of on the density of the liquid.
98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (a)
83. (a) One end of hairpin shaped detergents attracted to 101. (a) g - rays are the most penetrating rays
water and other to molecules of oil or grease that reduces
b - particles are moderately penetrating and
drastically the surface tension between water and oil.
a - particles are least penetrating.
84. (a) Displacement = Shortest distance between initial and
102. (b) The distance between person and his image is 60 cm × 2
final point = 0
= 1.2 m
Distance travelled by you = 2pr 103. (b) Gravitational force is attractive only whereas the electric
(Circumference of the circular track)
and magnetic forces are attractive as well as repulsive.
104. (b) Creation of something from nothing is against the
law of conservation of mass energy.
mv 2
35 m 105. (b) Centripetal force =
r
Given that,
Mass of proton = 2000 × mass of electron
Radius and speed is same for both proton and electron
22 22 \ Centripetal force a mass
= 2´ ´ 35 = 70 ´ = 220m
7 7 Since mass of proton is 2000 times that of mass of electron,
EBD_7341
14 Physics
hence the centripetal force required by proton is about 124. (d) F = – kx; k = spring constant and it measures stiffness
2000 times more than that required by the electron. or softness of spring.
106. (a) 107. (d) Hence. K depends on length, radius and material of the spring.
108. (d) Manganin is a trademarked name for an alloy of 125. (a) A Bipolar Junction Transistor, or BJT, is a solid-state
typically 86% copper, 12% manganese, and 2% nickel. device in which the current flow between two terminals
Constantan is a copper-nickel alloy usually consisting (the collector and the emitter) is controlled by the amount
of 55% copper and 45% nickel. Its main feature is its of current that flows through a third terminal (the base).
resistivity which is constant over a wide range of 126. (b) 76cm Hg = 760 mmHg = 1 atm = 101325 Pa
temperatures. Other alloys with similarly low temperature (mmHg = milimeters of mercury)
coefficients are manganin. (atm = atmosphere)
109. (b) Graphite is used in making lead pencils due to its (Pa = Pascal = N/m2, SI unit for pressure)
ability to leave marks on paper and other objects. Pencil 127. (b) The dimension of Plank's contant can be obtained
lead is most commonly a mix of powdered graphite and clay. from any of the equations in which it appears, e.g. h = E/
110. (b) Sodium metal should be stored in kerosene oil. Sodium n, l = h/p, etc.
is a very reactive metal. It is kept in kerosene to prevent it Planck's Constant h = 6.626176 × 10–34 joule-second
from coming in contact with oxygen and moisture. If this = 6.626176 × 10–34 m2 kg/s
happens, it will react with the moisture present in air and [h] = [M L2 T–1] _____________(1)
form sodium hydroxide. This is a strongly exothermic Angular momentum l = r × p
reaction, and lot of heat is generated. Thus sodium is kept [l] = [r] [p]
under kerosene. = [L] [M L T–1]
111. (d) Mechanical energy is the ability of an object to do = [M L2 T–1] _____________(2)
work. This energy is equal to the sum of kinetic and Compare Eqs. (1) and (2). See that both the Planck's constant
potential energy, it is always constant. and angular momentum have the same dimensions.
112. (d) X-rays are electro magnetic radiations. It has 128. (b)
penetrating ability, so it is used in radiography, airport 129. (a) As per the formula Energy of Photon is always equal
railway security and CT scanning. It is not affected by to the multiple of the Momentum and Speed of light.
electric and magnetic fields. Therefore; P=E/C Where P is Momentum, E is Energy
113. (a) The focal length of the lens of a normal human eye is and C is Speed of Light
about 2.5 cm. The eye sets focus on a thing by adjusting the 10 MeV/C=E/C ;{P (Momentum) = 10MeV/C; as given in
eye ball. The lens flexes its curvature to focus on the objects. Question}
114. (d) Newton's laws of motion do not hold good for objects E= 10 MeV
moving with velocity comparable to velocity of light 130. (c) Liquids and gases show diamagnetic, paramagnetic
because it does not follow it on this level. and electromagnetic property, but it never show
115. (d) Mass is the quantity of matter contained by the ferromagnetic property.
object. Weight is the force of gravity acting on a body. 131. (c)
Mass is constant anywhere in the universe but weight 132. (c) Aluminium is a p-type dopant, which means that
depends upon the quantity of gravity in a particular place. when a semiconductor (silicon in this case) is doped with
116. (c) An object falling from height will show constant aluminium, it creates a hole (positively charged carrier)
velocity so the acceleration will be constant. by accepting an electron from the silicon atom. Electrical
117. (d) In convex mirrors, the image is smaller than the object. conductivity of semiconductors increase and resistivity
This mirror provides a wider scope of view so it becomes remains same.
easy for vehicles use. 133. (b) Power (P) across a resistor = V2/R; In the first case,
118. (b) The sound waves having frequency below 20 Hz are P1 = V2/R1
inaudible. Ultrasonic waves are those waves which have In the second case, equivalent resistant of parallel
the frequency of above 20,000 Hz. combination = R/3
119. (d) The nature of the lens used to correct myopic eye is Power in second case (P2) = (V2)/(R/3) = 3V2/R, So, P1/P2
a concave lens. = 1/3 or P2 = 3P1
134. (c) Semiconductors are solid substances that show
1 1 1 100 electrical conductivity either with the addition of an
\ D = = f (metre) = = = = 0.80 metre = 80 cm
f D 1.25 125 impurity or because of temperature effects. Silicon,
120. (c) If any magnet is divided into two parts, every part Germanium, and Galium Arsenide are semiconductors as
will be a new magnet. they show electrical conductivity depending on the
121. (c) Let the distance is x metre. addition of impurity and temperature. Quartz is an
Distance = Velocity × Time insulator.
x = 340 × 0.3 = 102 metre (This is the total distance) 135. (c) 7C
102 K Îo A
\ The distance of wall is = 51 metre. Capacitance =
2 d
122. (c) Newton's 2nd Law - The rate of Change of momentum
[A = Area of each plate.
always acts in the direction of resultant force acting on a
body Þ (F = ma) (where m = mass; a = aceeleration) Îo = Permitivit of free space.
123. (b) Watt is the SI unit of mechanical power. d = distance between plate.
Physics 15
k1 = dielectric constant.] process or Joule–Thomson process. Since there is no
Since, K1 = hence new capacitance will be 7C. heat being exchanged it is adiabatic in nature.
136. (c) The centre of mass of a body is the point where the 150. (c) Ultrasonic waves are generated by a transducer that
whole mass of a body is considered to be concentrated. includes a piezoelectric crystal that converts electrical
It may lie within or outside the body of an object. Fountain energy (electric current) to mechanical energy (sound
pen, cricket ball and book are all compact body and their waves).
centre of gravity lie within the body. The centre of mass 151. (d) The object will move with constant velocity.
152. (a) Desalination by RO requires the use of an osmotic
of a ring is at its centre which is outside its body.
membrane. The higher the applied pressure above the
137. (c) Visual sensation or the perceptual experience of
osmotic pressure, the higher the rate of fresh water
seeing an object is related to the visible spectrum, which transports across the membranes.
is the region of the electromagnetic radiation that is visible 153. (b) The principle of operation of an atomic clock is based
to the human eye. Electromagnetic radiation in this range on atomic physics. It uses the microwave signal that
of wavelengths (390-700 nm) is called visible light. 200 and electrons in atoms emit when they change energy levels.
1000 nm do not lie in the visible range of wavelength. An atomic clock uses an electron transition frequency in
l R the microwave, optical, or ultraviolet region of the
138. (d) R = P The new resistance will be and resultant electromagnetic spectrum of atoms as a frequency
A 4
standard for its timekeeping element. Caesium-based
R atomic clocks use the electromagnetic transitions of
resistance will be
5 caesium-133 atoms as a reference point. Caesium is a
139. (d) Capacitance is defined as the ability of a system to chemical element with symbol Cs and atomic number 55.
store electric charge and can be calculated by the formula, It is a soft, silvery-gold alkali metal.
C = Q/V, where ‘Q’ is the charge stored on each plate and 154. (a) Argon gas is used in fluorescent and incandescent
‘V’ is the applied electric potential across the plates light bulbs to stop the oxygen in the light bulbs from
capacitors. Capacitance does not depend on the electrical corroding the hot tungsten filament. The use of argon in
resistivities of the material of capacitors. light bulbs prevents the evaporation of the tungsten
140. (c) Electromagnetic radiation consists of photons which filaments, which results in increased light bulb life.
move at speed of light within a vacuum. 155. (d) Temperature in Kelvin = Temperature in Celsius scale
141. (c) Rainbow can be seen on a rainy day due to the + 273.15
phenomena of dispersion, which is an optical process 156. (d) Sound cannot travel through a vacuum. A vacuum
involving splitting of white light into its constituent is an area without any air, like space. So sound cannot
colors while passing through a lighter to heavier medium. travel through space because there is no matter for the
vibrations to work in.
On a rainy day, white light gets dispersed into its seven
157. (a) 1 nanometer = 0.00000010 centimeters (cm) or 10–7 cm
colors while passing through rain drops.
158. (c) Kinetic energy (KE) is the energy of motion, and
142. (d) Cathode ray is a beam of electrons emitted from the kinetic energy is not always conserved in a collision.
cathode of a vacuum tube. It is invisible. Cathode ray Kinetic energy has the equation (1/2)mv2.
tubes are also found in televisions and computer 159. (c) The speed at which a fuse blows depends on how
monitors. Since cathode ray is a beam of electrons and all much current flows through it and the material of which
electrons are identical, charge to mass ratio is same for the fuse is made. It therefore depends on magnitude and
all the gases and does not depend on the nature of gas. heating effect of the current.
143. (b) The resistance of wire 2 will be higher than that of wire 160. (c) When the two bodies are isolated from their
1. surroundings, the amount of heat lost by the hot body
144. (d) the ray of light will undergo a deviation of 80 degrees. must be equal to the amount of heat gained by the cold
145. (d) The photon energy of ultraviolet is lesser than that body. The same principle is used in calorimetry. As heat
of visible light. is energy in transit, this principle is really just conservation
146. (d) After using for some time, big transformers get heated of energy.
up. This is due to the fact that current produces heat in the 161. (c) Use the equation R = rho * l / A, Where R = resistance;
transformers, hysteresis loss occurs in the transformers, l = length; A = cross sectional area, rho = resistivity.
liquid used for cooling gets heated. Assume the wires are circular cross section. Wire 1 has
147. (a) Sneezing and farting would move a person standing resistance R. Wire 2 is the same length, but twice the
on the frictionless ground. Any expulsion of fluids should radius, so 4 times the cross sectional area. So wire 2 has a
propel the man into motion. Sneezing would result him resistance of R/4.
moving in the direction his back faces and farting would So total resistance of 2 in series = R + R/4 = 5/4 * R
get him forward. The basic principle that governance his 162. (d) According to Rayleigh''s law, the intensity of scattered
movement is, in the horizontal plane is that no external
light varies inversely as the fourth power of its wavelength.
force acts on the body so his momentum can’t change.
Sunlight consists of seven colours. Of these, red has the
148. (c) Hard glass is used for making hard glass laboratory
apparatus. maximum wavelength. During sunrise and sunset, the rays
149. (c) In thermodynamics, the Joule–Thomson effect have to travel a larger part of the atmosphere because they
describes the temperature change of a real gas or liquid are very close to the horizon. Therefore, light other than red
when it is forced through a valve or porous plug while is mostly scattered away. Most of the red light, which is the
keeping them insulated so that no heat is exchanged with least scattered, enters our eyes. Hence, the sun and the sky
the environment. This procedure is called a throttling appear red.
EBD_7341
16 Physics
163. (c) A wire of copper having length l and area of cross section gas, and all gases at the same temperature have the same
A is taken and a current I is flown through it. The power average kinetic energy.
dissipated in the wire is P. If we take an aluminium wire having 182. (a) Hooke's law is only really valid up to the proportionality
same dimensions and pass the same current through it, the limit, and this is simply because Hooke's law is a
power dissipated will be > P. proportionality law, i.e. Force is proportional to extension.
164. (a) Pascal's principle, also called Pascal's law, in fluid 183. (c) Correct sequence of passage of light in a compound
(gas or liquid) mechanics, statement that, in a fluid at rest microscope: light source-condenser-specimen-objective
in a closed container, a pressure change in one part is lens-ocular lens-body tube-eyepiece.
transmitted without loss to every portion of the fluid and 184. (b) When soap is mixed in water a colloidal solution is
to the walls of the container. formed. The soap solution has soap micelles which are
165. (b) We know that Snth = u + 1 /2 a(2n “ 1) an aggregate of soap molecules. These micelles are large
u= 0 and they scatter light. That is why the soap solution
S6 = 0 + 1 /2 a(2 × 6 – 1) = 11/ 2 a appears cloudy.
S5 = 0 + 1 /2 a(2 × 65– 1) = 9 /2 a 185. (a) Cotton readily absorbs water. This is because the
So, the percent increase = S6th–S5th /S5th × 100 fibers of the cotton have a lot of space between them. ...
= ( 11/ 2 a– 9/ 2 a)/ (9/ 2 ×a) × 100 One reason cellulose makes cotton absorbent is that it
Þ 2/ 9 × 100 Þ 22% contains a negative charge, which helps attract “dipolar”
166. (*) water molecules and absorb them. Another reason is
167. (d) On xy-plane and along x-direction cotton’s “hydrophilic properties.”
168. (d) Let T be the tension in the rope: 2Tcos¸ = mg 186. (b) Magnification is the process of enlarging the
Where q = 90°, apparent size, not physical size, of something. This
T = mg/ 2cos90, enlargement is quantified by a calculated number also
cos90 = 0 called “magnification”. When this number is less than
one, it refers to a reduction in size, sometimes called
So = mg 0 = ¥,
minification or de-magnification.
T = ¥ Hence tension will be infinite.
187. (c) A matter is anything that has mass and occupies space.
169. (a) The heat from the wick melts the wax which gets
Pen, paper, clips, sand, air, ice, etc. are different forms of
absorbed in the wick and then gets burnt (which is really
matter. Every matter is made up of tiny particles. These
oxidation) to produce heat energy as well as light energy.
particles are so tiny that they can’t be seen with naked
170. (d) The visible spectrum is the portion of the
eyes.
electromagnetic spectrum that is visible to the human eye.
Every substance is made up of particles. These particles
Electromagnetic radiation in this range of wavelengths is exhibit some characteristics. They can influence the state
called visible light or simply light. A typical human eye will and properties (physical and chemical) of a substance.
respond to wavelengths from about 380 to 740 nanometers. The five characteristics shown by particles of matter are
171. (c) Let the distance between the object and its real as follows.
image formed by a convex lens be d1. Let the distance of 1. All matter is made of particles
the object from the lens be x, 2. Particles have space between them
So the image distance from the lens is (d – N), 3. Particles are always moving
Then x = d±Öd2–4 f d z 4. Particles move faster and get farther apart when heated
For real value of x, d 2 ³ 4f d d ³ 4f 5. Particles are attracted to each other
Therefore the minimum distance the objects and its real 188. (b) The distance-time graph determines the change in the
image formed by convex lens is 4f. position of the object. The speed of the object as well can
172. (c) The direction of the magnetic field at any location be determined using the line graph. Here the time lies on the
on Earth›s surface is commonly specified in terms of two
x-axis while the distance on the y-axis. The line graph of
angles. The angle of the magnetic north relative to the
uniform motion is always a straight line or Horizontal.
true north is called the Declination or the Variation. When
189. (a) The speed of the electric current would increase.
we are facing the Magnetic North, the angle that field
Increasing the speed of the relative motion between the coil
makes with the Horizontal is called the Inclination or
and the magnet – If the same coil of wire passed through the
Magnetic dip.
173. (d) Convection is transfer of heat through more and in same magnetic field but its speed or velocity is increased,
bulb transfer due to radiation. the wire will cut the lines of flux at a faster rate so more
174. (d) 175. (a) 176. (a) induced emf would be produced.
177. (d) Thermoset, or thermosetting, plastics are synthetic 190. (c) An octave can defined as interval between two
materials that strengthen during being heated, but cannot points where the frequency at the second point is twice
be successfully remolded or reheated after their initial heat- the frequency of the first. f = 1000 Hz. Thus, the
forming. This is in contrast to thermoplastics, which soften frequency of a note that is one octave higher than 500
when heated and harden and strengthen after cooling. Hz is 1000 Hz.
178. (a) 179. (c) 180. (a) 191. (c) Uniform circular motion is accelerated because the
181. (b) Gas particles are small and the total volume occupied velocity changes due to continuous change in the
by gas molecules is negligible relative to the total volume direction of motion. So even when the body moves to a
of their container. The average kinetic energy of gas constant speed its velocity is not constant. Therefore
particles is proportional to the absolute temperature of the circular motion is an acceleration motion even when the
speed remains constant.
Physics 17
Uniform circular motion can be described as the motion 198. (a) A simple periscope is just a long tube with a mirror
of an object in a circle at a constant speed. As an object at each end. The mirrors are fitted into each end of the
moves in a circle, it is constantly changing its direction. tube as shown in the figure. Hence, there are 2 plane
At all instances, the object is moving tangent to the circle. mirrors used which are placed parallel to each other.
Since the direction of the velocity vector is the same as 199. (a) Refractive index of a medium
the direction of the object’s motion, the velocity vector Speed of light in air
is directed tangent to the circle as well. =
192. (b) Duration = 2.5seconds Speed of light in medium
Speed = 340 m/s
3 3 ´ 108
Distance = speed × time =
2.5×340 = 850m or 0.85 km is the distance between the 2 Speed of light in medium
source and the mountain
193. (c) A kilowatt-hour is 1,000 watts used for one hour. As 3 ´ 108
Speed of light in medium = ´2
an example, a 100-watt light bulb operating for ten hours 3
would use one kilowatt-hour. = 2 × 108 m/s
How to calculate electric usage cost: 200. (d) The higher energy, shorter wavelength far UV region
1. Volts × Amps = Watts spans wavelengths between 91 and 200 nm. Extreme UV
2. Watts ÷ 1,000 = Kilowatts (kW) radiation has the shortest wavelength range and highest
3. Kilowatts (kW) × Hours of Use = Kilowatt Hours energies of the regions of the ultraviolet spectrum and lies on
(kWh) the border between UV and X-ray radiation.
A 100-Watt bulb if kept on for 10 hours will consume: 100 201. (b) In SI units, displacements are measured in meters
× 10 = 1000 Watt-Hour = 1 Kilowatt-Hour (kWH) = 1 unit (m), and forces in newtons (N or kg·m/s2). Therefore, the
194. (c) Scattering of a- Particles by a thin gold foil suggest spring constant k, and each element of the tensor , is
the presence of Positively charged nucleus at the centre measured in newtons per meter (N/m), or kilograms per
of an atom.Experiment was performed by Rutherford in second squared (kg/s2).
which he allowed a beam of a- Particles to fallon a thin 201. (b) Temperature in Kelvin = 273+ temperature in °C
gold foil. Temperature in Kelvin = x (given)
195. (a) The frequency of a sound wave is what your ear Temperature in °C = y (given)
understands as pitch. A higher frequency sound has a \ x = 273+ y
higher pitch, and a lower freque17ncy sound has a lower 203. (c) The electrical resistivity is the electrical resistance
pitch. They have a shorter wavelength of the per unit length and per unit of cross-sectional area at a
electromagnetic spectrum. specified temperature. The SI unit of electrical resistivity
Requires high voltage to produce X-Rays. is the ohm.metre. It is commonly represented by the Greek
They are used to capture the human skeleton defects. letter r rho.
They travel in a straight line and do not carry an electric 204. (c) Radio waves are used to carry satellite signals.
charge with them. These waves travel at 300,000 km/s (the speed of light).
They are capable of travelling in a vacuum. Communications satellites are used to send and receive
They are powerful waves of electromagnetic energy. radio signals for television, phone or internet
196. (a) X-rays are not deflected by electric and magnetic communications. Large concave reflectors called satellite
field. dishes are normally used to send and receive these
197. (c) Image formed by a plane mirror is always virtual and signals.
erect. The size of the image is equal to that of the object.
The image formed is as far behind the mirror as the object
is in front of it. The image is laterally inverted.
EBD_7341
18 Chemistry
2 Chemistry
1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer (a) Reverse osmosis
using the codes given below the Lists. [2007 -II] (b) Simple osmosis
List I List II (c) Use of sodium aluminium silicate as zeolite
(d) Use of ion selective electrodes
(Mineral) (Industries in which largely used) 10. Which of the following isotopes of carbon is/are used in
A. Limestone 1 Cement carbon dating? [2007 -II]
B. Copper 2 Electrical goods (a) 6C12 only (b) 6C13 only
(c) 6C14 only (d) 6C12 and 6C14
C. Bauxite 3 Manufacture of aeroplanes
11. An a-particle consvists of which of the following?
D. Manganese 4 Steel [2007 -II]
Code: (a) 2 protons and 2 neutrons
A B C D A B C D (b) 1 proton and 1 electron
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 2 protons and 4 neutrons
(d) 1 proton and 1 neutron
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 1 4 3 2
12. Which one of the following substances is made from
2. The flavour of apple is mainly due to which one of the natural raw materials? [2007 -II]
following? [2007 -II] (a) Rayon (b) Nylon
(a) Formalin (b) Benzene (c) Polyester (d) Polystyrene
(c) Ethanol (d) Benzaldehyde 13. Which one of the following metals is less reactive than
3. Nail varnish remover generally contains which one of the
hydrogen? [2007 -II]
following? [2007 -II]
(a) Barium (b) Copper
(a) Vinegar (b) Benzene
(c) Lead (d) Magnesium
(c) Methyl alcohol (d) Acetone
14. Consider the following statements [2007 -II]
4. In which categories did Marie Curie win her two different
1. Nitric acid is used in the production of fertilizers.
Nobel prizes? [2007 -II]
2. Sulphuric acid is used in th e production of
(a) Physics and Chemistry
(b) Chemistry and Medicine explosives.
(c) Physics and Medicine Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) Chemistry and Peace (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
5. 'Freon' used as refrigerants is chemically known as (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
[2007 -II] 15. What is the purpose of adding baking soda to dough?
(a) chlorinated hydrocarbon [2007 -II]
(b) fluorinated hydrocarbon (a) To generate moisture
(c) chlorofluoro hydrocarbon (b) To give a good flavour
(d) fluorinated aromatic compound (c) To give good colour
6. German silver is an alloy of [2007 -II] (d) To generate carbon dioxide
(a) gold and silver (b) copper and silver 16. As which one of the following, does carbon occur in its
(c) copper, zinc and silver (d) copper, zinc and nickel purest form in nature? [2008 -I]
7. The tracking of people by trained dogs is based on the (a) Carbon black (b) Graphite
recognisation of which of the following compounds in (c) Diamond (d) Coal
the sweat from feet? [2007 -II] 17. What is the Jeweller's rouge? [2008 -I]
(a) Carboxylic acids (b) Uric acid (a) Ferric oxide (b) Ferrous oxide
(c) Sugar (d) Salt (c) Ferrous carbonate (d) Ferric carbonate
8. Which of the following metals are present in haemoglobin 18. 'Misch metal' is widely used in the manufacture of which
and chlorophyll, respectively? [2007 -II] of the following? [2008 -I]
(a) Fe and Mg (b) Fe and Zn (a) Material of car brake (b) Smoke detectors
(c) Mg and Zn (d) Zn and Mg (c) Cigarette lighters (d) Emergency lights
9. Which one of the following is involved for desalination 19. What is the pH value of pure water? [2008 -I]
of sea water? [2007 -II] (a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 10
Chemistry 19
20. Which one of the following is an element? 32. The rusting of iron nail [2009 -I]
(a) Topaz (b) Diamond (a) decreases its weight
(c) Ruby (d) Sapphire (b) increases its weight
21. Which one of the following substances is used in the (c) does not affect weight but iron is oxidised
manufacture of safety matches? [2008 -II] (d) does not affect weight but iron is reduced
(a) Red phosphorus 33. Which one of the following when dissolved in H2O gives
(b) White phosphorus hissing sound? [2009 -I]
(c) Phosphorus trioxide (P203) (a) Limestone (b) Slaked lime
(c) Sodalime (d) Quicklime
(d) Black phosphorus
34. Commercial vulcanisation of rubber involves [2009 -I]
22. Which one of the following is correct? Butter is [2008 -II]
(a) sulphur (b) carbon
(a) a supercooled oil (b) an emulsion (c) phosphorus (d) selenium
(c) a molecular solid (d) None of these 35. Aqua-regia used by alchemists to separate silver and gold
23. Which one of the following is the softest? [2008 -II] is a mixture of [2009 -I]
(a) Sodium (b) Aluminium (a) hydrochloric acid (concentrated) and nitric acid
(c) Iron (d) Copper (concentrated)
24. Which one of the following properties changes with (b) hydrochloric acid (concentrated) and sulphuric
valency? [2008 -II] acid (concentrated)
(a) Atomic weight (b) Equivalent weight (c) nitric acid (concentrated) and sulphuric acid
(c) Molecular weight (d) Density (concentrated)
25. Which of the following has maximum density? [2008 -II] (d) hydrochloric acid (dilute) and sulphuric acid (dilute)
(a) Chloroform (b) Water 36. Nail polish remover contains [2009 -I]
(c) Benzene (d) Ice (a) acetone (b) benzene
26. Which one of the following is used in the preparation of (c) formaldehyde (d) acetic acid
antiseptic solution? [2008 -II] 37. Statement I : Soaps do not form lather with water
(a) Potassium nitrate (b) Iodine containing salts of calcium and magnesium. [2009 -I]
(c) Iodine chloride (d) Potassium chloride Statement II : Calcium and magnesium salts of long chain
fatty acids are insoluble in water.
27. Which one of the following is not a chemical change?
(a) Both the statements are individually true and
[2008 -II]
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(a) Burning of coal in air (b) Both the statements are individually true but
(b) Fermentation of sugar cane juice Statement II is not the correct explanation of
(c) Crystallisation of table salt from sea water Statement I.
(d) Cracking of petroleum (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
28. Statement I : Addition of water to an aqueous solution of (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
HC1 decreases the pH. [2008 -II] 38. Which one of the following is associated with the formation
Statement II : Addition of water suppresses the ionisation of brown air in traffic congested cities? [2009 -I]
of HC1. (a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Nitrogen oxide
(a) Both the statements are individually true and (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Carbon monoxide
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I 39. Which one of the following petroleum refinery products
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement has the lowest boiling point? [2009 -I]
II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (a) Kerosene (b) Diesel
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (c) Gasoline (d) Lubricating oil
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true 40. Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing
29. Which one of the following is the secondary source of and tanning industry? [2009 -I]
light in a fluorescent lamp? [2008 -II] (a) Magnesium oxide (b) Magnesium carbonate
(a) Neon gas (b) Argon gas (c) Magnesium chloride (d) Magnesium sulphate
41. Which of the following statements about the commonly
(c) Mercury vapour (d) Fluorescent coating
used automobile battery are true? [2009 -II]
30. Which one of the following is correct? Setting of plaster
I. It is usually a lead-acid battery.
of Paris is [2008 -II] II. It has six cells with a potential of 2 V each.
(a) dehydration III. Its cells work as galvanic cells while discharging power.
(b) oxidation with atmospheric oxygen IV. Its cells work as electrolytic cells while recharging.
(c) hydration leading to another hydrate Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(d) combination with atmospheric C02 (a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, II and III
31. Which one of the following is heavy water used in nuclear (c) II and IV (d) III and IV
reactor? [2009 -I] 42. The light emitted by firefly is due to [2009 -II]
(a) Water having molecular weight 18 u (a) a radioactive substance
(b) Water having molecular weight 20 u (b) chemiluminiscence process
(c) Water at 4°C but having molecular weight 19 u (c) a photoelectric process
(d) Water below the ice in a frozen sea (d) burning of phosphorus
EBD_7341
20 Chemistry
43. Which one of the following polymeric materials is used 51. The polymeric fibre used as a substitute for wool in making
for making bullet proof jacket? [2009 -II] synthetic blankets, sweaters, etc., is [2010 -I]
(a) Nylon-6, 6 (b) Rayon (a) nylon (b) teflon (c) orlon (d) bakelite
(c) Kevlar (d) Dacron 52. The cleaning of dirty clothes by soaps and detergents is
44. The coil in a heater is made of [2010 -I] due to a type of molecules called surfactants, which are
(a) nichrome (b) tungsten present in soaps and detergents. The surfactant molecules
(c) copper (d) iron remove the dirt by [2010 -I]
45. Which among the following elements is abundant on the (a) making the cloth slippery
lunar surface and holds the potential to put an end to the
(b) producing some gases between the dirt and the cloth
energy crisis of the earth? [2010 -I]
(c) dissolving the dirt
(a) Helium-I (b) Helium-ll
(c) Helium-Ill (d) Helium-IV (d) forming some aggregates of themselves and take
46. If a limestone piece is dipped in water, a bubble evolves. away the dirt in the core of the aggregates
The bubbling is due to [2010 -I] 53. Which one of the following is not a mixture?
(a) hydrogen (b) oxygen (a) Tootpaste (b) Toilet soap
(c) water vapour (d) carbon dioxide (c) Baking soda (d) Vinegar
47. Which one of the following chemicals is commonly 54. Which one of the following reducing agents can also act
used by farmers to destroy weeds? [2010 -I] as an oxidising agent? [2010 -II]
(a) DDT (b) Malathion (a) H2 (b) H2S (c) SO2 (d) HI
(c) Methyl bromide (d) 2, 4-D 55. Consider the following statements regarding the
48. Some statements about the benefits of organic farming properties and uses of glass wool. [2010 -II]
are given below. Indicate whether they are true or false I. Glass wool has tensile strength greater than steel.
using the codes given below the statements : [2010 -I] II. Glass wool is fire proof.
1. It reduces CO2 emission. III. Glass wool has high electrical conductivity and
2. It does not lead to toxic effect. absorbs moisture.
3. It improves the water-retention capacity of the soil. IV. Glass wool is used to prepare fibre glass.
Code: Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 2 3 1 2 3 (a) I and II (b) I, II and IV
(a) False True False (b) True False False
(c) II and IV (d) I, III and IV
(c) False True True (d) False True True
56. Which one among the following has been producing/can
49. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
produce light by a chemical change? [2010 -II]
using the codes given below the Lists. [2010 -I]
(a) Sun (b) Moon
List-I List-II (c) Electric bulb (d) Lightning and thunder
(Item) (Toxic substance) 57. A woman desires to clean the surface of her gold ornaments
A. CFL lamp 1 Nitrogen oxides
by a chemical approach. For this she requires to use [2010 -II]
(a) aqua-regia
B. Automobile battery 2 Phthalates (b) concentrated H2SO4
C. Polymer 3 Lead (c) concentrated NaOH
D. Diesel engine 4 Mercury (d) sodium thiosulphate solution
Code: DIRECTIONS (Qs. 58-59) : The following questions consist of
A B C D A B C D two statements. Statement I and Statement II. You are to
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 4 3 2 1 examine these two statements carefully and select the answers
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 3 2 4 to these items using the codes given below.
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II
using the codes given below the Lists. [2010 -I]
is the correct explanation of Statement I.
Lis t-I Lis t-II (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II
(A lloy) (Con s tituen t) is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
A. Sold er 1 Iro n an d carbo n
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
B. Bras s 2 Cop per and zinc 58. Statement I : During the setting of cement, the structure
C. Bron ze 3 Co pp er an d tin has to be cooled by spraying water. [2010-II]
D. Steel 4 Lead and tin Statement II : The constituents of cement undergo
hydration during setting of cement and it is an exothermic
Code: reaction.
A B C D A B C D 59. Statement I: Superphosphate of lime can be assimilated
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 3 1 by plants. [2010-II]
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 3 2 1 Statement II: Superphosphate of lime is soluble in water.
Chemistry 21
60. Which one of the following is not a periodic property i.e., (a) high specific heat (b) low surface tension
does not show any trend on moving from one side to the (c) high boiling point (d) teflon
other in the periodic table? [2010-II] 71. A close bottle containing water at room temperature was
(a) Atomic size (b) Valency taken to the Moon and then the lid is opened. The water
(c) Radioactivity (d) Electronegativity will [2011-I]
61. The law enforcement agencies use a chemical test to (a) freeze
approximate a person's blood alcohol level. The person (b) boil
undergoing the test blows into the mouthpiece of a bag (c) decompose into oxygen and hydrogen
containing sodium dichromate solution in acidic medium. (d) not change at all
A chemical reaction with ethanol changes the colour of 72. Which one among the following substances evolves
the solution from [2010-II] heat when dissolved in water? [2011-I]
(a) orange to green (b) orange to colourless (a) Potassium nitrate (b) Sodium chloride
(c) Glucose (d) Calcium oxide
(c) yellow to orange (d) colourless to orange
73. Which one among the following would expand the most
62. Scuba divers are at risk due to high concentration of
on being heated. [2011-I]
dissolved gases while breathing air at high pressure under
(a) water (b) Alcohol (c) Glass (d) Air
water. The tanks used by Scuba divers are filled with
[2010-II]
using the codes given below the lists.
(a) air diluted with helium
(b) O2 Lis t I Lis t II
(c) N2 (Acid) (S ource)
(d) a mixture of N2 and helium
63. Which one of the following is not needed in a nuclear A . Lactic acid 1 Tamarind
fission reactor? [2010-II] B. Tartaric acid 2 Orang e
(a) Moderator (b) Coolant C. Oxalic acid 3 Tomato
(c) Accelerator (d) Control device D. Citric acid 4 So ur curd
64. When items or jewellery made of metals such as copper or
nickel are placed in a solution having a salt of gold, a thin Code:
film of gold is deposited by [2011- I] A B C D A B C D
(a) cooling to below 0°C (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(b) heating above 100°C (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
(c) passing an electric current 75. One of the occupational health hazards commonly faced
(d) just keeping it for 10 min by the workers of ceramics, pottery and glass industry is
65. Heavy water implies [2011- I] [2011 - II]
(a) water which is used in heavy industries such as (a) stone formation in gall bladder
thermal power plants (b) melanoma
(b) water which contains SO42- and CI– of calcium and (c) silicosis
magnesium (d) stone formation in kidney
76. Sacrificial anode protects iron or ships, underground
(c) deuterated water
pipelines etc from rusting, a process known as cathodic
(d) water which has maximum density
protection. Which one of the following metals cannot be
66. Which one among the following is a sin smelling agent used as a sacrificial anode? [2011-II]
added to LPG cylinder to help the detection of gas leakage? (a) Tin (b) Zinc
[2011-I] (c) Magnesium (d) Aluminium
(a) Ethanol (b) Thioethanol 77. Sodium thiosulphate (Na 2 S2 O3) solution is used in
(c) Methane (d) Chloroform photography to [2011-II]
67. A body is charged negatively. It implies that [2011-I] (a) remove reduced silver
(a) it has lost some of its protons (b) reduce silver bromide (AgBr) grain to silver
(b) it has acquired some electrons from outside (c) remove undecomposed AgBr as a soluble silver
(c) it has lost some of its electrons thiosulphate complex
(d) None of the above (d) convert the metallic silver to silver salt
68. Which one among the following metals is used for making
boats because it does not corrode by sea water? [2011-I] DIRECTIONS (Qs.78-80) : The following questions consist of
(a) Tungsten (b) Nickel two statements. Statement I and Statement II. You are to
(c) Antimony (d) Titanium examine these two statements carefully and select the answers
69. Contact lenses are made from [2011-I] to these items using the codes given below.
(a) polyvinyl chloride (b) polystyrene (a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II
(c) lucite (d) teflon is the correct explanation of Statement I.
70. Water is a good coolant and is used to cool the engines of (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II
cars, buses, trucks etc. It is because water has a [2011-I] is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
EBD_7341
22 Chemistry
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false. 91. Which one among the following statements is correct?
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true [2012 - I]
78. Statement I : Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen present in (a) All bases are alkalis
high concentration in air are dissolved in rain drops. (b) None of the bases is alkali
Statement II : Oxyacids of sulphur and nitrogen make rain (c) There are no more bases except the alkalis
water acidic. [2011 - II]
(d) All alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis
79. Statement I : On mixing with water, plaster of Paris hardens.
92. The pH of fresh ground water slightly decreases upon
Statement II : By combining with water, plaster of Paris is
converted into gypsum. CaS04 -2Hp Gypsum [2011 - II] exposure to air because [2012 - I]
80. Statement I : All liquids are conductors of electricity. (a) carbon dioxide from air is dissolved in the water
Statement II : Under the condition of low pressure and (b) oxygen from air is dissolved in the water
high voltage, liquids can be made conducting.[2011 - II] (c) the dissolved carbon dioxide of the ground water
81. Gypsum (CaSO4 . 2H2O) is added to clinker during cement escapes into air
manufacturing to [2011 - II] (d) the dissolved oxygen of the ground water escapes
(a) decrease the rate of setting of cement into air
(b) bind the particles of calcium silicate 93. Which one among the following polymers is used for
(c) facilitate the formation of colloidal gel making bulletproof material? [2012 - I]
(d) impart strength to cement (a) Polyvinyl chloride (b) Polystyrene
82. Which one among the following will you put into pure water (c) Polyethylene (d) Polyamide
in order to pass electric current through it? [2011 - II]
94. The elements of a group in the periodic tabic [2012 - I]
(a) Kerosene (c) Mustard oil
(c) Lemon juice (d) Sugar (a) have similar chemical properties
83. From which one among the following water sources, the (b) have consecutive atomic numbers
water is likely to be contaminated with fluoride? [2011 - II] (c) are isobars
(a) Ground water (b) River water (d) are isotopes
(c) Pond water (d) Rain water 95. Soaps cannot be used in acidic condition because they
84. What is the main constituent of a pearl? [2011 - II] lose their cleansing effect due to formation of insoluble
(a) Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate [2012 - II]
(b) Calcium sulphate only (a) esters (b) alcohols
(c) Calcium oxide and calcium sulphate (c) hydrocarbons (d) long chain fatty acids
(d) Calcium carbonate only 96. In an atomic explosion, release of large amount of energy
85. Age of fossil may be found out by determining the ratio is due to conversion of [2012 - II]
of two isotopes of carbon. The isotopes are [2012 - I]
(a) chemical energy into nuclear energy
(a) C-12 and C-13 (b) C-13 and C-14
(b) nuclear energy into heat
(c) C-12 and C-14 (d) C-12 and carbon black
86. Which one among the following nontoxic gases helps in (c) mass into energy
formation of enzymes which ripen fruit? [2012 - I] (d) chemical energy into heat
(a) Acetylene (b) Ethane DIRECTION (Q. 97) : The following question consist of two
(c) Methane (d) Carbon dioxide statements. Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine
87. Vermicompost is an/a [2012 - I] these two statements carefully and select the answer to this
(a) inorganic fertilizer (b) toxic substance question using the codes given below.
(c) organic bio fertilizer (d) synthetic fertilizer
88. The macro nutrients provided by inorganic fertilizer are (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II
[2012 - I] is the correct explanation of Statement I
(a) carbon, iron and boron (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II
(b) magnesium, manganese and sulphur is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) magnesium, zinc and iron (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(d) nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
89. Which one among the following statements about an atom 97. Statement I: All compounds contain more than one
is not correct? [2012 - I] element. [2012 - II]
(a) Atoms always combine to form molecules Statement II : All compounds are heterogeneous mixtures.
(b) Atoms are the basic units from which molecules and
98. The gas which turns lime water milky is [2012 - II]
ions are formed
(c) Atoms are always neutral in nature (a) carbon dioxide (b) carbon monoxide
(d) Atoms aggregate in large numbers to form the matter (c) ammonia (d) nitrogen dioxide
that we can see, feel and touch 99. On the labels of the bottles, some soft drinks are claimed
90. Which one of the following reactions is the main cause of to be acidity regulators. They regulate acidity using
the energy radiation from the Sun? [2012 - I] [2012 - II]
(a) Fusion reaction (b) Fission reaction (a) carbon dioxide (b) bicarbonate salts
(c) Chemical reaction (d) Diffusion reaction (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) carbon dioxide and lime
Chemistry 23
100. Antacids are commonly used to get rid of acidity in the 110. Which one among the following is responsible for the
stomach. A commonly used antacid is [2012 - II] expansion of water in the ocean? [2013 - I]
(a) sodium hydrogen phthalate (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Nitrogen dioxide
(b) magnesium hydroxide (c) Carbon monoxide (d) Sulphur dioxide
(c) calcium hydroxide DIRECTION (Q. 111) : The following questions consist of two
(d) manganese acetate statements. Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine
101. Iodised salt is a [2012 - II] these two statements carefully and select the answers to these
(a) mixture of potassium iodide and common salt items using the codes given below.
(b) mixture of molecular iodide and common salt (a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II
(c) compound formed by combination of potassium is the correct explanation of Statement I.
iodide and common salt (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II
(d) compound formed by molecular iodine and common salt is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
102. Match the following lists. [2013 - I] (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
Lis t I Lis t II (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
(Ag ent) (Dis eas e) 111. Consider the following Statements. [2013 - I]
Statement I Chlorine radicals CI* initiate the chain reaction
A. A rs en ic 1 Flu oros is
for ozone depletion.
B. Flu oride 2 M elan os is Statement II Gaseous hypochlorous acid and chlorine are
C. Dus t 3 Pres by cus is photolysed by sunlight.
D. Nois e 4 Sillicos is
112. Which element forms the highest number of compounds
in the periodic table? [2013 - II]
Code: (a) Carbon (b) Oxygen
A B C D A B C D (c) Silicon (d) Sulphur
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 113. NaOH + HC1 -> NaCl + H2O in the given chemical reaction
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3 [2013 - II]
103. Which one among the following gases readily combines (a) sodium is oxidised and oxygen is reduced
with the haemoglobin of the blood? [2013 - I] (b) sodium is oxidised and chlorine is reduced
(a) Methane (b) Nitrogen dioxide (c) sodium and hydrogen are oxidised
(c) Carbon monoxide (d) Sulphur dioxide (d) None of them are oxidised or reduced
104. Which of the following gases in the atmosphere is/are 114. A liquid initially contracts when cooled down to 4°C but
responsible for acid rains? [2013 - I] on further cooling down to 0°C, it expands. [2013 - II]
1. Oxides of sulphur 2. Oxides of nitrogen The liquid is
3. Oxides of carbon (a) alcohol (b) water
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(c) molten iron (d) mercury
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
115. What are the elements which are liquids at room
105. Which one among the following metals is used in fireworks
to make a brilliant white light? [2013 - I] temperature and standard pressure? [2013 - II]
(a) Sodium (b) Magnesium 1. Helium 2. Mercury
(c) Aluminium (d) Silver 3. Chlorine 4. Bromine
106. Why hard water does not give lather with soap? [2013 - I] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Hard water contains calcium and magnesium ions (a) 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
which form precipitate with soap (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
(b) Hard water contains sulphate and chloride ions which 116. A compound that is a white solid which absorbs water
form precipitate vapour from the air is [2013 - II]
(c) pH of hard water is high (a) sodium nitrate (b) calcium chloride
(d) pH of hard water is less (c) sodium carbonate (d) calcium sulphate
107. What is the role of positive catalyst in a chemical reaction? 117. What type of mixture is smoke? [2013 - II]
[2013 - I]
(a) Solid mixed with a gas
(a) It increases the rate of reaction
(b) It decreases the rate of reaction (b) Gas mixed with a gas
(c) It increases the yield of the products (c) Liquid mixed with a gas
(d) It provides better purity of the products (d) Gas mixed with a liquid and a solid
108. Which allotropy of carbon is in rigid three- dimensional 118. Which one of the following gases is supporter of
structure? [2013 - I] combustion? [2014 - II]
(a) Graphite (b) Fullerene (a) Hydrogen (b) Nitrogen
(c) Diamond (d) Carbon black (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Oxygen
109. Food cans are coated with tin but not with zinc because 119. Iron sheet kept in moist air covered with rust. Rust is
[2013 - I] [2014 - II]
(a) zinc is costlier than tin (a) an element (b) a compound
(b) zinc has a higher melting point than tin (c) a mixture of iron and dust
(c) zinc is more reactive than tin
(d) tin is more reactive than zinc (d) a mixture of iron, oxygen and water
EBD_7341
24 Chemistry
120. A metal screw top on a glass bottle which appears to be 129. The main constituent of Gobar gas is [2014-II]
stuck could be opened by using the fact that [2014 - II] (a) Ethane (b) Methane (c) Propane (d)
(a) the metal expands more than the glass when both are Acetylene
heated 130. Which of the following is a good lubricant ? [2014-II]
(b) the metal and glass expand identically when heated (a) Diamond powder (b) Graphite powder
(c) the metal shrinks when heated (c) Molten carbon (d) Alloy of carbon and iron
(d) Both metal and glass shrink when cooled 131. In Tritium (T), the number of protons (P) and neutrons (N)
121. Which of the following are the two main constituents respectively are [2014-II]
of granite? [2014 - II] (a) 1 P and 1 N (b) l P and 2 N
(a) Iron and silica (c) l Pand 3 N (d) 2 P and l N
(b) Iron and silver 132. When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, the
(c) Silica and aluminium solution turns milky, but, on prolonged passage, the
(d) Iron oxide and potassium solution turns clear. This is because [2014-II]
122. Consider the following statements. [2014 - II] (a) the calcium carbonate formed initially is converted
Statement I : Clay layers are poor aquifers. to soluble calcium bicarbonate on passage of more
Statement II : The inter-particle space of clay minerals is carbon dioxide
the least. (b) the reaction is reversible and lime water is regenerated
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (c) the calcium bicarbonate formed initially is converted
(a) Both the statements are individually true and to soluble calcium carbonate on passage of more
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I carbon dioxide
(b) Both the statements are individually true but (d) the initially formed insoluble compound is soluble in
Statement II is not the correct explanation of carbonic acid .
Statement I 133. The form of carbon known as graphite [2014-II]
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (a) is harder than diamond
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (b) contains a higher percentage of carbon than diamond
123. Addition of ethylene dibromide to petrol [2014 - II] (c) is a better electrical conductor than diamond
(a) increases the octane number of fuel (d) has equal carbon-to-carbon distances in all
(b) helps elimination of lead oxide directions
(c) removes the sulphur compound in petrol 134. Which one among the following is an example of chemical
(d) serves as a substitute of tetraethyl lead change ? [2014-II]
124. Nitric oxide pollution can lead to all of the following, except (a) The melting of an ice cube
[2014 - II] (b) The boiling of gasoline
(a) leaf spotting in plants (c) The frying of an egg
(b) bronchitis related respiratory problems in human (d) Attraction of an iron nail to a magnet
(c) production of corrosive gases through 135. Which of the following is not correct about Baking Soda?
photochemical reaction [2014-II]
(d) silicosis in human (a) It is used in soda acid fire extinguisher
125. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (b) It is added for faster cooking.
[2014 - II] (c) It is a corrosive base
1. Amnion contains fluid. (d) It neutralizes excess acid in the stomach
2. Ultrasound scan can detect the sex of an embryo. 136. Chromium oxide in paints makes the colour of paint
Select the correct answer using the codes given below [2014-II]
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Green (b) White (c) Red (d) Blue
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 DIRECTION (Q. 137): The following question consist of two
126. Which of the following solutions will not change the colour statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine
of blue litmus paper to red? [2014 - II] these two statements carefully and select the answers to the
1. Acid solution 2. Base solution question using the code given below :
3. Common salt solution
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Code:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II
(c) Only 1 (d) Only 2 is the correct explanation of Statement I
127. Date of manufacture of food items fried in oil should be (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II
checked before buying because oils become rancid due is not the correct explanation of Statement I
to [2014 - II] (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(a) oxidation (b) reduction (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(c) hydrogenation (d) decrease in viscosity 137. Statement I : During indigestion, milk of magnesia is taken
128. Bagasse, a by-product of sugar manufacturing industry, to get rid of pain in the stomach.
is used for the production of [2014-II] Statement II : Milk of magnesia is a base and it neutralizes
(a) glass (b) paper (c) rubber (d) cement the excess acid in the stomach. [2014-II]
Chemistry 25
138. When hard water is evaporated completely, the white 148. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
solid remains in the container. It may be due to the using the code given below the Lists : [2015-II]
presence of [2015-I] List-I List-II
1. Carbonates of Ca and Mg (Exponent) (Law)
2. Sulphates of Ca and Mg A. John Dalton 1. Law of definite
3. Chlorides of Ca and Mg proportion by volume
Select the correct answer using the code given below : B. Joseph Proust 2. Law of multiple
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 proportion
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only C. Antoine Lavoisier 3. Law of definite
139. Which one among the following compounds has same proportion by weight
equivalent weight and molecular weight ? [2015-I] D. Joseph Louis Gay- 4. Law of conservation
(a) H2SO4 (b) CaCl2 (c) Na2SO4 (d) NaCl Lussac of mass
140. A metallic plate sticks firmly on the mouth of a water Code:
vessel made from another metal. By way of heating, one A B C D A B C D
can detach the plate from the vessel. This is because (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1
heat expands [2015-I] (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 1 3 4 2
(a) the vessel only 149. Which of the following is not gaseous air pollutant?
(b) both the vessel and the plate equally
[2015-II]
(c) the vessel more than the plate
(a) Oxides of Sulphur (b) Oxides of nitrogen
(d) the vessel and contracts the plate
141. Electricity is produced through dry cell from [2015-I] (c) Hydrocarbon (d) Smoke
(a) chemical energy (b) thermal energy 150. Which one of the following statement is not correct?
(c) mechanical energy (d) nuclear energy [2015-II]
142. Which one among the following fuels is used in gas (a) Water starts boiling when its vapour pressure
welding? [2015-I] becomes equal to atmospheric pressure.
(a) L P G (b) Ethylene (b) Water is known as universal solvent.
(c) Methane (d) Acetylene (c) Permanent hardness of water is due to presence of
143. Which one among the following is a micronutrient MgCl2, CaCl2, MgSO4 and CaSO4.
present in soil for various crops ? [2015-I] (d) Density of ice is greater than that of water.
(a) Calcium (b) Manganese 151. Which one of the following is not true for diamond?
(c) Magnesium (d) Potassium [2015-II]
144. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer (a) Each carbon atom is linked to four other carbon atoms
using the code given below the Lists : [2015-I] (b) Three-dimensional network structure of carbon atoms
List I List II is formed
(Air Pollutant) (Effect) (c) It is used as an abrasive for sharpening hard tools
A. Chlorofluorocarbon 1. Acid rain (d) It can be used as a lubricant.
B. Sulphur dioxide 2. Depletion in ozone layer 152. The atomic theory of matter was first proposed by [2015-II]
in the atmosphere (a) John Dalton (b) Rutherford
C. Lead compound 3. Harmful for human (c) J. J. Thomson (d) Niels Bohr
nervous system 153. Which one of the following physical quantities is the same
D. Carbon dioxide 4. Topmost contribution to for molecules of all gases at a given temperature? [2015-II]
greenhouse effect (a) Speed (b) Mass
Code:
(c) Kinetic energy (d) Momentum
A B C D A B C D
154. Which one of the following statements is correct? The
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 1 3 2
velocity of sound : [2016-I]
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 2 3 1 4
145. Which one among the following metals is prominently (a) Does not depend upon the nature of media
used in mobile phone batteries? [2015-I] (b) is maximum in gases and minimum in liquids
(a) Copper (b) Zinc (c) Nickel (d) Lithium (c) is maximum in solids and minimum in liquids
146. Which one among the following processes is not part of (d) is maximum in solids and minimum in gases
a chemical weathering ? [2015-I] 155. A piece of ice, 100 g in mass is kept at 0°C. The amount of
(a) Hydration (b) Exfoliation heat is requires to melt at 0°C is (take latent heat of melting
(c) Oxidation (d) Solution of ice to be 333.6 j / g) : [2016-I]
147. Red phosphorus is used in the manufacture of safety (a) 750.6 J (b) 83.4 J
matches. This is due to the fact that [2015-II] (c) 33360 J (d) 3.336 J
(a) it shows phosphorescence 156. Which one of the following is an example of chemical
(b) at ordinary temperature, it is less reactive than other change? [2016-I]
varieties of phosphorus (a) Burning of paper
(c) it cannot be converted to white phosphorus on (b) Magnetization of soft iron
heating (c) Dissolution of cane sugar in water
(d) it does not react with halogen on heating (d) Preparation of ice cubes from water
EBD_7341
26 Chemistry
157. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (a) increase the pH of the soil
[2016-I] (c) lower the pH of the soil
(a) Hydrogen is an element (c) increase the phosphorus content of the soil
(b) Hydrogen is the lightest element (d) increase the nitrogen content of the soil
(c) Hydrogen has no isotopes 167. Excessive use of which of the following fertilizers may be
(d) Hydrogen and oxygen form an explosive mixture responsible for the presence of a toxic substance in
158. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? groundwater? [2016-II]
[2016-I] (a) Nitrogen (b) Phosphate only
(a) Atoms of different elements may have same mass (c) Potassium only (d) Phosphate and potassium
numbers 168. Which one of the following elements does not form solid
(b) Atoms of an element may have different mass hydrogen carbonate? [2016-II]
numbers (a) Sodium (b) Potassium
(c) All the atoms of an element have same number of (c) Caesium (d) Lithium
protons 169. In the gamma decay of a nucleus [2016-II]
(d) All the atoms of an element will always have same (a) the mass number of the nucleus changes whereas its
number of neutrons. atomic number does not change
159. The synthetic rubber has replaced natural rubber for (b) the mass number of the nucleus does not change
domestic and industrial purposes. Which one of the whereas its atomic number changes
following is the main reason behind that? [2016-I] (c) both the mass number and the atomic number of the
(a) Natural rubber is unable to meet the growing demand nucleus change
of different industries (d) neither the mass number nor the atomic number of
(b) Natural rubber is grown in tropical countries only the nucleus changes
(c) Raw material for synthetic rubber is easily available 170. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(d) Nutural rubber is not durable using the code given below the Lists : [2016-II]
160. The handle of pressure cookers is made of plastic because List-I List-II
it should be made non-conductor of heat. The plastic used (Element) (Property/ Use)
there is the first man-made plastic, which is : [2016-I] A. Mg 1. Gives red colour to flame
(a) Polythene (b) Terylene B. Ca 2. Sulphate compound used in
(c) Nylon (d) Bakelite medicine to examine the alimentary
161. Methyl lsocyanate gas, which was involved in the disaster canal of a patient
in Bhopal in December 1984, was used in the Union C. Sr 3. Traps the energy of sunlight in
Carbide factory for production of : [2016-I] photosynthesis
(a) Dyes (b) Detergents D. Ba 4. Control of muscle contraction
(c) Explosives (d) Pesticides Code:
162. Two systems are said to be in thermal equilibrium if and A B C D A B C D
only if : [2016-I] (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3
(a) there can be a heat flow between them even if they (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2
are at different temperatures 171. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(b) there cannot be a heat flow between them even if [2016-II]
they are at different temperatures (a) The oxidation number for hydrogen is always zero.
(c) there is no heat flow between them (b) The oxidation number for hydrogen is always +1.
(d) their temperatures are slightly different (c) The oxidation number for hydrogen is always -1.
163. German silver is used to make decorative articles, coinage (d) Hydrogen can have more than one oxidation number.
metal, ornaments, The name is given because : [2016-I] 172. In case of a standard hydrogen electrode [2016-II]
(a) it is an alloy of copper and contains silver as one of (a) absolute electrode potential is not zero
its components (b) absolute electrode potential is zero
(b) Germans were the first to use silver (c) both absolute and standard electrode potential values
(c) Its appearance is like silver are zero
(d) It is an alloy of silver (d) electrode potential is zero only at 25°C
164. Which one of the following is not an allotrope of carbon? 173. Which one of the following is a physical change?
[2016-II] [2017-I]
(a) Coal (b) Diamond (a) Burning of coal
(c) Graphite (d) Graphene (b) Burning of wood
165. In paper manufacturing, degumming of the raw material is (c) Heating of a platinum crucible
done using [2016-II] (d) Heating of potassium chlorate
(a) sulphuric acid (b) bleaching powder 174. The pH value of a sample of multiple-distilled water is
(c) caustic soda (d) nitric acid [2017-I]
166. Dolomite powder is applied in some agricultural lands. (a) zero (b) 14
The purpose of applying it is to [2016-II] (c) very near to zero (d) very near to seven
Chemistry 27
175. Which one of the following is the most characteristic 186. The paste of a white material in water is used to maintain
property of an element? [2017-I] a fractured bone fixed in place. The white material used is
(a) Density (b) Boiling point called [2017-II]
(c) Mass number (d) Atomic number (a) bleaching powder (b) plaster of Paris
176. There are two elements-calcium (atomic number 20) and (c) powder of zinc oxide (d) lime powder
argon (atomic number 18). The mass number of both the 187. An emulsion consists of [2017-II]
elements is 40. They are therefore known as [2017-I] (a) one liquid and one solid
(a) isotones (b) isochores (b) one liquid and one gas
(c) isobars (d) isotopes (c) two liquids
177. 'Plum Pudding Model' for an atom was proposed by (d) two solids
[2017-I] 188. Which of the following radioactive substances
(a) Antoine Lavoisier (b) Robert Boyle enters/enter the human body through food chain and
(c) Ernest Rutherford (d) J. J. Thomson causes/cause many physiological disorders? [2017-II]
178. What is the number of atoms in 46 g of sodium-23 (a) Strontium-90 (b) Iodine-131
[N = Avogadro constant)? [2017-I] (c) Cesium-137 (d) All of the above
189. Consider the following statements : [2017-II]
(a) N/2 (b) N (c) 2N (d) 23N
1. The chain reaction process is used in nuclear
179. What is the maximum number of states of matter?
bombs to release a vast amount of energy, but in
[2017-I]
nuclear reactors, there is no chain reaction.
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Variable 2. In a nuclear reactor, the reaction is controlled while
180. The chemical properties of an element depend upon in nuclear bombs, the reaction is uncontrolled.
(a) the number of isotopes of the element 3. In a nuclear reactor, all operating reactors are
(b) the mass number of the element ‘critical’, while there is no question of ‘criticality’
(c) the total number of neutrons in the element in case of a nuclear bomb.
(d) the number of electrons in the outermost shell of the 4. Nuclear reactors do not use moderators, while
element nuclear bombs use them.
181. The molecular mass of sulphuric acid is 98. If 49 g of the Which of the above statements about operational
acid is dissolved in water to make one litre of solution, principles of a nuclear reactor and a nuclear bomb is/are
what will be the strength of the acid? [2017-I] correct?
(a) Two normal (b) One normal (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 0.5 normal (d) Four normal (c) 4 only (d) 1 and 4
182. Pearl is a hard object produced within the soft tissues of 190. Tincture of iodine is an antiseptic for fresh wounds. It is a
a mollusk. Which one of the following is the main dilute solution of elemental iodine, which does not contain
constituent of pearl? [2017-II] [2017-II]
(a) Calcium carbonate (b) Calcium oxide (a) water (b) acetone
(c) Calcium nitrate (d) Calcium sulphate (c) alcohol (d) potassium iodide
183. An electron and a proton starting from rest are accelerated 191. Which one of the following gases dissolves in water to
through a potential difference of 1000 V. Which one of give acidic solution? [2018-I]
the following statements in this regard is correct? (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Oxygen
[2017-II] (c) Nitrogen (d) Hydrogen
(a) The kinetic energy of both the particles will be 192. Consider the following chemical reaction : [2018-I]
different. aFe2O3 (s ) + bCO ( g ) ® cFe (s ) + dCO2
(b) The speed of the electron will be higher than that of
the proton. In the balanced chemical equation of the above, which of
(c) The speed of the proton will be higher than that of the following will be the values of the coefficients
the electron. a, b, c and d respectively?
(a) 3, 2, 3, 1 (b) 1, 3, 2, 3
(d) The speed of the electron and the proton will be
(c) 2, 3, 3, 1 (d) 3, 3, 2, 1
equal.
193. Bright light is found to emit from photographer’s flashgun.
184. In the reaction between hydrogen sulphate ion and water This brightness is due to the presence of which one of
HSO -4 + H 2O ® H3O+ + SO42 - the following noble gases? [2018-I]
(a) Argon (b) Xenon
the water acts as [2017-II] (c) Neon (d) Helium
(a) an acid (b) a base 194. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a
(c) a salt (d) an inert medium compound? [2018-I]
185. How many hydrogen atoms are contained in 1.50 g of (a) Composition is variable.
glucose (C6H12O6)? (b) All particles of compound are of only one type.
(a) 3.01 × 1022 (b) 1.20 × 1023 (c) Particles of compound have two or more elements.
(c) 2.40 × 1023 (d) 6.02 × 1022 (d) Its constituents cannot be separated by simple
physical methods.
EBD_7341
28 Chemistry
195. Which of the following substances cause temporary 205. Which one of the following is not true for the from of
hardness in water? [2018-I] carbon known as diamond? [2018-II]
1. Mg (HCO3)2 2. Ca (HCO3)2 (a) It is harder than graphite.
3. CaCl2 4. MgSO4 (b) It contains the same percentage of carbon as
Select the correct answer using the code given below. graphite.
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) It is a better electric conductor than graphite.
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 (d) It has different carbon to carbon distance in all
196. Which one of the following elements will be an isobar of directions.
calcium if the atomic number of calcium is 20 and its mass 206. In which one of the following reactions, the maximum
number is 40? [2018-I] quantity of H2 gas is produced by the decomposition
of 1 g of compound by H2 O/O2 ? [2018-II]
(a) Element with 20 protons and 18 neutrons
(a) CH4 + H2O ® CO + 3H2
(b) Element with 18 protons and 19 neutrons
(b) CO + H2O ® CO2 + H2
(c) Element with 20 protons and 19 neutrons
(d) Element with 18 protons and 22 neutrons 1
(c) CH4 + O 2 ® CO + 2H2
197. Two reactants in a flask at room temperature are producing 2
bubbles of a gas that turn limewater milky. The reactants
(d) C12H24 + 6O2 ® 12CO + 12H2
could be [2018-II] 207. Which one of the following can extinguish fire more
(a) zinc and hydrochloric acid quickly? [2018-II]
(b) magnesium carbonate and hydrochloric acid (a) Cold water (b) Boiling water
(c) methane and oxygen (c) Hot water (d) Ice
(d) copper and dilute hydrochloric acid 208. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
198. How many moles of CO can be obtained by reacting 2.0 using the code given below the Lists: [2019-I]
mole of CH4 with 2.0 mole of O2 according to the equation List-I List-II
given below? [2018-II] (Compound/Molecule) (Shape of Molecule)
1 (a) CH3F 1. Trigonal planar
CH 4 (g) ∗ 02 ® CO ∗ 2H 2
2 (b) HCHO 2. Tetrahedral
(a) 2.0 (b) 0·5 (c) 2·5 (d) 4·0 (c) HCN 3. Trigonal pyramidal
199. Reaction between which of the following two reactants (d) NH3 4. Linear
will produce hydrogen gas? [2018-II] Code:
(a) Magnesium and hydrochloric acid A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3
(b) Copper and dilute nitric acid
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2
(c) Calcium carbonate and hydrochloric acid 209. Very small insoluble particles in a liquid may be separated
(d) Zinc and nitric acid from it by using [2019-I]
200. Which of the following characteristics is common to hydrogen, (a) crystallization (b) fractional distillation
nitrogen, oxygen and carbon dioxide? [2018-II] (c) centrifugation (d) decantation
(a) They are all diatomic. 210. Which one of the following elements cannot be detected
(b) They are all gases at room temperature. by “Lassaigne’s test”? [2019-I]
(c) They are all coloured. (a) I (b) CI (c) S (d) F
(d) They all have same reactivity. 211. In which of the following functional group isomerism is
201. The compound C7H7NO2 has [2018-II] not possible? [2019-I]
(a) 17 atoms in a molecule of the compound (a) Alcohols (b) Aldehydes
(b) equal molecules of C and H by mass (c) Alkyl halides (d) Cyanides
(c) twice the mass of oxygen atoms compared to nitrogen 212. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
atoms [2019-I]
(a) Fishcher projection represents the molecule in an
(d) twice the mass of nitrogen atoms compared to
eclipsed conformation.
hydrogen atoms (b) Newman projection can be represented in aneclipsed,
202. Which of the following is the general formula for saturated staggered and skew conformations.
hydrocarbons? [2018-II] (c) Fischer projection of the molecule is its most stable
(a) CnH2n + 2 (b) Cn H2n – 2 conformation.
(c) CnH2n + 1 (d) CnH2n – 1 (d) In Sawhorse projections, the lines are inclined at an
203. The equivalent weight of Ba (OH)2 is (given, atomic angle of 120° to each other.
weight of Ba is 137.3) [2018-II] 213. The monomer / monomers used for the synthesis of Nylon
(a) 85.7 (b) 137.3 6 is / are [2019-I]
(c) 154.3 (d) 171.3 (a) hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid
204. Which one of the following nitrogen oxides has the (b) caprolactam
highest oxidation state of nitrogen? [2018-II] (c) urea and formaldehyde
(a) NO (b) NO2 (c) N2O (d) N2O5 (d) phenol and formaldehyde
Chemistry 29
214. Two identical solid pieces, one of gold and other of silver, 223. The rate of evaporation of liquid does not depend upon
when immersed completely in water exhibit equal weights. [2019-II]
When weighed in air (given that density of gold is greater (a) temperature
than that of silver) [2019-I] (b) its surface area exposed to the atmosphere
(a) the gold piece will weigh more (c) its mass
(b) the silver piece will weigh more (d) humidity
(c) both silver and gold pieces weigh equal 224. Rutherford’s alpha particle scattering experiment on thin
(d) weighing will depend on their masses gold foil was responsible for the discovery of [2019-II]
215. The PCl5 molecule has trigonal bipyramidal structure. (a) electron (b) proton
Therefore, the hybridization of p orbitals should be (c) atomic nucleus (d) neutron
[2019-I] 225. The elements of which of the following pairs are isobars?
(a) sp 2 (b) sp 3 (c) dsp 2 (d) dsp 3 [2020-I]
216. Which one of the following is monatomic? [2019-II] 1
(a) Hydrogen (b) Sulphur (a) 1H and 13H (b) 1
1H and 12 H
(c) Phosphorus (d) Helium
(c) 126 C and 146 C (d) 18 40 40
Ar and 20 Ca
217. In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three other
carbon atoms [2019-II] 226. Which one of the following chemical reactions is not
(a) forming a three-dimensional structure feasible? [2020-I]
(b) in the same plane giving a hexagonal array (a) Fe + CuSO4 ® FeSO4 + Cu
(c) in the same plane giving a square array (b) Zn + CuSO4 ® ZnSO4 + Cu
(d) in the same plane giving a pentagonal array (c) Cu + PbCl2 ® CuCl2 + Pb
218. Employing Chromatography, one cannot separate (d) Mg + CuSO4 ® MgSO4 + Cu
[2019-II] 227. A solution having pH equal to zero is known as [2020-I]
(a) radio-isotopes (a) highly alkaline solution
(b) colours from a dye (b) highly acidic solution
(c) pigments from a natural colour (c) weakly acidic solution
(d) drugs from blood (d) neutral solution
219. Consider the following statement: [2019-II] 228. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
“Atomic number of an element is a more fundamental using the code given below the Lists :
property than its atomic mass.” Who among the following List-I List-II
scientists has made the above statement ? (Compound) (Use)
(a) Dmitri Mendeleev (b) Henry Moseley A. Boric acid 1. Antiseptic
(c) J.J. Thomson (d) Ernest Rutherford B. Citric acid 2. Food preservative
220. Rate of evaporation increases with [2019-II] C. Magnesium hydroxide 3. Antacid
(a) an increase of surface area D. Acetic acid 4. Pickle
(b) an increase in humidity Code:
(c) a decrease in wind speed A B C D A B C D
(d) a decrease of temperature (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
221. Consider the following statements about mixture : (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
[2019-II] 229. When air is blown from mouth into a test tube containing
1. A substance can be separated into other kinds of limewater, the limewater turns milky. This is due to the
matter by any physical process. presence of [2020-I]
2. Dissolved sodium chloride can be separated from (a) water vapour (b) oxygen
water by the physical process of evaporation. (c) carbon dioxide (d) carbon monoxide
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 230. Silver articles become black after some time when exposed
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only to air because [2020-I]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) silver gets oxidized to silver oxide
222. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (b) silver reacts with moist carbon dioxide in the air to
[2019-II] form silver carbonate
(a) Elements are defined by the number of protons they (c) silver reacts with sulphur in the air to form a coating
possess. of silver sulphide
(b) Isobars are atoms having the same atomic number (d) silver reacts with nitrogen oxides in the air to form
but different mass number. silver nitrate
(c) The mass number of an atom is equal to the number
of nucleons in its nucleus.
(d) Valency is the combining capacity of an atom.
EBD_7341
30 Chemistry
1. (b) Limestone (CaCO3) is the main raw material used in On the other hand barium, lead and magnesium are placed
the manufacture of cement. Copper is good conductor of above the hydrogen hence, these are more reactive than
elecricity hence, it is used in electrical goods. hydrogen.
Bauxite is an ore of Al. It is used in manufacture of 14. (c) Nitric acid is used in the production of fertilizers.
aeroplanes. Manganese is used in steel industry to form The principal chemical produced form nitric acids
manganese steel. ammonium nitrate, sulphuric acid is used in the production
2. (c) The flavour of apples is mainly due to the ethanol of explosives like TNT, nitroglycerine, gun cotton, etc.
(C2H5OH). 15. (d) Baking soda has sodium bicarbonate as the chief
3. (d) Nail varnish remover generally contains acetone constituent. It decomposes on heating giving carbon
(CH3COCH3). dioxide. This causes dough, cakes, biscuits etc. to expand
4. (a) Marie Curie win her two different Noble prizes in two and become light.
different category i.e., Physics and Chemistry for the 16. (a) Carbon occurs in its purest form of carbon black in
discovery of radium and polonium. nature.
5. (c) Chlorofluoro carbon (CF2Cl2) is also known as freon. 17. (a) A very fine powder of ferric oxide is known as
It is used as refrigerants in refrigerators and air conditions. "jeweler's rouge", "red rouge", or simply rouge. It is used
It is also used as propellant in aerosols and foams. to put the final polish on metallic jewellery and lenses,
6. (d) German silver is an alloy of copper (25-50%), zinc and historically as a cosmetic.
(25-35%) and nickel (10-35%). It is used in utensils and 18. (c) 'Misch metal' alloyed with iron is used in the cigarettes
resistance wire. lighters. Misch metal is an alloy of cerium (50%),
7. (a) The tracking of people by trained dogs is based on lanthanum (25%), neodymium (18%), praseodymium (5%)
the recognisation of carboxylic acid in the sweat from and other rare metals.
feet. 19. (c) Pure water is neutral in nature hence, the pH value of
8. (a) Fe and Mg metals are present in haemoglobin and pure water is 7.
chlorophyll respectively. 20. (b) Diamond is an element. It is an allotrope of carbon.
9. (a) Reverse osmosis method is used to obtain pure water While ruby, topaz and sapphire are minerals
from water containing a salt or for desalination of sea (i.e., compounds). These are the valuable gemstones.
water. 21. (a) Red phosphorus is mostly used in the manufacture
10. (c) The isotope of carbon 6C14 is used in radio carbon of safety matches.
dating. 22. (d) Butter is an example of a colloidal dispersion of a
11. (a) An a-particle is identical with helium nuclei. It liquid in a solid i.e., gel.
consists of 2 protons and 2 neutrons and represented by 23. (a) Alkali metals such as lithium, sodium and potassium
4 are soft metals. These can be easily cut with a knife.
2He .
12. (a) Rayon is made from naturally occuring cellulose. 24. (b) Only equivalent weight changes with valency. Atomic
Rayon is also called artificial silk. weight, molecular weight and density does not change
13. (b) with valency.
Atomic weight
Most Equivalent weight of the element =
Valency
reactive
25. (b) Water has the maximum density among these
because chloroform, benzene and ice float on water.
26. (b) Iodine is a powerful antiseptic. It is used as a tincture
of iodine which is 2-3% iodine solution in alcohol-water.
27. (c) A chemical change a new substance is formed. During
crystallisation of table salt from sea water no new
substance is formed hence, it is not a chemical change.
28. (c) Addition of water to an aqueous solution of HCl
Least decreases the pH because on dilution the number of H+
reactive ions (from water) increases. Now since
[H+] = 10–pH \ As [H+] increases pH decreases.
29. (d) Fluorescent coating on the glass is the secondary
source of light in a fluorescent lamp.
C H added for comparison 30. (c) Setting of plaster of Paris is the hydration leading to
another hydrate i.e., gypsum.
Reactivity Series of Metals
1 1 Setting
In the reactivity series of metals, copper is placed below CaSO4 . H 2O+ 1 H 2O ¾¾¾¾ ® CaSO 4 × 2H 2O
the hydrogen. Hence, it is less reactive than hydrogen. 2 2 Gypsum
Plaster of Paris
Chemistry 31
31. (b) Heavy water (D2O) is used in nuclear reactor as a firefly's lower abdomen. The enzyme luciferase acts on
moderator. The deuterium is an isotope of hydrogen. Its the luciferin, in the presence of magnesium ions, ATP, and
atomic mass is 2. Hence its molecular weight is 20u (2 + oxygen to produce light.
18). 43. (c) Kevlar, a polymeric material is used for making bullet
32. (b) The rusting of iron nail takes place in the presence of proof jacket.
air (oxygen) and water (moisture). It increases the weight 44. (a) The coil in a heater is made up of nichrome because
of iron nail due to the formation of rust. its melting point and resistivity are high.
4Fe + 3O2 + xH2O ® 2Fe2O3.xH 2O 45. (c) Helium-III is abundant on the lunar surface and holds
Rust the potential to put an end to the energy crisis of the
33. (d) On adding water, quicklime (CaO) gives a hissing Earth.
sound and forms calcium hydroxide commonly known as 46. (d) When limestone piece is dipped in water, the bubbles
slaked lime. evolve due to evolution of carbon dioxide.
CaO + H2O ® C Ca (OH2) + 15000 calories CaCO3 + H2O ® Ca (OH)2 + CO2
34. (a) Vulcanisation is a process in which natural rubber is 47. (d) 2, 4-D (2, 4-dichlorophenoxy acetic acid) is used to
treated with 3-5% sulphur. It introduces sulphur bridges destroy weeds.
between polymer chains thereby increasing its tensile 48. (c) Organic farming is the form of agriculture that relies
strength, elasticity and resistance to abrasion. on crop rotation, green manure, compost, biological pest
35. (a) Aqua-regia is a mixture of concentrated nitric acid control and mechanical cultivation to maintain soil
and concentrated hydrochloric acid in the ratio 1 : 3 productivity and control pests. It does not reduce CO 2
respectively. It is a very powerful oxidising mixture. emission. It does not lead to toxic effect. It improves the
36. (a) Acetone is used as a solvent. It is an ingredient of water-retention capacity of the soil.
nail polish remover. 49. (b) CFL is a type of fluorescent lamp which contains
37. (a) Soaps do not form lather with hard water which mercury.
contains salts of calcium and magnesium because calcium Automobile battery contains toxic substance lead (Pb).
and magnesium salts of long chain fatty acids are insoluble Polymers contain toxic substance phthalates.
in water. Diesel engine emits the harmful nitrogen oxides by the
38. (b) Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) is a reddish brown gas. It has internal combustion of fuel.
pungent smell and considered as air pollutant. In the 50. (b) (Alloy) (Constituent)
presence of sunlight hydrocarbons and oxides of Nitrogen Solder Lead and tin
react to form ozone and PAN (peroxy Acetyl Nitrate). Smog Brass Copper and zinc
is formed in traffic congested cities. Hytrocarbon + Bronze Copper and tin
Nitrogen oxides Steel Iron and carbon
51. (c) Polyacrylonitrile or orlon is used as a substitute for
¾¾¾®
Sunlight
O3 + PAN+ aldehyde wool in making synthetic blankets, sweaters etc. It is a
39. (c) polymer of acrylonitrile or vinyl cyanide.
Product Boiling Point (°C) 52. (d) The cleaning of dirty clothes by soaps and
(a) Kerosene 200-300° detergents is due to a type of molecules called surfactants.
(b) Diesel above 300° The surfactant molecules remove the dirt by forming some
(c) Gasoline 25-75°C aggregates of themselves and take away the dirt in the
(d) Lubricating oil >350°C core of aggregates. The spherical aggregate of surfactant
molecules in water is called a micelle.
40. (d) Magnesium sulphate (MgSO4) is used as a mordant
53. (c) Sodium bicarbonate also known as baking soda, is
in dyeing and tanning industry.
the chemical compound with the formula NaHCO3.
41. (a) Automobile batteries are usually lead-acid type, and
54. (c) SO2 can act as an oxidising agent as well as a reducing
are made of six galvanic cells in series to provide a 12-volt
agent.
system. Each cell provides 2.1 volts for a total of 12.6
It oxidises H2S to S
volts at full charge.
Lead-acid batteries are made up of plates of lead and 2H2S + SO2 ¾¾ ® 2H2O + S
separate plates of lead dioxide, which are submerged into It reduces ferric sulphate to ferrous sulphate
anelectrolyte solution of about 38% sulfuric acid and 62% Fe2 (SO4)3 + SO2 + 2H2O ¾¾ ® 2FeSO4 + 2H2SO4
water. This causes a chemical reaction that releases 55. (b) Glass wool is an insulating material, obtained from
electrons, allowing them to flow through conductors to fibre glass arranged into a texture similar to wool.
produce electricity. As the battery discharges, the acid of 56. (a) In a chemical change a new substance is formed.
the electrolyte reacts with the materials of the plates, Sun has been producing light by nuclear fusion and it is a
changing their surface to lead sulfate. When the battery is chemical change.
recharged, the chemical reaction is reversed: the lead sulfate
reforms into lead dioxide and lead. With the plates restored 41 H1 ¾¾ ® 2 He 4 + 2 +1e 0 + g + Energy
to their original condition, the process may now be repeated. 57 (a) Aqua-regia is a mixture of concentrated nitric acid
42. (b) Light production in fireflies is due to a type of and concentrated hydrochloric acid in the ratio of 1 : 3. It
chemical reaction called bioluminescence. This process is a very powerful oxidising mixture and hence, used to
occurs in specialised light-emitting organs, usually on a clean the surface of gold ornaments.
EBD_7341
32 Chemistry
58. (a) During the setting of cement, the structure has to be 76. (a) The method of protection of iron from corrosion by
cooled by spraying water because setting of cement is an using a more reactive metal is known as sacrificial
exothermic process and involves hydration of calcium protection or cathodic protection. Zinc, magnesium and
aluminates and calcium silicates. aluminium metals are more reactive than iron hence, they
59. (a) Superphosphate of lime can be easily assimilated by are used as a sacrificial anode while tin is less reactive
plants because it is soluble in water. than iron hence, it cannot be used as a sacrificial anode.
60. (c) Radioactivity is not a periodic property. It is a nuclear 77. (c) Sodium thiosulphate (Na2S2O3) solution is used as
property. Atomic size, valency and electronegativity are fixer in photography, it removes undercomposed AgBr as
periodic properties because they show a trend on moving a soluble silver thiosulphate complex.
from one side to the other in the periodic table. AgBr + 2Na 2S2O3 ® Na 3[Ag(S2O3 ) 2 ]+ NaBr
61. (a) On reaction with ethanol the colour of the solution Sodiumargento
changes from, orange to green. thiosulphate
62. (a) The tanks used by Scuba divers are filled with air 78. (a) Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen present in high
diluted with helium (i.e., He-O2 mixture) because unlike concentration in air dissolve in rain drops and form
nitrogen, helium is not soluble in blood even under high oxyacids of sulphur and nitrogen. These oxyacids are
pressure. highly acidic in nature and therefore, they make rain water
63. (c) Substances like graphite and heavy water are used acidic.
as moderator to slow down the speed of neutrons. Cd or 4NO2 + 2H2O + O2 ¾¾ ® 4HNO3
B are used as control rods to control rate of fission by 2SO2 + 2H2O + O2 ¾¾ ® 2H2SO4
absorbing neutrons. The pH of acid rain is 4 - 5
Coolant like heavy water or molten sodium is used to 79. (a) On mixing with water, plaster of Paris hardens
carry away the heat. because it takes up the water of crystallisation again and
64. (c) The process of depositing a thin layer of one metal thus, converts back into the dihydrate i.e., gypsum.
over the surface of other metal by the process of
electrolysis is known as electroplating. Hence, when items 1 1
CaSO4 . H 2 O + 1 H 2O ® CaSO 4 .2H 2O
or jewellery made of metals such as copper or nickel are 2 2 Gypsum
placed in a solution having a salt of gold, a thin film of Plaster of Paris
gold is deposited by passing an electric current. 80. (d) All liquids are not conductors of electricity. Only the
65. (c) Heavy water or deuterium oxide (D 2O) is an oxide of liquids which contain free ions or electrons, can conduct
deuterium which is an isotope of hydrogen. electricity.
66. (b) Ethyl mercaptan or thioethanol (C2H5SH) is added 81. (a) Gypsum (CaSO4 × 2H2O) is added to clinker during
during filling of LPG cylinders. It is a strong smelling cement manufacturing to decrease the rate of setting of
compound and help in the detection of gas leakage. cement so, that it gets sufficiently hardens.
67. (b) Atoms are neutral. When an atom loses electron, it 82. (c) In lemon juice citric acid is present. Hence, acids are
becomes positively charged and when an atom gains conductors of electricity. The aqueous solution of lime
electron, it becomes negatively charged. Hence, a body is juice conducts electricity due to the presence of ions in
charged negatively when it has acquired some electrons it.
from outside. 83. (a) Ground water is polluted by fluoride rich rocks which
68. (d) Titanium (Ti) metal is used for making boats because contain fluoride in large quantity.
it does not corrode by the sea water. 84. (d) Pearl consists of approximately 85% calcium
69. (c) Contact lenses are made from lucite. It is a polymer carbonate.
of methyl methacrylate. The other names of lucite are 85. (c) The method of determining the age of an object
plexiglass, acrylite and perspex. containing organic material by using the properties of
70. (a) Water has a high specific heat. radioactive isotope of carbon is known as Radiocarbon
71. (a) The water will freeze because on Moon the dating or carbon dating. Radioactive isotopes have
temperature is below the freezing point i.e., very low. unstable nuclei that break down i.e., decay and form other
72. (d) When calcium oxide or quicklime (CaO) is dissolved elements. C-12 and C-14 are the two isotopes of carbon
in water, calcium hydroxide or limewater is obtained and which is used to determine the age of fossil.
there is a release of heat. 86. (a) Acetylene is the nontoxic gases that help in
CaO + H 2O ® Ca(OH) 2 + Heat formation of enzymes which riper fruit. Ripening is a
Quick lim e Lime water
process in fruits causes them to become more palatable.
87. (c) Vermicompost is the product or process of
73. (d) Air would expand the most on being heated.
composting utilising various species of worms, usually
74. (d) Lactic acid occurs in sour curd.
red wigglers, white worms and earthworms to create a
Tartaric acid occurs in tamarind.
heterogeneous mixture of decomposing vegetables or food
Oxalic acid occurs in tomato.
waste, bedding material and vernicast. Containing water
Citric acid occurs in all citrus fruits like orange, lemon etc.
soluble nutrients, vermicompost is an excellent, nutrient
75. (c) Silicosis is a chronic lung disease caused by
rich organic fertilizer and soil conditioner.
breathing in silica dust. Silicosis (silico tuberculosis)
88. (b) The macro nutrients provided by inorganic fertilizers
occurs in workers whose occupation is related to pottery,
are magnesium, manganese and sulphur.
ceramic, and glass industry.
89. (d) Except (d) all statements are correct.
Chemistry 33
90. (a) 111. (a) Hypochlorous acid and chlorine on photochemical
91. (d) All Alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis decomposition gives nascent chlorine which further
because all bases are not soluble in water but alkalis like deplete ozone layer
soap are water soluble bases. · ·
Hv
92. (a) The pH of fresh ground water slightly decreases HOCl(g) ¾¾¾
® O H(g) + C l(g)
upon exposure to air because when it comes to air, it
·
absorbs the carbon dioxide (CO2), and for carbonic acid Hv
Cl 2 (g) ¾¾¾
® 2C l(g)
(H2 CO3) which is a weak acid i.e. less pH.
93. (c) In making of bullet proof material. Polyethylene The following reaction display how Cl atoms have an
polymers is used because it is cheap, flexible, durable and ozone destrry cycle.
chemically resistant. ·
94. (a) The periodic table is a tabular arrangement of the ® C F2 Cl + Cl·
CF2 Cl2 ¾¾
elements organised on a basis of their properties. · ·
95. (d) Soaps cannot be used in acidic condition as they are C l + O3 ¾¾
® Cl O+ O 2
converted into free fatty acid which form a scum.
· ·
96. (a) 2ClO + O 2 ¾¾
® 2Cl + 2O 2
97. (a) A heterogeneous mixture is a mixture of more than
two elements. 112. (a) Carbon (C) forms a large number of compounds due
98. (a) The carbon dioxide reacts with the lime water to form to its two characteristics properties.
calcium carbonate that is insoluble. (i) Catenation (ability to link with other carbon atoms)
(ii) Tetra valency (valency of carbon is 4)
CaO + CO 2 ¾¾ ® CaCO 3 ¯ This substance precipitate 113. (d) It is a simple displacement reaction in which
out of solution making the lime water cloudy. Hydrogen is displaced by Sodium metal, results in the
99. (b) In soft drinks bicarbonate salts acts as acidity formation of sodium chloride (NaCl). Also the oxidation
regulators. Bicarbonate of soda is effective at regulating state of each atom is same in both sides.
the pH levels of other substances; it ensures that the 114. (b) Water shows maximum density at 4°C. At freezing
substance is neither too alkaline nor too acidic. point it expands and density decreases.
100. (b) Generally are weak bases. Antacid which naturalises 115. (c) Mercury (Hg), a metal is a liquid at room temperature
stomach acidity, a commonly used antacid is magnesium and standard pressure.
hydroxide. Magnesium hydroxide is common component Bromine (Br2) a non metal is a liquid at room temperature
of antacids and laxatives. and standard pressure.
101. (c) Iodised salt is a compound formed by combination 116. (d) A compound calcium sulphate (CaSO4) which is a
of potassium iodide and common salt. white solid is highly hygroscopic in nature. It has a very
102. (c) remarkable property of setting into a hard, solid mass on
103. (c) Carbon monoxide readily combines with the wetting with water.
haemoglobin of the blood. 117. (d) Smoke is a collection of airborne solid and liquid
104. (a) Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen are responsible particulates and gases emitted when a material undergoes
for acid rain. Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxide, react combustion or pyrolysis, together with entrapment of
with the water molecules in the atmosphere to produce liquid droplets or solid particulates in a flowing gas.
acids. 118. (d) Oxygen is supporter of combustion. Though it is not
105. (b) Magnesium burns a very bright white, so it is used combustible. Combustion is an oxidation process and this
to add white sparks or improve the overall brilliance of a cannot occur without the presence of oxygen.
firework. 119. (b) Rust is an iron oxide formed by the redox reaction of
106. (a) The main cause of hardness of water is presence of iron and oxygen in the presence of water or air moisture
Ca or Mg ions. When hard water containing these ions is
treated with soap solution it reacts to form white crudy 4Fe + 2O2 + xH 2O ¾¾
® 2Fe 2O3.xH 2 O
From air Hydrated iron oxide (rust)
ppt known as scum.
107. (c) Catalysts are chemical substances used in chemical Hence rust is a compound.
reactions that increases or decreases the rate of reaction 120. (a) Both metal and glass expand when heated. Here glass
without taking part in reaction positive catalysts speed is a non-metal. Metal expands more than non-metal due to
up the reactions, where as negative catalysts slow them temperature change.
down. 121. (c) Silica and aluminium are the two main constituents
108. (c) Carbon atoms is diamond form a rigid, three of granite. Granite contains 70-77% of silica and 11-13%
dimensional structure with each carbon atom bonded to of aluminium in the form of (Al2O3).
four other carbon atoms. 122. (a) An aquifer is an underground layer of water bearing
109. (c) Food cans are coated with tin instead of zinc because rock. Water bearing rocks are permeable i.e., they have
zinc is more reactive than tin. Tin is only reactive to opening that liquids and gases can pass through. But
powerful acids such as tri-sodium phosphate, while zinc clay layers are poor aquifers. Clay minerals are dense,
is reactive towards acids. impermeable material and act as an 'aquifuge' i.e., a layer
110. (a) Carbon dioxide is responsible for the expansion of of material that is almost impenetrable to water.
water in the ocean. 123. (b) It helps in elimination of lead oxide.
EBD_7341
34 Chemistry
124. (d) Silicosis in human is lung disease caused by cells. The primary cell is capable of providing an EMF
inhalation of crystalline sillica-dust. when its constituent's two electrodes and a suitable
125. (c) Amnion is a membrane, filled with fluid, closely electrolyte are assembled together. The three main primary
covers the embryo. cells are the Daniel cell, the Leclanche cell, and the dry
The sex of the embryo may be determined by ultrasound cell. None of these cells can be recharged electrically.
as early as 11 weeks gestation. 142. (d) Acetylene is the only commercial fuel gas that can
126. (b) The blue litmus paper turns red in acidic solution be used for both cutting and welding applications.
and blue in basic solution. The neutral solution does not 143. (b) There are about seven nutrients essential to plant
affect the litmus paper. Now since common salt solution growth and health that are only needed in very small
is neutral hence do not show any colour change on litmus quantities. These are Boron ,Chlorine, Copper, Iron,
paper. Manganese, Molybdenum and Zinc.
127. (a) Oil become rancid due to oxidation. Oil contains fatty 144. (c) The correct match is as follows:
acid which react in presence of oxygen and become rancid. Chloroflurocarbon- Depletion in ozone layer in the
Rancid oil is a major source of destructive free radicals in atmosphere
our diet. Sulphur dioxide- Acid rain
128. (b) Bagasse is sugarcane fibre waste left after juice Lead compound- Harmful for human nervous system
extraction.It is used for the production of paper. Carbon dioxide- Topmost contribution to greenhouse
129. (b) Biogas is primarily methane (CH4) and carbon dioxide effect
(CO2) and may have small amounts of hydrogen sulphide 145. (d) Lithium is also a highly reactive element, meaning
(H2S), moisture and siloxanes. that a lot of energy can be stored in its atomic bonds.
130. (b) Graphite and graphite powder are a naturally This translates into a very high energy density for lithium-
occurring form of carbon which serves as an industrial ion batteries. It is used in mobile phone, laptops etc.
lubricant. 146. (b) Exfoliation involves the removal of the oldest dead
131. (b) Tritium is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen. The skin cells on the skin's outermost surface and has been
nucleus of tritium contains one proton and two neutrons. used for many years to help maintain healthy skin. It can
132. (a) Lime water is actually Ca(OH)2. When it reacts with be achieved through mechanical or chemical means.
CO2, insoluble CaCO3 is formed which turns solution 147. (b) Phosphorus is of the two types - White and red.
milky. When excess CO2 is added, CaCO3 reacts with water White phosphorus is highly reactive and catches fire at
and CO2 to form Calcium bicarbonate which is soluble. normal room temperature but red phosphorus does not
That is why the solution clears out. show such nature.
133. (c) Graphite is a very good conductor, while diamond 148. (a) Exponent - Law
has a very low electrical conductivity. John Dalton - Law of multiple proportion
134. (c) Frying an egg involves a chemical change. The heat Joseph Proust - Law of definite Proportion
in the frying process gives energy to the egg's molecules by weight
and brings about a permanent change in the substance. Antoine Lavoisier - Law of Conservation of mass
135. (c) Rest of the statements are true. Joseph Louis Gay - Law of definite proportion
136. (a) Chromium oxide in paints makes the colour of paint Lussac by volume.
green. 149. (c) Hydrocarbon is related with petro chemicals such as
137. (a) Milk of magnesia (magnesium hydroxide) is most crude oil and petrolium. Environmental pollution by crude
commonly found as a liquid. The magnesium in the liquid oil is generally caused during disposal operations and
can both neutralize excess stomach acid to treat spilling in water bodies like- oceans, seas and rivers.
indigestion. 150. (d) Ice is less dense in comparison to liquid water.
138. (b) The white solid remains in the container when hard Actually when water freezes, water (H2O) molecules form
water is evaporated completely is mainly due to the a crystalline structure by Hydrogen bonds. These bonds
presence of chlorides and carbonates of Ca and Mg and cause molecules to push apart lowering the density of
also due to presence of traces of sulphates of Ca and water (H2O)
Mg. 151. (d) The structure of diamond.
139. (d) NaCl has same molecular weight and equivalent
weight
Molecular weight of salt
Equivalent weight of salt =
Total charge on cation
Molecular weight of NaCl = 23 + 35.5 = 58.5
58.5 In diamond each carbon (C) atom shares electrons
\ Equivalent weight of NaCl = = 58.5 (e-) with four other carbon atoms forming four single bond.
1
140. (c) Due to more expansion of vassel, plate comes out shape of structure appears three dimensional network
easily. structure. It is very hard structure being used in cutting
141. (a) Electricity is produced through dry cell from and sharpening tools. It cannot be used as lubricant.
chemical energy. The cells from which electric energy is 152. (a) John Dalton (1766-1844), an English chemist is known
derived by irreversible chemical action are called primary for the work in the development of modern atomic theory.
He was awarded the Royal medal for this.
Chemistry 35
153. (c) Kinetic energy is the same for molecules of all gases 168. (d) Due to the small size of lithium, it will polarize the
at a given temperature. large anion oxygen, the C–OC–O bond will weaken and
154. (d) The Sound propagation is facilitated by the Li–OLi–O bond will strengthen, they will split, and they
collisions between the particles of medium. The inter- will not be in the solid state.
molecular distance in solids is very small whereas in gases 169. (d) Gamma decay, type of radioactivity in which some
it is very high. Therefore the velocity of sound is maximum unstable atomic nuclei dissipate excess energy by a
in solids and minimum in gases. spontaneous electromagnetic process.
155. (c) q = m D Hf In the radioactive substances, gamma decay occurs after
Where, m = mass, q = heat energy the alpha and the beta decay. As the radioactive substance
D Hf = heat of fusion has already released some of its particles in the alpha and
q = (100g) × 333.6 J/g = 33360 J the beta decay it simply wants to release energy burst of
156. (a) Burning of paper is a chemical change because it is electromagnetic radiations. The nuclei has comes to the
irreversible. stable state and releases energy in the form of gamma
157. (c) Hydrogen has three naturally occuring isotopes rays. In the gamma decay as no particles either protons or
denoted by 1H, 2H and 3H. nucleons are released so the element before the radioactive
158. (c) Atoms of the same element always have the same gamma decay and after the gamma decay remains same.
number of protons (is it had a different number of protons 170. (c) Magnesium (Mg) is main elements of Chlorophyll,
it would be a different element.) found in plants which trap energy of sunlight in
159. (c) Natural rubber, coming from latex of Hevea photosynthesis.
brasiliensis containing traces of impurities like protein, Calcium (Ca) and Magnesium (Mg) work together to
dirt, etc. while synthetic rubber is made by the control muscle contraction. Osteoporosis is caused due
polymerization of a variety of petroleum-based precursors. to the deficiency in our body.
160. (d) Bakelite was invented by Leo Baekeland in New York Strontium (Sr) is a soft, silver-yellow, alkaline-earth metal.
in 1907. It is the first man made plastic. It has three allotropic crystalline forms and in its physical
161. (d) Methyl Isocyanate gas (MIC) is used in preparation and chemical properties it is similar to calcium and barium.
of pesticides. It gives red colour to flame.
162. (c) Two systems are said to be in thermal equilibrium if Barium (Ba) Sulphate compound is used in medicine to
is no heat transfer takes place as both the systems have examine the elementary canal of patient.
same temperature. 171. (d) The oxidation state of hydrogen is +1 in its
163. (c) German silver is a mixture of copper, zinc and nickel. compounds, except for metal hydrides, such as NaH, LiH,
It is an alloy metal. It is used to make pots and toys due to etc., in which the oxidation state for H is –1.
hardness toughness and resistance to corrosion. 172. (d) A Standard Hydrogen Electrode (SHE) is an electrode
164. (d) Eight allotropes of carbon: a) Diamond, b) Graphite, that scientists use for reference on all half-cell potential
c) Lonsdaleite, d) C60 (Buckminsterfullerene or buckyball), reactions. The value of the standard electrode potential is
e) C540, f) C70, g) Amorphous carbon, and h) single-walled zero at 25°C, which forms the basis one needs to calculate
carbon nanotube or buckytube. cell potentials using different electrodes or different
Hence, (d) is the correct answer. concentrations.
165. (b) Bleaching of wood pulp is the chemical processing 173. (c) Physical changes lead to change in the form of a
of wood pulp to lighten its color and whiten the pulp. The substance, without any change in chemical composition.
primary product of wood pulp is paper, for which Coal is composed of carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen.
whiteness (similar to, but distinct from brightness) is an Wood is composed of cellulose, hemicellulose and lignin.
important characteristic.[1] These processes and Burning of wood, coal and potassium chlorate leads to
chemistry are also applicable to the bleaching of non- chemical reaction as their components are chemically
wood pulps, such as those made from bamboo or kenaf. active. Platinum being an inert element does not show
166. (a) Dolomite is used in agriculture to raise the pH of chemical reaction and show only physical change such
overly acidic soil and provide nutrients for plants. as rise in temperature.
It contains calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate, 174. (d) Multiple-distilled water is considered to be pure.
two basic pH-raising ingredients that counteract the acids pH of pure water is 7 as the number of hydroxyl ions and
in soil and peat. hydrogen ions in pure water is balanced. A strong acid
167. (a) Nitrate can also enter the groundwater via excessive completely ionizes when dissolved in water and provides
use of fertilizers, including manure spreading. The hydrogen ions. Strong acid has pH of 0. Similarly, a strong
excessive use of nitrogen-containing fertilizers (be they base/alkali also ionizes completely in water and provides
synthetic or natural) is particularly damaging, as much of hydroxyl ions. Strong base has pH of 14.
the nitrogen that is not taken up by plants is transformed 175. (d) Atomic number, which equals to the number of
into nitrate which is easily leached. protons in the nucleus of an atom, is the characteristic
The nutrients, especially nitrates, in fertilizers can cause property of an element and determines its chemical
problems for natural habitats and for human health if they properties and position in the periodic table. Mass number
are washed off soil into watercourses or leached through is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus
soil into groundwater. The heavy use of nitrogenous of an element. Density is the mass per unit volume of a
fertilizers in cropping systems is the largest contributor substance. Boiling point is the temperature at which a
to anthropogenic nitrogen in groundwater worldwide. substance boils.
EBD_7341
36 Chemistry
176. (c) Calcium and argon are isobars because they have 185. (d) There are 12 atoms of hydrogen per molecule of
same atomic mass. Two elements with same neutron glucose, which has a molar mass of 180g/mol. Hence the
number, but different proton number are called isotones. number of moles of hydrogen = 12 × 1.50 ÷ 180 = 0.10mol.
Each of two or more forms of the same element with equal Hence the number of hydrogen atoms is found by
numbers of protons but different numbers of neutrons is multiplying this by the Avogadro Constant, 6.02 × 10²³.
called isotope. Isochore is the graphic representation This gives you 6.02 × 10²² atoms.
showing lines or surface of constant volume of a physical 186. (b) Plaster of paris, quick-setting gypsum plaster
system. consisting of a fine white powder (calcium sulfate
177. (d) ‘Plum Pudding Model,’ the scientific model of atom hemihydrate), which hardens when moistened and
was proposed by J. J. Thomson in which he said that an allowed to dry. Known since ancient times, plaster of
atom is made up of electrons surrounded by positive paris is so called because of its preparation from the
charge to balance the negative charges of electrons. abundant gypsum found near Paris.
Negatively charged electrons are called ‘plums’ 187. (c) An emulsion is a mixture of two or more liquids that
surrounded by positively charged particles ‘pudding.’ are normally immiscible.
178. (c) Atomic mass of Sodium = 23 gram = 1 mole of Sodium 188. (d) Strontium-90, Iodine-131, Cesium-137 enters/enter
No. of moles in 46 grams of Sodium = 2; the human body through food chain and causes/cause
1 Avogadro’s Number (N) = 1 mole of substance many physiological disorders
Therefore, 2 moles of Sodium = 2N 189. (b) In a nuclear reactor, the reaction is controlled, while
179. (c) States of matter can be defined as the forms a in nuclear bombs, the reaction is uncontrolled. In a nuclear
substance can occur, and are of five types: solid, liquid, reactor, all operating reactors are ‘critical’, while there is
gas, plasma and Bose-Einstein condensates (BEC). Each no question of ‘critically’ in case of a nuclear bomb.
form differs from the other mainly in structures and 190. (b) Tincture of iodine, iodine tincture, or weak iodine
densities. Plasma are highly charged particles with high solution is an antiseptic. It is usually 2–7% elemental
kinetic energy. BEC is a state of matter of a dilute gas of iodine, along with potassium iodide or sodium iodide,
bosons cooled close to absolute zero. dissolved in a mixture of ethanol and water. Tincture
180. (d) The period of an element in the periodic table solutions are characterized by the presence of alcohol.
depends on the total number of electron shells in the 191. (a) Carbon dioxide (CO 2) gas dissolved in water can
atom of that element. Chemical property of an element cause water to become acidic.
depends on the valence electrons which participate in CO2 + H2O ® H2CO3 (Carbonic acid)
bond formation. Isotopes are two or more forms of the 192. (b) It is a double replacement reaction. Fe 2O 3(s) +
same element with equal numbers of protons but different 3 CO(g) = 2 Fe(l) + 3 CO2(g).
numbers of neutrons. Total number of protons and 193. (b) Xenon is used in fluorescent bulbs, flash bulbs and
neutrons is mass number. Chemical property is lasers. Xenon emits an instant, intense light when present
independent of neutrons and protons. in discharge tubes. This property of xenon is utilized in
181. (b) Normality is a way of expressing concentration of a high-speed electronic flash bulbs used by photographers.
solution and can be calculated by the formula 194. (b) A compound is a substance that results from a
Normality (N) = No. of gram equivalent of solute/volume combination of two or more different chemical element s,
of solution (in liter) in such a way that the atoms of the different elements are
Gram equivalent weight of H2SO4 = Molecular weight/ held together by chemical bonds that are difficult to break.
No. of Hydrogen atom = 98/2 = 49 gm 195. (d) Temporary hardness is due to the presence of calcium
No. of gram equivalent in 49 gm of H2SO4 = 1 So, Normality hydrogencarbonate Ca(HCO 3 )2(aq) and magnesium
in 1 liter of solution = 1/1 = 1 N hydrogencarbonate Mg(HCO 3 )2(aq). Both calcium
182. (a) A pearl is a hard object produced within the soft hydrogencarbonate and magnesium hydrogen carbonate
tissue of a living shelled mollusk. Just like the shell of a decompose when heated. The original insoluble carbonate
mollusk, a pearl is composed of calcium carbonate (mainly is reformed. This happens when water is boiled.
aragonite or a mixture of aragonite and calcite) in minute 196. (d) Element with 18 protons and 22 neutrons will be the
crystalline form, which has been deposited in concentric isobar of calcium if the atomic number of calcium is 2 0
layers. The ideal pearl is perfectly round and smooth, but and its mass number is 40.
many other shapes, known as baroque pearls, can occur. 197. (b) When Magnesium carbonate (MgCO 3) reacts with
183. (b) When accelerated from rest the energy is fully kinetic Hydrochloric acid (HCl), the products will be Magnesium
so Chloride (Mgcl2) and Carbonic acid. (H2CO3). Since H2CO3
KE= charge*potential difference is unstable in the troposphere ( the lowest part of
i.e 1/2 Mv2=Q.V atmosphere where we are living right now) and lower
From the above equation it is obvious that velocity of stratosphere in gas-phase, it will decompose into H2O
particle is inversely proportional to the mass of particle and CO2. When this reaction occurred, you can see some
so, electron will gain more speed as it has lower mass gas bubble (CO2) formed in it.
than that of proton. Also, as the energy is fully kinetic so 198. (a) 2 moles of CO will be produced.
electron will have greater energy as a result of greater 199. (a) Magnesium reacts with hydrochloric acid according
velocity. to the equation:
184. (b) A substance that accepts a proton is a base. In the Mg(s) + 2 HCl(aq) ® MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)
above reaction, water is acting as a base. This demonstration can be used to illustrate the
Chemistry 37
characteristic reaction of metals with acid, a single the more dense gold. So, it has more up thrust from the
replacement reaction, or to demonstrate the generation water and, although they both show the same weight
of hydrogen gas. under water, there is more mass of silver present. Hence,
200. (b) They are all gases at room temperature. Elemental out of the water then, the silver would weigh more than
hydrogen (H, element 1), nitrogen (N, element 7), oxygen the gold.
(O, element 8), fluorine (F, element 9), chlorine (Cl, element 215. (d)
17) and CO2 are all gases at room temperature, and are 216. (d) The noble gases (helium, neon, argon, krypton,
found as diatomic molecules (H2, N2, O2, F2, Cl2, CO2). xenon, and radon) are also gases at STP, but they are
201. (d) A white crystalline organic compound (C 7H7NO2) monatomic. Helium is a member of the noble gases which
composed of a benzene ring with an amino group and a means it has a filled outer shell of electrons.
carboxyl group attached to the carbon atoms 1 and 4 217. (b) In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three
respectively and having twice the mass of nitrogen atoms other carbon atoms in the same plane giving a hexagonal
compared to hydrogen atoms. array. One of these bonds is a double-bond, and thus the
202. (a) Saturated hydrocarbons are hydrocarbons that valency of carbon is satisfied.
contain only single bonds between carbon atoms. They 218. (a) Because isotopes of the same element have identical
are the simplest class of hydrocarbons. They are called chemical properties, they cannot be separated by chemical
saturated because each carbon atom is bonded to as methods, but only by methods that are based on their
many hydrogen atoms as possible. In other words, the mass differences, such as mass spectrometry.
carbon atoms are saturated with hydrogen. General 219. (b) Moseley’s law advanced atomic physics, nuclear
chemical formula for Saturated Hydrocarbons CnH2n+2. physics and quantum physics by providing the first
203. (a) The molar mass of Ba(OH)2= Ba + 2 × (O + H) experimental evidence in favour of Niels Bohr’s theory,
= 137.3 + 2 × (16 + 1) = 171.3 aside from the hydrogen atom spectrum which the Bohr
Equivalent weight of Ba(OH)2= molar mass mole factor theory was designed to reproduce. That theory refined
= 171.3 2 = 85.7 Ernest Rutherford’s and Antonius van den Broek’s model,
204. (d) Unless oxygen is combined with fluorine or isolated which proposed that the atom contains in its nucleus a
from other atoms, the oxidation number of oxygen atoms number of positive nuclear charges that is equal to its
is always taken as -2. This gives a total oxidation number (atomic) number in the periodic table. This remains the
charge of -10 for the five oxygen atoms in N 2O 5. To accepted model today.
maintain electrical neutrality as required for all 220. (a) Evaporation is the process by which water changes
compounds, the two nitrogen atoms must have a total from a liquid to a gas or vapor. Evaporation is the primary
oxidation charge of +10, so that each of the two nitrogen pathway that water moves from the liquid state back into
atoms has an oxidation number of +5. the water cycle as atmospheric water vapor.
205. (c) Diamond is a poor conductor of electricity, but is a The rate of evaporation is affected by the following
good conductor of heat while graphite is a good conductor factors: Temperature: The rate of evaporation increases
of heat and electricity. with an increase in temperature. Surface area: The rate of
206. (a) CH4 +H2O ® CO + 3H2 evaporation increases with an increase in surface area.
207. (b) Boiling water absorbs heat in the form of latent heat Humidity: The amount of water vapour present in the air
for the purpose of changing its liquid state to vapors and is called humidity.
latent heat of vaporization is quite high far water. 221. (b) In chemistry, a mixture is a material made up of two
208. (b) or more different substances which are physically
209. (d) Decantation is a process of separation of insoluble combined. A mixture is the physical combination of two
solids from liquid. The suspension of solid particles in or more substances in which the identities are retained
liquid is allowed to stand for some time. The solid particles and are mixed in the form of solutions, suspensions and
then settle down at the bottom of the container and clean colloids.
water goes up. Mixtures are one product of mechanically blending or
210. (d) Fluorine does not give Lassaigne›s test because it mixing chemical substances such as elements and
does not form Precipitate like other halogens (chlorine, compounds, without chemical bonding or other chemical
Bromine, Iodine). change, so that each ingredient substance retains its own
211. (c) Alkyl halides do not show functional isomerism. chemical properties and makeup. Despite the fact that
Alcohols and ethers; aldehydes and ketones; cyanides there are no chemical changes to its constituents, the
and isocyanides are functional isomers. It is because physical properties of a mixture, such as its melting point,
there's only one way to attach a halogen to a carbon may differ from those of the components. Some mixtures
chain: via one single bond. Halogens can't form more can be separated into their components by using physical
than one bond in the context of common organic (mechanical or thermal) means.
compounds, and can't form multiple bonds to carbon. 222. (b) A chemical element is a species of atom having the
212. (c) The most stable conformation of a molecule is in the same number of protons in its atomic nuclei. For example,
form of a Newman Projection. the atomic number of oxygen is 8, so the element oxygen
213. (b) Nylon 6 is made from only one kind of monomer, describes all atoms which have 8 protons. In total, 118
called caprolactam. elements have been identified.
214. (b) When the two materials were in the water, the less An atom is the smallest constituent unit of ordinary matter
dense material (silver) occupies a greater volume than that constitutes a chemical element. Every atom is
EBD_7341
38 Chemistry
composed of a nucleus and one or more electrons bound posses same number of nucleons.Among the given
to the nucleus. The nucleus is made of one or more protons
40 40
and a number of neutrons. options,option (d) is the pair of isobar. Ar and
Isobars are atoms (nuclides) of different chemical elements 18 20
that have the same number of nucleons. Correspondingly, Ca,both have same atomic mass.
isobars differ in atomic number (or number of protons) 226. (c) All the given chemical reactions are the example of
but have the same mass number. An example of a series displacement reaction.In option (c), Copper is less
of isobars would be 40S, 40Cl, 40Ar, 40K, and 40Ca. reactive than lead therfore copper is not able to displace
223. (c) The rate of evaporation is affected by the following lead from its salt solution.Hence option(c) is not feasible.
factors: 227. (b) There’s no solution having pH 0.But still it will be
Temperature: The rate of evaporation increases with an highly acidic solution.pH is the measure of acidity or
increase in temperature. alkalinity of a solution. The mathematical representation
Surface area: The rate of evaporation increases with an for pH is – pH = – log (H+).
increase in surface area. 228. (a) Boric acid is often used as an antiseptic, insecticide,
Humidity: The amount of water vapour present in the air flame retardant, neutron absorber, or precursor to other
is called humidity. The rate of evaporation decreases with chemical compounds. It has the chemical formula H3BO3
an increase in humidity. (sometimes written B (OH)3), and exists in the form of
Wind speed: Evaporation increases with an increase in colourless crystals or a white powder that dissolves in
wind speed. water. Citric acid is used in insecticides and disinfectants
224. (c) Rutherford overturned Thomson’s model in 1911 with to help destroy bacteria and viruses. It is used to preserve
his well-known gold foil experiment in which he and marinate meats, and flavour foods and beverages.
demonstrated that the atom has a tiny and heavy nucleus. Acetic acid is used in many industrial processes for the
Rutherford designed an experiment to use the alpha production of substrates and it is often used as a chemical
particles emitted by a radioactive element as probes to reagent for the production of a number of chemical
the unseen world of atomic structure. If Thomson was compounds like acetic anhydride, ester, vinyl acetate
correct, the beam would go straight through the gold monomer, vinegar, and many other polymeric materials.
foil. Most of the beams went through the foil, but a few Acetic acid also used in pickles.
were deflected. 229. (c) Limewater turns milky when we blow CO2 into it. As
Rutherford presented his own physical model for we all know that we inhale oxygen and exhale carbon
subatomic structure, as an interpretation for the dioxide. So when we blow CO2 into Limewater it reacts
unexpected experimental results. In it, the atom is made with lime water and form calcium carbonate which turns
up of a central charge (this is the modern atomic nucleus, it into milky.
though Rutherford did not use the term “nucleus” in his 230. (c) The silver article becomes black after sometimes
paper) surrounded by a cloud of (presumably) orbiting when exposed to air because silver reacts with sulphur
electrons. In this May 1911 paper, Rutherford only which is present in the atmosphere and then forms silver
committed himself to a small central region of very high sulphide. Thus the layer of this silver sulphide is formed
positive or negative charge in the atom. on the surface of the silver article so they appear as dull
225. (d) Isobars are the atoms of the elements which have or black.
the same atomic mass but different atomic number i.e.they
Biology 39
3 Biology
1. Consider the following [2007 - I] 1. Tetanus 2. Polio
Enzymes and protein can be correlated with each other in 3. Leprosy 4. Pertusis
the following ways Select the correct answer using the code given below
1. All proteins are enzyme. (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
2. All enzymes are protein. (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
3. All enzymes are not protein. 12. In the context of ecology and environment, what does the
4. All proteins are not enzyme. Red Data Book pertain to? [2007 - II]
Which of the above are correct? (a) Details of harmful levels of various pollutants
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (b) A complete list of all endangered plants and animals
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (c) A description of the consequences of nuclear
2. Consider the following statements in respect of thyroid holocaust
gland. [2007 - I] (d) A description of the sociological and psychological
1. It is situated in the neck. consequence of genetically modified plants and
2. It is vital to maintain of normal body temperature. animals
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 13. Which of the following is not a bird? [2007 - II]
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Bat (b) Emu
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Kiwi (d) Ostrich
3. Which one of the following is not a constituent of biogas? 14. Match the following lists. [2007- II]
[2007 - II]
List-I List-II
(a) Methane (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen dioxide (Scientist) (Work)
4. A mother of blood group O has a group O child. What A. F G Banting 1. Vaccination for small pox
could be the blood group of father of the child?[2007 - II] B. J Lister 2. Germ theory
(a) Only O (b) A or B or O
(c) A or B (d) Only AB C. Louis Pasteur 3. Use of carbolic acid as an antiseptic
5. What does sphygmomanometer measure? [2007 - II] D. E Jenner 4. Discovery of insulin
(a) Blood pressure
(b) Velocity of fluids Codes:
(c) Temperature A B C D A B C D
(d) Curvature of spherical surfaces (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 2 1 3
6. What does water gas comprise of? [2007 - II] (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 1 4 3 2
(a) Carbon monoxide and hydrogen 15. Which of the following part of blood carry out the function
(b) Carbon dioxide and hvdrogen of body defence? [2008 - I]
(c) Carbon monoxide and methane (a) Red blood cells (b) White blood cells
(d) Carbon dioxide and methane (c) Platelets (d) Haemoglobins
7. Which one of the following causes the chikungunya 16. Match the following [2008 - I]
disease? [2007 - II]
(a) Bacteria (b) Helminthic worm List-I List-II
(c) Protozoan (d) Virus (Disease) (Part of Human Body Affected)
8. Which one of the following vitamins is abundant in guava A. Conjunctivitis 1. Eyes
fruits? [2007 - II] B. Dermatitis 2. Joints
(a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-B12
(c) Vitamin-C (d) Vitamin-D C. Gout 3. Skin
9. Which one of the following vitamins helps in clotting of D. Meningitis 4. Spinal cord
blood? [2007 - II]
(a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-B6 Codes:
(c) Vitamin-D (d) Vitamin-K A B C D A B C D
10. Which one of the following glands in the human body (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 1 3 2 4
stores iodine? [2007 - II] (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 1 4 2 3
(a) Parathyroid (b) Thyroid 17. Which one of the following is not an insect borne
(c) Pituitary (d) Adrenal disease? [2008 - I]
11. Which of the following diseases are preventable by (a) Beri-beri (b) Kala-azar
vaccine? [2007 - II] (c) Malaria (d) Plague
EBD_7341
40 Biology
18. Which of the following gases is released from rice fields 30. What does airbag, used in safety of car driver, contain?
in the most prominent quantities? [2008 - I] [2008 - II]
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane (a) Sodium bicarbonate (b) Sodium azide
(c) Carbon monoxide (d) Sulphur dioxide (c) Sodium nitrite (d) Sodium peroxide
19. Consider the following statements. [2008 - I] 31. The characterisitic odour of garlic is due to which one of
1. Cigarette smoking exposes a person to benzene. the following? [2008 - II]
2. Benzene is a known carcinogen. (a) Chlorine-containing compounds
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Fluorine-containing compounds
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Nitrogen-containing compounds
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Sulphur-containing compounds
20. Which one of the following glands produces the growth 32. Which of the following plants is not capable of
hormone (somatotrophin)? [2008 - I] manufacturing its own food? [2008 - II]
(a) Algae (b) Mushroom (c) Carrot (d) Cabbage
(a) Adrenal (b) Pancreas
33. Which one of the following is considered as the easily
(c) Pituitary (d) Thyroid
digestible source of protein? [2008 - II]
21. In the human body, Cowper's glands form a part of which (a) Egg albumin (b) Soyabean
one of the following system? [2008 - I] (c) Fish flesh (d) Red meat
(a) Digestive system (b) Endocrine system 34. In normal adult human, what is the rate of heart beat per
(c) Reproductive system (d) Nervous system minute? [2008 - II]
22. Cloves, used as a spice, are derived from which of the (a) 72-80 (b) 70-75 (c) 80-97 (d) 82-87
following plant parts? [2008 - I] 35. The terms lubb and dubb relates to which one of the
(a) Seeds (b) Fruits following? [2008 - II]
(c) Flower buds (d) Young leaves (a) Heart (b) Eyes (c) Teeth (d) Lungs
23. Which one among the following kinds of organisms 36. In human body, what is the number of cervical vertebrae?
resides in the roots of pulse plants to do nitrogen fixation? [2008 - II]
[2008 - I] (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 12
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi 37. Which of the following is a rich source of energy?
(c) Protozoa (d) Virus [2008 - II]
24. The persons working in textile factories such as carpet (a) Protein (b) Lipid
weavers are exposed to which of the following (c) Carbohydrate (d) Vitamin
occupational diseases? [2008 - II] 38. By using which one of the following techniques, is DNA
(a) Asbestosis (b) Asthma and tuberculosis fingerprinting done? [2008 - II]
(c) Silicosis (d) Siderosis (a) ELISA (b) RIA
25. Dim-vision in the evening and night results from the (c) Northern Blotting (d) Southern Blotting
deficiency of which one of the following? [2008 - II] 39. Which chamber of human heart pumps fully oxygenated
(a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-E blood to aorta and thence to the body? [2008 - II]
(c) Vitamin-B12 (d) Vitamin-C (a) Right auricle (b) Left auricle
26. Which of the following nutrients is not a structural (c) Right ventricle (d) Left ventricle
component of the plant? [2008 - II] 40. Which one of the following is a major constituent of
(a) Nitrogen (b) Calcium biogas? [2008 - II]
(c) Phosphorus (d) Potassium (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane
(c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen dioxide
27. Assertion (A): Red blood cells burst when placed in water.
41. Which one of the following is responsible for converting
Reason (R): Due to osmosis, water enters into red blood
milk into curd? [2008 - II]
cells. [2008 - II] (a) Fungi (b) Bacteria
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation (c) Virus (d) None of these
of A 42. Sweating during exercise indicates operation of which one of
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct the following processes in the human body? [2008 - II]
explanation of A (a) Enthalpy (b) Phagocytosis
(c) A is true, but R is false (c) Homeostasis (d) Osmoregulation
(d) A is false, but R is true 43. Malaria in the human body is caused by which one of the
28. Which one of the following is correct? A concrete wall following organisms? [2008 - II]
generally? [2008 - II] (a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(a) only reflects sound (c) Mosquito (d) Protozoan
(b) only absorbs sound 44. Which one of the following diseases is caused by virus?
(c) only transmits sound [2008 - II]
(d) absorbs and transmits sound (a) Tuberculosis (b) Typhoid
29. Which colour of heat radiation represents the highest (c) Influenza (d) Diphtheria
temperature? [2008 - II] 45. Between which one of the following sets of blood groups,
(a) Blood red (b) Dark cherry is the blood transfusion possible? [2008 - II]
(c) Salmon (d) White (a) A and O (b) B and A
(c) A and AB (d) AB and O
Biology 41
46. In human beings, the opening of the stomach into the (a) Fungi (b) Algae
small intestine is called [2009 - I] (c) Pteridophytes (d) Angiosperms
(a) caecum (b) ileum 55. Which one of the following is a freeliving bacterium that
(c) oesophagus (d) pylorus helps in nitrogen fixation in soil? [2009 - I]
47. Match the following [2009 - I] (a) Azotobacter (b) Anabaena
List-I List-II (c) Azolla (d) Nostoc
56. Which one of the following is an example of vestigial
(Vitamin) (Chemica l Compound) organ in man? [2009 - I]
A. Vitamin-A 1. Thiamine (a) Jaw apparatus (b) Ear muscles
B. Vitamin-B 1 2. Retinol (c) Canine teeth (d) Humerus
C. Vitamin-C 3. Ascorbic acid 57. Which one of the following characteristics is common
among parrot, platypus and kangaroo? [2009 - I]
D. Vitamin-E 4. Tocopherol (a) Oviparity (b) Toothless jaws
Codes: (c) Homothermy (d) Functional postanal tail
A B C D A B C D 58. Which one of the following is present in chlorophyll which
(a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 2 3 1 4 gives a green colour to plant leaves? [2009 - II]
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 3 4 (a) Calcium (b) Magnesium
48. Which one of the following is considered as the drug of (c) Iron (d) Manganese
last resort for human beings? [2009 - I] 59. Which one of the following is responsible for the
(a) Penicillin (b) Tetracycline stimulating effect of tea? [2009 - II]
(c) Chloramphenicol (d) Streptomycin (a) Tannin (b) Steroid
49. Match the following [2009 - I] (c) Alkaloid (d) Flavonoid
Lis t-I Lis t-II 60. Consider the follwing statement about bioremediation.
1. It may be defined as any process that uses
(Medicinal Product) (S ource)
microorganisms or their enzymes to return the
A . Quin ine 1. Po p py plant environment altered by contaminants to its original
B. M orph in e 2. Bacteriu m condition.
2. Bioremediation may be employed in order to attack
C. Pen icillin 3. Cin cho na bark
specific contaminants, such as chlorinated pesticides
D. Tetracy clin e 4. Fu n gu s that are degraded by bacteria. [2009 - II]
Codes: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A B C D A B C D (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 2 3 1 4 (c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 1 3 4 61. The branches of this tree root themselves like new trees over
50. Wavelengths of which of the following colour of the visible a large area. The roots then give rise to more trunks and
spectrum of light are maximally absorbed by green plants? branches. Because of this characteristic and its longevity,
[2009 - I] this tree is considered immortal and is an integral part of the
(a) Green and Yeilow (b) Red and Blue myths and legends of India. Which tree is this? [2009 - II]
(c) Green and Red (d) Blue and Yellow (a) Banyan (b) Neem
51. Which one of the following plants is preferred for mixed (c) Tamarind(Imli) (d) Peepal
cropping in order to enhance the bioavailability of 62. Assertion (A): The safety air bags fitted in some cars
nitrogen? [2009 - I] inflate during head-on impact of the car. [2009 - II]
(a) Wheat (b) Gram (c) Maize (d) Barley Reason (R): The inflation is due to pumping of air into the
52. The plant dye Henna imparts orange-red colour to skin balloon during the impact.
and hairs due to its reaction with which of the following? (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
[2009 - I] of A
(a) Proteins and amino acids (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
(b) Lipids explanation of A
(c) Carbohydrates (c) A ts true, but R is false
(d) Nucleic acids (d) A is false, but R is true
53. The genetically engineered 'Golden Rice' is rich in which 63. Match the following [2009 - II]
of the following? [2009 - I] List-I List-II
(a) Vitamin-A and nicotinic acid
Agent of Transmission Disease Transmitted
(b) b-carotene and folic acid
(c) b-carotene and iron A. Anopheles mosquito 1. Kala-azar
(d) Vitamin-A and niacin B. Culex mosquito 2. Dengue
54. Bryophytes are photosynthetic but do not have vascular
C. Aedes 3. Malaria
tissue and true roots. This feature enables them to
resemble with which of the following? [2009 - I] D. Sandfly 4. Filaria
EBD_7341
42 Biology
Codes: 77. Which one of the following plants is popularly grown

A B C D A B C D along the road for absorbing vehicular pollutants?
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 1 4 2 3 (a) Nerium (b) Neem [2010 - I]
(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 3 4 2 1 (c) Bougainvillea (d) Calotropis
64. Primary source of vitamin-D for human beings is [2009-II] 78. Match the following [2010 - I]
(a) citrus fruits (b) green vegetables Lis t-I Lis t-II
(c) yeast (d) sun
65. Anaemia is a common health problem especially in women. A . W in e 1. Barley
Which one of the following deficiencies is most frequently B. Beer 2. Su garcane juice
responsible for anaemia in India? [2009 - II] \
C W his ky 3. Grap es
(a) Calcium (b) Iron (c) Iodine (d) Zinc
66. Which one of the following is considered normal blood D. Ru m 4. M olas s es
pressure in man? [2009 - II] Codes:
(a) 120/80 mm water (b) 120/80 mm blood A B C D A B C D
(c) 120/80 mm mercury (d) 120/80 mm air (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
67. Anthrax is a disease of human and cattle with a potential (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 4 1 3
for biological warfare. It is caused by [2009 - II] 79. A milkman puts banana leaf in milk jar, because banana
(a) bacterium (b) virus leaf [2010 - I]
(c) protozoan (d) fungus (a) gives a fresh flavour to milk
68. Which one of the following animals breathe through the (b) makes the milk acidic and resistant to yeast
skin? [2009 - II] (c) makes the milk basic and resistant to yeast
(a) Fish (b) Pigeon (c) Frog (d) Cockroach (d) increases the whiteness of milk
69. For which one among the following diseases vaccine is 80. Which one of the following is not biodegradable?
not yet available? [2009 - II] (a) Woollen mat [2010 - I]
(a) Tetanus (b) Malaria (c) Measles (d) Mumps (b) Silver foil
70. Which one of the following is not a feature of eutrophic (c) Leather bag
lakes? [2009 - II] (d) Jute basket
(a) Blooms are frequent in eutrophic lakes 81. Tips of leaves in grasses and common garden plants show
(b) Plant nutrient flux is high water drops in early morning hours. This water
(c) Primary productivity is low accumulation is obtained from [2010 - I]
(d) Dominated by blue green algae (a) atmosphere (b) stomata
71. Quinine is a drug used in the treatment of malaria. From (c) vascular bundles (d) hydathodes
which part of the plant it is obtained? [2009 - II] 82. If excess fertilizer is applied to a plant without water, the
(a) Roots (b) Stem (c) Bark (d) Leaves plant will [2010 - I]
72. Which among the following oils has the maximum protein (a) be stunted in growth (b) develop modifications
content? [2009 - II] (c) die due to plasmolysis(d) remain unaffected
(a) Castor oil (b) Sunflower oil 83. Itching due to insect bite is caused by [2010 - I]
(c) Soybean oil (d) Safflower oil (a) formic acid (b) acetic acid
73. Match the following [2009 - II] (c) lactic acid (d) maleic acid
Lis t-I Lis t-II 84. Which one among the following is a major source of sugar?
[2010 - I]
(Mineral) (Major S ource)
(a) Watermelon (b) Beetroot
A . Iron 1. Banana, d ate (c) Sugarcane (d) Date
B. Potas s iu m 2. Palak 85. The vitamin(s), which is/are generally excreted in urine,
is/are [2010 - I]
C. Iod ine 3. Io dized co mmo n s alt (a) viamin-A (b) vitamin-B
D. Calciu m 4. M ilk, egg (c) viamin-E (d) vitamin-D and K
86. Which one among the following plants cannot be
Codes: multiplied by cuttings? [2010 - I]
A B C D A B C D (a) Rose (b) Bryophyllum
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4 (c) Banana (d) Marigold
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2 87. Consider the following statements [2010 - I]
74. Which one of the following statement regarding potato is 1. A person with myopia can see distant objects
correct? [2009 - II] distinctly but cannot see nearby objects clearly.
(a) It is a root (b) It is a normal stem 2. A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant
(c) It is a modified stem (d) It is a modified root objects clearly.
75. Golden fibre refers to [2009 - II] 3. A person with presbyopia can see nearby objects
(a) hemp (b) cotton (c) jute (d) nylon without corrective glasses.
76. Which one of the following is commonly used as a Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
flavouring agent during the preparation of noodles? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(a) Saffron (b) Cinnamon [2009 - II] (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3
(c) Olive oil (d) Ajinomoto
Biology 43
88. Consider the following statements [2010 - I] 98. Which of the following statements correctly describe the
1. Iodine is necessary for the thyroid gland to make properties of hormones? [2010 - II]
adrenaline. 1. They are steroids, proteins, peptides or amino acids
2. Iodine deficiency leads to goitre in human beings. derivatives.
3. Iodine is secreted by pancreas and helps in 2. They are not produced by body organs and are
regulating cholesterol level. mostly taken as supplements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. They do not influence the working of those organs
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 which have secreted them.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2 4. They act as co-enzymes and help enzymes to perform
89. Which among the following are the major reasons behind their function.
preferring eucalyptus tree in the planned forestation Select the correct answer using the code given below
process? [2010 - I] (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
1. Plantation grows very fast. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1. 2, 3 and 4
2. Plantation makes the soil more fertile. 99. Which among the following statement about biofertilizers
3. Wood from eucalyptus tree is easily converted into are correct? [2010 - II]
the pulp for paper industry. 1. Azotobacter is one of the nitrogen fixing bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. used as a biofertilizer.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
2. They have to be applied to the leaves of the plant only.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
3. They alter the chemical composition of the soil.
90. Which one of the following plants is used for green
manuring in India? [2010 - I] 4. They can be used along with organic fertilizers.
(a) Wheat (b) Sunnhemp Select the correct answer using the code given below
(c) Cotton (d) Rice (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
91. Chemically silk fibres are predominantly [2010 - II] (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) Protein 100. Why are pregnant women recommended substantial
(b) Carbohydrate intake of green leafy vegetables in their diet, especially in
(c) Complex lipid the 1st trimester? [2010 - II]
(d) Mixture of polysaccharide and fat (a) They are a rich source of chlorophyll
92. Which among the following are the most important raw (b) They are a rich source of lecithin
materials for the manufacturing of soap? [2010 - II] (c) They are a rich source of folic acid which is required
(a) Fats and caustic alkali for DNA synthesis
(b) Fats and potash (d) They are a rich source of essential fatty acids required
(c) Fats and acid for cell anabolism
(d) Vegetable oil and potash 101. Cattle are capable of digesting cellulose present in the
93. Mosquito can be a vector for the following disease except grass and/or fodder that they eat. This ability is attributed
[2010- II] to the [2010- II]
(a) yellow fever (b) dengue fever (a) presence of cellulose degrading bacteria in the rumen
(c) filariasis (d) kala-azar (b) production of cellulose by the cattle rumen
94. Consider the following statements [2010 - II] (c) acids present in the rumen
1. Warm-blooded animals can remain active in cold (d) prolonged retention of cellulose in the rumen
environment in which cold-blooded animals can 102. Which one among the following animal tissues transport
hardly move. hormones and heat and maintains water balance? [2010 - II]
2. Cold-blooded animals require much less energy to (a) Connective tissue (b) Muscular tissue
survive than warm-blooded animals. (c) Blood (d) Nervous tissue
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 103. Which among the following is the correct increasing order
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 of pH found in human body? [2010 - II]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Gastric juice, saliva, blood
95. A deficiency of which one of the following minerals is (b) Blood, saliva, gastric juice
most likely to lead to an immunodeficiency? [2010 - II] (c) Saliva, blood, gastric juice
(a) Calcium (b) Zinc (c) Lead (d) Copper (d) Gastric juice, blood, saliva
96. What is the most conspicuous salient feature of people 104. Match the following [2010 - II]
with 'Progeria'? [2010 - II]
(a) More hair on body List-I List-II
(b) Less immunity to opportunistic infections (Sugar) (Source)
(c) Faster rate of ageing A. Cellulose 1 Honey
(d) Surfer from infertility B. Pituitary 2 Sugarcane
97. Human body's main organ of balance is located in C. Maltose 3 Cotton wool
[2010 - II] D. Sucrose 4 Starch
(a) inner part of ear Codes:
(b) middle part of ear A B C D A B C D
(c) front part of brain (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2
(d) top part of vertebral column
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3
EBD_7341
44 Biology
105. Due to contraction of eyeball, a long-sighted eye can see (a) Iron (b) Chloride
only [2011 - I] (c) Fluoride (d) Potassium
(a) farther objects which is corrected by using convex 116. Which one among the following is not correct about
lens Down's syndrome? [2011 - I]
(b) farther objects which is corrected by using concave (a) It is a genetic disorder
lens (b) Effected individual has early ageing
(c) nearer objects which is corrected by using convex (c) Effected person has mental retardation
lens (d) Effected person has furrowed tongue with open mouth
(d) nearer objects which is corrected by using concave 117. Dog bite can cause rabies. Which among the following
lens other animals can also cause rabies? [2011 - I]
106. Dead organs are generally stored in formalin.
Formalin is beacuse it acts as a disinfectant which is due (a) Donkey (b) Bat
to the presence of formaldehyde [2011 - I] (c) Horse (d) Crocodile
(a) aqueous ferrous sulphate 118. Which one among the following group of items contain
(b) aqueous formaldehyde only biodegradable items? [2011 - I]
(c) aqueous formic acid (a) Wood, Grass, Plastic
(d) aqueous feme alum (b) Wood, Grass, Leather
107. Insects that can transmit diseases to human are referred (c) Fruit peels, Lime juice, China clay cup
to as [2011 - I] (d) Lime juice, Grass, Polystyrene cup
(a) carriers (b) reservoirs 119. When we eat something we like, our mouth waters. This
(c) vectors (d) incubators is actually not water but fluid secreted from [2011 - I]
108. Photochemical smog occurs in [2011 - I] (a) nasal glands (b) oval epithelium
(a) cool and humid climate (c) salivary glands (d) tongue
(b) warm, dry and sunny climate 120. Why do you feel cool under a tree but not so under a tin
(c) cool, dry and sunny climater shed on a sunny day? [2011 - I]
(d) warm and humid climate (a) The greenness of the tree gives the cool feeling
109. Which of the following diseases are transmitted from one (b) Photosynthesis absorbs heat
person to another? [2011 - I] (c) The leaves convert water vapours into water which
1. AIDS 2. Cirrhosis is a heat-absorbing process
3. Hepatitis B 4. Syphilis
Select the correct answer using the code given below (d) The leaves give out water which vapourises
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 absorbing some heat as latent heat
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these 121. Polar bears are carnivores and prey on many arctic birds
110. Which one among the following industries produces and fishes. However, under natural conditions, no one
the most non-biodegradable wastes? [2011 - I] found polar bears predating any penguin. This is because
(a) Thermal power plants (b) Food processing units [2011- II]
(c) Textile mills (d) Paper mills (a) penguins have chemical substance in their muscles
111. In dry regions, the leaf size of a tree becomes smaller. It is which is toxic to polar bears
so to [2011 - I] (b) penguins are gregarious and always move in groups.
(a) reduce metabolism Therefore, a polar bear cannot approach them
(b) reduce transpiration (c) polar bears and penguins never coexist under natural
(c) maintain natural growth conditions. The former lives in the North Pole while
(d) protect plant from animals the latter lives in the South Pole
112. Bats can fly in dark because they [2011 - I] (d) polar bears and penguins display symbiotic
(a) have strong wings relationships and they help each other for their
(b) have sharp eyes existence in the ice-cold ecosystem
(c) produce ultrasonic waves 122. To suspect HIV/AIDS in a young individual, which one
(d) are nocturnal among the following symptoms is mostly associated with?
113. White blood cells act [2011 - I] [2011 - II]
(a) as a defence against infection (a) Long standing jaundice and chronic liver disease
(b) as source of energy (b) Severe anaemia
(c) as a clotting agent (c) Chronic diarrhoea
(d) as a medium for oxygen transport from lungs to tissues (d) Severe persistent headache
114. Rain water collected after 30 to 40 minutes of raining is 123. Development of goitre (enlarged thyroid gland) is mainly
not suitable for drinking because it [2011 - I] due to deficiency of [2011 - II]
(a) contains bacteria and dirt (a) sodium (b) iodine (c) calcium (d) iron
(b) contains dissolved toxic chemicals 124. Endosulfan, which has been in news these days, is
(c) is deficient in minerals [2011 - II]
(d) is acidic (a) a pesticide (b) a fertiliser
115. Which one among the following elements/ions is essential (c) a sulpha drug (d) an antibiotic
in small quantities for the development of healthy teeth 125. The anti-malarial drug quinine is made from a plant. The
but causes mottling of the teeth if consumed in higher plant is [2011 - II]
quantities? [2011 - I] (a) neem (b) eucalyptus
(c) cinnamon (d) cinchona
Biology 45
126. Cutting and peeling of onions brings tears to the eyes (a) Pancreas and gall bladder
because of the presence of [2011 - II] (b) Gall bladder and stomach
(a) sulphur in the cell (b) carbon in the cell (c) Pancreas and stomach
(c) fat in the cell (d) amino acid in the cell (d) Stomach and small intestine
127. If we sprinkle common salt on an Earthworm, it dies due to 138. Which one among the following statements about blood
[2011 - II] transfusion is correct? [2013 - II]
(a) osmotic shock (b) respiratory failure Blood group B can give blood to
(c) toxic effect of salt (d) closure of pores of skin (a) blood Group B and receive from Group AB
128. It has been observed that astronauts lose substantial (b) blood Groups B and AB and receive from Group B
quantity of calcium through urine during space flight. This (c) blood Groups B and AB and receive from Group A
is due to [2011 - II] (d) blood Group O and receive from Group B
139. What would happen if human blood becomes acidic (low
(a) hyper gravity pH)? [2013 - II]
(b) microgravtty (a) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin is increased
(c) intake of dehydrated food tablet (b) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin is
(d) low temperature ip cosmos decreased
129. Which one among the following will be absorbed fastest (c) RBC count increases
through the wall of digestive system? [2011 - II] (d) RBC count decreases
(a) Black coffee as a hot beverage 140. Cancer is more common in older people because
(b) DDT taken as a poison [2013 - II]
(c) Raw alcohol taken as a drink (a) their immune systems have degenerated
(d) Ice-cream as a dessert (b) the supply of certain hormones declines with age
130. The ultimate cause of water movement in a plant stem (c) their bodies are unable to adjust to the changing
environment
against gravity is [2013 - II]
(d) they have accumulated more mutations
(a) osmosis (b) transpiration 141. Human blood is a viscous fluid. This viscosity is due to
(c) photosynthesis (d) diffusion [2013- II]
131. Which one among the following statements is correct? (a) proteins in blood (b) platelets in plasma
[2013 - II] (c) sodium in serum (d) RBC and WBC in blood
(a) All proteins are enzymes 142. In humans, which one among the following with reference
(b) All enzymes are proteins to breathing is correct? [2013 - II]
(c) None of the enzymes is protein (a) During inhalation, diaphragm relaxes
(d) None of the proteins is enzyme (b) During exhalation, thorax cavity expands
132. The fossil of Archaeopteryx represents the evidence of (c) During inhalation, intra-pleural pressure becomes
origin of [2013- II] more negative
(a) birds from reptiles (d) Unlike inhalation, normal exhalation is an active process
(b) mammals from reptiles 143. Which one among the following gases readily combines
with the haemoglobin of the blood? [2013 - II]
(c) reptiles from amphibians
(a) Methane (b) Nitrogen dioxide
(d) mammals from birds (c) Carbon monoxide (d) Sulphur dioxide
133. Which one among the following vitamins is necessary for 144. Blood does not coagulate inside the body due to the
blood clotting? [2013 - II]
presence of [2013 - II]
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin K (d) Vitamin C (a) haemoglobin (b) heparin
134. The pH of human blood is normally around [2013 - II] (c) fibrin (d) plasma
(a) 4.5-5.5 (b) 5.5-6.5 (c) 7.5-8.0 (d) 8.5-9.0 145. Vaseline was applied to both surfaces of the leaves of a
135. The crew and passengers of a flying aircraft suffer plant. Which of the following process/ processes would
generally from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease due be affected? [2013 - II]
to the effect of [2013- II] 1. Photosynthesis 2. Respiration
(a) solar radiation (b) ozone concentration 3. Transpiration
(c) nitrogen oxide (d) particulate pollutant Select the correct answer using the codes given below
136. Consider the following statements regarding antibiotics (a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2
[2013 - II] (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
1. They are used to destroy disease-causing bacteria. 146. A person feeds on rice and vegetable made up of potato
2. They can be applied to the skin, swallowed or injected only. He is likely to suffer from deficiency of [2013 - II]
to fight micro-organisms inside the body. (a) carbohydrate and vitamins
3. They are effective against disease-causing viruses. (b) proteins
4. The first antibiotic to be discovered was Tetracycline. (c) carbohydrate and proteins
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (d) proteins and fats
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Only 1 147. Which one among the following groups of animals
137. The gastrointestinal hormones namely secretin and maintains constant body temperature in changing
cholecystokinin secreted by duodenal epithelium activate environmental conditions? [2013 - II]
respectively which organs to discharge their secretions? (a) Birds (b) Fishes
[2013 - II] (c) Amphibians (d) Reptiles
EBD_7341
46 Biology
148. Which organelle in the cell, other than nucleus, contains 157. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding
DNA? [2013 - II] fats? [2014 - I]
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum (b) Golgi apparatus 1. Fats are needed for the formation of cell membrane.
(c) Lysosome (d) Mitochondria 2. Fats help the body to absorb calcium from food.
149. Which one among the following groups of items contains 3. Fats are required to repair damaged tissue.
only biodegradable items? [2013 - II] 4. Body cannot release energy in fats as quickly as the
(a) Paper, grass, glass energy in carbohydrates.
(b) Wood, flower, iron-scrap Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(c) Sewage, plastic, leather (a) 1 and 4 (b) Only 1 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
(d) Cow-dung, paddy-husk, vegetable wastes 158. People suffering from 'anorexia nervosa' [2014 - I]
150. Two strands of DNA are held together by [2013 - II] (a) develop paralysis
(a) hydrogen bonds (b) covalent bonds (b) show poor reflex
(c) electrostatic force (d) Van der Waals' forces (c) cannot speak properly
151. Which one of the following elements is present in green (d) eat very little and fear gaining weight
pigment of leaf? [2014 - I] 159. Which of the following structures of a plant is responsible
(a) Magnesium (b) Phosphorus for transpiration? [2014 - I]
(c) Iron (d) Calcium (a) Xylem (b) Root
152. Match the following [2014 - I] (c) Stomata (d) Bark
List-I List-II 160. Which of the following does not possess a specialised
(Gland) (Hormone) conducting tissue for transport of water and other
substances in plants? [2014 - I]
A. Pancreas 1 Cortisol (a) Marchantia (b) Marsilea
B. Pituitary 2 Vitamin D (c) Cycas (d) Fern
C. Adrenal 3 Thyroid stimulating hormone 161. Which one among the following is the generic name of
D. Kidneys 4 Glucagon the causal organism of Elephantiasis ? [2014-II]
(a) Filaria (b) Microfilaria
Codes: (c) Wuchereria bancrofti (d) Culex pipiens
A B C D A B C D
162. Which one among the following statements is not correct?
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 1 3 2
[2014-II]
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 3 1 4
(a) Pulses are rich in proteins
153. In a forest, animals like voles and woodlice feed on plant
roots and barks respectively. Among the other carnivores, (b) Milk is a rich source of Vitamin A
foxes, shrews and owls are present in that forest. Following (c) Cereals are very poor source of carbohydrates
predictions are made by a group of observers who have (d) Vegetables are rich source of minerals
visited the forest. [2014 - I] 163. Which of the statements given below are correct?
1. If the roots of the tree develop a disease, then voles [2014-II]
and foxes will starve and not the owls. 1. A person having blood group 'A' can donate blood
2. Population of voles is dependent on wood lice to persons having blood group 'A' and blood group
population through food web. 'AB'.
3. If owl population declines, it will indirectly affect wood 2. A person having blood group 'AB' can donate blood
lice population. to persons having blood groups 'A', 'B', 'AB' or 'O'.
4. If barks of tree are affected due to a disease, then 3. A person with blood group 'O' can donate blood to
reduction of wood lice will affect the shrew population persons having any blood group.
forcing owls to eat more voles. 4. A person with blood group 'O' can receive blood
Which of the above predictions is/are correct? from the person of any of the blood groups.
(a) 1,2, and 4 (b) Only 3 Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Only 2 (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) l and 2 only
154. Deficiency of which of the following elements is (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
responsible for weakening of bones? [2014 - I] 164. Which one among the following is the correct pathway
1. Calcium 2. Phosphorus for the elimination of urine ? [2014-II]
3. Nitrogen 4. Carbon (a) Kidneys, Ureters, Bladder, Urethra
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (b) Kidneys, Urethra, Bladder, Ureters
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 4 (c) Urethra, Ureters, Bladder, Kidneys
155. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(d) Bladder, Ureters, Kidneys, Urethra
1. Amnion contains fluid. [2014 - I]
2. Ultrasound scan can detect the sex of an embryo. 165. Which of the following parts are found in both plant and
Select the correct answer using the codes given below animal cells ? [2014-II]
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Cell membrane, Chloroplast, Vacuole
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Cell wall, Nucleus, Vacuole
156. Among the following animals, choose the one having (c) Cell membrane, Cytoplasm, Nucleus
three pairs of legs. [2014 - I] (d) Cell wall, Chloroplast, Cytoplasm
(a) Spider (b) Scorpion (c) Bug (d) Mite
Biology 47
166. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? [2014-II] 176. Genetic screening is [2015-II]
1. Coronary artery supplies blood to heart muscles. (a) analysis of DNA to check the presence of a particular
2. Pulmonary vein supplies blood to lungs. gene in a person
3. Hepatic artery supplies blood to kidneys. (b) analysis of gene in a population
4. Renal vein supplies blood to kidneys. (c) pedigree analysis
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (d) screening of infertility in parents
(a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only 177. Who among the following is considered as the father of
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 genetic engineering? [2015-II]
167. Which one of the following types of pesticides is (a) Philip Drinker (b) Paul Berg
convenient to control stored grain pests ? [2014-II] (c) Thomas Addison (d) Alpheuss Packard Jr.
(a) Systemic pesticides (b) Fumigants 178. Which of the following cause(s) variation in the genetic
(c) Contact poisons (d) Stomach poisons material of progeny? [2015-II]
168. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer 1. Sexual reproduction 2. Asexual reproduction
using the code given below the Lists: [2014-II] 3. Mutations 4. Epigenetic changes
List-I List-II Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(Animal) (Phyla) (a) 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
A. Ascaris 1. Mammalia (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 only
B. Malarial parasite 2. Arthropoda 179. Cobalt is associated with [2015-II]
C. Housefly 3. Nematoda (a) growth hormone (b) vitamin B12
D. Cow 4. Protozoa (c) hemoglobin (d) intestinal enzymes
Codes: 180. Absorption of water in the human body can be found in
A B C D A B C D
[2015-II]
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 3 2 4 1
1. renal tubule in kidney2. hepatic cells in liver
(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 1 4 2 3
169. Which one among the following pairs is not correctly 3. large intestine 4. pancreatic duct
matched ? [2014-II] Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Sandal wood plant : Partial root parasite (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) Cuscuta : Parasite (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 only
(c) Nepenthes : Carnivorous 181. Measles is a disease caused by [2015-II]
(d) Mushrooms : Autotroph (a) bacteria (b) virus (c) protozoa (d) worm
170. Which one among the following cattle breed produces 182. Neutrophils and lymphocytes originate from [2015-II]
highest amount of milk ? [2014-II] (a) kidney tubule (b) spleen
(a) Brown Swiss (b) Holstein (c) bone marrow (d) lymph node
(c) Dutch belted (d) Blaarkop 183. The mandate of the scheme entitled 'Directly Observed
171. Which one among the following statements is correct ?
Treatment, Short-Course (DOTS)' launched by WHO is
[2015-I]
to ensure that [2015-II]
(a) Prokaryotic cells possess nucleus.
(b) Cell membrane is present both in plant and animal cells. (a) doctors treat patients with medicine for a short
(c) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are not found in duration
eukaryotic cells. (b) doctors do not start treatment without a trial
(d) Ribosomes are present in eukaryotic cells only. (c) patients complete their course of drug
172. Which one among the following statements is not true (d) patients voluntarily take vaccines
for Mammals ? [2015-I] 184. Penicillin inhibits synthesis of bacterial [2015-II]
(a) They possess hair on the body. (a) cell wall (b) protein
(b) Some of them lay eggs. (c) RNA (d) DNA
(c) Their heart is three chambered 185. Most antibiotics target bacterial parasites interfering with
(d) Some are aquatic. various factors of growth of metabolism such as
173. In human digestive system, the process of digestion starts 1. synthesis of cell wall [2015-II]
in [2015-I] 2. bacterial protein Synthesis
(a) Oesophagus (b) Buccal cavity 3. synthesis of nuclear membrane
(c) Duodenum (d) Stomach 4. mitochondrial function
174. Which one of the following diseases in humans can Select the correct answer using the code given below
spread through air ? [2015-I] (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(a) Dengue (b) Tuberculosis (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
(c) HIV-AIDS (d) Goitre 186. Plants contain a variety of sterols like stigmasterol,
175. Which one among the following structures or cells is not ergosterol, sitosterol etc. which very closely resemble
present in connective tissues ? [2015-I] cholesterol. These plant sterols are referred as: [2016-I]
(a) Chondrocytes (b) Axon (a) Phytosterols (b) Caleiferols
(c) Ergocaleiferols (d) Lumisterols
(c) Collagen fibre (d) Lymphocytes
EBD_7341
48 Biology
187. In artificial insemination (AI) process. Which of the 3. egg and sperm repository
following is/are introduced into the uterus of the female ? 4. a germ cell's determining zone
[2016-I] Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) Egg only (b) Fertilized egg (a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Sperm only (d) Egg and sperm (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4
188. Genetically modified (GM) crops contain modified genetic 197. Dengue virus is known to cause low platelet count in
material due to : [2016-I] blood of patient by : [2016-I]
1. introduction of new DNA 1. interfering in the process of platelet production in
2. removal of existing DNA bone marrow
3. introduction of RNA 2. infecting endothelial cells
4. introduction of new traits 3. binding with platelets
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 4. accumulating platelets in intestine
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1,2 and 4 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
189. Which one of the following vitamins has a role in blood (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
clotting ? [2016-I] 198. Which one of the following is most sensitive to
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B environmental change? [2016-II]
(c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin K (a) Amphibian (b) Reptile
190. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes pernicious anemia, Animals (c) Mammal (d) Insect
cannot synthesize vitamin B12. Humans must obtain all 199. The HIV virus weakens the immunity of a person because
their vitamin B12 from their diet. The complexing metal ion it destroys [2016-II]
in vitamin B12 is : [2016-I] (a) mast cells (b) platelets
(a) Mg2+ (Magnesium ion) (c) erythrocytes (d) lymphocytes
200. Which one of the following air pollutants combines with
(b) Fe2+ (Iron ion) the haemoglobin of human blood and reduces its oxygen-
(c) Co3+(Cobalt ion) carrying capacity, leading to suffocation and may cause
(d) Zn 2+(Zine ion) even death? [2016-II]
191. Glucose is a source of energy. Which one of the following (a) Chlorofluorocarbon (b) Fly ash
types of molecule is glucose ? [2016-I] (c) Carbon monoxide (d) Sulphur dioxide
(a) Carbohydrate (b) Protein 201. An irregular mode of reproduction resulting in the
(c) Fat (d) Nucleic acid development of an embryo without fertilization is called
192. The living content of cell is called protoplasm. It is 1. Parthenogenesis [2016-II]
composed of : [2016-I] 2. Apogamy
(a) Cytoplasm only 3. Sporophytic budding
(b) Cytoplasm and nucleoplasm Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) Nucleoplasm only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) Cytoplasm, nucleoplasm and other organelles (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
193. Which one of the following hormones contains peptide 202. Deficiency of fluoride leads to which one of the following
chain ? [2016-I]
health problems? [2016-II]
(a) Oxytocin (b) Corticotropin
(c) Insulin (d) Cortisone (a) Tooth caries (b) Mottling of tooth
194. Which one of the following is considered as 'good (c) Bending of bones (d) Stiffening of joints
cholesterol' with reference to individuals facing the risk 203. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
of cardio-vascular diseases and hypertension? [2016-I] [2016-II]
(a) High Density Lipoprotein (HDL) (a) The response of the ear to sound of increasing
(b) Low Density Lipoprotein(LDL) intensity is approximately logarithmic.
(c) Triglyceride (b) The sensitivity of the human ear does not vary with
(d) Fatty acids the frequency of the sound.
195. Which of the following pairs of vitamin and disease is / (c) When two or more waves traverse the same medium,
are correctly matched ? [2016-I] the displacement of any element of the medium is the
1. Vitamin A A Rickets algebraic sum of the displacements due to each wave.
2. Vitamin B1 B Beribri (d) Longitudinal waves can travel in all media-solids,
3. Vitamin C C Scurvy liquids and gases.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 204. Which one of the following hormones is essential for the
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only uptake of glucose by cells in the human body? [2016-II]
(a) GH (b) TSH
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Insulin (d) Cortisol
196. The Germplasm is required for the propagation of plants 205. Which of the following cells do not contain nucleus?
and animals, Germplasm is the : [2016-I] [2016-II]
1. genetic resources
1. Root hair cells 2. Red blood cells
2. seeds or tissues for breeding
3. Platelets 4. Monocytes
Biology 49
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 216. The plant growth regulators are small, simple molecules
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only of diverse chemical composition. They are [2017-I]
(c) l, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (a) carbohydrates, fats and proteins
206. Biological catalysts are protein molecules which (b) indole compounds, adenine derivatives, carotenoids
1. speed up a chemical reaction [2016-II] and terpenes
2. remain unchanged after reaction (c) fatty acids, glucose and vitamins
3. function optimally at 37°C (d) vitamin C, vitamin D and glucose
4. do not have an enzymatic activity 217. Which one of the following proteins gives lustrous shiny
Select the correct answer using the code given below. appearance to silk fibre? [2017-II]
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Fibrin (b) Sericin
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,3 and 4 (c) Collagen (d) Nectin
207. 'Altitude sickness' is caused at high altitude due to 218. Blue Baby Syndrome is caused by the contamination of
(a) high partial pressure of oxygen [2016-II] [2017-II]
(b) low partial pressure of oxygen
(c) low level of haemoglobin ( )
-
(a) nitrite NO 2 ( )
2-
(b) sulphite SO3
(d) high partial pressure of carbon dioxide
nitrate ( NO ) sulphate ( SO )
- 2-
208. The elemental composition of an adult human body by (c) 3 (d) 4
mass is [2016-II] 219. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(a) C > O > H > N (b) O > C > H > N using the code given below the Lists : [2017-II]
(c) N > C > H > O (d) N > C > O > H
209. Polynucleotide chain of DNA contains [2017-I] List-I List-II
(Cell Organelle) (Function)
(a) a nitrogenous base, deoxyribose sugar an d
A. Mitochondria 1. Photosynthesis
phosphate group B. Chloroplast 2. Protein synthesis
(b) a nitrogenous base, ribose sugar and phosphate C. Ribosomes 3. Intracellular digestion
group D. Lysosomes 4. ATP formation
(c) deoxyribose sugar, ribose sugar and phosphate Codes:
group A B C D A B C D
(d) a nitrogenous base and phosphate group only (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 4
210. The process of copying genetic information from one (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 2 1 3
strand of DNA into RNA is termed as [2017-I] 220. Human insulin molecule is composed of one a-chain
(a) translation (b) transcription having 21 amino acids and one b-chain having 30 amino
(c) replication (d) mutation acids. How many functional insulin genes occur in adult
211. In human body, the cell growth and differentiation are humans? [2017-II]
highly controlled and regulated, but in cancer cells (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
[2017-I] 221. A biological community in its environment such as a pond,
(a) there is breakdown of these regulatory mechanisms an ocean, a forest, even an aquarium is known as [2017-II]
leading to formation of benign and malignant tumors (a) biome (b) community
(b) controlled cell division and over- production of (c) abiotic environment (d) ecosystem
genetic material occur DIRECTION (Q. 222): The following five (5) items consist of
(c) RNA is mutated and produced in less amount two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these
(d) DNA is mutated and produced in less amount two statements carefully and select the correct answer using
212. Most viruses that infect plants possess [2017-I] the code given below.
(a) single-stranded DNA
(b) single-stranded RNA Codes: [2017-II]
(c) double-stranded DNA and RNA (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II
(d) double-stranded RNA only is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II
213. Syngamy results in formation of [2017-I]
is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(a) haploid zygote (b) diploid zygote (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(c) motile male gametes (d) non-motile male gametes (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
214. Bleeding of gums, falling of teeth, fragile bones and
delayed wound healing occur due to the deficiency of 222. Statement I :
which one of the following vitamins? [2017-I] Skin cancer is generally caused by the ultraviolet radiation.
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin K Statement II :
(c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin B Stratosphere allows ultraviolet radiation to enter the earth
215. The mammalian heart is myogenic and it is regulated by from the sun.
nerves. The heartbeat originates from [2017-I] 223. The foul smell of urine of a healthy man having healthy
(a) sinoatrial node (b) QRS wave food, when spilled on floor, is mainly due to the bacterial
(c) T wave (d) hepatic portal system decomposition of [2017-II]
EBD_7341
50 Biology
(a) urea into sulphur dioxide 234. Which one of the following statements about lymph is
(b) sugar into carbon dioxide correct? [2018-I]
(c) lipids into methane (a) Lymph is formed due to leakage of blood through
(d) urea into ammonia capillaries.
224. Which one of the following polymers does not contain (b) Lymph contains blood cells such as RBC.
(c) Lymph is also circulated by the blood circulating
glucose units? [2017-II]
heart.
(a) Glycogen (b) Starch (d) Lymph only transports hormones.
(c) Cellulose (d) Rubber 235. Which of the following classes of animals has/have three-
225. Which one of the following elements is involved in the chambered heart? [2018-I]
control of water content of the blood? [2018-I] (a) Pisces and Amphibia (b) Amphibia and Reptilia
(a) Potassium (b) Lithium (c) Reptilia only (d) Amphibia only
(c) Rubidium (d) Caesium 236. Accumulation of which one of the following in the muscles
of spinters leads to cramp? [2018-I]
226. Which one of the following elements is essential for the
(a) Lactic acid (b) Ethanol
formation of chlorophyll in green plants? [2018-I] (c) Pyruvic acid (d) Glucose
(a) Calcium (b) Iron 237. Which of the following is/are the main absorbing organ/
(c) Magnesium (d) Potassium organs of plants? [2018-II]
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 227-228): The following items consists of (a) Root only (b) Leaf only
(c) Root and leaf only (d) Root, leaf and bark
two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these
238. Which of the following is not a primary function of a
two statements carefully and select the correct answer using green leaf? [2018-II]
the code given below. (a) Manufacture of food
227. Statement I : [2018-I] (b) Interchange of gases
A person may suffer from tuberculosis if she/he frequently (c) Evaporation of water
(d) Conduction of food and water
visits crowded place.
239. Which one of the following denotes a ‘true’ fruit?
Statement II : [2018-II]
Bacteria of tuberculosis spread through droplets by (a) When only the thalamus of the flower grows and
sneezing or coughing. develops into a fruit
228. Statement I : (b) When only the receptacle of the flower develops
Bioaccumulation is a process of progressive accumulation into a fruit
of heavy metals and pesticides in an organism. (c) When fruit originates only from the calyx of a flower
Statement II : (d) When only the ovary of the flower grows into a fruit
Large fishes of the pond are found to have higher 240. In which one of the following physiological processes,
concentration of pesticides than planktons of the same pond. excess water escapes in the form of droplets from a plant?
229. Which one of the following is a true fish as per the [2018-II]
biological system of classification? [2018-I] (a) Transpiration (b) Guttation
(a) Silver fish (b) Jelly fish (c) Secretion (d) Excretion
241. If the xylem of a plant is mechanically blocked, which of the
(c) Cuttle fish (d) Flying fish
following functions of the plant will be affected? [2018-II]
230. In which one of the following types of connective tissues (a) Transport of water only
in animals does fat get stored? [2018-I] (b) Transport of water and solutes
(a) Adipocyte (b) Chondrocyte (c) Transport of solutes only
(c) Osteocyte (d) Reticulocyte (d) Transport of gases
231. Which one of the following pairs about organ/part that 242. Which one of the following agents does not contribute to
helps in locomotion is not correctly matched? [2018-I] propagation of plants through seed dispersal? [2018-II]
(a) Euglena : Flagellum (a) Wind (b) Fungus (c) Animal (d) Water
(b) Paramecium : Cilia 243. Which one of the following statements with regard to
(c) Nereis : Pseudopodia growth of coral reefs is not correct? [2018-II]
(d) Starfish : Tubefeet (a) Coral can grow abundantly in freshwater.
232. Lysosome is formed from which of the following cell
(b) It requires warm water between 23°C – 25 °C.
organelles? [2018-I]
(a) Nucleus (b) Endoplasmic reticulum (c) It requires shallow saltwater, not deeper than 50 metres.
(c) Golgi bodies (d) Ribosomes (d) It requires plenty of sunlight to aid photosynthesis
233. A protein is synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum 244. Which one of the following features is an indication for
bound ribosomes and it targets to the inner thylakoid modification of stem of a plant? [2018-II]
space of chloroplast. How many double-layered membrane (a) Presence of ‘eye’ on potato
layers it has to pass to reach its destination? [2018-I] (b) ‘Scale’ found in onion
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) ‘Tendril’ found in pea
(c) 4 (d) 5 (d) ‘Hair’ present in carrot
Biology 51
245. Which of the following roles is/ are played by epididymis, (a) Haemoglobin present in RBC can carry only oxygen
vas deferens, seminal vesicles and prostate in male but not carbon dioxide.
reproductive system of human? [2018-II] (b) Haemoglobin of RBC can carry both oxygen and
(a) Spermatogenesis and maturation of sperms carbon dioxide.
(b) Maturation and motility of sperms (c) Haemoglobin of RBC can carry only carbon dioxide.
(c) Spermatogenesis and motility of sperms (d) Haemoglobin is only used for blood clotting and
(d) Moti1ity of sperms only not for carrying gases.
246. Which one of the following is the special type of milk 256. Which one of the following statements is correct? [2019-I]
produced by a lactating mother, essential for the (a) Urea is produced in liver.
development of immune response of newborn baby in (b) Urea is produced in blood.
human? [2018-II] (c) Urea is produced from digestion of starch.
(a) Breast milk produced after a month of childbirth (d) Urea is produced in lung and kidney.
(b) Transitional milk 257. Which one of the following is the correct sequential
(c) Colostrum phase in the successional development of vegetation
(d) Mineralized milk community in a habitat ? [2019-II]
247. Which one of the following statements explains higher (a) Migration, Reaction, Stabilization and Nudation
mutation rate and faster evolution found in RNA virus?
(b) Migration, Stabilization, Reaction and Nudation
[2018-II]
(a) RNA is relatively unstable compared to DNA. (c) Nudation, Migration, Reaction and Stabilization
(b) Virus can multiply only within the living cell of a (d) Reaction, Migration, Stabilization and Nudation
host. 258. Which one of the following acids, is also known as Vitamin C?
(c) Metabolic processes are absent in virus. [2019-II]
(d) Virus can remain latent for a long period. (a) Methanoic acid (b) Ascorbic acid
248. Which one of the following functions is not carried out (c) Lactic acid (d) Tartaric acid
by smooth endoplasmic reticulum? [2019-I] 259. Which one of the following is not found in animal cells ?
(a) Transport of materials [2019-II]
(b) Synthesis of lipid (a) Free ribosomes (b) Mitochondria
(c) Synthesis of protein (c) Nucleolus (d) Cell wall
(d) Synthesis of steroid hormone 260. Marsilea, Fern and Horse-tail are examples of which one
249. Which one of the following cell organelles mainly of the following plant groups ? [2019-II]
functions as storehouse of digestive enzymes? [2019-I] (a) Pteridophyta (b) Bryophyta
(a) Desmosome (b) Ribosome (c) Gymnosperms (d) Angiosperms
(c) Lysosome (d) Vacuoles 261. Which one of the following organisms is responsible for
250. Which one of the following tissues is responsible for sleeping sickness ? [2019-II]
increase of girth in the stem of a plant? [2019-I] (a) Leishmania (b) Trypanosoma
(a) Tracheid (b) Pericycle (c) Ascaris (d) Helicobacter
(c) Intercalary meristem (d) Lateral meristem 262. Which one of the following body parts/organs of the
251. Which one of the following organisms is dependent on human body does not have smooth muscles ? [2019-II]
saprophytic mode of nutrition? [2019-I] (a) Ureters (b) Iris of eye
(a) Agaricus (b) Ulothrix (c) Bronchi of lungs (c) Biceps
(c) Riccia (d) Cladophora 263. Which one of the following cell organelles is known as
252. Which one of the following has a bilateral symmetry in ‘suicide bags’ of a cell ? [2019-II]
its body organization? [2019-I] (a) Lysosomes (b) Plastids
(a) Asterias (b) Sea anemone (c) Endoplasmic reticulum (d) Mitochondria
(c) Nereis (d) Echinus 264. Food chain is [2019-II]
253. Which one of the following pairs of animals is warm- (a) relationship between autotrophic organisms
blooded? [2019-I] (b) exchange of genetic material between two organisms
(a) Crocodile and Ostrich (b) Hagfish and Dogfish (c) passage of food (and thus energy) from one organism
(c) Tortoise and Ostrich (d) Peacock and Camel to another
254. Which one of the following statements regarding histone (d) modern entrepreneur establishment providing food
proteins is correct? [2019-I] outlets
(a) Histones are proteins that are present in 265. Which one of the following is active transport ? [2019-II]
mitochondrial membrane. (a) It is the movement of a substance against a
(b) Histones are proteins that are present in nucleus in diffusion gradient with the use of energy from
association with DNA. respiration.
(c) Histones are proteins associated with lipids in the (b) It is the movement of a substance against a
cytosol. diffusion gradient without the use of energy.
(d) Histones are proteins associated with carbohydrates (c) It is the movement of a substance against a diffusion
in the cytosol. gradient with the use of energy from photosynthesis,
255. Which one of the following statements regarding (d) It is the movement of a substance along a diffusion
haemoglobin is correct? [2019-I] gradient with the use of energy from respiration.
EBD_7341
52 Biology
266. Chlorophyll in photosynthetic prokaryotic bacteria is 272. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
associated with [2019-II] using the code given below the Lists : [2020-I]
(a) plastids (b) membranous vesicles List-I List-II
(c) nucleoids (d) chromosomes (Name) (Formula)
267. Which one of the following is not an epidemic disease? A. Bleaching powder 1. NaHCO3
[2020-I] B. Baking soda 2. Na2CO3 × 10H2O
(a) Cholera (b) Malaria C. Washing soda 3. Ca(OH)2
(c) Smallpox (d) Elephantiasis D. Slaked lime 4. CaOC12
268. Which one of the following animals has a three-chambered Codes:
heart? [2020-I] A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 2 1 3
(a) Scoliodon (b) Salamander
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 1 2 4
(c) Pigeon (d) Human being 273. The number of water molecules associated with copper
269. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of sulphate molecule to form crystals is [2020-I]
events during sexual reproduction in plants? [2020-I] (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
(a) Seedling, formation of embryo, pollination, 274. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of
fertilization, division of zygote organs that occur in the path of urine flow in human body?
(b) Formation of embryo, seedling, pollination, [2020-I]
fertilization, division of zygote (a) Kidney, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra
(c) Pollination, fertilization, division of zygote, formation (b) Kidney, urinary bladder, ureter, urethra
of embryo, seedling (c) Kidney, ureter, urethra, urinary bladder
(d) Seedling, formation of embryo, division of zygote, (d) Urinary bladder, kidney, urethra, ureter
pollination, fertilization 275. Which of the following endocrine glands is not found in
270. Which one of the following is the ‘energy currency’ for pair in humans? [2020-I]
cellular processes? [2020-I] (a) Adrenal (b) Pituitary (c) Testis (d) Ovary
(a) Glucose (b) ATP 276. Which one of the following cell organelles contains DNA?
(c) ADP (d) Pyruvic acid [2020-I]
271. Which one of the following is the first enzyme to mix with (a) Golgi apparatus (b) Mitochondrion
food in the digestive tract? [2020-I] (c) Lysosome (d) Endoplasmic reticulum
(a) Trypsin (b) Cellulose 277. Who among the following scientists introduced the
(c) Pepsin (d) Amylase concept of immunization to the medical world? [2020-I]
(a) Edward Jenner (b) Robert Koch
(c) Robert Hooke (d) Carl Linnaeus
1. (b) All enzymes are protein by composition but all 9. (d) Vitamin-K adds in blood clotting. Vitamin-K acts as
proteins are not enzymes. an essential cofactor for factor-II, VII, IX, X and also for
2. (c) Thyroid gland is one of the largest endocrine glands proteins Z, C and S.
which is present in the neck. It is responsible to control 10. (b) Thyroid gland in human body contains iodine.
body’s metabolism, temperature, appetite and muscle Deficiency of iodine creates goitre disease. Which is
strength, etc. observed by the enlargement of larynx.
3. (d) Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) is not a component of biogas. 11. (b) Polio and pertusis are caused by virus. So, these
4. (b) The blood group of father of the child could be A or can be controlled by vaccines.
B or O. 12. (b) Red Data Book is related with a complete list of all
5. (a) Sphygmomanometer is an instrument to measure the endangered species.
blood pressure. It is made up of an inflatable cuff to 13. (a) Bat is mammal not a bird.
restrict the blood flow and a mercury or manometer to 14. (a)
measure pressure. 15. (b) White blood cells (WBC) bring out the function of
6. (a) Water gas is a synthetic gas, having CO and H2. body defence.
The gas is produced by passing steam over a red hot 16. (b)
hydrocarbon fuel as coke. 17. (a) Beri-beri is not insect borne disease. It is caused by
7. (d) Chikungunya is caused by chikungunya virus which the deficiency of vitamin-B1 or thiamine.
is an insect borne virus of genus Alphavirus. Symptoms 18. (b) Methane (CH4) is produced in rice fields in the most
show high fever, maculopapular rash, headache, etc. prominent quantities. Because when organic matter
8. (c) Vitamin-C is enough in guava fruits. Vitamin-C helps decomposes without O2 in the water logged rice paddies,
in strengthening of immunity, serves as an antioxidant bacteria in the water produce methane.
and provides relief in hypertension too. 19. (c) Benzene (C6H6) is cause of bone marrow failure.
20. (c) Somatotrophin is produced by the anterior pituitary.
Biology 53
It is a peptide hormone that induces growth, cell 41. (b) Curd is made due to the chemical reaction between
reproduction and regeneration. lactic acid bacteria and casein.
21. (c) Cowper’s gland is related with reproductive system. 42. (c) Homeostatic regulation includes sweating. It is the
Cowper’s gland is the bulbourethal gland found in human main process through which the body gets coolness.
males. They are found in pair and secrete viscous 43. (d) Malaria is a mosquito borne disease of humans and
secretion called pre ejaculate that helps in coitus. other animals caused by Plasmodium protozoan. Severe
22. (c) Cloves are the flower buds of a tree in the family disease is largely caused by Plasmodium falciparum whereas
Myrtaceae. The tree is evergreen growing, contains large mild forms are due to P vivax, P oval and P malariae.
leaves and flowers grouped in terminal clusters. 44. (c) Influenza is caused by virus and all other three
23. (a) Rhizobium (a kind of bacteria) lives in plant roots of diseases are bacterial. Influenza, generally called flu, is
pulse plant (legumes) to fix nitrogen. an infectious disease caused by RNA viruses of family
24. (b) Asthma is a chronic lung disease. It inflames and Orthomyxoviridae.
narrows the air ways. Tuberculosis is a lung disease 45. (c) O is the universal donor, but can obtain blood only
created by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Workers in from O so option (a) and (d) are not possible. Regarding (b),
textile factories and carpet manufacturing units are the B can’t provide blood to A because of presence of antibodies
common sufferess of asthma and tuberculosis. against A antigen. So, (c) is the only condition of possible
25. (a) Deficiency of vitamin-A (retinol) creates night blood transfusion as AB is the universal recipient.
blindness. It also creates keratomalacia, xerosis cornea 46. (d) The stomach shows division into two parts fundic
and Bitot’s spot. High content of vitamin-A is obtained and pyloric region. The pyloric region enters small
from liver and butter. intestine through pyloric valve of pylorus.
26. (d) Potassium ions(K+) are responsible for protein 47. (d) Vitamin-A-Retinol, Vitamin-B1 -Thiamine, Vitamin-C-
synthesis, opening and closing of stomata in plants. Ascorbic acid, Vitamin-E-Tocopherol.
27. (a) 28. (d) 48. (c) Chloramphenicol affects bacteria which are resistant
29. (d) Colour temperature is a measurement relating the to all other medicine. Chloramphenicol is a prototypical
colour of the light radiated by an object to its temperature. broad spectrum bacteria killing drug.
No matter whatever the temperature is the hottest would 49. (c) Cinchona bark creates quinine which is an anti-
only radiate to blue-white light radiation. malarial drug. Poppy plant creates morphine it is an opium
30. (b) Airbag used for safety and protection of car driver alkaloid, which is a strong analgesic and also has sedative
possesses sodium azide. and soothing effect. Fungus and bacterium are the
31. (d) The odour of garlic is due to allyl methyl sulphide. sources of antibiotics penicillin and tetracycline
32. (b) Mushrooms are not able to manufacture their own respectively.
food. A mushroom is the fleshy, spores having fruiting 50. (b) Green plants absorb red and blue colour maximally.
body of fungi. It is heterotrophic. 51. (b) The root nodules of gram plant contain symbiotic
33. (a) Egg white are good easy way to add protein to any bacteria which is responsible for fixing nitrogen. So, gram
food. Egg albumin is a class of simple, water soluble is preferred for mixed farming.
proteins that are present in egg white. 52. (a) Henna (Lawsonia inermis) is a flowering plant. It is
34. (a) In the normal human adult, heart beats at the rate of used to dye skin, hair, fingernails, leather and wood.
about 72-80 per minute in the resting state. Colouring feature of henna is due to lawsone, an organic
35. (a) The term lub and dub is concernes with heart. Lubb compound that shows affinity for proteins and amino
is the first sound in the heart produced by the closure of acids in animals.
atrioventricular values (tricuspid and bicuspid) at the 53. (c) Golden rice is rich in b -carotene and iron. It is a variety
beginning of ventricular systole. Dub is the second sound
of Oryza sativa evolved through process of bio technology
produced by the closure of semilunar value towards the
last point of ventricular systole. to synthesize b -carotene, a precursor of pro-vitamin -A.
36. (b) In vertebrates, cervical vertebrae are immediately 54. (b) Bryophytes do not have vascular bundles (xylem &
inferior to the skull. They are smallest of true vertebrae phloem) and roots so they show similarity with algae.
and their number in human body is 7. 55. (a) Azotobacter is a genus of usually motile and free
37. (c) Carbohydrates is an important nutrient in human. It living bacteria that builds thick walled cysts. They are
is a good and rich source of energy. able to fix nitrogen in soil.
38. (d) DNA fingerprinting includes the extraction and 56. (b) The ear muscles are vestigial organs in man. Vestigial
identification of the base pair pattern of an individual’s organs are not functional in organisms. These are not
DNA. The identification process of specific DNA active in related animals but were functional in their
sequences is carried out by Southern blotting. ancestors. There are more than 90 vestigial organs in
39. (d) The human heart possesses four chambers, two superior human beings.
atria and two inferior ventricles. The atria are getting chambers 57. (c) The parrot, platypus and kangaroo fall in the group
and ventricles are providing chambers. Left ventricle pumps of warm blooded animals. They show homothermy.
fully oxygenated blood to aorta then to the body. Right atrium 58. (b) Chlorophyll is a tetrapyrrole ring system that
gets deoxygenated blood from superior vena cava. contains the magnesium ion. The tetrapyrole ring system
40. (b) Biogas is typically a gas evolved by the biological chelates magnesium illustrating a conjugated double
breakdown of organic wastes in absence of O2. It is used bond. This bond gives the light absorption feature to
as biofuel and made up basically of CH 4 chlorophyll and provides it green colour.
(50-75%), CO2 (25-50%) N2 (0 -10%), H2 (0-1%), H2s 59. (c) The stimulating nature of tea is due to alkaloid
(0-3%) and O2 (0-1%). caffeine found in tea. Caffeine is bitter due to white
crystalline xanthine alkaloid.
EBD_7341
54 Biology
60. (c) Both statements are true 81. (b) Tips of leaves in grasses and common garden plants
61. (a) Banyan (Ficus benghalensis) tree has aerial roots. exhibit water droplets in early morning hours because of
From the tip of these roots new plant can evolve. In a atmospheric phenomenon of dew formation. Dew is
Hinduism, the leaf of the Banyan tree is said to be the produced due to condensation of atmospheric moisture.
place for Lord Krishna. 82. (c) The excess fertilizer creates exosmosis in the plant
62. (b) 63. (d) tissue causing plasmolysis. Beacuse fertilizer produces
64. (d) Sun is the primary source of vitamin-D. The body hypotonic solution. It may cause cellular damage to plant
can synthesise vitamin-D itself in presence of sunlight. leading to plant death.
Vitamin-D is soluble in fat and assists the body to absorb 83. (a) Insect bite creates formic acid that causes itching.
calcium. Its deficiency can cause osteoporosis. 84. (c) Sugarcane is a main raw material for the production of sugar.
65. (b) Iron is the main element in haemoglobin. So its deficiency Sugar producing countries are Cuba, Brazil, India and China.
creates anaemia. Women show careless- ness about their 85. (b) Vitamin-B is water soluble. Its over-dose is excreted
nutrient requirements, so they face the problem generally. out in urine, vitamin A, D, E and K are fat soluble
66. (c) Systolic pressure in an adult man is 120 mm Hg whereas therefore, they are not excreted in urine.
diastolic pressure is 80 mm Hg normally. High or low blood 86. (c) The banana develops from stem. The aerial parts of
pressure can create serious conditions in humans. banana exhibit only leaves. Therefore, banana can’t be
67. (a) Anthrax is an infectious disease occurring by multiplied by cuttings.
bacteria called Bacillus anthracis. Anthrax spores can 87. (a) All the three statements are not correct. Myopia
be evolved in vitro and used as a biological weapon. refers long-sightedness, hypermetropia to short-
Anthrax can’t directly spread from one individual to sightedness and presbyopia is a disorder in which the
another but can cause infection through spores. eye shows a progressively diminished ability to focus
68. (c) Frog takes respiration in water through the moist on near object with the passage of age.
skin. Whereas on the Earth respiration occurs through 88. (d) lodine deficiency causes goitre in human beings.
lungs Fish has gills, Cockroach has spiracles and pigeon Iodine is the main component for the production of
possesses lungs to respire. thyroxine from thyroid gland and the main reason of goitre
69. (b) Malaria is a protozoan infection caused by the genus is hypo or hyperthyroidism.
plasmodium in humans. No vaccine is yet available for 89. (b) Eucalyptus growth is very fast and the stem is raw
this illness. material used for pulp and paper industry.
70. (c) Eutrophication is the movement of trophic status of 90. (b) Sunnhemp (crotoloria juncea) is a plant which is
aquatic body (lake, pond) towards the direction of utilized for green manuring in India. It is largely cultivated
increasing biomass by adding natural or artificial for green manure and its leaves are fed as high protion
substances. So, its primary productivity is clearly high. supplement to other poorer feeds.
71. (c) Quinine is a natural white crystalline alkaloid. It has 91. (a) Silk fibres consist of protein like wool. It is produced
antipyretic (fever-reducing), antimalarial, analgesic, and by pupa of silk insect.
anti-inflammatory qualities. It is present in the bark of 92. (a) The major raw materials for soap production are fat
cinchona tree. and alkali. Other materials like water, softner, perfume,
72. (c) Soyabean oil & seed is a rich source of protein. etc, may also be mixed if required.
73. (a) Palak (Spinach) has 5% non-haeme iron. One banana 93. (d) Kala-azar is spread by sandfly of genus phlebotomus
possesses 422 mg potassium. One cup of dates argentipse of yellow fever and dengue fever is spread
possesses 464 mg potassium. One cup milk has 276 mg by Ades mosquito whereas filariasis is spread by
calcium. One egg possesses 30 mg calcium. One kg packet Anopheles mosquito.
of iodized common salt has 15 mg iodine. 94. (c) The warm blooded animals produce heat by
74. (c) It is a modified stem to store food synthesised by plants. converting their food to energy and maintain a constant
75. (c) Golden fibre denotes to jute because of its colour. body temperature thus may be active even in cold
Jute is grown as cash crop. Jute is used for green manure environment whereas cold blooded animals hibernate and
and has much higher CO2 assimilation rate. need much less energy to survive.
76. (d) Ajinomoto is Chinese salt used for preparing 95. (a) The deficiency of calcium can cause irritability, anger
noodles. It is used as a flavouring agent. tendency and impaired immune function.
77. (b) Bougainvillea is popularly planted along the road 96. (c) Progeria (pro means prior; geria means ageing)
for absorption of vehicular pollutants. causes early ageing and the death of child occurs at the
78. (c) Wine is an alcoholic beverage, produced from age of 12-13 years. It is a progressive genetic disease
fermented juice, generally of grapes, Beer is the oldest and created due to the mutation in the LMNA gene.
alcoholic beverage manufactured by brewing and 97. (a) The internal ear of human beings consists of three
fermentaion of cereal grains (e.g., barley). Whisky is a parts viz. cochlea, utricle and sacculus The cochlea helps
type of distilled alcoholic beverage produced from in hearing whereas utricle and sacculus help to maintain
molasses. Rum is also a distilled alcoholic beverage made the body balance.
from sugarcane’s juice. 98. (a) The hormones are secreted by endocrine glands
79. (c) A milkman puts banana leaf in milkpot because leaf can of body. They can behave as coenzymes, e.g., thiamine
make the milk basic and avoid yeast formation (fermentation). pyrophosphate can help in the transfer of aldehye
Banana leaf has tryptophan which creates basicity. group. Enzymes can be protein or steroid in
80. (b) Silver foil is manufactured from metal that is non composition.
biodegrable. Woollen mat, leather bag and jute basket 99. (a) Azotobactor and Rhizobium are known as nitrogen
are biodegradable because they are manufactured from flxing bacteria that are utilized as biofertilizers. The
natural materials. biofertilizers can be applied with organic fertilizers.
Biology 55
100. (c) A pregnant woman requires an additional 400mg of except option (b) only early ageing which is the symptom
folic acid daily during the first trimester of pregnancy. Green of progeria disease.
vegetables are rich in folic acid because they have folate. 117. (b) Some bats are sanguivorous feeding on animal
101. (a) Mammalian digestive system do not secrete blood. When it sucks the blood of an animal which is
enzymes to digest cellulose, but the cellulose digesting suffering from rabies, it can cause rabies if it bites another
bacteria present in the rumen of cattles can digest the animal or man.
cellulose existing in fodder. 118. (b) All the three items are organic matter and produced by
102. (c) Blood is a fluid connective tissue. It carries harmones living organisms thus are biodegradable wood is obtained
from endocrine glands to target organs. It carries heat from trees and leather is obtained from the hides of animals.
and set homeostasis. It also aids in osmoregulation by Glass is acquired naturally or by melting silicates.
carrying fluid to the kidney and skin, etc. 119. (c) Salivary glands secrete amylase enzyme (ptyalin)
103. (a) The pH of gastric juice is not more than 4.5 pH of and water to moist the food and to digest starch. When
saliva is 6-7.4, whereas the pH of blood is equal to 7.4 we see, smell or eat something we like, the salivary glands
104. (a) Cotton wool is acquired from cotton plant. It are stimulated and secrete saliva in buccal cavity thus
consists of cellulose. Fructose is fruit sugar present in watering the mouth.
honey and other fruits. Starch is a polysaccharide. It 120. (d) The transpiration takes place from the leaves surface
breaks down into maltose during digestion whereas all the time. The water taken out from leaves absorbs
sucrose is common sugar. It is a disaccharide having heat from the surrounding atmosphere to vapourise so
glucose ans fructose and is acquired from sugarcane. the area under a tree becomes cool.
105. (a) The contraction of eyeball brings about in a long- sighted 121. (c) Polar bears and penguins live in different polar
eye. To see the nearby objects, a convex lense is used. regions i.e. polar bears live in the North Pole while the
106. (b) Formalin contains 40% aqueous solution of penguins live in Antarctica (the Southern Hemisphere).
formaldehyde. Dead organs are preserved in 10% formalin 122. (d) After 4-8 weeks of infection by HIV virus to a healthy
solution. individual, the acute phase of HIV infection begins.
107. (c) Insects that transmit diseases to humans are known About 30-60% people develop symptoms like severe
as vectors. Insects may carry infection mechanically on persistant headache with sore throat and mild fever etc.
feet or mouth parts, by passage through the digestive 123. (b) The cause of goitre is normally due to lack of iodine.
tract but without the insect being infected or by becoming Iodine plays an important role in the synthesis of thyroxine
an intermediate host with some part of the parasite’s life hormone from thyroid gland.
cycle occuring in the insect tissue. 124. (a) Endosulfan is an organochlorine pesticide and acaricide
108. (b) Photochemical smog takes place in warm, dry and which is used. Endosulfan became a highly controversial
sunny climate.The word smog means ‘smoke’ and ‘fog’ agrichemical due to large number of victims in kerala.
means ‘smoky fog’. Its main components are created from 125. (d) The cinchona plant has antimalarial alkaloids
the action of sunlight on unsaturated hydrocarbons and cinchonidine and quinine. Quinine is obtained from the
nitrogen oxide produced by automobiles and factories. bark of this plant.
109. (b) Cirrhosis is a only disorder which is caused due to 126. (a) Cutting and peeling of onions bring tears to the
excessive drink of alcohol or hepatitis. All the other three eyes because of the presence of sulphur in the cell.
disorders are infectious diseases and transmitted from 127. (a) The sprinkled salt dissolves in the water present on
one peron to another. the moist skin of Earthworm and makes concentrated
110. (a) The most non biodegradable wastes are produced by solution. The body fluid, being hypotonic, diffuses out
thermal power plants. They utilize radioactive elements and the worm dies due to osmotic shock (water loss-
as raw material and thus evolves radioactive wastes which dehydration).
takes a very long period (hundreds of years) for losing 128. (b) Exposure to microgravity in the environment of
its radioactivity completely. space induces astronauts to lose calcium from bones.
111. (b) The small leaves possess no or very few stomata This loss takes place due to absence of ‘Earth gravity’
thus the loss of water by transpiration is decreased and which disrupts the process of bone maintenance. The
protects the plant from dehydration. calcium is excreted out with urine.
112. (c) Bats can fly in dark because they transmit ultrasonic 129. (c) Raw alcohol after being drunk will be absorbed
waves. The bats have very poor vision. It cannot see in fastest through the wall of digestive tract. Alcohol is
dark. It produces ultrasonic waves striking with the easily diffusible across the plasma membrance. It does
obstacles present on its path. The bat receives its echo not need any digestion before absorption in the
and changes its path to protect itself from collision. alimentary canal. Therefore, its absorption begins from
113. (a) White blood cells destroy foreign proteins (bodies) mouth, whereas the other substances are absorbed in
e.g pathogens by the process of phagocytosis and in the later parts of the alimentary canal.
this way protects the body from infection. 130. (b) Transpiration is a process like evaporation part of
114. (d) After raining for 30-40 minutes, the pollutants the water cycle and it is the loss of water vapour from
present in atmosphere come down with raining water that different parts of plants, particularly in leaves but also in
raise its pH upto 5.6 making it acidic in nature. stems, flowers and roots.
115. (c) Fluoride is essential in small quantity for the 131. (b) All enzymes are proteins which catalyse various
protection of the teeth but in high quantity it causes reactions occuring in cells. Therefore all enzymes are
fluorosis deforming the teeth. proteins, but not all proteins are enzymes.
116. (b) Down’s syndrome is characterised by an extra 132. (a) Archeopteryx is a genus of theropad dinosaur that
chromosome 21. It is also known as trisomy 21. All the is closely related to bird. It demonstrates the evidence of
given characters are observed in Down’s syndrome, origin of birds from reptiles.
EBD_7341
56 Biology
133. (c) Vitamin K is a group of structurally similar to fat- Adenine pairs with Thymine by two Hydrogen-bond and
soluble vitamins that are essential for the synthesis of Guanine pairs with cytosine by three Hydrogen-bond.
certain proteins needed for blood coagulation or clotting. 151. (a) Magnesium is found in green pigment of leaf. The
134. (c) In chemistry, pH measures the acidity or basicity of green pigment is called chlorophyll molecule. Chlorophyll
an aqueous solution. pH is normally measured in a range is chemically a tetrapyrrole structure in which Mg++ exists
of 0-14. in the centre.
pH value of some common material 152. (a) Pancreas secretes glucagon hormone, pituitary
secretes thyroid stimulating hormone. Adrenal glands
Material pH value secrete cortisol and kidney synthesises or converts
1. Sea water 8.4 biological inactive 25-hydroxychole calciferol (vitamin D-3)
into biological active 1,25 dihydroxychole calciferol
2. Human blood 7.4 (vitamin D-3).
3. Milk 6.4 153. (d) If owl population decreases, it will indirectly affect
wood lice population. If owl population will decrease,
4. Human urine 6.0 the population of wood lice increases. Reason is that owl
5. Alcohol 2.8 is not present to eat the wood lice population.
154. (a) Deficiency of calcium causes weakening of bones
135. (c) Due to lower atmospheric presure, N 2 gets mixed
because bone consists of calcium and phosphate both.
with O2 to form such oxide which is inhaled by the
155. (c) Amnion is a membrane filled with fluid which covers
passengers or crew.
the embryo.
136. (a) Antibiotics are very effective medicines that treat
The sex of growing embryo (foetus) may be determined
bacterial infections. They are ineffective against viral
by ultrasound as early as 11 weeks pregnancy.
infection as viruses have different genetic makeup as
156. (c) Among the given options , bug possesses only
compared to bacteria.
three pairs of legs. All the insects in phylum Arthropoda
137. (a) Secretin and cholecystokinnin activate pancreas and
have three pairs of legs in given option only bug belongs
gall bladder to discharge their secretions.
to class-insecta.
138. (b) Blood group B can provide blood to blood Groups
157. (a) Fats are essential for the formation of all membranes
B and AB and gets from Group B and Group’O.
Fats are present in the form of phospholipid. Phospholipid
139. (b) If human blood becomes acidic (low pH), The
are the same as triglycerides except that one of the three
amount of CO2 is increased and O2 carrying capacity of
fatty acid units is replaced by a molecule having
haemoglobin is reduced.
phosphorus. Body can not release energy in fats as
140. (d) Cancer is more common in older people because they
quickly as the energy in carbohydrates because fat first
have accumulation of more mutations.
will oxidise into carbohydrate to evolve energy.
141. (a) Blood is a viscous fluid in human being. This
158. (d) Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder
viscosity is due to presence of different proteins in blood.
characterised by improper food restriction, inappropriate
142. (a) During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and
taking meal habits or rituals, obsession with having a
flattens enlarging the volume of the thoracic cavity.
slim body, and an irrational fear of weight gain, and a
Thus, reduction in intra-thoracic pressure takes place.
distorted body self-perception.
143. (c) Carbon monoxide (CO) readily gets combined with
159. (c) Stomata are minute pores that are used for gas
the haemoglobin of the blood causing harmful effect.
exchange. Air containing carbon dioxide and oxygen
144. (b) Heparin is an anticoagulant (blood thinner) that
enter the plant through these pores where it is used i n
prevents the blood clotting. It is applied to cure and
photosynthesis and respiration. Also water vapour
prevent blood clots in the veins, arteries, or lungs.
evaporates into the atmosphere through these poresb y
145. (d) All the above process will get stopped if vaseline is
a process called transpiration.
applied on both the surfaces of the leaf. Reason is that
160. (a) Marchantia belongs to group bryophytes. In
stomata will be blocked, all these processes requires the
bryophytes plants absorb water through general body
direct contact between the leaf and atmosphere.
surface and other substances also. Bryophytes lack xylem
146. (b) The person will suffer from deficiency of protein
and phloem Marsilea and fern belong to group
because potato has very little amonut of protein.
pteridophytes having xylem tissue for transport of water.
147. (a) Birds are warm blooded animals maintaining a
Cycas belongs to gymnosperm also having xylem.
constant body temperature through the process of
161. (c) Elephantiasis is a symptom of a variety of diseases,
homeostasis. Fishes, amphibians and reptiles are cold
where parts of a person's body swell to massive
blooded animals.
proportions. It is caused by a number of parasitic worms,
148. (d) Mitochondrial DNA is the DNA located in organelles
particularly Wuchereria bancrofti.
called mitochondria. In eukaryotic cells it converts
162. (c) Cereals are good source of carbohydrate.
chemical energy from food into a Adenosine Triphosphate
163. (d) A person with AB blood group can receive blood
(ATP) that cells can use.
from any group but cannot donate blood to any group
149. (d) A biodegradable product gets decomposition safely
other than AB. O individual can receive blood only from
and quickly, through biological process into the raw
a group of O individual but can donate blood to all groups.
materials and disappear into the environment. Cow-dung,
164. (a) The kidneys filter metabolic wastes, excess ions,
padddy-husk and vegetable wastes, are biodegradable
and chemicals from the blood to form urine. The ureters
products.
are a pair of tubes that carry urine from the kidneys to the
150. (a) Two strand of DNA are held together by
urinary bladder. The urethra is the tube through which
hydrogen- bond formed between the bases of two strand.
urine passes from the bladder to the exterior of the body.
Biology 57
165. (c) Cell Membrane, Cytoplasm and Nucleus are found 179. (b) Cobalt is an element taking part in the composition
in both plant and animal cells. of Vitamin B12. It plays an important role in production of
166. (b) The coronary arteries deliver blood to the heart blood cells.
muscle, providing a continuous supply of oxygen and 180. (b) Large intestine is the last part of alimentary canal
nutrients needed for it to stay healthy and function where extra water is absorbed to prepare the waste as a
normally. The pulmonary veins receive oxygenated blood solid stool.
from the lungs and drain into the left atrium of the heart.The Renal tubule in kidney is responsible for absorption of
Hepatic artery supplies oxygen-rich blood to the liver, water to produce proper concentration of urine.
pylorus, pancreas, and duodenum. The renal arteries carry 181. (b) Measles is a viral disease which is also called
a large portion of total blood flow to the kidneys. rubeola. It is a contagious disease spreading through
167. (b) Fumigants are used to penetrate and remain in the contact sneezing and coughing etc.
container for long enough to kill all stages of insects 182. (c) Bone marrow is located within the bone cavities. It
present in stores grains. is composed of stromal cells and parenchymal cells.
168. (a) The correct match is as follows: Neutrophils and lymphocytes are blood cells which are
Ascaris - Nematoda produced within bone marrow.
Malarial parasite - Protozoa 183. (c) DOTS (Directly Observed Treatment, Short course)
Housefly - Arthropoda launched by WHO is a therapy for treatment of TB patient.
Cow - Mammalia 184. (b) Penicillin is very effective medicine against bacterial
169. (d) Mushroom is not autotroph. infection. During bacterium division, it prevents the cell
170. (b) Holstein Friesians are world's highest-production dairy wall formation. Thus it helps in prevention of bacterial
animals. They are found mostly in Netherlands/Germany. growth.
171. (b) A prokaryote is a single-celled organism that lacks a 185. (d) Mostly antibiotics inhibit the synthesis of cell wall
membrane-bound nucleus (karyon). Plant and animal cells and protein synthesis in bacteria. Due to this reason,
are both eukaryotic cells, so they have several features bacterial infection is controlled by this type of medicines.
in common, such as the presence of a cell membrane, 186. (a) Phytosterols (plant sterols) are a family of molecules
mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum. Chloroplasts related to cholesterol. Structurally, these are very similar
are found in plant cells which is eukaryotic. Ribosomes to cholesterol except that they always contain some
are found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. substitutions at the C24 position on the sterol side chain.
172. (c) Characteristics of mammals: 187. (c) The Artificial Insemination (AI) is the process in
• Vertebrates (which means they have a backbone or spine). which a thin, flexible tube (Catheter) is used to put sperm
• Regulate their own body temperate which allows artificially into a woman's cervix.
them to live in almost every climate on Earth. 188. (d) Introduction of new traits to the plant which does
• Have hair on their bodies. not occur naturally in the species introduction of new
• Produce milk to feed their babies. DNA and removal of existing DNA are the processes by
• Four chambered heart: two atria and two ventricles which Genetically Modified crops are produced.
(bird and mammal) 189. (d) Vitamin K is essential for the functioning of several
173. (b) In human digestive system the process of digestion proteins involved in physiological processes that encompass,
starts in buccal cavity. The buccal cavity is more but are not limited to, the regulation of blood clotting.
commonly known as the mouth, and it is the beginning 190. (c) Cobalt is the active centre of coenzymes called
of the digestive system for humans and animals alike. It cobalamins, the most common example of which is vitamin
starts with the lips and ends with the throat, covering B12.
the oral cavity, the tongue, and the jaw in between. 191. (a) Glucose is a sugar with the molecular formula
174. (b) The TB bacteria are put into the air when a person C 6H12O 6. The suffix "-ose" is a chemical classifier,
with TB disease of the lungs or throat coughs, sneezes, denoting a Carbohydrate.
speaks, or sings. People nearby may breathe in these 192. (d) Protoplasm is the whole content of a cell enclosed
bacteria and become infected. within the cell membrane, including both the cytoplasm
175. (b) An axon is also known as a nerve fibre. It is a long, and nucleus.
slender projection of a nerve cell, or neuron that typically 193. (c) Insulin is a peptide hormone produced by beta cells in
conducts electrical impulses away from the neuron's cell the pancreas and by Brockmann body in some teleost fish.
body. Each nerve is a cordlike structure that contains 194. (a) Good Cholesterol refers to HDL (High Density
many axons and also called nerve fibres. Within a nerve, Lipoprotein), Lipoproteins are complex particles
each axon is surrounded by a layer of connective tissue composed of multiple type of proteins.
called the endoneurium. 195. (b) Vitamin A - Night blindness
176. (a) Genetic screening is a process through which Vitamin B1 - Beriberi
analysis of gene is performed to find out defective gene Vitamin C - Scurvy
causing a specific disorder in a person. 196. (b) Germplasm is a biosubstance (eg. - seeds, tissue
177. (b) Paul Berg (1926), an American biochemist is pollen grains, sperms & eggs etc.) which is used as
considered as the father of genetic engineering. He evolved genetic material for animal & plant breeding for
a technique to join DNAs from two different organisms. preservation and research purpose.
178. (c) Epigenetic Changes, mutations (due to change in 197. (d) Dengue virus after infection, interferes the
DNA structure) and sexual reproduction (due to change production of platelets in bone marrow, infects endothelial
during meiosis process) cause variation in the genetic cells and bind with platelets.
material of off spring. 198. (a) Environmental changes affecting all regions the
world and influence all organisms. Amphibians are one
EBD_7341
58 Biology
of the most sensitive groups to change, whether that is the human bodies are made up of just six elements:
caused by habitat loss, invasive species, disease, trade oxygen (65%), carbon (18%), hydrogen (9.5%), nitrogen
or climate change. Nearly 33% of the amphibian species (3.2%), calcium (1.5%), and phosphorus (1.2%).
of the world are categorized as threatened on the Red 209. (a) DNA is made up of many nucleotides joining
List. Furthermore, given their complex life cycles and other together, called polynucleotide chain of DNA. Each
traits, amphibians are often recognized as indicators of polynucleotide is made up of three components: (i)
ecosystem health. nitrogenous base [such as adenine (A), guanine (G),
199. (d) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) seeks and cytocine (C) and thymine (T)], (ii) deoxyribose sugar, and
destroys CD4+ cells, a type of T lymphocyte (T cell). T (iii) phosphate group.
cells are critical to the immune system. They're 210. (b) The process by which the genetic information in a
responsible for warding off diseases and most infections, strand of DNA is copied into a new molecule of
including viral infections. messenger RNA (mRNA) is termed as transcription. It is
200. (c) Carbon monoxide (CO) has strong affinity to combine/ carried out by an enzyme called RNA polymerase and a
bind with haemoglobin in blood to form number of accessory proteins called transcription factors.
carboxyhaemoglobin, which reduces oxygen carrying 211. (a) In cancer, there is unwanted cell proliferation leading
capacity of blood to cause headache, nausea, asphyxiation to uncontrolled cell division. Some cancers may spread
and fainting (low supply of O2 to body though one may into other tissues. Mutation is the main cause of cancer
inhale normally). Against normal level of 0.5% CO in blood, at genetic level. Mutation causing agents are called
severe pollution may lead to 8 to 9% CO. carcinogens, such as UV radiation, tobacco and tobacco
201. (d) Parthenogenesis, a reproductive strategy that smoke, pesticides, etc.
involves development of a female (rarely a male) gamete 212. (b) In general, plant viruses have single-stranded RNA.
(sex cell) without fertilization. It occurs commonly among Animal viruses have either single or double-stranded
lower plants and invertebrate animals (particularly RNA or double-stranded DNA. Bacterial viruses usually
rotifers, aphids, ants, wasps, and bees) and rarely among have double stranded DNA.
higher vertebrates. 213. (b) Syngamy is the process of fusion of two cells or
Apogamy is a type of reproduction, occurring in some their nucleus during reproduction. More particularly, it
ferns, in which the sporophyte develops from the can be said that syngamy is fusion of one male gamete
gametophyte without fusion of gametes with egg cell and leads to formation of diploid zygote.
Adventive embryony, also called sporophytic apomixis, 214. (a) Vitamin C is needed to produce skin, tendons,
sporophytic budding, or nucellar embryony: Here there ligaments, and blood vessel. It is also needed in repair of
may be a megagametophyte in the ovule, but the embryos bones and teeth. Deficiency of vitamin C results in
do not arise from the cells of the gametophyte; they arise bleeding of gums, falling of teeth, weak bones and delay
from cells of nucellus or the integument. in wound healing.
202. (a) Fluorine deficiency is a disorder which may cause 215. (a) Heart beat originates from sinoatrial node, a group
increased dental caries (or tooth decay, is the breakdown of cells situated in the upper part of the right atrium wall.
of dental tissues by the acidic products released by the The electrical impulses causing the heart beat are
"bacterial fermentation of dietary carbohydrates.") and generated in sinoatrial node. Hepatic portal system
possibly osteoporosis (a bone disorder which leads to a comprises hepatic portal vein and veinlets. T wave depicts
decrease in bone mass, and an increase in bone fragility), repolarization of heart ventricles. QRS wave are three
due to a lack of fluoride in the diet. waves seen on a electrocardiogram.
203. (b) The human ear can respond to minute pressure 216. (b) Plant growth regulators or plant hormones
variations in the air if they are in the audible frequency (phytohormones) are chemicals that control plant growth,
range, roughly 20 Hz - 20 kHz. e.g. auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins, abscisic acid and
204. (c) Insulin is a hormone made by the pancreas that ethylene. Auxin is composed of indole-3-acetic acid.
allows your body to use sugar (glucose) from Cytokinins are derivatives of the nitrogenous purine base
carbohydrates in the food that you eat for energy or to adenine. Some plant hormones are also composed of
store glucose for future use. Insulin helps keeps your derivatives of carotenoids and terpenes.
blood sugar level from getting too high (hyperglycemia) 217. (a) Silk is a fibre produced by the silkworm in production
or too low (hypoglycemia). of its cocoon. It consists mainly of two proteins, fibroin
205. (b) Prokaryotes (meaning 'before nucleus') are cells and sericin. Silk consists of 70–80% fibroin and 20–30%
without a definite nucleus. The DNA floats in the sericin; fibroin being the structural center of the silk, and
cytoplasm and they divide through mitosis. RBC and sericin being the gum coating the fibres and allowing
platelets present in eukaryotes also do not have nucleus. them to stick to each other.
206 (b) Enzymes are soluble protein molecules that can 218. (c) Blue baby syndrome is a condition some babies are
speed up chemical reactions in cells. These reactions born with or develop early in life. It’s characterized by an
include respiration, photosynthesis and making new overall skin color with a blue or purple tinge, called
proteins. For this reason enzymes are sometimes called cyanosis. This condition stems from nitrate poisoning. It
biological catalysts. These enzymes functions optimally is can happen in babies who are fed infant formula mixed
at 37° C and it remains unchanged after reaction. with well water or homemade baby food made with nitrate-
207. (b) Altitude sickness is a disorder caused at high altitude rich foods, like spinach or beets.
due to low partial pressure of oxygen. Symptoms of altitude 219. (c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 is the correct answer. ATP supplies
sickness include weakness, sleepiness, and lack of appetite. energy to the cell. It is formed by the oxidation of glucose
208 (b) The elemental composition of an adult human body in the mitochondria. Since, mitochondria synthesize energy
by mass is O>C>H>N respectively. 99% of the mass of
Biology 59
rich compounds (ATP) so, known as power house of the Vertebrata Subphylum. Fishes poses notochord, tubular
cell. Ribosomes are dense, spherical and granular particles nerve chord, paired gills, segmentation of the body parts,
which occur freely in the matrix (cytosol) or remain attached post anal tail, ventral heart, and an endoskeleton to be
to the ER. It plays an important part in the synthesis of the member of the Chordata. In order to be a vertebrate, it
proteins. Lysosomes are simply tiny spherical sac-like poses backbone. This back bone supports and protects
structures evenly distributed in the cytoplasm. Its cells the spinal cord. All the species of the fish found in the
digest foreign proteins, bacteria and viruses. So, it is a world are classified into the following three groups.
kind of garbage disposable system of the cell. • Agnatha - jawless fish
220. (a) Human Insulin protein consists of 51 amino acids. • Chrondrichthyes - cartilaginous fish
Insulin is formed as a precursor protein preproinsulin. • Osteichthyes - bony fish
This is coded by the INS gene. In some animals there are Flying fish is a bony fish.
two insulin genes or two genes that code for insulin. In 230. (a) Adipocytes are cells that derive from multipotential
most animals, including humans, a single gene is present. mesenchymal cells; their main role is to store energy in
221. (a) A biome is a community of plants and animals that the form of lipids to cushion and insulate the body from
have common characteristics for the environment they the outer environment.
exist in. They can be found over a range of continents. 231. (c) Nereis possess setae and parapodia for locomotion.
Biomes are distinct biological communities that have 232. (c) Lysosomes are spherical membranous sacs of
formed in response to a shared physical climate. enzymes. Lysosome enzymes are made by proteins from
222. (b) is the correct answer. the endoplasmic reticulum and enclosed within vesicles
223. (d) Fresh urine has little to no odor. But if urine sits for a by the Golgi apparatus. Lysosomes are formed by
time — as can happen when a person is wearing protective budding from the Golgi complex.
underwear or an incontinence pad — the urine will begin 233. (b) 234. (a)
to smell like ammonia. The smell is caused by bacteria that 235. (b) Three chambered hearts with two atria and one
break down urea, a substance that is excreted in urine. ventricle is present in amphibian and reptiles. The 3
224. (d) Starch is a polymer of a-glucose and consists of chambered heart contains only one ventricle in which
two components-amylose and amylopectin. Glycogen is oxygen poor and oxygen rich intermingle, but not entirely.
a polymer of 1000 glucose units. Cellulose is a linear In amphibians, the pulmonary respiration is improved
polymer of b-D-glucose. Natural rubber is an addition because they absorbs oxygen through skin also.
polymer that is obtained as a milky white fluid known as 236. (a) Muscle cramping is a common problem encountered
latex from a tropical rubber tree. Natural rubber is from by athletes and non-athletes alike. Lactic acid is formed
the monomer isoprene (2-methyl-1,3-butadiene), which and accumulated in the muscle under conditions of high
is a conjugated diene hydrocarbon energy demand, rapid fluctuations of the energy
225. (a) Kidney directly controls water content of blood. requirement and insufficient supply of O 2 . It causes
Kidneys purify the blood by removing toxins from it, and in muscles to get cramps.
doing this water is excreted along with these toxins. 237. (c) Major Organs of most plants include roots, stems, and
Potassium and sodium elements are involved in the process. leaves. A root is a complex organ consisting of several types
226. (c) Magnesium is essential for the formation of of tissue absorbing water and minerals: Thin-walled
chlorophyll in green plants. Without magnesium, epidermal cells and root hairs are well suited to absorb water
chlorophyll cannot capture sun energy needed for 238. (d) The main function of a leaf is to produce food for the
photosynthesis. In short, magnesium is required to give plant by photosynthesis. Chlorophyll, the substance that
leaves their green color. gives plants their characteristic green colour, absorbs light
227. (d) Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a type of bacterium energy. Conduction of food and water is not the primary
called Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It's spread when a function of leaf. It is done by vascular bundles xylem and
person with active TB disease in their lungs coughs or phloem which is present throughout the plant body.
sneezes and someone else inhales the expelled droplets, 239. (d) A true fruit or eucarp is a mature or ripened ovary,
which contain TB bacteria. developed after fertilization, e.g., Mango, Maize, Grape
228. (b) Bioaccumulation is defined as the increase in etc.
concentration of a substance(s) in an organism or a part 240. (b) Guttation is the process of secreting water droplets
of that organism. Toxic substances are lipophilic or fat- from the pores of some vascular plants like grass.
loving, the reason why these substances are deposited Guttation is often confused with dew droplets that
and concentrated in the fat tissues of the organisms. The condense from the atmosphere on to the plants surface.
affected organism has a higher concentration of the 241. (b) Xylem is water conducting tissue in plants. If the
substance than the concentration in the organism's Xylem of the plants is removed, upward movement of the
surrounding environment. The toxic substances are very water and transportation of solutes will stop leading to
slowly metabolized or excreted so if the organism keeps wilting of leaves and ultimately cause the death of plants.
on consuming prey or food contaminated with toxic 242. (b) Seed dispersal is the movement or transport of seeds
substances, the concentration of the substance will away from the parent plant. Plants have very limited
further increase in its body, hence, bioaccumulation mobility and consequently rely upon a variety of dispersal
results. When a certain threshold level is reached, vectors to transport their propagules, including both
measured in parts per million (ppm), symptoms due to abiotic vectors such as the wind and water and living
the type of toxin are manifested. (biotic) vectors like birds and animals.
229. (d) Fish are the gill-bearing aquatic craniate animals that 243. (a) Corals need saltwater to survive and require a certain
lack limbs with digits. Fish, the member of the Animalia balance in the ratio of salt to water. This is why corals don’t
Kingdom is classified into Phylum Chordata and live in areas where rivers drain fresh water into the ocean.
EBD_7341
60 Biology
Corals also need sunlight to survive. Corals rarely develop Stabilization or climax
in water deeper than 165 feet (50 meters). Corals generally Succession causes
live in water temperatures of 68–90° F or 20–32° C. Initiating causes - These include biotic and climatic factors
244. (a) Potatoes are called as modified stems because it which destroy the existing populations of the area. Climatic
possess many qualification which is of stem . Potatoes factors include wind, fire, natural disasters, erosion etc.
are underground stem .and usually called as tubers . They The biotic factors include activities of other organisms.
are called as modified stem because as it has scaly leaves, 258. (b) Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid and ascorbate,
it has nodes, internodes, buds and adventitious roots. is a vitamin found in various foods and sold as a dietary
245. (b) In humans, the most important male androgen is supplement. It is used to prevent and treat scurvy. Vitamin
testosterone. Several accessory organs and ducts aid C is an essential nutrient involved in the repair of tissue
the process of sperm maturation and transport the sperm and the enzymatic production of certain neurotransmitters.
and other seminal components to the penis, which 259. (d) Animal cells do not have cell walls because they do
delivers sperm to the female reproductive tract. not need them. Cell walls, which are found in plant cells,
246. (c) Colostrum is the first form of milk produced by the maintain cell shape, almost as if each cell has its own
mammary glands immediately following delivery of the exoskeleton. This rigidity allows plants to stand upright
newborn. Colostrum is known to contain immune cells (as without the need for bones.
lymphocytes) and many antibodies such as IgA, IgG, and IgM. 260. (a) A pteridophyte is a vascular plant (with xylem and
These are some of the components of adaptive immune system. phloem) that disperses spores. Because pteridophytes
247. (a) Adaptive Value of High Mutation Rates of RNA produce neither flowers nor seeds, they are sometimes
Viruses: Separating Causes from Consequences. As a referred to as “cryptogams”, meaning that their means of
consequence of the lack of proofreading activity of RNA reproduction is hidden. Examples include ferns, horsetails
virus polymerases, new viral genetic variants are and club-mosses.
constantly created. RNA viruses readily adapt to 261. (b) Trypanosoma is a genus of kinetoplastids (class
changing environmental conditions. Trypanosomatidae[1]), a monophyletic[2] group of
248. (c) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (smooth ER) is unicellular parasitic flagellate protozoa. Trypanosoma is
continuous with the rough ER but has few or no part of the phylum Sarcomastigophora. Most
ribosomes on its cytoplasmic surface. Functions of the trypanosomes are heteroxenous and most are transmitted
smooth ER include: Synthesis of carbohydrates, lipids, via a vector. The majority of species are transmitted by
and steroid hormones. blood-feeding invertebrates, but there are different
249. (c) One of the key organelles involved in digestion and mechanisms among the varying species. Some, such as
waste removal is lysosome. Lysosomes are organelles Trypanosoma equiperdum, are spread by direct contact.
that contain digestive enzymes. In an invertebrate host they are generally found in the
250. (d) Secondary or lateral meristems, which are found in intestine, but normally occupy the bloodstream or an
all woody plants and in some herbaceous ones, consist intracellular environment in the mammalian host.
of the vascular cambium and the cork cambium. They Trypanosomes infect a variety of hosts and cause various
produce secondary tissues from a ring of vascular diseases, including the fatal human diseases sleeping
cambium in stems and roots. sickness, caused by Trypanosoma brucei, and Chagas
251. (a) Saprophytes live on dead organic matter, including disease, caused by Trypanosoma cruzi.
dead wood, dung, and fallen leaves. Most fungi 262. (d) Smooth muscle cells are found in the walls of hollow
commonly called mushrooms are saprophytes, such as organs, including the stomach, intestines, urinary bladder
the extremely common Agaricus genus. Perhaps their and uterus, and in the walls of passageways, such as the
most important function is the decomposition of organic arteries and veins of the circulatory system, and the tracts
matter into soil. of the respiratory, urinary, and reproductive systems.
252. (c) Nereis is a genus of polychaete worms in the family 263. (a) Lysosomes are found in animal cell, they are also
Nereididae and has a bilateral symmetry in its body known as suicidal bags of the cell. A human cell contains
organization. around 300 lysosomes. They not only digest large
253. (d) Aves (crow, parrot, peacock, sparrow, kiwi etc) and molecules but also responsible for breaking down and
Mammals (man, dog, camel, rat etc) are warm blooded animals. getting rid of waste products of the cell. They have
254. (b) Histones are a family of basic proteins that associate enzymes which allow them to carry out these processes.
with DNA in the nucleus and help condense it into 264. (c) A food chain shows how each living thing gets food
chromatin, they are alkaline (basic pH) proteins, and their and how nutrients and energy are passed from creature
positive charges allow them to associate with DNA. They to creature. Food chains begin with plant-life and end
are found inside the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. with animal-life. Some animals eat plants, some animals
255. (b) The protein inside red blood cells that carries oxygen eat other animals. A simple food chain could start with
to cells and carbon dioxide to the lungs is haemoglobin. grass, which is eaten by rabbits.
Oxygen enters the blood from the lungs and carbon 265. (c) In cellular biology, active transport is the movement
dioxide is expelled out of the blood into the lungs. The of molecules across a membrane from a region of lower
blood serves to transport both gases. Oxygen is carried concentration to a region of higher concentration—
to the cells. Carbon dioxide is carried away from the cells. against the concentration gradient. Active transport
256. (a) The liver contains a system of carrier molecules and requires cellular energy to achieve this movement. There
enzymes which quickly coverts the ammonia into urea. are two types of active transport: primary active transport
257. (c) Nudation Invasion / Migration that uses adenosine triphosphate (ATP), and secondary
Competition and reaction active transport that uses an electrochemical gradient.
Biology 61
An example of active transport in human physiology is 270. (b) Energy is usually liberated from the ATP molecule
the uptake of glucose in the intestines. to do work in the cell by a reaction that removes one of
An example of primary active transport using redox energy the phosphate-oxygen groups, leaving adenosine
is the mitochondrial electron transport chain that uses diphosphate (ADP). so the energy currency of the cell is
the reduction energy of NADH to move protons across ATP.
the inner mitochondrial membrane against their 271. (d) Salivary amylase, present in saliva, is the first
concentration gradient. An example of primary active digestive enzyme that gets mixed with food in oral cavity
transport using light energy are the proteins involved in during the process of mastication and bolus formation.
photosynthesis that use the energy of photons to create 272. (a) Bleaching Powder CaOCl2
a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane and Baking Soda NaHCO3
also to create reduction power in the form of NADPH. Washing Soda Na2CO3.10H2O
266. (b) The chlorophyll in photosynthetic prokaryotic Slaked lime Ca(OH)2
bacteria is associated with membranous vesicles. 273. (c) The copper sulphate crystals contains 5 molecules
These vesicles are typically spherical, ranging in size of water of crystallization. CuSO4. 5H2O which are blue
from 20 to 100 nm in Gram-positive bacteria and archaea in colour.
to 100–300 nm in Gram-negative bacteria. They can 274. (a) Urine transport follows a path through the kidneys,
contain cell-wall material, as well as a variable content ureters, urinary, bladder and urethra.
enclosed by the membrane. 275. (b) Endocrineglands are a pair of testis in males and a
267. (d) Elephantiasis is also known as lymphatic filariasis. pair of ovaries in females. Pituitary gland is the master
It’s caused by parasitic worms, and can spread from gland that regulates the activity of other endocrine
person to person through mosquitoes. Elephantiasis glands. Hence, pituitary gland does not exist in pairs.
causes swelling of the scrotum, legs, or breasts. 276. (b) The three organelles that contain DNA are the
Elephantiasis is considered a neglected tropical disease nucleus, mitochondria and chloroplasts. Organelles are
(NTD) membrane-bound subunits within a cell analogous to
268. (b) Salamander belongs to group Amphibia, which organs in the body - that perform specific functions. The
shows 3 chambered heart (two auricles and one ventricle). nucleus is the control center of the cell, and houses
In the 3 chambered heart, partial mixing of blood takes genetic information.
place. All amphibians have three chambered heart. 277. (a) In 1798 Edward Jenner introduced inoculation with
269. (c) Sequence of events of sexual reproduction in flowers are: cowpox (smallpox vaccine), a much safer procedure. This
(1) Pollination- transfer of pollen to stigma. procedure, referred to as vaccination, gradually replaced
(2) Fertilization- fusion of male gamete and egg cell smallpox inoculation, now called variolation to distinguish
produce zygote and fusion of polar nuclei with male it from vaccination. Until the 1880s vaccine/vaccination
gamete produce triploid endosperm. referred only to smallpox, but Louis Pasteur developed
(3) Embryo formation- zygote divides many time by immunization methods for chicken cholera and anthrax in
mitosis and produces embryo. animals and for human rabies, and suggested that the
(4) Seedling- embryo differentiate and becomes terms vaccine/vaccination should be extended to cover
plumule, radicle and one or two cotyledons. Endosperm the new procedures. This can cause confusion if care is
divides by mitosis to produce endosperm tissue which is not taken to specify which vaccine is used e.g. measles
food store. Integuments surrounding embryo sac forms vaccine or influenza vaccine.
testa (seed coat).
EBD_7341
62 History
4 History
1. Among the following which Mughal Emperor introduced [2008-I]
the policy of Sulh-i-kul? [2007-II] (a) Nagpur (b) Allahabad
(a) Babar (b) Humayun (c) Surat (d) Calcutta
(c) Akbar (d) Shahjahan 10. In which one of the following cities, was the East India
2. The Sun Temple of Konark was built by Narasimhadeva I. Association founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866?
To which dynasty did he belong to? [2007-II] [2008-I]
(a) Somavamsi dynasty (a) Paris (b) London (c) New York (d) Tokyo
(b) Imperial Ganga dynasty 11. Who among the following had founded the Theosophical
(c) Suryavansi Gajapti dynasty Society in the United States of America? [2008-I]
(d) Bhoi dynasty (a) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
3. Consider the following statements [2007-II] (b) Madam Blavatsky
1. At the time of independence, the Government of India (c) Madam Cama
followed the calender based on Saka era. (d) Lala Hardayal
2. The National Calendar commenced on Chaitra 1 Saka, 12. Who among the following was not a party to the coalition
1879 corresponding to March 22, 1957 AD. that fought against the English in the Battle of Buxar?
Which ofthe statements given above is/are correct? [2008-I, II]
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Mir Kasim (b) Mir Jafar
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Shuja-ud-daulah (d) Shah Alam II
4. Who among the following was the Governor-General of 13. Which one of the following is the correct chronological
India immediately preceeding Chakravarthi Raja order of the freedom movements of India? [2008-I]
gopalachari? [2007-II] (a) Quit India Movement, Non-Cooperation Movement,
(a) The Marquess of Linlithgow Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) Lord Mountbatten (b) Non-cooperation Movement, Civil Disobedience
(c) Lord Wavell Movement, Quit India Movement
(d) Lord Chelmsford (c) Quit India Movement, Civil Disobedience Movement,
5. With which one of the following did the Civil Disobedience Non, Cooperation Movement
Movement in India commerce? [2008-I] (d) Non-Cooperation Movement–Quit India
(a) The Dandi March Movement–Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) No Tax campaign by Sardar Patel 14. ‘The Musalman’, the handwritten daily newspaper in
(c) The unfurling of the National flag by Nehru circulation since 1927, is published from which one of the
(d) Mahatma Gandhi’s going on fast following places? [2008-I]
6. After 1857, which of the following announced, at a Darbar (a) Chennai (b) Hyderabad
at Allahabad, the assumption of the Government of India (c) Mysore (d) Lucknow
by the Sovereign of Great Britain? [2008-I] 15. The ‘Arthasastra’ is a treatise on which one of the
(a) Lord Canning (b) Sir John Lawrence following? [2008-I]
(c) Lord Mayc (d) Lord Northbrok (a) Economics
7. Arrange the following in correct chronological order (b) Environment
1. Third Carnatic War [2008-I] (c) Political Philosophy
2. First Burmese War (d) Religion in Administration
3. First Mysore War 16. Arrange the following in chronological order [2008-I]
4. Second Afghan War 1. Partition of Bengal
Codes: 2. Chauri-Chaura Incident
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4 3. First Round Table Conference
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 3, 1, 2, 4 Codes:
8. Who among the following was the first Governor General (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 2, 1 (c) 1, 3, 2 (d) 2, 1, 3
of India? [2008-I] 17. Who among the following was the Viceroy of India at the
(a) Lord Amherst (b) Lord William Bentinck time of the formation of Indian National Congress?
(c) Sir Charles Metcalfe (d) Robert Clive [2008-I]
9. In which one of the following sessions was the Indian (a) Lord Mayo (b) Lord Ripon
National Congress split into moderates and extremists? (c) Lord Dufferin (d) Lord Lansdowne
History 63
18. Separate electorates for Muslims in India were introduced 29. Who among the following was thrice elected President of
by which one of the following Acts? [2008-I] the Indian National Congress? [2008-II]
(a) Government of India Act of 1909 (a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Surendranath Banerjee
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1892 (c) Gopal Krishna Gokhl (d) Shankaran Nair
(c) Rowlatt Act of 1919 30. Who among the following has started the Public Works
(d) Government of India Act of 1935 Department in India in AD 1848? [2008-II]
19. Match the following [2008-I] (a) Lord William Bentinck (b) Lord Dalhousie
List-I List-II (c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord Cornwallis
(Session of Indian National Congress (Venue) 31. Under which one of the following systems of assessment,
A. 1st session 1. Allahabad the British Government collected revenue directly from
B. 2nd session 2. Madras the farmers? [2008-II]
C. 3rd session 3. Calcutta (a) Zamindari (b) Ryotwari
D. 4th session 4. Bombay (c) Annawari (d) Desaiwari
Codes: 32. What is the correct sequence of the following events?
A B C D A B C D 1. Rowlatt Act [2008-II]
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 3 2 4 2. Gandhi-lrwin Pact
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 1 2 3 4 3. Morley-Minto Reforms
20. The Treaty of Amritsar was concluded between Maharaja 4. Illbert Bill
Ranjit Singh and who of the following? [2008-I] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Lord Cornwallis (b) Lord Dalhousie (a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 3, 4, 1, 2 (c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (d) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) Lord Hastings (d) Lord Minto 33. Who among the following was not a member of the
21. The Buddha delivered his first sermon, known as ‘Turning Cabinet Mission? [2008-II]
of the wheel of law’ at [2008-I] (a) Sir Stafford Cripps (b) AV Alexander
(a) Sanchi (b) Sarnath (c) Sravasti (d) Bodh Gaya (c) Radcliffe (d) Pathick Lawrence
22. Whose philosophy is called the Advaita? [2008-II] 34. Which one of the following was the original name of
(a) Ramanujacharya (b) Shankaracharya Tansen, the famous musician in the court of Akbar?
(c) Nagarjuna (d) Vasumitra [2008-II]
23. Who among the following was the founder of the Muslim (a) Mahananda Pande (b) Lal Kalwant
League? [2008-II] (c) Baz Bahadur (d) Ramtanu Pande
(a) Muhammad Ali Jinnah (b) Shaukat Ali 35. Who among the following has issued the coin rupee for
(c) Nawab Salimullah (d) Aga Khan the first time? [2008-II]
24. In Buddhism, what does Patimokkha stand for? [2008-II] (a) Muhammad bin Tughluq
(a) A description of Mahayana Buddhism (b) Ala-ud-din Khilji
(b) A description of Hinayana Buddhism (c) Sher Shah
(c) The rules of the Sangha (d) Akbar
(d) The questions of king Menander 36. In which of the following years was the All India Trade
25. In which of the following years was the first Railway line Union Congress formed in Bombay? [2008-II]
between Bombay and Thane laid? [2008-II] (a) 1918 (b) 1919 (c) 1920 (d) 1921
(a) 1853 (b) 1854 (c) 1856 (d) 1858 37. Who among the following was elected as the President of
26. What is the correct sequence of the following events? All India Khilafat Conference met at Delhi in 1919?
[2008-II] [2008-II]
1. Bardoli Satyagraha 2. Rajkot Satyagraha (a) Motilal Nehru (b) Mahatma Gandhi
3. Champaran Satyagraha 4. Nagpur Satyagraha (c) M A Jinnah (d) Shaukat Ali
Codes: 38. Who among the following was not a member of the
(a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2 (c) 3, 1, 4, 2 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 Constituent Assembly? [2008-II]
27. Who among the following Urdu poets was invited to the (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (b) Acharya JB Kriplani
Second and Third Round Table [2008-II] (c) Lok Nayak Jayprakash (d) K M Munshi
Conference? 39. Who among the following had moved the objectives
(a) Faiz Ahmad (b) Josh Malihabadi resolution which formed the basis of the Preamble of the
(c) Muhammad Iqbal (d) Firaq Gorakhpuri Constitution of India in the Constituent Assembly on
28. Match the following [2008-II] December 13, 1946? [2008-II]
List-I List-II (a) Dr B R Ambedkar
(Person) (Associated in Formation of) (b) Dr Rajendra Prasad
A. GK Gokhaie 1. Servants of Indian Society (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
B. MM Malaviya 2. Banaras Hindu University (d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
C. C Rajagopalachari 3. Free India Society 40. The head of a district (Ahara), the principal coordinator
D. VD Savarkar 4. Swatantra Party of the revenue and the officer incharge of general and
Codes: military functions in his jurisdiction during Mauryan
A B C D A B C D empire was known as [2008-II]
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 4 2 1 (a) Krori (b) Rajuka
(c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 3 2 4 1 (c) Foujdar (d) Chirastadar
EBD_7341
64 History
41. ‘A Forgotten Empire’, written by the renowned historian Robert (b) understand the social position of women during the
Sewell is about which one of the following empires? [2008-II] Gupta period
(a) Kushan empire (b) Mauryan empire (c) visit the Buddhist institutions and to collect copies
(c) Vijayanagar empire (d) Mughal empire of Buddhist manuscripts
42. The Doctrines of ‘Non-Violence’ and ‘Civil Disobedience’ (d) get full knowledge about the condition of peasants
associated with Mahatma Gandhi were influenced by the during the period of Gupta kings
works of [2009-I] 50. Which British military officer defeated Tipu Sultan in India,
(a) Churchill-lrwin-Tolstoy Napolean Bonaparte in Europe and eventually, became
(b) Ruskin-Tolstoy-Thoreau the Duke of Wellington? [2009-I]
(c) Thoreau-Humen-Shaw (a) Arthur Wellesley (b) Robert Clive
(d) Cripps-Tolstov-Howes (c) Warren Hastings (d) Richard Wellesley
43. The Ashtadhyayi of Panini, the Mahabhasya of Patanjali 51. Consider the following statements [2009-I]
and the Kashika Vritti of Jayaditya deal with [2009-I] 1. Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj in 1875.
(a) Principles of Law (b) Principles of Phonetics 2. The Arya Samaj repudiated the authority of the caste
(c) Principles of Grammar (d) Principles of Linguistics system.
44. Match the following [2009-I] 3. Dayanand Saraswati was born in the Brahman family.
List-I List-II Which of the statements given above are correct?
(Person) (Satyagraha) (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
A. Raj Kumar Shukla 1. Kheda Satyagraha (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
B. Ambalal Sarabhai 2. Ahmedabad Mill Strike 52. Consider the following statements about National
C. Indulal Yagnik 3. Bardoli Satyagraha Calendar of India [2009-I]
D. Vallabhbhai Patel 4. Champaran Satyagraha 1. The National Calendar based on the Saka era with
Codes: Chaitra as its first month.
A B C D A B C D 2. Dates of the National Calendar have a permanent
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 4 1 2 3 correspondence with dates of the Gregorian calendar.
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 3 2 1 4 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
45. Consider the following statements relating to Raja (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Rammohan Roy [2009-I] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2.
1. He knew that the spread of Western education was 53. Assertion (A) First War of independence broke out in
necessary to develop a national and scientific India in 1857, soon after the departure of Lord Dalhousie
attitude in the Indian society. from India.
2. He played a pioneering role in the religious and social Reason (R) Lord Dalhousie’s annexationist policy had
reform movements of 19th century, Bengal. caused great discontent. [2009-I]
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Codes:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation ofA
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
46. Sheikh Moin-ud-din, Bakhtiyar Kaki and Farid-ud-din explanation of A
Ganj-i-Shakar were [2009-I] (c) A is true, but R is false
(a) prominent military leaders of the Sultanate period (d) A is false, but R is true
(b) prominent painters from the Sultanate period 54. Which one of the following statement about Brihadeswara
(c) prominent chisti saints temple at Tanjavur, is not correct? [2009-I]
(d) prominent poets from the courts of the Sultanate period (a) The temple is a splendid example of Chola architecture
47. Which of the following statements on Gandhian (b) It was built by emperor Rajaraja
movements is not correct? [2009-I] (c) The temple is constructed of granite
(a) Mahatma Gandhi was in favour of mass movement (d) The temple is a monument dedicated to Lord Vishnu
(b) Gandhian movements were non-violent in nature 55. Consider th e following statements about Swami
(c) In Gandhian movements, leadership had no role Vivekananda [2009-I]
(d) Mahatma Gandhi was in favour of passive resistance 1. He said that Vedanta was the religion of all.
48. Consider the following statements relating to Sher Shah 2. He believed in reviving all the best traditions of Hinduism.
[2009-I] 3. He was impressed by the status of women in the West.
1. During Sher Shah’s region, the village Panchayat and Which of the statements given above are correct?
Zamindars were not allowed to deal with civil and (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
criminal cases at the local level. (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
2. Sher Shah set-up army cantonments in different parts 56. Which among the following was not one of the provisions
of the empire and a strong garrison was posted in of the ‘Communal Award’? [2009-I]
each of them. (a) Member of the depressed classes were assigned
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? reserved seats and separate electorates
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (b) Separate electorates for the Muslims
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Separate electorates for the Europeans and the Sikhs
49. Fa-Hien’s mission to India was to [2009-I] (d) The separate electorates were to lapse at the end of
(a) learn about the administrative system of the Gupta kings 10 years
History 65
57. Which of the following statements about Annie Besant 64. October 26, 1947 is an important date in the Indian history,
are correct? [2009-I] because of [2009-II]
1. She founded the Central Hindu College at Benaras. (a) Maharaja Hari Singh’s signing on Instrument of
2. She organised the Home Rule League. Accession
3. She introduced the Theosophical Movement in India. (b) ceasefire with Pakistan
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (c) merger of Sind
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (d) declaration of war over India by Pakistan
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 65. Who drafted the Constitution of Muslim League, ‘The
58. Which one of the following inscriptions mentions Green Book’? [2009-II]
Pulakesin II’s military success against Harshavardhana? (a) Rahamat Ali
[2009-II] (b) Muhammad Iqbal
(a) Allahabad Pillar inscription (c) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
(b) Aihole inscription (d) Maulana Muhammad Ali Jauhar
(c) Damodarpur Copperplate inscription 66. ‘Use of white marble, long legs and slender frames, human
(d) Bilsad inscription beings as central characters and prominence of kings,
59. Which one of the following statements regarding princess and palaces’ were the characteristic features of which
Harappan civilisation is correct? [2009-II] one of the following ancient art forms of India? [2009-II]
(a) The standard Harappan seals were made of clay (a) Amaravati School of Art (b) Gandhara School of Art
(b) The inhabitants of Harappa had neither knowledge (c) Mathura School of Art (d) Pahari School of Art
of copper nor bronze 67. Which two of the following plays did Kalidasa wrote
(c) The Harrapan civilisation was rural based before writing Abhigyanashakuntalam? [2009-II]
(d) The inhabitants of Harappan grew and used cotton 1. Vikramorvashiyam 2. Malavikagnimitram
60. After the death of Raja Rammohan Roy, the Brahmo Samaj 3. Swapnavasavadattam 4. Kadambari
split into two sections; the Brahmo Samaj of India and the Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Adi Brahmo Samaj. Who were the leaders of the two (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
sections, respectively? [2009-II] 68. Consider the following statements and identify the person
(a) Keshab Chandra Sen and Debendranath Tagore referred to therein with the help of the codes given below
(b) Radhakanta Deb and Debendranath Tagore During his stay in England, he endeavoured to educate
(c) Keshab Chandra Sen and Radhakanta Deb the British people about their responsibilities as rulers of
(d) Debendranath Tagore and Radhakanta Deb India. He delivered speeches and published articles to
61. The ‘dual government’ recommended by Lord Clive support his opposition to the unjust and oppressive
provided that the [2009-II] regime of the British Raj. In 1867, he helped to establish
(a) criminal justice would be left to the Nawabi officials, the East India Association of which he became the
while civil and fiscal matters would be controlled by Honorary Secretary. [2009-II]
the company (a) Pherozeshah Mehta (b) Mary Carpenter
(b) company will look after fiscal matters and all the rest (c) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) Anand Mohan Bose
would be dealt by the Indian rulers 69. Which one of the following commissions/ committees was
(c) Indian rulers will deal with all the matters of appointed by the British Government to investigate into
administration under the supervision of a company the massacre in Jallianwala Bagh? [2009-II]
official (a) Welby Commission (b) Hunter Committee
(d) Indian rulers will be only titular heads and all the (c) Simon Commission (d) Butler Committee
powers shall be directly dealt by the company 70. Which one of the following statements related to the
62. Consider the following statements relating to the famous Boston Tea Party on December 16, 1773 during the
Muzaffarpur murders (1908) [2009-II] American War of Independence is correct? [2009-II]
1. The bomb, which was hurled at their carriage of Mrs (a) The revolutionaries stealthily entered into the ships
Pringle and her daughter was actually intended for and threw all the chests of tea into the water
Mr Kingsford, the District Judge of Muzaffarpur. (b) The revolutionaries hosted a Tea Party in the honour
2. The revolutionaries wanted to kill Mr Kingsford, of Charles Townshend, the British Chancellor of the
because he had inflicted severe punishments on Exchequer in order to place their grievances before
Swadeshi activists. him
3. Khudiram and Prafulla Chaki had to pay the penalty (c) It marked a celebration when Lord North, the
for their action by death. successor of Townshend, repealed some of the duties
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? imposed by Townshend
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) It was a protest against the Quebec Act
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these 71. Which of the following was/were the main feature (s) of
63. The Nehru-Liaquat Pact between India and Pakistan was the Government of India Act, 1919? [2009-II]
signed in 1950 to resolve the issue of [2009-II] 1. Introduction of separate electorates for Muslims.
(a) the protection of minorities 2. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to
(b) the accession of princely states the provinces.
(c) the border disputes 3. Expansion and reconstitution of central and
(d) the problem of refugees provincial legislatures.
EBD_7341
66 History
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (b) The passing of the Act of 1919
(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 3 (c) To support Mahatma Gandhi’s Satyagraha
72. ‘Dyarchy’ was first introduced in India under [2009-II] Movement
(a) Morley-Minto reforms (d) To protest against the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh
(b) Montford reforms and the imposition of martial law in Punjab
(c) Simon Commision plan 80. Consider the following statements relating to Indigo
(d) Government of India Act, 1935 Revolt [2010-I]
73. When Lord Mountbatten became the first Governor- 1. The Indigo Revolt is particularly memorable for the
General of India, who among the following became the role played by the intelligentsia to uphold the cause
Governor-General for Pakistan? [2009-II] of the movement.
(a) Lord Mountbatten (b) Muhammad Ali Jinnah 2. After the revolt, the colonial authorities set-up the
(c) Liaquat Ali Khan (d) Shaukat Ali Indigo Commission to enquire into the grievances of
74. Consider the following paragraph the Indigo cultivators.
He was seriously injured in police lathi charge in Lahore Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
during demonstrations against Simon Commission, for (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
which he subsequently died in November, 1928. Later on, (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the British officer who was responsible for the lathi charge 81. Prior to 1813, which among the following measures, was
on him, was shot dead by Bhagat Singh and Rajguru. not adopted by the British to exploit the Indians
The revolutionary referred to in the above paragraph is economically ? [2010-I]
[2009-II] (a) Monopolising the trade of raw goods wherever
(a) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant possible and selling them at high rates
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai (b) Forcing Indiancraftsman to produce quality products
(c) Mangal Singh in fixed quantity and at fixed price
(d) Motilal Nehru (c) Free Trade Policy
75. Which among the following are the five principles of (d) Elimination of Indian traders from competition by
peaceful co-existence of Panchsheel as outlined by every means
Jawaharlal Nehru? [2010-I] 82. Which one of the following statements regarding the
(a) Mutual respect, military collaboration, economic Revolt of 1857 is not correct? [2010-I]
collaboration, de-colonisation and territorial integrity (a) The revolt was supported whole heartedly by the
(b) Mutual respect for each other territorial integrity and educated, elite Indian everywhere
sovereignty, non-aggression, non-interference, (b) The diverse elements which took part in the revolt
equality and mutual benefit and peaceful co-existence were united by their hatred of British rule
(c) Peaceful co-existence, economic collaboration cultural (c) The role of Hindu-Muslim unity in the revolt was
interaction, territorial integrity and decolonisation acknowledged by many, including British officials
(d) Disarmament, peaceful co-existence, economic (d) The revolt did not spread to South India
collaboration, cultural interaction and territorial integrity 83. Consider the following statements aboul Vijayanagara
76. The Russian revolutionaries derived their ideology from empire [2010-I]
the doctrines of [2010-I] 1. Vijayanagara was noted for its markets dealing in
(a) Lenin and Stalin (b) Marx and Lenin spices, textiles and precious stones.
(c) Marx and Engels (d) Lenin and Engels 2. Krishnadeva Raya’s rule was characterised by the
77. Which one among the following sums up Marx’s view strain within the imperial structure,
about history? [2010-I] 3. The Amara-Nayakas were military commanders who
(a) History is a record of the wars between various people were given territories to govern by the Royas.
(b) History is a succession of struggle between the Which ofthe statements given above is/are correct?
oppressor .and the oppressed classes (a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) History is a faithful record of the past events (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
(d) None of the above 84. Consider the following statements about the famous
78. Which of the following statements regarding Mahatma traveller, Ibn Batuta [2010-I]
Gandhi’s philosophy of Satyagraha is/are correct? 1. He was a Moroccan traveller.
[2010-I] 2. He narrated his experiences while travelling the sub
1. Truth and non-violence are its two vital ingredients. continent in the 14th century in Kitab-ul-Hind.
2. The follower of Satyagraha would resist evil but not 3. He was sent as the envoy of Sultan of Delhi to China.
hate the evil doer. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. The Satyagrahi would, if necessary, inflict suffering (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
on himself, and also the evil doer. (c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 85. Which one of the following was not a result of British
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 colonial rule in India? [2010-I]
(c) Only 1 (d) 1 and 2 (a) Ruin of Indian agriculture
79. Which one among the following prompted Rabindranath (b) Ruin of Indian industries
Tagore to surrender his title of ‘Sir’? [2010-I] (c) Ruin of Indian trade
(a) The passing of the Rowlatt Act (d) Ruin of Indian feudalism
History 67
86. Consider the following events in the history of British 92. To which among the following the residuary powers were
India [2010-I] conferred by the federation established by the act of 1935?
1. Santhal Rebellion [2010-I]
2. Indigo Revolt (a) Federal legislature (b) Provincial legislatures
3. Sanyasi and Fakir Rebellion (c) Governor-General (d) Provincial Governors
4. Birsa Munda Rebellion 93. Which one among the following was not a reform measure
Which one of the following is a correct chronological carried out by Mahmud Gawan of Bahmani kingdom?
sequence of the above events starting with the earliest? [2010-II]
(a) 3, 2, 1, 4 (b) 1, 4, 2, 3 (c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3 (a) The kingdom was divided into eight provnices or
87. Statement I : Bal Gangadhar Tilak sought to diffuse the Tarafs
spirit of nationalism among the masses. (b) Nobles were paid salaries and were asked to maintain
Statement II : Tilak organised a corps of volunteers to contingents of horses
help the famine stricken people in the Deccan. [2010-I] (c) A tract of land, Khalisa, was set apart for the expenses
Codes: of the Tarafdar
(a) Both the statements are true and Statement II is the (d) Lands were measured and land taxes were fixed on
correct explanation of Statement I that basis
(b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not 94. Consider the following statement and identify the author
the correct explanation of Statement I of the statement using the codes given below [2010-II]
(c) Satement I is true, but Statement II is false I shall work for an India in which the poorest shall feel
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true that it is their country, in whose making they have an
88. Consider the following statements about the Non- effective voice, an India in which there shall be no high
Cooperation Movement [2010-I] class and low class of people, an India in which all
1. The movement was a mixture of nationalism, middle communities shall live in perfect harmony.
class politics, religion, feudalism, agrarian discontent (a) Baba Saheb Ambedkar (b) Mahatma Gandhi
and working class agitation. (c) Gurudev Tagore (d) Pandit Nehru
2. The movement was much greater in intensity than 95. Which one among the following statements regarding the
any other political agitation which came before it. social and religious reform ideas of Raja Rammohan Roy
3. The movement helped to foster Hindu-Muslim unity. is not correct? [2010-II]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) His efforts led to the formation of Brahmo Samaj in 1828
(a) Only 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3 (b) He considered different religions as embodiments of
89. Which of the following statements above Ryotwari universal theism
settlement is/are correct? [2010-I] (c) His Vedantic monism was strengthened after 1815
1. It recognised the cultivators as the owner of land. since an exposure to Christian unitarianism
2. It was a temporary settlement. (d) He paid attention exclusively to the problems/issues
3. It was introduced later than the permanent settlement. of the emerging middle class of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 96. Which one among the following was part of Gandhi-lrwin
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 Agreement of 1931? [2010-II]
(c) Only 1 (d) All of these (a) Stern action against policemen guilty of brutal assault
90. Consider the following statements about Dr Ram Manohar on Satyagrahis
Lohia [2010-I] (b) Nehru to represent Congress at the Round Table
1. He believed the Satyagraha without constructive Conference of 1931
work is like a sentence without a verb. (c) Deletion of communal question from the agenda of
2. He wrote his PhD thesis paper on the topic of Salt the conference
Satyagraha, focusing on Mahatma Gandhi’s socio- (d) Release of political prisoners excepting those guilty
economic theory. of arson and violence
3. He recognised that caste, more than class, was the 97. Match the following [2010-II]
huge stumbling block to India’s progress. List-I List-II
Which of the statements give above is/are correct? (Event) (Place/Person)
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 A. Tarmashirin Khan’s 1. Vijayanagara
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these invasion of India
91. Which of the following statements relating to the Non- B. Visit of Farnao 2. Zainul Abidin
Alignment Movement is/are not correct? [2010-I] Martinz Evangelho,
1. Non-alignment came to symbolise the struggle of the Portuguese factor
India and other newly independent nations to retain C. Visit of the traveller 3. Champaner
and strengthen their independence from colonialism Nuniz
and imperialism. D. Network of canals 4. Muhammad Tughlaq
2. Non-alignment advanced the process of democrati- in Kashmir valley
sation of international relations. Codes:
3. Military alliances formed a major part of non-alignment. A B C D A B C D
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 3 (d) Only 1 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
EBD_7341
68 History
98. Which one of the following statements about the (c) Lord Mountbatten in December, 1946 in a note given
teachings of Kabir is not correct? [2010-II] to British Parliament
(a) He was not against pilgrimage and idol worship (d) Viceroy Wavell in January, 1946 in a letter to Secretary
(b) He believed in universal love of State
(c) He emphasised on one God and the spread of 104. Consider the following passage and identify the three
devotionalism tribal principalities referred to there, in using the codes
(d) He did not consider it necessary to abandon the given below
normal life of a householder In the early history of the far South in India, three tribal
99. Which one among the following statements about principalities are mentioned in Ashokan inscriptions of
Ashokan edicts is correct? [2010-II] the 3rd century BC and in Kharavela inscription of the 1st
(a) The Pillar edicts were located in all parts of the empire century BC. [2011-I]
(b) The edicts give details of his personal concerns but (a) Vakatakas, Cholas and Satvahanas
are silent on events of the empire (b) Cholas, Pandyas and Cheras
(c) The subject of inscribed matter on Rock edicts differs (c) Ikshvakus, Vakatakas and Pandyas
completely with that of the Pillar edicts (d) Pallavas, Cholas and Pandyas
(d) The Greek or Aramaic edicts are versions or 105. Industrial Revolution in Europe mainly emerged due to
translations of the texts used in other edicts 1. locating the production process in the countryside.
100. Which one among the following pairs is correctly 2. declining of the guilds because of non-farming
matched? [2011-I] production coming under a single roof (the factory).
(a) The Second Battle : Defeat of Jaichand of 3. growing role of merchant capitalists in the production
of Tarain Kannauj by Muhammad of process. [2011-I]
Ghori Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(b) The First Battle of : Defeat of Sikander Lodhi (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2
Panipat by Babur 106. In addition to Macaulay’s Minutes on Education, another
(c) The Battle of Chausa : Defeat of Humayun by landmark draft is also attributed to him. Identify the draft
Sher Shah from the following. [2011-I]
(d) The Battle of Khanwa : Defeat of Rana Pratap by (a) Draft of Indian Penal Code
Akbar (b) Draft of Indian Forest Policy
(c) Draft of the Zamindari Abolition Act
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 101-102) : The following questions consist (d) Draft of the Maritime Trade Policy
of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to 107. Which of the following statements regarding the American
examine these two statments carefully and select the answers Revolution is/are correct? [2011-I]
to these items using the codes given below [2011-I] 1. The American Revolution was a conflict between
Codes British settlers and native Americans.
(a) Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct 2. The Americans refused to pay taxes imposed by the
explanation of Statement I British Parliament in which the Americans had no
(b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the representation.
correct explanation of Statment I Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(d) Statement II is false, but Statement II is true (c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
101. Statement I: In North-Western India, the Civil 108. Which of the following statements about Fourth Anglo-
Disobedience Movement took a mass character under the Mysore War are correct? [2011-I]
leadership of Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan. 1. The Madras Council suggested a policy of rigorous
Statement II : The Nehru Report (1928) had argued that and intense attack on Mysore.
the ‘next immediate step’ for India must be dominion 2. Lord Wellesley tried to revive the triple alliance.
status. 3. Tipu sent emissaries to Arabia, Versailles, Mauritius
102. Statement I : Gandhiji failed to realise that the Khilafat and Kabul enlisting support against the English.
was an extra-territorial issue. 4. The war was of a very short duration though decisive.
Statement II : The cause of Khilafat was discredited by Select the correct answer using the codes given below
1923, as Mustafa Kamal Pasha set-up a secular republican (a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
Government in Turkey. (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
103. Consider the following statement and identify with the 109. Which of the statements given below about Vivekananda
help of the codes given below, the person who made the are correct? [2011-II]
statement 1. He believed that Vedanta was fully rational.
‘It would be quite impossible for a few hundredBritish to 2. He criticised his contrymen for having lost touch
administer against the active opposition of the whole of with the outside world.
the politically minded fo the population. [2011-I] 3. He condemned the caste system.
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru in April, 1947 in an address to 4. He considered the Veda to be infallible.
Congressmen at Lucknow Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(b) Clement Attlee January, 1947 in a private letter (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
addressed to Ernest Bevin (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
History 69
110. In 1856, Awadh would not have been annexed with the (a) A purse given privately by one organisation to
British empire if the Nawab of Awadh had [2011-II] another
(a) allied with the British (b) A purse given by the Government of India to
(b) not refused to introduce reforms as suggested by dignitaries for services rendered
the British (c) A grant given by the Government of India to the
(c) fought against the British erstwhile Prince of India
(d) a natural heir (d) A gift given by an erstwhile Prince of india to the
111. Which one among the following is correct about the Government of India
Doctrine of Lapse? [2011-II] 118. The Constituent Assembly of India was choosen on the
(a) It did not allow the Indian rulers to adopt any heir basis of the provincial elections of 1946. With the
(b) It did not allow an adopted heir to rule a state after withdrawal of the Muslim League from the Constituent
the death of the ruler Assembly, it turned out that majority of the assembly
(c) It made the annexation of Indian State compulsory members were also members of the Congress. Under that
after the death of a ruler circumstance, how was the Constituent Assembly given
(d) It made the annexation of Indian State compulsory if a broader social basis? [2011-II]
the adoption of heir had not been approved by the (a) By nominating independent members from various
British authorities minority groups
112. Which one among the following was the result of the (b) By nominating independent members from various
First Anglo-Maratha War of 1775–1982? [2011-II] caste and religious groups
(a) The British won the war (c) By nominating independent members of different
(b) The Marathas won the war castes, religious groups and women and also by
(c) There was no victory for either side taking in representatives of the princely states and
(d) It helped Haider Ali to gather strength because the asking for written submission from the public at large
British and Marathas were engaged in a mutual war (d) By taking in representatives of the princely states and
113. Which one among the following was a reason for which asking for written submission from the public at large
the French could not succeed in India in the 18th century? 119. The first effort at drafting a Dominion Status Constitution
[2011-II] for India was made in response to the [2011-II]
(a) They sided with the weak Indian sides such as Chanda (a) Minto-Morley reforms
Sahib and Muzaffar Jang (b) Montague-Chelmsford reforms
(b) Dupleix was called back at a crucial time (c) Simon Commission
(c) They conspired against the Indian powers (d) First Round Table Conference
(d) Their trading company was heavily dependent on 120. The Iron Pillar near Qutub Minar draws attention of
the French Government scientists due to its [2011-II]
114. Which of the following was/were reason/reasons for the (a) antiquity (b) glitter
success of European trading companies in South India, (c) hardness (d) rustlessness
during the 17th century? [2011-II] 121. Statement I Annie Besant worked together with the
1. The presence of the Mughals in the South was not Congress and the Muslim League during the Home Rule
as much as in the North. Movement.
2. The Vijayanagara kingdom had been over-thrown in Statement II Annie Besant felt that this was necessary to
the late 16th century. get the support of the masses for the Home Rule
3. The South had many small and weak states. Select Movement. [2011-II]
the correct answer using the codes given below Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (a) Both the statements are true and Statement II is the
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 correct explanation of Statement I
115. Which one among the following was not true about the (b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not
Kerala king, Marthanda Verma? [2011-II] the correct explanation of Statment I
(a) He ruled over Travancore (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(b) He subdued the feudatories (d) Statement II is false, but Statement II is true
(c) He gave heavy bribes to the European officers to 122. Which one among the following is not a characteristic of
maintain peace Rig-Vedic Aryans? [2011-II]
(d) He organised a strong modern army (a) They were acquainted with horses, chariots and the
116. Which one among the following was not a possible reason use of bronze
for the success of Nadir Shah’s military compaign in Delhi? (b) They were acquainted with the use of iron
[2011-II] (c) They were acquainted with the cow, which formed
(a) Weak Mughal emperor the most important form of wealth
(b) Lack of strong defence in the North-West frontier (d) They were acquainted with the use of copper and
(c) Late preparation for the defence of Delhi the modern ploughshare
(d) Use of superior military technology by the invading 123. The earliest Buddhist literature which deal with the stories
army of the various birth of Buddha are [2011-II]
117. What was the ‘privy purse’ in the context of the history of (a) Vinaya pitakas (b) Sutta pitakas
modern India? [2011-II] (c) Abhidamma pitakas (d) Jatakas
EBD_7341
70 History
124. The Jainas believe the Jainism is the outcome of the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
teachings of 24 tirthankaras. In the light of this statement, (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
which one among the following is correct of Vardhamana (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Mahavira? [2011-II] 130. Which of the statements given below about the
(a) He was the first tirthankara and the founder of Jainism Champaran Satyagraha is/are correct? [2011-II]
(b) He was the 23rd tirthankara, the first 22 tirthankaras 1. It was related to Indigo plantations.
being considered legendary 2. It started because the European planters oppressed
(c) He was the last and 24th tirthankara, who was not the Zamindars.
considered as the founder of the new faith but as a Select the correct answer using the codes given below
reformer of the existing religious sect (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(d) He was not one of the 24 tirthankaras (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
125. Gandhiji led the Indian Nationalist Movement from the 131. The Viceregal Lodge at Shimla is a well-known ancient
front and his leadership was motivated by a wider monument. Which of the following statements about the
philosophy, he nurtured throughout the course of the monument are correct? [2012-I]
movement. Which one among the following was a 1. The Lodge was built by 17th Viceroy, Earl Dufferin.
continuous movement based on this philosophy and not 2. The present shape of the building was given by Earl
a specific movement? [2011-II] of Marquis of Lansdowne.
(a) Non-Cooperation Movement 3. It is famous for holding three meetings before
(b) Swadeshi Movement Independence of India including the Cabinet Mission.
(c) Quit India Movement Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
126. Which of the following statements regarding Permanent (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
Settlement is/are correct? [2011-II] 132. Which of the following statements about Permanent
1. The Permanent Settlement was introduced in parts Settlement are correct? [2012-I]
of the Madras and Bombay Presidencies. 1. It conferred proprietary rights to peasants.
2. The Permanent Settlement created a new class of 2. The Zamindars were recognised as the proprietors
landlords with hereditary rights on land. of land.
3. The landlords created by the Permanent Settlement 3. The government permanently fixed the land revenue
could never be removed under any circumstance. demand.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 4. The Zamindars acted as the middlemen between the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 peasants and the government.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the codes given below
127. Which among the following was the most immediate factor (a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
for the spread of Swadeshi and boycott of foreign goods (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
during the first decade of the last century? [2011-II] 133. Which one among the following was not a demand of the
(a) Curzon’s design to curtail the sphere of local self- Prarthana Samaj? [2012-I]
government (a) Women education
(b) Curzon’s attempt to control the universities (b) Widow remarriage
(c) Curzon’s partition of Bengal (c) Raising the age of marriage for boys and girls
(d) Curzon’s plan to curb the growing popularity of the (d) Abolition of untouchability
Indian National Congress 134. The Name of Ram Prasad Bismil is associated with
128. Which one among the following statements appropriately [2012-I]
defines the term ‘Drain Theory’ as propounded by (a) Kanpur Conspiracy Case
Dadabhai Naoroji in his work ‘Poverty and Un–British (b) Alipore Conspiracy Case
Rule in India’? [2011-II] (c) Kakori Conspiracy Case
(a) That a part of India’s national wealth or total annual (d) Meerut Conspiracy Case
product was being exported to Britain for which India 135. Match the following [2012-I]
got no material returns List I List II
(b) That the resources of India were being utilised in the (Battle) (Treaty)
interest of Britain A. The Third Carnatic War 1. Treaty of Salbai
(c) That the British industrialists were being given a B. The Third Mysore War 2. Treaty of Lahore
opportunity to invest in India under the protection C. The First Maratha War 3. Treaty of Paris
of the imperial power D. The First Anglo Sikh War 4. Treaty of Srirangapatam
(d) That the British goods were being imported to India Codes:
making the country poorer day by day A B C D A B C D
129. Consider the following statements about the Ahmedabad (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3
Mill Strike of 1918 [2011-II] (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2
1. It was related to a dispute between the workers 136. Who among the following scholars were contemporary
and the European mill owners regarding hours of of Kanishka? [2012-I]
work. 1. Ashvaghosa 2. Nagarjuna
2. Gandhiji advised the workers to go on strike. 3. Vasumitra 4. Chanakya
History 71
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 146. Which one among the following statements is correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 [2012-I]
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) The Revolt of 1857 was not supported by the Nizam
137. Ashokan inscriptions of Mansehra and Shahbazgadhi are of Hyderabad
written in [2012-I] (b) Dinabandhu Mitra was the author of the book,
(a) Prakrit language, Kharoshthi script Unhappy India
(b) Prakrit language, Brahmi script (c) The Sindhias of Gwalior gave shelter to the Rani of Jhansi
(c) Prakrit-Aramaic language, Brahmi script (d) Mangal Pandey led the Sepoys March to Delhi
(d) Aramaic language, Kharoshthi script 147. Which one among the following principles was not
138. Which one among the following statements regarding propagated by the Theosophical Society? [2012-I]
Jorwe Culture is not correct? [2012-I] (a) Belief in Karma and Rebirth
(a) Pravara-Godavari Valley was the nuclear zone of (b) Belief in Universal Brotherhood and Humanity
Jorwe Culture (c) Belief in Vedantic Philosophy
(b) The main sites of Jorwe Culture are Daimabad, (d) Belief in the Eradication of Untouchability
Inamgaon, Jorwe and Nevasa 148. Which one among the following statements regarding Bal
(c) At Daimabad, one gets archaeological evidence of Gangadhar Tilak is not correct? [2012-I]
symbolic burial (a) He propounded the theory of the Arctic Home of the
(d) Practically all Jorwe settlement in the Northern Aryans
Deccan were suddenly deserted (b) He founded the Anti-Cow Killing Society
139. Match the following [2012-I] (c) He set-up the Home Rule League at Poona
List 1 List II (d) He supported the Age of Consent Bill
A. lyothere Thass 1. Satyashodhak Samaj 149. The site of Harappa is located on the bank of river [2012-I]
B. Jyotiba Phule 2. Dravida Kazhagam (a) Saraswati (b) Indus
C. John Rathinam 3. Self Respect Movement (c) Beas (d) Ravi
D. E V Ramaswami Naickar 4. Dravida Mahajana Sabha 150. The suppression of Indian language newspapers under
Codes : the Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was caused by the
A B C D A B C D criticism of [2012-II]
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 3 1 2 4 (a) lavish lifestyle of the English officials
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 3 2 1 4 (b) ill-treatment given to Indigo workers by their English
140. Identify the correct sequence of the following events of masters
Indian history (starting with the earliest) [2012-I] (c) inhuman approach of English officials towards the
1. The Doctrine of Lapse victims of the famine of 1876-77
2. The Subsidiary Alliance (d) misuse of religious places of India by English officials
3. The Treaty of Lahore 151. Dalhousie has been regarded as the maker of modern India
4. T Pitt’s India Act because he brought about reforms and made a beginning
Select the correct answer using the codes given below in many fields. Which one among the following was not
(a) 4, 2, 3, 1 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 one of his schemes of reforms? [2012-II]
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 3, 2, 1, 4 (a) Educational reforms
141. Which one among the following states was first annexed (b) Construction of railways and introduction of
by Lord Dalhousie under the Doctrine of Lapse? [2012-I] telegraph and postal services
(a) Nagpur (b) Jhansi (c) Establishment of a public works department
(c) Sambalpur (d) Satara (d) Factories Act to improve the condition of Indian labour
142. Which one among the following Indus cities was known 152. Consider the following statements about the European
for water management? [2012-I] travellers to India [2012-II]
(a) Lothal (b) Mohenjodaro 1. Sir Thomas Roe, the Representative of the East India
(c) Harappa (d) Dholavira Company, was granted the permission by Jahangir
143. Who among the following Chinese travellers visited the to open a factory at Surat.
Kingdoms of Harsrhavardhana and Kumar Bhaskar Varma? 2. Captain Hawkins was driven out from Agra by the
[2012-I] Mughals at the instigation of Portuguese.
(a) I–Tsing (b) Fa–Hien 3. Father Monserrate travelled with Akbar on his
(c) Hiuen Tsang (d) Sun Shuyun journey to Kashmir.
144. The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
[2012-I] (a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 2
(a) Federation (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
(b) Confederation 153. Industrial Revolution, in its early phase from C 1760 to C.
(c) Unitary form of Government 1850, was largely dependent for its success on [2012-II]
(d) Union of States (a) machine power that replaced the labour on a large scale
145. Who among the following Governor Generals formed the (b) elaborate road network for transportation of industrial
Triple Alliance against Tipu Sultan? [2012-I] products
(a) Warren Hastings (b) Lord Cornwallis (c) network of electric power stations
(c) Lord Wellesley (d) Lord William Bentinck (d) organisation of labour under factory system
EBD_7341
72 History
154. Which one among the following pairs is not properly 162. Which one among the following statements is not true of
matched? [2012-II] the jajmani system? [2012-II]
(a) Megasthenes : Indica (a) It was a non-market exchange system
(b) Ashvaghasa : Bddha charita (b) It was practised in many villages and regions during
(c) Panini : Mahabhashya the pre-colonial period
(d) Vishakhadatta : Mudrarakshasa (c) It was introduced under pressure from the colonial regime
155. The Dhamma propagated by Ashoka was [2012-II] (d) It was incorporated into wider networks of exchange
(a) the tenets of Buddhism through which agricultural products and other goods
(b) a mixture of the philosophies of Ajivikas and circulated
Charvakas 163. Which one among the following depicts the correct
(c) a system of morals consistent with the tenets of most meaning of the term Jins-i-Kamil concerning crops in
of the sects of the time Mughal India? [2012-II]
(d) the religious policy of the state (a) Paddy crop (b) Cash crop
156. What was the Kutagarashala literally, a hut with a pointed (c) Coarse crop (d) Crop grown, in the arid
roof ? [2012-II] 164. Consider the following statements about Sufism
(a) A place where animals were kept [2012-II]
(b) A place where intellectual debates among Buddhist 1. The Sufism were critical of the dogmatic definitions
mendicants took place and scholastic methods of interpreting the Quran
(c) A place where weapons were stored and Sunna (traditions of the prophet) adopted by
(d) A place to sleep the theologianc.
157. Which among the following materials were used for 2. The Sufis sought an interpretation of the Quran on
minting coins during the rule of the Mauryas? [2012-II] the basis of their personal experience.
(a) Gold and Silver (b) Silver and Copper Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(c) Copper and Bronze (d) Gold and Copper (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
158. Which one among the following was the immediate cause (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
of attack by Nawab Siraj-ud-Daula on Calcutta in 1756? 165. Which among the following statements regarding the
[2012-II] Gupta Dynasty is/are correct? [2012-II]
(a) Refusal of the English Company to pay the overdue 1. The Kumaramatyas were the most important of the
trade tax and they were appointed directly by the king in the
(b) The English conspired against the Nawab with a view home provinces.
to depose him from the Throne 2. The village headmen lost importance and of the
(c) Siraj-ud-Daula wanted to drive out the English from transactions began to be effected without their consent.
Bengal Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(d) Refusal of the English to demolish the fortification (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
of Calcutta (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor
159. Which one among the following correctly describes 166. Which one among the following is not a function of Mir
Gandhiji’s attitude towards the Swarajist leaders? Bakshi, the Head of the Military Department as well as of
[2012-II] the nobility under Mughal rule? [2012-II]
(a) He was not opposed to their entry into council (a) He made recommendations for appointment to
(b) He had full trust in their bona fides and considered Mansabs to the emperor
them most valued and respected leaders (b) He collected reports of intelligence and information
(c) He was not in favour of maintaining warm personal agencies of the empire and presented them to the
relations with them emperor at the court
(d) He was neutral to government’s offensive against (c) He was responsible for all incomes and expenditures
the Swarajists and did not defend them and held control over Khalisa, Jagir and Inam lands
160. Silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade (d) He was responsible for the security of foreign
and cultural links between distant parts of the world. travellers on the highways of the empire
Which one among the following is not true of silk routes? 167. The first Indian ruler to be shown in images as wearing a
[2012-II] dress akin to trousers is [2012-II]
(a) Historians have identified several silk route over land (a) Chandragupta (b) Ashoka
and sea (c) Kanishka (d) Samudragupta
(b) Silk routes have linked Asia with Europe and Northern 168. Consider the following statements about Shivaji’s military
Africa acumen [2012-II]
(c) Silk routes existed before the Christian era and thrived 1. He was a master in guerrilla tactics and swift cavalry
almost upto fifteenth century warfare.
(d) As a result of silk route trade, precious metals like 2. He had built a series of fortified strongholds on the
gold and silver, flowed from Asia to Europe table mountains of the Western Deccan.
161. Which one among the following books was authored by Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
a lady of the Mughal Royal House? [2012-II] (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Akbar Nama (b) Babur Nama (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Humayun Nama (d) Badshah Nama
History 73
169. Who among the following cultures were the first to paint 179. Which of the following was/were not related to Buddha’s
their pottery? [2012-II] life? [2013-I]
(a) Mesolithic (b) Chalcolithic 1. Kanthaka 2. Alara Kalama
(c) Neolithic (d) Iron age 3. Channa 4. Goshala Maskariputra
170. The polity of the Harappan people, as derived from the Select the correct answer using the codes given below
material evidence, was [2012-II] (a) Only 1 (b) Only 4
(a) secular-federalist (b) theocratic-federalist (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
(c) oligarchic (d) theocratic-unitary 180. What was Ziyarat in the language of the Sufis?
171. Several nationalist leaders in India wrote commentaries [2013-I]
on the Bhagvad Geeta to argue the case for an ethical (a) Pilgrimage to the tombs of Sufi saints for seeking
foundation to Indian nationalism, who among the following barkat (spiritual grace)
is an exception to it? [2012-II] (b) Reciting divine name
(a) Sri Aurobindo (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Offering free kitchens run on futuh (unasked for
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (d) Ram Manohar Lohia charity)
172. Who among the following was not associated with the (d) Setting up of auqaf (charitable trusts)
foundation of the All India Trade Union Congress? [2013-I] 181. British colonialism in India saw the emergence of new
(a) NM Joshi (b) Lajpat Rai cities. Calcutta, now Kolkata, was one of the first cities.
(c) VVGiri (d) Joseph Baptista Which of the following villages were, amalgamated to form
173. Which chemical was an important symbol in our struggle the city of Calcutta? [2013-I]
for freedom? [2013-I] (a) Midnapur, Chittagong, Burdwan
(a) Glucose (b) Fertilizer (b) 24-Parganas, Kalikata, Thakurgaon
(c) Medicine (d) Sodium chloride (c) Sutanuti, Kalikata, Gobindapur
(d) Midnapur, Thakurgaon, Gobindapur
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 174-178): The following questions consist 182. Several socio-political organisations were formed in the
of two statements, StatementI and Statement 11. You are to 19th and 20th centuries in India, Anjuman-e-Khawatin-e-
examine these two statements carefully and select the answers Islam founded in the year 1914 was [2013-I]
to these questions using the codes given below (a) All India Muslim Ladies Conference
Codes [2013-I] (b) A radical wing of the All India Muslim League
(a) Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct (c) All India Muslim Student’s Conference
explanation of Statement I (d) All India Islamic Conference
(b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the 183. Ibn Batuta’s work, Rihla, completed in 1355, is [2013-I]
correct explanation of Statement I (a) an autobiography
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (b) an account of the Delhi Sultans from Aibak to
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
174. Statement I: There was great exodus of Jaina monks under (c) a religious text
the leadership of Bhadrabahu to the Deccan following (d) an account of trade with Morocco
severe famine in the Ganga valley towards the end of 184. Between 1309 and 1311, Malik Kafur led two campaigns in
Chandragupta’s reign. South India. The significance of the expeditions lies in it
Statement II: Chandragupta Maurya joined the Jaina order that [2013-I]
as a monk. 1. they reflected a high degree of boldness and spirit of
175. Statement I: Mahavira initially joined a group of ascetics adventure on the part of the Delhi rulers.
called Nirgranthas. 2. the invaders returned to Delhi with untold wealth.
Statement II: The sect was founded 200 years earlier by 3. they provided fresh geographical knowledge.
Parsva. 4. Alauddin promoted Malik Kafur to the rank of Malik-
176. Statement I: Lomash Rishi and Sudama caves in the naib or Vice-Regent of the empire.
Barabar hills, modelled on wooden architectural Select the correct answer using the codes given below
prototypes are examples of the earliest cave architecture (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
in India. (c) 2 and 4 (d) All of the above
Statement II: Barabar hills caves were dedicated by 185. The fortification of Calcutta by the British in 1756 was
Chandragupta Maurya to Ajivika monks. regarded by the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah, as
177. Statement I: Sculptures of the Gandhara School stylistically (a) growth of large-scale British trade [2013-I]
are typically linked to the Greco-Roman and the Parthian art of (b) an attack upon his sovereignty
Iran. Statement II: The earliest stone Buddha images in (c) insecurity of the British in India
the Swat valley pre-dated the Kushana period, which (d) British control over Bengal
suggests that certain iconographic conventions were 186. The highly polished monolithic Ashokan Pillars were
already well-established in the pre-Kushana period. carved out of single pieces of a buff-coloured sandstone,
178. Statement I: The Permanent Zamindari Settlement of land usually mined from the quarries of [2013-I]
created a new class of landlords. (a) Chunar near Mirzapur
Statement II: The new class of landlords became strong (b) Lauriya in Nandangarh
political allies of the British and were interested in the (c) Sarnath near Varanasi
continuance of British dominion. (d) Udayagiri near Bhubaneshwar
EBD_7341
74 History
187. In the Gupta age, Varahamihira wrote the famous book, (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
‘Brihat Samhita’. It was a treatise on [2013-II] (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
(a) astronomy 195. Statement I: Kali age reflects the presence of deep social
(b) statecraft crisis characterised by varnasankara i.e., intermixture of
(c) ayurvedic system of medicine. varnas or social orders.
(d) economics Statement II: The Vaisyas and Sudras (peasants, artisans
188. Which one among the following thinkers argued that and labourers) either refused to perform producing
Maratha rule in general and Shivaji in particular functions or pay taxes or supply necessary labour for
represented early nationalist cons-ciousness in India? economic production resulting in weakening of
(a) Pandita Ramabai (b) MG Ranade [2013-II] Brahminical social order and social tension.
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale 196. Statement I: The social institutions of caste in India
189. Consider the following statements about the causes of underwent major changes in the colonial period.
success of the American Revolution [2013-II] Statement II: Caste, in contemporary society is more a
1. the remoteness of the American continent and British product of ancient Indian tradition than of colonialism.
ignorance of the American continent led to the 197. Statement I: The Russian Revolution of 1917 inspired the
success of the Americans. Indian Working Class Movement.
2. the fierce spirit of liberty drove the Americans to success. Statement II: The Non-Cooperation Movement (1921-22)
3. the American military forces were superior to the saw the involvement of the Indian Working Class.
British. 198. Statement I: In India tribal movements of 19th century
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? resulted out of the process of land displacements and the
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3 introduction of forest laws.
190. Consider the following Statement II: The Indian national movement resolved the
‘India would be far more reliable as a base for operations. problems faced by the tribals.
Moreover, the prospect of a settlement will be greatly 199. Statement I: The economy of India in the 19th century
enhanced by the disappearance of Gandhi, who had for came to a state of ruin under English East India Company.
years torpedoed every attempt at a settlement.’ Statement II: English East India Company’s acquisition
The above statement was made by the British in the of Diwani right led to the miseries of the peasants and
context of [2013-II] those associated with the traditional handicrafts industry
(a) Kheda Satyagraha of India.
(b) Civil Disobedience Movement 200. Sangam literature formed a very important source for the
(c) Quit India Movement reconstruction of the history of South India. It was written
(d) Non-Cooperation Movement in [2013-II]
191. The Mansabdari system of the Mughals was a complex (a) Tamil (b) Kannada
system. Its efficient functioning depended upon [2013-II] (c) Telugu (d) Malayalam
1. the practice of offering the title of ‘Mansabdar’ to 201. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about
military personnel only. Bhakti tradition in South India? [2013-II]
2. proper functioning of the dagh (branding) system. 1. Earliest Bhakti Movements in India were led by Alvar
3. proper functioning of the jagirdari system. and Nayanar saints.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 2. Nalayira Divyaprabandham, frequently described as
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Tamil Veda is an anthology of compositions by the Alvars.
192. Among the precious stones, the most extensive foreign 3. Karaikkal Ammaiyar, women Alvar saints, supported
trade during the Gupta age was that of [2013-II] patriarchal norms.
(a) diamonds (b) ruby (c) pearl (d) sapphire Select the correct answer using the codes given below
193. Which of the following did not constitute part of the army (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
reforms of Sher Shah? [2013-II] (c) Only 2 (d) All of these
(a) Keeping a large army at the centre 202. Which one among the following was the primary reason
(b) Introduction of a swiftly moving artillery behind the failure of the Young Bengal Movement in
(c) Cash payment to soldiers Bengal? [2013-II]
(d) Introduction of the practice of branding horses (a) It did not appeal to educated people
194. Rajtarangini, authored by Kalhan, describes the history (b) Its economic programme was not popular
of [2013-II] (c) It was too radical
(a) Gujarat (b) Bengal (c) Kashmir (d) Punjab (d) It did not have good leaders
203. Who among the following first used the word ‘Swarajya’
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 195-199) : The following questions consists in its political sense and accepted Hindi as the national
of two Statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to language of India? [2013-II]
examine these two statements carefully and select the answers (a) Rammohan Roy (b) Swami Vivekananda
to these items using the codes given below Codes [2013-II] (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(a) Both the statemtns are true and Statement II is the correct 204. Consider the following statements about Satyagraha
explanation of Statement I 1. It was first experimented by Gandhiji in South Africa.
(b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the 2. It was first experimented in India at Champaran
correct explanation of Statement I. [2013-II]
History 75
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 214. Consider the following statements [2014-I]
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 1. Battle of Buxar provided the key to the English to
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 establish their rule in India.
205. Which one among the following events was not 2. The Treaty of Allahabad, concluded in 1765, enabled
associated with French Revolution? [2013-II] the British to establish their rule in Bengal.
(a) Calling of the Estates General Which of the stattements given above is/are correct?
(b) Guillotine (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Battle of Concord (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Tennis Court Oath 215. Which one of the following statements about Rig Veda is
206. Which one among the following events was associated not correct? [2014-I]
with American War of Independence? [2013-II] (a) Deities were worshipped through prayer and
(a) Tennis Court Oath (b) Boston Tea Party sacrificial rituals
(c) Fall of Bastille (d) Reign of Terror (b) The Gods are presented as powerful, who could be
207. Which one among the following statements about Civil made to intervene in the world of men via the
Disobedience Movement is correct? [2013-II] performance of sacrifices
(a) It started with Gandhiji’s march to Champaran (c) The Gods were supposed to partake of the offerings
(b) Under Gandhi–lrwin agreement Congress agreed to as they were consumed by the fire
give up Civil Disobedience Movement (d) The sacrifices were performed in the temples
(c) The British Government was quite soft towards the 216. The only inscribed stone portrait of Emperor Ashoka has
movement from the beginning been found at [2014-I]
(d) There was no violence during the movement (a) Sanchi (b) Amaravati
208. Consider the following statements [2014-I] (c) Kanaganahalli (d) Ajanta
1. The Jains believed that Mahavira had twenty-three 217. The social ideals of Mahatma Gandhi were first put forth
predecessors. in [2014-I]
2. Parshvanatha was twenty-third Tirthankara. (a) Hind Swaraj
3. Rishava was immediate successor of Mahavira. (b) An Authobiography–The Story of My Experiments
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? with Truth
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 2 (d) Only 3 (c) History of the Satyagraha in South Africa
209. Consider the following statements about Sher Shah’s (d) The Bhagavad Geeta According to Gandhi
administration [2014-I] 218. Consider the following statements about Syed Ahmed
1. He divided his empire into Sarkars, which were further Khan, the founder of Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental
subdivided into Parganas. College, Aligarh [2014-I]
2. The Sarkars and the Parganas were directly 1. He was a staunch supporter of Indian National
administered by Sher Shah without the help of any Congress.
other officials. 2. Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College was set-up
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? with the objective of promoting learning of Islamic
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 education among the Muslims.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
210. The University of Nalanda was set-up by which Gupta (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
ruler? [2014-I] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Kumaragupta II (b) Kumaragupta I 219. Consider the following statements [2014-I]
(c) Chandragupta II (d) Samudragupta 1. B G Tilak founded the Home Rule League in April
211. The Fourth Buddhist Council was held in Kashmir under 1916, in Maharashtra.
the leadership of [2014-I] 2. N C Kelkar was not associated with Home Rule
(a) Bindusara (b) Ashoka Movement.
(c) Kunal (d) Kanishka Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
212. Consider the following statements regarding Indian (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Feudalism in the early medieval period [2014-I] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The revenue assignments were called Bhoga. 220. Consider the following statements about the First Session
2. The hereditary chiefs neither collected revenues nor of the Indian National Congress [2014-I]
assumed administrative powers. 1. It was held in Bombay in 1885.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. Surendranath Banerji could not attend the session
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 due to the simultaneous session of the Indian
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 National Conference.
213. Which one of the following statements about ancient Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Indian Mahajanapadas is correct? [2014-I] (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) All Mahajanapadas were oligarchies where power (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
was exercised by a group of people 221. The Society of Jesus, whose followers were called Jesuits,
(b) All Mahajanapadas were located in Eastern India was set-up by [2014-I]
(c) No army was maintained by the Mahajanapadas (a) Martin Luther (b) Ulrich Zwingli
(d) Buddhist and Jaina texts list sixteen Mahajanapadas (c) Erasmus (d) Ignatius Loyola
EBD_7341
76 History
222. Who among the following was not associated with the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
activities of the Theosophical Society? [2014-I] [2014-I]
(a) Madame H P Blavatsky (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) Mr A O Hume (c) Both1and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Col H S Olcott 229. Marco Polo's trip to India (1271 AD) earned much fame in
(d) Mrs Annie Besant Europe on account of [2014-II]
223. Which among the following was the reason of the (a) his having discovered a safe route to India
resignations of the Indian Ministers in all the provinces (b) his having established amicable relations with many
in the year 1939? [2014-I] Kings of India
(a) The Governors refused to act as constitutional heads (c) his account of commercial, religious and social
(b) The Centre did not provide the required financial conditions in the East
help to provinces (d) All of the above
(c) The Governor-General converted Indian 230. Which of the statements given below about the Mughal
administration from federal to unitary one because rule in India is false ? [2014-II]
of the beginning of the World War II (a) Peasant communities were a united and
(d) India was declared a party to the World War II homogeneous group
without the consent of the provincial government (b) There was an abundance of food grain
224. Match the following [2014-I] (c) The State encouraged these crops that brought in
List-I List-II more revenue
(Temple) (Town) (d) Most regions produced two crops in a year
A. Kailasanathar 1. Bhuvneshwar 231. The Ghadar party, formed in the USA, was determined to
B. Lingaraj 2. Khajuraho start a revolt in India. Which among the following
C. Kandariya Mahadey 3. Mount Abu provinces did the party choose to begin its armed revolt ?
D. Dilwara 4. Kanchipuram [2014-II]
Codes: (a) Punjab (b) Bengal
A B C D A B C D (c) United Provinces (d) Bihar
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 1 2 3 232. The ruins of the Vijayanagara at Hampi were brought to
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 2 1 4 light in 1800 by [2014-II]
225. Consider the following statements concerning the initial (a) Colonel Colin Mackenzie
phase of the Industrial Revolution in England. [2014-I] (b) Sir John Shore
1. England was fortunate in that coal and iron ore were (c) Andrew Fraser
plentifully available to be used in industry. (d) John Marshall
2. Until the 18th century, there was a scarcity of usable 233. Consider the following statements about colonial
iron. economy of Vietnam (Indo-China) : [2014-II]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. The colonial economy in Vietnam was primarily based
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 on rice cultivation and rubber plantations.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. All the rubber plantations in Vietnam were owned
226. Which one of the following was a temple built by the and controlled by a small Vietnamese elite.
Chola Kings? [2014-I] 3. Indentured Vietnamese labour was widely used in
(a) Brihadiswara Temple, Tanjavur the rubber plantations.
(b) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai 4. Indentured labourers worked on the basis of
(c) Srirangam Temple, Thiruchirapalli contracts that did not specify any rights of labourers
(d) Durga Temple, Aihole but gave immense power to the employers.
227. Match the following [2014-I] Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
List I List II (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
(Text) (Author) (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
A. Kitab-al-Hind 1. Ibn Battuta 234. Which of the four linguistic regions in South India
B. Rehla 2. Al–Biruni remained unaffected by the Non-Cooperation Movement
C. Humayun Nama 3. Lohori (1921-22) ? [2014-II]
D. Badshah Nama 4. Gulbadan Begum (a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu
Codes : (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka
A B C D A B C D 235. Which of the following statements about the penetration
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 2 of English into Bengal is/are correct? [2014-II]
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3 1. Job Charnock arrived in Sutanati in August 1690 and
228. Consider the following statements from Kalhana’s laid the foundation of Calcutta which later became
Rajatarangini the heart of the British Indian Empire.
1. The common people ate rice and Utpala-saka 2. The French East India Company built a fort near the
(a wild.vegetable of.bitter taste). Fort William in Calcutta.
2. Harsha introduced into Kashmir a general dress Select the correct answer using the code given below:
befitting a king which included a long coat. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
History 77
236. Under the forceful thrust of British rule, a rapid 2. There are striking similarities between the Rig Vedic
transformation of the Indian economy took place. In this religion and the ideas in the Iranian Avesta.
context, which of the following statements is/ are correct? 3. Vedic sacrifices were conducted in the house of the
[2014-II] priest who was called yajaman.
1. Indian economy was transformed into a colonial economy 4. Vedic sacrifices were of two kind – those conducted
in the 19th century whose structure was determined by by the household and those that required rituals
Britain's fast developing industrial economy. specialists.
2. The influx of cheap Indian products into England Select the correct answer using the code give below :
gave a great blow to English textile industries. (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
3. The 19th century saw the collapse of the traditional (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Indian village economy and fresh economic alignment 243. Which of the following statement(s) about caste
along commercial lines. movements in early 20th century Kerala is/are false ?
Select the correct answer using the code given below : [2015-I]
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 only (c) 2 only (d) l and 2 1. Kerala's first modern novel Indulekh attacked the
237. Which of the following statements is/ are correct? social dominance of Nambudiri Brahmans in
[2014-II] Kerala.
1. Early Buddhist literature is generally composed of 2. C.V. Raman Pillai's novel Marthanda Varma was
the canonical text. written against the exploitation of peasants by Nair
2. The Buddhist schools classify their canonical landlords.
literature as only the Pitakas. 3. Sree Narayana Guru was one of the founders of
Select the correct answer using. the code given below: the Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam that
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only was engaged in the upliftment of the Ezhavas in
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Kerala.
4. Dr. Palpu, the first Ezhava graduals was one of the
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 238-241) : The following questions consist founders of the S Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yog
of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to that was engaged in the upliftment the Ezhavas in
examine these two statements carefully and select the answers Kerala.
to these items using the code given below : [2014-II] Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Codes: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II (c) 2 only (d) 2 and 4
is the correct explanation of Statement I 244. Which of the following statements about Mahatma
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II Gandhi's South African experience (1893 - 1914) is/are
is not the correct explanation of Statement I true ? [2015-I]
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 1. Muslim merchants were actively involved in
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Gandhian political movements in South Africa.
238. Statement I: The twelfth century witnessed the emergence 2. In 1906, Gandhi led a campaign in Cape Town against
of a new movement in Karnataka led by a Brah mana named the ordinance of compulsory registration and passes
Basavanna. for Indians.
Statement II: The Lingayats worshipped Shiva in his 3. Gandhi began his political career with struggles
manifestation as a Linga. against the imposition excessive taxes on Indians in
239. Statement II: Ram Mohan Roy in his famous work Gift to Cape Town.
Monotheism put forward weighty arguments against belief Select the correct answer using the code give below :
in many Gods and for the worship of a single God. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
Statement II: Ram Mohan Roy in his Precepts of Jesus (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
tried to separate the moral and philosophic message of 245. Which of the following sets of newspapers reflected the
the New Testament. concerns of educated Indian Muslims during the Khilafat
240. Statement I: The Bethune School, founded in Calcutta in Movement ? [2015-I]
1849 was the first fruit of the powerful movement for (a) Comrade and Hamdard
women's education that arose in the 1840s, and 1850s. (b) Comrade and Hindustan Times
Statement II: The first step in giving modern education to (c) Zamindar and Muslim Voice
girls was undertaken by Vidyasagar in 1800. (d) Comrade, Hamdard, Zamindar and Al Hilal
241. Statement I: The annexation of Awadh by Lord Dalhousie 246. Which of the following statements about the social
in 1856 adversely affected the financial conditions of the reformer, Raja Rammohun Roy, is false ? [2015-I]
sepoys. (a) Rammohun Roy belonged to the gentry class whose
Statement II: The sepoys had to pay higher taxes on the power had been diminished because of the
land where their family members stayed in Awadh. imposition of the Permanent Settlement.
242. Which of the following characteristic(s) describes the (b) He studied both Vedantic Monism and Christian
nature of religion according to the Rig Veda? [2015-I] Unitarianism.
1. Rig Vedic religion can be described a naturalistic (c) He translated the Upanishads into Bengali.
polytheism. (d) His first organization was the Atmiya Sabha, founded
in Calcutta in 1815.
EBD_7341
78 History
247. Which of the following characteristics about the state of 252. Which of the following statements about the musical
Travancore in 18th century Kerala is/are correct ? culture in 18th and 19th century South India is/are correct?
[2015-I] [2015-I]
1. Travancore was ruled by Marthanda Varma from 1729 1. Musical developments were spearheaded by the
to 1758. Arcot court.
2. Travancore built a strong army and defeated the 2. Tanjavur replaced Madras as the cultural capital of
Dutch in 1741. classical music in the second half of the nineteenth
3. Travancore was an important centre of learning. century.
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 3. Three great composers, Tyagaraja, Diksitar and
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only Syama Sastri experimented with the kriti form to set
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 only the foundations for modern Carnatic music.
248. Which of the following is not a central tenet of Socialism? Select the correct answer using the code given below :
[2015-I] (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(a) Historical Materialism (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Dialectical Materialism 253. Which of the following statements about visual culture
(c) Alienation and Class Struggle in 18th and early 19th century North India is/are correct ?
(d) Individual Freedom [2015-I]
249. Which of the following is/are the characteristic(s) of the 1. Painters from Patna and Murshidabad flocked to
Sannyasi and Fakir uprisings ? [2015-I] Calcutta and produced water colours in the English
1. These uprisings refer to a series of skirmishes mode.
between the English East India Company and a group 2. Landscape and portraiture became extremely
of sannyasis and fakirs. important at this time.
2. One reason for the uprising was the ban on free 3. The artists Zayan-al-Din, Bhawani Das and Ram Das
movement of the sannyasis along pilgrimage were adopted by the English East India Company to
routes. produce albums of Indian birds and animals.
3. In the course of the uprisings in 1773, Warren 4. While Indians were influenced by European artistic
Hastings issued a proclamation banishing all styles, European artists did not visit regional courts.
sannyasis from Bengal and Bihar. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
4. Are contemporaneous with the Non-Cooperation (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
Movement. (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 254. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only using the code given below the Lists : [2015-I]
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 only List-I List-II
250. Which of the following features of the State of Arcot in (Editor) (Journal / Newspaper)
18th century South India are correct ? [2015-I] A. S.A. Dange 1. Labour-Kisan Gazette
1. The founders of the dynasty that ruled Arcot were B. Muzaffar Ahmed 2. Inquilab
Daud Khan Panni and Sa'adatullah Khan. C. Ghulam Hussain 3. Navayug
2. Arcot became the site of a protracted struggle D. M. Singaravelu 4. The Socialist
between the English and Dutch East India Codes:
Companies from the 1740s. (a) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1 (b) A-4; B-2; C-3; D-1
3. Decentralization was a key feature of the State of (c) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4 (d) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4
Arcot in the 18th century. 255. Which of the following was/were connected primarily to
4. The other major State to emerge in South India at the communist ideology ? [2015-I]
this time was Mysore. 1. Kirti Kisan Party
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 2. Labour Swaraj Party
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
251. Which of the following statements about the musical (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
culture in 18th and 19th century North India is/are not 256. The interest of the British Government of India in
correct: [2015-I] Afghanistan in the nineteenth century came about in
1. The period was marked by the growing eminence of order to [2015-I]
Sadarang Neamat Khan who introduced the khayal (a) make use of the natural resources of Afghanistan.
form. (b) ensure that the Russian empire did not have an
2. A large number of musicians moved out of regional influence over Afghanistan.
centres to Delhi where they hoped they would (c) increase the reach of the British Empire.
receive more employment and patronage. (d) establish a monopoly over the markets of
3. The period was marked by the formation of specific Afghanistan.
region based gharanas. 257. The Tungbhadra river provided sustenance of which
Select the correct answer using the code given below : empire? [2015-I]
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Chola (b) Vijayanagara
(c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only (c) Vakataka (d) Pandya
History 79
258. Which empire did Niccolo de Conti, Abdur Razzaq, 265. Who among the following was not a painter at Akbar's
Afanasy Nikitin and Fernao Nuniz visit ? [2015-I] Court? [2015-II]
(a) The empire of Kannauj (b) Vijayanagara empire (a) Daswanth (b) Abdus Samad
(c) Hoysala empire (d) Rashtrakuta empire (c) Kalyan Das (d) Basawan
259. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer 266. After the death of Shivaji, there was a fight for succession
using the code given below the Lists : [2015-II] between [2015-II]
List-I List-II (a) Shambhaji and the widow of Shivaji
(Steel mill) (State) (b) Shambhaji and Bajirao
A. Kalinganagar 1. West Bengal (c) Rajaram and Shambhaji
B. Vijayanagar 2. Tamil Nadu (d) None of them
C. Salem 3. Odisha 267. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
D. Durgapur 4. Karnataka using the code given below the Lists : [2015-II]
Codes: List-I List-II
A B C D A B C D (Author) (Work)
(a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 1 2 4 3 A. Somadeva l. Malavikagnimitra
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1 B. Kalidasa 2. Kathasaritsagara
260. Consider the following statements about Alauddin Khalji's C. Bhasa 3. Chaurapanchasika
market policy : [2015-II] D. Bilhana 4. Svapnavasavadatta
1. He placed markets under the control of a high officer Codes:
called 'Shahna' for strictly controlling the A B C D A B C D
shopkeepers and prices. (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
2. In order to ensure a regular supply of cheap food (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2
grains, he ordered the land revenue from Doab region 268. Patanjali was [2015-II]
to be paid directly to the State. (a) a philosopher of the 'Yogachara' school
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) the author of a book on Ayurveda
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) a philosopher of the 'Madhyamika' school
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) the author of a commentary on Panini's Sanskrit
261. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer grammar
using the code given below the Lists : [2015-II] 269. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
List-I List-II using the code given below the Lists : [2015-II]
(Term) (Meaning) List-I List-II
A. Mihrab 1. Stepped pulpit (King) (Region)
B. Mimbar 2. Direction towards the Kaba for prayer A. Shashanka 1. Assam
C. Khutba 3. Arch B. Kharavela 2. Maharashtra
D. Kibla 4. Sermon C. Simuka 3. Orissa
Codes: D. Bhaskara Varman 4. Bengal
A B C D A B C D Code :
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3 A B C D A B C D
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 l 2 (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 1 3 2 4
262. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 3 4
using the code given below the Lists : [2015-II] 270. In ancient India, the 'Yaudheyas' were [2015-II]
List-I List-II (a) a sect of the Buddhism
(Person) (Work) (b) a sect of the Jainism
A. Uddanda 1. Sudhanidhi (c) a republican tribe
B. Sayana 2. Mallikamaruta (d) Vassals of the Cholas
C. Yadavaprakasa 3. Malatimadhava 271. The Dashakumaracharita or Tales of Ten Princes' was
D. Bhavabhuti 4. Vaijayanti composed by [2015-II]
Codes: (a) Bhatti (b) Banabhatta
A B C D A B C D (c) Bhasa (d) Dandin
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 272. Which of the following statements about the Hastings
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2 Plan of 1772 is/ are correct? [2015-II]
263. The Rihla was written in [2015-II] 1. Each district was to have a civil and a criminal Court.
(a) Arabic in the Fourteenth Century by Ibn Battuta 2. The Judges were helped by native assessors who
(b) Persian in the Fifteenth Century by Abdur Razzaq were skilled in Hindu and Islamic laws.
(c) Persian in the Thirteenth Century by Ibn Battuta 3. The Sadar Diwani Adalat was mainly meant to settle
(d) Italian in the Thirteenth Century by Marco Polo mercantile cases exceeding ` 10,000 in value.
264. The 'Sur Sagar' is [2015-II] 4. These Courts did not put into place any procedural
(a) a medieval treatise on music composed by Tansen improvements.
(b) a poetic work of Surdas Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) memories of Bahadur Shah Zafar (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(d) None of the above (c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 only
EBD_7341
80 History
273. Which of the following statements about the formation of 280. Which one of the following is the common element
the Indian National Congress are true? [2015-II] between the kailasanatha Temple at Ellora and the Shore
1. The Indian National Congress was formed at a Temple at Mamallapuram? [2016-I]
national convention held in Calcutta in December (a) Both are examples of Nagara architecture
1885 under the Presidency of Motilal Nehru. (b) Both are carved out from solid rocks
2. The Safety Valve Theory regarding the formation of (c) Both are Gupta period temples
the Indian National Congress emerged from a (d) Both were built under the patronage of Pallava Kings
biography of A. O. Hume written by William 281. Which of the following is / are not depicted in the Rajput
Wedderbrn. paintings? [2016-I]
3. An early decision was that the President would be from 1. The stories of Krishna 2. Ragas and Raginis
the same region where the session was to be held. 3. The deeds of Hamza 4. The deeds of Babur
4. W. C. Banerjee was the first President of the Indian Select the correct answer using the code given below:
National Congress. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 4 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 282. Consider the following statements [2016-I]
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 1. Abhinavagupta wrote a comprehensive treatise called
274. Which of the following statements about Jyotirao Phule's the Tantraloka which systematically presents the
Satyashodhak Samaj Movement in Maharashtra is / are teachings of the kula and Trika systems
true? [2015-II] 2. The Samartehchakaha by Haribhadra Suri written in
1. The Satyashodhak Samaj was set up in 1873. Gujarat around the eighth century is technically not
2. Phule argued that Brahmins were the progeny of a tantric work but is saturated with tantric ideas and
'alien' Aryans. practices
3. Phule's focus on the Kunbi peasantry in the 1880s Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
and 1890s led to a privileging of Maratha identity. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only 283. Consider the following statements: [2016-I]
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. The inscriptions on the pillar at Rummindei give vivid
275. Which of the following statements about Maulvi details or Ashok’s Dhamma
Ahmadullah Shah, who played an important part in the 2. the Nigalisagar inscription records the fact of
Revolt of 1857, is/ are correct? [2015-II] Ashoka having visited the Konagamana stupa
1. He was popularly known as Danka Shah or the Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Maulvi with a drum. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. He fought in the famous Battle of Chinhat. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. He was killed by British troops under the command 284. Which of the following statements is /are true ?[2016-I]
of Henry Lawrence. 1. Faxian’s ‘Gaoseng Faxian zhuani was the earliest first
Select the correct answer using the code given below. - hand Chinese account of Buddhist sites and
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 practices in India
276. Who amon g the following is the auth or of th e 2. Faxian was only 25 years old at the times of writing the
autobiography entitled Aamar Katha (1913)? [2015-II] text
(a) Satyajit Ray 3. Faxian’s main aim in coming to India was to obtain
(b) Rassundari Devi and take back texts containing monastic rules
(c) Ganesh Chandra Ghosh Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(d) Binodini Dasi (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
277. Name the French revolutionary who wrote Declaration of (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
the Rights of Woman and Female Citizen. [2015-II] 285. Which of the following statements about the Vijayanagara
(a) Olympe de Gouges (b) Nancy Ruhling Empire is / are true? [2016-I]
(c) Maximilien Robespierre (d) Mary Wollstonecraft 1. The kings claimed to rule on behalf of the God
278. Consider the following statements : [2016-I] Virupaksha
1. In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi formulates a 2. Rulers used the title “Hindu Suratrana”
conception of part life for the individual as well as 3. All Royal orders were signed in Kannada, Sanskrit
the society. and Tamil
2. Hind Swaraj was the outcome of the experience of 4. Royal Portrait sculpture was now displayed in temples
Gandhi’s prolonged struggle against colonial raj in India Select the correct answer using the code given below
Which of the statement given above is / are correct? (a) 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither1 nor 2 286. Tqta in medieval India meant: [2016-I]
279. Who among the following archaeologists was the first to (a) land assigned to religious personnel for spiritual purposes
idenity similarities between a pre - Harappan culture and (b) land revenue from different territorial units assigned
the mature Harappan culture? [2016-I] to army officers
(a) Amalananda Ghosh (b) Rakhaldas Banerji (c) charity for educational and cultural activities
(c) Dava Ram Sahni (d) Sir John Marshall (d) the rights of the zamindar
History 81
287. Which one of the following books was not illustrated Codes:
with paintings in Akbar’s court? [2016-I] A B C D A B C D
(a) Hamzanama (b) Razmnama (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) Baburnama (d) Tarikh - i -Alfi (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
288. Which kingdom did the temple of Hazara Rama belong
to? [2016-I] DIRECTIONS (Qs. 298-300) : The following three (3) items
(a) Avadh (b) Travancore consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine
(c) Vijayanagara (d) Ahom these two statements carefully and select the correct answer
289. Consider the following statement about votive inscriptions Using the code given below.
in the second century BC ? [2016-I] Codes: [2016-II]
1. They records gifts made to religious institutions (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II
2. They tell us about the idea of transference of the is the correct explanation of Statement I
meritorious results of the action of one person (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II
Which of the statements given above is are correct? is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(c) Both 1and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
290. Which one among the following statements about the 298. Statement I : [2016-II]
coins of the Gupta rulers is correct? [2016-I] The Pahi-kashta peasants were non-resident cultivators
(a) The obverse and reverse, both had only the king's cultivating lands on a contractual basis.
portrait and date Statement II :
(b) The obverse an reverse, both had only an image of a The Pahi-kashta peasants worked under the temptation
deity and date of favourable terms of revenue or the compulsion of
(c) The obverse generally had king's portrait and reverse economic distress.
had an image of a deity or a motif 299. Statement I : [2016-II]
(d) The obverse generally had king 's portrait and reverse The Zamindars were an exploitative class in Mughal India.
always had a date Statement II :
291. The Agrahara in early India was : [2016-I] The Zamindars often received the support of the
(a) The name of a village or land granted to Brahmins peasantry in a large number of agrarian uprisings in North
(b) the garland of flowers of Agar India in the seventeenth century.
(c) the grant of land to officers and soldiers 300. Statement I : [2016-II]
(d) land or village settled by Vaishya farmers King Ashoka abolished capital punishment and disbanded
292. Shishu, Kishor and Tarun are the schemes of : [2016-I] his army.
(a) Regional Rural Banks. Statement II :
(b) Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd. After Kalinga War, Ashoka was remorseful and became a
(MUDRA). Buddhist.
(c) Small Industries Development Bank of India. 301. Which one of the following sources tells us about women
(d) Industrial Developement Bank of India. protesting against the infidelity of their husbands or the
293. Which one among the following was not an attribute of neglect of the wife and children by the male head of the
Samudragupta described in Prayag Prashasti ? [2016-I] household? [2016-II]
(a) Sharp and polished intellect (a) The Kitab-ul-Hind
(b) Accomplished sculptor (b) Documents belonging to the Village Panchayats of
(c) Fine musical performances Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra
(d) Poetical talent of genius (c) Sculptures from Mandor
294. Kamandaka’s Nitisara is a contribution to : [2016-I] (d) The Ain-i-Akbari of Abul Fazl
(a) Logic and Philosopy (b) Mathematics 302. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(c) Political morality (d) Grammar using the code given below the Lists : [2016-II]
295. The Lilavati of Bhaskara is a standard text on : [2016-I] List-I List-II
(a) Mathematics (b) Surgery (Historian) (Book)
(c) Poetics (d) Linguistics A. Sumit Sarkar 1. The Rise and Growth of
296. The followers of Gorakhnath were called : [2016-I] Economic
(a) Jogis (b) Nath-Panthis Nationalism in India
(c) Tantriks (d) Sanyasis B. Shahid Amin 2. A Rule of Proper ty for
297. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer Bengal
using the code given below the Lists : [2016-II] C. Ranajit Guha 3. The Swadeshi Movement in
List-I List-II Bengal, 1903-1908
(Power Plant) (State) D. Bipan Chandra 4. Event, Metaphor, Memory-
A. Satpura 1. Maharashtra Chauri Chaura, 1922~1 992
B. Dhuvaran 2. Uttarakhand Codes:
C. Tanakpur 3. Gujarat A B C D A B C D
D. Dabhol 4. Madhya Pradesh (a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 1 4 2 3
EBD_7341
82 History
303. What form of Shiva is most prominent in the Brihadeshvara 311. The epic, Silappadikaram refers to the [2016-II]
Temple built by the Chola dynasty? [2016-II] (a) story of Rama
(a) Harihara (b) Bhairava (b) Jaina elements in the storyline
(c) Rudra (d) Tripurantaka (c) culture of Sri Lankan Buddhists
304. Which of the following statements about the philosopher (d) cult of shakti worship
Shankara is /are true ? [2016-II] 312. Rakshasa type of marriage is [2016-II]
1. Shankara espoused a form of Vedanta called Advaita. (a) marriage by purchase
2. He elaborated on the philosophy of Gaudapada. (b) marriage by capture
3. Shankara tried to demonstrate that the Upanishads (c) marriage by giving dowry
and Brahmasutras contain a unified, systematic (d) marriage by seduction
philosophy. 313. Consider the following statements about Harappan cities:
4. Shankara founded the Amanaya Mathas. [2016-II]
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1. Roads were not always absolutely straight and did
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 not always cross one another at right angles.
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 only 2. A striking feature is the uniformity in the average
305. Which of the following statements about the Deccan Riots size of the bricks for houses and for city walls.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
of 1875 is/are true? [2016-II]
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. The Deccan Riots resulted in protection for peasants
through the Deccan Agriculturalists Relief Act of 1879. 314. Which of the following statements about the Ilbert Bill
2. The riots did not spread to the whole of Maharashtra (1883) is/are correct? [2017-I]
because of prompt suppression by the British. 1. It proposed to grant limited criminal jurisdiction to
3. The British were unable to contain the riots and they native officials.
spread throughout Maharashtra. 2. It proposed to grant complete civil and criminal
4. The cotton boom in the Deccan that had been caused jurisdiction to native officials.
by the artificial demand generated by the American 3. The proposed Bill generated opposition from
Civil War caused the impoverishment of the England's European subjects in India.
peasants. 4. In spite of opposition to the Bill, it was passed
Select the correct answer using the code given below. without any modifications.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
306. Why are the Gypsies regarded as of Indian origin? 315. Consider the following statements about the different
1. They follow Indian religious practices. [2016-II] meanings of 'Swaraj' as articulated by Mahatma Gandhi :
2. Their language, called Romani, is an Indo-Aryan [2017-I]
language. 1. Swaraj is intimately linked with Ahimsa (non-
3. They believe that they came from India. violence) and Satyagraha (adherence to truth).
4. Epigraphic evidence locates their original home in 2. Swaraj has two senses-one ' political and one beyond
Uttar Pradesh. the realm of politics.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3. Swaraj is something that requires time and patience
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 only to acquire.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 4. With determination, Swaraj could be obtained easily
307. The term Upari refers to which one of the following? and quickly.
(a) A category of proprietary tenure under the Mughal rule Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) A category of tenancy tenure under the Maratha rule (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) A soldier in the Maratha army (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) A village headman in the Mughal period 316. What was /were the formative influence(s) on the
308. The 'water frame' of Richard Arkwright was a device for philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi? [2017-I]
[2016-II] 1. Gandhiji was influenced by the 18th century Pranami
(a) producing a new type of painting sect that advocated the unity of faiths.
(b) irrigating fields for rice cultivation 2. Gandhiji was influenced by the theosophists.
(c) producing strong threads of yarn 3. Gandhiji was an admirer of the writings of Romantics
(d) the faster movement of steamships like Wordsworth.
309. The 'four great needs' of the people as identified by the Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Guomindang were [2016-II] (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) clothing, food, housing and transportation (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
(b) education, food, housing and health care 317. Which of the following statements about the Shiromani
(c) food, housing, education and employment Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee (SGPC) are correct?
(d) employment, housing, education and health care [2017-I]
310. Which one of the following was the earlier name of Tokyo? 1. It began as the political wing of the Singh Sabhas in
[2016-II] the late 19th century.
(a) Osaka (b) Kyoto 2. It was formed in 1920 as part of the upcoming Akali
(c) Samurai (d) Edo movement.
History 83
3. It was founded to reclaim control of the Sikh shrines 323. During the mid 19th century Industrial Revolution, the
from the government manipulated loyalist average life span of workers in Manchester was[2017-I]
committees. (a) 17 years (b) 30 years
4. It formed the Akali Dal to coordinate groups (Jathas) (c) 55 years (d) 62 years
to reclaim control of the shrines. 324. George Washington was made the Commander in Chief of
Select the correct answer using the code given below. the American forces [2017-I]
(a) l, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (a) in December 1773, after the Boston Tea Party
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only (b) at the First Continental Congress in September 1774
318. Which of the following statements with regard to the (c) at the Second Continental Congress in 1775
speech of Mahatma Gandhi at the opening of the Banaras (d) by the Continental Congress at the Declaration of
Hindu University are correct? [2017-I] Independence on 4th July, 1776
1. He charged the Indian elite with a lack of concern for 325. Alexander Kerensky was [2017-I]
the labouring poor. (a) the head of the Provisional Government in Russia
2. He asserted that our salvation can come only through before the October Revolution
the farmers. . (b) a close confidant of Lenin, with whose help the Czar
3. He highlighted the plight of the untouchables. was dethroned
4. He promised to take up the cause of the mill owners (c) the head of the Czar's army
of Ahmedabad. (d) an advisor of Joseph Stalin
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) l, 2, 3 and 4 (b) l and 2 only DIRECTIONS (Qs. 326-327 : The following two (2) items
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine
319. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer these two statements carefully and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists : [2017-I] using the code given below. [2017-I]
List-I List-ll Codes:
(Act/ Event) (Year) (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II
A. Rowlatt Act 1. 1922 is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Salt March 2. 1931 (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II
C. Chauri Chaura Incident 3. 1930 is not the correct explanation of Statement I
D. Second Round Table 4. 1919 (c) Statement 1 is true but Statement II is false
Conference (d) Statement 1 is false but Statement II is true
Codes: 326. Statement I : [2017-I]
A B C D A B C D The passing of the CoerciveActs made reconciliation between
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 3 1 4 2 Britain and her American colonies virtually impossible.
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 Statement II :
320. Consider the following statements about the Salt March : The British Parliament, having issued the Stamp Act in
[2017-I] 1765, repealed it later.
1. The Salt March was deliberately ignored by the 327. Statement I : [2017-I]
European media. The Poona Pact provided for 151 reserved seats for the
2. The Salt March was widely covered by the American scheduled castes to be elected by a joint, not separate,
and European press. electorate.
3. The Salt March was the first nationalist activity in Statement II :
which women participated in large numbers. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar withdrew from active politics for almost
4. The Salt March impressed upon the British the urgent a decade when the Communal Award was revoked.
need to devolve more power to Indians. 328. Which one of the following statements about the All India
Which of the statements given above are correct? Depressed Classes Association is not correct? [2017-I]
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (a) The All India Depressed Classes Association was
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only formed in Nagpur with M. C. Rajah as its first elected
321. Which of the following statements about the social base President.
of the Arya Samaj in British India is/are correct?[2017-I] (b) The All India Depressed Classes Association was
1. It was located mainly in Punjab and western Uttar not attended by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar in 1926.
Pradesh. (c) Ambedkar resigned from the All India Depressed
2. It mainly comprised the trading castes. Classes Association and formed his own All India
3. It was much more limited than that of the Brahmo Depressed Classes Congress in 1930.
Samaj. (d) The All India Depressed Classes Association
Select the correct answer using the code given below. favoured Ambedkar's demand for separate electorate
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only for the depressed classes.
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 329. Which one of the following statements about the Justice
322. Who among the following is the author of the book, A Party is not correct? [2017-I]
Comparison between Women and Men? [2017-I] (a) It clamoured for the same kind of separate communal
(a) Pandita Ramabai (b) Sarojini Naidu representation for the Non-Brahmins as had been
(c) Tarabai Shinde (d) Rameshwari Nehru granted to the Muslims by the Morley-Minto Reforms.
EBD_7341
84 History
(b) It was patronized mainly by richer landowning and 4. Buddha held that nuns could attain spiritual
urban middle class Non-Brahmins. liberation just like a monk and granted them an
(c) It succeeded in getting the provision for 28 reserved equal status in the mendicant order.
seats for the Non-Brahmins in the Montagu- Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Chelmsford Reforms. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) It supported the call given by the Congress to (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only
boycott elections in 1920. 336. Which one of the following combinations of year and
330. The Ryotwari experiment in land revenue was started by event concerning the French Revolution is correctly
[2017-I] matched? [2017-II]
(a) Henry Dundas (b) Alexander Reed (a) 1789 : Nepoleonic Code
(c) David Ricardo (d) Mountstuart Elphinstone (b) 1791 : Tennis Court Oath
(c) 1792 : National Convention
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 331-332): The following five (5) items (d) 1804 : New Constitution of France
consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine 337. Who among the following is the author of the book, The
these two statements carefully and select the correct answer Social Contract? [2017-II]
using the code given below. [2017-I] (a) Voltaire (b) Hobbes (c) Locke (d) Rousseau
Codes: 338. Due to which of the following factors, the Industrial
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II Revolution took place in England in the eighteenth
is the correct explanation of Statement I century? [2017-II]
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II 1. The discovery of coal and iron deposits
is not the correct explanation of Statement I 2. The discovery of steam power
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 3. The introduction of railways
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 4. The regular supply of raw materials
331. Statement I : [2017-II] Select the correct answer using the code given below.
The Communists left the All India Trade Union Congress (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
in 1931. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Statement II : 339. Consider the following : [2017-II]
By 1928, the Communists were no longer working with 1. Tughlaqabad Fort
the mainstream national movement. 2. Bada Gumbad in Lodhi Garden
332. Statement I : [2017-II] 3. Qutub Minar
The early Aryans, who were essentially pastoral, did not 4. Fatehpur Sikri
develop any political structure which could measure up Which one of the following is the correct chronological
to a State in either ancient or modern sense. order of building the above monuments?
Statement II : (a) 3, 1, 4, 2 (b) 3, 1, 2, 4 (c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 1, 3, 4, 2
Kingship was the same as tribal chiefship; the term Rajan being 340. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
used for tribal chief who was primarilya military leader and who using the code given below the Lists : [2017-II]
ruled over his people and not over any specified area. List-I List-II
333. Which one of the following peasant struggles was an (Type of Land) (Meaning)
outcome of British opium policy? [2017-II] A. Urvara 1. Land watered by a river
(a) Phulaguri Dhawa (1861) B. Maru 2. Fertile land
(b) Birsaite Ulgulan (1899-1900) C. Nadimatrika 3. Land watered by rain
(c) Pabna Revolt (1873) D. Devamatrika 4. Desert land
(d) Maratha Peasant Uprising (1875) Codes:
334. Which one of the following statements about the Sayyid A B C D A B C D
brothers during the period of Later Mughals is not true? (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
[2017-II] (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 4 1 3
(a) They brought Jahandar Shah to power. 341. Who was the editor of the journal Indian Social Reformer
(b) They wielded administrative power. that was started in 1890? [2017-II]
(c) They followed a tolerant religious policy. (a) K. T. Telang
(d) They reached an agreement with King Shahu. (b) Veeresalingam
335. Which of the following statements with regard to the (c) N. G. Chandavarkar
heterodox sect between sixth and fourth century BC are (d) K. N. Natarajan
correct? [2017-II] 342. Which twelfth century Sanskrit scholar was first
1. The Jain ideas were already being circulated in the responsible for the compilation of ‘Nibandhas’ or digests
seventh century BC by Parshva. of epic and Puranic texts? [2017-II]
2. Although Buddhism, and to a lesser extent Jainism, (a) Harsha (b) Govinda chandra
took account of the changes in material life and (c) Lakshmidhara (d) Kalidasa
reacted against orthodoxy, neither of these sought 343. Which river is praised in the fifth century Tamil epic,
to abolish the caste system. Silappadikaram? [2017-II]
3. The first female disciple of mahavira is said to have (a) Cauvery (b) Godavari
been a captured slave woman. (c) Saraswati (d) Ganges
History 85
344. Which one of the following statements about the 350. Around twelfth century, Sufi Silsilas began to crystallize
Harappan Culture is not correct? [2017-II] in different parts of the Islamic world to signify [2018-I]
(a) It witnessed the first cities in the subcontinent. 1. continuous link between the master and disciple
(b) It marks the first use of script, written from right to 2. unbroken spiritual genealogy to the Prophet
left. Muhammad
(c) It marks the earliest known use of iron as a medium 3. the transmission of spiritual power and blessings
for the art of sculpting. to devotees
(d) It marks the earliest known use of stone as a medium Select the correct answer using the code given below.
for the art of sculpting. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
345. Harshacharita has references to various presents sent (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
by a ruler named Bhaskara to Harshavardhana. Bhaskara 351. In the 10th Mandala of the Rigveda, which one of the
belonged to [2017-II] following hymns reflects upon the marraige ceremonies?
(a) Haryanka Dynasty of Magadha [2018-I]
(b) Varman Dynasty of Assam (a) Surya Sukta (b) Purusha Sukta
(c) Nanda Dynasty of North India (c) Dana Stutis (d) Urna Sutra
(d) None of the above 352. Which of the following statements about the Non-
346. Which of the following was/were founded by Raja Ram Cooperation Movement is/are correct? [2018-I]
Mohan Roy? [2017-II] 1. It was marked by significant participation of
1. Atmiya Sabha 2. Brahmo Samaj peasants from Karnataka.
3. Prarthana Samaj 4. Arya Samaj 2. It was marked by non-Brah min lower caste
Select the correct answer using the code given below. participation in Madras and Maharashtra.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only 3. It was marked by the lack of labour unrest in places
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 like Assam, Bengal and Madras.
347. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer 4. It was badly shaken by the Chauri Chaura incident
using the code given below the Lists : [2017-II] in 1922 after which Gandhiji decided to continue
List-I List-II with the movement on a much smaller scale.
(Harappan Site) (Modern Name) Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. Dholavira 1. Saurashtra (a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 4
B. Rakhigarhi 2. Hisar (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 only
C. Bhirrana 3. Kadir Island 353. Which of the following statements about the usage of the
D. Bhogavo 4. Haryana term ‘barbarian’ is/are correct? [2018-I]
Codes: 1. It is derived from the Greek word ‘barbaros’ which
A B C D A B C D means a non-Greek.
(a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 1 2 4 3 2. Romans used the term for the Germanic tribes, the
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 Gauls and the Huns.
348. Which one of the following statements about the Gupta Select the correct answer using the code given below.
period in Indian History is not correct? [2017-II] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Sanskrit language and literature, after centuries of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
evolution, reached what has been described as a level 354. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
of classical excellence through royal patronage. [2018-I]
(b) The status of women was redefined. They were (a) Al-Biruni identifies the Sufi doctrine of divine love
entitled to formal education and hence there were as self-annihilation with parallel passages from
women teachers, philosophers and doctors. Early Bhagavad Gita.
marriage was prohibited by law and they were given (b) According to Al-Biruni, Sufi theories of Soul were
the right to property. similar to those in Patanjali’s Yoga Sutra.
(c) The Hatha Yogic treatise Amrita Kunda had lasting
(c) Decentralization of administrative authority was
impact on Sufism.
impacted by increased grants of land and villages
(d) Hujwiri’s conversation with the Yogis shows that he
with fiscal and administrative immunities to priests was impressed with their theory of the division of
and temples. the human body.
(d) Land grants paved the way for feudal developments 355. Consider the following statement : [2018-I]
and emergence of serfdom in India, resulting in the “So much is wrung from the peasants, that even dry bread
depression of the peasantry. is scarcely left to fill their stomachs.”
349. Verses ascribed to poet-saint Kabir have been compiled Who among the following European travellers had made
in which of the following traditions? [2018-I] the above statement about the condition of peasantry in
1. Bijak in Varanasi the Mughal Empire?
2. Kabir Granthavali in Rajasthan (a) Francisco Pelsaert (b) Francois Bernier
3. Adi Granth Sahib (c) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (d) Niccolao Manucci
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 356. What is the name of the literary genre developed by the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 Khojas who are a branch of the Ismaili sect? [2018-I]
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only (a) Ginan (b) Ziyarat (c) Raag (d) Shahada
EBD_7341
86 History
357. Who was/were the 10th century composer(s) of the 3. He imagined India as a Nation State based on
Nalayira Divya Prabandham? [2018-I] individual citizen’s rights.
(a) Alvars (b) Nayanars 4. The curriculum at the Mohammedan Anglo-
(c) Appar (d) Sambandar Oriental College blended Muslim theology and
358. Consider the following statement : [2018-I] European empiricism.
“A sound body means one which bends itself to the spirit Select the correct answer using the code given below.
and is always a ready instrument at its service”. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 4
The above statement is attributed to 368. The Harappan site at Kot Diji is close to which one of the
(a) Sardar Patel (b) Winston Churchill following major sites of that civilization? [2018-II]
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Baden-Powell (a) Harappa (b) Mohenjo-daro
359. Who among the following was the founder of Phoenix (c) Lothal (d) Kalibangan
Settlement? [2018-I] 369. According to the Tamil Sangam texts, who among the
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) B. R. Ambedkar following were the large landowners? [2018-II]
(c) Rabindranath Tagore (d) Swami Vivekananda (a) Gahapatis (b) Uzhavars
360. Name the platform used for ritual purposes by the kings (c) Adimais (d) Vellalars
of the Vijayanagara Empire. [2018-I] 370. According to the Manusmriti, women can acquire wealth
(a) Mahanavami Dibba (b) Lotus Mahal through which of the following means? [2018-II]
(c) Hazara Rama (d) Virupaksha (a) Purchase (b) Investment
361. The idea of ‘Farr-i Izadi’, on which the Mughal kingship (c) Token of affection (d) Inheritance
was based, was first developed by which one of the 371. The dialogue on Varna between king Avantiputta and
following Sufi saints? [2018-I] Kachchana, a disciple of Buddha, appears in which one
(a) Shihabuddin Suhrawardi of the following Buddhist texts? [2018-II]
(b) Nizamuddin Auliya (a) Majjhima Nikaya (b) Samyutta Nikaya
(c) Ibn al-Arabi (c) Anguttara Nikaya (d) Ambattha Sutta
(d) Bayazid Bistami 372. In the first century AD, which among the following was
362. Which Buddhist text contains an account of the Mauryan not a major item of Indian exports to Rome? [2018-II]
Emperor Ashoka? [2018-I] (a) Pepper (b) Spikenard
(a) Vinaya Pitaka (b) Sutta Pitaka (c) Tortoiseshell (d) Nutmeg
(c) Abhidhamma Pitaka (d) Mahavamsa 373. Which of the following statements relating to the
363. Which one of the following statements about Buddhist Government of In dia Act, 1858 is/are correct? [2018-II]
Stupas in India is not correct? [2018-I] 1. The British Crown assumed sovereignty over India
(a) Ashoka played an important role in popularizing the from the East India Company.
Stupa cult. 2. The British Parliament enacted the first statute for
(b) They were repositories of relics of Buddha and other the governance of India under the direct rule of the
monks. British.
(c) They were located in rural areas. 3. This Act was dominated by the principle of absolute
(d) They were located close to trade routes. imperial control without any popular participation
364. Who deciphered the Brahmi and Kharoshthi scripts? in the administration of the country.
[2018-I] Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Piyadassi (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) Colin Mackenzie (c) 1 , 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
(c) Alexander Cunningham 374. Which of the following statements relating to the Indian
(d) James Prinsep Councils Act, 1861 is / are correcr~ [2018-II]
365. Which of the following is/are the feature(s) of the 1. The Act introduced a grain of popular element by
Brahmadeya Grants during c 600–1200 AD? [2018-I] including non-official members in the Governor-
1. Their creation meant a renunciation of actual or General’s Executive Council.
potential sources of revenue by the State. 2. The members were nominated and their functions were
2. These grants could varyfrom a small plot to several villages. confined exclusively to consideration of legislative
3. Most grants were made in unsettled areas. proposals placed before it by the Governor-General.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3. The Governor-General did not have effective
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only legislative power.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
366. Who is the author of Manimekalai? [2018-I] (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Kovalan (b) Sathanar (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
(c) Ilango Adigal (d) Tirutakkatevar 375. Which of the following statements relating to the historic
367. Which of the following statements about Sir Syed Ahmad Objectives Resolution, which was adopted by the
Khan is/are correct? [2018-I] Constituent Assembly, is/are correct? [2018-II]
1. He argued that India was a federation of ethnic 1. The Objectives Resolution inspired the shaping of
communities based on common descent. the Constitution through all its subsequent stages.
2. His philosophy was very similar to that of the 2. It was not just a resolution, but a declaration, a firm
Indian National Congress. resolve and a pledge.
History 87
3. It provided the underlying philosophy of our 388. Henry T. Colebrooke was a Professor of Sanskrit in which
Constitution. one of the following institutions? [2019-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) Fort William College (b) Serampore Mission
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only (c) Kashi Vidyapith (d) Asiatic Society
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only 389. The Damin-i-Koh was created by the British Government to
376. Who among the following European travellers never settle which one of the following communities? [2019-I]
returned to Europe and settled down in India? [2018-II] (a) Santals (b) Mundas
(a) Duarte Barbosa (b) Manucci (c) Oraons (d) Saoras
(c) Tavernier (d) Bernier 390. The Limitation Law, which was passed by the British in
377. The class of Amar Nayakas in Vijayanagara is a reference 1859, addressed which one of the following issues?
to which of the following? [2018-II] [2019-I]
(a) Village Chieftains (b) Senior Civil Servants (a) Loan bonds would not have any legal validity.
(c) Tributary Chiefs (d) Military Commanders (b) Loan bonds signed between moneylender and Ryots
378. The aristocrat Muqarrab Khan was a great favourite of would have validity only for three years.
which Mughal Emperor? (c) Land bonds could not be excuted by moneylenders.
(a) Akbar (b) Jahangir (d) Loan bonds would have validity for ten years.
(c) Farrukhsiyar (d) Shah Alam 391. Who among the following was known during the days of
379. Who was the first Nawab Wazir of Awadh in the 18th
the Revolt of 1857 as ‘Danka Shah’? [2019-I]
century? [2018-II]
(a) Shah Mal
(a) Nawab Safdarjung
(b) Nawab Saadat Ali Khan (b) Maulavi Ahmadullah Shah
(c) Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula (c) Nana Sahib
(d) Nawab Saadat Khan (d) Tantia Tope
380. According to the French traveller Tavernier, the majority 392. The Summary Settlement of 1856 was based on which
of houses in Varanasi during the 17th century were made one of the following assumptions? [2019-I]
of [2018-II] (a) The Talukdars were the rightful owners of the land.
(a) brick and mud (b) stone and thatch (b) The Talukdars were interlopers with no permanent
(c) wood and stone (d) brick and stone stakes in the land.
381. The College of Fort William was established by which (c) The Talukdars could evict the peasants from the
one of the following Governor-Generals? [2018-II] lands.
(a) Warren Hastings (b) Lord Cornwallis (d) The Talukdars would take portion of the revenue
(c) Richard Wellesley (d) William Bentinck which flowed to the State.
382. The Economic historian, who has used the data collected 393. Which European ruler has observed, “Bear in mind that
by BuchananHamilton to support the thesis of the commerce of India is the commerce of the world... he
deindustrialization in the 19th century India, is [2018-II] who can exclusively command it is the dictator of
(a) Tirthankar Roy Europe”? [2019-I]
(b) Amiya Kumar Bagchi (a) Queen Victoria
(c) Sabyasachi Bhattacharya (b) Peter the Great of Russia
(d) Irfan Habib (c) Napoleon Bonaparte
383. Tea growing in India in the 19th century was made (d) Gustav II Adolf
possible by [2018-II] 394. Which European traveller had observed, “A Hindu woman
(a) Joseph Banks (b) James Cook can go anywhere alone, even in the most crowded places,
(c) Robert Fortune (d) Robert Owen and she need never fear the impertinent looks and jokes
384. Subhas Chandra Bose started the ‘Azad Hind Radio’ in of idle loungers”? [2019-I]
which of the following countries? [2018-II] (a) Francois Bernier
(a) Japan (b) Austria (b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
(c) Germany (d) Malaysia (c) Thomas Roe
385. Which political party formally accepted the Cabinet (d) Abbe J.A. Dubois
Mission Plan on 6th June, 1946. which had rejected the 395. Which one of the following is not a change brought about
demand for a sovereign Pakistan? [2018-II] by the Indian Independence Act of 1947? [2019-I]
(a) The Hindu Mahasabha (b) The Congress (a) The Government of India Act, 1935 was amended to
(c) The Muslim League (d) The Unionist Party provide an interim Constitution.
386. The elected President of the All India Kisan Sabha. which (b) India ceased to be a dependency.
met in Vijayawada (1944), was [2018-II] (c) The Crown was the source of authority till new
(a) Sahajananda Saraswati Constitution was framed.
(b) Vinoba Bhave (d) The Governor-General was the constitutional head
(c) Achyut Rao Patwardhan of Indian Dominion.
(d) Narendra Dev 396. Which Arab scientist could be given the credit of
387. Who took over the ‘Eka Movement’ started by the christening the mathematical discipline of algorithm?
Congress in Awadh during 1921-1922? [2018-II] [2019-I]
(a) Bhagwan Ahir (b) Madari Pasi (a) Al-Khwarizmi (b) Ibn al-Haytham
(c) Baba Ramchandra (d) Shah Naeem Ata (c) Ibn Rushd (d) Ibn Sina
EBD_7341
88 History
397. Which of the following statements about Alladi 404. Statement I : [2019-II]
Krishnaswami Ayyar, as a drafting member of the The United Provinces during Non-Cooperation became
Constitution of India, are correct? [2019-I] one of the strongest bases of the Congress. .
1. He favoured the role of the supreme court in tasking Statement II :
important decision related to the interpretation of The literary outcrop of Non-Cooperation in Bengal was quite
the constitution of India.. meagre compared to the days of the Swadeshi agitation.
2. He felt that the Supreme Court had to draw the line 405. Who were Alvars ? [2019-II]
between liberty and social control. (a) Those who immersed in devotion to Vishnu
3. He believed in the dominance of the executive over (b) Devotees of Shiva
the Judiciary. (c) Those who worshipped abstract form God
4. He favoured a dictatorial form of governance. (d) Devotees of Shakti
Select the correct answer using the code below. 406. Which one of the following is monatomic ? [2019-II]
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Hydrogen (b) Sulphur
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 (c) Phosphorus (d) Helium
398. In 1921, during which one of the following tours, Gandhiji 407. In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three other
shaved his head and began wearing loincloth in order to carbon atoms [2019-II]
identify with the poor? [2019-I] (a) forming a three-dimensional structure
(a) Ahmaedabad (b) Champaran (b) in the same plane giving a hexagonal array
(c) Chauri Chaura (d) South India (c) in the same plane giving a square array
399. Simla was founded as a hill station to use as strategic (d) in the same plane giving a pentagonal array
place for billeting troops, guarding frontier and launching 408. Which one of the following statements about the
campaign during the course of [2019-I] Government of India Act, 1919 is not correct ? [2019-II]
(a) Anglo-Maratha War (b) Anglo-Burmese War (a) It extended the practice of communal representation.
(c) Anglo-Gurkha War (d) Anglo-Afghan War (b) It made the Central Executive responsible to the
400. Which politician in British India had opposed to a Pakistan Legislature.
that would mean “Muslim Raj he re and Hindu Raj (c) It is also known as the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms.
elsewhere”? [2019-I] (d) It paved the way for federalism by clearly separating
(a) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan the responsibilities of the Centre and the Provinces.
(b) Sikandar Hayat Khan 409. The concept of “Four Pillar State”, free from district
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad magistracy for India was suggested by [2019-II]
(d) Rafi Ahmed Kidwai (a) Lala Lajpat Rai (b) Ram Manohar Lohia
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (d) Subash Chandra Bose
DIRECTIONS : The following 4 (four) items consist of two 410. Consider the following statements : [2019-II]
statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two 1. According to Mahavamsa, Ashoka turned to the
statements carefully and select the correct answer using the Buddha’s dhamma when his nephew Nigrodha
code given below: preached the doctrine to him.
Codes: 2. Divyavadana ascribes Ashoka being drawn to the
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is Buddha’s teaching to the influence of Samudra, a
the correct explanation of Statement I. merchant-turned monk.
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II 3. Dipavamsa speaks of Samudra, the 12-year-old son
is not the correct explanation of Statement I. of a merchant, as the key figure in Ashoka’s coming
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. under the influence of the Buddhist dhamma.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
401. Statement I : [2019-II] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
The Greek travellers were most impressed by the fertility 411. Who is the author of the 16th century Sanskrit text, the
of India’s soil and the energy and ability of her cultivators. Vraja Bhakti Vilasa which focuses on the Braj region in
Statement II : North India? [2019-II]
Ancient India knew the use of manure. (a) Todar Mal (d) Narayana Bhatta
402. Statement I: [2019-II] (c) Chaitanya (d) Rupa Goswami .
Non-cooperation began in Punjab with the student 412. Who were the Nayanars ? [2019-II]
movement inspired by Lala Lajpat Rai in January 1921. (a) Those who were immersed in devotion to Vishnu
Statement II : (b) Those who were devotees of Buddha
The Sikh dominated central Punjab countryside was (c) Leaders who were devotees of Shiva
stirred by the powerful Akali upsurge. (d) Leaders who were devotees of Basveshwara
403. Statement I: [2019-II] 413. Who among the following Mughal emperors was a
The Oudh Kisan Sabha established in 1920 failed to bring follower of the Naqshbandiyya leader Khwaja Ubaydullah
under its wing any Kisan Sabhas. Ahrar ? [2019-II]
Statement II : (a) Babur (b) Humayun (c) Akbar (d) Jahangir
The Oudh Kisan Sabha asked the Kisans to refuse to till 414. Arrange the following in the chronological order of their
bedakhli land, not to offer hari and begar. implementation : [2019-II]
1. The Indian Factory Act (First)
History 89
2. The Vernacular Press Act 425. The famous Mughal painting, depicting Jahangir
3. The Morley-Minto Reforms embracing the Safavid king Shah Abbas, was painted by
4. The Cornwallis Code which one of the following Mughal painters? [2020-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) Abd al-Samad (b) Abul Hasan
(a) 4, 2, 1, 3 (b) 2, 4, 1, 3 (c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 2, 1, 3, 4 (c) Dasavant (d) Bishandas
415. What was the Dutt-Bradley thesis ? [2019-II] 426. Which of the following statements about ‘Mughal
(a) The Working Committee of the Indian National Mansab’ system are correct? [2020-I]
Congress decided that Congress should play a crucial 1. ‘Zat’ rank was an indicator of a Mansabdar’s position in
role in realising the independence of India the imperial hierarchy and the salary of the Mansabdar.
(b) The Socialist party decided to play foremost part in 2. ‘Sawar’ rank indicated the number of horsemen the
anti-imperialist struggle Mansabdar was required to maintain.
(c) Revolutionary socialist Batukeshwar Dutt put forth 3. In the seventeenth century, Mansabdars holding 1000
a ten-point plan to work for the success of anti- or above ‘Sawar’ rank were designated as nobles (Umara).
imperialist front Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(d) It was a Communist party document, according t o (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
which the National Congress could play a great part (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
and a foremost part in realising the anti-imperialist 427. Which of the following rulers were identified through
people’s front matronymics (names derived from that of the mother)? [2020-I]
416. The khuntkatti tenure was prevalent in which one of the (a) Mallas of Pava (b) Videhas of Mithila
following regions of India during the British Colonial Rule? (c) Yaudheyas (d) Satavahanas
[2019-II] 428. Consider the following statements about Stone Age in
(a) Bundelkhand (b) Karnataka India: [2020-I]
(c) Chota Nagpur (d) Madras Presidency 1. Different periods are identified on the basis of the
417. Who among the following started the Indian Agriculture type and technology of stone tools.
Service ? [2019-II] 2. There are no regional variations in the type and
(a) Lord Curzon (b) William Bentinck technology of tools in different periods.
(c) Lord Minto (d) Lord Rippon 3. Stone Age cultures of different periods evolved uniformly
418. ‘Chandimangala’ was composed in which one of the
in a neat unilinear fashion all over the subcontinent.
following languages during the 16th century CE ?[2019-II]
(a) Sanskrit (b) Tamil Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Bengali (d) Oriya (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
419. Mahatma Gandhi’s Dandi March, a great event in Indian (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
freedom struggle, was associated with [2020-I] 429. The work Siyar-ul-Mutakherin, which describes the Battle
(a) iron (b) sodium chloride of Plassey, 1757, was written by [2020-I]
(c) sulphur (d) aluminium (a) Salabat Jung (b) Qasim Khan
420. On 31st December, 1929, in which one of the following (c) Ghulam Husain (d) Ram Mohan Roy
Congress Sessions was proclamation of Purna Swaraj 430. Who believed that the Russian designs were ‘an imminent
made? [2020-I] peril to the security and tranquility’ of the Indian Empire
(a) Ahmedabad (b) Calcutta in 1836? [2020-I]
(c) Lahore (d) Lucknow (a) Lord Auckland (b) Lord Palmerston
421. Which one among the following was demanded by the (c) Lord Canning (d) Alexander Burnes
All India Depressed Classes Leaders’ Conference at 431. The ‘Tattvabodhini Sabha’ was established by [2020-I]
Bombay in 1931? [2020-I] (a) Devendranath Tagore in 1839
(a) Universal adult suffrage (b) Keshab Chandra Sen in 1857
(b) Separate electorates for untouchables (c) Akshay Kumar Datta in 1850
(c) Reserved seats for the minorities (d) Dwarakanath Tagore in 1840
(d) A unitary State in India 432. Who among the following was the first to arrive in Africa
422. Who among the following was one of the founders of the as traders that eventually led to European colonization of
Indian Society of Oriental Art? [2020-I] Africa? [2020-I]
(a) Rabindranath Tagore (a) French (b) Spanish
(b) Abanindranath Tagore (c) Portuguese (d) Dutch
(c) Dwarakanath Tagore 433. The creation of a Federal Court in India was advocated by
(d) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya which of the following Acts/Commissions? [2020-I]
423. Who among the following Sultans succeeded in finally (a) The Government of India Act, 1919
breaking and destroying the power of Turkan-i- (b) The Lee Commission, 1923
Chihalgani? [2020-I] (c) The Government of India Act, 1935
(a) Iltutmish (d) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Balban 434. Who founded the ‘Seva Samiti’ at Allahabad in 1914?
(c) Alauddin Khalji [2020-I]
(d) Muhammad bin Tughluq (a) Hridayanath Kunzru (b) G. K. Gokhale
424. Who among the following Mongol leaders/commanders (c) Shri Ram Bajpai (d) T. B. Sapru
did not cross Indus to attack India? [2020-I] 435. The State of Hyderabad in the Deccan officially acceded
(a) Chenghiz Khan (b) Tair Bahadur to the Indian Union in the year [2020-I]
(c) Abdullah (d) Qutlugh Khwaja (a) 1948 (b) 1950 (c) 1949 (d) 1947
EBD_7341
90 History
1. (c) Akbar ruled with a social and religious toleration that newspaper was founded by Syed Azmatullah in 1927. The
was relative, not absolute, and was based on his concept Musalman is possibly the only handwritten newspaper in
of sulh-i-kul (for the general good of all people) which built the world.
on his liberal views of religion. Akbar took the Sufi mystic 15. (c) The Arthasastra is a treatise on Political philosophy.
notion of sulh-i-kul and transformed it to become a principle The book, written in Sanskrit, discusses theories and
denoting amity within a culturally pluralistic India. principles of governing a state. The meaning of
2. (b) Narasimhadeva I (AD 1238-1264) was the king of Arthashastra is 'Science of Polity'. It is written by Kautilya.
Ganga dynasty. 16. (a) The partition of Bangal took place on16 October
3. (b) The Indian National Calendar, sometimes called the 1905. The Chauri Chaura incident occurred at Chauri
Saka calendar, is the official civil calendar in use in India. Chaura in the Gorakhpur district of the United Province,
Saka Calendar begins on 22 March every year except in British India on 5 February 1922.The first Round table
leap years when it starts on 23 March. The Kushana conference was opened officially by King George V on
emperor Kanishka is credited with the initiation of the November 12, 1930 in London.
Saka era on his accession to the throne in 78 A D. 17. (c) Lord Dufferin was the viceroy of India at the time of
4. (b) Lord Mountbatten was preceded by C the formation of Indian national Congress.
Rajgopalachari. Lord Mountbatten was the last Viceroy 18. (a) Government of India Act 1909 introduced separate
of India (1947) and the first Governor-General of the and discriminatory electorates for Muslims. This was for
independent Dominion of India (1947-48). the first time that, electorate for returning to the
5. (a) Under the leadership of Gandhiji, the Civil representatives to the councils was decided on the basis
Disobedience Movement was launched in AD 1930. It of class & community. For the central council, one more
began with the Dandi March. On 12 March 1930, Gandiji category Muslims was added. This was for the first time
with some of his followers left the Sabarmati Ashram at that the seats in the legislative bodies were reserved on
Ahmedabad and made their way towards Dandi, a village the basis of religion for Muslims. This is called Communal
on the west coast of India. Here, Gandhiji protested against representation.
the Salt Law (salt was a monopoly of the government and Sessions of Indian National Congress.
no one was allowed to make salt) by making salt himself 19. (a)
and throwing up a challenge to the British government.
6. (a) After 1857 Lord Canning announced at a Darbar at Sessions Place Date & year President
Allahabad, the assumption of the Govt. of India by the st
1 Session Bombay Dec. 28-30, 1885 Womesh Chandra
sovereign of great Britain. Bonerjee
7. (b) 1. Third Carnatic War (1756–1763)
2. The First Anglo–Mysore War –(1767–1769) 2 nd Session Calcutta Dec. 27-30, 1886 Dadabhai Naoroji
3. The First Anglo–Burmese War–(1824–1826) 3 rd Session Madrass Dec. 27-30, 1887 Badruddin Tyabji
4. The Second Anglo–Afghan War (1878–1880) th
4 Session Allahabad Dec. 26-29, 1888 George Yule
8. (b) Lord William Bentinck was the first governor General
of India. 20. (d) The Treaty of Amritsar of 1809 was an agreement
9. (c) The 23rd Session (1907) of the Congress was held at between the British East India Company and Ranjit Singh,
Surat.In the session, there was an open clash between the Sikh leader who founded the Sikh empire. The treaty
the Moderates and the Extremists and ultimately it led to settled Indo-Sikh relations for a generation. The immediate
a split in the Congress. occasion was the French threat to northwestern India,
10. (b) The "Grand Old Man of India" Dadabhai Naoroji following Napoleon's Treaty of Tilsit with Russia (1807)
initiated establishment of East India Association at and Ranjit Singh's attempt to bring the Cis-Sutlej states
London. under his control. The British wanted a defensive treaty
11. (b) The Theosophical Society was formed by Helena against the French and control of Punjab to the Sutlej
Petrovna Blavatsky, Henry Steel Olcott, William Quan River. Although this was not a defensive treaty, it did fix
Judge and others in November 1875 in New York. The the frontier of lands controlled by Ranjit Singh broadly
aim of the society was to promote spiritual principles and along the line of the Sutlej River.
search for truth known as Theosophy. 21. (b) Buddha delivered his first sermon at Sarnath. Sarnath
12. (b) It was a significant battle fought between the forces is a city located in the north-east of Varanasi near the
under the command of the British East India Company on confluence of the Ganges and the Gomati rivers in Uttar
the one side and the combined army of Mir Kasim, the Pradesh,
Nawab of Bangal, Nawab of Awadh and Shah Alam ll, the 22. (b) Shankaracharya philosophy is called Advaita. The
Mughal Emperor. Mir Jafar was a puppet of British East Advaita Vedanta focuses on the basic concepts as
India Company. Brahman, atman, vidya (knowledge), avidya (ignorance),
13. (b) The Non-Cooperation Movement, 1920-22 maya, karma and moksha.
Civil Disobedience Movement in India, 1930-34) 23. (c) The All India Muslim League, a political organization
The Quit India Movement, 1942 was founded in 1906 by Nawab of Dhaka Salimullah.Its
14. (d) The Musalman is the oldest Urdulanguage daily mainpurpose was to safeguard the political rights of
newspaper published from Chennai in India. The Muslims in India.
History 91
24. (c) Patimokkha stands for the rules of the Sangha. 1919. They decided to withdraw all cooperation from the
Buddha Dhamma and Sangha are the three Jewels of government if their demands were not met.
Buddhism. 38. (c) The Constitution of India was drafted by the
25. (a) The country's first railway, built by the Great Indian constituent assembly and it was set up under the cabinet
Peninsula Railway (GIPR), opened in 1853 between Mission plan on 16 May 1946. The members of the
Bombay and Thane. constituent assembly were elected by the Provincial
26. (d) • Champaran Satyagrah - 1917 assemblies by method of single transferable vote system
• Nagpur Satyagrah - 1923 of proportional representations.Members of the
• Bardoli Satyagrah - 1928 committee:, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, K. M.
• Rajkot Satyagrah- 1939 Munshi,Acharya J.B kriplani . Lok Nayak Jai Prakash was
27. (c) Muhammad Iqbal was invited to the second and third not the member of the constituent assembly.
round table conference. 39. (d) The historic Objective Resolution was moved by
28. (a) • G.K Gokhale established The Servants of India Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 December 1946, and was adopted
Society in Pune, Maharashtra, on June 12, 1905. unanimously on 22 January 1947.
• Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya founded Banaras 40. (b) In District administration each district was
Hindu University (BHU) at Varanasi in 1916. administered by 3 officers viz. Pradeshika, Rajuka, & Yukta.
• The Swatantra Party was founded by C. Pradeshika was senior and Rajuka was subordinate. Yukta
Rajagopalachari, was Indian conservative political party was subordinate to both of them. The district
that existed from 1959 to 1974. administration was under the charge of Rajukas, whose
• Vinayak Damodar Savarkar founded Free India position and functions are similar to modern collectors.
Society(student society). He was assisted by Yuktas or subordinate officials. The
29. (a) Dadabhai Naoroji rajjuka was responsible for surveying and assessing the
2nd Session Calcutta Dec. 27-30, Dadabhai land, fixing its rent and record keeping besides judicial
1886 Naoroji functions.
9th Session Lahore Dec. 27-30, Dadabhai 41. (c) Robert Sewell was a civil servant of Madras
1893 Naoroji presidency. He was Keeper of the Record Office of Madras
22nd Session Calcutta Dec. 26-29, Dadabhai .He authored 'A Forgotten Empire- Vijayanagar',
1906 Naoroji acontribution to the History of India.
30. (b) A separate Public Works Department was established 42. (b) The Doctrine of Non-Violence and Civil Disobedience
by Lord Dalhousie. The main works of this department associated with Mahatma Gandhi were influenced by the
wereto construct roads, bridges and government works of Ruskin, Tolstoy and Thoreau.
buildings. 43. (c) These books deal with principles of grammar.
31. (b) Ryotwari System was introduced by Thomas Munro 44. (c) Gandhi ji launched Champaran Satyagrah on the
in 1820. In this System, the ownership rights were handed repeated request of a local leader, Raj kumar Shukla,
over to the peasants. British Government collected taxes Ambalal Sarabhai was an industrialist of Ahmedabad . He
directly from the peasants. gave both personal and financial support to the freedom
32. (d) struggle in Ahmedabad.
• Illbert Bill- 1883 Indulal Kanaiyalal Yagnik was an independence activist
• Marley Minto Reforms- 1909 and a leader of the All India Kisan Sabha. He participated
• Rowlatt Act- 1919 in the Kheda Satyagraha(In 1918,) led by Gandhiji.
• Gandhi Irwin pact- 1931 Vallabhbhai Jhaverbhai Patel was a barrister and leader of
33. (c) Cabinet Mission was composed of three Cabinet Indian Independence. He started Bardoli Satyagrah in
Ministers of England Gujarat against the raised tax of 30%.
• Sir Pethick Lawrence, Secretary of State for India. 45. (c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy was an Indian socio-
• Sir Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of Trade, educational reformer who was also known as 'Maker of
• A .V Alexander, the First Lord of the Admiralty Modern India' and 'Father of Modern India'. He was born
• Sir Cyril Radcliffe was appointed to chair two on May 22, 1774 into a Bengali Hindu family. He was the
Boundary Commissions in June 1947 -one for Bengal and founder of the Brahmo Samaj, one of the first Indian socio-
one for Punjab. religious reform movements. He advocated the study of
34. (d) Tansen, who was one of the nine jewels or navaratnas in English, Science, Western Medicine and Technology. He
the court of Emperor Akbar, was born in a Hindu family at Behat was given the title 'Raja' by the Mughal Emperor.
near Gwalior in the Madhya Pradesh state. Father of Tansen 46. (c) Qutbuddin Bakhtiar Kaki was disciple of Moinuddin
was Makarand Pande, who named him Ramtanu Pandey. Chishti. His most famous disciple wasFariduddin
35. (c) The first Rupee (Silver coin) was introduced by Sher Ganjshakar.He was a renowned Muslim Sufi mystic, saint
Shah and was called "Rupia" which remained in use and scholar of the Chishti Order .
throughout the Mughal rule. 47. (c) Gandhi Ji was the preeminent leader of Indian
36. (c) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was independence movement in British-ruled India. He led
founded on 31 October 1920 with Lala Lajpat Rai as its various movements such as Champaran and Kheda
first president. Upto 1945 Congressmen, Socialists, Satyagraha,Khilafat movement, Non-cooperation
Communists worked in the AITUC which was the central movement, Quit India Movement etc.
trade union organisation of workers of India.It is the oldest 48. (b) Sher Shah's biggest achievement was the re-
trade union federation in India . establishment of law and order across his empire. The
37. (b) Gandhiji was elected President of the All-India village headmen and zamindars were made responsible
Khilafat Conference which met at Delhi on November 23, for losses due to robberies. If they were not able to catch
EBD_7341
92 History
the robbers, they were themselves punished as criminals. founded Central Hindu collegeat Banaras. Besant
At the local level, village panchayats and zamindars settled launched the All India Home Rule League along with
disputes and punished the guilty. Above them was the Lokmanya Tilak in 1916.
qazi in each state. 58. (b) Pulakesin II (610-642 CE) is the most famous ruler of
49. (c) Fa-hien was a Chinese monk who travelled India the Chalukya dynasty.The Aihole inscription describes
during the age of Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya. He travelled how the mighty Harsha lost his harsha (joy) when he
during C 399-414. Fa-hien wanted to go to India to search suffered the ignominy of defeat. Pulakesin entered into a
for the treatises of the Vinaya Pitaka, the monastic rules of treaty with Harsha, with the Narmada River designated as
BUDDHISM. Travelling through Central Asia and the border between the Chalukya Empire and that of
Northwest India, Fa-hien reached northern India and then Harshavardhana.
visited the holy Buddhist sites located in the Ganges 59. (d)
valley: Kapilavastu, the birthplace of Buddha; Bodhgaya, 60. (a) The conflict between Sen and Debendranath Tagore
the site of Buddha's enlightenment; Sarnath, where was broadened in 1865, when Tagore allowed the Brahmos
Buddha preached his first sermon, and Kushinagara, the conducting services to wear their sacred threads. Sen
place of Buddha's nirvana. objected this decision and withdrew from the Brahmo
50. (d) Lord Wellesley defeated Tipu Sultan in India and Samaj along with his followers. Keshab Chandra Sen and
Napolean Bonaparte in Europe. his disciples established the Brahmo Samaj of India on
51. (a) Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj which 11th November, 1866 and Debendranath Tagore grouped
was an organization for teaching the true Vedic religion themselves into the Adi (original) Brahmo Samaj.
and also a social reform movement. He fought for equal 61. (b) Robert Clive established the military and political
rights for all and emphasized on social upliftment of women supremacy of the East India Company in Bengal. Under
and the so-called lower caste. He denounced superstitions the dual Government company will look after fiscal matters
and condemned practices such as animal sacrifices. and all the rest would be dealt by the Indian rulers.
52. (c) The Saka calendar used as the official civil calendar 62. (d) On the evening of 30 April 1908, Khudiram threw a
in the country is the National Calendar of India. The Saka bomb on the carriage of Kingsford but it was occupied
calendar, often referred as the Hindu calendar is originally not by Kingsford but the wife and daughter of barrister
named as Saka Samvat. There are 12 months in Saka Pringle Kennedy were killed instead of Kingsford.
Calendar which are named as Vaisakha,Jyestha 63. (a) The Nehru-Liaquat pact was signed between India
,Asadha,Sravana, Bhadrapada, Asvina , Kartika and Pakistan in 1950 to resolve the issues of protection of
Margasirsa , Pausa, Magh, Phalgura,Chaitra. minorities.
53. (a) The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by Lord 64. (a) On 26th October, 1947, Maharaja Hari Singh signed
Dalhousie. The states annexed by the application of this on instrument of accession. Therefore this date became
doctrine of lapse were Satara, Jaitpur and Sambalpur, an important day in the history of India.
Baghat, Udaipur, Jhansi and Nagpur.Due to this 65. (c) Muhammad Ali Jinnah drafted the constitution of
annexation policy discontent simmered among many Muslim league 'The green Book'.
sections of Indian society and the largely indigenous 66. (a) Amaravati School of Art : In Amaravati, situated in the
armed forces; these rallied behind the deposed dynasties eastern Deccan, Andhra Pradesh, a different type of art form
during the Indian rebellion of 1857 also known as the evolved and flourished for nearly six centuries commencing
Sepoy Mutiny of 1857. from 200-100 BC. Patronized first by the Satavahanas and
54. (d) The Brihadeshwara temple, called the Big Temple, is later by the Ikshvakus and also by other groups
dedicated to Lord Shiva. It was built by the great Chola • The lotus and the purnakumbha motifs are typical of
King Raja Raja 1 (985 -1012 A.D). It is an outstanding Amaravati Art expressing auspiciousness and abundance.
example of Chola architecture. Recognizing its unique • White Marble was used in this art and the themes
architectural excellence, UNESCO has declared it a World were Buddha's life and Jatakas tales.
Heritage Monument. • The curly hair of Buddha is a feature that is influenced
55. (a) All statements are correct. by the Greeks
56. (d) On August 16, 1932, the British Prime Minister • The Palaces of Kings, Princes, etc. have got prominence
McDonald announced the Communal Award. The 67. (a)
Communal Award was basically a proposal on minority 68. (c) Dadabhai Naoroji was a Parsi intellectualand Indian
representation.Important proposals were as follows: political and social leader. His book Poverty and Un-British
• The existing seats of the provincial legislatures were Rule in India brought attention to the draining of India's
to be doubled. wealth into Britain.
• The system of separate electorates for the minorities 69. (b) On 13 April 1919, a crowd of nonviolentprotesters,
was to be retained. along with Baishakhi pilgrims, had gathered in the
• The Muslims, wherever they were in minority, were Jallianwala Bagh garden in Amritsar, Punjab to protest
to be granted a weightage. against the arrest of two nationalist leaders, Dr. Satyapal,
• Except NWFP, 3 % seats for women were to be Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew, On the orders of Brigadier-General
reserved in all provinces. Reginald Dyer, the army fired on the crowd for ten minutes,
• The depressed, dalits or the untouchables were to there were 370 dead and 1200 wounded.
be declared as minorities. 70. (a) On the night of December 16, 1773, Samuel Adams
• Allocation was to be made to labours, landlords, and the Sons of Liberty boarded three ships in the Boston
traders and industrialists. harbour and threw 342 chests of tea overboard. This
57. (a) Annie Besant (1847-1933) was the second President resulted in the passage of the punitive Coercive Acts in
of The Theosophical Society from 1907 to 1933. She 1774 and pushed the two sides closer to war.
History 93
71. (d) Some of the features of Government of India Act He was called the father of Russian Marxism.Marks and
1919(Montague Chelmsford Reforms) are as follows: Engels wrote several books together.
• It introduced Diarchy system. 77. (b) Karl Marx was a German philosopher, economist,
• The Government of India Act of 1919, made a sociologist, journalist, and revolutionary socialist.His
provision for classification of the central and provincial famous books are The Communist Manifesto(1848) and
subjects. Das Kapital (1867-1894). According to him,History is a
• The Indian executive comprised of the Governor succession of struggle between the oppressor and the
General and his council. oppressed classes.
• This act made the central legislature bicameral. The 78. (d) Principles of Satyagrah
first house which was central legislature, with 145 members • Nonviolence (ahimsa)
(out of which 104 elected and 41 nominated) was called • Truth - this includes honesty, but goes beyond it to
central Legislative Assembly and second called with 60 mean living fully in accord with and in devotion to that
members (out of which 33 elected and 27 nominated) was which is true
called Council of States. The term of the assembly was • Not stealing
fixed 3 years and council 5 years. • Chastity (brahmacharya) - this includes sexual
• The act provided for the establishment of a Public chastity, but also the subordination of other sensual
Service Commission in India for the first time. desires to the primary devotion to truth
72. (a) Dyarchy, a system of double government was • Non-possession (not the same as poverty)
introduced by the Government of India Act (1919) for the • Body-labour or bread-labour
provinces of British India. Dyarchy was introduced as a • Control of the palate
constitutional reform by Edwin Samuel Montagu (secretary • Fearlessness
of state for India, 1917-22) and Lord Chelmsford (viceroy • Equal respect for all religions
of India, 1916-21). • Economic strategy such as boycott of exported
73. (b) Mohammed Ali Jinnah was Indian Muslim politician, goods (swadeshi)
founder and first governor-general (1947-48) of Pakistan. 79. (d) Rabindranath Tagore was Asia's first Nobel
As the first Governor-General of Pakistan, Jinnah worked Laureatewho won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1913
to establish the new nation's government and policies, for his creation of Gitanjali. The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
and to help settle the millions of Muslim migrants who happened in Amritsaron 13 April 1919 in which Brigadier-
had emigrated from the new nation of India to Pakistan General Reginald Dyer ordered British, Indian Army
after the partition. He is revered in Pakistan as Quaid-i- soldiers to open fire on an unarmed gathering of men,
Azam. women and children. Thousands of people were killed in
74. (b) In 1928, the British government set up the this massacre. Tagore renounced the knighthood that he
Commission, headed by Sir John Simon, to report on the had received in 1915.
political situation in India. The Indian political parties 80. (c) The Indigo revolt of Bengal was directed against
boycotted the Commission, because it did not include a British planters who forced peasants to take advances
single Indian in its membership, and it met with country- and sign fraudulent contracts which forced the peasants
wide protests. When the Commission visited Lahore on to grow Indigo under terms which were the least profitable
30 October 1928, Lajpat Rai led silent march in protest to them. Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas who
against it. The superintendent of police, James A. Scott, organised the peasants into a counter force to deal with
ordered the police to lathicharge. He became seriously the planters lathiyals (armed retainers). In April 1860 all
injured and died on 17 November 1928.To take avenge of the cultivators of the Barasat subdivision and in the
the death of Lala Lajpat Rai, Bhagat Singh and his districts of Pabna and Nadia resorted to strike. They
associates plotted the assassination of Scott. But, the refused to sow any indigo. It led to the appointment of an
revolutionaries, mistaking J.P. Saunders, an Assistant Indigo Commission in 1860 by the government by which
Superintendent of Police, as Scott, killed him instead. some of the abuses of Indigo cultivation was removed.
75. (b). The Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence are a set 81. (c) British did not adopt Free trade policy to exploit the
of principles to govern relations between states. The Indians economically.
agreement was signed between India and China on 29 82. (a) The Indian Rebellion of 1857 began as a mutiny of
April 1954.The five principles of the panchsheel are : sepoys of the East India Company's army on 10th May
• Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity 1857, in the cantonment of the town of Meerut.
and sovereignty. 83. (b) For effective administration the vast territory of the
• Mutual non-aggression. Rajya was divided as vassal states and provinces ruled
• Mutual non-interference in each other's internal directly by the king's direct representatives. While the
affairs. vassal states were administered by the Nayakas or
• Equality and cooperation for mutual benefit. Samantas, the territories directly under the king were called
• Peaceful co-existence. Rajyas, Mandalas and sometimes Chavadis.
76. (c) The German philosopher Karl Marx became one of 84. (b) Kitab-Ul-Hind was written by Al Biruni . Ibn Batuta
the most influential thinkers of the 20th century. Marx is known for his extensive travels, accounts of which were
believed that all historical change was caused by a series published in the Rihla . In 1332, Ibn Battuta decided to go
of class struggles between the bourgeoisie 'haves' and to India. He was greeted openheartedly by the Sultan of
the proletariat 'have-nots'. The work of Karl Marx caught Delhi. There he was given the job of a judge. He stayed in
the attention of members of the intelligentsia. The first India for a period of 8 years and then left for China.
Russian to translate Marx's works was George Plekhanov. 85. (d) Ruin of Indian Feudalism was not a result of British
In 1883 he founded the first Marxist organisation in Russia. colonial rule in India.
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94 History
86. (a) Santhal Rebellion (January 3, 1856 ) was a native 92. (c) Governor General was the sole authority to decide
rebellion in present day Jharkhand in eastern India against and confer such powers upon central and state legislature.
both the British colonial authority and upper caste 93. (c) Mahmud Gawan was a prime minister in the Bahamani
zamindari system by the Santalpeople. Sultanate of Deccan about twenty three years from 1458
The Indigo revolt (or Nilbidroha) was a peasant movement to 1481 A.D.
and subsequent uprising of indigo farmers against the Gawan introduced the following administrative reforms:
indigo planters that arose in Bengal in 1859. (i) The existing four provinces were divided into two
Sanyasi means Ascetics and Sadhus. In this rebellion, the each and created eight 'Tarafs'.
Sanyasis or Fakirs including the Hindu and Muslim (ii) He reduced the powers of the governors of these
ascetics stood up against the oppressive tax collection 'Tarafs' (Provinces).
post Bengal famine of 1770. (iii) In each of these eight 'Tarafs' some areas were kept
Birsa was an Indian tribal freedom fighter and a folk hero, reserve for the control of the Central Government and for
who belonged to the Munda tribe. (1875-1900) their administrative control, officials were appointed by
87. (b) the Centre.
88. (b) Noncooperation movement, (September 1920- (iv) Orders were issued by him for placing one fort in
February 1922), was organized by Gandhiji to induce the each province under the charge of the governor and others
British government of India to grant self-government, or under the control of military commanders appointed by
swaraj, to India. Noncooperation was agreed to by the the Sultan.
Indian National Congress at Calcutta in September 1920 (v) He put a check on the powers of the nobles.
and launched that December. The movement was to be (vi) He introduced a fair system of justice.
nonviolent and to consist of the resignations of titles; the 94. (b)
boycott of government educational institutions, the 95. (d) Reforms of Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
courts, government services, foreign goods, and • Crusaded against social evils like sati, polygamy and
elections; and the eventual refusal to pay taxes. child marriage etc.
89. (d) The Ryotwari system, instituted in some parts of • Demanded property inheritance rights for women.
British India, was one of the two main systems used to • Supported induction of western learning into Indian
collect revenues from the cultivators of agricultural land. education.
Features of Ryotwari System He is best known for his efforts to abolish the practice of
1. Government claimed the property rights to all the sati, the Hindu funeral practice in which the widow was
land, but allotted it to the cultivators on the condition compelled to sacrifice herself on her husband's funeral
that they pay taxes. In other words, it established a direct pyre in some parts of the then Bengal.
relation between the landholder and the government. 96. (d) The proposed conditions of Gandhi-Irwin pact were
2. Farmers could use, sell, mortgage, bequeath, and lease as follows:
the land as long as they paid their taxes. In other words • Discontinuation of the civil disobedience movement
Ryotwari system gave a proprietary right upon the by the Indian National Congress
landholders. • Participation by the Indian National Congress in the
3. IF they did not pay taxes, they were evicted Round Table Conference
4. Taxes were only fixed in a temporary settlement for a • Withdrawal of all ordinances issued by the British
period of thirty years and then revised. Government imposing curbs on the activities of the Indian
5. Government had retained the right to enhance land National Congress
revenue whenever it wanted • Withdrawal of all prosecutions relating to several
6. Provided measures for revenue relief during famines types of offenses except those involving violence
but they were seldom applied in real life situation. • Release of prisoners arrested for participating in the
90. (d) Ram Manohar Lohia- An Indian politician and activist civil disobedience movement
who was a prominent figure in socialist politics and in the • Removal of the tax on salt, which allowed the Indians
movement toward Indian independence. In 1934 Lohia to produce, trade, and sell salt legally and for their own
became actively involved in the Congress Socialist Party private use
(CSP), Lohia wrote his PhD thesis paper on the topic of 97. (c) Option c is correct answer.
Salt Taxation in India,focusing on Gandhi's socio- 98. (a) Kabir did not believe in idol worship. He was also
economic theory. "Where caste prevails, opportunity and against the performance of rituals and superstitions or
ability are restricted to ever-narrowing circles of the pilgrimage to the so-called holy places.
people",these words from Ram Manohar truly project what 99. (c)
he thought of ever existent caste system in India. 100. (b) First Battle of Panipat (1526) was fough between two
91. (c) The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) is a group of mega-powers- Babur, then ruler of Kabul and Ibrahim
states which are not formally aligned with or against any Lodhi, king of Delhi Sultanate. It was fought near Panipat
major power bloc. The organization was founded in (present day Haryana). Babur won the battle and
Belgrade in 1961. established the Mughal Empire.Second Battle of Panipat
The principles of The Non-Aligned movement were: (1556) was fought between Akbar (Ruler of Mughal
• Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity Dynasty) and Muhammad Adil Shah (ruler of Pashtan
and sovereignty Suri Dynasty), along with his Prime Minister Hemu. Third
• Mutual non-aggression Battle of Panipat (1761) was fought between the Afghans
• Mutual non-interference in domestic affairs and the Marathas. The battle lasted for two months which
• Equality and mutual benefit ultimately resulted in the defeat of Marathas and end of
• Peaceful co-existence their dominance in India.
History 95
101. (b) The Civil Disobedience Movement was formed in declared themselves the independent in 1776.
the year 1930 and was one of the most important phases 108. (a) The Fourth Anglo-Mysore War (1798-1799) was a
in the Indian National Movement. The main ideology war in South India between the Kingdom of Mysore and
behind the Civil Disobedience Movement was to defy the the British East India Company under the Earl of
laws made by the British. The British government was Mornington. In the battle, Tipu Sultan was shot and killed.
pressurized by the Indian National Congress to accept 109. (c) Vivekananda did not criticise his country men for
the Nehru Report (1928) as it is. The Calcutta Session of having last touch with the outside world.
the INC held in 1928 warned the British government that it 110. (b) Lord Dalhousie was keen on annexing the kingdom
would start a Civil Disobedience Movement if India was of Awadh. But the task presented certain difficulties
not granted the dominion status. 2nd March 1930 is because the Nawab of Awadh had been a British ally since
remembered as one of the important days in Indian history the Battle of Buxar and had been most obedient to the
as the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched on British over the years. Lord Dalhousie hit upon the idea
that day. The launch triggered off with a Dandi Salt March of alleviating the plight of the people of Awadh and
where the British Salt was broken. accusing Nawab Wajid Ali on the ground of
102. (a) The Government created commissions and misgovernance and annexed his state in 1856.
commissions on one another with an undeclared motive 111. (d) Doctrine of lapse, in Indian history, formula devised
of creating mutual apprehensions and mistrusts. It was by Lord Dalhousie, governor-general of India (1848-56),
the time when the top leaders including Gandhi were failed to deal with questions of succession to Hindu Indian
to understand the political implications of his extensions states.
of support to the cause of Khilafat. Practically, the leaders According to 'Doctrine of Lapse', if any ruler of a
of Khilafat needed support of Gandhiji only for a defined protected state died without a natural heir, the states'
particular purpose. authority will pass to the English East India Company.
103. (b) This statement was made by Clement Attlee.He was Annexation in the absence of a natural or adopted heir
a British Labour Partyleader and prime minister of Britain was enforced in the cases of Satara (1848), Jaitpur and
during the period of 1945-51.He was known for the granting Sambalpur (1849), Baghat (1850), Chota Udaipur (1852),
of independence to India. Jhansi (1853), and Nagpur (1854).
104. (b) The Pillar Edicts are divided into: 112. (c) The First Anglo-Maratha War (1775-1782) was
Major Rock Edicts: 14 Edicts (termed 1st to 14th) and fought between the British East India company and
2 separate ones found in Odisha Minor Rock Inscriptions: Maratha Empire in India. The war began with the Treaty
Minor Rock Edicts, the Queen's Edict, Barabar Caves of Surat and ended with the Treaty of Salbai.
inscriptions and the Kandahar bilingual inscription. 113. (d) Jean-Baptiste Colbert, founded the French East India
In these Edicts there were three South Indian states Company in 1664 with the intention of rivalling the success
described as Cholas, Pandayas, Cheras. of the English and the Dutch in India.Their trading
105. (b) Causes of the Revolution company was heavily dependent on the French
• The end of medieval structures changed government.
economic relationships and allowed for change. 114. (a) All statements are true.
• A higher population because of less disease and 115. (c) Anizham Thirunal Veerabaala Marthanda Varma was
lower infant mortality allows for a larger industrial king of Travancore from 1729 until his death in 1758. He
workforce. was the only Indian King to beat the European armed
• The Agricultural Revolution frees people from force at the 1741 Battle of Colachel against the Dutch.
the soil, allowing - or driving - them into cities and 116. (d) Nadir Shah, was the founder of the Afsharid dynasty.
manufacturing. Nadir Shah led his army which consisted of 80,000
• Proportionally large amounts of spare capital were armymen. He placed 3,000 of his army men in the front as
available for investment. a clear line of defence against the Mughal army. Nadir
• Inventions and the scientific revolution allowed Shah advanced towards India in 1738. At the battle of
for new technology to increase and cheapen production. Karnal on 13 February 1739, Muhammad Shah was
• Colonial trade networks allowed the import of defeated and surrendered. The whole city of Delhi was
materials and the export of manufactured goods. destroyed, looted, plundered and ruined by the army of
• The presence of all the required resources closed Nadir Shah. Nadir Shah took with him the Peacock throne
together, such as coal near iron. built by Shah Jahan. He also took the legendary "Koh-i-
• Culture of hard work, risk taking and the noor" diamond.
development of ideas. 117. (c) Privy Purse in India was a payment that was made to
• Demand for goods. the royal families of the formerprincely states of India.
106. (a) The Indian Penal code was drafted in 1860 on the The Privy Purse was created as part of the agreements
recommendations of first law commission of India made by them to merge with Union of India in the year
established in 1834 under the Charter Act of 1833 under 1947.
the Chairmanship of Thomas Babington Macaulay. It 118. (c) For the first time in 1934,the idea of a Constituent
came into force in British India in 1862. Indian Penal Code Assembly for India was put forward by M. N. Roy. Under
(IPC) is the main criminal code of India. It is a the cabinet mission plan of 1946, elections were held for
comprehensive code intended to cover all substantive the first time for constituent Assembly. The Constitution
aspects of criminal law. of India was drafted by the constituent assembly and it
107. (c) The American Revolutionary War (1775-1783), was was set up under the cabinet Mission plan on 16 May
an armed conflict between the Kingdom of Great Britain 1946. The members of the constituent assembly were
and thirteen of its former North American colonies, which
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96 History
elected by the Provincial assemblies by method of single 131. (c) The Viceregal Lodge, also known as Rashtrapati
transferable vote system of proportional representation. Niwas, is located on the Observatory Hills of Shimla,
119. (c) Simon Commission was appointed under the Himachal Pradesh,It was built during the regime of Lord
chairmanship of Sir John Simonin November 1927 by the Dufferin. Its construction started in 1880 and was
British government to report on the working of the Indian completed in 1888.The cabinet Mission 1946 was held in
constitution established by the Government of India Act the The Viceregal Lodge. The Planting of gardens were
of 1919. The commission consisted of seven members. done by Marquis Lansdowne.
None of the Indians was appointed in the commission. 132. (a) On the basis of the report submitted by Sir John
120. (d) The ironpillar near Qutub Minar highlights ancient Shore Cornwallis introduced land revenue settlement for
India's achievements in metallurgy. The pillar is made of ten years with Zamindars in 1789 but the same was made
98 per cent wrought iron and has stood 1,600 years without permanent in 1793 by the proclamation of Cornwallis and
rusting or decomposing. it was known as Permanent Land Revenue settlement.
121. (a) The basic features of the settlement were as follows:
122. (b) Rig Vedic Aryans were not acquainted to the use of Iron. 1. The Zamindars were made hereditary owners of the
123. (d) Jatakas are the stories that tell about the previous land under their possession. They and their successors
lives of the Buddha, in both human and animal form. exercised total control over lands.
124. (c) Mahavira was a teacher of the religion of Jainism. He 2. The Zamindars could sell and purchase lands.
lived in India. His followers believed that he was the 24th 3. The state had no direct contact with the peasants.
in a line of great teachers. These teachers were called 4. The company's share in the revenue was fixed
tirthankaras. permanently with the Zamindars.
125. (b) Gandhi's vision of a free India was not a nation-state 133. (d) Prarthana Samaj was founded by M.G. Ranade and
but a confederation of self-governing, self-reliant, self- R.G. Bhandarkar in 1867 with an aim to make people believe
employed people living in village communities, deriving in one God and worship only one God. The main reformers
their right livelihood from the products of their homesteads. were the intellectuals who advocate reforms of the social
126. (b) As per the Permanent Settlement system, the system of the Hindus. He never demanded abolition of
Zamindars who formerly collected revenues were untouchability.
"recognized" as Landlords and the ownership of the Land 134. (c) Ram Prasad Bismil was the famous freedom fighter
was made hereditary. This means that now onwards there who was involved in the historic Kakori train robbery. He
would be no auctioning. The son of Zamindar would be a was born in 1897 at Shahjahanpur,Uttar Pradesh. On 9th
Zamindar. August, 1925, Ram Prasad Bismil along with his fellow
127. (c) The British tried to curb Bengali influence on the followers looted the money of the British government from
nationalist movement and also introduced a new form of the train while it was passing through Kakori, Lucknow.
division based on religion to create challenges for the Except Chandrashekhar Azad, all other members of the
Indian National Congress, which was slowly becoming group were arrested. Ram Prasad Bismil along with others
the main opponent to British rule. was given capital punishment. This great freedom fighter
128. (a) Dadabhai Naoroji was the first man to say that internal of India was executed on 19th December, 1927.
factors were not the reasons of poverty in India but 135. (c) The third Carnatik war- Treaty of Paris (1763)
poverty was caused by the colonial rule that was draining The Third mysore war- Treaty of Srirangapatnam(1792)
the wealth and prosperity of India. In 1867, Dadabhai The first Maratha war- Treaty of salbai(1782)
Naoroji put forward the 'drain of wealth' theory in which The first Anglo sikh war- Treaty of Lahore (1846)
he stated that the Britain was completely draining India. 136. (d) Kanishka, was the emperor of the Kushan dynasty
He mentioned this theory in his book Poverty and Un- in 127-151 A.D;famous for his military, political, and
British Rule in India. spiritual achievements. Some of the scholars in the Court
129. (b) In February March 1918, there was a situation of of Kanishka were Parsva, Vasumitra, Asvaghosa,
conflict between the Gujarat Mill owners and workers on Nagarjuna, Charaka and Mathara..
the question of Plague Bonus of 1917. The Mill Owners 137. (d) Mansehra and Shahbazgadhi inscriptions of ashoka
wanted to withdraw the bonus while the workers are written in Aramaic language, Kharoshthi script.
demanded a 50% wage hike. The Mill Owners were willing Shahbaz Garhi is an historic site located in Mardan District
to give only 20% wage hike. In March 1918, under the in the North West Frontier Province of Pakistan. Mansehra
leadership of Gandhi, there was a strike in the cotton mills. is located in Mansehra District, Khyber-Pakhtunkhwa
In this strike Gandhi used the weapon of Hunger strike. province of Pakistan.
The result was that the strike was successful and the 138. (c) During Jorwe culture, one can get archaeological
workers got a 35% wage increase. evidence of burial system at Daimabad.
130. (a) The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was Mahatma 139. (c) 140. (a)
Gandhi's first Satyagraha. The peasants (bhumihars) of 141. (d) Satara was first annexed by lord Dalhousie under the
the Champaran and other areas of North Bihar were Doctrine of lapse. The Doctrine of Lapse was an annexation
growing the Indigo under the tinakathia system. Under policy purportedly devised by Lord Dalhousie, who was
the tinakathia system the peasants were bound to plant 3 the Governor General for the East India Company in India
out of 20 parts of his land with indigo for his landlord. between 1848 and 1856. By applying the doctrine of lapse,
One local peasant leader Rajkumar Shukla had invited Dalhousie annexed the States of Satara (1848 A.D.), Jaitpur
Mahatma Gandhi to visit Champaran. The very important (1849 A.D.), Sambhalpur (1849 A.D.), Bahat (1850 A.D.),
outcome of the movement was the enactment of Udaipur (1852 A.D.), Jhansi (1853 A.D.), and Nagpur (1854
Champaran Agrarian Act assented by Governor General A.D.).
of India on 1st May, 1918. 142. (d) Dholavira was known for water management.
History 97
143. (c) Hieun Tsang was a Chinese Buddhist monk who privileges granted to them by the Mughal rulers, which
visited the kingdom of Harshvardhan and Kumar Bhaskar caused heavy loss of customs duties for the government;
Varma. and thirdly, that they gave shelter to some of his officers,
144. (d) The cabinet Mission plan for India envisaged a Union for example Krishnadas, son of Rajballav, who fled Dhaka
of State. Cabinet Mission of 1946 to India aimed to discuss after misappropriating government funds. Hence, when the
and plan for the transfer of power from the British East India Company started further enhancement of military
Government to Indian leadership, providing India with preparedness at Fort William in Calcutta, Siraj asked them
independence. The mission consisted of Lord Pethick- to stop. The Company did not heed his directives, so Siraj-
Lawrence, the Secretary of State for India, Sir Stafford ud Daulah retaliated and captured Kolkata (Shortly renamed
Cripps. as Alinagar) from the British in June 1756.
145. (b) Triple Alliance consisted of British, Nizam and 159. (b) Gandhiji had full trust in their bonafides and
Marathas against Tipu sultan in 1791-92. considered them most valued and respected leaders.
146. (a) The Nizam-ul-Mulk of Hyderabad was a monarch of 160. (d) The Silk Route or Silk Road refers to a network of
the Hyderabad State, did not support the revolt of 1857. ancient trade routes connecting Asia, Europe and Africa.
147. (d) The Theosophical Society was officially formed in Extending more than 6,500 kms, the Silk Route was majorly
New York City, United States, in November 1875 by Helena used to transport Chinese Silk to Europe through Central
Petrovna Blavatsky, Henry Steel Olcott, William Quan Asia from 2nd Century BC. The ancient Silk Road helped
Judge and others. to integrated the old Chinese, Indian, Persian, Arabian,
148. (d) Considered as Father of Indian National Movement; ancient Greek and Roman cultures and promoted the
Founded "Deccan Education Society" to impart quality exchange of the Western and Oriental civilizations. Half
education to India's youth; was a member of the Municipal of the Silk Road, which winded along between Xi'an to
Council of Pune, Bombay Legislature, and an elected the east bank of the Mediterranean, was located in
'Fellow' of the Bombay University; formed Home Rule Xinjiang. Xinjiang was a place where the ancient Western
League in 1916 to attain the goal of Swaraj. The Age of and Oriental cultures met and many famous historical
Consent Act, 1891 was a legislation enacted in British people visited. It was the world's first information
India on 19 March 1891 which raised the age of consent superhighway.
for sexual intercourse for all girls, married or unmarried, 161. (c) Gulbadan Begum (daughter of Babur) was the author
from ten to twelve years in all jurisdictions, its violation of Humayun Nama.
subject to criminal prosecution as rape.It was opposed 162. (d) Jajmani system is a socio-economic institution of the
by Hindu nationalists including Bal Gangadhar Tilak. pre-industrial self-subsistent village economy. The term
149. (d) The site of Harappa was located on the banks of 'jajmani' is derived from a Vedic term 'Yajman' means a
river Ravi. patron who employs the services of a Brahmin for the
150. (c) The Vernacular Press Act in 1878 was passed by Lord performance of sacrifices or other religious ceremonies.
Lytton and repealed by Lord Ripon. The suppression of The jajmani system is essentially based on caste system.
Indian language newspapers under the Vernacular Press Advantages of jajmani system
Act of 1878 was caused by the Criticism of inhuman The occupation being hereditary, it provides security of
approach of English officials towards the victims of the occupation to the kamin.
famine of 1876-77 and the reactionary policy of Lytton. It provides economic security as the 'jajman takes care of
151. (d) Factory act to improve the condition of Indian labour all the needs of kamin.
was not an initiativeof reforms of Dalhousie.It is It strengthens the relationship between jajman and
associated with lord Ripon. kamin(Praja), which is more personal than economic.
152. (d) Sir Thomas Roe was sent by James I in 1615. He 163. (b) In Mughal period Cash crops were called jins-i-ala.
reached Surat in September 1615 and proceeded to Ajmer 164. (c) Sufismismystical Islamic belief and practice in which
where Jahangir was. He remained at the court of Jahangir Muslims seek to find the truth of divine love and
from 1615 to 1618.Father Monserrate travelled with Akbar knowledge through direct personal experience of God.
on his journey to Kashmir. 165. (a) The village headman became more important in Gupta
153. (d) Industrial Revolution in its early phase (from 1760 c period and no land transaction could be effected without
to 1850 c) was largely dependent for its success on the headman's consent.
organization of labour under factory system. 166. (c) The responsibility for all finance and management of
154. (c) Ashtadhyayi, (Sanskrit grammar) written in the 6th Jagir and Inam Lands rested with Wazir.
to 5th century BCE by the Indian grammarian Panini 167. (c) Kanishka was the first Indian ruler who has been
155. (c) The word Dhamma is the Prakrit version of the shown in images as wearing a dress akin to trousers.
Sanskrit word Dharma. The scholars believe that the 168. (c) Shivaji trained his soldiers in the guerilla warfare.
Dhamma which Ashoka tried to propagate was not simply The guerilla warfare was very suitable in the geographical
the teachings of Buddhism, but it contained the noblest location of most territories in Maharashtra. He believed in
ideas of humanism which are the essence of all religions. the surprise attacks on the enemy, killed or looted it and
156. (b) Kutagarashala is a place where intellectual debates disappeared into the forest. which leveraged strategic
among Buddhist mendicants took place. factors like geography, speed, and surprise and focused
157. (b) During the rule of Maurya Dynasty Silver and Copper pinpoint attacks to defeat his larger and more powerful
were used for minting coins. enemies.Shivaji himself constructed about 15-20 new forts
158. (d) His charges against the company were mainly (including key sea forts like Sindhudurg), but he also
threefold. Firstly, that they strengthened the fortification rebuilt or repaired many strategically placed forts to create
around the Fort William without any intimation and a chain of 300 or more, stretched over a thousand
approval; secondly, that they grossly abused the trade kilometres across the rugged crest of the Western Ghats.
EBD_7341
98 History
169. (b) Chalcolithic Cultures were the first to paint their pottery. 180. (a) Ziyarat is used to refer to a form of pilgrimage to
170. (d) The polity of the Harappan people as derived from sites associated with Muhammad and his family members
the material evidence was a theocratic-unitary. and descendants. Sites of pilgrimage include mosques,
171. (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak interpreted Gita as the scripture graves, battlefields, mountains, and caves.
of Karmayoga. Ram Manohar Lohia did not write any 181. (c) Sutanuti, Gobindapur and Kalikata, the three villages
commeutaries on Geeta. which were merged to form the city of Kolkata (formerly
172. (c) V.V GIRI was the fourth president of India from 24 Calcutta) in India. Job Charnock, an administrator with
August 1969 to 24 August 1974.He became president of the British East India Company is traditionally credited
the All India Trade Union Congress twice but was not the with the honour of founding the city.
founding member of AITUC. 182. (a) It is founded in 1916 by Begums Rokeya. It claimed to
173. (d) Sodium Cloride (Salt) was an important symbol in represent the interests of all Muslim women.Besides working
our struggle for freedom, because Mahatma Gandhi tried for the social and educational uplift of Muslimwomen the
to break salt law by organizing dandi March. Anjuman's main contribution was to popularize a new style
174. (a) The important occasion of Chandragupta Maurya's of burqa pattern on the Turkish model.
reign was the forecast of a twelve years famine. At that 183. (d) Abu Abdullah Muhammad Ibn Battuta, better known
time Acharya Bhadrabahu was the head of the Jain church. simply as Ibn Battuta (1304-circa 1377 AD) was a Berber
According to the Jain text Rajvaliya Katha, the king saw Muslim scholar and traveler, who was born in Tangier,
sixteen dreams. He requested Bhadrabahu to interpret the Morocco. He travelled almost 30 years. In that period, he
dreams. The latter explained all the dreams and according covered nearly the entirety of the known Islamic world
to the last one, he predicted a famine of twelve years. and beyond: from North Africa, West Africa, Southern
Chandragupta, who was a follower of Bhadrabahu, gave Europe and Eastern Europe.
up his throne. He finally ended his life following the Jain 184. (c) Malik Kafur was the slave general of Sultan Alauddin
fashion. Khilji who had won for him the Deccan territories of
175. (b) Mahavira was not the founder and author of Jain Warangal, Devgiri, Madura and Dwarasamudra, etc. Malik
religion but simply a reformer. This sect of the Nirgranthas Kafur was originally a Hindu slave who fell into the hands
was an important sect at the rise of Buddhism. This may of the Muslims at Cambay after the conquest of Gujarat.
be inferred from the fact that they are frequently mentioned Alauddin's general Nusrat Khan had paid 1,000 dinars to
in the pitakas as opponents of Buddha and his disciples. buy him and that is why Malik Kafur is also known as the
This conclusion is further supported by another fact. "Hazardinari.
Makkhali Gosala, a contemporary of Buddha and 185. (b) English began to fortify Calcutta as part of the
Mahavira divided mankind into six classes, of these the preparations of war with the French without the permission
third class contained the Nirgranthas. Hence, statement of the Nawab. Siraj-ud-Daula asked both the French and the
II is not the correct explanation of statement I. English to pull down their fortifications and considered them
176. (b) Both statements are true however, statement II is not an attack on the Nawab’s sovereignty. The French Company
the correct explanation of statement I.The Barabar Caves complied but the English refused to obey the orders.
are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India. They are 186. (a) The highly polished monolithic Ashoka pillar usually
located in the Bela Ganj Block of Gaya district, Bihar. The with small black spots were quarried from the Chunar in
caves were used by ascetics from the Ajivika sect. Lomas Mirzapur district of U.P.
Rishi caves are the arch-like shape facade of Lomas Rishi 187. (a) Varahamihira was an Indian astronomer,
Caves, imitate the contemporary timber architecture. mathematician, and astrologer who lived in Ujjain. He wrote
Sudama caves were dedicated by Mauryan Emperor, Brihat Samhita which covers astrology, planetary
Ashoka in 261 BC. movements, eclipses, rainfall, clouds.
177. (b) Both the statements are true but statement II is not 188. (b) In his book the “Rise of Marathas” M.G. Ramade
the correct explanation of statement I.Gandhara School explained about Maratha rule and its polity.
was based on Greco-Roman norms . It is also known as 189. (b) The causes of the success of American revolution
Graeco-Buddhist School of art. The Buddhist sculpture include spirit of freedom of American people and less
produced by the Kushans in the Swat valley was referred knowledge about American continent by the Britishers etc.
to as Gandharan, and was influenced by Graeco-Roman 190. (c) Above statement was made in the context of Quit
elements . The ancient kingdoms of Udyana (Swat) and India Movement by the Britishers.
Gandhara (Peshawar ) were formed by the Kushans, who 191. (c) Mansabdari was a system of army and civil services
were of Chinese origin and took over the area in the first introduced by Akbar in place of the Jagirdari system. The
century BC . Under the king Kanishka, who ruled from 'Mansab' is an Arabic word meaning rank or position or
around 100 AD, Buddhism flourished in Gandhara; at one status of a person. During the early reign of Akbar, the
point there were 1,400 monasteries in the lower Swat Valley lowest grade was ten and the highest was 5000. Akbar
alone. introduced the rank of 'Zat' and 'Sawar' in the Mansabdari
178. (a) In order to keep powerful people happy and to collect system.
better revenue, Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent 192. (d) India exported pearls, precious stones, cloth,
Settlement. As per permanent system, rajas and taluqdars perfumes, spices, indigo, silver, tin, lead, silk and horses.
were recognized as zamindars. The zamindars were 193. (b) Sher Shah did not introduce swiftly moving artillery.
supposed to collect the land revenue from the peasants. Sher Shah effected many military reforms in order to save
179. (b) Goshala Maskariputra was the founder of Ajivika the country from foreign invasions and internal revolt.
Sect.He was the contemporary of Mahavir. and even With the object of organising the Army, Sher Shah began
remained his companion before the enlightenment of to pay the soldiers their salary in cash; maintained their
Mahavira. respective roles; brandished the horses etc.
History 99
194. (c) Rajtarangini was written by Kalhan(Kashnmiri Kushan king Kanishka and the president of this council
Brahman) in Sanskriin 12th century CE.It records the was Vasumitra, with Asvaghosa as his deputy. This
heritage of Kashmir, but 120 verses of Rajtarangini describe council distinctly divided the Buddhism into 2 sects-
the misrule prevailing in Kashmir during the reign of King Mahayan & Hinayan.
Kalash, son of King Ananta Deva of Kashmir. 212. (a) Bhoga included taxes of fruits, wood, foodgrains etc
195. (d) Statement ll is correct because vaisyas and shudras to the king. They were collected by hereditary chiefs.
refused to perform producing functions or pay taxes which 213. (d) According to Angunttara Nikaya(Budhist text) and
resulted in the weakening of Brahminical social order. Bhagavati sutra (jain text) there were 16 mahajanapadas
196. (b) in ancient India.
197. (a) Both the statements are true and statement ll is correct 214. (c) The Battle of Buxar was fought between British East
explanation of statement l. The Russian revolution India Company and the combined forces of Mir Qasim,
inspired the involvement of Indian working class in the the Nawab of Bengal, Shuja-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of
Non Cooperation movement. Awadh and Shah Alam II, the Mughal Emperor on 23rd
198. (c) The Indian national movement was against the British October, 1764. Shah Alam II, signed the Treaty of
rule in India.It resulted in our Independence from the Allahabad that secured Diwani Rights for the Company
Britishers but it did not resolve the tribal issues. to collect and manage the revenues of almost 100,000,000
199. (a) Both statements are true and statement ll is correct acres (400,000 km2) of real estate, which helped establish
explanation of statement I Britain ruined India's previous the English rule.
economy and industries as a result of Britain forcing them 215. (d) The mode of worship was worship of the elements
to import their goods from Britain and not buy their own like fire and rivers, worship of heroic gods like Indra,
goods from India. Industries such as the handmade cloth chanting of hymns and performance of sacrifices. They
industry, clock-making, metal, and carpentry industries, were not associated with temples.
fell because cloth was made of better quality for cheaper 216. (c) Ashoka's only inscribed stone portrait was found at
in Britain because of mass production. kanaganahalli, near Bhima river In Gulbarg district,
200. (a) The poems belonging to the Sangam literature were Karnataka.
composed by Tamil poets. 217. (a) Hind Swaraj- Gandhi ji's views on Indian Home Rule
201. (b) Karaikal Ammaiyar was one of the three women My Experience with Truth- Autobiography of Gandhiji
amongst the sixty three Nayanmars, and was one of the He deployed satyagraha in the Indian independence
greatest figures of early Tamil literature. movement and also during his earlier struggles in South
202. (c) Young Benga Movement was launched under the Africa for Indian rights and social Justice.
influence of a radical teacher Derezio. It was very radical Bhagavad Gita- Spiritual Lives of Common people.
movement. 218. (d) He was not supporter of Indian national Congress.He
203. (d) The word Swarajya was first coined by Bal Gangadhar was one of those early pioneers who recognized the critical
Tilak. He is known for his quote "Swarajya is my birthright, role of education for the empowerment of the poor and
and I shall have it!" backward Muslim community. In more than one ways, Sir
204. (c) The term Satyagraha was coined by Gandhi Ji.He Syed was one of the greatest social reformers and a great
used it in South Africa for Indian rights. And in India it national builder of modern India. So with the aim of
was first experimented in Champaran District of Bihar. promoting social and Economic development of Indian
205. (b) A guillotine is an apparatus designed for carrying out Muslim community, Syed Ahmad Khan founded the
executions by beheading. The device is best known for its Muhammadan Anglo Oriental College (Now Aligarh
use in France, in particular during the French Revolution. Muslim University) in 1875.
206. (b) The Tea Party was the culmination of a resistance 219. (a) B G Tilak setup the Home Rule League at the Bombay
movement throughout British America against the Tea Provincial conference held at Belgaum in April 1916.
Act, which had been passed by the British Parliament in Narasimha Chintaman Kelkar (N. C. Kelkar) was associated
1773. The Boston Tea Party was a political protest by the with Shikshana Prasarak Mandali in Pune established in
Sons of Liberty in Boston, on December 16, 1773. The 1904
demonstrators destroyed an entire shipment of tea sent 220. (c) The first session of INC was held in Bombay. Womesh
by the East India Company, in defiance of the Tea Act of Chandra Bonnerjee was the first President of the INC. It
May 10, 1773. was held from 28-31 December 1885, and was attended by
207. (b) The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed by Mahatma 72 delegates.
Gandhi and Lord Irwin on 5 March 1931 before the second 221. (d) Ignatius of Loyola founded the society.He composed
Round Table Conference in London.One of the proposed the Spiritual Exercises to help others follow the teachings
conditions is Discontinuation of the civil disobedience of Jesus Christ.
movement by the Indian National Congress. 222. (b) The Theosophical Society was officially formed by
208. (a) Rishabha- 1st Tirthankara out of 24. Parshvanatha- Helena Petrovna Blavatsky, Henry Steel Olcott, William
23rd tirthankara. Mahavira 24th tirthankara Quan Judge in New York in November 1875. Allan Octavian
209. (a) Sher Shah divided the entire Kingdom in 47 divisions Hume was one of the founders of the Indian National
and called them "Sarkars". These Sarkars were divided Congress.
into Parganas. Every Pargana was under a Shikqdar, who 223. (d) At the outbreak of the World War II, the Viceroy
looked into the law and order of his Pargana. proclaimed India's involvement without prior consultations
210. (b) University of Nalanda was set up by Gupta king with the main political parties. When Congress demanded
Kumargupta I. an immediate transfer of power in return for cooperation
211. (d) The Fourth Buddhist Council was held at of the war efforts, the British government refused. As a
Kundalvana, Kashmir in 72 AD under the patronage of result Congress resigned from power in all the provinces.
EBD_7341
100 History
224. (b) The Kanchi Kailasanathar temple is dedicated to the 235. (a) Sutanuti was one of the three villages which were
Lord Shiva. It is the oldest structure in Kanchipuram, merged to form the city of Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) in
located in Tamil Nadu.'Lingaraj' temple is dedicated to Lord India. Job Charnock, an administrator with the British East
Shiva. It is also said that the temple was constructed by India Company is traditionally credited with the honour of
Jajati Keshari, the SomaVanshi King.It is located in founding the city. Fort William was established to protect
Bhubaneswar, Orissa. Kandariya Mahadev Temple is the East India Company's trade in the city of Calcutta, the
located in Khajuraho in Madhya Pradesh, Khajuraho was principal town of the Bengal Presidency. In 1756, with the
once the religious capital of the Chandela Rajputs. Dilwara possibility of conflict with Frenchforces, the British began
Jain Templesare located at Mount Abu,Rajasthan and were building up the fort's strengths and defences.
built by Vastupal Tejpal.These temples were built between 236. (a)
11th to 13th century AD. Dilwara Temple complex consists 237. (c) Canonical texts are those that are linked to Gautama
of five major sections or temples devoted to five Jain Buddha in one way or another. Canonical texts comprise
trithankaras(saints): Shri Mahaveer Swami Temple, Shri three different kind of texts - the sutras (discourses),
ParshavNath Temple, Shri Rishabdaoji Temple, Shri vinaya (discipline) and abhidharma (analytical
NemiNathJi Temple. texts),together they are called the 'Three Baskets' or
225. (a) The widespread availability of coal and iron was a Tipitaka (in Pali language) and Tripitaka (in Sanskrit).
significant factor in Europe's Industrial Revolution of the 238. (b) Basavanna was an Indian philosopher, statesman,
late 18th and early 19th centuries. Kannada poet and a social reformer in Karnataka. He
226. (c) Brihadeshwara Temple (Raja Rajeswara Temple) was fought against the practice of the caste system which
builtby emperor Raja Raja Chola I in 1010 AD. Meenakshi discriminated against people based on their birth, gender
Temple located on the southern bank of the Vaigai River ( and other rituals in Hinduism. Basava used Ishtalinga, an
Madurai, Tamil Nadu). It is dedicated to Parvati known as image of the Siva Linga, to eradicate untouchability, to
Meenakshi.Srirangam temple is one of the most illustrious establish equality among all human beings and as a means
Vaishnava temples in South India located on an island on to attain spiritual enlightenment. Lingayats worshipped
the bank of Cauvery river.The Durga temple is located in Shiva in the form of linga universal God or Ishtalinga.
Aihole, Karnataka. It was built by Chalukyas between the 239. (b) In 1809, he wrote his famous work 'Gift to
7th and the 8th century. Monotheists' in Persian, in which he put forward weighty
227. (d) Al-Biruni wrote the book Kitab-Al-Hind in 11th century arguments against belief in many gods and for the worship
in Turkish language.Ibn Batuta is known for his extensive of a single God. Ram Mohan Roy insisted on applying
travels, accounts of which were published in the Rihla (lit. rationalism to Christianity too, particularly to the elements
"Journey"). Over a period of thirty years, Ibn Battuta visited of blind faith in it. In 1820, he published his 'Precepts of
most of the known Islamic world as well as many non- Jesus' in which he tried to separate the moral and
Muslim lands.Gulbadan Begum, the daughter of Mughal philosophic message of the New Testament, which he
emperor Babar, wrote the Humayun Nama, the account of praised, from its miracle stories.
the life of her half-brother, Humayun. Abdul Hamid Lahori 240. (b) The first steps in giving a modern education to girls
a court historian of Shah Jahan wrote the book Padshahnama were taken by the missionaries in 1821, but these efforts
also referred as Badshahnama. In this book Shah Jahan's were marred by the emphasis on Christian religious
first twenty years of reign were described. education. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was born on 26th
228. (c) Rajatarangini points out that the scarcity of rice September, 1820.
invariably resulted in disastrous famine. This clearly 241. (a) The annexation of Awadh by Lord Dalhousie on the
proves that rice was the principal food of the people and pretext of maladministration left thousands of nobles,
Utpala Saka was a kind of wildgrowing herb of bitter taste officials, retainers and soldiers jobless. Moreover, the
generally taken by common people. Kalhana's annexation of Awadh adversely affected the sepoy's purse.
Rajatarangini is the most famous historical poem which He had to pay higher taxes on the land his family held in
records the oldest and fullest history of the legendary Awadh.
kings of Kashmir as well as gives accounts of the Kashmiri 242. (c) Even though monotheism characterizes some of the
kings of the historical period. Harshvardhan introduced a hymns of Rig Veda, naturalistic polytheism and monism
general dress befitting a king which includes a long coat. can be discerned in the religion of the hymns of Rig Veda.
229. (d) Like the rigvedic Aryans the ancient Iranians worshipped
230. (a) Peasant Communities were heterogeneous group on gods like Mitr,Vayu and Verutraghna. They also wore the
the basis of caste and other caste like distinctions. scared thread and worshipped fire etc. Initially sacrifices
231. (a) The Ghadar Party was an organization founded by were simple, house hold duties performed by the oldest
Punjabi Indians in the United States and Canada with the male member of the house yajmana who acted as priest
aim of securing India's independence from British rule. and the oldest female member. yajmana patni(wife of the
After the outbreak of World War I, Ghadar party members householder) who assisted in the act. The agnihotra was
returned to Punjab to agitate for rebellion alongside the a simple domestic sacrifice to be performed daily by the
Babbar Akali Movement. head of a Dvija household in the morning and the evening.
232. (a) The ruins were brought to light by an engineer and Other involved the participation of many different ritual
antiquarian named Colonel Colin Mackenzie (Surveyor specialists along with their assistants.
General of India) in 1800 AD. 243. (c) MarthandaVarma is written by C.V. Raman Pillai
233. (a) Rubber plantation in Vietnam was owned and which was published in 1891. It is presented as a historical
controlled by French and a small Vietnamese elite. romance recounting the history of Venad (Travancore)
234. (d) Most of the South Indians participated in the during the final period of Rajah Rama Varma's reign and
movement except Karnataka which remained unaffected. subsequently to the accession of Marthanda Varma.
History 101
244. (a) In 1893,Mahatma Gandhi accepted an offer from a expanding Russian Empire beginning to push for an
firm of Muslims to represent them legally in Pretoria, advantage in the Afghanistan region that placed pressure
capital of Transvaal in the Union of South Africa. They on British India, in what became known as the "Great
were actively involved in Gandhian political movements Game". The Great Game set in motion the confrontation
in South Africa. Gandhi led a campaign in Cape Town of the British and Russian empires, whose spheres of
against the ordinance on compulsory registration and influence moved steadily closer to one another until they
passes for Indians. met in Afghanistan.
245. (d) Educated muslims were the editors of Comrade, 257. (b) River Tungabhadra was the lifeline of Vijayanagar
Hamdard,Zamindar and Al Hilal. Maulana Mohammad Kingdom. It provided sustenance to the empire.
Ali Jauhar launched the Urdu weekly Hamdard and in 258. (b) Niccolo de conti(Venetian merchant ), Abdur
English The Comrade in 1911. The founding editor of Razzaq(Persia), Afanacy Nikitin(Russian merchant ) and
this newspaper was Zafar Ali Khan, a poet, intellectual, Fernao Nuniz(Portuguese traveller) visited Vijaynagar empire.
writer, Muslim nationalist and supporter of All India 259. (c) Steel mill - State
Muslim League's Pakistan Movement. The Al-Hilal was Kalinganagar - Odisha
a weekly Urdu language newspaper established by Vijayanagar - Karnataka
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. Salem - Tamil Nadu
246. (a) Durgapur - West Bengal
247. (c) Marthanda Varma was king of Travancore from 1729 260. (c) Alauddin Khalji was the second ruler of khalji
to 1758.The Travancore-Dutch War was fought between dynasty (1296-1316 reigning period). He is famous for
the Dutch East India Company (VOC) and the Indian market reforms and price control. Actually he did so for
kingdom of Travancore, culminating in the Battle of maintaining a large army. By controlling the items price,
Colachel in 1741.Travancore became the second most he became able to pay salary to soldiers.
prosperous princely state in British India with reputed 261. (a) Mihrab - Direction towards the Kaba for prayer.
achievements in education, political administration, Mimbar - Stepped pulpit
public work and social reforms. Khutba - Sermon
248. (d) Individual freedom is not central tenet of Socialism. Kibla - Arch
249. (c) The immediate cause of the rebellion was the 262. (a) Person Work
restrictions, imposed on the pilgrims visiting the holy Uddanda - Mallikamaruta
places. The Sanyasis raided the English factories and Sayana - Sudhanidhi
collected contributions from the towns, leading to a series Yadavaprakasa - Vaijayanti
of conflicts between the large bands of Sanyasis and the Bhavabhuti - Malatimadhava
British forces. The rebellion started 1750 onwards but 263. (a) Ibn Battuta (1304-1377) was a Muslim scholar and
took a violent turn since 1773 when Warren Hastings traveller. He was born in Morocco. The book, Rihla is
assumed as the Governor-General of Bengal. In 1773,he account of his travelling throughout his life in different
issued a proclamation banishing all sannyasis from Bengal countries.
and Bihar. 264. (d) Surdas (1479-1586) was a saint, poet and musician,
250. (c) 251. (b) famous for devotional songs for Lord krishna, Sur Sagar
252. (a) Nawab Mohammed Abdul Ail(Prince of Arcot) is a is a great composition (a poetic work) and two other works
patron of music,art and literature. The musical trinity - Sur Sarawali and Sahitya Lahiri.
consists of Dikshitar, Tyagaraja and Syama Sastri 265. (c) Akbar (1556-1605) took interest in paintings. His court
although, unlike the Telugu compositions of the others, had some famous painters as - Daswanth, Abdus Samad,
his compositions are predominantly in Sanskrit. He also Basawan and Mir Sayyid Ali etc.
had composed some of his Kritis in Manipravalam. 266. (c) Chhatrapati Shivaji (1630-1680) had two heirs for
253. (a) About 30 British portrait painters trained in oil throne. The eldest son Sambhaji was irresponsible person,
paintings and 28 miniaturists travelled to India between towards subjects. So younger son Rajaram was crowned.
1770 and 1825 in search of commissions. Amongst the 267. (a) Author Work
earliest European artists who visited India were John Somadeva - Kathasaritsagara
Zoffany, William Hodges, tilly Kettle, William and Thomas Kalidasa - Malavikagnimitra
Daniells, Emily Eden and others. Bhasa - Svapnavasavasdatta
254. (a) S.A Dange- The Socialist Bilhana - Chaurapanchasika
Muzaffar Ahmad- Navayug 268. (d) Patanjali (2nd BC), an author of a commentary on
Ghulam Hussian- Inquilab Panini's Ashtadhyayi was a great philosopher. He compiled
M. Singaravelu- Labour- Kisan Gazette a famous book - Yogashutra.
255. (c) After Russian Revolution many left groups and trade 269. (c) King Region
unions were formed in India on the ideologies of Marxism Shashanka - Bengal
or communism. Labour Swaraj Party, Congress Labour Kharavela - Orissa
Party, KirtiKisan Party, Labour Kisan Party of Hindustan Simuka - Maharashtra
were based on communism ideology. By 1928, all these Bhaskara - Assam
provincial parties were knitted into an all India 270. (c) Yaudheyas were related with Johiya Kshatriyas
organization named Workers and Peasants Party (WPP). residing near Muttan (Presently in Pakistan).
256. (b) The British became the major power in the Indian 271. (d) Dandin (8th century), a Sanskrit grammarian was a
sub-continent after the Treaty of Paris (1763)and began great writer and poet. His works are related with prose
to show interest in Afghanistan as early as their 1809 romance. His book Dashakumaracharita is a composition
treaty with Shuja Shah Durrani. It was the threat of the of tale of ten princes.
EBD_7341
102 History
272. (a) The Governor General of India, Waren Hasting 292. (b) The primary product of PM's 'Pradhan Mantri Mudra
(1772-1774) proposed a judicial plan - Yojana' will be providing refinance for lending to micro
(i) Each district will have a civil and criminal court. businesses. The interventions have been named 'Shishu',
(ii) The judges will be assisted by native experts in Hindu 'Kishor', and ' Tarun' to signify the stage of growth/
and Islamic laws. development.
273. (c) Indian National Congress was established on 28 293. (b) According to Prayag Prashasti, Samudragupta was
December, 1885 by A.O. Hume, a British Civil Servant to a great warrior as well as a great musician and poet.
create a platform for civil and political discussion. 294. (c) Kamandaka's Nitisara is related to the subjects like
Womesh Chander Benerji (1844 –1906), the president of political science, etc.
Indian National Congress, presided over the first session 295. (a) The Lilavati is India Mathematician Bhaskara - II's
of the Indian National Congress held at Bombay in 1885. treatise on mathematics, written in 1150.
274. (b) Jyotirao Phule (11 April 1827- 28 Nov 1890) on social 296. (a) The followers of Guru Gorakshanath (also known as
reformer, writer and theologist organised an organisation Gorakhnath) were called 'yogis' (Jogis).
- Satyashodhak Samaj Movement, He opined that 297. (a) Satpura Thermal Power Plant is located in Betul
Brahmins are descendent of alien Aryans. district of Madhya Pradesh, India.
275. (d) Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah was a talukdar in Faizabad Dhuvaran Thermal Power Station is a 220 MW coal plant
(UP). His talook was confiscated by the British in Gujarat state, India, owned by Gujarat State Electricity
government. He was an important character in the battle Corporation.
of 1857. He was famous as Danka shah in public. He took Tanakpur Hydro Power Plant India is located at Tanakpur
part in the battle of Chinhat. He fought in the famous near Banbassa, District Champawat, Uttarakhand, India.
Battle of Chinhat in which the British forces under Henry Dabhol Power Station is located at Ratnagiri district in
Lawrence were defeated Maharashtra, India, about 160 kilometres south of
276. (d) Binodini Dasi (1862-1941) was a renowned actress Mumbai.
in Kolkata. Her autobiography- Amarkatha was published 298. (a) Sources of the 17th century refer to two kinds of
in 1913, this book reveals the contemporary sketch of peasants, Khud-Kashta and Pahi-Kashta. Khud-Kashta
Bengali society. were the resident of the village in which they held their
277. (a) Olympe de Gouges (7 May 1748 - 3 Nov 1793), a land. Pahi-Kashta were nonresident cultivators, who
French playwright and political activist, was famous for belonged to some other villages, but cultivated land
writing in favour of rights of women. She opposed male elsewhere on contractual basis. They worked under the
dominant society. temptation of favourable terms of revenue or the
278. (a) Hind Swaraj or Indian Home Rule is a book written compulsion of economic distress.
by Mahatma Gandhi in which he expresses his views on 299. (c) Zamindars during the Mughal era were petty
Swaraj, modern civilisation, Religion, Nationality, landholders in the villages, descendants of old ruling
Patriotism, Unity etc. families who retained small portions of their ancestral
279. (a) Amalananda Ghosh was the first archaeologist to lands. They generally made collection from the individual
identify similarities between a pre-harappan culture and peasants at rates fixed by custom or by themselves and
the mature Harappan culture. paid a fixed tax to the Government. The difference between
280. (b) Kailasanatha Temple at Ellora and the Shore temple his collections and the amount he paid to the state was
at Mamallapuram are carved out from solid rocks. his personal income. Thus Zamindars became exploitative.
281. (c) 'The deeds of Hamza" and 'The deeds of Babar' are Due to this exploitative nature they did not receive any
not depicted in the Rajput Paintings. support of the peasantry in a large number of agrarian
282. (c) Tantraloka was written by Abhinavagupta. Which uprisings in North India in the seventeenth century.
presents the teachings of the Kula and Trika systems. 300. (c) King Ashoka never abolished capital punishment.
283. (b) The inscriptions on the pillar at Rummindei give vivid Asoka adopted Buddhism in 9th year of his reign after
details of Ashoka's conversion and the Nigalisagar winning Kalinga. He was inspired by Nigrodha, a boy
inscription records the fact that Ashoka had visited the monk. Later, he came in contact with Moggaliputta Tissa.
Kongamana stupa. Later his brother Tissa, queen Karuvaki also adopted
284. (c) Gaoseng Faxian Zhuan a Chinese Buddist monk (5th Buddhism. In the Bhabru edict Asoka says that he has
Century) wrote a travelogue describing contemperary full faith in Buddha, Sangha and Dhamma.
Buddist effect over Indian society. 301. (b) Documents belonging to village panchayats from
285. (d) Western India, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra tell
286. (b) In medieval India, Iqta was a type of land revenue. us about the wives protested against the infidelity of their
287. (c) husbands or the neglect of the wife and children by the
288. (c) The temple of Hazara Rama belongs to Vijaynagara male head of the household.
Kingdom. It was built in the 15th century. by Devaraya II. The protesting women through these record petitions sent
289. (a) Votive inscriptions (2nd century BC) describes about to the village panchayat asked for redressal and justice.
offerings given to super natural forces to get their favour. 302. (a) The correct combination is,
290. (c) The Gupta coinage started with a remarkable series Sumit Sarkar- The Swadeshi Movement in Bengal, 1903-
in Gold issued by Chandragupta I, the third ruler of the 1908
dynasty. Shahid Amin- Event, Metaphor, Memory: Chauri Chaura,
291. (a) An Agrahara is the name given to the Brahmin quarter 1922-1992
of a heterogenous village or to any village inhabited by Ranajit Guha- A Rule of property for Bengal
Brahmins. Bipan Chandra- The Rise and Growth of Economic
Nationalism in India
History 103
303. (d) Most prominent form of Shiva in the Brihadeshvara the sense that every person has right to be ruled by
temple is Tripurantaka. Shiva's Tripurantaka form in himself or herself. Swaraj is a virtue which need time and
different postures is depicted in sculptures. patience to achieve.
304. (b) Shankara founded the Sringeri, Puri, Badrikashrama 316. (c) Gandhi’s autobiography “My Experiments With
and Dwaraka mathas at the four corners of the country. Truth,” mentions the Pranami sect and according to him,
305. (d) The Deccan uprising began at Supa village in the the sect derived the best of both the Quran and the Gita.
district of Poona. The farmers attacked places where many Gandhi had interest in theosophy, and studied books by
moneylenders and sahukars lived and burnt account theosophists such as Madame Blavatsky and Annie
books and looted grain shops. The farmers' main motive Besant. Gandhi’s ideas were close to Romanticism. He
was to destroy the account books of the moneylenders. admired writings of poet William Wordsworth as they
The riots did not spread to the whole of Mahar advocated nonviolence.
306. (b) It is believed that Gypsies or Romani people in Europe 317. (b) Shiromani Gurdwara Parbandhak Committee (SGPC)
are of Indian descent. Romas are believed to be was formed in November 15, 1920, for the management of
descendants of specific groups from north-west India, gurudwaras, Sikh places of worship in three states of
They are known differently as Tsigan in Russia, Bulgaria Punjab, Haryana, and Himachal Pradesh and union
and Romania, Gitano in Spain, Tshingan in Turkey and territory of Chandigarh. Shiromani Akali Dal began a non-
Greece, Zigeuner in Germany, Tsyiganes or Manus in violent struggle against the British government for the
France, Tatara in Sweden, and Gypsies in Great Britain. control of the Gurdwaras. Jathas are separate and
Both linguistic evidence and genetic information have independent religious orders that was formed to gain
confirmed the Indian origin of the Romas. Studies have control over local gurdwaras.
supported the hypothesis that Romani shared a common 318. (b) Mahatma Gandhi gave his speech at the opening of
origin with the Indo-Aryan languages of Northern Banaras Hindu University in 1915 where he highlighted
India.ashtra because of prompt suppression by the British. his concerns over rich people’s lack of concern for the
In 1879, the Agriculturists Relief Act was passed which poor and role of farmers. He said that farmers play an
ensured that the farmers could not be arrested and important role in the society and acts as saviour for
imprisoned if they were unable to pay their debts. others.
307. (b) Upari refers to peasants who cultivated the rented 319. (a) Rowlatt Act, passed by Imperial Legislative Council
lands in villages. in Delhi on March 18, 1919, allowed certain political cases
308. (c) It was a water powered spinning frame device used to be tried without juries and permitted arrest of suspects
for production of threads. without trial. Salt March (Dandi March), initiated by
309. (a) Food,clothing,housing and transportation were the Mahatma Gandhi on March 12, 1930, against British Salt
four great needs of the people as identified by the Tax. Chauri Chaura incident (February 4,1922) involved
Guomindang. clash between police and Indian protestors in British
310. (d) The earlier name of Tokyo was Edo which literally India. Second Round Table conference (1931) was held
means estuary. In 1868 the name was changed to Tokyo. to discuss constitutional reforms.
311. (b) Silappadikaram refers to the existence of Jaina 320. (d) Salt March (March 12, 1930) was initiated by
monasteries near city boundaries of Madurai. It also Mahatma Gandhi against British Salt Tax and to promote
mentioned Kovalan and Kannagi's-the central characters salt production from sea water. The movement was widely
inclination towards the Jaina Path. Kavundi who covered by Indian, European, and American newspapers
accompanied them to Madurai was a Jaina Bhikshuni. and also saw participation of large number of women.
312. (b) Rakshasa vivah is marriage by capture or forceful The event shook the British, and for the first time, they
abduction of bride. realized the power of Indians.
313. (c) Although the basic town planning in Harappan cities 321. (b) Arya Samaj, an Indian religious movement based
were followed but there were some significant departures on Vedas and founded by Dayananda Saraswati on April
from the established norms. Like Banwali which is one of 7, 1875, was based in Punjab and western Uttar Pradesh
the towns of Harappan civilization, lacked the gridiron states like, Aligarh, Varanasi, etc. It was against caste
pattern of planning and the roads were neither always system and advocated equality of men and women.
straight nor do they necessarily cut each other at right Brahmo Samaj, founded by Raja Rammohan Roy, was
angles. limited since it was popular only among elite and educated
Standardized ratio of Brick size was the common feature society.
of all Harappan cities. 322. (c) The book A Comparison between Women and Men
314. (c) Ilregional intergovernmentalbert bill was introduced is written by Tarabai Shinde. It highlights the history of
in 1883 by Viceroy Ripon, to allow Indian judges and women and gender relations in colonial India and also
magistrates the jurisdiction to try British offenders in explores changes in colonial society and their
criminal cases. After opposition from Europeans in Britain implications for women.
as well as India, the bill was withdrawn and reintroduced 323. (a) In the first half of the 19th century Industrial
after amendment saying that a jury of 50% Europeans Revolution, poor nutrition, poor sanitation, lack of proper
was required if an Indian judge was to face a European. medical care resulted in poor public health for the majority
315. (d) Swaraj movement was initiated by Mahatma Gandhi of English people, including workers. In 1849, 10,000
which emphasized on self-rule or self-governance and workers died of cholera in Manchester. The average life
referred to Gandhi’s concept Indian independence from span was 25 years or below.
British rule. The movement had two meanings, political 324. (c) George Washington was appointed as Commander
and non-political. It was political in the sense that it in Chief of the Continental Army at the Second
opposed being ruled by foreigners, and non-political in Continental Congress on June 19, 1775. He assumed the
EBD_7341
104 History
office of the Continental Army in Cambridge on July 3, 336. (c) The Napoleonic Code is the French civil code
1775. He resigned as Commander in Chief on December established under Napoléon I in 1804. Tennis Court Oath
23, 1783. was taken on 20 June 1789. New Constitution of France
325. (a) Alexander Fyodoravich Kerensky served as head was created in 1791.
of the Russian Provisional government from July 17 to 337. (d) The Social Contract, by Jean-Jacques Rousseau, is
October 17. Kerensky was eventually overthrown by the a 1762 book in which Rousseau theorized about the best
Bolsheviks during the October Revolution. He was forced way to establish a political community in the face of the
to leave Russia and lived in exite until his death. problems of commercial society, which he had already
326. (b) The Coercive Acts included a series of laws passed identified in his Discourse on Inequality (1754).
by the British Parliament in 1774, including Boston Port Act, 338. (d) All are correct.
the Massachusetts Government Act, the Administration of 339. (c) The Tughlaqabad Fort was built by the founder of
Justice Act, and the Quartering Act of 1774, which were the Tughlaq Dynasty, Ghiyas-ud-din-Tughlaq in 1321.
meant to punish American colonies for throwing a large tea The Bara Gumbad was constructed in 1490 CE, during
shipment into Boston Harbor. The Stamp Act of 1765 was the reign of the Lodhi dynasty. Qutab-ud-din Aibak, the
passed by Parliament of Great Britain to impose a direct first Muslim ruler of Delhi, commenced the construction
tax on the colonies of British America. It was later repealed of the Qutab Minar in 1200 AD, but could only finish the
on March 18, 1766 after protest. basement. His successor, Iltutmush, added three more
327. (c) The Poona Pact was an agreement between Dr. storeys, and in 1368, Firoz Shah Tughlak constructed the
Babasaheb Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi signed on fifth and the last storey. Fatehpur Sikri was founded in
24 September 1932 at Yerwada Central Jail in Pune, India, 1569 by the great Mughal emperor Akbar.
which asserted that there will be a single Hindu electorate, 340. (d) Urvara means fertile. Nadimatrika land is a land which
with scheduled castes having seats reserved within it. depends on irrigation. Devamatrika land is a land which
The Communal Award was made by the British Prime depends on rainfall. Maru is a soil destitute of water.
Minister Ramsay MacDonald on 16 August 1932 341. (d) KN Natarajan was the editor of the Indian Social
allowing separate electorates in India, and it was Reformer.
supported by Ambedkar. 342. (a) Harsha was first responsible for the compilation of
328. (d) All India Depressed Classes Association was ‘Nibandhas’ or digests of epic and Puranic texts.
formed In 1926 by M.C. Rajah for the welfare of depressed 343. (a) Tamil epic Silappadikaram is an encyclopaedia of art
classes. Ambedkar did not attend the association and and music of the ancient Tamils. Ilango Adikal, author of
was elected one of its vice-presidents. Ambedkar became Silappadikaram has described in detail the two great rivers
the President of the first All India Depressed Kaveri and Vaigai that run through Choza and Pandyan
Classes Congress in 1930. territories.
329. (d) The Justice Party, a political party formed in 344. (c) Harappan Culture doesn’t marks the earliest known
the Madras Presidency of British India in 1917 by T. M. use of iron as a medium for the art of sculpting.
Nair and P. Theagaraya Chetty to demand more 345. (b) Bhaskaravarman belonged to Varman dynasty of
representation for non-Brahmins in government. After Assam. He is known for his alliance with Harshavardhana
negotiations between Justice Party, Congress and the against Shashanka, the first major ruler of Bengal
British Government, 28 (3 urban and 25 rural) of the 63 (Karnasuvarna).
general seats were reserved for non-Brahmins. In 1920, 346. (c) Atmiya Sabha was a philosophical discussion circle
Justice Party won 63 of the 98 seats. in India. The association was started by Ram Mohan
330. (b) The Ryotwari, a system to collect revenues from the Roy in 1815 in Kolkata. Brahmo Samaj, the theistic
cultivators of agricultural land, was initiated by Alexander movement within Hinduism, founded in Calcutta in 1828
Reed in Baramahal in 1792 and was continued by Thomas by Ram Mohun Roy. Prarthana Samaj was founded by
Munro in Madras, Bombay, parts of Assam and Coorgh Atmaram Pandurang in 1867 when Kesab Chandra sen
provinces of British India. Ryotwari was better than visited Maharashtra, with an aim to make people believe
Zamindari System. in one God and worship only one God. Arya samaj was
331. (c) is the correct answer. founded by the sannyasi (ascetic) Dayananda Saraswati
332. (a) is the correct answer. on 7 April 1875.
333. (a) Peasants of a remote and decrepit village, Phulaguri, 347. (c) Dholavira is an archaeological site at Khadirbet in
in central Assam’s Nagaon district had dealt the first blow Bhachau Taluka of Kutch District, in the state of Gujarat
to the British in the Northeast in 1861. The revolt, known in western India, which has taken its name from a modern-
as ‘Phulaguri dhawa’, in which a British official was killed day village 1 kilometre south of it. Rakhigarhi, or Rakhi
and several police officers were injured, was triggered by Garhi, is a village in Hisar District in the state of Haryana
a ban imposed on opium cultivation and a proposed in India, situated 150 kilometers to the northwest of Delhi.
taxation on betel leaf and nut. Bhirrana, also Bhirdana and Birhana, is a small village
334. (a) They brought Jahandar Shah to power. located in Fatehabad District, in the Indian state of
335. (c) The jain ideals were already being circulated in the Haryana. Bhogavo River is a river in Gujarat, India.
seventh century BC by Parshava. Although Buddhism, 348. (b) The status of women was redefined. They were
and to a lesser extent Jainism, took account of the entitled to formal education and hence there were women
changes in material life and reacted against orthodoxy, teachers, philosophers and doctors. Early marriage was
neither of these sought to abolish the caste system. prohibited by law and they were given the right to
Buddha held that nuns could attain spiritual liberation property.
just like a monk and granted them an equal status in the 349. (b) All are correct.
mendicant order.
History 105
350. (d) Sufi silsilas began to crystallise in different parts of 363. (d) Ashoka was responsible for building many stupas
the Islamic world around the twelfth century. The word all over northern India and the other territories under the
silsila literally means a chain, signifying a continuous link Mauryan Dynasty in areas now known as Nepal, Pakistan,
between master and disciple, stretching as an unbroken Bangladesh, and Afghanistan. Ashoka also built stupas
spiritual genealogy to the Prophet Muhammad. It was in regions where the people might have difficulty reaching
through this channel that spiritual power and blessings the stupas that contained the Buddha's ashes. Stupas
were transmitted to devotees. Special rituals of initiation were also built in rural areas.
were developed in which initiates took an oath of 364. (d) The script was deciphered in 1837 by James Prinsep,
allegiance, wore a patched garment, and shaved their hair. an archaeologist, philologist, and official of the East India
351. (a) The tenth mandala of the Rigveda has 191 hymns. Company
10.85 is a marriage hymn, evoking the marriage of Sury?, 365. (b) Brahmadeya represented the grant of land either in a
daughter of Surya (the Sun), another form of Ushas, the single plot or whole villages donated to Brahamans by
prototypical bride. making them land-owners or land-controllers. The gift of
352. (b) Most of the South Indians participated in the non- land were mostly selected around the irrigation facilities
cooperation movement except Karnataka, which remained such as tanks or lakes and were supposed to be operable
unaffected. There were some non-Brahman lower-caste to fulfill the needs of the donees. Brahmadeya helped the
participation in Madras and Maharashtra. expansion of agrarian economy and the emergence of
353. (c) The term barbarian originates from the Greek: urban settlements.
Barbaros, which in turn originates from the 366. (b) Seethalai Saathanaar is the author of the book
incomprehensible languages of early Anatolian nations 'Manimekalai'. The book is a poem in 30 cantos. Its story
that were heard by the Greeks as "bar..bar. In Ancient is a sequel of an epic 'Silappatikaram' that tells the story of
Rome, the Romans used the term towards non-Romans the conversion to Buddhism of the daughter of Kovalan
such as the Germanics, Celts, Gauls, Iberians, Thracians, and Madhavi.
Illyrians, Berbers, Parthians, and Sarmatians. 367. (d) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan, was an Indian Muslim
354. (d) Hujwiri's conversation with the Yogis shows that he pragmatist, Islamic reformist, philosopher of nineteenth
was impressed with their theory of the division of the century British India and the Father of Two Nation Theory.
human body. Born into a family with strong ties with Mughal court,
355. (a) The above statement was made by Pelsaert, a Dutch Syed studied the Quran and sciences within the court.
traveler in response to the poverty that has infiltrated Syed heavily critiqued the Indian National Congress. Sir
deeply into the lives of the people of Muhgal, India. The Syed pioneered modern education for the Muslim
statement was made when he visited the subcontinent in community in India by founding the Muhammedan Anglo-
the early decades of the 17th century and saw how Oriental College, which later developed into the Aligarh
miserably the people lived. For this abject poverty, Muslim University. The curriculum at the Mohammedan
Pelsaert held the State responsible. Anglo-Oriental College blended Muslim theology and
356. (a) The Khojas are a group of diverse people who European empiricism.
converted to Islam in India and Pakistan. 368. (b) The ancient site at Kot Diji was the forerunner of
357. (a) The Nalayira Divya Prabandham is a collection of the Indus Civilization. The remains consist of two parts;
4,000 Tamil verses (Naalayiram in Tamil means 'four the citadel area on high ground (about 12 m), and outer
thousand') composed by the 12 Alvars, and was compiled area. The Pakistan Department of Archaeology
in its present form by Nathamuni during the 9th - 10th excavated at Kot Diji in 1955 and 1957.Located about 24
centuries. kilometers south of Khairpur in the province of Sindh,
358. (c) "A sound body means one which bends itself to the Pakistan, it is on the east bank of the Indus opposite
spirit and is always a ready instrument at its service." Mohenjo-daro.
This statement is attributed to Mahatma Gandhi. 369. (d) The large landowners were known as the Vellalar
359. (a) In 1904, Mohandas Gandhi, who had resided in according to the Tamil Sangam. The cultivators were
nearby Durban since 1893, established a small village-like known as the uzhavar, and it was the kadaisiyar who were
settlement, Phoenix Settlement, on the north-western the labourers and adimai who were the slaves.
outskirts of Inanda. 370. (c) Manusmriti provides a woman with property rights
360. (a) Mahanavami Dibba is a structure in the Royal Centre to six types of property in verses 9.192-9.200. These include
in Vijaynagar Empire. The name come from the shape of those she received at her marriage, or as gift when she
the platform and the Mahanavami festival which was eloped or when she was taken away, or as token of love
observed here. before marriage, or as gifts from her biological family, or
361. (a) Iranian Sufi Shihabuddin Suhrawardi developed the as received from her husband subsequent to marriage,
idea of farr-i izadi. According to this idea, there was a and also from inheritance from deceased relatives.
hierarchy in which the Divine Light was transmitted to 371. (a) The story, based on a Buddhist text in Pali known as
the king who then became the source of spiritual guidance the Majjhima Nikaya, is part of a dialogue between a king
for his subjects. named Avantiputta and a disciple of the Buddha named
362. (d) The Mahavamsa spoke in glowing terms of an Indian Kachchana. While it may not be literally true, it reveals
king Ashoka who had ordained his own son and daughter Buddhist attitudes towards varna.
and sent them to Sri Lanka to spread the Buddha's 372. (c) Tortoiseshell was not a major item of Indian exports
message. to Rome.
EBD_7341
106 History
373. (a) Government of India Act 1858 provided that India stolen tea from China during his employment in the British
was to be governed directly and in the name of the crown. East India company.
The office of secretary of state was vested with complete 384. (c) Azad Hind Radio was a propaganda radio service
authority and control over Indian administration, thus he that was started under the leadership of Netaji Subhas
was now the political head of the India. Chandra Bose in Germany in 1942 to encourage Indians
374. (a) The executive council of Governor General was added to fight for freedom.
a fifth finance member. For legislative purpose, a provision 385. (c) The cabinet mission recommended an undivided
was made for an addition of 6 to 12 members to the central India and turned down the Muslim league’s demand for a
executive. At least half of the additional members were to separate Pakistan. The Cabinet mission restricted the
be non-officials. Governor –General had the power of Communal representation.
making rules and regulations for the conduct of business 386. (a) Swami Sahajanad Saraswati was the elected president
of executive council. of All India Kisan Sabha at Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh
375. (c) Objectives Resolution (the resolution that defined in 1944. It was the eight conference of All India Kisan
the aims of the Assembly) was moved by Nehru in 1946. Sabha, which was formed in 1936. Swami Sahajanad fist
This resolution enshrined the aspirations and values started the Kisan Sabha Movement in Bihar.
behind the Constitution making. his made the moral 387. (b) Eka Movement or Unity Movement is a peasant
commitment to establish a government that will fulfil the movement which surfaced in Hardoi, Bahraich and Sitapur
many promises that the nationalist movement held before during the end of 1921 by Madari Pasi, an offshoot of
the people of India. Non Cooperation Movement. The initial thrust was given
376. (b) Niccolao Manucci was an Italian writer and traveller by the leaders of Congress and Khilafat movement.
who visited India and spent almost his entire life there 388. (d) Rightly described as "the first great Sanskrit scholar
without going back to Europe again. in Europe", H.T. Colebrooke was one of the founders of
377. (d) The amara-nayaka system was a major political the Royal Asiatic Society in Bengal.
innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire. It is likely that 389. (a) Damin-i-Koh was the land allocated to the Santhals.
many features of this system were derived from the iqta The Santhals could live on the land and practise plough
system of the Delhi Sultanate. The amara-nayakas were agriculture, thus helping them to carry out settled
military commanders who were given territories to govern agriculture.
by the raya. 390. (b) In 1859, the British passed a Limitation Law that
378. (b) Aristocrat Muqrarab Khan was great favorite of Mughal stated that the loan bonds signed between moneylenders
Emperor Jahangier. Shaikh Hassan Hassu was the original and ryots would have validity for only three years.
name of Muqarrab Khan. The title of Muqarrab Khan was 391. (b) Ahmadullah Shah, famous as Maulavi of Faizabad,
given to him by Jahangier. He was a great physician and was one of the leading figures of the Indian Rebellion of
surgeon during the time of Jahangier. Jahangier made him a 1857. He was known by other names of Danka Shah and
mansabdar and appointed him the governor of three Subas. Nakkaar Shah.
He once operated successfully the surgery of Jahangier 392. (b) After annexation, the first British revenue settlement,
which made him the favorite of Jahangier. known as the Summary Set-tlement of 1856, was based on
379. (b) The Nawabs of Awadh were a clan of rulers that the assumption that the taluqdars were interlopers with
came from Persia in the early 18th century. Nawab Sa’adat no permanent stakes in land: they had established their
Ali Khan, the first in the dynasty came from Persia in 1724 hold over land through force and fraud.
and established the state of Awadh at a time when the 393. (b) Peter the Great of Russia was led to exclaim: "Bear in
Mughal empire was shrinking. Taking advantage of the mind that the commerce of India is the commerce of the
situation, he gained supremacy over Awadh and made world and … he who can exclusively command it is the
Faizabad the capital. dictator of Europe."
380. (c) Jean Baptiste Tavernier travelled to Varanasi in India, 394. (d) Abbe J.A. Dubois
in 1665. He described that houses and other structures 395. (c) With Indian Independence Act of 1947, the crown
were mostly made of mud and clay. Some had made use of was no longer the source of authority.
stones, slate and wood. Jean Baptiste Tavernier was a 396. (a) Muhammad ibn Musa al-Khwarizmi, formerly
traveller and gem merchant who made several voyages to Latinized as Algorithmi, was a Persian scholar who
Persia and India. produced works in mathematics, astronomy, and
381. (c) Fort William College was established on 18 August geography. He is given the credit of christening the
1800 by Lord Richard Wellesley (d. 1837), Governor General mathematical discipline of algorithm.
of India, in order to provide instruction in the vernacular 397. (a) Dewan Bahadur Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer (14
languages of India to the civil and military officials of the May 1883 - 3 October 1953) was an Indian lawyer and
East India Company. member of the Constituent Assembly of India, which was
382. (b) Amiya Kumar Bagchi used Buchanan’s tables as a responsible for framing the Constitution of India. He had
statistical database. He argued that Bihar experienced ultimate faith in Democratic form of government and was
significant deindustrialisation in the 19th century as a a supporter of separation of executive, legislature and
result of the colonial British presence. judiciary.
383. (c) Tea growing in India in 19 century was made possible 398. (d) In 1921, during a tour of South India, Gandhiji shaved
by Robert Fortune. Robert Fortune was a Scottish botanist, his head and began wearing a khadi dhoti, rather than
plant hunter, and traveler. He was best known for he had mill-made cloth imported from abroad, in order to identify
History 107
with the poor. Gandhiji encouraged other nationalist Supreme Being. Many modern academics place the
leaders who dressed in western clothes to adopt Indian Azhwar date between 5th century to 10th century CE,
attire. however traditionally the Azhwar are considered to have
399. (c) Hill stations were a distinctive feature of colonial lived between 4200 BCE - 2700 BCE.
urban development. They became strategic places for 406. (d) The noble gases (helium, neon, argon, krypton, xenon,
billeting troops, guarding frontiers and launching and radon) are also gases at STP, but they are monatomic.
campaigns against enemy rulers. Simla (present day Helium is a member of the noble gases which means it has a
Shimla) was founded during the course of the Gurkha filled outer shell of electrons.
War (1815-16). 407. (b) In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three
400. (b) "A Muslim Raj here and a Hindu Raj elsewhere, if other carbon atoms in the same plane giving a hexagonal
that is what Pakistan means, I will have nothing to do with array. One of these bonds is a double-bond, and thus the
it." Sikander Hayat Khan was opposed to the partition of valency of carbon is satisfied.
India. 408. (b) The Government of India Act 1919 was passed to
401. (b) The Greek travellers highly praised the fertility of expand participation of Indians in the government of
Indian soil and favourable climate condition describing India. The Act embodied the reforms recommended in
the principal agricultural products of the land. They also the report of the Secretary of State for India, Edwin
affirm that India has a double rainfall and the Indians Montagu, and the Viceroy, Lord Chelmsford. The Act
generally gather two harvests. - Megasthenes witnesses covered ten years, from 1919 to 1929. This Act represented
- the sowing of wheat in early, winter rains and of rice, the end of benevolent despotism (the act of authorities
‘bosporum’, sesamum and millets in the summer solstice. enhancing themselves) and began the genesis of
The people of ancient India knew the use of manure. responsible government in India.
Thus both the explanations are individually true. 409. (b) The Four Pillars is a research programme set up
402. (a) The adoption of the Non- Cooperation resolution by in 1987 by the Geneva Association, also known as
the Congress gave it a new energy and from January 1921, the International As sociation for the Study of
it began to register considerable success all over India. Insurance Economics. The aim of the Four Pillars
Gandhi along with Ali Brothers undertook a nation-wide research programme is to study the key importance
tour during which he addressed hundreds of meetings. in the n ew s ervice economy of Socia l Security,
In the first month, 9,000 students left schools and Insurance, Savings and Employment. The programme
colleges and joined more than 800 national institutions focu s es o n th e fut u r e of p en s ion s , w e l far e a n d
that had sprung up all over the country. The educational employment. The Geneva Association launched its
boycott was particularly successful in Bengal under the Four Pillars resea rch progra mme w ith a view to
leadership of Chitta Ranjan Das and Subhas Chandra identifying possible solutions to the issue of the
Bose. Punjab, too, responded to the educational boycott future financing of pensions and more generally, to
and Lala Lajpat Rai played the leading role. In Punjab, organising social security systems in our post-
the Akali movement was a part of the general movement industrial societies. Demographic trends - especially
of Non-Cooperation. increased life and health expectancy - could be seen
403. (b) Oudh Kisan sabha (or) Awadh Kisan sabhawas as positive if we were able to devise ways of enabling
formed by Jawaharlal Nehru , Baba Ramachandra and “ageing in good-health populations” to make a valid
several others It was formed by October 1920. The economic and social contribution to the functioning
movement was against talukdars and landlords who of our service economies over the decades to come.
demanded from peasants exorbitantly high rents and a The concept of four pillar state free from district
variety of other cesses. The Oudh Kisan Sabha asked magistracy for India was suggested by Ram Manohar
the kisans to refuse to till bedakhli land, not to offer hari Lohia.
and begar (forms of unpaid labour), to boycott those 410. (c) The meeting of Ashoka with Nigrodha the son of
who did not accept these conditions and to solve their Sushima his elder brother is a turning point in Emperor
disputes through panchayats. Ashokas life. Two incidents made Ashoka realize the path
404. (c) In the united provinces, an agricultural region with of ahimsa and Buddhism. Samudra was a Buddhist monk.
a largely rural population, it was the agrarian system Samudra taught him the doctrines of Buddha and Ashoka
which modelled the character of the non co-operation proclaimed his faith into that.
and anti non-co-operation movements. This region 411. (b) Narayana Bhatta Goswami was a disciple of Shri
became strongest base of the Congress. Under the Krishna Dasa Brahmachari, coming in the line of
leadership of JM Sengupta the whole of Eastern Bengal Gadadhara Pandit Goswami. Narayana Bhatta was
was in ferment. But the best organised of the village completely attached to Vraja bhumi. He saw no difference
movements was the anti-Union Board agitation in between the transcendental name, form, pastimes, and
Midnapur led by Birendranath Sasmal. dhama of Vrindavana. He always relished the pastimes of
405. (a) The azhwars also spelt as alwars or Alvar, those Radha-Gopinatha in the association of rasika Vaishnavas.
immersed in god were Tamil poet-saints of South India Constantly, he wandered through the twelve forests of
who espoused bhakti (devotion) to the Hindu god Vishnu Vraja mandala. He uncovered many lost Deities and re-
or his avatar Krishna in their songs of longing, ecstasy established Their worship. He also revealed many of
and service. They are venerated especially in Radha-Shyamasundara’s pastime places. Quoting Varaha
Vaishnavism, which regards Vishnu or Krishna as the Purana, he compiled Vraja-bhakti-vilasa, a detailed
EBD_7341
108 History
guidebook of Vraja Mandala. In this book he reveals his The Institute was originally called the Agricultural
identity as Narada Muni. For this and other books he is Research Institute (ARI).
known by the Vrajavasis as the Vrajacharya. His Samadhi 418. (c) The Chandimangal is an important subgenre of
is in Unchagoan, the village of Shrimati Lalita-sakhi, mangalkavya, the most significant genre of medieval
located just near Shrimati Radharani’s palace in Barshana. Bengali literature. The texts belonging to this subgenre
412. (c) The Nayanars were a group of 63 saints (also saint eulogize Chandi or Abhaya, primarily a folk goddess, but
poets) in the 6th to 8th century who were devoted to the subsequently identified with Puranic goddess Chandi. This
Hindu god Shiva in Tamil Nadu. They, along with the identification was probably completed a few centuries
Alwars, their contemporaries who were devoted to Vishnu, before the earliest composition of the Chandimangalkavya.
influenced the Bhakti movement in Tamil. The names of Most of the texts of this subgenre comprises two unrelated
the Nayanars were first compiled by Sundarar. narratives. The narrative of Kalketu and Phullara is known
413. (a) Babur, Mughal emperor, was a follower of Naqshbandi as the Akhetik Khanda (hunter section), and the narrative
Sufi saint Khwaja Ubaidullah Ahrar. Explanation: of Dhanapati and his wives, Lahana and Khullana is known
Nassiruddin Ubaidullah Ahrar or Khwaja Ahrar was a as the Banik Khanda (merchant section).
member of Naqshbandi Sufi spiritual order of Central Asia. 419. (b) It was the start of the civil disobedience movement
He was deeply involved in the political, economics, and which commenced as Mahatma Gandhi broke the salt
social activities of Transaxonia law on the coastal town of Dandi on the Arabian Sea on
414. (a) in the Cornwallis Code of 1793, collectors lost their April 5. Dandi March is also known as Namak Satyagrah
judicial powers and reverted to the business of collecting or Salt Satyagrah. Sodium chloride is the chemical name
alone. The code abolished the distinction between civil for salt.
and revenue causes and gave the district courts the power 420. (c) The flag of India was hoisted by Jawaharlal Nehru
to hear all civil causes. The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 on 31 December 1929 on the banks of Ravi river, in Lahore,
was designed to better control the Vernacular Press and to modern-day Pakistan. The Congress asked the people of
empower the Government with more effective means of India to observe 26th of January as Independence Day
punishing and repressing seditious writings. The Indian (see Legacy). The flag of India was hoisted publicly
Factories Act was enacted in 1881. The Indian Councils across India by Congress volunteers, nationalists and
Act 1909, commonly known as the Morley-Minto or Minto- the public.
Morley Reforms, was an Act of the Parliament of the United 421. (b) Gandhi claimed that the Congress alone represented
Kingdom that brought about a limited increase in the political India; that the Untouchables were Hindus and
involvement of Indians in the governance of British India. should not be treated as a “minority”; and that there
415. (d) Dutt Bradely Thesis Was also known as “The Anti- should be no separate electorates or special safeguards
Imperialist People’s Front in India” written by Rajni Palme for Muslims or other minorities. These claims were
Dutt and Ben Bradley. Both of them were leaders of the rejected by the other Indian participants. According to
Communist Party of Great Britain. In this document, while this pact, Gandhi was asked to call off the Civil
giving an analysis of the situation prevailing in India at Disobedience Movement (CDM) and if he did so the
that time, they also project the strategic alliance that would prisoners of the British government would be freed except
be required in the struggle against imperialism as well as the criminal prisoners, i.e. those who had killed British
the tactical approach that will have to be worked out in officials. He returned to India, disappointed with the
different stages. The role of the various classes in this results and empty-handed.
struggle against imperialism and the varied forms to be 422. (b) Gaganendranath Tagore, along with his brother
adopted, the role of the working class in the struggle as Abanindranath, is known for founding the Indian Society
well as the necessity of its intervention enabling it to acquire of Oriental Art in 1907. This ISOA, sponsored by
the leadership of the struggle in the process, has been Europeans, much popularized Tagore’s Bengal School,
pointed out. as well as art and crafts of other Asian nations.
416. (c) Under British Rule, there were three main types of 423. (b) The Destruction of ‘The Forty’: Even when Balban
land tenure systems in India. They were Zamindars, worked as the Naib of Sultan Nasir-ud-din, he tried to
Mahalwari and Rayatwari. ... Under this system, the lands break up the power of the group of ‘the forty’ (Turkan-i-
of a village or few villages was held by one person or few Chihalgani) as he regarded it necessary to restore the
joint owners who were responsible for payment of land powers of the Sultan. When he himself became the Sultan,
revenue to the Government. he used every means to achieve this aim.
417. (a) Foundation of Agricultural Research Institute was 424. (a) Changez khan did not cross indus to attack India.
laid by Lord Curzon, The institute was established in 1905 425. (b) AbulHasan 1618 “Jahangir’s Dream of embracing
at Pusa, Bihar, with the financial assistance of Henry Shah ‘Abbas” --Jahangir, on the right, hugs Shah Abbas,
Phipps, Jr., an American philanthropist. Phipps was a family the Safavid ruler of the Persian empire.
friend of Lady Curzon, the daughter of an American 426. (a) The was a military unit within the administrative
millionaire, and the wife of Lord Curzon, the Viceroy of system of the Mughal Empire introduced by Akbar. The
India. Phipps stayed as a guest of the Curzons during his word mansab is of Arabic origin meaning rank or position.
visit to India. More importantly, Phipps left behind with The system determined the rank and status of a
them a donation of $30,000, which was used to establish government official and military generals. Every civil and
the institute. He laid the foundation stone of the military officer was given a mansab, which determined
Agricultural Research Institute and college on 1 April 1905. their salaries and allowances. The term manasabadar
History 109
means a person having a mansab. Akbar introduced the 431. (a) The Tattwabodhini Sabha was a group started in
ranks of zat and sawar in the system. Different views Calcutta on 6 October 1839 as a splinter group of the
have been expressed regarding these terms. According Brahmo Samaj, reformers of Hinduism and Indian Society.
to Blochmann, every mansabdar had to maintain as many On 6 October 1839 Devendranath Tagore established
soldiers as were indicated by his rank of zat while the Tattvaranjini Sabha which was shortly thereafter renamed
rank of sawar indicated the number of horsemen among the Tattwabodhini (Truth-seekers) Sabha. Initially
them. confined to immediate members of the Tagore family, in 2
427. (d) The emperor called himself as Gauthamiputra years it mustered over 500 members.
Satakarni which meant Gauthami’s son Satakarni. 432. (c) It began with the Portuguese, who went to West
Gauthami referred to his mother, Gauthami Balashri. The Africa in search of gold. The first Europeans to come to
Satavahanas, also known as the Andhras were an ancient Africa’s West Coast to trade were funded by Prince
Indian empire whose rule lasted from 1st century BCE to Henry, the famous Portuguese patron, who hoped to
2 century CE. bring riches to Portugal.
428. (a) The Stone Age is the period of time defined by the 433. (c) The evolution of the Federal Court from Sir Hari
use of stone tools by human and our hominin ancestors. Singh GOUT’S first resolution urging the creation of an
We can divide this further into the Paleolithic (Old Stone all-India judicial tribunal in 1921 to the embodiment in
Age), Mesolithic (Middle Stone Age) and Neolithic (New the Government of India Act of 1935 of provisions for
Stone Age). In each of these periods, life in India grew the establishment of the Federal Court.
and changed in different ways, setting the stages for 434. (a) HridyaNathKunzru (1 October 1887 – 3 April 1978),
advanced civilizations later to come. a Kashmiri Pandit, was a freedom fighter and Indian public
429. (c) Siyar-ul-Mutakhkherin a voluminous historical work figure. He was a long-time Parliamentarian He was a
by Sayyid Ghulam Husain Tabatabai. He produced the member of the Constituent Assembly of India (1946–50)
work during the days of the fall of Muslim rule in Bengal that drew up the Constitution of India.[1] He was also
(and also in India). Born in Delhi in 1140 AH/ 1727-28 AD keenly interested in international affairs and co-founded
in an aristocratic Muslim family, the author was well the Indian Council of World Affairs and the Indian School
connected with the ruling elite of the time and completed of International Studies.
his work in 1781 AD, almost a quarter of a century after SevaSamiti was founded by another prominent member
the battle of plassey (1757 AD). of the Servants of India Society, Hridayanath Kunzru.
430. (b) Viscount Palmerston, (20 October 1784 – 18 October 435. (a) On November 29, 1947 the Government of India
1865) was a British statesman who served twice as Prime signed a standstill agreement with the Nizam of
Minister in the mid-19th century. Palmerston dominated Hyderabad, under which it was decided to give one year’s
British foreign policy during the period 1830 to 1865, time for both sides to arrive at an amicable solution. The
when Britain was at the height of its imperial power. He Nizam privately hoped that he could continue as an
held office almost continuously from 1807 until his death independent ruler. September 17 marks seventy years of
in 1865. He began his parliamentary career as a Tory, Hyderabad’s union with India in 1948, thirteen months
defected to the Whigs in 1830, and became the first after India gained independence that the state of
Prime Minister of the newly formed Liberal Party in 1859. Hyderabad ruled by Mir Osman Ali Khan.
As Home Secretary, Palmerston enacted various social
reforms, although he opposed electoral reform.
EBD_7341
110 Geography
5 Geography
1. Among the following forest types in India, which one 10. River Luni originates near Pushkar and drains into which
occupies the largest area? [2007-I] one of the following? [2007-II]
(a) Tropical wet evergreen forest (a) Rann of Kachchh (b) Arbian Sea
(b) Tropical moist deciduous forest (c) Gulf of Cambay (d) Lake Sambhar
(c) Sub-tropical dry evergreen forest 11. The Great Barrier Reef is located in which country? [2007-II]
(d) Montane wet temperate forest (a) Chile (b) Australia
2. The National Forestry Action Plan aims to bring 33% of (c) USA (d) Indonesia
land area in India under tree cover by which year? [2007-I] 12. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) 2008 (b) 2012 [2007-II]
(c) 2016 (d) 2020
3. The reservoir GB Pant Sagar is located on which river? Headquarters of Railways Zone City
[2007-I] A. South-Western Hubli
(a) Betwa (b) Ghaghara
B. North-Western Jaipur
(c) Kosi (d) Rihand
4. Which one of the following national parks is located near C. Western Mumbai
Chamoli? [2007-I] D. Central Jabalpur
(a) Dudhwa National Park
(b) Great Himalayan Park 13. Which one of the following is correct? The Palghat Gap
(c) Jim Corbett National Park serves inland communications from [2007-II]
(d) Nanda Devi National Park (a) Madurai to Thiruvananthapuram
5. Which one of the following cities is located on the banks (b) Chennai to Kochi
of the River St Lawrence? [2007-I] (c) Pune to Mumbai
(a) Chicago (b) Detroit (d) Bangaluru to Mangalore
(c) Montreal (d) Vancouver 14. Which one of the following states has built the famous
6. Match the following [2007-II] Gandhi Sagar across the Chambal River? [2007-II]
(a) Rajasthan (b) Maharashtra
List-I List-II (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh
(Centre of Economic Activity) (Country) 15. What is 'Operation Kolleru' that was recently in the news?
[2007-II]
A. Edmonton 1. Australia (a) A massive river linkage project
B. Kimberley 2. South Africa (b) A project to improve a wetland
(c) A project to supply drinking water to a mega city
3. Cardiff 3. United Kingdom (d) A rural drinking water supply scheme of a southern state
4. Cairns 4. Canada 16. Which country among the following has the largest
cultivated area of cotton in the world? [2007-II]
Codes: (a) Egypt (b) India
A B C D A B C D (c) Pakistan (d) USA
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 17. Consider the following statements [2007-II]
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 2 3 1 1. Dakshin Gangotri is India's second scientific manned
7. Which of the following straits is not in Asia? [2007-II] station in Antarctica after Maitri.
(a) Malacca Strait (b) Bass Strait 2. The National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean
(c) Formosa Strait (d) Molucca Strait Research is situated at Goa.
8. What is the other name for the equatorial rain farests? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[2007-II] (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Lianos (b) Campos (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Gran Chaco (d) Selvas 18. In the Cauvery River water dispute, which one of the
9. Which of the following seas/gulfs are connected by the following groups of states are concerned? [2007-II]
Suez Canal? [2007-II] (a) Kerala and Karnataka only
(a) The Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea (b) Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra
(b) Gulf of Oman and the Red Sea (c) Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Union Terrtory of
(c) The Mediterranean Sea and the Gulf of Oman Puducherry
(d) Persian Gulf and the Arabian Sea (d) Kerala, Goa, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
Geography 111
19. Which one of the following districts does not have a gold 29. What is mixed farming? [2008-I]
field? [2007-II] (a) Growing of several crops in a planned way
(a) Anantpur (b) Kolar (b) Growing rabi as well as kharif crops
(c) Raichur (d) Vishakhapatnam (c) Growing several crops and also rearing animals
20. What is the approximate life expectancy for males in India (d) Growing of fruits as well as vegetables
on the basis of data for the year 2006? [2007-II] 30. Match the following [2008-I]
(a) 56 years (b) 58 years
(c) 64 years (d) 68 years List-I List-II
21. Which one of the following is the capital of Cambodia? (Celestial Body) (Roman God)
[2007-II] A. Mercury 1. God of the Underworld and Death
(a) Ho Chi Minh city (b) Hanoi B. Pluto 2. God of Commerce. Eloquence and Skill .
(c) Semarang (d) Phnom Penh C. Mars 3. God of the Sea
22. Match the following [2007-II] D. Neptune 4. God of War
List-I List-II Codes:
(Ethnic Community) (State) A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 4 1 3
A. Apatani 1. Arunachal Pradesh
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
B. Bhutia 2. Madhya Pradesh 31. Consider the following statements [2008-I]
C. Gond 3. Manipu 1. Dinosaurs roamed the Earth during the Mesozoic Era.
2. All Dinosaurs and other reptiles such as
D. Meiti 4 Sikkim Ichthyosaurus and Pterosaurus became extinct due
Codes: to unknown reasons in Triassic Period.
A B C D A B C D Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 1 4 2 3 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
23. Which one of the following countries is not situated in 32. How many hours of daylight does the equator experience
the region between the Caspian Sea and the Black Sea? on September equinox? [2008-I]
[2007-II] (a) 8 hours (b) 9 hours
(a) Armenia (b) Azerbaijan (c) 10 hours (d) 12 hours
(c) Georgia (d) Ukraine 33. Consider the following statements [2008-I]
24. Match the following [2007-II] 1. Currently three waterways ham been declared as the
national waterways of India.
List-I List-II 2. The Sadiya-Dhubri stretch of river Brahmaputra is
(Wild life) (State) the longest national waterway.
A. Wild Ass 1. Kerala Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
B. Lion Tailed Macaque 2. Asom Macaque (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
C. Hoolock Gibbon 3. Gujarat DIRECTION (Q. 34) : The following question consists of two
A B C A B C statements one labelled as ‘Assestion (A)’ and the other as
(a) 1 3 2 (b) 2 1 3 ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully
(c) 3 1 2 (d) 3 2 1 and select the correct answer to this question using the codes
25. At which one of the following places, East-West corridor given below. [2008-I]
connecting Silchar and Porbandar and North-South
corridor connecting Sri Nagar and Kanyakumari intersect Codes:
each other? [2008-I] (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(a) Jhansi (b) Agra (b) Both A and B are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Jabalpur (d) Nagpur (c) A is true, but R is false.
26. Which one of the following is included in the world list of (d) A is false, but R is true.
biosphere reserves by UNESCO? [2008-I] 34. Assertion (A) The percentage of the Earth's surface
(a) Kinnaur Region (b) Spiti Valley covered by India is 2.4%.
(c) Nallamalai Hills (d) Sunderbans Reason (R) On the Mercator's map of the world, India is
27. Which one of the following groups of animals are shown much smaller than Canada. [2008-I]
primates? [2008-I] 35. Consider the following statements [2008-I]
(a) Giraffes and zebras (b) Kangaroos and koalas 1. The Golden Quadrilateral connects the four major
(c) Lemurs and lorises (d) Rabbits and hares cities of Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata.
28. Who among the following was the first European to 2. The North-South corridor will pass through Hyderabad.
encounter the cocoa plant, from which chocolate is made? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[2008-I] (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Christopher Columbus (b) John Cabot
(c) Hernando Cortez (d) De Leon (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
EBD_7341
112 Geography
36. Which one of the following is the oldest oil refinery in 48. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the
India? [2008-I] nuclear power plants of India in the increasing order of
(a) Haldia (b) Koyali their installed power generation capacity? [2008-II]
(c) Digboi (d) Mathura (a) Rawatbhata-Narora-Kaiga-Tarapur
37. Which of the following divides India into northern and (b) Narora-Kaiga-Rawatbhata-Tarapur
Southern parts? [2008-I] (c) Kaiga-Tarapur-Narora-Rawatbhata
(a) Equator (b) Tropic of cancer (d) Tarapur-Narora-Kaiga-Rawatbhata
(c) Tropic of capricorn (d) Arctic circle 49. Which one of the following has geographical position of
38. Which one of the following iron and steel plants was 0° latitude and 0° longitude? [2008-II]
established with the British collaboration? [2008-I] (a) In the South Atlantic Ocean
(a) Bhilai (b) Rourkela (b) In the Mediterranean Sea
(c) Bokaro (d) Durgapur (c) In Ghana, a West African country
39. Consider the following statements [2008-I] (d) At Greenwich Observatory in England
The South-West monsoon originates in India due to DIRECTIONS (Qs. 51-53) : The following questions consist of
1. low pressure in the Punjab plain. two statements, one labelled as 'Assertion (A)' and the other
2. high pressure in areas South of India. as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements
3. equatorial low being filled up by descending air current. carefully and select the correct answers to these questions
4. the Himalayas. using the codes given below. [2008-II]
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 Codes:
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
40. Which one of the following countries is not a UN (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
member country? [2008-I] (c) A is true, but R is false
(a) Greece (b) Taiwan (d) A is false, but R is true
(c) Portugal (d) Australia 50. Assertion (A) The equatorial regions bulge outwards
41. Which waterway separates India from Sri Lanka?[ 2008-I] by about 21 km compared to poles.
(a) 8° Channel (b) Palk Strait Reason (R) Earth's slow rotation reduces the effect of
(c) 10° Channel (d) Andaman Sea gravity around the equator.
42. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? 51. Assertion (A) It is easier to swim in sea water compared
[2008-I] to ordinary water.
Reason (R) Density of sea water is higher than that of
Country Currency
ordinary water.
A. Myanmar Baht 52. Assertion (A) In temperate cyclones, winds below from
B. Thailand Qyat the periphery towards its centre.
C. Cambodia Riel
Reason (R) There is high pressure in the centre of
temperate cyclone.
D. Vietnam Rupiah 53. Which one of the following is correct?
43. Which one of the following is the correct order in which Great bear is a [2008-II]
the following cities are located from West to East? (a) Galaxy (b) Planet
[2008-I] (c) Star (d) Constellation
(a) Alwar-Gorakhpur-Ranchi-Bhagalpur 54. Which one of the following is a global biodiversity
(b) Bhagalpur-Ranchi-Alwar-Gorakhpur hotspot in India? [2008-II]
(c) Ranchi-Alwar-Bhagalpur-Gorakhpur (a) Western Ghats (b) Western Himalayas
(d) Gorakhpur-Bhagalpur-Ranchi-Alwar (c) Eastern Ghats (d) Northern Himalayas
44. Which one of the following peaks is the highest?[2008-I] 55. In which one of the following places is the headquarters
(a) Nanda Devi (b) Kanchenjunga of North-Eastern Railway located? [2008-II]
(c) Godwin Austin (d) Nanga Parbat (a) Guwahati (b) Gorakhpur
45. With which one of the following countries, India shares (c) Kolkata (d) Bhuvneshwar
maximum length of the border? [2008-I] 56. The boundary between North Korea and South Korea is
marked by which one of the following? [2008-II]
(a) Bangladesh (b) Pakistan
(a) 16 Parallel (b) 29 Parallel
(c) China (d) Nepal (c) 38 Parallel (d) 49 Parallel
46. Which one of the following diagrams shows the direction 57. Match the following [2008-II]
and duration of wind? [2008-I]
(a) Cartogram (b) Climogram List-I List-II
(c) Ergograph (d) Star diagram
(Place) (Industry)
47. Which one of the following is correct?
The mean distance from the Sun to the Earth is called a/ A. Muzaffarnagar 1. Cotton textiles
an [2008-II] B. Adoni 2. Sugar
(a) Light year (b) Parallactic second C. Ranchi 3. Sports goods
(c) Astronomical unit (d) Angstrom
D. Jalandhar 4. Engineering goods
Geography 113
Codes: Codes:
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 3 4 2 (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 4 3 2 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 4 1 3
58. Which of the following tributaries of the Ganga System 70. For which one of the following is Sualkuchi famous?
flows Northwards? [2008-II] [2008-II]
(a) Kosi (b) Ghaghara (a) Bird sanctuary (b) Temple city
(c) Gandak (d) Sone (c) Silk centre (d) Hill station
59. For which one of the following is planimeter used? 71. In which one of the following countries is the volcano
[2008-II] 'Guallatiri" located? [2008-II]
(a) To know the surface area on a map (a) Peru (b) Chile
(b) To know the distance on a map (c) Tanzania (d) Ecuador
(c) To know the direction on a map 72. The Island of Honshu is located in which one of the
(d) To know the height of places on a map following countries? [2008-II]
60. The city of Nasik is situated on the bank of which one of (a) Indonesia (b) Malaysia
the following rivers? [2008-II] (c) Japan (d) South Korea
(a) Krishna (b) Mandovi 73. Which one of the following rivers flows into the Arabian
(c) Godavari (d) Tapti Sea? [2008-II]
61. Rihand Valley Project is located in which one of the (a) Indravati (b) Godavari
following states? [2008-II] (c) Cauvery (d) Narmada
(a) Odisha (b) Gujarat 74. Match the following [2008-II]
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
62. Which one of the following states has the largest forest List-I List-II
area to its total land area? [2008-II] A. Slate 1. Igneous rock
(a) Mizoram (b) Arunachal Pradesh
B. Lignite 2. Metamorpric rock
(c) Sikkim (d) Jammu and Kashmir
63. What is the correct order of occurrence of the following C. Bauxite 3. Non-ferrous mineral
places as one moves from East to West? [2008-II] D. Granite 4. Sedimentary rock
(1) Murshidabad (2) Gorakhpur
(3) Bhopal (4) Bhavnagar Codes:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below A B C D A B C D
(a) 2, 4, 3, 1 (b) 1, 3, 4, 2 (a) 1 3 3 2 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 4 3 2
64. Which one of the following Indian states does not have a 75. Which one of the following places is famous for
common international border with Bangladesh? [2008-II] production of railways coaches? [2008-II]
(a) Manipur (b) Paschim Banga (a) Nasik (b) Kapurthala
(c) Tripura (d) Asom (c) Kanpur (d) Kochi
65. 28.38° N and 77.12° E are the respective latitude and longitude 76. The hill station of Coonoor is located in which one of the
of which one of the following places? [2008-II] followng states? [2008-II]
(a) Jaipur (b) Delhi (a) Karnataka (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Lucknow (d) Allahabad (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu
66. Mist is a result of which one of the following [2008-II] 77. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Condensation (b) Evaporation [2008-II]
(c) Sublimation (d) Saturation (a) All meridians run in a ture North-South direction
67. In which one of the following states is Ranganathittu Bird (b) Meridians are spaced farthest apart at the equator
Sanctuary located? [2008-II] and converge to common points at the poles
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala (c) All meridians are always parallel to one another
(c) Karnataka (d) Andhra Pradesh (d) An indefinite number of meridians may be drown on
68. Pattadakal group of monuments are located in which one a globe
of the following states? [2008-II] 78. In which of the following State is Kakrapar Nuclear Power
(a) Bihar (b) Odisha Station located? [2008-II]
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Karnataka (a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu
69. Match the following [2008-II] (c) Maharashtra (d) Gujarat
79. Madhya Pradesh shares its border with how many States?
Lis t-I Lis t-II [2009-I]
A . A u ran gabad 1. A urov ille (a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
B. Guwahati 2. Sarn ath 80. In which one of the following places is the Forest Survey
C. Pud uch erry 3. Ellora temples of India (FSI), a national organisation engaged in forest
D. Varan as i 4. Nilanch al hills cover mapping, forest inventory and training in the field
of remote sensing and GIS, located? [2009-I]
EBD_7341
114 Geography
(a) Dehradun (b) Itanagar 89. Which one of the following lakes in India has the highest
(c) Ahmedabad (d) Aizawl water salinity? [2009-I]
81. Which one of the following is the longest national (a) Dal (b) Chilila
highway in India? [2009-I] (c) Wular (d) Sambhar
(a) NH 2 (b) NH 7 90. Match the following [2009-I]
(c) NH 8 (d) NH 31
82. Which one of the following states is the largest producer List-I List-II
of black pepper in India? [2009-I] River Tributary
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala A. 1. Musi
(c) Karnataka (d) Andhra Pradesh B. Krishna 2. Tawa
83. The shaded area in the map given below is the major
producer of which one of the following? [2009-I] C. Narmada 3. Bhavani
D. Cauveri 4. Dikhow
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 1 2 4
91. Which one of the following is the oldest mountain range
in India? [2009-I]
(a) Himalayas (b) Aravalli
(c) Satpura (d) Nilgiri
92. Which one of the following longitudes determines the
Indian sandard time? [2009-I]
(a) Cotton (b) Groundnut (a) 85.5° E (b) 86.5° E
(c) Wheat (d) Mustard (c) 84.5° E (d) 82.5° E
84. Which one of the following oil fields of India is the oldest 93. Match the following [2009-I]
and still producing oil? [2009-I]
(a) Bombay High (b) Digboi List-I List-II
(c) Ankleshwar (d) Naharkatiya (Pass) (State)
85. Which one of the following States of India is the largest A. Zoji La Pass 1. Sikkim
producer of lignite coal? [2009-I]
(a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat B. Bara Lacha Pass 2. Uttarakhand
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu C. Jelep La Pass 3. Himachal Preadesh
86. Match the following [2009-I] D. Niti Pass 4. Jammu and Kashmir
List-I List-II Codes
(Multi purpose River Projects) (Hydel Power Station) A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 2 3 1 4
A. Rihand 1. Hirakund
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 3 4
B. Gandak 2. Balmikinagar 94. In which one of the following islands of India is an active
C. Chambal 3. Pip ri volcano found? [2009-I]
D. Mahanadi 4. Kota (a) Car Nicobar Island (b) Nancowry Island
Codes (c) Barren Island (d) Maya Bunder Island
A B C D A B C D 95. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 2 4 3 [2009-I]
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 4 2 3 Country Currency
87. Which of the following sequences of the oil refineries of A. Brazil Reals
India as they occur from South to North is correct? [2009-I]
(a) Kochi-Mangalore-Mumbai-Koyali B. China Yuan
(b) Koyali-Mumbai-Mangalore-Kochi C. Mexico Pesos
(c) Kochi-Mumbai-Mangalore-Koyali D. Thailand Ringgit
(d) Mangalore-Kochi-Mumbai-Koyali
88. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? 96. In which one of the following is higher percentage of
[2009-I] carbon found? [2009-I]
(a) Lignite coal (b) Peat coal
River City (c) Bituminous coal (d) Anthracite coal
A . Gomuti Luckn o w 97. Which one of the following is the tide produced as a
consequence of Moon and Sun pulling the Earth in the
B. Saryu A yo dh ya
same direction? [2009-I]
C. A lakanan da Bad rin ath (a) Spring tide (b) Neap tide
D. Narmad a Satn a (c) High tide (d) Low tide
Geography 115
98. Which one of the following is an object with such a strong (a) Mesosphere (b) Troposphere
gravitational field that even light cannot escape from its (c) Stratosphere (d) Ionosphere
surface? [2009-I] 108. A collection of gas dust which appears as a bright ball of
(a) Neutron Star (b) White Dwarf light in the sky with a glowing tail is called [2009-II]
(c) Black hole (d) Supernova Star (a) Star (b) Comet
99. Because of which one of the following factors, clouds do (c) Constellation (d) Galaxy
not precipitate in deserts? [2009-I] 109. Which of the following factors is/are responsible for high
(a) Low pressure (b) Low humidity concentration of jute mills in the Hugli basin?
(c) High wind velocity (d) High temperature Select the correct answer using the code given below
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 100-103) : The following questions consist [2009-II]
of two statements, one labelled as 'Assertion (A)' and the other 1. Nearness to coal fields.
as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements 2. Convenient dry climate for spinning and weaving.
carefully and select the correct answers to these questions (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
using the codes given below. [2009-I] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
110. High spring tides occur at new Moon and full Moon
Codes because the [2009-II]
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (a) Moon and Earth are at right angles
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is the correct explanation of A (b) Sun and Moon are at right angles
(c) A is true, but R is false (c) Sun, Earth and the Moon are in straight line
(d) A is false, but R is true (d) Sun and Earth are at right angles
100. Assertion (A) Water in an open pond remains cool even 111. Leaching is the maximum in the soil type of [2009-II]
on a hot summer day. (a) Laterite (b) Red
Reason (R) Water on heating evaporates and heat energy (c) Regur (d) Desert
gets converted into latent heat. 112. Match the following [2009-II]
101. Assertion (A) Physiological density is preferable to
arithmetic density as an index of population density. List-I List-II
Reason (R) Physiological density is based on arable land (Place) (Famous for)
while arithmetic density is based on total area.
102. Assertion (A) Despite low evaporation and stable A. Balaghat 1. Oil field
stratification ofthe atmosphere, salinityis high in polar regions. B. Katni 2. Iron ore
Reason (R) Sea water freezes leaving the remaining water
C. Singrauli 3. Manganese
saline than before.
103. Assertion (A) Venus is the brightest object in the sky D. Kalol 4. Bauxite
after the Sun. 5. Coal
Reason (R) Venus is the second planet from the Sun in
our solar system. Codes:
104. Consider the following regions of India A B C D A B C D
1. Western Ghats 2. Aravalli Hills (a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 4 5 1
3. Eastern Himalayas (c) 3 5 4 1 (d) 1 2 5 3
Which of the above is/are biodiversity hot spot/hot spots? 113. Sal trees are the typical species of [2009-II]
[2009-I] (a) Tropical rain forest
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (b) Tropical monsoon forest
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above (c) Taiga forest
105. Which one of the following is categorised as millet? (d) Tundra forest
[2009-I] 114. Which one of the following regions is culturally closer to
(a) Wheat (b) Rice India but ethnically closer to China? [2009-II]
(c) Sorghum (a) Maize
106. Consider the following statements (a) Central Asia (b) West Asia
1. National parks are a special category of protected (c) Polynesia (d) South-East Asia
areas of land and sea coasts where people are an 115. Consider the following statements
integral part of the system. 1. In the month of July, the Inter Tropical Convergence
2. Sanctuaries are concerned with conservation of Zone is located in the Indo Gangetic plain.
particular species. 2. Northen Inter Tropical Convergence Zone is the
3. Biosphere reserves are connected with the habitat zone of clouds and heavy rainfall.
of a particular wild animal. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [2009-II]
[2009-I] (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3 116. The ageing index in India has increased from 14% in 1951
107. Which one of the following zones of the atmosphere is to > 21% in 2001. With respect to this which of the following
rich in ozone gas? [2009-I] effects is/are correct?
EBD_7341
116 Geography
1. Decline in the proportion of child population. 125. Israel has common borders with [2009-II]
2. Increase in the proportion of old population. (a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt
Select the correct answer from the codes given below (b) Turkey, Syria, Jordan and Yemen
[2009-II] (c) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) Cyprus, Turkey, Jorden and Egypt
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 126. Which continent of the world does not have a desert?
117. Which water body separates Australia from New Zealand? [2009-II]
[2009-II] (a) Australia (b) Europe
(a) Cook Straits (b) Megallan (c) Asia (d) North America
(c) Tasman Sea (d) Great Barrier Reef 127. The hill range that separates the State of Manipur from
118. In a significant climate responsive project, in which one the State of Nagaland is known as [2009-II]
of the following places recently an abandoned thermal
power plant has been converted into a mega solar power (a) Arakan hills (b) Patkai hills
enerating station which poised to give a huge fillip to (c) Barail hills (d) Manipur hills
India's renewable energy ambition? [2009-II] 128. What is the correct sequence of the location of the following
(a) Talcher (Odisha) sea ports of India from South to North? [2009-II]
(b) Namrup (Asom) (a) Cochin, Thiruvananthapuram, Calicut, Mangalore
(c) Jamuria (Paschim Bangal) (b) Calicut, Thiruvananthapuram, Cochin, Mangalore
(d) Jaisalmar (Rajasthan) (c) Thiruvananthapuram, Cochin, Calicut, Mangalore
(d) Thiruvananthapuramr Calicut, Mangalore, Cochin
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 119-120) : The following questions consist of
129. In the map given above four petrochemical centres are
two statements, one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as
marked with numbers. Match them with the following four
'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully
places and select the correct answer using the code given
and select the answers to these questions using the codes given
below [2009-II]
below. [2009-I]
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
of A 1
(c) A is true, but R is false 2
(d) A is false, but R is true 3
119. Assertion (A) The Himalayan meadows are suitable for
transhumance.
Reason (R) In these areas transport facility to move from 4
one place to another is good. [2009-II]
120. Assertion (A) Convectional rains occur during pre- A. Koyali B. Trombay
monsoon summer in India. C. Jamnagar D. Mangalore
Reason (R) Such rains occur due to adiabatic cooling. A B C D A B C D
[2009-II] (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
121. Consider the following statements [2009-II] (c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 4 3 2 1
1. Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest national park 130. Which one of the following countries is located South of
of india. the equator? [2009-II]
2. It was one of the nine tiger reserves created at the (a) Cameroon (b) Sudan
launch of the Project Tiger in 1973.
3. Initially it was named as 'Hailey National Park'. (c) Nigeria (d) Rwanda
Which of the statements given above are correct? 131. Consider the following statements
(a) 1 and 2 (b) All of these 1. Suez Canal is an important link between developed
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 countries and developing countries.
122. What is the name of the strait where 'Adams bridge' is 2. It joins the Mediterranean Sea with the Gulf of Suez
situated? [2009-II] 3. It is not a sea level canal.
(a) Bering Strait (b) Cook Strait Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(c) Palk Strait (d) Taiwan Strait [2009-II]
123. Radio waves are reflected back to Earth from the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
[2009-II]
(a) Troposphere (b) Exosphere (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1
(c) Stratosphere (d) Ionosphere 132. The channel separating the Andaman Island from the
124. The pacific Islands from new Guinea South East-wards Nicobar Islands is known as [2009-II]
to the Fiji Islands' group is called [2009-II] (a) Coco channel (b) 10° channel
(a) The Polynesia (b) The Mellanesia (c) Duncan passage (d) somboraro channel
(c) The Micronesia (d) The Autralasia
Geography 117
133. Match the following [2009-II] (b) winds blowing from the subtropical high-pressure
belts towards the subpolar low-pressure belts
List-I List-II (c) narrow meandering bands of swift winds which blow
(River) (Source) in the midlatitudes near the tropopause and encircle
A. Ganga 1. Amarkantak the globe
(d) winds blowing from the subpolar low-pressure belts
B. Son 2. Gaumukh towards the subtropical high-pressure belts
C. Godavari 3. Mahabaleshwar 143. The concept of sustainable development relates to
D. Krishna 4. Trimbakeshwer [2010-I]
(a) consumption levels
Codes: (b) exhaustible resources
A B C D A B C D (c) social equity
(a) 1 2 4 5 (b) 2 1 3 4 (d) intergenerational equity
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3 144. An Earthquake epicentre is the [2010-I]
134. At high altitudes, pressure cooker is preferable for cooking, (a) point where the seismograph is located
because the boiling point of water [2010-I] (b) point within the Earth where the movement along
(a) reduces due to higher atmospheric pressure the fault occurs
(b) reduces due to lower atmospheric pressure (c) approximate centre of a group of related Earthquakes
(c) increases due to reduced gravitational force (d) point on the surface directly above where the rupture
(d) reduces due to increased ozone content in the atmosphere along the fault zone occur
135. Which one of the following does not have a heavy water 145. Which of the following seas are enclosed?
plant? [2010-I] 1. Andaman Sea 2. Arab Sea
(a) Narora (b) Sriharikota 3. Sea of Azov 4. Bering Sea
(c) Kakrapar (d) Kota Select the correct answer using the codes given below
136. Which one of the following trains/railways passes through [2010-I]
Germany, France, Austria, Hungary and Romania? [2010-I] (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(a) Trans-Siberia (b) Cape-Cairo (c) 2 and3 (d) 1 and 4
(c) Orient Express (d) Union and Central Pacific 146. Match the following [2010-I]
137. Which one of following projects of the NHPC (National
Hydroelectric Power Corporation) has the largest power List-I List-II
generation capacity (installed)? [2010-I] (Sphere of the (Main Constituent of
(a) Baira-Siul (b) Chamera-1 Earth) the Sphere)
(c) Loktak (d) Salal
A. Lithosphere 1 Living objects
138. Deltas are common in India for the East-flowing river
systems, whereas they are nearly absent on the West B. Hydrosphere 2 Mixture of gases
coast, because West-flowing rivers [2010-I] C. Atmosphere 3 Water
(a) are few
(b) have lesser water volume and carry less run-off silt D. Biosphere 4 Soil
(c) originate in dry areas Codes:
(d) originate largely in the Western Ghats and have short A B C D A B C D
distance to cover to the sea (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 3 1
139. Which of the following statements with regard to rainfall (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
in India is/are correct? 147. Bolivar is the monetary unit of [2010-I]
1. Most of the rainfall in India is due to the South-West (a) Venezuela (b) Brazil
monsoon. (c) Bolivia (d) Belarus
2. In South India, rainfall decreases away from the 148. The time at Cairo is 2 hours ahead of Greenwich. Hence, it
Eastern Chats. is located at [2010-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 30°W longitude (b) 30°E longitude
[2010-I] (c) 28°E longitude (d) 28°W longitude
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 149. Which is the correct arrangement of the following rivers
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 from North to South? [2010-I]
140. Tsunamis are not caused by [2010-I] (a) Godavari, Penner, Cauveri, Periyar
(a) hurricanes (b) Earthquakes (b) Penner, Godavari, Periyar, Cauveri
(c) undersea landslides (d) volcanic eruptions (c) Godavari, Cauveri, Penner, Periyar
141. If the movement of the Earth's crust or a major climatic (d) Cauveri, Godavari, Periyar, Penner
change makes an old stream young, it is called [2010-I] 150. Consider the following features of a border district of India
(a) consequent stream (b) rejuvenation and identify the district using the code given below Situated
(c) subsequent stream (d) aggradation at the height of 10000 feet, which is enchanted with scenic
142. The jet streams are [2010-I] beauty, the district is surrounded by two nations in the
(a) wind systems with a pronounced seasonal reverse North and South-West. River Nyamjangchu runs through
at a direction it. Potato, maize and millet are the main crops of the district.
EBD_7341
118 Geography
Besides monasteries, tourist attractions of the district and Arrange the above place from North to South using the
its surrounding places include Sella Pass, PTSO, War code given below [2010-II]
memorial, Jaswant Garh etc. Losar is one of the prominent (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
festivals of the district. [2010-I] (c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 2, 1, 3, 4
(a) Lohit (b) Tawang 159. Which one of the following is a correct sequence in the
(c) Kangra (d) West Sikkim increasing order of salinity concentration? [2010-II]
151. Which among the following Rajdhani trains covers the (a) Gulf of California, Baltic Sea, Red Sea, North Sea
longest distance? [2010-I] (b) Baltic Sea, North Sea, Gulf of California, Red Sea
(a) 2433 Chennai Central (c) Red Sea, Gulf of California, North Sea, Baltic: Sea
(b) 2431 Trivandrum Central (d) North Sea, Gulf of California, Baltic Sea, Red Sea
(c) 2435 Dibrugarh Town 160. Which among the following pairs are correct? [2010-II]
(d) 2429 Bangluru City Junction
1. Cirque and Col Glacial topography
152. Which one of the following places is not located on the
bank of river Ganga? [2010-I] 2. Barkhans and Yardans Desert topography
(a) Uttarkashi (b) Kanpur 3. Eddies and Potholes Fluvial topography
(c) Fatehpur (d) Bhagalpur
153. On the above map of India, the shaded districts are those Select the correct answer using the code given below
in which a particular tribal group constitutes more than (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
50% of the tribal population. What is that particular tribal (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
group? [2010-I] 161. Which among the following states of India have common
borders with Pakistan? [2010-II]
(a) Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab and
Rajasthan
(b) Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir, Rajasthan and Gujarat
(c) Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan
(d) Puniab, Himachal Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan
162. Which of the following factors influence ocean currents?
1. Rotation of the Earth. 2. Air pressure and wind.
3. Ocean water density 4. Revolution of the Earth
(a) Gonds (b) Bhils [2010-II]
(c) Nagas (d) Santhals (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
154. Which one of the following is not associated with (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
monsoon climate in India? [2010-I] 163. Consider the following statements
(a) El Nino temporary warm currents 1. A hurricane acquires its spin from the coriolis effect.
(b) South-equatorial warm currents of Indian Ocean 2. The diameter of the hurricane decreases as it moves
(c) Western disturbances away from low latitudes.
(d) Cyclones of Bay of Bengal 3. The diameter of a hurricane is never below 150 km.
155. Which one of die following statements is not correct Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
regarding the Himalayas? [2010-I] [2010-II]
(a) Hmalayas have nappe and recumbent folds (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(b) Himalayas rose up from the Tethys Sea (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
(c) Himalayas contain three mountain ranges-Siwaliks, 164. Which of the following three rivers of the peninsula India
Great Himalayas and kunlun Ranges have the Amarkantak region as their source? [2010-II]
(d) The orogeny took place in the Tertiary Era (a) Narmada, Krishna Godavari
156. Which one of the following statements on biosphere (b) Son, Mahanadi, Narmada
reserves is not correct? [2010-I] (c) Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery
(a) In 1971, UNESCO launched a worldwide programme (d) Chambal. Betwa, Luni
on man and biosphere 165. Consider the following statements
(b) Biosphere reserves promote research on ecological 1. The Earth does not move along its orbit at a constant
conservation rate.
(c) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is located in Madhya 2. The Earth moves fastest at perihelion and slowest at
pradesh aphelion.
(d) Biosphere reserves are multipurpose protected areas The above statements are true of which one of the
to preserve the genetic diversity in ecosystems following laws? [2010-II]
157. If the earth did not have an atmosphere, temperature (a) Kepler's second law
extremes between day and night would [2010-I] (b) Newton's second law of motion
(a) increase (b) decrease (c) Ohm's law
(c) stay the same (d) fluctuate rapidly (d) Newton's law of gravitation
158. Consider the following places of Kashmir region 166. Which one of the following countries does not have a
(1) Sri Nagar (2) Gilgit border with China? [2010-II]
(3) Kargil (4) Banihal
Geography 119
(a) Myanmar (b) Afghanistan (c) Benguela : Cold ocean current
(c) Thailand (d) Kazakhstan (d) Oyashio : Cold ocean current
167. Te Earth moves around the Sun in an elliptical trajectory due 176. Which of the following statements with regard to the
to gravity. If another Sun like star is brought near the Earth, expansion of the desert in Rajasthan is/are corrrect?
what will be the shape of the trajectory? [2010-II] 1. The predominant wing direction in Rajasthan is
(a) Ellipse North-East to South-West, so the tendency for
(b) Parabola desertification has been more in that direction.
(c) Circle 2. The Thar desert is dominantly a monsoon driven
(d) It will be undeterministic sand desert where wind erosion is a major problem
168. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the during the summer months. While the Aravalli range
following topographical features found from upper to is a major barrrier in the spread of the desert, ram part
lower course of a river? [2010-II] mining creating cuts in the range is leading to the
(a) Ox-bow lake-Rapids-Estuary spread of the desert.
(b) Rapids-Estuary-Ox-bow lake Select the correct answer using the code given below
(c) Rapids-Ox-bow lake-Estuary [2010-II]
(d) Estuary-Ox-bow lake-Rapids (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
169. During the Indian monsoon season [2010-II] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) the Westerly jet stream alone exists in the Indian region 177. Which of the following statements is/are correct with
(b) the Easterly jet stream alone exists in the Indian region respect to the Chilean Earthquake (February 2010)?
(c) both Westerly and Easterly jet streams exist in the 1. Scientists estimated that the Earth’s axis of rotation
Indian region had moved by 3 inches due to the earthquake.
(d) both Westerly and Easterly jet streams disappear 2. Santa Maria island off the cost near Concepcion, Chile’
170. Which one among the following is not a Baltic nation? second larget city, may have been raised by 2 m.
[2010-II] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Lativia (b) Slovakia [2010-II]
(c) Lithuania (d) Estonia (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
171. Which one of the following mountain ranges separates (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Europe from Asia? [2010-II] 178. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the
(a) Apenine (b) Black Forest given tiger reserves of India from North to South? [2010-II]
(c) Ural (d) Sulaiman (a) Dudwa-Kanha-Indravati-Bandipur
172. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of (b) Kanha-Bandipur-Dudwa-Indravati
increasing velocity of wind? [2010-II] (c) Indravati-Kanha-Dudwa-Bandipur
(a) Light breeze-Fresh breeze-Gale-Hurricane (d) Dudwa-Kanha-Bandipur-Indravati
(b) Fresh breeze-Light breeze-Hurricane-Gale 179. Match the following [2010-II]
(c) Light breeze-Gale-Fresh breeze-Hurricane
(d) Hurricane-Light breeze-Gale-Fresh breeze
173. The Earth is an oblate spheroid and not a perfect sphere. List-I List-II
This is because [2010-II] (Reg ion) (Characteristic Vegetation)
l. the Earth has a rotational motion and the rotational
speed increases as one goes from the poles A. Selvas 1. Mosses and Lichens
towards the equator. B. Savanas 2. Epiphytes
2. the equator experiences greater gravitational pull
from the sun. C. Tundra 3. Tropophytes
3. the intensity of sunlight received at the equator is D . Monsoon lands 4. Grasses and trees
greater than that at the poles.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes:
[2010-II] A B C D A B C D
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 1 4 3
174. Which one among the following is the idealised global DIRECTIONS (Qs. 180-181) : The following questions consist
pattern of surface wind from the Equator to Pole? of two statements, Stastement I and Statement II. you are to
[2010-II] examine these two statements carefully and select the answers
(a) Doldrum-Westerlies-Trade Wind-Easterlies to these questions using the code given below.
(b) Easterlies-Westerlies-Trade Wind-Easterlies
(c) Doldrum-Trade wind-Westerlies-Easterlies Codes: [2010-II]
(d) Westerlies Trade Wind-Doldrum-Easterlies (a) Both the statements are individually true and
175. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
[2010-II] (b) Both the statements are individualy true, but Statement
(a) Kuroshio : Warm ocean current II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Labrador : Warm ocean current (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement ll is true
EBD_7341
120 Geography
180. Statement I Most of the East flowing rivers over the (d) In winter season, the duration of day is more in
Deccan plateau have deltas at their mouth. Southern Hemisphere
Statement II These rivers have courses through soft rocks 190. Global Positioning System (GPS) is associated with
of the Deccan plateau. [2011-I]
181. Statement I Wind is deflected to the right in Northern 1. determining latitude and longitude
Hemisphere and to the left in Southern hemisphere from 2. constellation of satellites
its normal course. 3. US system of GPS and Russian system of GLONASS
Statement II Earth rotates from West-to-East. 4. navigation
182. What is the characteristic feature of Narmada Valley? Select the correct answer using the codes given below
[2010-II] (a) 1,2 and 4 (b) 1 and 4
(a) Volcanic origin (b) Structural origin (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(c) Glacial origin (d) Aeolian origin 191. The angular speed of a whirlwind in a Tornado towards
183. Which one of the following places with petrochemical the centre [2011-I]
industries is most westward located in India? [2010-II] (a) decreases rapidly (b) increases
(a) Kota (b) Nagpur (c) remains constant (d) slowly becomes zero
(c) Barauni (d) Ujjain 192. Currently half of the world's population live in just 6
184. The agricultural production in different parts of India is countries. Identify them from the following [2011-I]
very much affected by varying intensities of floods and (a) India, China, Pakistan, Brazil, Bangladesh, Indonesia
droughts. Which one of the following measures would (b) India, China, Bangladesh, South Africa, Pakistan, Indonesia
not be sustainable in this respect? [2010-II] (c) China, India. United States, Indonesia, Brazil,
(a) Provision for extensive irrigation facilities Pakistan
(b) Change in the crop calendar (d) China, India, Bangladesh, United States, Pakistan,
(c) Avoidance of flood and drought prone areas for Indonesia
agriculture 193. In the interior of the Earth [2011-I]
(d) Emphasis on selection of crops best suited to flood (a) the temperature falls with increasing depth
and drought conditions (b) the pressure falls with increasing depth
185. The term 'demographic gap' signifies the difference (c) the temperature rises with increasing depth
[2011-I] (d) both temperature and pressure fall with increasing depth
(a) in sex ratio 194. Asia has large areas of inland drainage. Why is it so?
(b) in age [2011-I]
(c) in child / woman ratio (a) Rainfall is seasonal and scanty
(d) between the birth and the death rate (b) There is a number of intermontane plateaus
186. Most of the communication satellites today are placed in (c) River channels are obstructed by lava flows
a geostationary orbit. In order to stay over the same spot (d) It is a very large continent
on the Earth, a geostationary satellite has to be directly 195. The Earth revolves around the Sun in an elliptical path
above the [2011-I] and the Sun is located at one focus of the ellipse. Imagine
(a) Tropic of Cancer a situation in which the Earth goes around the Sun on a
(b) Either North or South Pole circular path. Which one among the following would result
(c) Equator in under that situation? [2011-I]
(d) Tropic of Capricorn (a) It would not make and difference
187. Wind is often found to blow in a hot summer day due to (b) Difference between seasons will be reduced
[2011-I] (c) The earth would become very hot
(a) conduction of heat between air and soil on the Earth (d) The Earth would become very cold
(b) radiation from the soil 196. Match the following [2011-I]
(c) convection current of air
(d) None of the above List-I List-II
188. What is the similarity between Milwaukee Deep, Java (Natural Vegetation of India) (Annual Rainfall Received)
Trench and Challenger Deep? [2011-I] A. Tropical evergreen fo rests 1. 100-200 cm
(a) They all are trenches in the Pacific Ocean
(b) They are the deepest points of the Atlantic, Indian B. Tropical deciduous forests 2. Above 200 cm
and Pacific Oceans, respectively C. Tropical dry forests 3. Less than 50 cm
(c) They all are trenches in the India Ocean D. Arid forests 4. Above 300 cm
(d) They all are deeps of the Atlantic Ocean 5. 50-100 cm
189. Which one among the following statement is correct?
[2011-I]
(a) In summer season, the duration of day is more in Codes
A B C D A B C D
Northern Hemisphere
(a) 1 2 5 3 (b) 4 3 1 5
(b) In winter season, the duration of day is more in
Northern Hemisphere (c) 2 1 5 3 (d) 2 1 3 4
(c) In summer season, the duration of day is less in 197. Which among the following monoculture crops provide(s)
Northern Hemisphere immediate cash to the farmers? [2011-I]
Geography 121
1. Tea in Asom 2. Rubber in Africa Mumbai to Frankfurt (non-stop)
3. Sugarcane in Malaysia 4. Coffee in Brazil Frankfurt to Sao Paulo (non-stop)
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 Sao Paulo to Buenos Aires (non-stop)
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 Which one of the following seas will likely to be flown
198. Why South-East Asia has the largest concentration of over by Mr X ?
peasant population at the global scale? [2011-I] (a) Tasman Sea (b) Labrador Sea
(a) The area is dominated by shifting cultivation due to (c) Beautfort Sea (d) Black Sea
favourable terrain character 205. The rainfall distribution pattern over the Ganga basin
(b) Intensive subsistence farming is practised in the region decreases from the [2011-I]
(c) The region has favourable and healthier climate (a) West to East and North to South
(d) The area has a large forested area which is cleared (b) East to West and North to South
for cultivation of various crops (c) West to East and South to North
199. Match the following [2011-I] (d) East to West and South to North
206. Consider the following statements with regard to the
List-I List-II mining industry of India [2011-I]
(Biosphere Reserve) (Places) 1. The spatial distribution of minerals is uneven.
2. The mining industry since colonial days has been
A. Manas 1. Meghalaya
export-oriented.
B. Pachmarhi 2. Asom Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
C. Nokrek 3. Madhya Pradesh (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
D. Achanakmar Amarkantak 4. Chhattisgarh (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
207. Consider the following statements about black soil of India
Codes [2011-I]
A B C D A B C D 1. Black soil becomes sticky when it is wet.
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 2 1 3 4 2. Black soil contains adequate nitrogen as well as
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 2 3 1 4 phosphorus required for the growth of plants.
200. Which one among the following best explains the reason Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
for the Eastern and Western boundaries of the Pacific (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Ocean experiencing frequent earth-quake? [2011-I] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) There are deep ocean trenches along these margins 208. Match the following [2011-II]
(b) High mountain stretch along the continental margins
adjacent to this ocean
(c) The currents of the vast Pacific Ocean continue to List-I List-II
dash against the continental margins (Local wing) (Area of Prevalence)
(d) These margins coincide with the plate margins A. Chinook 1. North Affrican desert
201. Which of the following best explain why the lower course of Rocky mountain slopes
a river is sometimes chocked with sediments? [2011-I]
1. The valley of a river is widest in its lower course. B. Foehn 2. of the USA
2. The velocity of a river in its lower course is low. C. Sirocco 3. Northern slopes of Alps
3. The delta sometimes develops in a river's lower course. D. Mistral 4. Sourthern slopes of Alps
4. Much of the river water is drawn for irrigation in the
lower course Codes:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. A B C D A B C D
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 1 2
202. The Vindhyan system of rocks is important for the 209. Arrange the following oil refineries of India from west to
production of [2011-I] East [2011-II]
(a) precious stones and building materials 1. Koyali 2. Bongaigaon
(b) iron ore and manganese 3. Mathura 4. Haldia
(c) bauxite and mica Select the correct answer using the code given below
(d) copper and uranium Codes:
203. Why do Fold Mountains have enormous thickness of (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 4, 2
sedimentary rocks? [2011-I] (c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) 2, 4, 3, 1
(a) Due to deposition of sediments in a valley for millions 210. According to the Census 2011, which one among the
of years following Union Territories has the least population?
(b) Due to accumulation of sediments in a geosyncline [2011-II]
(c) The plains were folded into mountains (a) Daman and Diu
(d) The sediments were folded into recumbent and nappe folds (b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
204. Mr X has been invited to participate in a conference to be (c) Lakshadweep
held at Buenos Aires. He has choosen the following (d) Puducherry
shortest flight route [2011-I]
EBD_7341
122 Geography
211. Which of the following statements regarding red soils of 222. Which one among the following rivers does not flow into
India is/are correct? [2011-II] the Bay of Bengal? [2011-II]
1. The colour of the soil is red due to ferric oxide content. (a) Mahanadi (b) Cauveri
2. Red soils are rich in lime, humous and potash. (c) Tapti (d) Godavari
3. They are porous and have friable structure. 223. How many kilometres are represented by 1° of latitude?
Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 321 km (b) 211 km [2011-II]
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 111 km (d) 91 km
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 224. Name the Continents that form a mirror image of each
212. Horse latitudes lie within the atmospheric pressure belts other [2011-II]
of [2011-II] (a) North America and South America
(a) Polar high (b) Equatorial low (b) Asia and Africa
(c) Sub-tropical high. (d) Sub-polar low (c) Africa and South America
213. A nautical mile is equal to [2011-II] (d) Europe and Asia
(a) 5060 feet (b) 5280 feet DIRECTIONS (Qs. 225-226) : The following questions consist
(c) 6060 feet (d) 6080 feet of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to
214. The thermal equator is found [2011-II] examine these two statements carefully and select the answers
(a) at the equator to these questions using the code given below [2011-II]
(b) South of the geographical equator
(c) North of the geographical equator Codes
(d) at the tropic of cancer (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II
215. 'El Nino' associated with the formation of the South West is the correct explanation of Statement I
Monsoon of India is [2011-II] (b) Both the statements are individually true, but Statement II
(a) an abnormally warm ocean current is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) a periodic warm air-mass (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(c) a periodic warm wind (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
(d) a periodic low pressure centre 225. Statement I Anticyclone, which is a high pressure wind
216. Kanha National Park belongs to which one among the system, does not bring about significant change in weather
following biogeographical areas in the world? [2011-II] condition.
(a) Tropical Sub-humid Forests Statement II The outward movement of wind from the
(b) Tropical Humid Forests high pressure centre keeps limited scope for weather
(c) Tropical Dry Forests disturbance. [2011-II]
(d) Tropical Moist Forests 226. Statement I El Nino is a temperature rising phenomenon
217. The broken hills famous for zinc and lead are located in over the Pacific Ocean and usually causes dry monsoon
(a) Turkey (b) France [2011-II] in South Asia.
(c) Germany (d) Australia Statement II Tsunamis are usually not noticed as the
218. When we consider 15° meridian on a world map or globe massive ocean waves move silently but assume destructive
and count them in an Eastward direction starting with form as these travel through shallow waters of continental
Greenwich meridian (0°), we find that the time of this shelves. [2011-II]
meridian is [2011-II] 227. Renewable energy can be obtained from [2011-II]
(a) same as Greenwich (b) 1 hour fast (a) Fossils (b) Radioactive elements
(c) 1 hour slow (d) 12 hours fast (c) Biomass (d) Natural gas
219. Which of the following statements regarding ozone layer 228. Which one among the following is not an important factor
within the atmosphere is/are correct? [2011-II] of climate of an area? [2011-II]
1. It absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation found in (a) Latitude (b) Longitude
the Sun's rays. (c) Altitude (d) Distance from the sea
2. Chlorofluorocarbons are serious threat to the ozone layer. 229. South Pacific island nation Samoa, positioned to the East
Select the correct answer using the codes given below of the International Date Line, on May 2011 decided to
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 forego a day and shift to the time zone on its West. The
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 reason for this shifting is to [2011-II]
220. Climate change resulting in the rise of temperature may (a) facilitate smooth internal administration throughout
benefit which of the countries/regions? [2011-II] the country
(a) South Africa (b) attain political stability in the country
(b) East Indies islands comprising of Java, Sumatra and (c) facilitate trade with Australia and New Zealand
Borneo (d) promote tourism industry in the country
(c) The Western coasts of South America 230. Consider the following statements [2012-I]
(d) Russia and Northern Europe 1. Ozone is mostly found in the stratosphere.
221. Which one among the following cities never get the 2. Ozone layer lies 25 to 30 km above the surface of the
vertical rays of the Sun all through the year? [2011-II] Earth.
(a) Chennai (b) Mumbai 3. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.
(c) Kolkata (d) Srinagar 4. Ozone layer has no significance for life on the Earth.
Geography 123
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 240. Which one among the following is a source of methane
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 emission into the atmosphere? [2012-I]
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 (a) Automobile exhaust fume (b) Industrial chimney
231. Duncan Passage is located between [2012-I] (c) Mining (d) Wetland
(a) South and little Andaman 241. Over 90% of the world's biomass is in [2012-I]
(b) Little and Great Nicobar (a) tropical rain forests (b) freshwater wetlands
(c) North and Middle Andaman (c) topsoils (d) oceans
(d) Middle and South Andaman 242. Which one among the following is the type of the
232. Match the following [2012-I] Comoros Islands, which lie in the Indian Ocean between
Northern Madagascar and the African Coast? [2012-I]
List I List II (a) Volcanic (b) Glacial eroded
(Tiger Reserve) (State) (c) Eolian deposited (d) Folded
A. Indravati 1. Karnatka 243. Logically, what does a continually rising air pressure
B. Periyar 2. Odisha indicate? [2012-I]
(a) Advent of unsettled and cloudy weather
C. Simlipal 3. Kerala (b) Advent of a cyclone
D. Bandipur 4. Chhattisgarh (c) Fine and settled weather
(d) Fire and unsettled weather
Codes 244. The soil formed by wind dust in and around hot deserts is
A B C D A B C D called [2012-I]
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4 (a) silty soil (b) loamy soil
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 (c) sandy soil (d) loess soil
233. In wildlife conservation which one among the following 245. What are G arboreum, G herbaceum, G hirsutum and G
best defines an 'endemic species'? [2012-I] barbadense whose all the four species are cultivated in
(a) When the critical number of a species declines in a india ? (G = Gossypium) [2012-I]
forest due to parasitic attack (a) Species of wool (b) Species of cotton
(b) A species which is cosmopolitan and can be (c) Species of silk (d) Species of jute
commonly found in biosphere 246. What is the major role of a greenhouse gas that contributes
(c) An endangered species which is found in a few to temperature rise of the Earth's surface? [2012-I]
restricted areas on the Earth (a) Transparent to both incoming sunlight and outgoing
(d) A species confined to a particular region and not infrared radiation
found anywhere else (b) Stops both incoming sunlight and outgoing infrared
234. The distance between two consecutive longitudes (91°E radiation
and 92° E) at the Poles is [2012-I] (c) Lets outgoing infrared radiation pass through but
(a) 0 km (b) 18 km stops incoming sunlight
(c) 25 km (d) 111 km (d) Lets incoming sunlight pass through but stops
235. The country that shares longest border with India is outgoing infrared radiation
(a) China (b) Bangladesh [2012-I] 247. Lack of atmosphere around the Moon is due to [2012-I]
(c) Nepal (d) Pakistan (a) low escape velocity of air molecule and low gravitational
236. Which one among the following is not a landlocked attraction
country in Africa? [2012-I] (b) high escape velocity of air molecule and low gravitational
(a) Botswana (b) Zambia attraction
(c) Lesotho (d) Nigeria (c) low gravitational attraction only
237. The imaginary line on the Earth's surface that closely (d) high escape velocity of air molecule only
follows the 180° Meridian is [2012-I] 248. Which one among the following statements is correct with
(a) Prime Meridian (b) Equator regard to the C-5M Super Galaxy? [2012-I]
(c) International Date Line (d) Tropic of Cancer (a) It is a large military helicopter
238. Carbon dioxide is called a greenhouse gas because (b) It is a large military transport aircraft
[2012-I] (c) It is a galaxy of stars very close to the Sun
(a) its concentration remains always higher than other gases (d) It is a US fighter aircraft to be completed in 2014
(b) it is used in photosynthesis 249. If news is broadcast from London at 10 : 30 am, at what
(c) it absorbs infrared radiation . time it will be heard at Baghdad (45p E)? [2012-I]
(d) it emits visible radiation (a) 7 : 30 am (b) 9 : 00 am
239. Which one among the following statements is not correct? (c) 1 : 30 pm (d) 12 : 00 noon
[2012-I] 250. Which one among the following sequences of water
(a) Trophic dynamics represents the transfer of energy bodies, from lower to higher salinity concentration, is
from one trophic level to another in a food chain correct? [2012-II]
(b) In deeper parts of oceans, primary production remains (a) Gulf of California-Baltic Sea-Red Sea-Arctic sea
almost nil (b) Baltic Sea-Arctic Sea-Gulf of California-Red Sea
(c) The primary consumers are called autotrophs (c) Red Sea-Gulf of California-Arctic Sea-Baltic Sea
(d) The decomposes are called saprotrophs (d) Arctic Sea-Gulf of California-Baltic Sea-Red Sea
EBD_7341
124 Geography
251. Match the following [2012-II] 260. Consider the following statements [2012-II]
List I List II 1. Rural forestry aims to raise the trees on community
land and on privately owned land.
(Tribal Group) (State where Prodominantly
2. Farm forestry encourages individual farmers to plant
Located) trees on their own farmland to meet the domestic
A. Reang 1. Arunachal Pradesh need of the family.
B. Dimasa 2. Nagaland Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
C. Konyak 3. Tripura (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
D. Mishmi 4. Asom (c) Both 1and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Codes 261. Tank irrigation is practised mainly in Peninsular India
A B C D A B C D because [2012-II]
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 1 4 2 3 1. undulating relief and hard rocks make it difficult to
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 dig canals and wells
252. Rain bearing clouds look black because [2012-II] 2. rivers are rainfed
(a) all light is scattered by them 3. of compact nature of population and agricultural fields
(b) the large number of water droplets in them absorb all Select the correct answer using the codes given below
the sunlight Codes
(c) they reflect the sunlight back into the atmosphere (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(d) there is a lot of dust condensed on the water vapour (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
in such clouds
262. Match the following [2012-II]
253. Why do we have a leap year every four years?
[2012-II] Lis t I Lis t II
(a) The Earth gets shifted out of orbit every four year
(b) The revolution slows down a little once every four years (River) (Trib utary )
(c) The length of a year is not an integer number of days A . Gang a 1. Ch amb al an d Ken
(d) It is a convention B. Ind us 2. W ain g ang a an d Ind rav ati
254. The riverbank is weakest where the river turns. This is C. Yamu n a 3. Ch en ab and Su tlej
because water [2012-II]
(a) gets concentrated on the inner bank of the turn, D.Go davari 4. Go mti an d Ko s i
making it denser Codes
(b) effectively bounces off the outer bank as it turns
A B C D A B C D
exerting an extra pressure on the bank
(c) flows faster as it turns (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 4 3 1 2
(d) reacts more effectively with the bank at a turn (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 3 1 4
255. Which among the following cities of India will have mid 263. Farmers are requested to mix lime with soil while farming
day Sun exactly overhead only a year? [2012-II] their fields. This is because [2012-II]
(a) Delhi and Chennai (b) Srinagar and Darjeeling (a) lime is very helpful in maintaining the water content
(c) Hyderabad and Kohima (d) Nagpur and Kolkata in the soil
256. In absorption of insolation, the most significant part is (b) lime decreases the acidity of soil
played by [2012-II] (c) lime decreases the basicity of soil
(a) carbon dioxide (b) ozone (d) high concentration of lime is necessary for the plant
(c) oxygen (d) haze growth
257. The main aim of watershed management strategy of India 264. Which one among the following statements regarding
is [2012-II] Chinook winds is not correct? [2012-II]
(a) promoting silviculture (b) hillslope management (a) These are local winds
(c) arid land management (d) soil conservation
(b) They descend along the Eastern slopes of the rocky
258. Surface water resources are highest in [2012-II]
mountain in mid-latitudes
(a) Ganga plains (b) North-Eastern India
(c) Peninsular India (d) Indus plains (c) They bring lots of rain with them
259. Which of the following are responsible for the decrease of (d) They benefit agriculture
per capita holding of cultivated land in India? [2012-II] 265. There are three distinct characters of temperature
1. Low per capita income. stratification of atmosphere around the Earth. Which one
2. Rapid rate of increase of population. among the following is the correct arrangement of the
3. Practice of dividing land equally among the heirs. layers (from the Earth's surface upwards)? [2012-II]
4. Use of traditional techniques (a) Thermosphere - Stratosphere -Troposphere
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (b) Troposphere - Thermosphere - Stratosphere
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Troposphere - Stratosphere - Thermosohere
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Thermosphere- Troposphere - Stratosphere
Geography 125
266. Consider the following diagram [2012-II] 273. The expression South Asia usually includes [2013-I]
(a) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan
North Pole and SriLanka
(b) Nepal, Bhutan, India, Afghanistan, China, Pakistan
Horse Latitude and SriLanka
(c) Bangladesh, India, China, Nepal, Japan, Pakistan and
A Maldives
(d) Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, Maldives, Nepal,
Polar High Pressure Belts
Pakistan and Sri Lanka
South Pole 274. Match the following [2012-II]
List I List II
In the diagram given above, what does A denote ? (Hill Station) (Location in Map)
(a) Doldrums (b) Trade winds
(a) Westerlies (b) Easterlies A. Dharamsala 1
32
267. Ozone holes are more pronounced at the [2012-II] B. Almora
4
(a) Equator (b) Tropic of Cancer

(c) Tropic of Capricorn (d) Poles B. Nainital
268. Sargasso sea is characterised by [2012-II] D. Darjeeling
(a) very cold water (b) very warm water Codes
(c) highly saline water (d) typical marine A B C D A B C D
vegetation (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
269. Match the following [2012-II] (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3
List I List II 275. Arrange the following tributaries of river Brahmaputra
(Mineral) (Producing Centre in Map)
from West to East. [2012-II]
1. Lohit
2. Dibang
A. Copper
3. Subansiri
B. Mica 4. Tista
3 4
B. Chromite 1
Codes
D. Lignite 2
(a) 4, 3, 2, 1 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2
Codes (c) 3, 4. 2. 1 (d) 2, 4, 3. 1
A B C D A B C D 276. The variability among living organisms from all sources
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3 including terrestrial, marine and other ecosystems and
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2 the ecological complexes of which they are part which
includes diversity within species, between species of
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 270-272) : The following questions consist ecosystems refers to [2012-II]
of two statements. Statement I and Statement II. You are to (a) geographical diversity (b) zoological diversity
examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to (c) ecological diversity (d) biological diversity
these questions using the codes given below. [2012-II] 277. During the recent venus transit (June 2012) bracket, the
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II planet appeared as a tiny black circle moving on the Sun.
is the correct explanation of Statement I The black colour on the Sun is because the planet
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II [2012-II]
is not the correct explanation of Statement I (a) is black in colour
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (b) obstructed all light from the Sun
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true (c) was invisible due to bright rays from the Sun
270. Statement I Tsunami is small in open ocean yet may be
(d) behaved as a black hole during its transit
over 30 m high when it reaches a coastline.
Statement II Tsunamis have long wavelength and they 278. Gaddis are [2012-II]
travel across the open ocean at high speed. As they (a) fishermen of Kerala
approach shore, the wavelength decreases and the wave (b) pastoralists of Arunachal Pradesh
height increases. (c) shepherds Himachal Pradesh
271. Statement I The planet Neptune appears blue in colour. (d) nomads of Rajasthan desert
Statement II The presence of methane gas in the 279. The waves that help scientists to understand the internal
atmosphere of Neptune is responsible for its colour structure of the Earth are [2012-II]
272. Statement I Comets revolve around the Sun only in long (a) primary waves
elliptical orbits. (b) secondary waves
Statement II A comet develops a tail when it gets close to (c) surface waves
the Sun (d) longitudinal waves
EBD_7341
126 Geography
280. Match the following [2012-II] (a) 11:00 pm on Sunday (b) 12:00 noon on Sunday
List I (Biosphere (c) 1:00 am on Sunday (d) 11:00 pm on Saturday
289. Which one among the following statesments about the
Reserve) List II (State) International Date Line is not correct ? [2013-I]
A. Nilgiri 1. Odisha (a) The International Date Line is largely based on the
B.Manas 2. Madhya Pradesh 180° meridian
(b) The difference in time between the places just either
C. Panchmarhi 3. Tamul Nadu side of the International Date Line is almost 1 day
D. Simeslipal 4. Asom (c) The difference in time to the extent of 1 day on either
Codes side of the International Date Line is caused by
A B C D A B C D inclined axis of the Earth
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 1 4 2 3 (d) The International Date Line mostly passes through
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 1 2 4 3 the Pacific Ocean
281. Which among the following phenomenas can occur when 290. Which one among the following is not a cause of
very warm and humid air is rising over a mass of a very generation of ocean currents ? [2013-I]
cold air? [2012-II] (a) Planetary winds
1. Calm weather (b) Variation in ocean water temperature
2. Snowfall (c) Revolution of the Earth
3. Storms and cyclonic storms (d) Shape and configuration of the coastliness
4. Intense rain and hail 291. The highest of all spring tides occurs at the time of
Select the correct answer using the codes given below [2013-I]
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) full or new moon in association with winter solstice
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 (b) full or new moon in association with equinox
282. Which one among the following is called terrestrial planet? (c) full or new moon in association with summer solstice
[2012-II] (d) winter as well as summer solstices
(a) Mercury (b) Jupiter 292. Which parts of the Earth’s surface experience least
(c) saturn (d) Uranus variation in incoming solar radiation throughout the year?
283. Veliconda hills, which is a part of Eastern Ghats, is situated [2013-I]
in [2013-I] (a) Poles
(a) Odisha (b) Tamil Nadu (b) Equatorial regions
(c) Karnataka (d Andhra Pradesh (c) Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn
284. On which one among the following island, does the (d) Arctic and Antarctic circles
Negrito tribe called 'the Onge' live? [2013-I] 293. Which one among the following is a cold ocean current?
(a) North Andaman (b) Little Andaman [2013-I]
(c) Little Nicobar (d) Great Nicobar (a) Canary current (b) Brazil current
285. Match the following lists [2013-I] (c) Gulf stream (d) Kuroshio current
294. Match the following [2013-I]
List I List II List I List II
(Place) (Location in Map) (Dam) (River)
A. Kollam 1. A. Ukai dam 1. Beas
B. Tuticorin 2. . B. Bhakra dam 2. Krishna
B. Ongole 3. 3 C. Nagarjuna Sagar dam 3. Sutlj
2 1
D. Nellore 4. 4 D. Pandoh dam 4. Tapi (Tapti)
Codes Codes
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1 (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 1 3 4 2 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
286. The Karewas of Kashmir refers to which among the 295. The planetary winds that blow from the sub-tropical high
following types of deposits? [2013-I] pressure belts to the equator are known as [2013-I]
(a) Aeolian and glacial (b) Fluvial (a) westerlies (b) doldrums
(c) Lacustrine (d) Volcanic (c) polar winds (d) trade winds
287. Which one among the following is not an igneous rock? 296. Which one among the following Indian rivers originates
[2013-I] in Maharashtra and flows through Karnataka and Andhra
(a) Granite (b) Basalt Pradesh to meet the Bay of Bengal in Andhra coast?
(c) Gabbro (d) Gneiss [2013-I]
288. If the time of a place located on 165° E meridian is 11:00 pm (a) Mahanadi (b) Kaveri
on Sunday, what would be the time at the place located (c) Krishna (d) Godavari
on 165° W meridian? [2013-I] 297. Which of the following statements regarding recycling
is/ are correct? [2013-I]
Geography 127
1. Recycling is just the collection and separation of the 307. Red soil colour is caused by [2013-II]
waste materials. (a) aluminium compounds (b) mercury compounds
2. Recycling is the collection and separation of the (c} iron compound (d) clay
materials from the waste stream and their subsequent 308. Which of the following statements about Nathu la Pass
processing to produce a marketable product. are correct? [2013-II]
3. Recycling leads to reduction of waste disposal cost. 1. It links Sikkim with Tibet.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 2. It was the main artery of the ancient Silk Route.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 3. It was reopened in the year 2006.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 Select the correct answer using the codes given below
298. Nearly 30% of the solar radiations return back to the space (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
without contributing anything to the Earth's surface (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
temperature. This amount of radiation is known as[2013-I] 309. In soil, water that, is readily available to plant roots is
(a) Black body (b) tropopause [2013-II]
(c) Earth's albedo (d) mesopause (a) gravitational water (b) capillary water
299. Confirmation of the presence of Higgs Boson will justify (c) hygroscopic water (d) bound water
[2013-I] 310. Which of the following are true of matrilineal societies?
(a) both the standard model and superstring theory [2013-II]
(b) the unification of all the four fundamental forces 1. Newly married couple stays with the woman's parents.
(c) the steady-state model of the universe 2. As per the rules of inheritance, the property passes
(d) the mass of the fundamental particles from mother to daughter.
300. Which of the following gases in the atmosphere is/are 3. Women play a dominant role in the family.
responsible for acid rains? [2013-I] 4. Examples of matrilineal societies are those of the
1. Oxides of sulphur 2. Oxides of nitrogen Khasi and Jaintia tribes of Meghalaya.
3. Oxides of carbon Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
(c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 311. Which one among the following is a sea without having a
301. 'Global Dimming' means [2013-I] coastline? [2013-II]
(a) gradual increase of the temperature of ionosphere (a) North sea (b) Sargasso sea
(b) gradual loss of biodiversity hot spots (c) Baltic sea (d) Bering sea
(c) gradual reduction in the amount of global direct 312. Which one among the following is the correct sequence
irradiance at the Earth surface of the rivers from North to South? [2013-II]
(d) gradual increase in the melting of ice in polar regions (a) Damodar-Brahmani-Mahanadi-Tungabhadra
302. Oil is found in petroliferous rock. Which one among the (b) Damodar-Mahanadi-Brahmani-Tungabhadra
following structures demonstrates an ideal trap? (c) Brahmani-Tungabhadra-Damodar-Mahanadi
[2013-II] (d) Damodar-Brahmani-Tungabhadra-Mahanadi
(a) Horizontal structure (b) Fault structure 313. Which one among the following states does not form part
(c) Synclinal structure (d) Anticlinal structure of the Narmada basin ? [2013-II]
303. Which one among the following statements is not correct? (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Gujrat
[2013-II] (c) Rajasthan (d) Maharashtra
(a) Solar noon occurs simultaneously at locations with 314. The Circle of illumination divides Earth into two
the same longitude hemispheres known as [2013-II]
(b) One meridian, which is directly under the Sun, (a) East and West (b) North and South
experiences solar noon at a given time (c) Day and night (d) Summer and Winter
(c) Places having same longitude experience solar noon 315. Which one among the following African countries is not
at different times landlocked? [2013-II]
(d) Solar noon occurs at different times at locations with (a) Zambia (b) Uganda
the same latitude (c) Angola (d) Zimbabwe
304. Amarkantak plateau in the Maikal hills marks the origin of 316. Consider the following sanctuaries of India [2013-II]
the river [2013-II] 1. Periyar 2. Dachigam
(a) Gandak (b) Chambal 3. Sariska 4. Kanha
(c) Narmada (d) Ghaggar Which one among the following is the correct sequence
305. The westerlies have their origin in the [2013-II] of location of the above sanctuaries from South to North?
(a) polar highs (b) subtropical highs (a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 4, 1, 3, 2
(c) equatorial lows (d) sub polar lows (c) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2
306. Mid-latitude cyclones [2013-II] 317. Satellite having the same orbital period as the period of
(a) usually move across North-America from East to West rotation of the Earth about its ouwn axis is known as
(b) are generally found only over the ocean [2013-II]
(c) generally bring clear skis and little precipitation (a) polar satellite (b) stationary satellite
(d) are formed in regions of strong temperature contrasts (c) geostationary satellite (d) INSAT
EBD_7341
128 Geography
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 318-319) : The following questions consist 2. Temple and Caves at Ellora.
of two statements. Statement I and statement II. You are to 3. Mandapas of Mahabalipurarn.
examine these two statements carefully and select the answers 4. Caves of Kanheri.
to these questions using the code given below. [2013-II] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
Codes (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(a) Both the statements are individually true and 326. Match the following [2013-II]
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true, but List I List II
Statement II is not the correct explanation of (Industrial production) (Place of production)
Statement I
A. Brassware 1. Kanchipuram
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true B. Silk Sarees 2. Lucknow
318 Statement I Southern part of France is famous for wine C. Chikkan Embroidery 3. Muradabad
making industry.
Statement II Southern part of France produces a variety D. Sports Goods 4. Jalandhar
of fruits due to Mediterranean climate. Codes :
319. Statement I Typical laterite soils in India are generally A B C D A B C D
fertile. (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 4
Statement II Laterite soils generally experience leaching. (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 1 2 3
320. Which one among the following is responsible for 327. Cordillera in North America is a [2013-II]
formation of Ozone Holes' in the stratosphere? (a) river basin (b) high plateau
[2013-II] (c) inland lake (d) mountain system
(a) Benzopyrene (b) Hydrocarbons 328. The humidity of air measured in percentage is called
(c) Chloro Fluoro Carbons (d) UV radiation [2013-II]
321. Match the following [2013-II] (a) absolute humidity (b) specific humidity
List I List II (c) relative humidity (d) all of these
(Hydroelectric power station) (Location in map) 329. Chinook is a [2013-II]
(a) cold wind in Europe
A. Nagarjuna Sagar
(b) tropical desert storm in West Asia
B. Mettur (c) warm wind in North-America
4.
C. Hirakund 3. .
2 (d) depression to South Africa
1.
D. Sileru 330. Which one of the following dams is constructed across
Codes : Krishna River? [2013-II]
A B C D A B C D (a) Ukai Dam (b) Krishna Sagar Dam
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 3 1 4 2 (c) Srisailam Dam (d) Mettur Dam
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3 331. Veliconda group of low hills is a structural part of
322. Albedo effect would be relatively higher in [2013-II] [2014-I]
(a) early morning and late evening (a) Nilgiri Hills (b) Western Ghats
(b) early morning only (c) Eastern Ghats. (d) Cardamom Hills
(c) noon 332. Match the following [2014-I]
(d) late evening only
323. Why is Himalayan region poor in mineral resources? Lis t I Lis t II
[2013-II] (Irrigation /Power Pro jects ) (Riv er)
(a) Himalayan region is made up of crystalline rocks A . Bhakra Nan gal 1. Bh ag irathi
(b) Displacement of rock strata has disturbed the B. Dul Has ti 2. M ah anadi
arrangement of rocks and made it complex. C. Hirakun d 3. Ch an dra
(c) The climatic conditions are not suitable for D. Tehri 4. Su tlej
exploration of minerals
(d) The rugged terrain makes exploration of minerals Codes
difficult and costly A B C D
324. Composite volcanic cone is also called strata cone because (a) 4 2 3 1
of the [2013-II] (b) 4 3 2 1
(a) alternating sheets of lava and pyroclastic materials (c) 1 3 2 4
(b) uneven streams of lava flow (d) 1 2 3 4
(c) cataclysmic eruption 333. Biodiversity is richer in [2014-I]
(d) eruption of lava flow from a fissure (a) tropical regions
325. Which of the following are UNESCO recognised world (b) polar regions
heritage sites? [2013-II] (c) temperate regions
1. Caves of Ajanta. (d) oceans
Geography 129
334. Match the following [2014-I] 4. There would be torrential rains brought by
thunderstorms.
List I List II Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(Hydroelectric power station) (Location in the map) (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
A. Srisailam (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these
B. Sabarigin 342. On November 8, 2013, many people died in Philippines
1.
after a super typhoon ravaged the country. What was the
C. Hirakud 2.
3.
name of the typhoon? [2014-I]
D. Sileru 4.
(a) Haiyan (b) Utor (c) Phailin (d) Nesat
Codes 343. 'Population dividend' refers to [2014-I]
A B C D A B C D (a) total number of population
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 (b) youthful age structure of a population
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 1 4 3 (c) relatively high proportion of experienced aged people
335. Which one of the following is a land-locked harbour? (d) migration from richer region to poorer region
[2014-I] 344. The vegetation type characterised by (i) a large expanse
(a) Vishakhapatnam (b) Ennore of grassland with scattered trees and shrubs, (ii) lying
(c) Mumbai (d) Haldia between tropical rain forest and tropical steppes and
336. Which of the following is/are the stage(s) of demographic deserts and (iii) flat-topped trees, is called [2014-I]
transition? [2014-I] (a) mid-latitude broad-leaf mixed forest
1. High death rate and birthrate, low growth rate. (b) temperate rain forest
2. Rapid decline in birthrate, very low (c) tropical savanna
3. Rapid decline in birthrate continued decline in death rate. (d) mid-latitude grassland
4. Low death rate and birthrate, low growth rate. 345. Which of the following statements relating to Earthquakes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below is/are correct? [2014-I]
(a) Only 1 (b) 1,2 and 3 1. The point of origin of Earthquake is called epicenter.
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 2. The lines joining the places which were affected
337. Which of the following statements regarding the duration Earthquake at the same point of time are called
of day and night is correct? [2014-I] homoseismal lines.
(a) Difference is least near the Equator and progressively Select the correct answer using the codes given below
increases away from it (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) Difference is maximum at the Equator and progressively (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
decreases away from it 346. A typical black hole is always specified by [2014-I]
(c) Difference is least at the Tropics and progressively (a) a (curvature) singularity
increases towards the Equator and Poles (b) a horizon
(d) Difference is maximum at the Tropics and progressively (c) either a (curvature) singularity or a horizen
decreases towards the Equator and Poles (d) a charge
338. Arrange the locations of four oil refineries of india from 347. Which of the following is/are West flowing river(s) of
west to East. [2014-I] India? [2014-I]
(a) Koyali, Kochi. Panipat, Mathura 1. Mahanadi 2. Krishna
(b) Kochi, Koyali, Panipat, Mathura 3. Narmada 4. Cauvery
(c) Koyali, Panipat, Kochi, Mathura Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(d) Koyali, Panipat, Mathura, Kochi
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
339. Which one of the following is depositional landform ?
(c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3
(a) Stalagmite (b) Lapis [2014-I]
348. Which one of the following is the example of subsistence
(c) Sinkhole (d) Cave
farming? [2014-I]
340. Which of the following is/are direct source(s) of
information about the interior of the Earth? [2014-I] (a) Shifting cultivation
1. Earthquake wave 2. Volcano (b) Commercial farming
3. Gravitational force 4. Earth magnetism (c) Extensive and intensive farming
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (d) Organic farming
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 349. Which of the following methods is/are suitable for soil
(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these conservation in hilly region? [2014-I]
341. What would be the influence on the weather conditions 1. Terracing and contour bunding
when in mid-winter a feeble high pressure develops over 2. Shifting cultivation
the North-Western part of India? [2014-I] 3. Contour ploughing
1. High and dry winds would blow outward from this Select the correct answer using the codes given below
high pressure area. (a) 1 and 3
2. The Northern plain would become cold. (b) Only 2
3. Scorching winds (locally called loo) would blow (c) Only 3
during the day time. (d) All of these
EBD_7341
130 Geography
350. Arrange the following states of India on the basis of List I List II
conferring statehood (starting from the earliest) : (Phenomenon) (Date)
[2014-II] A. Summer solstice 1. 21st June
1. Arunachal Pradesh 2. Nagaland B. Winter solstice 2. 22nd December
3. Sikkim 4. Meghalaya C. Vernal Equinox 3. 23rd September
Select the correct answer using the code given below : D. Autumnal 4. 21st March
(a) 2 – 4 – 3 – 1 (b) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 Equinox
(c) 4 – 1 – 3 – 2 (d) 4 – 1 – 2 – 3 Code :
351. Plate tectonics is a scientific theory that describes the A B C D A B C D
large scale motions of Earth's lithosphere. Which one (a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 1 2 4 3
among the following statements regarding Plate tectonics (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1
is not correct? [2014-II] 356. Which of the following statements regarding jhum
(a) Tectonic plates are composed of Oceanic lithosphere cultivation in India are correct ? [2014-II]
and thicker Continental lithosphere 1. It is largely practised in North-Eastern Indian states.
(b) Tectonic plates are able to move because the Earth's 2. It is referred to as 'slash and burn' technique.
lithosphere has a higher strength than the underlying 3. In it, the fertility of soil is exhausted in a few years.
asthenosphere Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(c) The Earth's lithosphere is broken up into Tectonic (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Plates (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Along divergent plate boundaries, subduction carries 357. Arrange the following features formed by rivers in its
plates into the mantle course starting from upstream: [2014-II]
352. Consider the diagram given below: [2014-II] 1. Meanders 2. Falls
1012 mb 1020 mb 3. Delta 4. Oxbow Lake
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A B (a) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 (b) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
(c) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 (d) 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
358. Which of the following statements relating to Indian
998 mb agriculture is/are correct ? [2014-II]
1. India has the World's largest cropped area.
C 2. Cropping pattern is dominated by cereal crop.
The above diagram represents the pressure conditions of 3. The average size of an Indian farm holding is too
three different places, viz., A, B and C. Which of the small for several agricultural operations.
following is the correct direction of movement of winds ? Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) Blow from B towards A and C (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) Blow from C towards A and B (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Blow from B to A and from A to C 359. Collision-Coalescence process of precipitation is
(d) Blow from B to C and C to B applicable to [2014-II]
353. Consider the following statements regarding ground water (a) clouds which extend beyond freezing level
in India : [2014-II] (b) those clouds which do not extend beyond the
1. The large scale exploitation of ground water is done freezing level
with the help of tube-wells. (c) all types of clouds
2. The demand for ground water started increasing with (d) cumulonimbus cloud
the advent of green revolution. 360. Arrange the following tiger reserves of India from North
3. The total replenishable ground water reserves is to South : [2014-II]
highest in the hilly tracts of Sikkim, Nagaland and 1. lndravati 2. Dudhwa
Tripura. 3. Bandipur 4. Similipal
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and only (b) 1 only (a) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2 (b) 4 – 2 – 3 – 1
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 – 4 – 1 – 3 (d) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
354. Which one of the following would have happened if the 361. Which of the following is/are basically meant to be
Himalayas did not exist? [2014-II] deployed in the northern borders of India for monitoring
(a) Monsoon rains would have taken place in winter the borders and also to stop smuggling and illegal
months immigration ? [2014-II]
(b) Coastal India would have experienced Mediterranean 1. Assam Rifles
climate 2. Border Security Force
(c) North Indian plain would have been much cooler in 3. Indo Tibet Border Police
winter 4. National Security Guards
(d) North western part of India would have experienced Select the correct answer using the code given below :
humid condition (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
355. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer (c) 3 only (d) 4
using the code given below the Lists : [2014-II]
Geography 131
362. Which of the following is/are the potential threat to safety DIRECTIONS (Qs. 366-369): The following questions consist
of large dams ? [2014-II] of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to
1. Urbanisation near dam sites examine these two statements carefully and select the answers
2. Flash floods in catchment area to these questions using the code given below : [2014-II]
3. Seismic activities in surrounding area
Select the correct answer using the code given below : Code :
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 is the correct explanation of Statement I
363. The Equatorial region has no other season except summer. (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II
What could be the reason ? [2014-II] is not the correct explanation of Statement I
1. The length of day and night is more or less equal (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
over the year (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
2. The Earth's rotational velocity is maximum at the 366. Statement I : The Atacama is the driest among the deserts
Equator of the World.
3. The coriolis force is zero at the Equator Statement II : The aridity of the Atacama is explained by
Select the correct answer using the code given below : its location between two mountain chains of suffi cient
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only height to prevent moisture advection from either the
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Pacific or the Atlantic Ocean.
364. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer 367. Statement I : Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels
using the code given below the Lists : [2014-II] caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces
List I exerted by the Moon and the Sun, and the rotation of the
(Hill range of Central India) Earth.
A. Satpura Statement II : Earth rotates from the West towards the
B. Mahadeo East once in 24 hours with respect to the Sun. [2015-I]
C. Vindhya 368. Statement I : India's off shore and deep sea fish catch is
D. Maikala very poor considering the marine potential.
List II Statement II : Indian coast does not have many gulfs,
(Location in map) bays, estuaries and backwaters. [2015-I]
369. Statement I : Sideral day is shorter than Solar day.
Statement II : The motion of the Earth in its orbit around
the Sun is termed as revolution. [2015-I]
370. The Earth without rotational movement would result into
[2015-I]
1. no sun-rise and sun-set.
2. no occurrence of day and night cycle.
1 3. only one season.
2 3 4 Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
using the code given below the Lists : [2015-I]
List I
(Ocean current)
A. Guinea current
Code : B. Oyashio current
A B C D A B C D C. Canaries current
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 1 3 2 D. Kuroshio current
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 3 1 4 List II
(Location in Map)
365. Which among the following is/are correct statement about
Malawi ? [2014-II]
1. Malawi is a landlocked country in southeast Africa
that was formerly known as Nyasaland
2. It has presidential system with unitary form of
government
3. Ma1awi's economy is highly dependent on
agriculture and majority of the population is rural
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
EBD_7341
132 Geography
Code : List I (Type of Grass) List II (Country)

(a) A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2 (b) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4 A. Llanos 1. Australia
(c) A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4 (d) A-4; B-1; C-3; D-2 B. Prairies 2. Venezuela
372. Arrange the following layers of atmosphere vertically from C. Pampas 3. USA
the surface of the Earth : [2015-I] D. Downs 4. Argentina
1. Mesosphere 2. Troposphere Code :
3. Stratosphere 4. Thermosphere A B C D A B C D
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 1 3 4 2
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-1-3-4 (c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 2 3 4 1
(c) 2-3-1-4 (d) 3-4-2-1 378. Who among the following proposed that atom is
373. Consider the contour plot given below : [2015-I] indivisible? [2015-I]
1800 1700 1600 1500 1400 1300 1200 1100 (a) Dalton (b) Berzelius
(c) Rutherford (d) Avogadro
379. Tank irrigation is commonly found in South-Central parts
of India. What could be the reason ? [2015-I]
1000
900 1. Insufficient shallow ground water
2. Rocky plateau with impervious surface depression
800 3. Undulating terrain helps in accumulation of rain water
in depression or man-made tank
700 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
380. Which of the following is/are the reason(s) behind Gujarat
being the leading producer of Salt in India ? [2015-I]
1. The long length of coastline
2. Long duration of hot and dry conditions
3. Presence of gulf areas
Contour in Metres (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
The above contours of an area indicate several, relief (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
features. Which one among the following relief features 381. Ozone layer of the Earth's atmosphere is important for
is not depicted here ? living organisms because it [2015-I]
(a) Steep slope (b) River valley (a) prevents entry of ultra-violet rays
(c) Conical hill (d) Gentle slope (b) prevents entry of X-rays
374. Arrange the following tributaries of river Indus from North (c) maintains level of oxygen on Earth
to South : [2015-I] (d) prevents acid rain on Earth
1. Chenab 2. Jhelum 382. If 82° 30' east longitude (Allahabad) shows 6 : 00 am of
3. Ravi 4. Sutlej Sunday (local time), what would be the local time of Florida
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (USA) located on 82° west longitude ? [2015-I]
[2015-I] (a) 6 : 58 pm of Saturday (b) 7 : 02 pm of Sunday
(a) 4-3-1-2 (b) 2-3-1-4 (c) 6 : 58 am of Sunday (d) 7 : 02 am of Saturday
(c) 1-2-3-4 (d) 2-1-3-4 383. Consider the following statements with regard to cold
375. Seismic gaps are [2015-I] waves in winter season in northern India: [2015-I]
(a) parts of plate boundaries in oceans where tsunamis 1. There is lack of maritime influence.
occur frequently. 2. Northern India is nearer to the Himalayan region.
(b) sections of plate boundaries that have ruptured 3. Air mass comes from polar regions to northern India.
repeatedly in the recent past. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(c) sections of plate boundaries that have not ruptured (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
in the recent past. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
(d) plate boundaries having no volcanic activity. 384. Which one of the following statements regarding water
376. In the absence of Cold Labrador Current, which one cycle is correct ? [2015-I]
among the following would happen ? [2015-I] (a) Transpiration by plants does contribute to cloud
(a) There will be no North-East Atlantic fishing grounds formation.
(b) There will be no North-West Atlantic fishing grounds (b) Only evaporation of surface water of rivers and
(c) There will be no fishing ground in the North Atlantic oceans is responsible for cloud formation.
Ocean (c) Rainfall does not contribute in maintenance of
(d) Semi-arid condition of the Atlantic coast of the USA underground water table.
and Canada would prevail (d) Underground water may also be connected to
377. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer surface water.
using the code given below the Lists : [2015-I] 385. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists : [2015-I]
Geography 133
List I List II (Coast) Code:
(Ocean current) A B C D A B C D
A. Humboldt 1. Namibia – Angola (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 l 3
B. North Atlantic Drift 2. Chile – Peru (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2
C. Benguela 3. Mozambique – 392. Match List-I with List-lI and select the correct answer
Madagascar using the code given [2015-II]
D. Agulhas 4. United Kingdom List-I List-II
Norway (Climate) (Characteristic)
Code : A. Mediterranean 1. Temperature cycle is
(a) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3 (b) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3 moderated by marine
(c) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2 (d) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2 influence
386. The horizontal wind circulation near the Earth's surface B. Marine west Coast 2. Warm summers and
is due to the [2015-I] cold winters with three
1. pressure gradient. 2. frictional force. months below freezing.
3. coriolis force. Very large an nual
Select the correct answer using the code give below : temperature range
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only C. Dry mid-latitude 3. Strong temperature
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 cycle with large annual
387. Inclusion strategy does not focus on [2015-I] range. Warm summers
(a) reduction of inequality to hot and cold Winters
(b) reduction of poverty to very cold
(c) diversifying livelihood for tribal population D. Moist continental 4. Temperature range is
(d) getting poorer countries close moderate with warm to
388. Which of the following are the major factors responsible hot summers and mild
for the monsoon type of climate in India? [2015-II] winters
1. Location Code :
2. Thermal contrast A B C D A B C D
3. Upper air circulation (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
4. The Himalayan Mountains (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 393. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 using the code given below the Lists [2015-II]
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only List-I List-II
389. Consider the following- Indian States : [2015-II] (Weathering type) (Landform/ Process)
1. Chhattisgarh 2. Telangana A. Chemical weathering 1. Till
3. Andhra Pradesh 4. Uttarakhand B. Mechanical weathering 2. Oxidation
5. Tamil Nadu C. Glacial deposits 3. Plant roots
Which among, the States given above are the largest and D. Deposition by ground 4. Stalactite
smallest respectively (in terms of geographical area)? water
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 3 and 2 Code :
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 5 A B C D A B C D
390. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 2 1 3
using the code given below the Lists : (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 1 2 4
List-I List-II 394. If a ship has to go from Chennai to Kochi, it has to go
(Plant) (Natural vegetation type) around Sri Lanka rather than crossing through the Palk
A. Ebony 1. Moist deciduous Strait. Why ? [2015-II]
B. Shisham 2 Himalayan moist (a) The Palk Strait has disputed islands and the Sri
Lankan Navy does not allow the ships to cross
C. Walnut 3. Alpine
through
D. Birch 4. Tropical evergreen
(b) It is too shallow for ships to cross
Code :
(c) Shipping is prohibited through the Strait due to its
A B C D A B C D
religious significance connected with the epic
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 2 1 3
Ramayana
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 1 2 4
(d) The around Sri Lanka route is actually shorter than
391. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
crossing through the Palk Strait
395. Which of the following State capitals of North-East India
List-I List-II
is/are connected by Indian Railways? [2015-II]
(Geological time scale) (Life-form)
1. Imphal 2. Agartala
A. Pleistocene 1. Mammals
3. Kohima 4. Aizawl
B. Paleocene 2. Human genus Select the correct answer using the code given below.
C. Permian 3. Invertebrates (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
D. Cambrian 4. Frogs (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2 only
EBD_7341
134 Geography
396. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer (a) Counter-clockwise and away from the centre
using the code given below the Lists : [2015-II] (b) Clockwise and away from the centre
List-I List-II (c) Counter-clockwise and towards the centre
(Region) (State) (d) Clockwise and towards the centre
A. Baghelkhand 1. West Bengal 402. Which one of the following statements about the
B. Kuttanad 2. Madhya Pradesh atmosphere is correct? [2015-II]
C. Saurashtra 3. Kerala (a) The atmosphere has definite upper limits but
D. Rarh 4. Gujarat gradually thins until it becomes imperceptible.
Code : (b) The atmosphere has no definite upper limits but
A B C D A B C D gradually thins until it becomes imperceptible.
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) The atmosphere has definite upper limits but
(c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 1 4 3 2 gradually thickens until it becomes imperceptible.
397. Which of the following statements with regard to Portland (d) The atmosphere has no definite upper limits but
Cement are Correct? [2015-II] gradually thickens until it becomes imperceptible.
1. Silica imparts strength to cement. 403. Which one among the following statements about
2. Alumina makes the cement quick setting diastrophism is correct? [2015-II]
3. Excess of lime increases the strength of cement. (a) The forces may be so slow and gradual that they
4. Calcium sulphate decreases the initial setting time of pass unnoticed for a long period of time.
cement (b) The forces may be both slow and sudden that they
Select the correct answer using the code pass for a short period of time.
(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) The forces may be sudden and so fast that they pass
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) l and 2 only unnoticed for a long period of time.
398. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer (d) The forces may be slow but for a short period of time.
using the code given below the Lists : [2015-II] 404. Which one of the following minerals contains mostly
List-I List-II silica? [2015-II]
(City) (Earthquake zone) (a) Mica (b) Quartz
A. Kolkata 1. Zone V (c) Olivine (d) Pyroxene
B. Guwahati 2. Zone IV 405. Which one of the following statements is correct? [2015-II]
C. Delhi 3. Zone III (a) Cold fronts move at slower rate than warm fronts
D. Chennai 4. Zone II and therefore cannot overtake the warm fronts.
Code : (b) Cold fronts normally move faster than warm fronts
A B C D A B C D and therefore frequently overtake the warm fronts.
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 3 1 2 4 (c) Cold fronts move at slower rate, and eventually they
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 2 1 3 are overtaken by the warm fronts.
399. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer (d) Cold fronts move faster than warm fronts but they
using the code given below the Lists : [2015-II] cannot overtake the warm fronts.
List-I List-II 406. Which of the following elements are found in highest and
(Lake) (Type) lowest quantities respectively in the crust of the earth?
A. Ashtamudi Kayal 1. Residual (sweet water) [2015-II]
B. Himayat Sagar 2. Lagoon (a) Oxygen and silicon
C. Dal Lake 3. Glacial (b) Calcium and sodium
D. Tsomgo Lake 4. Artificial (sweet water) (c) Sodium and magnesium
Code : (d) Oxygen and magnesium
A B C D A B C D
407. This item consists of two statements, Statement I and
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3
Statement II. [2015-II]
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2
400. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer Statement I : The Kuroshio is a warm north-flowing ocean
using the code given below the Lists : [2015-II] current on the west side of the North Pacific Ocean.
List-I List-II Statement II : Presence of a number of volcanoes at the
(Farming area) (State) bottom of the Sea of Japan is responsible for the Kuroshio
A. Doab 1. Assam becoming warm.
B. Char 2. Karnataka Examine these two statements carefully and select the
C. Maidan 3. Punjab answer to the item using the code given below.
D. Terai 4. Uttar Pradesh Code:
Code : (a) Both the statements are individually true and
A B C D A B C D Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 3 1 2 4 (b) Both the statements are individually true but
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 2 1 3 Statement II is not the correct explanation of
401. Which one of the following is the pattern of circulation Statement I
around a low-pressure area in the northern hemisphere? (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
[2015-II] (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Geography 135
408. Contribution of the manufacturing sector to environmental Arrange the above rivers from west to east:
degradation primarily occurs during [2015-II] (a) 2 - 4 - 3 - 1 (b) 2 - 3 - 4 - 1
1. procurement and use of natural resources (c) 4 - 2 - 3 - 1 (d) 3 - 1 - 2 - 4
2. industrial processes and activities 417. Which one of the following is the reason due to which the
3. product use and disposal wind in the southern hemisphere is deflected towards its
Select the correct answer using the code given below. left? [2016-I]
(a) Difference in the water masses of northern and
southern hemisphere
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Temperature and pressure variations
409. Stalactites and stalagmites are features of : [2016-I] (c) Inclined axis of the Earth
(a) glacial topography (b) volcanic topography (d) Rotation of the Earth
(c) karst topography (d) fluvial topography 418. The ‘eye’ of the cyclone has : [2016-I]
410. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the (a) abnormally high temperature and lowest pressure
given planets in increasing order of their size (diameter)? (b) abnormally low temperature and pressure
[2016-I] (c) clear sky and lowest temperature
(a) Mars - Venus - Earth - Mercury - Uranus (d) dense cloud cover and low pressure
(b) Mercury - Mars - Venus - Earth - Uranus 419. Which of the following statements is /are correct ?
(c) Mercury - Mars - Venus - Uranus - Earth [2016-I]
(d) Venus - Mercury - Marsu - Earth - Uranus 1. Acid rain reacts with buildings made from limestone
411. Consider the following statements : [2016-I] 2. Burning of sulphur containing coal can contribute
1. Most of the coal and the ferrous group of minerals to acid rain
in India occur in the peninsula, south of the Vindhyas 3. Eutrophication is an effective measure to control
2. The peninsular India once formed part of the super- pollution
continent which included Australia, Antarctica, Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Africa and South America (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statments given above is / are correct ? (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only (b) 2only 420. Which of the following statements regarding chemical
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 industry in India is /are correct ? [2016-I]
412. The Mahatma Gandhi National Marine Park is located in : 1. Chemical industry is one of the oldest industries in
India
[2016-I] 2. Dyestuff sector is one of the important segments of
(a) Pirotan Island (b) Rameswaram chemical industry
(c) Ganga Sagar Island (d) Port Blair 3. Textile industry accounts for th e largest
413. Which of the following statements is / are correct ? [2016-I] consumption of dyestuffs
1. The Earth is nearest to the sun at Perihelion, which Select the correct answer using the code given below:
generally occurs on January 3 (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. The Earth is farthest away from the Sun at Perihelion, (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
which generally occurs on July 4 421. Which of the following statements about India’s scientific
3. The Earth is farthest away from the Sun at Aphelion, and research mission in Antarctica is / are correct ? [2016-I]
which generally occurs on July 4 1. The first scientific base station in Antarctica was
4. The Earth is nearest to the Sun at Aphelion, which Dakshin Gangotri
generally occurs on January 3 2. Dakshin Gangotri is now being used as supply base
Select the correct answer using the code given below : and transit camp
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 3. The Maitri station is manned throughout the year
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 for scientific activities
414. Which one of the following islands is of volcanic origin? Select the correct answer using the code given below :
[2016-I] (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Reunion island
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Andaman & Nicobar islands
422. Arrange the following popular hill stations of India in
(c) Lakshadweep island
terms of their height (from highest to the lowest) from the
(d) Maldives
mean sea level : [2016-I]
415. Which one of the following is the cause of long -term sea-
1. Mussoorie 2. Shimla
level change ? [2016-I]
(a) Atmospheric disturbance 3. Ooty 4 Darjeeling
(b) Change in marine water density Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(c) Melting of icebergs (a) 3 - 2 - 4 - 1 (a) 3 - 1- 4 - 2
(d) Melting of ice sheets (a) 2 - 3 - 4 - 1 (a) 2 - 4 - 1 - 3
416. Consider the following tributaries of river Brahmaputra : 423. Which of the following statements relating to the Bandung
1. Lohit 2. Tista [2016-I] Conference on Afro - Asian Resurgence (1955) are correct?
3. Subansiri 4. Sankosh [2016-I]
EBD_7341
136 Geography
1. Bandung Conference was organized by Indonesia, 1. Earthquakes largely occur along the converging plate
Myanmar (Burma), Ceylon (Sri Lanka), India, and boundaries.
Pakistan in which 29 Countries representing more 2. Point of origin of earthquake in lithosphere is known
than half of the world’s population sent delegates as focus/hypocentre.
2. The conference reflected the five sponsors 3. Intensity of earthquake decreases with distance from
dissatisfaction with what they regarded as a the epicentre.
reluctance by the Westen power to consult with them 4. Epicentre of earthquake always remains over
on decisions affecting Asia continents only.
3. The Conference was concerned over tension Select the correct answer using the code given below.
between the People’s Republic of China and the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
United States (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 430. Which of the following pairs of Indian State and tribal
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only population are correct? [2016-II]
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Madhya Pradesh : Largest tribal population
424. Consider the following map of India : [2016-I] 2. Mizoram : Highest percentage of tribal population
out of the total population of the State
3. Chhattisgarh : Second largest tribal population after
Madhya Pradesh
4. Arunachal Pradesh : Second highest percentage of
tribal population out of the total population of the
State after Mizoram
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
431. With regard to water transportation in India, which of the
following statements are correct? [2016-II]
1. Headquarters of Central Inland Water Transport
The areas marked in the map given above account for the Corporation is located at Delhi.
production of which one of the following cash crops? 2. Headquarters of Inland Waterways Authority of India
(a) Cotton (b) Groundnut is located at Noida.
(c) Sugarcane (d) Tobacco 3. National Inland Navigation Institute is located at
425. Pir Panjal Range in the Himalayas is a part of : [2016-I] Kolkata.
(a) Shiwalik (b) Trans Himalaya 4. First National Inland Waterway was between Haldia
(c) Central Himalaya (d) Lesser Himalaya and Allahabad.
426. Consider the following statements regarding laterite soils Select the correct answer using the code given below.
of India : [2016-I] (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3
1. Laterite soils are generally red in colour (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4
2. Laterite soils are rich in nitrogen ans potash 432. If the latitude and, longitudinal extent of an Indian State/
3. Laterite soils are well developed in Rajasthan and up UT is 15°48'00"N to 14°53'15"N and 74°20'13"E to 74°40'33"E,
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well in this soil then which one of the following is that State/UT? [2016-II]
Which of the statement given above is are correct? (a) Puducherry (b) Chandigarh
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) Goa (d) Delhi
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 433. Which of the following statements concerning atmosphere
427. Which of the following statements regarding of the Earth are correct? [2016-II]
Mediterranean and Monsoon climate is / are correct? 1. In stratosphere, temperature increases with altitude.
[2016-I] 2. In mesosphere, temperature decreases with altitude.
1. Precipitation in Mediterranean climate is in winter 3. The lowest temperature of the atmosphere is
while in monsoon climate it is mostly in summer recorded in the upper part of mesosphere.
2. The annual range of temperature in Mediterranean 4. Tropopause is an isothermal zone.
climate is higher than the Monsoon climate Select the correct answer using the code given below.
3. Rainy and dry seasons are found in both the climates (a) 1 and 2 only (b) l, 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 434. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 using the code given below the Lists : [2016-II]
428. Which one of the following gases is released mostly from
List-I List-II
landfills in urban areas? [2016-II]
(a) Nitrogen (b) Hydrogen (Place) (Industry)
(c) Methane (d) Oxygen A. Bongaigaon 1. Paper
B. Koraput 2. Machine tools
429. With reference to earthquakes, which of the following
C. Pinjore 3. Aircraft
statements are correct? [2016-II]
D. Sirpur 4. Petrochemical
Geography 137
Code : (c) Syzygy opposition causes lunar eclipse.
A B C D A B C D (d) Syzygy conjunction occurs at the time of perihelion
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 4 3 2 1 only.
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 1 3 2 4 442. Which one of the following is not related to wind erosion?
435. Which one of the following is not a tributary of the river [2016-II]
Ganga? [2016-II] (a) Wind gap (b) Zeugen
(a) Son (b) Mahananda (c) Dreikanter (d) Demoiselle
(c) Teesta (d) Sharada 443. Which one of the following statements concerning the
436. Which one of the following pairs of lakes is connected by natural vegetation of India is not correct? [2016-II]
500 Canal? [2016-II] (a) Sal is found in moist deciduous forests.
(a) Superior and Michigan (b) Casuarina is largely found along the coastal region
(b) Superior and Huron of Tamil Nadu.
(c) Huron and Ontario (c) Deodar is a coniferous species of tree.
(d) Huron and Erie (d) Shola forests are found mainly on the upper reaches
437. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer of Himalaya.
using the code given below the Lists : [2016-II] 444. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
List-I List-II
(Strait) (Water Body) List-I List II
A. Strait of Hormuz 1. Java Sea (Term) (Meaning)
B. Strait of 2. Andaman Sea A. Kurinchi 1. Pastoral region
Bab-el-Mandeb B. Palai 2. Seashore
C. Strait of Malacca 3. Red Sea C. Neytal 3. Arid region
D. Strait of Sunda 4. Gulf of Persia D. Mullai 4. Mountainous region
Code : Code :
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 1 3 2 4 (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 3 2 1 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
438. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer 445. The ratio of gross cropped area to the net sown area is
using the code given below the Lists : [2016-II] called [2017-I]
(a) cropping intensity
List I List II
(b) intensity of crop rotation
(Ocean current) (Country)
(c) crop productivity
A. Agulhas Current 1. Peru
(d) cropping diversity
B. Humboldt Current 2. South Africa
446. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of
C. Labrador Current 3. Argentina
occurrences of rivers from Chennai to Kolkata when
D. Falkland Current 4. Canada
travelled by road (shortest distance)? [2017-I]
(a) of variable refractive index alkland Current Canada
(a) Krishna, Kaveri, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha
Code : (b) Krishna, Periyar, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha
A B C D A B C D (c) Penneru, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 2 1 4 3 (d) Penneru, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari,
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 4 1 3 Krishna
439. Which one of the following fishing banks is located off 447. Which one of the following statements with regard to
the coast of the United Kingdom ? [2016-II] volcanoes is not correct? [2017-I]
(a) Great Fisher Bank (b) Grand Banks (a) Stratovolcanoes produce lava flows that initially
(c) Dogger Bank (d) Reed Bank follow valleys but are highly resistant to erosion.
440. Which of the following statements regarding soil is/ are (b) The surrounding areas can remain highlands, lava
correct? [2016-II] ridges or mesas.
1. Alluvial soils are rich in nitrogen content. (c) Hawaiian shield volcanoes are eroded by streams
2. Black soils are rich in iron and lime but deficient in that form deeply carved valleys with steeply sloping
nitrogen. heads.
3. Laterite soils are rich in iron and aluminium but (d) The system of streams on a dissected volcano cone
deficient in nitrogen and potassium. is not a radial drainage pattern.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 448. Which of the following statements with regard to the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only Mediterranean agriculture is/ are correct? [2017-I]
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) l, 2 and 3 1. The Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialized
441. Which one of the following statements is not correct? commercial agriculture.
[2016-II] 2. It is intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by
(a) Position of the Sun, Earth and Moon in a straight wet paddy cultivation.
line of 180° angle is known as syzygy. 3. It is a primitive subsistence agriculture.
(b) Syzygy conjunction causes solar eclipse. 4. Viticulture is a speciality of the Mediterranean region.
EBD_7341
138 Geography
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) It is similar to the Kuroshio current in the North Pacific
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Ocean.
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 (b) It transports warm, tropical water towards polar
449. Which one of the following statements with regard to the region.
winter solstice is correct? [2017-I] (c) This current is a major factor in weather along the
(a) The South Pole experiences 24 hours of darkness. east coast of the USA.
(b) It occurs on June 21. (d) The warm water of the Gulf Stream sustains the coral
(c) The North Pole experiences 24 hours of darkness. reefs of West Pacific Coast.
(d) The Sun is at aphelion. 456. Which one of the following about sugar industry of
450. Tropical evergreen rain forest biome provides optimum Peninsular India is not correct? [2017-I]
environmental conditions for the growth of plants and (a) High yield per hectare of sugarcane
animals. Which one among the following statements (b) Higher sucrose content
regarding this is not correct? [2017-I] (c) Long crushing season
(a) It has heavy rainfall and high temperature throughout (d) Most of the mills in the Peninsula are located mainly
the year. along the east coast
(b) This biome is also called mega-thermal biome. 457. Which one of the following ports is located on estuary?
(c) The evergreen rain forest biome extends between [2017-I]
10° N and 10° S latitudes. (a) Kandala (b) Marmagao
(d) The maximum development of this biome has taken (c) Kolkata-Haldia (d) Tuticorin
place in central and southern California, and north- 458. The fact that the planets move around the Sun, not in circles
western coastal lands of Africa. but in ellipses, was first demonstrated by [2017-I]
451. Tsunami waves are the undersea occurrence of earthquake (a) Galileo (b) Martin Luther
exceeding 7.5 on Richter scale. Which one of the following (c) Johannes Kepler (d) Copernicus
statements regarding this is not correct? [2017-I] 459. Which one of the following tribal groups is dominantly
(a) It often generates strong waves. found in the ‘Blue Mountains’? [2017-II]
(b) The Pacific coasts are most vulnerable to Tsunami (a) Lambadas (b) Gonds
waves. (c) Jarawas (d) Todas
(c) Tsunami waves are also called high-energy tidal 460. Who among the following geographers is related to
waves or seismic sea waves. ‘primate city’ concept? [2017-II]
(d) Tsunami is a Latin word. (a) August Losch (b) Mark Jefferson
452. Which of the following statements with regard to (c) Griffith Taylor (d) W. Christaller
cloudburst is/ are correct? [2017-I] 461. Which one of the following islands is the largest?
1. It is defined as sudden localized very heavy [2017-II]
downpour with cloud thunder and lightning. (a) Borneo (b) Madagascar
2. It mostly occurs in the hilly areas. (c) New Guinea (d) Sumatra
3. It results into very high intensity of rainfall, i.e., 250 462. Arrange the following Tiger Reserves of India from North
mm-300 mm in a couple of hours. to South : [2017-II]
4. It occurs only during daytime. 1. Dudhwa 2. Panna
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3. Pench 4. Indravati
(a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 only (a) 4, 3, 2, 1 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
453. Which one of the following With regard to Aridisol, one (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 1, 3, 2, 4
of the soil orders, is not correct? [2017-I] 463. Most ozone gas (about 90%) is located in the atmospheric
(a) Lack of water for plants during most part of the year layer of [2017-II]
(b) High organic matter (a) ionosphere (b) troposphere
(c) Large accumulation of carbonates at depth (c) stratosphere (d) mesosphere
(d) Absence of deep wide cracks 464. What are the main constituents of biogas? [2017-II]
454. Which one of the following statements with regard to Jet (a) Methane and sulphur dioxide
stream, an upper level tropospheric wave, is not correct? (b) Methane and carbon dioxide
[2017-I] (c) Methane, hydrogen and nitric oxide
(a) It is a narrow band of high-velocity wind. (d) Methane and nitric oxide
(b) It follows the wave path near the tropopause at 465. Which one of the following statements about various
elevations of 8 km to 15 km. horticulture crops of India for the year 2016-17 is not
(c) Jet streams are typically continuous over long correct? [2017-II]
distances. (a) The area under horticulture crops has increased over
(d) In summer, the polar front jet achieves its maximum previous year.
force. (b) Fruit production during the current year is higher
455. The Gulf Stream is a poleward flowing current in the than the previous year.
Atlantic Ocean. Which one of the following statements (c) Rate of increase in onion production is more than
with regard to this is not correct? [2017-I] potato production in the current year in comparision
to the previous year.
Geography 139
(d) The major tomato-growing States are Madhya Code :
Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Odisha and A B C D A B C D
Gujarat. (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 4 3 1 2
466. The phenomenon of ‘demographic dividend’ of a country (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 2 3 1 4
relates to 473. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(a) a sharp decline in total population using the code given below the Lists : [2017-II]
(b) an increase in working age population List-I
(c) a decline in infant mortality rate (Mountain Range)
(d) an increase in sex ratio A. Satpura
467. Statement I : [2017-II] B. Vindhya
The interior part of Maharashtra does not receive adequate C. Aravalli
rain in the summer season. D. Mahadeo
Statement II :
List-II
The interior part of Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow of
(Location in Map)
the Western Ghats.
468. Statement I : [2017-II]
Global warming signifies the rise in global surface
temperature.
Statement II :
The increase of concentration of greenhouse gases in the
atmosphere causes the rise in global surface temperature.
469. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
List-I List-II
(Strait) (Countries) Code :
A. Bass Strait 1. UK and France A B C D A B C D
B. Davis Strait 2. Australia and (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 3 1 2 4
Tasmania (c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 1 2 3
C. Dover Strait 3. USA and Cuba 474. Which of the following statements in respect to the Indian
D. Florida Strait 4. Canada and Greenland Peninsular Plateau are correct? [2017-II]
Code : 1. The Deccan Plateau gradually rises from North to
A B C D A B C D South.
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3 2. The Malwa Plateau dominates the Vindhyan
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2 scarps, forming the Eastern flank of the plateau.
470. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer 3. The Western Satpuras separate the Narmada and
using the code given below the Lists : [2017-II] Tapi rivers.
List-I List-II 4. The Chota Nagpur Plateau is composed of
(Pass) (Place) Archaen granite and gneiss rocks.
A. Zoji La 1. Himachal Pradesh Select the correct answer using the code given below.
B. Shipki La 2. Uttarakhand (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
C. Lipulekh 3. Jammu and Kashmir (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
D. Nathu La 4. Sikkim 475. Which of the following lakes is/are situated in Ladakh?
Code : [2017-II]
A B C D A B C D 1. Tso kar 2. Pangong Tso
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 1 2 3 3. Tsomgo 4. Tso Morir
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 2 1 4 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
471. ‘Xeriscaping’ is a concept related to [2017-II] (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(a) landscaping related to save water (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 only
(b) landscaping related to save soil 476. Which of the following statements related to latitude are
(c) weathering of rock surface true? [2017-II]
(d) All of the above 1. Rainfall, temperature and vegetation vary with
472. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer latitude.
using the code given below the Lists : [2017-II] 2. The difference between the longest day and the
List-I List-II shortest day increases with latitude.
(Industrial Region) (Country) 3. Indira Point is located approximately at 6°45' N
A. Leipzig 1. USA latitude.
B. Detroit 2. UK Select the correct answer using the code given below.
C. Lorraine 3. France (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
D. Cumberland 4. Germany (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
EBD_7341
140 Geography
477. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer 481. Statement I :
using the code given below the Lists : [2017-II] Incised meanders are formed in the mature stage of a river.
List-I List-II Statement II :
(Lake) (Type of Lake) Incised meanders are characterized by rejuvenation and
A. Bhimtal 1. Lagoon upliftment of land.
B. Ashtamudi 2. Landslide 482. Statement I :
C. Gohna 3. Tectonic Portions of glacial troughs may exhibit remarkably flat floors.
D. Lonar 4. Crater Statement II :
Code : The flat floor in a glacial trough is produced by uniform
A B C D A B C D glacial erosion.
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 483. Statement I :
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 1 2 3 In Tundra climate, biodiversity is comparatively less.
478. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Statement II :
[2017-II] Tundra climate has less reproductive warm period.
1. Himalayan rivers have their origin in th e 484. Statement I :
snow-covered areas, hence are dry in winter Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the
season. combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by
2. Rivers of the Peninsular Plateau have reached the Moon and the Sun and the rotation of the Earth.
maturity. Statement II :
3. Himalayan rivers depict all the three stages of The Earth rotates from west to east.
normal cycle of erosion. 485. Which of the following causes adiabatic temperature
Select the correct answer using the code given below. changes in atmosphere? [2018-1]
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (a) Deflection and advection
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Latent heat of condensation
479. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer (c) Expansion and compression of the air
using the code given below the Lists : [2017-II] (d) Partial absorption of solar radiation by the atmosphere
List-I List-II 486. Which one of the following is applicable to collision-
(States of NE India) (Location in Map) coalescence process of precipitation? [2018-1]
(a) Clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level
A. Tripura (b) Clouds which extend beyond the freezing level
(c) All types of clouds
B. Mizoram (d) Cirrocumulus cloud
487. Which one of the following places of India experiences
C. Nagaland highest atmospheric pressure during winter? [2018-1]
D. Manipur (a) Jaisalmer (b) Leh
(c) Chennai (d) Guwahati
Code : 488. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
A B C D A B C D using the code given below the Lists : [2018-1]
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3 List-I List-II
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2 (Hypothesis/Theory) (Propounder)
A. Planetesimal 1. Kober
DIRECTIONS : The following seven (7) items consists of two hypothesis
statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two B. Thermal contraction 2. Chamberlin
statements carefully and select the correct answer using the theory
code given below. [2018-1] C. Geosynclinal Orogen 3. Daly
theory
Code : D. Hypothesis of sliding 4. Jeffreys
(a) Both the statements are individually true and continent
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I Code :
(b) Both the statements are individually true
A B C D A B C D
but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3
Statement I
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 489. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true using the code given below the Lists : [2018-1]
480. Statement I : List-I List-II
By far the most common topographic form in a Karst terrain
(Cloud) (Characteristic)
is the sinkhole.
A. Cirrus 1. Rain-giving
Statement II :
B. Stratus 2. Feathery
Topographically, a sinkhole is a depression that varies in appearance
and upliftment of land. C. Nimbus 3. Vertically growing
D. Cumulus 4. Horizontally spreading
Geography 141
Code : 499. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct
A B C D A B C D answer using the code given below the Lists [2018-II]
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 1 4 3 List - I List - II
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 4 1 2 (Classification of Town) (Example)
490. Extrusive volcanoes are not found in which one of the A. Industrial Town l. Vishakhapatnam
following mountains? [2018-1] B. Transport Town 2. Bhilai
(a) Alaska (b) Rocky C. Mining Town 3. Singrauli
(c) Andes (d) Himalayas D. Garrison
491. Which one of the following crops is not cultivated in Cantonment Town 4. Ambala
Karewas, the lacustrine deposits of sand, clay, loam, silt Code :
and boulders? [2018-1] A B C D A B C D
(a) Saffron (b) Almond (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) Walnut (d) Ling nut (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
492. Consider the following tributaries of river Ganga : 500. Which of the following statements with regard to the
1. Gandak [2018-1] land-use situation in India is/are correct? [2018-II]
2. Kosi 1. There has been a tremendous decline in area
under forest in recent years.
3. Ghaghara
2. The rate of increase in land use in recent years is
4. Gomti
the highest in case of area under non – agricultural
493. Which one of the following statements about India is not use.
correct? [2018-1] 3. Land use such as barren and wasteland, area
(a) India has 12 major ports and about 200 non-major ports. under pastures and tree crops have experienced
(b) 95 percent of India’s trade by volume and 68 percent decline in recent years.
by value are moved through maritime transport. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) India has a coastline of about 7500 km. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) In the Maritime Agenda, 2010-2020, a target of 300 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
MT port capacity has been set for the year 2020. 501. Which one of the following was not a part of the
494. Which one of the following statements about the National strategies followed by the Government of India to
Adaptation Fund for Climate Change is not correct? increase food grain production in India immediately
[2018-1] after Independence? [2018-II]
(a) The fund is meant to assist national and State level (a) Intensification of cropping over already cultivated
activities to meet the cost of adaptation measures. land
(b) This scheme has been taken as a Central Sector (b) Increasing cultivable area by bringing cultivable
Scheme. and fallow land under plough
(c) The Indian Council of Agricultural Research is the (c) Using high-yielding varieties (HYV) seeds
national implementing entity for the fund. (d) Switching over from cash crops to food crops
(d) The scheme has been in force since 2015-2016. 502. Which one of the following is a westflowing river?
495. Which one of the following States has more than two [2018-II]
major ports? [2018-II] (a) Mahanadi (b) Godavari
(a) Maharashtra (c) Krishna (d) Narmada
(b) West Bengal 503. Which one among the following is not a tributary of
(c) Odisha river Luni? [2018-II]
(d) Tamil Nadu (a) Khari (b) Sukri
496. Which one of the following places does not fall on (c) Jawai (d) Banas
leeward slope? [2018-II] 504. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer
(a) Pune (b) Bengaluru using the code given below the Lists [2018-II]
(c) Leh (d) Mangaluru List - I List - II
(Major Dam) (State)
497. South Arcot and Ramanathapuram receive over 50
A. Cheruthoni Dam 1. Madhya Pradesh
percent of their annual rainfall from which one of the
following? [2018-II] B. Indira Sagar Dam 2. Tamil Nadu
C. Krishnarajasagar 3. Karnataka
(a) South-west monsoon
Dam
(b) North-east monsoon D. Mettur Dam 4. Kerala
(c) Bay of Bengal branch of summer monsoon A B C D A B C D
(d) Western disturbances (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
498. The Eight Degree Channel separates which of the (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
following? [2018-II] 505. Which one among the following Union Territories of
(a) India from Sri Lanka India shares the shortest length of National Highways?
(b) Lakshadweep from Maldives [2018-II]
(c) Andaman from Nicobar Islands (a) Chandigarh (b) Delhi
(d) Indira Point from Indonesia (c) Daman and Diu (d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
EBD_7341
142 Geography
506. Which one among the following passes links Lhasa (b) A particular pattern of stars that may not be
with Ladakh? [2018-II] equidistant from the earth in the sky
(a) Lanak La (b) Burzil (c) A particular pattern of planets of our solar system in the
(c) Babusar (d) Khyber sky
507. Which one among the following stars is nearest to the (d) A particular pattern of stars, planets and satellites
earth? [2019-I] in the sky due to their position in the space
(a) Sirius (b) Arcturus 516. Which one of the following river valleys of India is
(c) Spica (d) Proxima Centauri under the influence of intensive gully erosion?
508. Which of the following planets of our solar system has [2019-I]
least mass? [2019-I] (a) Kos i (b) Chambal
(a) Neptune (b) Jupiter (c) Damodar (d) Brahmaputra
(c) Mars (d) Mercury 517. Which one of the following may be the true
509. Which among the following countries of South America characteristic of cyclones? [2019-I]
does the Tropic of Capricorn not pass through? (a) Temperate cyclones move from west to east with
[2019-I] westerlies whereas tropical cyclones follow trade
(a) Chile (b) Bolivia winds.
(c) Paraguay (d) Brazil (b) The front side of cyclone is known as the ‘eye of
510. Which one of the following is not correct about Sargasso cyclone’.
Sea? [2019-I] (c) Cyclones possess a centre of high pressure
(a) It is characterized with anticyclonic circulation of surrounded by closed isobars.
ocean currents. (d) Hurricanes are well-known tropical cyclones which
(b) It records the highest salinity in Atlantic Ocean. develop over mid-latitudes.
(c) It is located west of Gulf Stream and cast of Canary 518. Atmospheric conditions are well-governed by humidity.
Current. Which one among the following may best define
(d) It confined in gyre of calm and motionless water. humidity? [2019-I]
511. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer (a) Form of suspended water droplets caused by
using the code given below the Lists: condensation
List-I List-II (b) Deposition of atmospheric moisture
(City) (Product) (c) Almost microscopically small drops of water
(a) Detroit 1. Motorcar condensed from and suspended in air
(b) Antwerp 2. Diamond cutting (d) The moisture content of the atmosphere at a
(c) Tokyo 3. Steel particular time and place
(d) Harbin 4. Shipbuilding 519. The Shompens are the vulnerable tribal group of
Code: [2019-I]
A B C D A B C D (a) Jharkhand
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 3 2 4 1 (b) Odisha
(c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 1 2 4 3 (c) West Bengal
512. Which one of the following is not situated on Varanasi- (d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Kanyakumari National Highway? [2019-I] 520. Which one of the following cities was not included in
(a) Satna (b) Rewa the list of smart cities in India? [2019-I]
(c) Katni (d) Jabalpur (a) Silvassa (b) Jorhat
513. Which one of the following methods is not suitable for (c) Itanagar (d) Kavaratti
urban rainwater harvesting? [2019-I] 521. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
(a) Rooftop recharge pit (b) Recharge wells using the code given below the Lists: [2019-I]
(c) Gully plug (d) Rechargte trench List-I List-II
514. If one plots the tank irrigation in India and superimposes (Type of Lake) (Example)
it with map of well irrigation, one may find that the two A. Tectonic 1. Lonar Lake
are negatively related. Which one of the following B. Crater 2. Gangabal Lake
statements explain the phenomenon? [2019-I] C. Glacial 3. Purbasthali Lake
1. Tank irrigation predates well irrigation. D. Fluvial 4. Bhimtal Lake
2. Tank irrigation is in the areas with impervious Code:
surface layers. A B C D A B C D
3. Well irrigation requires sufficient groundwater (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 2 1 3
reserves. (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 2 1 4
4. Other forms of irrigation are not available. 522. The Andaman group of islands and the Nicobar group
Select the correct answer using the code given below. of islands are separated by which one of the following
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only latitudes? [2019-I]
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 (a) 8° N latitude
515. What is a constellation? [2019-I] (b) 10° N latitude
(a) A particular pattern of equidistant stars from the (c) 12° N latitude
earth in the sky (d) 13° N latitude
Geography 143
523. Damanganga Reservoir Project with about 115 km of 531. Match List I with List II and select the correct. answer
minor canals and distributaries is located in [2019-I] using the code given below the lists : [2019-II]
(a) NCT List I List II
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (Peak) (Name of Hill)
(c) Puducherry A. Anaimudi 1. Nilgiri
(d) Goa B. Doddabetta 2. Satpura
524. The term soil impoverishment relates to which one of the C. Dhupgarh 3. Aravali
following ? [2019-II] D. Guru Shikhar 4. Annamalai
(a) Soil erosion Code :
(b) Soil deposition A B C D A B C D
(c) Soil getting very deficient in plant nutrients
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 3 1 2 4
(d) Soil getting enriched with plant nutrients (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 2 1 3
525. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer 532. Coral reefs are not found in which one of the following
using the code given below the lists : [2019-II] regions ? [2019-II]
List I List II (a) Lakshadweep Islands (b) Gulf of Kachchh
(Soil type) (Major characteristic) (c) Gulf of Mannar (d) Gulf of Cambay
A. Oxisols 1. Very rich in organic 533. In which one of the following States is jute not
matter significantly cultivated ? [2019-II]
B. Vertisols 2. Soil lacking horizons (a) Assam (b) West Bengal
C. Histosols 3. Very old and highly
(c) Odisha (d) Andhra Pradesh
weathered
534. Name the site that gives us valuable information about
D. Entisols 4. Rich in clay content and
India’s maritime links on the Coromandel coast. [2019-II]
highly basic
Code : (a) Bharukachchha (b) Karur
(c) Arikamedu (d) Anuradhapura
A B C D A B C D 535. Where are the largest quantity of cichlids found in India ?
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 [2019-II]
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3 (a) Backwaters of Kerala (b) Sunderbans
526. Which one of the following mountains separates Black (c) Narmada (d) Godavari
Sea and Caspian Sea ? [2019-II] 536. Which Greek philosopher coined the term “Geography”
(a) Urals (b) Caucasus in the 3rd century B.C.E. ? [2019-II]
(c) Carpathians (d) Balkan mountains (a) Euclid (b) Plato
527. Rain caused by thunder storms during the hot weather (c) Eratosthenes (d) Clio
season (min. March to mid-June) in Karnataka are called 537. Which one of the following Indian States has no
[2019-II] international boundary ? [2019-II]
(a) Kalbaisakhi (b) Mango Showers (a) Bihar (b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Loo (d) Cherry bosoms
(c) Uttarakhand (d) Meghalaya
528. What is Inter-cropping ? [2019-II]
538. Which one of the following is not correct regarding South
(a) It is the time period between two cropping seasons.
India ? [2019-II]
(b) It is growing of two or more crops in random mixture.
(a) Diurnal range of temperature is less
(c) It is growing of two or more crops in definite row
patterns. (b) Annual range of temperature is less
(d) It is growing of different crops on a piece of land in a (c) Temperature is high throughout the year
pre-planned succession. (d) Extreme climatic conditions are found
529. Which one of the following, is not a geographical 539. Which one of the following statements regarding sex
requirement for cultivation of cotton ? [2019-II] composition is not correct ?
(a) Temperature reaching 25°C or more in summer (a) In some countries, sex ratio is expressed as number
(b) Moderate to light rainfall of males per thousand females,
(c) Medium loam soil with good drainage (b) In India, sex ratio is expressed as number of females
(d) A growing period of at least 100 frost free days per thousand males.
530. Which one of the following statements regarding (c) At world level, sex ratio is about 102 males per 100
temperate coniferous forest biome is not correct ? females.
[2019-II] (d) In Asia, there is high sex ratio.
(a) They are characterized by very little undergrowth. 540. Which one of the following regions is an important
(b) They have a growing period of 50 to 100 days in a supplier of citrus fruits ? [2019-II]
year. (a) Equatorial region
(c) There is low variation in annual temperature. (b) Mediterranean region
(d) There is high range in spatial distribution of annual (c) Desert region
precipitation. (d) Sub-humid region
EBD_7341
144 Geography
541. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer 551. Geomorphic factors influencing plant and animal
using the code given below the lists . [2019-II] distributions are [2020-I]
List I List II (a) slope angle and relief only
(Ethnic (Related (b) slope aspect and relative relief
Territorial Occupational (c) slope angle, slope aspect and relief
Segment) Pattern) (d) slope angle, slope aspect and relative relief
A. Maruta Makkal 1. Pastoralists 552. Which one of the following groups of cities does not
B. Kuravan Makkal 2. Fishing people have Sclerophyll as its natural vegetation cover?
C. Mullai Makkal 3. Ploughmen [2020-I]
D. Neyta! Makkal 4. Hill people (a) Valparaiso and Cape Town
Code : (b) Lisbon and Perth
A B C D A B C D (c) Los Angeles and Adelaide
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 1 4 3 (d) Las Vegas and Queensland
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 4 1 3 553. Which of the following are warm ocean currents?
542. Which one of the following is the most noticeable [2020-I]
characteristic of the Mediterranean climate ? [2019-II] (a) Kuroshio and California Current
(a) Limited geographical extent . (b) North Atlantic Drift and Brazil Current
(b) Dry summer (c) Canaries and Benguela Current
(c) Dry winter (d) West Wind Drift and Falkland Current
(d) Moderate temperature
554. In India, how many States/Union Territories have more
543. Which one of the following rivers takes a ‘U’ turn at
than two international boundaries? [2020-I]
Namcha Barwa and enters India ? [2019-II]
(a) Ganga (b) Tista (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) Barak (d) Brahmaputra (c) 3 (d) 4
544. In the region of eastern shore of Adriatic Sea, a cold and 555. In the Hadley cell thermal circulation, air rises up and
dry wind blowing down from the mountain is known as finally descends at [2020-I]
[2020-I] (a) intertropical convergence zone
(a) Mistral (b) Bora (b) doldrums
(c) Bise (d) Blizzard (c) subtropical high-pressure cells
545. Nyishi tribe is found mainly in [2020-I] (d) equatorial troughs
(a) Andaman and Nicobar (b) Arunachal Pradesh 556. Which one of the following soils is characterized by very
(c) Nilgiri-Kerala (d) Kashmir Valley high content of organic matter? [2020-I]
546. The number of people per unit area of arable land is termed (a) Vertisol (b) Histosol
as [2020-I] (c) Gelisol (d) Spodosol
(a) agricultural density (b) arithmetic density 557. From which one of the following factory sites were
(c) physiological density (d) economic density limestone and chert blades mass produced and sent to
547. Which one of the following rivers joins Ganga directly? various Harappan settlements in Sindh? [2020-I]
[2020-I] (a) Sukkur and Rohri Hills
(a) Chambal (b) Son
(b) Khetri in Rajasthan
(c) Betwa (d) Ken
548. Which one of the following is not a type of commercial (c) Chagai Hills
agriculture? [2020-I] (d) Hills of Baluchistan
(a) Dairy farming 558. Which one of the following climatic types is found in
(b) Grain farming Central Spain? [2020-I]
(c) Livestock ranching (a) Subarctic
(d) Intensive subsistence agriculture (b) Mediterranean dry hot summer
549. Which one of the following is not a land use category? (c) Subtropical Steppe
[2020-I] (d) Humid continental warm summer
(a) Forestland (b) Pasture land 559. Which one of the following rivers does not drain into
(c) Marginal land (d) Barren and wasteland Black Sea? [2020-I]
550. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Volga
[2020-I] (b) Dnieper
(a) Kuddapah-kar : Rocky wastelands (c) Don
(b) Nancai : Wet fields (d) Danube
(c) Puncai : Dry fields
(d) Tottakal : Garden lands
Geography 145
1. (b) The Moist deciduous forests are more pronounced 18. (c) Cauvery river dispute is among Kerala, Karnataka,
in the regions which record rainfall between 100-200cm. Tamil Nadu and Puducherry.
These forests are found in the northeastern states 19. (d) Vishakhapatnam does not have a gold field.
along the foothills of Himalayas, easteren slopes of the 20. (c) According to the Data for year 2006, the life
Western Ghats and Odisha. Tropical moist deciduous expectancy for males in India is 64 years.
forest covers arounds 37% of the total cover in India 21. (d) The capital of Combodia is Phnom Penh.
which is the largest occupied area among 16 different 22. (b)
forest types of the country. 1. The Apatani - are a tribal group of people living in
2. (b) The National Forestry Action Plan aims to bring the Ziro valley in the Lower Subansiri district of
33% of land area in India under tree cover by 2012. Arunachal Pradesh.
3. (d) Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar is on the Rihand River 2. Bhutia people live particularly in Sikkim.
which is the tributary of the Son River. 3. Gond people are a Dravidian people of central
India spread over the states of Madhya Pradesh,
4. (d) The Nanda Devi National Park is a national park
eastern Maharashtra (Vidarbha), Chhattisgarh, Uttar
situated around the peak of Nanda Devi (7,816 m). It
Pradesh, Telangana and Western Odisha.
is situated in Chamoli district, Uttarakhand. 4. The Meetei people are an ethnic group of Kangleipak
5. (c) Montreal is Situated on the bank of river st. lowrence. (Manipur).
6. (d) 1. Edmanton- Canada 23. (d) Ukraine is not located between Caspian Sea and
2. Kimbertley- South Africa the Black Sea. It is located on the North of Black Sea.
3. Cardiff- United Kingdom 24. (c) Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary also known as the Wild
4. Cairns- Australia. Ass Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Little Rann of
7. (b) Bass Strait is a sea strait which separates Tasmania Kutch in the Gujarat.
from the Australian mainland. The lion-tailed macaque is an Old World monkey
8. (d) Selvas is a tropical rain forest found in the endemic to the Western Ghats of South India. In the
Amazon basin of South America. forests of Kerala they were observed preying on
9. (a) The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway nestling and eggs of pigeons.
in Egypt, It connects the Mediterranean Sea and the Hoolock Gibbon is a primate found in Assam,
Red Sea. On November 17, 1869, the Suez Canal was Bangladesh and in Myanmar.
opened to navigation. 25. (a) Both intersects each other at Jhansi (Uttar Pradesh).
10. (a) The Luni is a river of western Rajasthan state. It 26. (d) The Sundarbans is the largest single block of tidal
originates in the Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Range halophytic mangrove forest in the world. The Sundarban
near Ajmer and ends in Rann of Kutch in Gujarat. forest lies in the vast delta on the Bay of Bengal formed
11. (b) The Great Barrier Reef is the world's largest coral by the super confluence of the Ganges, Padma,
reef system located in the Coral Sea, off the coast of Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers across southern
Queensland, Australia. Bangladesh. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
12. (d) Central Zone of Indian railways is situated at 27. (c) Lemurs are a clade of strepsirrhine primates endemic
Mumbai CST. Jabalpur is headquarter of West Central to the island of Madagascar. Loris is the common name
Railway Zone. for the strepsirrhine primates of the subfamily Lorinae
13. (a) Palghat Gap is a low mountain pass in the Western in the family Lorisidae.
28. (a) Christopher Columbus encountered the cocoa
Ghats between Coimbatore in Tamil Nadu and Palakkad
bean on his fourth mission to the Americas on August
in Kerala. It allows inland communication from Madurai 15, 1502 when he and his crew seized a large native
to Thiruvananthapuram. canoe that proved to contain among other goods for
14. (d) The Gandhi Sagar Dam is one of the four major trade cocoa beans.
dams built on India's Chambal River. The dam is located 29. (c) Mixed farming is an agrarian system that mixes
in the Mandsaur district of Madhya Pradesh. arable farming with the raising of livestock. When on a
15. (b) With a view to restoring the past glory for Kolleru farm along-with crop production, some other agriculture
lake, government had taken up 'Operation Kolleru' on based practice like poultry, dairy farming or bee keeping
the Krishna and West Godavari district borders. Kolleru etc. is adopted then this is known as mixed farming.
Lake is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India 30. (d)
located in state of Andhra Pradesh A. Mercury- God of Commerce, Eloquence,and Skill
16. (d) USA has the largest cultivated area of cotton in the B. Pluto- God of Underworld and Death
world. C. Mars- God of War
17. (b) Dakshin Gangotri was the first scientific base D. Neptune- God of the Sea
station of India situated in Antarctica. The National 31. (a) The creatures that we normally think of as dinosaurs
Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCAOR) is lived during the Mesozoic Era, from late in the Triassic
situated in Vasco, Goa. It is an autonomous Institution period (about 225 million years ago) until the end of the
of the Department of Ocean Development (DOD) which Cretaceous (about 65 million years ago).
is responsible for administering the Indian Antarctic 32. (d) On the equinox, night and day is nearly exactly the
Program and maintains the Indian government's Antarctic same length - 12 hours - all over the world. Thus equator
research station, Maitri. experience 12 hours daylight on September equinox.
EBD_7341
146 Geography
33. (d) The National Waterways Bill, 2015, as passed by 47. (c) An Astronomical Unit is the mean distance between
Lok Sabha on 21 December, 2015, hereby declared the the Earth and the Sun. 1 AU = 149,597,870.700 kilometers.
inland waterways specified at serial number 6 to 111 to 48. (b) 1. Narora (Uttar Pradesh)- 2 × 220 MW
be national waterways for the purposes of shipping and 2. Kaiga (Karnataka)- 4 × 220 MW
navigation. National Waterway 1 (NW 1) starts from 3. Rawatbhata (Rajasthan)- 1 × 100 MWe;1 × 200
Allahabad to Haldia with a distance of 1620 km (longest MWe; 4 × 220 MWe
National waterway in India). It runs through the 4. Tarapur (Maharashtra)- 1400 MW
Ganges, Bhagirathi and Hoogly river system. 49. (c) The point at which the equator (0° latitude) and the
34. (b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct Prime Meridian (0° longitude) intersect each other, falls
explanation of A. in the middle of the Atlantic Ocean, in the Gulf of
35. (b) The Golden Quadrilateral connects the four major Guinea off the coast of western Africa.
cities of Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata. The 50. (a)
North- South corridor will pass through Hyderabad. 51. (a) Freshwater is less heavier than saltwater and so
36. (c) Crude oil was discovered here in late 19th century. our body, though only a little heavier than it, tends to
The first refinery of Digboi was started here as early as sink in it. Ordinary sea water is heavier than fresh water
1901. Digboi has the oldest oil well in operation. It is because it contains a lot of salts dissolved in it, so we
situated in the north-eastern part of the state of Assam. find it easier to float and swim in sea water than fresh
37. (b) The Tropic of Cancer 23°30' N divides India into water.
almost two halves. 52. (b)
38. (d) Durgapur Steel Plant is located in Durgapur ( West 53. (d) Ursa Major constellation lies in the northern sky.
Bengal.) It was Set up in the late 1950s with assistance Its name means "the great bear," or "the larger bear," in
from United Kingdom. It is one of the integrated steel Latin. It is one of the best known constellations in the
plants of Steel Authority of India Limited. Rourkela Steel sky.
plant was established in collaboration with Germany and 54. (a) Western Ghats are UNESCO World Heritage Site
Bhilai steel plant was started in collaboration with Russia. and is one of the eight "hottest hotspots" of biological
39. (a) The southwest monsoon brings rains towards the diversity in the world.
end of summer as the high pressure built in the Indian 55. (b) Gorakhpur (Uttar Pradesh)is the headquarters of
Ocean pushes the wind masses towards the low North-Eastern Railway.
pressure formed on land. The southwestern summer 56. (c) '38 parallel' separates North korea and South
monsoons occur from July through September. Northern korea..
and central Indian subcontinent heats up during the hot 57. (a) 1. Muzaffarnagar- Sugar
summers. This causes a low pressure area over the 2. Adoni- Cotton textile
northern and central Indian subcontinent. To fill this 3. Ranchi- Engineering goods
void, the moisture-laden winds from the Indian Ocean 4. Jalandhar- Sports goods
rush in to the subcontinent. These winds, rich in 58. (d) The Son flows north-northwest through Madhya
moisture, are drawn towards the Himalayas. The Pradesh.
Himalayas act like a high wall, blocking the winds from 59. (a) Planimeters are used to measure areas on maps of
passing into Central Asia and forcing them to rise. As any kind. They are often used by surveyors, foresters,
the clouds rise their temperature drops and precipitation geologists, geographers, engineers and architects.
occurs. 60. (c) Nasik is located on the banks of the Godavari.
4. Second Civil Disobedience Movement- 1932 61. (d) Rihand Dam, is the largest multi-purpose project of
40. (b) Taiwan is not a member of UN. Taiwan wants to Uttar Pradesh, India. The dam was constructed on the
become a member of the United Nations. However, it river Rihand (Tributary of the Son River) near village
lost its seat in that body in 1971 when the U.N.chose Pipri in Sonbhadra district of UP.
to recognize the People's Republic of China instead. 62. (a) According to 2011 Forest Survey of India. Mizoram
According to U.N decision, there can be only one China has third highest total forest cover with 1,594,000
in the world and the government in Beijing runs it. hectares and highest percentage area (90.68%) covered
41. (b) The Palk Strait is situated between the Tamil Nadu by forests, among the states of India.
and the Mannar district of the Northern Province of Sri 63. (c) The correct sequence is, Murshidabad- Gorakhpur-
Lanka. It connects the Bay of Bengal in the northeast Bhopal- Bhavnagar
with the Palk Bay and thence with the Gulf of Mannar 64. (a) Manipur does not have boundary with Bangladesh.
in the southwest. 65. (b) The Latitude & Longitude for New Delhi are 28.38
42. (c) Degree N and 77.12 degree.
43. (a) The correct sequence is Alwar(Rajasthan)- 66. (a) Mist is a thin fog resulting from condensation in
Gorakhpur(Uttar Pradesh)- Ranchi(Jharkhand)- the air near the earth's surface.
Bhagalpur(Bihar). 67. (c) Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary is located in
44. (c) Godwin Austen (K2) is the highest peak in the Karnataka.
given options. It is the world's second tallest peak It 68. (d) Pattadakal is a village and an important tourist
islocated in the Karakoram range of the Himalaya in centre in the state of Karnataka and is located on the
Northern Kashmir. Its height is 8611m. left bank of the Malaprabha River.
45. (a) Bangladesh shares longest border with India. Both 69. (a) 1. Aurangabad- Ellora temples
countries share a 4,096-kilometer) long international 2. Guwahati- Nilanchal hills
border. 3. Puducherry- Auroville
46. (b). By analyzing climogram, we can get the relevant 4. Varanasi- Sarnath
information of about a climate of a place. It shows wind
direction and frequency of wind.
Geography 147
70. (c) Sualkuchi is located in Assam. This is the textile Tamil Nadu which is located in South Arcol district.
center of Assam. Muga silk and Pat silk along with Eri Neyveli is the largest lignite coal mine of India.
silk and Endi cloth from this region is famous for its 86. (c) 1. Rihand - Pipri
quality. 2. Gandak- Balmikinagar
71. (b) Guallatire is one of the most active volcanoes in 3. Chambal- Kota
northern Chile. 4. Mahanadi- Hirakund
72. (c) The island of Honshu is located in Japan. 87. (a) The correct sequence is Kochi- Mangalore-
73. (d) Narmada flows into the Gulf of Khambhat (Arabian Mumbai- Koyali
Sea). 88. (d) The source of the Narmada is Amarkantak in the
74. (b) 1. Slate- Metamorphous Rock Anuppur District (eastern Madhya Pradesh).
2. Lignite- sedimentary rock 89. (d) Sambhar lake in Rajasthan is the largest salt water
3. Bauxite- Non ferrous mineral lake in India.
4. Granite - Igneous rock 90. (b) 1. Brahamaputra- Dikhow
75. (b) Kapurthala is a city in Punjab state and famous for 2. Krishna- Musi
production of railway coaches, it was established in 3. Narmada- Tawa
1986 by the government of India. 4. Cauveri- Bhavani
76. (d) Coonoor hill station is situated in Nilgiris district of 91. (b) The Aravalli range are the oldest fold mountains in
Tamilnadu. India.
77. (c) A meridian is an imaginary line joining the north 92. (d) Indian Standard Time is calculated on the basis of
and south poles at right angles to the equator, 82.5° E longitude in Shankargarh Fort mirzapur
designated by degrees of longitude from 0° at Greenwich (Allahabad).
to 180°.The position of a point along the meridian is 93. (c) 1. Zoji La Pass- Jammu and Kashmir
given by its latitude. Each meridian is perpendicular to 2. Bara Lacha Pass- Himachal Pradesh
all circles of latitude. 3. Jalep La Pass- Sikkim
78. (d) Kakrapar Atomic Power Station is situated in
4. Niti pass- Uttarakhand.
Gujarat. It consists of two 220 MW pressurized water
94. (c) Barren Island is located in the Andaman Sea. It is
reactors with heavy water as moderator (PHWR).It was
the only confirmed active volcano in South Asia.
commissioned in 1993.
95. (d) 1. Brazil- cruzado Real
79. (c) Madhya Pradesh shares its border with 5 states
2. China- Yuan
which are Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra,
Gujarat and Rajasthan. 3. Mexico- Mexican Peso
80. (a) Forest Survey of India (FSI) is an organisation 4. Thailand- Thai Baht
under the Ministry of Environment & Forests. 96. (d) Anthracite has higher percentage of Carbon. It has
Government of India conducts survey and assessment a carbon content of over 87% on a dry ash-free basis.
of forest resources in the country. The organization 97. (a) Spring tides occur when the sun and moon are
came into being in June, 1981.The headquarters of FSI directly in line with the earth and their gravitational
are at Dehradun. pulls reinforce each other.
81. (b) National Highway 7 is the longest national highway in 98. (c) Black holes are objects of extreme density, with
India. It runs through the states of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya such strong gravitational attraction that even light
Pradesh, Maharashtra,Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, cannot escape from their grasp if it comes near enough.
Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. The highway connects several The term "black hole" was coined in 1967 by John
Wheeler.
important Indian cities such as Varanasi, Rewa,Jabalpur,
99. (b) Deserts usually have a large diurnal and seasonal
Nagpur, Adilabad, Nirmal, Kamareddy, Hyderabad, Kurnool,
temperature range, with high daytime temperatures (in
Anantapur, Chikkaballapur, Bangalore, Krishnagiri,
summer up to 45 °C or 113 °F), and low night-time
Dharmapuri, Salem, Namakkal, Velur, Karur,Dindigul, Madurai,
temperatures (in winter down to 0 °C; 32 °F) due to
Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli.It is 2,369 km from Varanasi to extremely low humidity. Clouds does not precipitates in
Kanyakumari. deserts due to low humidity.
82. (b) Kerala is the largest producer of pepper in 100. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
India.Kerala accounts for 97.4 per cent of the total area explanation of A.
under the crop in the country. In 2014-15, Karnataka has 101. (d) 102. (d) 103. (a)
overtaken Kerala and become the country's leading 104. (b) The Western Ghats or Sahyadri is one of the eight
pepper producer, accounting for 45% of the total "hottest hotspots" of biological diversity in the world.
production. Karnataka produced 33,000 metric tonnes of Eastern Himalaya is situated between Central Nepal in
pepper in 2014-15, against Kerala's 28,000MT. the west and Myanmar has been declared a biodiversity
83. (a) The shaded area in the map is major cotton hotspot by Conservation International.
producer states in India. Cotton producing states in 105. (c) Sorghum is a genus of plants in the grass family.
India are Gujarat, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, One species is grown for grain and many of which are
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu etc. used as fodder plants. Millets are a group of highly
84. (b) The Digboi refinery was set up in 1901 by Assam variable small-seeded grasses, widely grown around the
Oil Company Ltd.It is situated in upper Assam district world as cereal crops or grains for fodder and human
of Tinsukia. Digboi oilfield has the oldest running oil food. Thus, Sorghum is categorized as millet.
well in India. 106. (c) National Park an area of countryside, or occasionally
85. (d) Lignite coal is mainly produced in two states - sea or fresh water, protected by the state for the
Tamil Nadu and Gujarat. Neyveli is the lignite field in enjoyment of the general public or the preservation of
wildlife.
EBD_7341
148 Geography
An animal sanctuary is a facility where animals are in the Indo-Gangetic Plain and the South-West monsoons
brought to live and be protected for the rest of their blow from the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.
lives. NITCZ is the zone of clouds and heavy rainfall.
A biosphere reserve is an area of land or water that is 116. (b) Increase in the proportion of old population.
protected by law in order to support the conservation 117. (c) The Tasman Sea separates Australia from New
of ecosystems, as well as the sustainability of mankind's Zealand.
impact on the environment. 118. (c) 119. (a) 120. (a)
107. (c) Stratosphere is rich in Ozone gas. 121. (b) All statements are correct.
108. (b) Comet is a celestial object consisting of a nucleus 122. (c) Adam's Bridge is a chain of limestone shoals
of ice and dust and, when near the sun, a 'tail' of gas between Rameswaram Island (Tamil Nadu) and Mannar
and dust particles pointing away from the sun. Island(Sri Lanka). The bridge is 30 kilometres long and
109. (b) Jute Mills are highly concentrated in Hugli Basin separates the Gulf of Mannar from the Palk Strait.
(West Bengal) because 123. (d) Radio waves are reflected back to earth from the
This industry requires a lot of water which is easily Ionosphere. The ionosphere is a shell of electrons and
available from the Hugli River. electrically charged atoms and molecules that surrounds
Jute is the crop of hot and humid climate. It requires the Earth. It is a region of Earth's upper atmosphere,
high temperature varying from 24°C to 35°C and heavy from about 60 km to 600 km altitude.
rainfall of 120 to 150 cm with 80 to 90 per cent relative 124. (b) Mellanesia region consists of the four countries of
humidity during the period of its growth.This type of Vanuatu, Solomon Islands, Fiji and Guinea. It is a sub-
climate is found in West Bengal. region of Oceania extending from the western end of the
110. (c) High spring tides occur at new moon and full moon Pacific Ocean to the Arafura Sea, and eastward to Fiji.
because the Sun,Earth and Moon are in straight line. Besides these independent countries, Melanesia also
111. (a) In agriculture, leaching refers to the loss of water- includes New Caledonia, Maluku Islands and West
soluble plant nutrients from the soil, due to rain and Papua.
irrigation. The rate of leaching increases with the 125. (a) Israel has common borders with Lebanon, Syria,
amount of rainfall, high temperatures, and the removal jordan, and Egypt.
of protective vegetation. In areas of extensive leaching, 126. (b) Europe does not have a desert. It has Accona
many plant nutrients are lost, leaving quartz and desert- a semi-desert in central Italy.
hydroxides of iron, manganese, and aluminium. This 127. (c)
remainder forms a distinctive type of soil, called laterite. 128. (c) The correct sequence is Thiruvananthapuram-
112. (b) About 80% of the manganese production in India Cochin-Calicut- Mangalore
comes from Balaghat District of Madhya Pradesh. 129. (a) Koyli- Gujarat
Katni (Madhya Pradesh ) is famous for Bauxite Trombay- Suburb of Mumbai
mines.Singrauli Coalfield is spread across the districts Jamnagar- Gujarat
of Singrauli(Madhya Pradesh). Most of the coal is Manglore- Karnataka
dispatched to pithead power plants as Singrauli Super 130. (d) Rwanda is located north of the equator.
Thermal Power Station, Rihand Thermal Power Station 131. (d) The Suez Canal connects the Mediterranean Sea and
and Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station etc. the Red Sea. It allows ships to travel between Europe and
Kalol in Gujaratis famous for its oil fields. South Asia. It is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt.
113. (b) The trees in Monsoon Forests shed their leaves 132. ((b) The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates
for about six to eight weeks in summer on account of the South Andaman and Car Nicobar in the Bay of Bengal.
a long dry spell. The rainfall suited for such forests is 133. (d) 1. Ganga - Gaumukh
between75 to 200 cm. Sal is of the dry deciduous variety 2. Son- Amarkantak
of tropical monsoon forest. 3. Godavari- Trimbakeshwar
114. (d) Southeast Asia is a sub region of Asia, consisting 4. Krishna- Mahabaleshwar
of the countries that are geographically south of China, 134. (b) At high altitudes, pressure cooker is preferable for
east of India. Southeast Asia consists of two geographic cooking because the boiling point of water reduces due
regions: Maritime Southeast Asia and Mainland to lower atmosphere pressure.
Southeast Asia. Mainland Southeast Asia comprises of 135. (b) Sriharikota does not have a heavy water plant.
Cambodia, Laos,Myanmar (Burma), Thailand, Vietnam, Satish Dhawan Space Centre is a rocket launch centre
and West Malaysia. These countries are culturally located in Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.
closer to India but ethnically closer to China. Currently, 136. (c) The Venice Simplon-Orient-Express passed through
there is around 190-205 million Buddhists in Southeast the UK, France, Switzerland, Austria , Italy , Czech
Asia, making it the second largest religion in the region, Republic, Germany, Hungary, Romania, Bulgaria and
after Islam. Thus, around 35 to 38% of the global Turkey.
Buddhist population resides in Southeast Asia. The 137. (d) The Chamera -1 Hydroelectric project is located at
region has been greatly influenced by the cultures and the Chamba district in the state of Himachal Pradesh.
religions of India and China. The Chamera-I generates 540 MW (3x180 MW) of
115. (c) The southeast trade winds in the southern electricity. Salal power station is run-of-the-river scheme
hemisphere and the northeast trade winds in the with an installed capacity of 690 MW (Stage-I of 3 x115
northern hemisphere meet each other near the equator. MW & Stage-II 3 X115 MW) to harnesses the
The meeting place of these winds is known as the Inter- Hydropower potential of river Chenab. It is located in
Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ). In the month of Reasi district of Jammu & Kashmir.
July, the ITCZ shifts to 20°- 25° N latitude and is located
Geography 149
138. (b) Most of the Western flowing rivers travel lesser 151. (b) The Thiruvananthapuram Rajdhani (12431/32) is
distance than eastern flowing rivers before getting into the longest running Rajdhani Express train, which
the sea. On way to Western coast through hard rocks covers about 3,149 km . It runs from Thiruvanathapuram
and over higher gradient, they couldn't collect large Central (Kerala)to Hazrat Nizamuddin(Delhi).
amount of Slit and flow with very high speed compared Thiruvananthapuram is the capital of Kerala.
to East flowing rivers. Eastern rivers flow through 152. (a)
broken hills and mountain ranges. So, they are widened 153. (d) Santhals are the largest tribal group in India who
and flow with lesser velocity before entering into sea. lives mainly in Assam, odisha, Bihar, West Bengal and
So, they deposit sediments and silt before entering into Jharkhand.
sea and can form a Delta. 154. (b) The South Equatorial Current is a significant
139. (a) The summer or south-west monsoon comes in from Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian Ocean current that flows
the direction of Africa, and brings heavy rain to the east-to-west between the equator and about 20 degrees
west coast and large areas of northern India between south.
June and August. The Western Ghats intercepts the 155. (c) Himalayas contain three mountain ranges the
Southwestern Monsoon winds. The Western slopes of Himadri (greater Himalaya), Himachal (lesser Himalaya)
the mountains experience heavy annual rainfall (with 80 and the Shiwaliks (outer Himalaya).
percent of it falling during the southwest monsoon from 156. (c) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is located in
June to September), while the Eastern slopes are drier; Uttarakhand. It was inscribed a World Heritage Site by
rainfall also decreases from South to North. UNESCO in 1988.
140. (a) Tsunami is not caused by hurricanes. 157. (a) If a planet has no atmosphere, all of the sunlight
141. (c) which strikes it reaches the surface, and usually 90% or
142. (c) The jet streams are strong, generally westerly more of that is absorbed and 10% or less is reflected back
winds concentrated in a relatively narrowand shallow into space. Thus the temperature will increase.
stream in the upper troposphere of the earth. 158. (c) Kashmir region from North to South is Gilgit-
143. (d) Intergenerational equity is a concept that says that Kargil- Sri Nagar- Banihal
humans 'hold the natural and cultural environment of 159. (b)
the Earth in common both with other members of the 160. (a) 1. Cirque and coal - Glacial Topography
present generation and with other generations, past and 2. Barkhans and Yardans- Desert topography
future. It means that we inherit the Earth from previous 3. Eddies and Potholes- Fluvial topography
generations and have an obligation to pass it on in 161. (b) Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir, Rajasthan and Gujarat
reasonable condition to future generations. The goal of have common borders with Pakistan.
sustainable development is Intergenerational equity. 162. (b) Factors that influence the ocean current are rotation
144. (d) The epicenter is the point on the Earth's surface of the earth, air pressure and wind and ocean water
where an earthquake explosion originates. density.Revolution of the earth causes seasons and time
145. (c) Sea of Azov is a sea in south-eastern Europe. change.
Arabian Sea is the northwestern part of the Indian 163. (a) Hurricanes begin as tropical disturbances in warm
Ocean. ocean waters with surface temperatures of at least 80
146. (d) The lithosphere is the solid, outer part of the Earth. degrees Fahrenheit (26.5 degrees Celsius). In a category
The hydrosphere is the liquid water component of the 1 hurricane, wind rage from 120–152 km.
Earth.An atmosphere is the mixture of gases surrounding 164. (b) Son, and Narmada rivers originate from Amarkantak
the Earth or other celestial body.The Biosphere is the region. while Mahanandi originates from shiwa
part of the earth's surface and atmosphere inhabited by mountaied in the Chhattigarh.
livingthings. 165. (a) The point of Kepler's IInd law is that, although the
147. (a) The bolívar fuerte is the currency of Venezuela. orbit is symmetric, the motion is not. A planet speeds
148. (b) Cairo is located at 30 degree east longitude. up as it approaches the Sun, gets its greatest velocity
149. (a) Correct sequence is Godavari- Penner- Cauveri- when passing closest, then slows down again and the
Periyar earth moves fastest at perihelion and slowest at
The Godavari is the second longest river in India after aphelion.
the river Ganga. It originates from Western Ghats of 166. (c) Thailand does not have a border with China. The
central India near Nasik in Maharashtra.The Penner 14 countries touch the border of china which are India,
originates from Nandi Hills in Chikballapur District of Pakistan, Afghanistan, Tajikistan, Kyrgyzstan,
Karnataka. This river flows from north as well as east Kazakhstan, Mongolia, Russia, North Korea,Vietnam,
corners across Andhra Pradesh.The Cauvery originates Laos, Myanmar, Bhutan and Nepal.
from Western Ghats in Karnataka and flows generally 167. (d) The shape of the trajectory will be undeterministic.
south and east through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.The 168. (c) Correct sequence is Rapids- Ox-bow Lake-Estuary
Periyar originates from Western Ghats range near the Rapids are sections of a river where the river bed has
border with Tamil Nadu and flows in Kerala. a relatively steep gradient, causing an increase in water
150. (b) Tawang is situated in the northwestern part of velocity and turbulence.An ox-bow lake is a U-shaped
body of water that forms when a wide meander from the
Arunachal Pradesh at an elevation of approximately
main stem of a river is cut off, creating a free-standing
10,000 ft. The area is claimed by both the People's
body of water.An estuary is a body of water formed where
Republic of China and the Republic of India as a part
freshwater from rivers and streams flows into the ocean,
of South Tibet.
mixing with the seawater.
EBD_7341
150 Geography
169. (b) Tropical easterly jet stream occurs near the Tropophytesis a kind of plant adapted to climatic
tropopause over Southeast Asia, India and Africa conditions in which periods of heavy rainfall alternate
during summer. This jet is closely connected to the with periods of drought. It grows in monsoon land.
Indian and African summer monsoons. The existence of 180. (a)
this jet implies that there is a deep layer of warm air to 181. (a) As air moves from high to low pressure in the
the north of the jet and colder air to the south over the northern hemisphere, it is deflected to the right.In the
Indian Ocean. This warm air is of course associated southern hemisphere, air moves from high to low
with the maximum heating taking place over India in pressure and deflected to the left due to Coriolis force.
summer, while the colder air is over the ocean. The The earth's rotation (West to East) deflects the direction
difference in heating and cooling and the ensuing of the wind to the right in the northern hemisphere and
pressure gradient is what drives this jet. to the left in the southern hemisphere.
170. (b) Baltic Nations are those that have shorelines along 182. (b) Narmada valley builds the traditional boundary
the Baltic Sea. The group of countries presently referred between North India and South India and has structural
Baltic States are Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania. Slovakia origin.
is not a Baltic state. 183. (a) Kota petrochemical industry is the most westward
171. (c) The Ural Mountain range forms the natural located in India.
boundary between Europe and Asia. The Ural Mountains 184. (c) Avoidance of flood and drought prone areas for
extend about 2,500 km from the Kara Sea to the Kazakh agriculture would not be sustainable in this respect.
Steppe along the northern border of Kazakhstan. This 185. (d) Demographic gap is the difference between birth
range marks the northern part of the border between the rate and death rate that develops when a country
continents of Europe and Asia. undergoes demographic transition.
172. (a) The correct sequence is Light breeze-Fresh breeze- 186. (c). A geostationary satellite is an earth-orbiting satellite.
Gale-Hurricane. It is placed at an altitude of approximately 35,800
173. (a) It's an oblate spheroid because of inertial forces. kilometres directly over the equator that revolves in the
The planet spins on its axis. This motion causes the same direction the earth rotates (west to east).
regions closer to the equator to bulge outwards 187. (a) Wind is often found to blow in a hot summer day
resulting in the current shape of the Earth. Earth is not due to conduction of heat between air and soil on the
perfectly spherical. The pull of gravity on an object Earth.
changes as the distance of the object from the centre 188. (b) They are the deepest points of the Atlantic,India
of the earth changes. If the Earth were a perfect sphere, and Pacific Oceanrespectively.
then objects would weigh exactly the same any place on Milwaukee Deep is the deepest part of the Atlantic Ocean.
Earth (as long as they were at the same elevation). In Java Trench is located in the northeastern Indian Ocean.
reality, the weight of an object varies as it changes its The Challenger Deep is located in the Pacific Ocean.
position on the Earth's surface. At the equator, where 189. (a) During summer season(May, June, and July) the
the Earth's diameter is greatest, objects weigh a little northern hemisphere is exposed to more direct sunlight
less. At the Poles, where the Earth's diameter is the because the hemisphere faces the sun.
least, objects weight a little more. 190. (d) The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a
174. (c) Winds from equator to poles: Doldrum- Trade satellitebased system that can be used to locate
Winds- Westerlies- Easterlies positions anywhere on the earth. It is associated with
175. (b) The Labrador Current is a cold current in the North longitude and latitude. It is a "constellation" of 24 well-
Atlantic Ocean. spaced satellites that orbit the Earth and make it
176. (c) Both statements are true. possible for people with ground receivers to pinpoint
177. (a) Santa Maria is an island located in the eastern their geographic location. The Russian government has
group of the Azores archipelago. It is located at Azores developed a system, similar to GPS, called GLONASS.
Platform in Mid-Atlantic Ridge. The US began the GPS project in 1973.
178. (a) 1. Dudwa National park - Uttar Pradesh 191. (c) The angular speed of a whirlwind in a Tornado
2. Kanha National Park- Madhya Pradesh towards the centre remains constant.
3. Indravati National Park - Chattisgarh 192. (c) According to data from the United Nations half of
4. Bandipur National Park- Karnataka those 7.2 billion people live in only six countries: the
179. (c) An epiphyte is a plant that grows harmlessly upon United States, Brazil, Pakistan, India, China, and
another plant (such as a tree), and derives its moisture Indonesia. The world population has reached 7.2 billion.
and nutrients from the air, rain. Epiphytes provide a rich 193. (c) The temperature inside the earth's surface increases
and diverse habitat for other organisms including with depth.From 20 m below the earth's surface, the
animals, fungi, bacteria etc.Selvas is found in South temperature increases at the rate of 1 degree Celsius for
America.Savanna is a rolling grassland scattered with every 40 m of descent. This rapid increase of temperature
shrubs and isolated trees, which can be found between continues up to a great depth.
a tropical rainforest and desert biome. Savanna is found 194. (a) Asia has large areas of inland drainage because
in Africa, South America, India, and Australia.Tundra is rainfall is seasonal and scanty.
type of biome where the tree growth is hindered by low 195. (b) In the given condition, difference between seasons
temperatures and short growing seasons. Tundra is the will be reduced.
coldest of all the biomes. The vegetation is composed 196. (c) A. Tropical evergreen forests- Above 200 cm
of dwarf shrubs, sedges and grasses, mosses, and B. Tropical deciduous forests - 100-200 cm
lichens. C. Tropical Dry forest- 50-100 cm
D. Arid forest- Less than 50 cm
Geography 151
197. (c) Cash crops are those which are produced for the 212. (c) The horse latitudes are regions located at about 30
purpose of generating cash or money. The products are degrees north and south of the equator. These latitudes
therefore intended to be marketed for profit.Sugarcane are characterized by calm winds and little precipitation.
and coffee are cash crops which provide immediate 213. (d) A nautical mile is 1,852 meters, or 1.852 kilometers.
cash to farmers. In the English measurement system, a nautical mile is
198. (b) The term, 'intensive subsistence agriculture' is 1.1508 miles, or 6,076 feet.
used to describe a type of agriculture characterised by 214. (c) Thermal Equatoris an imaginary line round the
high output per unit of land and relatively low output earth running through the point on each meridian with
per worker. Sometimes it is also known as 'monsoon the highest average temperature. It lies mainly to the
type of agriculture'. It is found in China, Japan, Korea, north because of the larger landmasses and thus greater
India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, the greater part of continental summer heating.
South-East Asia. This is why the largest population of 215. (a) El Nino is a warm ocean current. The term El Niño
peasants is found in this area. refers to the large-scale oceanatmosphere climate
199. (d) 1. Manas- Asom interaction linked to a periodic warming in sea surface
2. Pachmarhi - Madhya Pradesh temperatures across the central and east-central
3. Nokrek - Meghalaya Equatorial Pacific.
4. Achanakmar-Amarkantak- Chhattisgarh, 216. (c) Kanha National Park belongs to tropical moist dry
200. (d) The eastern and western boundaries of the Pacific deciduous forest. It is a tiger reserve of India and the
Ocean experience frequent earthquake because High largest national park of Madhya Pradesh.
mountain strech along the continental margins adjacent 217. (d) Broken Hills are located in New South Wales,
to this ocean. Australia. It is a mining city.
201. (c) The lower course of a river is sometimes chocked 218. (b) Time is advance towards the east as sun rises first
with sediments because the valley of a river is widest in the east then in west.
in its lower course, the velocity of a river in its lower 219. (c) Ozone Layer absorbs most of the ultraviolet
course is low and the delta sometimes develops in a radiation found in the sun's rays. Chlorofluorocarbon is
river's lower course.
a serious threat to the ozone layer. Other Ozone
202. (a) The Vindhyan system of rocks is important for the
depleting gases are Halon, Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4),
production of precious stones and building materials.
The system derives its name from the Vindhyan hills Methyl chloroform (CH3CCl3), Methyl bromide (CH3Br)
where its rocks are prominently exposed. It forms a etc.
dividing line between the Ganga Plain and the Deccan. 220. (d) Climate change benefits Russia and Northern
The main rocks of the Vindhyan system are coarse, Europe as they are in colder region.
medium and fine textured sandstones, shales and 221. (d) Any city north of the Tropic of Cancer will never
limestones. The Vindhyan system of rocks bear out have the sun directly overhead. Thus, Sri Nagar never
precious stones, ornamental stones, diamonds, building gets vertical rays of the sun all through the year. Its
materials, and raw materials for cement, lime, glass and latitude is approximately 34 degree north.
chemical industries 222. (c) Tapti does not flow in to the Bay of Bengal. The
203. (b) Fold Mountains form when two tectonic plates river rises in the eastern Satpura Range of southern
move together (a convergent plate boundary). Fold Madhya Pradesh and flows into the Gulf of Cambay of
Mountains form from sedimentary rocks that accumulate the Arabian Sea.
along the margins of continents. 223. (c) 111 Kms are represented by 1 degree latitude.
204. (d) Mr X will likely to be flown over Black Sea. Since 224. (c) Africa and South America form a mirror image of
Black Sea is bounded by Europe, Anatolia and Caucasus, each other.
it is ultimately connected to the Atlantic Ocean. 225. (a) 226. (b)
205. (b) 227. (c) Biomass is a renewable energy resource derived
206. (c) Both statements are correct. from the carbonaceous waste of various human and
207. (a) Black soils become sticky when it is wet. It is rich natural activities. It can be derived from numerous
in iron, lime, calcium, Magnesium, carbonates, and sources as agricultural crops, household waste and
alumina and poor in Phosphorous, Nitrogen and Organic wood etc.
matter. The soil is black in colour because it is volcanic 228. (b) While the latitude of a particular location affects its
in origin. It is created from igneous rocks, and is also climate, the longitude can determine the time zone a
called 'regur soil'. particular location is in.
208. (a) 1. Chinook wind- Rocky Mountains 229. (c) The move is designed to simplify the country's
trade relations. Samoa's biggest trading partners are
2. Foehn- Northern slopes of the Alps
situated on the opposite side of the dateline. Despite
3. Sirocco- North African desert their geographical proximity, Australia and New Zealand
4. Mistral - Southern slopes of Alps are nearly one calendar day ahead. Samoa will switch
209. (b) The oil refineries of India from west to east:Koyali time zones by redrawing the international dateline. The
(Gujarat), Mathura(U.P), Haldia (West Bengal), Bongaigaon change will occur at midnight on December 29, 2011.
(Assam). 230. (b) Ozone is mainly found in two regions of the Earth's
210. (c) According to census 2011, the least population is atmosphere. Most ozone (about 90%) resides in a layer
in Lakshadweep i.e. 64,429(0.01 % of total population). that begins between 6 and 10 miles (10 and 17
211. (b) Red soils are very poor in lime, humous and kilometers) above the Earth's surface and extends up to
potash. about 30 miles (50 kilometers). This region of the
EBD_7341
152 Geography
atmosphere is called the stratosphere. The ozone in this 243. (c) A continually rising air pressure is an indication of
region is commonly known as the ozone layer. The fine and settled weather, and a steadily falling tendency
remaining ozone is in the lower region of the atmosphere, in the barometer foretells the advent of unsettled and
which is commonly called the troposphere. This layer cloudy weather.
serves as a shield from the ultraviolet radiation emitted 244. (d) Loess soil is a wind-blown sedimentary deposit.
by the sun. Good examples are found in China and Europe and
231. (a) Duncan Passage is a strait in the Indian Ocean. It United States etc. It is a kind of silt that forms a fertile
separates South and Little Andaman. topsoil in some parts of the world. Loess consists of
232. (c) Tiger Reserves tiny mineral particles brought by wind to the places
States where they now lie. These mineral particles are finer
1. Indravati Tiger Reserve - Chhattishgarh than sand, but coarser than clay.
2. Periyar Tiger Reserve - Kerala, 245. (b) These species of cotton are as follows.
3. Simlipal Tiger Reserve - Odisha i. Gossypium arboreum, commonly called tree cotton,
4. Bandipur Tiger Reserve - Karnataka. is a species of cotton native to India, Pakistan and other
233. (d) An endemic species, however, is a native species tropical and subtropical regions of the Old World.
found only in a particular area, large or small. Often, ii. Gossypium herbaceum, commonly known as Levant
endemic species are confined to a certain area because cotton, is a species of cotton native to the semi-arid regions
they are highly adapted to a particular niche. The term of sub-Saharan Africa and Arabia.
could refer to an animal, a plant, a fungus, or even a iii. Gossypium hirsutum is the most widely planted
microorganism. Some of the endemic species in India are species of cotton in the United States.
Grey-headed Bulbul, Malabar Lark, Nilgiri Flycatcher and iv. Gossypium barbadense is also known as extra long
Grey Jungle fowl etc. staple (ELS) cotton. Varieties of ELS cotton include
234. (a) The distance between two consecutive longitudes American Pima, Egyptian Giza, and Indian Suvin etc.
at the poles is 0 KM. A degree of longitude is widest 246. (d) A greenhouse gas (GHG) is any gas in the
at the equator at 69.172 miles (111.321) and gradually atmosphere that takes in (absorbs) and gives off (emits)
shrinks to zero at the poles. radiation in the heat (infrared) wavelength range.
235. (b) Bangladesh shares longest border with India. India Greenhouse gases cause the greenhouse effect which
and Bangladesh share a 4,096 kilometres long results in increased temperatures on Earth. These gases
international border. Itis the fifth-longest land border in let incoming sunlight pass through but stops outgoing
the world. infrared radiation.
236. (d) Nigeria is not a landlocked country in Africa. Its 247. (a)
coast in the south lies on the Gulf of Guinea in the 248. (b) C-5 M Super Galaxy is a large military transport
Atlantic Ocean. aircraft. It is designed and manufactured by Lockheed
237. (c) The International Date Line is an imaginary line of Martin. It is operated by the US Air Force (USAF).
longitude on the Earth's surface located at about 180 249. (c) Baghdad is 3 hours away from London. That is why
degrees east (or west) of the Greenwich Meridian. news is broadcast from London at 10:30 am and it is heard
238. (c) Greenhouse gases catch the sun's radiation on its at Baghdad at 1:30 pm.Greenwich Mean Time is at 0 degree
way back into space and reflect some of that warmth longitude and Baghdad is at 45 degree east.
back to Earth, increasing temperatures. Carbon dioxide 250. (b) The correct sequences of water bodies, from lower
is known as greenhouse gas because of their ability to to higher salinity concentration, is Baltic sea- Arctic Sea-
trap and reflect the sun's radiation back to Earth. Gulf of California-Red sea.
239. (c) Primary consumers are animals that eat primary 251. (d) Reang is the scheduled tribes of the Indian state of
producers, they are also called herbivores (plant- Tripura. Dimasa is a tribalgroup of people in Assam. The
eaters). An autotroph is an organism that can produce Konyak are the Naga tribal group.Mishmi tribal people
its own food using light, water, carbon dioxide or other are mostly of Arunachal Pradesh (formerly North East
chemicals. As autotrophs produce their own food, they Frontier Agency) in extreme northeastern India, near Tibet
are sometimes called 'producers' as plants, Algae etc. and Assam, speaking dialects of the Tibeto-Burman
240. (d) The most significant natural sources of atmospheric linguistic family.
methane are wetlands. Wetlands are characterized by 252. (a) If the object does not reflect any colour, it
waterlogged soils and distinctive communities of plant appearsblack. The tiny droplets of water in rain clouds
and animal species that have evolved and adapted to scatter the white light of the sun. Red is scattered first,
the constant presence of water. Due to this high level and violet the last. This happens at such a high altitude
of water saturation as well as warm weather, wetlands that no rays of the sun reach the bottom of the cloud.
are one of the most significant natural sources of Thus, we do not see the rays of the sun and this results in
atmospheric methane. a dark effect.
241. (d) Biomass is the mass of living biological organisms 253. (c) Number of days in a year is 365 days and 6 hours (It
in a given area or ecosystem at a given time. Over 90% is not a complete day). Having years of 365 days makes
of the Biomass is in Oceans. the year too short. To keep up with the real length of the
242. (a) The Comoros Islands are an archipelago of four year maintaining an integer number of days,an extra day
volcanic islands and several islets located in the is added every four years.
western Indian Ocean about ten to twelve degrees 254. (b) Water effectively bounces off the outer bank as it
south of the Equator. They lie approximately halfway turns exerting an extra pressure on the bank. This is why
between the island of Madagascar and northern the river bank is weakest where the river turns.
Mozambique at the northern end of the Mozambique 255. (b) No correct answer. Mid-day sun is exactly overhead
Channel. only once a year in cities in India which are located exactly
Geography 153
on the Tropic of Cancer i.e. 23o 26' 16" N. Those located 265. (c) Troposphere: This is the lowest atmospheric layer
above the Tropic will never have the sun overhead anytime and is about seven miles (11 km) thick. Most clouds and
of the year, while those located below the Tropic will have weather are found in the troposphere.
it twice a year, once between March 22 and June 22 and the Stratosphere: The stratosphere is found from about 7 to
other time between June 22 and September 22. All the above 30 miles (11-48 kilometres) above the Earth's surface. In
cities are either located above the Tropic of Cancer or below this region of the atmosphere is the ozone layer found.
it. The approximate latitudes are given below: Mesosphere: The mesosphere is above the stratosphere.
Delhi - 28o 36' 36"; Chennai 13o 04'; Srinagar 34o 05' 24"; Here the atmosphere is very rarefied, that is, thin, and the
Darjeeling 27o 03'; Hyderabad 17o 22'; Kohima 25o 40'; temperature is decreasing with altitude.
Nagpur 21o 15'; Kolkata 22o 34'. Thermosphere: The thermosphere starts at about 55
256. (a) In absorption of isolation the most significant part is
kilometres. The temperature is quite hot.
played by Carbon dioxide.
257. (d) The main objectives of the watershed management Exosphere: The exosphere is the region beyond the
strategy of India are to restore the ecological balance by thermosphere.
harnessing, conserving and developing degraded natural Ionosphere: The ionosphere overlaps the other
resources such as soil, vegetative cover and water. atmospheric layers, from above the Earth. The air is ionized
258. (a) by the Sun's ultraviolet light.
259. (b) The reason for the decrease of per capita holding of 266. (a) A region of the globe found over the oceans near the
cultivated land is: equator in the intertropical convergence zone and having
Population is growing very fast in India and practice of weather characterized variously by calm air, light winds,
dividing land equally among the heirs goes on. Hence, or squalls and thunderstorms is called Doldrums.
family land is inherited by the heirs equally. Each heir has 267. (d) Ozone holes are more pronounced at the polar regions
the legal right to demarcate and subdivide his inheritance. especially over Antarctica.
260. (b) Farm forestry is when Individual farmers are being 268. (d) The Sargasso Sea is a strange and a unique creation
encouraged to plant trees on their own farmland to meet of the nature. Sargassosea is charaterised by typical
the domestic needs of the family. marine Vegetition.
261. (a) The tank irrigation is practised mainly in peninsular 269. (c)
India due to the following reasons: 270. (a) In the open ocean the height of tsunami is less than
1. The undulating relief and hard rocks make it difficult 1 meter however, its height increases up to 15 meters or
to dig canals and wells. more at shallow coastal water. The wavelength in the open
2. There is little percolation of rain water due to hard rock ocean is between 650 to 960 km/h.
structure and ground water is not available in large quantity. 271. (a) Neptune's atmosphere is made up of hydrogen,
3. Most of the rivers of this region are seasonal and helium and methane. The methane in Neptune's upper
dry up in summer season. Therefore, they cannot supply water atmosphere absorbs the red light from the sun but reflects
to canals throughout the year. the blue light from the Sun back into space. This is why
4. There are several streams which become torrential Neptune appears blue.
during rainy season. The only way to make best use of 272. (b) A comet is an icy small Solar System body that, when
this water is to impound it by constructing bunds and passing close to the Sun, heats up and begins to outgas,
building tanks. Otherwise this water would go waste to displaying a visible atmosphere or coma, and sometimes
the sea. also a tail.
5. The scattered nature of population and agricultural 273. (a) South Asia comprises the sub-Himalayan countries.
fields also favour tank irrigation. According to the United Nations geographical region
262. (b) Correct match of Rivers & its tributaries classification, the current territories areAfghanistan,
List – I(River) List - II (Tributaries) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistanand
Ganga Gomti and Kosi Sri Lanka.
Indus Chenab and Sutlej 274. (a) Dharamsala is in Himachal Pradesh.It is known
Yamuna Chambal and Ken worldwide for the presence of the Dalai Lama.
Godavari Wainganga and Indravati Almora is situated in Uttarakhand. Nainital is a popular hill
263. (b) Farmers are advisedto mix lime with soil while farming station also in Uttarakhand. The four famous lakes of Nainital
their fields becauseit increases the pH of acidic soil (the are Bhimtal Lake,Sattal, Khurpa Tal, Naukuchia Tal.Darjeeling
higher the pH the less acidic the soil); in other words, soil is situated in West Bengal. Darjeeling Himalayan Railwayis a
acidity is reduced and alkalinity increased. UNESCO World Heritage Site.
264. (d) Along the eastern slopes of the Rockies, the Chinook 275. (b) The tributaries of Brahmaputra from west to east -
wind provides a welcome respite from the long winter Tista, Subarnsiri, Lohit, and dibang.
chill. Tista is said to be the lifeline of Sikkim, the Subansiri
Impact of Chinooks River is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River in Assam
Loss of moisture due to significant drops in humidity. and Arunachal Pradesh, and the Tibet Autonomous
Soil moisture is lost, and the high winds may result in soil loss Region of China.Lohit River flows in Arunachal
Loss of soil moisture Pradesh.Dibang River flows through the northeast states
Summer Chinooks can damage small plants and agriculture of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
products 276. (d) Biological diversity is used to refer to the total number
Susceptible people may get headaches or suffer nervous of different species on Earth. A collection of this
disorders biodiversity would include human beings, Bengal tigers,
Rapid Large Temperature Changes Can Occur sugar maples, oyster mushrooms, bacteria, and the millions
Snow may melt or evaporate through sublimation of other living organisms found on Earth.
EBD_7341
154 Geography
277. (b) The black colour on the sun is because of a planet are often in lowland areas and have a climate that is hot
which obstructs all light from the sun. and wet all year round. In these parts, earth surface
278. (c) The Gaddis are a tribe living mainly in Himachal experiences least variation in incoming solar radiation
Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir. They belong to the class throughout the year.
of the shepherds and their job is looking after goats and 293. (a) Canary Current is a cold current which blows in the
sheep. North Atlantic Ocean.
279. (b) Secondary waves (S waves) are the second fastest 294. (c) The Ukai Dam constructed across the Tapti River is
travelling seismic waves (after primary waves) and can the largest reservoir in Gujarat.
travel through solids but not through liquids or gases. It Bhakra Dam is a concrete gravity dam across the Sutlej
helps scientists to understand the internal structure of River in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh.
the Earth. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is the world's largest masonry dam
280. (c) The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is an International built on the Krishna River at Nagarjuna Sagar.
Biosphere Reserve in the Western Ghats and Nilgiri Hills The Pandoh Dam is an embankment dam on the Beas
ranges of South India. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is River in Mandi in Himachal Pradesh.
situated in Assam and UNESCO Natural World Heritage 295. (d) Trade winds blow from the subtropical highs or horse
site which is a Project Tiger Reserve.The Panchmarhi latitudes toward the low pressure of the ITCZ(Intertropical
Biosphere Reserve is situated in the Satpura Range of Convergence Zone).
Madhya Pradesh state.Simlipal National Park is a national 296. (c) Krishna river originates in the western ghats near
park and a tiger reserve situated in the Indian state of Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra. The Krishna river is
Odisha. around 1,290 km in length. It flows through the states of
281. (d) storms and cyclonic storms and intense rain and hail Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh before
can occur when very warm and humid air rises over a merging in the Bay of Bengal at Hamasaladeevi in Andhra
mass of a very cold air. Pradesh.
282. (a) There are four terrestrial planets in our Solar System: 297. (c) Recycling is the practice of collection and separation
Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars. The terrestrial planets of the materials from the waste stream and their
in our Solar System are also known as the inner planets subsequent processing to produce a marketable product
because these planets are the four closest to the Sun. whichwould otherwise be discarded as waste. It leads to
283. (d) Veliconda Hills are situated in southeastern Andhra reduction of waste disposal cost.
Pradesh state. They form the eastern flank of the Eastern 298. (c) Albedo is the fraction of solar energy (shortwave
Ghats. radiation) reflected from the Earth back into space.
284. (b) The onges, a negrito tribe is inhabiting the Little 299. (a) The Higgs boson (or Higgs particle) is a particle that
Andaman Island in Andaman District. The Onges are pure gives mass to other particles. Peter Higgs was the first
hunter-gatherers. They are not aware of agriculture. person to think of it and the particle was found in March
285. (b) Kollam is an old seaport and city on the Laccadive 2013. The Higgs boson or Higgs particle is an elementary
Sea coast in Kerala.Tuticorin is a port city in Thoothukudi particle in the Standard Model of particle physics.
in Tamil Nadu.Ongole is a city in Prakasam district of Superstring theory is an attempt to explain all of the
Andhra Pradesh. Nellore is the 4th most populous city in particles and fundamental forces of nature in one theory
Andhra Pradesh. by modelling them as vibrations of tiny supersymmetric
286. (c) The word Karewa in Kashmiri dialect means, strings.
"elevated table-land."It was used for an unconsolidated 300. (a) Acid rain is a result of air pollution. Some gases
to semi-consolidated sand-clay-conglomerate sequence. especially nitrogen oxides and sulphur dioxide react with
The Karewas in Kashmir valley are some 367 meters thick the tiny droplets of water in clouds to form sulphuric and
lacustrine deposits. They cover the area between the nitric acids. The rain from these clouds then falls as very
Jhelum alluvium in the north and Pir Panjal mountains in weak acid which is known as "acid rain".
the south. 301. (c) Global dimming is defined as the decrease in the
287. (d) Gneiss is a high grade metamorphic rock, meaning amounts of solar radiation reaching the surface of the
that it has been subjected to higher temperatures and Earth. The Global dimming has devastating effects on the
pressures than schist. It is formed by the metamorphosis earth's environment and living beings. The pollutants
of granite, or sedimentary rock. causing global dimming also leads to acid rain, smog and
288. (d) There is a difference of 360 degree longitude between respiratory diseases in humans.
165 degree east and 165 degree west. The time interval is 302. (b) Fault trap is a kind of structural trap.Here, the fracture
24 hours because every 15 degree longitude, there is a and slippage of rock along a fault line may bring an
time difference of 1 hour. impermeable stratum in contact with a layer of permeable
289. (c) The difference in time to the extent of 1 day on either reservoir rock and thus forms a barrier to petroleum
side of the International Date Line is caused by rising of migration.
the sun in the east and not by inclined axis of the earth. 303. (b) Places having same longitude experience solar moon
290. (c) Revolution of the earth is not associated with the at different times.
generation of ocean current. 304. (c) The origin of the river is a tiny reservoir named as
291. (b) Spring tides occur twice each lunar month all year Narmada Kund which is situated on the Amarkantak Hill
long without regard to the season. Neap tides, which also in Anuppur District of East Madhya Pradesh. Amarkantak
occur twice a month happen when the sun and moon are region is a unique natural heritage area and is the meeting
at right angles to each other. During full or new moons- point of the Vindhyas and the Satpuras, with the Maikal
which occur when the earth, sun, and moon are nearly in Hills being the fulcrum.
alignment-average tidal ranges are slightly larger. 305. (b) The westerlies generally blow between 30° and 60°
292. (b) Equatorial regions are located in a band around the latitude in both the Northern and Southern hemispheres
Equator and cover about 6% of the Earth's surface. They from the west towards the east. These winds are thus
Geography 155
called westerly winds, after the direction from whence the 318. (a) Numerous grape varieties are cultivated in France
winds come.It blows below the subtropical highs in the including both internationally wellknown and obscure
Southern Hemisphere. local varieties.Hence, Southern part of France is famous
306. (d) Mid-latitude or frontal cyclones are large travelling for wine making industry.
atmospheric cyclonic storms up to 2000 kilometres in diameter 319. (b) Formation of lateritic soils due to weathering of rocks
with centres of low atmospheric pressure. The jet stream under humid tropical conditions consists of oxides of iron
plays a major role in the location of mid-latitude cyclones. and aluminium. It is not fertile. Murrom and bricks are
307. (c) Red soils develop in a warm, temperate, wet climate made from it. When dry it is harden, when rain it is clay. It
under deciduous forests and have thin organic and mineral is produced by large scale chemical weathering where
layers overlying a yellowish-brown leached layer resting silica and bases are leached from the parent material.
on red layer made of iron oxide(ferric oxide). Red soils 320. (c) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are nontoxic,
generally form from iron-rich sediments. They are usually nonflammable chemicals containing atoms of carbon,
poor growing soils, low in nutrients and humus and chlorine, and fluorine. They are used in the manufacture of
difficult to cultivate. aerosol sprays, blowing agents for foams and packing
308. (a) Nathu La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas. It materials as solvents and as refrigerants. CFCs contribute to
connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China's Tibet ozone depletion in the upper atmosphere.
Autonomous Region. Nathu La is located on the 563 km 321. (b)
Old Silk Route, an offshoot of the historic Silk Road. It 322. (a) Albedo also varies according to the angle of
was sealed by India after the 1962 Sino-Indian War and incidence of the Sun Raysbeing higher for slating rays
was re-opened in 2006 following numerous bilateral trade and lower for vertical or nearly vertical rays. From this we
agreements. can derive that albedo will be relatively higher during early
309. (b) Capillary water is retained on the soil particles by morning and late evening because at both times, Sun rays
surface forces. It is held so strongly that gravity cannot are slanting.
remove it from the soil particles. The molecules of 323. (b)
capillary water are free and mobile and are present in a 324. (a) Composit volcano (Strato-volcano) is a volcanic
liquid state. Plant roots are able to absorb it. Capillary cone built of alternating layers of Lava and Pyroclastic
water is, therefore, also known as available water. materials, over a lengthy time period.
310. (a) Matrilineal descent is a kinship system where a 325. (b) 326. (a)
descent group traces its ancestral lineage via the maternal 327. (d) Cordilleras of North America is a part of the
(uterine) side of the group. The property passes from Cordilleran mountain system found in the western part of
mother to daughter. Women are dominant in the family. North America and extendingthrough the coterminous
The examples of matrilineal societies are Khasi and Jaintia United States and Alaska, Canada, and Mexico.
tribes of Meghalaya. 328. (c) The amount of water vapour in the air at any given
311. (b) While all other seas in the world are defined at least time is usually less than that required to saturate the air.
in part by land boundaries, the Sargasso Sea is defined The relative humidity is the percent ofsaturation humidity,
only by ocean currents. The Sargasso Sea does not have generally calculated in relation to saturated vapour
a coastline as it is located in the middle of the Atlantic density.
Ocean.
actual vapor density
312. (a) Re lative Humidity = x100%
313. (c) The Narmada River travels a distance of 1,312 km saturation vapor density
before it falls into Gulf of Cambay in the Arabian Sea near 329. (c) Chinook is a warm, dry, gusty, westerly wind that
Bharuch in Gujarat. The first 1,079 km of its run is in blows down the Rocky Mountains in North America.
Madhya Pradesh. In the next length of 35 km, the river 330. (c) Srisailam Dam is the 2nd largest capacity
forms the boundary between the States of Madhya hydroelectric project in the country. The dam is
Pradesh and Maharashtra. Again, in the next length of 39 constructed across the Krishna River which flows in the
km, it forms the boundarybetween Maharashtra and Kurnool district of Andhra Pradesh.
Gujarat. 331. (c) The Velikonda Range is a low mountain range that forms
314. (c) The edge of the sunlit hemisphere forms a circular part of the Eastern Ghats mountain range system.
boundary separating the earth into a light half and a dark half. 332. (b) is correct
315. (c) A landlocked country is a country entirely enclosed 333. (a) Biodiversity is richer in tropical regions. Biodiversity
by land or whose only coastlines lie on closed seas. is a measure of the health of ecosystems. Greater
Angola is situated in Southern Africa, bordering the South biodiversity implies greater health. Biodiversity is in part
Atlantic Ocean, between Namibia and Democratic a function of climate. In terrestrial habitats, tropical regions
Republic of the Congo. are typically rich whereas Polar Regions support fewer
316. (c) Periyar National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is a species.
protected area in the districts of Idukki and Pathanamthitta 334. (b) The Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Krishna
in Kerala. River in Kurnool district, Andhra Pradesh.
Kanha National Park is one of the tiger reserves of India Sabarigiri Hydroelectric Power Plantis located at
and the largest national park of Madhya Pradesh. Moozhiyar, Pathanamthitta district, Kerala, India.
The Sariska Tiger Reserve is an Indian national park Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River, about 15
located in the Alwar district of Rajasthan. km from Sambalpur in Odisha.
Dachigam National Park is located in Jammu and Kashmir. Sileru Dam is situated on the boarder of Andhra Pradesh
317. (c) A geostationary satellite is an earth-orbiting satellite, and Odisha.
placed at an altitude of approximately 35,800 kilometres 335. (a) Vishakhapatanam is the deepest landlocked port in
(22,300 miles) directly over the equatorand revolves in India.
the same direction as the earth rotates (west to east).
EBD_7341
156 Geography
336. (d) The "Demographic Transition" is a model that and families. It is mostly practiced in developing countries.
describes population change over time. Shifting cultivation is a type/ example of subsistence
Five stages of Demographic Transition: farming in which the farmers clear a patch of forest land
High birth rate and death rates however population growth by cutting and burning of trees and then crops are grown.
is small. 349. (a) Terracing is the mechanical practice used on slopping
High birth rate but falling death rate. The total population agricultural land to reduce the length and /or the degree
begins to expand rapidly. of slope.
Falling birth rate, continuing falling death rate. The Contour ploughingis the farming practice of
population growth slows down. ploughingand/or planting across a slope following its
Low birth rate and low death rate. The population growth elevation contour lines.
is small, and fertility continues to fall. Shifting agricultureis asystem of cultivation that preserves
Death rate slightly exceeds the birth rate and this causes soil fertility by plot (field) rotation, as distinct from crop
population decline. rotation.
337. (a) On the equator, the day and night stay approximately 350. (a) Arrangement of the states of India on the basis of
the same length all year round. conferring statehood is as follows:
338. (a) Kochi Refinery was set up on 27th April, 1963. 1. Nagaland- 1963 2. Meghalaya - 1972
Koyali Refinery was built with Soviet assistance and went 3. Sikkim- 1975 4. Arunachal Pradesh-1987
on stream in October, 1965. 351. (d) Tectonic plates are composed of oceanic lithosphere
Panipat Refinery was set up in 1998 at Baholi Village in and thicker continental lithosphere, each topped by its
Distt. Panipat, Haryana. Koyali is situated on 73.110 East own kind of crust. Tectonic plates are able to move
longitude while Kochi is on 76.260 East longitude. because the Earth's lithosphere has greater strength than
Mathura Refinery was commissioned in January, 1982. the underlying asthenosphere. The outer shell of the earth,
339. (a) Stalagmite is a onical mineral deposit, usually calcite the lithosphere is broken up into tectonic plates. The seven
or aragonite, built up on the floor of a cavern,formed from
major plates are the African plate, Antarctic plate, Eurasian
the dripping of mineral-rich water.
plate, Indo-Australian plate, North American plate, Pacific
340 (a) Earthquake waves are propagating vibrations that
plate and South American plate. Along convergent
carry energy from the source of the shaking outward in all
directions. boundaries,subduction carries plates into the mantle.
A volcano is a mountain that opens downward to a pool 352. (c) Wind flows from areas of high pressure to areas of
of molten rock below the surface of the earth. When low pressure. This is due to density differences between
pressure builds up, eruptions occur. the two air masses.
341. (a) 353. (a) Large scale exploitation of ground water is done with
the help of tube wells. Haryana, Punjab and Rajasthan
342. (a) Typhoon Haiyan came in to Philippines in early
receive less than 40 cm annual rainfall and are deficient in
November 2013. It is the deadliest Philippine typhoon
surface water resources. As such, these states exploit more
recorded in modern history. It has taken the lives of 6300
than 85 per cent of the available ground water for irrigation.
people in that country alone. The demand for ground water for irrigation started
343. (b) Population dividend or Demographic dividend refers increasing in Punjab and Haryana with the advent of Green
to a period - usually 20 to 30 years - when fertility rates fall Revolution in 1960s. States/union territories with small
due to significant reductions in child and infant mortality replenishable ground water resource of less than one
rates. It occurs when the proportion of working people in BCM/year are Goa, Himachal Pradesh, Meghalaya,
the total population is high because this indicates that Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim, Andaman & Nicobar Islands,
more people have the potential to be productive and Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu,
contribute to growth of the economy. Delhi, Lakshadweep and Pondicherry.
344. (c) A Savannais a rolling grassland scattered with shrubs 354. (c) North Indian plain would have been much cooler in
and isolated trees, which can be found between a tropical winter.
rainforest and desert biome. Savannas are also known as 355. (b) The correct match is as follows:
tropical grasslands. They are found in a wide band on Summer Solstice- 21st June
either side of the equator on the edges of tropical Winter solstice- 22nd December
rainforests. Vernal Equinox- 21st March
345. (b) Hypocenter - The point of origin of an earthquake. Autumnal Equinox- 23rd September
Homoseismal Lines- The lines joining the places June 21 is called the summer solstice in the Northern
which experience the earthquake tremors at the same time Hemisphere.In the Northern Hemisphere, the winter
called Homoseismal Lines. solstice occurs either December 21 or 22.
346. (b) Stephen Hawking, one of the creators of modern Vernal Equinox is the time when the sun crosses the plane
theory on black holes, has now questioned the existence of the earth's equator,making night and day of
of the phenomenon known as event horizon around them. approximately equal length all over the earth and occurring
Mening, so far typical black hole is specified by a about March 21. The Autumn Equinox is the first day of
"horizon". the autumn season and occurs when the sun passes the
347. (c) West flowing rivers: equator moving from the northern to the southern
Narmada River(1057 km)- Rises in Amarkantak hemisphere. It occurs on 23 September.
Plateau and flows in to gulf of khambat 356 (c) Jhum is a traditional form of shifting cultivation
Tapti(724 km) - Rises from Betul district in Maharashtra. common in the North-East. Slash-and-burn is a mere land
Luni and Payaswani are also west flowing rivers. clearing method used by many people around the globe
348. (a) Subsistence farming is self sufficiency farming in to open up forest land and use it for permanent agriculture.
which the farmers grow enough food to feed themselves On the contrary, shifting cultivation is an integrated
Geography 157
farming system involving forestry, agriculture and strong 370. (b) The Earth completes one "rotation" every twenty
social organisation on the part of the communities. The village four hours. A rotation is when the planet spins around
or group of villages practice jhum on one particular tract of once. The Earth rotates counter-clockwise; this is why
land until the soil is depleted of nutrients and then move on the Sun "rises" in the east and "sets" in the west.
to another allowing the former tract of land to regenerate. Revolution is when one object completes a circular path
357. (b) Falls are possible only when a river is losing height around another object. The Earth takes 365.24 days to
suddenly. Next comes meanders. When a river reaches revolve around the Sun. This is why a year is 365 days
flatter land,flow is slowed down and meanders are formed long. During the year the Earth is angled differently
through erosion of the river banks and deposition on the towards the Sun. These changing angles provide us
inside of bends. with different Sun intensities and therefore we get four
Oxbow lake is formed when a wide meander is cut off from different seasons.
the main river, creating a free-standing body of water. 371. (b) A- 2, B- 3, C- 1, D- 4
Delta is formed at the mouth of a river, where the river The Guinea Current is a slow warm water current
flows into an ocean, sea, estuary, lake, or reservoir. that flows to the east along the Guinea coast of West
358. (d) India has the world's largest cropped and irrigated Africa. Oyashio Current is a cold subarctic ocean current
area.The cropping pattern of foodgrains in India is that flows south and circulates counter-clockwise in the
dominated by cereal crop.The average size of an Indian western North Pacific Ocean. The Canary Current is a
farm holding isbelow 2 hectares which constitute almost wind-driven surface current that is part of the North
80% of all Indian farmers. Atlantic Gyre. The Kuroshio is a north-flowing ocean
359. (a) The collision-coalescence process is an important current on the west side of the North Pacific Ocean
mechanism in forming raindrops in warmer clouds 372. (c) The correct sequence is as follows:
(those with tops warmer than -15°C = 5°F). 1. Troposphere 2. Stratosphere
360. (c) The correct arrangement from north to south is as follows: 3. Mesosphere 4. Thermosphere
Dudhwa- Uttar Pradesh 373. (c) A conical hill is a hill with uniform slope and is
Simlipal - Odisha represented by concentric contours spaced almost
Indravati - Chattisgarh regularly. It is a small but distinctive rock hill, 655 metres
Bandipur- Karnataka (2,150 ft) high, on the southern slopes of Mount Terror,
361. (a) 362. (c) above Cape MacKay, on Ross Island.
363. (a) On the equator, the day and night stay approximately 374. (d) The Indus River originates near the Mansarovar
the same length all year round. Lake in the Tibetan plateau, on the northern slopes of
364. (d) the Kailash Mountain Range. Given below are the main
365. (c) Malawi is a landlocked country in southeast Africa tributaries of the Indus River from north to south:
that was formerly known as Nyasaland. Malawi runs a • Jhelum
Presidential system and is Unitary Republic. Malawi's • Chenab
economy is highly dependent on agriculture and majority • Ravi
of the population is rural. The government depends heavily • Sutlej
on foreign aid to meet its development needs. 375. (c) If most of a plate boundary had ruptured recently in
366. (a) The Atacama Desert is commonly known as the driest large earthquakes the seismic gaps can be defined as
place in the world. Geographically, the aridity of the those segments where no recent rapture has occurred.
Atacama is explained by it being situated between two Such gaps are expected to be filled in the near future by
mountain chains (the Andes and the Chilean Coast Range) earthquakes and therefore the seismic hazard within gaps
of sufficient height to prevent moisture advection from is more imminent than elsewhere along the same plate
either the Pacific or the Atlantic Oceans, a two-sided rain boundary.
shadow. 376. (b) Labrador current and Gulf stream meet at grand bank
367. (a) Tides are rise and fall of sea levels caused by the which is fishing ground. This Place is located on the
combined effect of the gravitational forces exerted by west of the North Atlantic current. Therefore in the
the moon and the sun and the rotation of the earth because absence of cold labrador current there will be no North-
the Earth rotates once in about 24 hours with respect to West Atlantic fishing ground.
the sun. The tidal range is not constant but changes 377. (d) The correct match is as follows:
depending on where the sun and moon are. Llanos- Venezuela
368. (a) India's off shore and deep sea fish catch is very Prairies- USA
poor considering the marine potential of 20-25 million Pampas -Argentina
tonnes because Indian coast does not have many gulfs, Downs - Australia
bays, estuaries and back waters as is the case with 378. (a) Dalton's atomic theory proposed that all matter was
Norway. As such it lacks good fishing grounds. composed of atoms, indivisible and indestructible
369. (b) The sidereal day is the time it takes for the Earth to building blocks. While all atoms of an element were
complete one rotation about its axis with respect to the identical, different elements had atoms of differing size
'fixed' stars. By fixed, we mean that we treat the stars as if and mass.
they were attached to an imaginary celestial sphere at a 379. (a) In the semi arid tropical region of India tanks are
very large distance from the Earth. A measurement of the constructed mainly in south and central India due to
sidereal day is made by noting the time at which a particular shallow ground water.
star passes the celestial meridian (i.e. directly overhead) on 380. (c) Gujarat is blessed with the longest coastline of 1600
two successive nights. On Earth, a sidereal day lasts for 23 km. Summers (March through May) are quite hot,
hours 56 minutes 4.091 seconds, which is slightly shorter however, with temperatures typically rising well above
than the solar day measured from noon to noon. At the 100 °F (38 °C) during the day and dropping only into the
same time that the Earth spins on its axis, it also orbits or 90s F (low 30s C) at night, Gujarat is drier in the north
revolves around the Sun. This movement is called revolution.
EBD_7341
158 Geography
than in the south. Rainfall is lowest in the northwestern Glacial deposits - Till
part of the state-in the Rann of Katch. The coastline of Deposition by ground water - Stalactite
Gujarat includes two, gulf areas Gulf of Katchh and Gulf 394. (b) The Palk strait is very shallow zone for shipping, so
of Khambat.
it would be better for ships to go around Shri Lanka rather
381. (a) The ozone layerrefers to a region of Earth's
stratosphere that absorbs most of the Sun's ultraviolet than crossing through this zone.
(UV) radiation. Ultra Violet radiation is very harmful to all 395. (d) Only Agartala is connected with Indian Railways
living things. UV radiation can be harmful to the skin and because Imphal, Kohima and Aizawl are not situated on
is the main cause of sunburn; excessive exposure can the route of direct railway lines and also due to
also cause cataracts, immune system suppression, and mountainous zones.
genetic damage, and skin cancer. 396. (a) Baghelkhand - Madhya Pradesh
382. (a) The time of Florida would be 6.58 p.m on Saturday.
Kuttand - Kerala
383. (d) In northern India, there is light rainfall during winter.
This is caused by the cyclonic storms which originate in Saurashtra - Gujarat
the Mediterranean Sea and travels towards India. These Rarh - West Bengal
winds are called western disturbances. They cause heavy 397. (d) Portland Cement is a building material, its main
snowfall in the higher reaches of the Himalayas and rainfall constituents are - Silica, Alumina and Calcium sulphate.
in the plains. They result in a cold wave in northern India. Alumina causes the cement fast setting, Silica provides
384. (d) Underground water may also be connected to surface strength and Calcium sulphate (CaSO4) miximises the
water through wetlands. Groundwater can flow into--or setting time.
out of wetlands (springs or flow-through wetlands) which 398. (b) City - Earthquake zone
may in turn flow into lakes and streams. Kolkata - Zone III
385. (b) The correct match is as follows:
Humboldt- Chile-Peru Guwahati - Zone V
North Atlantic Drift - U.K- Norway Delhi - Zone IV
Benguela- Namibia -Angola Chennai - Zone II
Agulhas - Mozambique -Madagascar 399. (a) Lake - Type
386. (c) In the horizontal direction, where gravity does not Ashtamudai Kayal - Lagoon
operate, the equilibrium of forces usually involves a Himayat Sagar - Artificial (Sweet water)
balance between the pressure-gradient force and the Dal Lake - Residual (Sweet water)
Coriolis force. Tsomgo Lake - Glacial
387. (d) 400. (b) Farming area - State
388. (b) All the given factors in the options (eg. location, Doab - Punjab
thermal contrast, upper air circulation and the Himalayan Char - Assam
mountains) are responsible for the monsoon type of climate Maidan - Karnataka
in India. Terai - Uttar Pradesh
389. (a) On the basis of Geographical area - 401. (c)
The largest state is Andhra Pradesh - (160,205km2) Low Pressure
The Smallest state is Uttarakhand - (53,483 km2)
Chhatisgarh - (135,191 km2)
Telangana - (114,840 km2) High Pressure
Tamil Nadu - (130,058 km2)
390. (a) Ebony - Tropical evergreen In the northern Hemisphere of the earth, the wind flows in
Shisham - Moist deciduous a counter-clock wise (anti clock) direction towards the
Walnut - Himalayan moist centre. Consequently the flow of air accumulates at the
Birch - Alpine centre causing cooling and condensing water vapour then
391. (b) Pleistocene - Human genus forming clouds resulting in rain fall.
Paleocene - Frogs 402. (b) Our atmosphere has five layers- Troposphere,
Permian - Mammals Stratosphere, Mesophere, Thermosphere and Exosphere.
Cambrian - Invertebrates The exosphere is the outer most layer of the atmosphere
392. (d) · Mediterranean - Temperature range is moderate showing altitude about from 700 km to 10000 km above
with warm to hot summers and mild winters. sea level. This layer gradually and gradually merges in outer
space having no atmosphere.
· Marine West Coast - Temperature cycle is
403. (a) Diastrophism means the deformation of the earth's
moderated by marine influence. crust showing folding and faulting. Due to this
· Dry mid latitude - Strong temperature cycle with phenomenon, mountains, plateaus and valleys, etc. are
large annual range. Warm summers to hot and evolved. It is very slow and gradual process which is not
cold winters to very cold. noticed for a long period.
· Moist continental - Warm summers and cold 404. (b) Quartz is a compound made up of Silicon (Si) and
winters with three months below freezing. Oxygen (O) showing chemical formula SiO 2. It is a
Very large annual temperature range. macromolecular structure.
393. (a) Chemical weathering - Oxidation 405. (b) Heavier and denser cold air (cold fronts) pushes the
Mechanical weathering - Plant roots warmer lighter air (warm fronts) causing precipitation and
showering.
Geography 159
406. (d) Elements in the Earth's crust - 426. (c) Laterite soil is Characterized by the possession of
Oxygen = 47%, Silicon = 28%, Calcium = 3.5%, iron oxides with red colour. Nitrogen, Phosphorus and
Sodium = 3% and Magnesium = 2% potash are not present in proper quantity so it shows low
407. (c) The Kuroshio current is warm due to variations in fertile texture. Tapioca and cashewnuts are generally
water level in the northern region of the East China sea grown in such soil. This soil is found less or more in
and neighbour ocean. states- Odisha, Maharashtra, Andhra, Tamil Nadu,
408. (d) Manufacturing sector is responsible to some exent
Karnataka, Meghalaya and West Bengal.
for environmental degradation. Some building material
427. (c)
such as Cement, sand, bricks, stones and timbers are taken
428. (c) Landfill gas (LFG) is a natural by product of the
from nature which disturb ecological balance.
decomposition of organic material in landfills. LFG is
409. (d) In Geography and Geology, Karst topography refers to
composed of roughly 50 percent methane (the primary
the processes arised due to solubility of rocks in natural water.
component of natural gas), 50 percent carbon dioxide
410. (b) Mercury Mars Venus Earth Uranus (CO 2) and a small amount of non-methane organic
4,800 km 6,800 km 12,100 km 12,750 km 51,118 km compounds.
429. (b) The epicenter, in seismology is the point on the
411. (b) Over 97 per cent of the country's total coal reserves
Earth's surface directly above a hypocenter or focus, the
are located in the valleys of Son, Damodar, Mahanadi and
point where an earthquake or an underground explosion
Godavari.
originates. It does not always remains over continents
412. (d) Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park is a national
only.
park in Wandoor on the Andaman Islands situated 29 Km.
430. (a) Madhya Pradesh has the largest Tribal population.
from Port Blair.
It has more than 1.6 crore Schedule Tribe population whom
413. (c) The Earth is closest to the Sun or at its Perihelion-
are 21% of state population according to 2011 census.
about two weeks after the December solstice, i.e. 3 January
A2A. As per the 2011 census, Madhya Pradesh has the
and farthest from the Sun or at its Aphelion, about two
highest ST population.
weeks after the June solstice, i.e., 4 July.
The population of Mizoram in 2001 Census has been
414. (a) It is a French overseas island in the Indian Ocean
888,573. Of them, 839,310 are Scheduled Tribes (STs)
415. (d) Melting of ice-sheets greatly effecting the long-term sea-
constituting 94.5 per cent of the total population of the
level change.
state.
416. (a) Tista, Sankosh, Subansiri and Lohit are the tributaries
Maharashtra has the second largest tribal population
of river Brahmaputra, from west to east.
417. (d) The anticlock wise rotation of Earth deflects winds after Madhya Pradesh . Hence, pair 3 is not correct.
431. (c) The Water transport provides the cheapest source
to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in
the southern hemisphere. of transportation to any country. At present, there are
about 14,500 km long navigable waterways in India. Central
418. (c) The 'eye' is the focus of the hurricane, the point about
which the rest of the storm rotates and where the lowest Inland Water Corporation Limited (CIWTC LTD) was
incorporated in May 1967 as a Govt. of India undertaking.
surface pressures are found in the storm.
419. (a) Acid precipitation affects stone primarily by Its head office is at Kolkata. The National Inland
Navigation Institute (NINI) has been set up by Inland
dissolution and alteration. The chemical smoke expelled
from various coal burning powerplant causes production Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) at Patna, Bihar in
February 2004.
of acid rains.
420. (d) Dyestuff sector is one of the important segments of 432. (c) The location of Goa is on the western coast of the
chemical industry. Chemical industry is one of the oldest Indian peninsula, in the Konkan coastal belt. it lies between
industries in India. The maximum consumption of dyestuffs the latitudes 14°53'54" " North to 15°48'00 North and
is in Textile industry. longitudes 74° 20'13" East to 73° 40'33" East.
421. (d) Dakshin Gangotri was the first scientific base station 433. (d) The stratosphere extends from the top of the
of India in Antarctica, part of the Indian Antarctic Program. troposphere to about 50 km (31 miles) above the ground.
Now it is being used for the purpose of supply base and In this layer temperature increases with increase in altitude.
transit camp Above the stratosphere is the mesosphere. It extends
422. (a) Ooty ® Shimla ® Darjeeling ® upward to a height of about 85 km (53 miles) above our
Mussoorie planet. Most meteors burn up in the mesosphere. Unlike
2,240 mt 2,205 mt 2,042 mt 2,006 mt. the stratosphere, temperatures once again grow colder as
423. (d) Bandung Conference was a meeting of Asian and you rise up through the mesosphere. The coldest
African states, most of which were newly independent. temperatures in Earth's atmosphere, about -90° C (-130°
424. (b) Cotton cultivation is done mostly in Andhra Pradesh, F), are found near the top of this layer. At the upper edge
Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Karnataka and of the troposphere is a narrow transition zone known as
Maharashtra, Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan. the tropopause, which is an isothermal zone.
425. (d) Pir Panjal Range is concerned with lesser Himalayan 434. (b) Bongaigaon is one of the important cities in Assam.
region. It includes Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir It has a major petrochemical industry, the Indian Oil
and Kashmir (POK) Corporation Limited.
EBD_7341
160 Geography
Koraput is a district of Odisha, India. There is an Aircraft the Western Ghats and associated ranges in the states of
(Mig) industry in Koraput. Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Due to their isolation,
Pinjore is a town in Panchkula district in the Indian state altitude and evergreen character, shola forests are home
of Haryana. It is famous for machine tools industry. to many threatened and endemic species.
Sirpur is famous for paper industry. 444. (c) The Sangam landscape is a poetic device that was
435. (c) Teesta River is a tributary of Brahmaputra River, flowing characterstic of love poetry in classical Tamil Sangam
through India and Bangladesh. The major left-bank
literature. The core of the device was the categorization
tributaries of Ganga include Ramganga, Gomti, Ghaghara,
of poems into different thinais or modes, depending on
Gandak, Kosi, Mahananda and Sharda and its major right-
bank tributaries include Yamuna, Son, Punpun and Damodar. the nature, location, mood and type of relationship
436. (b) Soo Canal connects lake Superior with lake Huron in represented by the poem. Each thinai was closely
North America. associated with a particular landscape, and imagery
437. (d) Strait of Hormuz, also called Strait of Ormuz, channel associated with that landscape.
linking the Persian Gulf (west) with the Gulf of Oman and Kurunchi - Mountainous Region
the Arabian Sea (southeast). Palai- Arid region
Bab-el-Mandeb is a strait located between Yemen on the Neytal- Seashore
Arabian Peninsula, and Djibouti and Eritrea in the Horn of Mullai- Pastoral region
Africa. It connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden. 445. (a) Higher cropping intensity means that a larger portion
Strait of Malacca, waterway connecting the Andaman Sea of the net area is being cropped more than once during
(Indian Ocean) and the South China Sea (Pacific Ocean). an agricultural year. Crop rotation is growing different
Strait of Sunda is a strait between Sumatra and Java, crops in succession on a particular land. Genetic and
linking the Java Sea with the Indian Ocean.
phenotypic diversity of plants used in agriculture is called
438. (b) Agulhas Current flows down the east coast of Africa
cropping diversity and ratio of agricultural outputs to
from 27°S to 40°S.
agricultural inputs is crop productivity.
The Humboldt Current, also known as Peru Current, is an
ocean current that flows along the western coast of South 446. (c) Pennneru River flows through Nellore (Andhra
America, affecting the water and air temperatures of Pradesh), Krishna River through Vijayawada (Andhra
coastal Chile and Peru. Pradesh) and Sangli (Maharashtra), Godavari River
The Labrador Current is a cold current in the North Atlantic through Rajahmundry (Andhra Pradesh) and Mahanadi
Ocean which flows from the Arctic Ocean south along the River through Odisha, and Subarnarekha River trough
coast of Labrador (Canada). Jharkhand, West Bengal and Odisha. The correct
Falkland Current is an ocean current flowing northward sequence of rivers from Chennai to Kolkata is Pennneru,
along the Argentine coast. Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, and Subarnarekha.
439. (c) Dogger Bank is a large sandbank in a shallow area of 447. (d) The System of streams on a dissected volcano cone
the North Sea about 100 kilometres off the east coast of is a radial drainage pattern, since these streams take their
England. It has long been known by fishermen to be a position on a slope of an initial land surface.
productive fishing bank. 448. (c) The main characteristics of Mediterranean
440. (c) Alluvium soils are very rich in chemicals like Potash, agriculture are specialized commercial farming, viticulture
Phosphoric acid, lime and carbon compounds but are or grape cultivation, cereal and vegetable cultivation,
deficient in Nitrogen and humus. Black soil is rich in metals limited animal husbandry, and orchard farming. It
such as Iron, Magnesium and Aluminum, but is deficient promotes intensive form of farming, but does not involve
in Nitrogen, Potassium, Phosphorous and Humus. Laterite wet paddy cultivation. It also includes advance farming
soil is poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and practice.
calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess. 449. (c) Either of the two days of the year (June 21 and
441. (d) December 21) when the sun reaches its highest or lowest
442. (a) A wind gap is a gap through which a waterway once point in the sky at noon, marking the longest and shortest
flowed that is now dry as a result of stream capture. Wind days, is called solstice. Winter solstice is experienced by
gaps often provide routes which, due to their gently the North Pole in December which is marked by shortest
inclined profile, are suitable for trails, roads, and railroads period of daylight.
through mountainous terrain. 450. (d) Tropical evergreen rainforest or Tropical rainforests
Examples of wind gaps in the Blue Ridge Mountains of experience heavy rainfall and high temperature, and
Virginia include Swift Run Gap, Rockfish Gap, and Buford's extend between 10o N and 10o S latitudes. The biome
Gap. The Karu valley of Ladakh is the example of wind Tropical rainforests is of megathermal type as organisms
gap in India. Zeugen, Dreikanter and Demoiselle are the are adapted to high temperature and wet and humid
example of Wind erosion. condition. Tropical rainforests are located in South
443. (d) Shola forests are found in the higher altitude hill America, lowland regions in Africa, and the islands off of
regions of the Nilgiris, Kanyakumari district, Idukki district, Southeast Asia, Central America and parts of Australia.
Geography 161
451. (d) Tsunami, a Japanese word, is a series of waves generated 460. (b) A primate city is the largest city in its country or
in a water body due to the displacement of a large volume of region, disproportionately larger than any others in the
water. It is also called seismic sea wave (gravitational water urban hierarchy. The ‘law of the primate city’ was first
waves) and can generate strong water waves. About 80% of proposed by the geographer Mark Jefferson in 1939. He
tsunamis are witnessed in the Pacific Ocean. defines a primate city as being “at least twice as large as
452. (a) A cloudburst can be defined as heavy rainfall in a the next largest city and more than twice as significant.”
short period of time. It can occur in any time of the day 461. (c) New Guinea is the largest island of the given options
and is usually accompanied by thunder and lightning. with 785,753 km2 area. It is followed by Borneo(748,168
Rainfall intensity can be equal to or greater than 100 mm km2 area), Madagascar(587,041 km 2 area) and later
per hour. Cloudburst occurs mostly in the hilly areas as Sumatra(443,066 km2 area) in terms of area.
the chances of collision of cloud with hills are more. 462. (*) The tiger reserves given are in the following states:
453. (b) Aridisol, one of the orders of soil, has saline or Dudhwa (Uttar Pradesh), Panna (Madhya Pradesh),
alkaline soils with very little organic matter, and is mainly Pench (Maharashtra) and Indravati (Chattisgarh). From
north to south, Dudhwa is at the top, Panna, Pench and
found in arid or semi-arid regions. Vegetation is very
then Indravati at the south most.
sparse and is of xerophytic type. Limited leaching leads
463. (c) The ozone layer is mainly found in the lower portion
to the formation of subsurface soil horizons with minerals
of the stratosphere from approximately 20 to 30 kilometres
like carbonates. silicate clays and gypsum.
(12 to 19 mi) above earth, though the thickness varies
454. (d) Jet streams are fast flowing air currents occurring in the
seasonally and geographically.
atmosphere of some planets, including the Earth. On Earth,
464. (b) Biogas is produced under anaerobic conditions; the
the jet streams are located near the altitude of the tropopause
process is denominated as anaerobic digestion. The major
at the height of 8-16 km. Jet streams are found continuous
constituent of biogas is methane (55-70%), CO2 (30-45%)
over long distances. Polar front jet stream achieves its
and some traces of gases such as H2S and ammonia.
maximum force in winter, due to great temperature gradient 465. (c) Rate of increase in onion production is more than
between the snow-covered land and warm off-store currents. potato production in the current year in comparison to
455. (d) Gulf Stream is similar to Kuroshio, a north-flowing the previous year.
ocean current on the west side of the North Pacific Ocean. 466. (b) Demographic dividend, as defined by the United
Gulf Stream brings warm tropical water towards polar Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) means, “the economic
region such a Northern Europe. Gulf Stream does not growth potential that can result from shifts in a
flow through the West Pacific Coast. population’s age structure, mainly when the share of the
456. (d) Tropical climate of Peninsular India contributes to working-age population (15 to 64) is larger than the non-
higher yield of sugarcane with high sucrose content. working-age share of the population (14 and younger,
Most of the mills are situated along the west coast in and 65 and older).”
Maharashtra, Gujarat, Karnataka. 467. (a) is the correct answer.
457. (b) Marmagao, a port in Goa, is located on the estuary formed 468. (a) is the correct answer.
by Zuari and Mandovi Rivers. Kandala Port is a seaport 469. (a) Bass Strait is a sea strait separating Tasmania from
located on the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat. Kolkata-Haldia is a the Australian mainland, specifically the state of Victoria.
riverine port system in the city of Kolkata and Haldia. Tuticorin Davis Strait is a northern arm of the Labrador Sea. It lies
Port is a seaport located in Tuticorin, Tamil Nadu. between mid-western Greenland and Nunavut, Canada’s
458. (c) Johannes Kepler proposed three laws of planetary Baffin Island. The Dover Strait, is the strait at the
motion, including The Law of Ellipses, The Law of Equal narrowest part of the English Channel, marking the
Areas and The Law of Harmonies. wherein he proposed boundary between the Channel and North Sea,
that planets move round the Sun in ellipses. Copernicus separating Great Britain from continental Europe. Florida
observed that planets revolve around the Sun. Martin Strait is a strait located south-southeast of the North
Luther was a German professor of theology. Galileo mainly American mainland, generally accepted to be between the
worked on phases of Venus and discovery of Jupiter.
Gulf of Mexico and the Atlantic Ocean, and between the
459. (d) The Toda people are a small pastoral tribal
Florida Keys and Cuba.
community who live on the isolated Nilgiri plateau in hill
470. (c) Zoji La is a high mountain pass in Jammu and Kashmir,
country of Southern India. Before the 18th century and
India, located on the Indian National Highway 1D between
British colonisation, the Toda coexisted locally with other
Srinagar and Leh in the western section of the Himalayan
ethnic communities, including the Kota, Badaga and
mountain range. Shipki La is a mountain pass and border
Kuruba, in a loose caste-like society, in which the Toda
post with a dozen buildings of significant size on the
were the top ranking. During the 20th century, the Toda
India-China border. Lipulekh is a Himalayan pass on the
population has hovered in the range 700 to 900. Although
border between Uttarakhand, India and Tibet, China.
an insignificant fraction of the large population of India,
since the early 19th century the Toda have attracted “a Nathu La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas in East
most disproportionate amount of attention because of Sikkim district. It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with
their ethnological aberrancy” and “their unlikeness to China’s Tibet Autonomous Region.
their neighbours in appearance, manners, and customs.”
EBD_7341
162 Geography
471. (a) Xeriscaping is a landscaping philosophy that uses and the quantity of water carried by them decreases
as many native, drought-resistant plants as possible and during the summer time. Moreover, the rivers of Peninsular
arranges them in efficient, water-saving ways. plateau have reached maturity whereas the rivers of
472. (c) Leipzig is a city in the eastern German state of Saxony. Himalayan region are young. While Himalayan rivers are
Detroit is the most populous city in the U.S. state of young and cause much erosion and have great flow of
Michigan. Lorraine, now part of Grand Est, is a former water, peninsular rivers are mature and create much less
region in northeast France bordering Belgium, Luxembourg erosion and also have weaker flow of water.
and Germany. Cumberland is a historic county of North 479. (d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 is the correct solution.
West England that had an administrative function from 480. (b) A sinkhole is a hole in the ground that forms when
the 12th century until 1974. water dissolves surface rock. Often, this surface rock is
473. (c) The Satpura Range is a range of hills in central India. limestone, which is easily eroded, or worn away, by the
The range rises in eastern Gujarat state running east movement of water. In a landscape where limestone sits
through the border of Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh underneath the soil, water from rainfallcollects in cracks
to the east till Chhattisgarh. Vindhya Range, broken range in the stone. These cracks are called joints. Slowly, as the
of hills forming the southern escarpment of the central limestone dissolves and is carried away, the joints widen
upland of India. From Gujarat state on the west, it extends until the ground above them becomes unstable and
about 675 miles (1,086 km) across Madhya Pradesh state collapses. The collapse often happens very suddenly and
to abut on the Ganges River valley near Varanasi, Uttar without very much warning. Water collects in these
Pradesh. The mountains form the southern edge of the collapsed sections, forming sinkholes. Sinkholes also form
Malwa Plateau and then divide into two branches: the when the roofs of caves collapse. Sinkholes are often
Kaimur Range, running north of the Son River into western funnel-shaped, with the wide end open at the surface and
Bihar state, and the southern branch, running between the narrow end at the bottom of the pool.
the upper reaches of the Son and Narmada rivers to meet 481. (d) A meandering river valley that has cut down its bed
the Satpura Range in the Maikala Range. The Aravalli into the bedrock, because of uplift or lowered base level,
Range is a range of mountains running approximately 692 is called incised, intrenched, entrenched, inclosed or
km in a southwest direction, starting in North India from ingrown. It is characteristic of antecedent drainage
Delhi and passing through southern Haryana, through to systems.
Western India across the states of Rajasthan and ending 482. (a) Glaciers cut distinctive U-shaped valleys with a flat
in Gujarat. The Mahadeo Hills are a range of hills in Madhya floor and steep sides. The glacier widens, steepens,
Pradesh state of central India. deepens and smoothes V-shaped river valleys.
474. (b) The Malwa plateau dominates the Vindhyan scarps 483. (b) Species richness is generally lower in the Arctic than
forming the northern flank of the plateau. at lower latitudes, and richness also tends to decline from
475. (c) Tso Kar is placed in the southern Ladakh. Pangong the low to high Arctic. However, patterns of species
Tso is the most popular lake of Ladakh that is around 160 richness vary spatially and include significant patchiness.
km from Leh. Tso Moriri is a lake in the Changthang area, Further, there are differences among taxonomic groups,
and is positioned amid Ladakh to the North, Zanskar to with certain groups being most diverse in the Arctic.
the West and Tibet to the East. Tsomgo Lake, also known 484. (b) is the correct answer.
as Tsongmo Lake or Changu Lake, is a glacial lake in the 485. (c) Expansion and compression of the air causes
East Sikkim district of the Indian state of Sikkim, some 40 adiabatic temperature changes in atmosphere. As air is
kilometres from the capital Gangtok. heated it expands becoming less dense, and as a result,
476. (d) All are true. lighter. Because it is lighter, it rises upwards above the
477. (a) Bhimtal Lake is located in the town of Bhimtal in cooler air. As it does so, this air continues to expand. This
Uttarakhand. It is the largest lake in Kumaon region, is because there is less pressure higher in the atmosphere,
known as the “lake district of India”. Ashtamudi Lake is allowing the air molecules to spread out more. In order to
located in the Kollam District of Kerala. It is the most spread out, these molecules require energy. As they do
visited backwater and lake in the state. It possesses a so, they become less agitated and vibrate slower. As a
unique wetland ecosystem and a large palm-shaped water result, the temperature of these air molecules drops,
body, second only in size to the Vembanad estuary despite the fact that no heat has been removed from them.
ecosystem of the state. Gohna lake is located in This process is referred to as adiabatic cooling. As the air
Uttarakhand. It was formed due to landslides. Lonar Lake cools down, it again begins to fall towards the surface of
is a notified National Geo-heritage Monument. It is located the Earth. As it sinks deeper into the atmosphere, the
at Lonar in Buldhana district, Maharashtra. It was created pressure from the weight of the air above it pushes air
by a meteor impact during the Pleistocene Epoch and it molecules closer together, causing them to become more
is the only known hyper velocity impact crater in basaltic agitated and heating them up again. As a result, their
rock anywhere on Earth. temperature rises, even though no heat has been added.
478. (a) Himalayan rivers have their origin in the snow This process is referred to as adiabatic warming.
covered areas. They receive water even in dry season 486. (a) The collision-coalescence process is an important
due to snow melt and are perennial. On the other hand, mechanism in forming raindrops in warmer clouds (those
rivers of the peninsular plateau carry only the rain water with tops warmer than –15°C = 5°F). In these warm clouds
Geography 163
raindrops form exclusively by this process. Most tropical 490. (d) Extrusive igneous landforms are the result of magma
rain is formed in this way. The collision- coalescence coming from deep within the earth to the surface, where it
process is of relatively little importance in middle and high cools as lava. This can happen explosively or slowly,
latitudes where, even in the summer, most precipitation depending on the chemical composition of the lava and
whether there is an easy path for it to take to the surface.
begins high in the clouds where temperatures are well
If there is not a pathway, pressure builds up over time
below freezing and the dominant precipitation-producing (like a shaken soda) until the magma forcibly explodes
mechanism is the so-called ice-crystal or Bergeron outward. There are no extrusive volcano in Himalayas.
process. However falling raindrops in these clouds do Himalayas lies in highly earthquake prone areas as the
grow by the collision-coalescence process. mountains there are the result of tectonic collision of
487 (b) Leh is a popular desert city in the Himalayan region particular variant of its type. The Himalayas are a plate-
of Jammu and Kashmir. During the winter season, the to-plate collision tectonic boundary. In this case, the
weather in India is typically influenced by the pressure Indian Plate [of the Indian Subcontinent] is colliding head-
distribution in the central and in western Asia. A high- on with the Eurasian Plate. Both plates are comprised of
pressure centre is developed on the Northern side of the continental lithospheric crust, so there is no appreciable
Himalayan range and it accounts for the air movement distinction in density. Both have a density of
approximately 2.7 g/cm³. This as opposed to ocean crust
from the Northern side towards the Southern side of the with a mean density of 3.3 g/cm³. The plates try to compete
mountain range. These winds make the whole North- in the plate-to-plate collision but the equal densities of
Western region dry during the winter season. the two plates cannot push one under the other very deep
488. (a) The Planetesimal hypothesis was proposed in 1905 like that in a subduction zone. The result is large-scale
thickening of the continental crust in the region at and
by geologist Thomas Chrowder Chamberlin and astronomer
surrounding the collision boundary. Other processes
Forest Ray Moulton to describe the formation of the solar occurring in the Himalayas region associated with the
system. Thermal contraction theory is given by Jeffery. orogeny are metamorphism, thrust [compression] faulting,
The theory is based essentially on the history of the and plateau uplift. The crust is too thick, and too
contraction of the earth. According to Jeffrey's the earth "squashed together" to allow anything to squeeze up
began to shrink because of contraction caused by gradual and break through to the surface as volcanic eruptions.
491. (d) Karewas are lacustrine deposits (deposits in lake) in
cooling of the earth due to loss of heat through radiation the Valley of Kashmir. The karewas are mainly devoted to
from the very beginning of its origin. Famous German the cultivation of saffron, almond, walnut, apple and
geologist Kober has presented a detailed and systematic orchards. The karewas, devoted to saffron cultivation are
description of the surface features of the earth in his book fetching good income to the growers.
'Der Bau der Erde'. Kober's geosynclinal theory is based on 492. (b) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 is the correct answer.
the forces of contraction produced by the cooling of the 493. (d) The country has 13 major sea ports and about 200
non-major sea ports and intermediate ports. 95 % of the
earth. He believes in the contraction history of the earth.
country's trade by volume (68% in terms of value) is moved
Daly postulated his theory of sliding continents in his book by sea. India has a land frontier of 15,200 km (9,445 mi)
'Our Mobile Earth' in the year 1926 to explain the origin and and a coastline of 7,517 km (4,671 mi). In the Maritime
evolution of different relief features of the earth's surface. Agenda, 2010-2020, a target of 3200 MT port capacity has
489. (c) Cirrus clouds form in very cold air at high altitudes. been set for the year 2020.
494. (c) The National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change
Made of ice crystals, they have a wispy or feathery
(NAFCC) is a Central Sector Scheme which was set up in
appearance. Strong winds often blow streamers or "tails" the year 2015-16. The overall aim of NAFCC is to support
off cirrus clouds. These features show the direction of the concrete adaptation activities which mitigate the adverse
wind in the upper troposphere. Stratus nebulosus clouds effects of climate change. National Bank for Agriculture
appear as a featureless or nebulous veil or layer of stratus and Rural Development (NABARD) is the National
clouds with no distinctive features or structure. They are Implementing Entity (NIE).
found at low altitudes, and is a good sign of atmospheric 495. (d) Tamil Nadu has more than two major port that is
stability, which indicates continuous stable weather. Stratus Chennai Port, Tuticorin Port and Ennore Port. Where in
Maharashtra has two major port that is JNPT and
nebulosus may produce light drizzle or flakes of snow. Mumbai Port. In West Bengal and Odisha both state
Nimbus are dark, low-level clouds accompanied by light to has one major port.
moderately falling precipitation. Low clouds are primarily 496. (d) The leeward region of mountains generally remains
composed of water droplets since their bases generally lie dry as compared to the windward. Pune lies on the
below 6,500 feet (2,000 meters). However, when Leeward side of the Ghats which is a rain-shadow region.
Mangalore lies in the windward side of the western Ghats
temperatures are cold enough, these clouds may also
while Bangalore lies in the leeward side .
contain ice particles and snow. Cumulus clouds are clouds 497. (b) Tamil Nadu receives rainfall in the winter season
which have flat bases and are often described as "puffy", due to northeast trade winds. The normal annual
"cotton-like" or "fluffy" in appearance. These clouds grow rainfall of the state is about 945 mm (37.2 in) of which
high up into the atmosphere rather than spreading across 48% is through the North East monsoon, and 32%
the sky. They span all levels of the troposphere and can through the South West monsoon.
even rise up into the stratosphere.
EBD_7341
164 Geography
498. (b) Minicoy is the Eight Degree Channel, which 510. (c) The Sargasso Sea is in the North Atlantic is
separates Lakshadweep from the independent Maldive bounded by the Gulf Stream on the west, the North
Islands. Atlantic Current on the north, the Canary Current on
499. (a) Ambala Cantonment is a Garrison cantonment the east, and the North Equatorial Current on the
town in Ambala district in the state of Haryana. south.
Singrauli is a strategically important town for mining 511. (d)
and is called Power Hub of India. Bhilai, is a major 512. (a) Satna is not situated on the Varanasi-Kanyakumari
industrial centre in central Chhattisgarh state. highway (NH-7).
Vishakhapatnam is an important transportation town. 513. (c) Gully plugs are built using local stones, clay and
500. (c) India’s tree and forest cover has registered an bushes across small gullies and streams running down
increase of 1% or 8, 021 sq. km in two years since 2015, the hill slopes carrying drainage to tiny catchments
according to the latest assessment by the government. during rainy season. It is not suitable for urban rain
Land devoted to non-agricultural use has increased water harvesting.
three-fold since Independence. It is set to increase 514. (b) Tank system does not predate well irrigation in
further and faster. India.
501. (c) Agricultural sector was the most dominant sector 515. (b) Constellation is a group of stars forming a
during the time of India›s independence, both in terms recognizable pattern that is traditionally named after its
of its contribution to gross domestic product and in apparent form or identified with a mythology.
providing employment to the country›s labour force. 516. (b) The Chambal's lower course is lined by a 10-mile
After independent immediate goal of government to belt of bad land gullies resulting from accelerated soil
increase food grain production by Switching over from erosion and is the site of a major project in soil
cash crops to food crops, Intensification of cropping conservation.
over already cultivated land, Increasing cultivable area 517. (d) Hurricane is a storm with a violent wind, in
by bringing cultivable and fallow land under plough particular a tropical cyclone over the mid-latitude.
etc. 518. (d) Humidity is the amount of water vapour present in
502. (d) Considered as a geographical barrier between air at a particular place and time.
North and South India, Narmada river is the third 519. (d) The Shompen or Shom Pen is the indigenous
largest river in India and the largest western flowing people of the interior of Great Nicobar Island, part of
river among all. the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar
503. (d) The Luni River begins near Ajmer in the Pushkar Islands. The Shompen are designated vulnerable tribal
valley of the western Aravalli Range at an elevation of group.
about 550m. Its major tributaries are the Sukri, Mithri, 520. (c) Itanagar
Bandi, Khari, Jawai, Guhiya and Sagi from the left, and 521. (c) Lonar Lake, also known as Lonar crater, is a
the Jojari River from the right. notified National Geo-heritage Monument saline soda
504. (d) The Cheruthoni Dam is located in Idukki District, lake located at Lonar in Buldhana district, Maharashtra.
Kerala, and is a 138m tall concrete gravity dam. The The Gangbal Lake also called Gangbal Lake, is a lake
Indira Sagar Dam is a multipurpose project of Madhya situated at the foothills of Mount Haramukh in
Pradesh on the Narmada River at Narmada Nagar, Ganderbal district, north of Srinagar city in the state of
Mundi in the Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh in Jammu and Kashmir. It is fed by precipitation, glaciers
India. Krishna Raja Sagara dam is a gravity dam below and springs. Purbasthali is a tectonic lake in Bardhaman
the confluence of river Kaveri with its tributaries district, Kolkata. Bhimtal Lake is a fluvial lake in the
Hemavati and Lakshmana Tirtha, in the district of town of Bhimtal in the Indian state of Uttarakhand.
Mandya in Karnataka. The Mettur Dam is one of the 522. (b) The two island groups, the Andaman Islands and
largest dams in India and the largest in Tamilnadu the Nicobar Islands are separated by the 10 ° N parallel,
located across the river Cauvery. with the Andamans to the north of this latitude, and
505. (a) Length of National Highway in Chandhigarh is the Nicobars to the south.
15km, in Delhi is 80km, Daman and Diu is 22 km, Dadar 523. (b) There is an existing major irrigation project on the
and Nagar Haveli is 31 km. river called the Damanganga Reservoir Project, which
506. (a) Lanak La connects Ladakh with Lhasa.This is located near Madhuban village in Dharampur taluka
mountain pass is located at an elevation of 5466 metres of Valsad district of Gujarat.
in Aksai-China (Ladakh). 524. (c) Soil impoverishment is based on the innate ability
507. (d) Proxima Centauri (meaning ‹nearest star of of prairie plants to tolerate and flourish in soils with
Centaurus'), or Alpha Centauri C, is a red dwarf, a small low levels of nitrogen. Soil impoverishment, or reverse
low-mass star, about 4.244 light-years (1.301 pc) from fertilization, involves the removal of nutrients from the
the Sun in the constellation of Centaurus. It was soil.It is most often done by introducing large
discovered in 1915 by Robert Innes and is the nearest- amounts of organic matter to the soil.
known star to the Sun. 525. (b) Oxisols- (from French oxide, “oxide”) are very
508. (d) Mercury has the least mass in our solar system highly weathered soils that are found primarily in the
and Jupiter the most. intertropical regions of the world. These soils contain
509. (b) The Tropic of Capricorn runs through 10 countries: few weatherable minerals and are often rich in Fe and
Namibia, Botswana, South Africa, Mozambique, Al oxide minerals.
Madagascar, Australia, Chile, Argentina, Paraguay, and Vertisols -a clayey soil with little organic matter which
Brazil. occurs in regions having distinct wet and dry seasons.
Geography 165
The dominant soil-forming processes in Vertisols are: the sea level and is the highest peak in the Nilgiri Hills.
cracking, argilli-pedoturbation (mixing of clay in the Dhoopgarh is the highest point in the Mahadeo Hills
pedon) and mass movement of materials due to (Satpura Range), Madhya Pradesh, India. Located in
shrinkage and swelling of clays during drying/wetting Pachmarhi, it has an elevation of 1,352 metres (4,429 ft).
cycles. ... The wetting and drying cycles cause the Guru Shikhar, a peak in the Arbuda Mountains of
clays to expand and contract. Rajasthan, is the highest point of the Aravalli Range.
Histosols- (from Greek histos, “tissue”) are soils that It rises to an elevation of 1,722 metres (5,650 ft).
are composed mainly of organic materials. They 532. (d) Coral reefs are located in tropical oceans near the
contain at least 20-30 percent organic matter by weight equator. The largest coral reef is the Great Barrier Reef
and are more than 40 cm thick. Bulk densities are quite in Australia. The second largest coral reef can be found
low, often less than 0.3 g cm3. off the coast of Belize, in Central America. Other reefs
Entisols- are defined as soils that do not show any are found in Hawaii, the Red Sea and other areas in
profile development other than an A horizon. An tropical oceans.
entisol has no diagnostic horizons, and most are Coral reef are not present in Gulf of Cambay. For habitat
basically unaltered from their parent material, which of coral reef they require warm, shallow, clear, sunny
can be unconsolidated sediment or rock. and agitated water.
526. (b) The Caucasus Mountains are a mountain system 533. (d) The cultivation of jute in India is mainly confined
at the intersection of Europe and Asia. Stretching to the eastern region of the country . The jute crop is
between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea, it grown in nearly 83 districts of seven states - West
surrounds the eponymous Caucasus region and is Bengal, Assam , Orissa, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Tripura
home to Mount Elbrus, the highest peak in Europe. and Meghalaya.
527. (b) Mango showers is a colloquial term to describe 534. (c) The Coromandel Coast is the southeastern coast
the occurrence of pre-monsoon rainfall. These rains region of the Indian subcontinent, bounded by the
normally occur from March to April, Their intensity can Utkal Plains to the north, the Bay of Bengal to the east,
range from light showers to heavy and persistent the Kaveri delta to the south and the Eastern Ghats to
thunderstorms towards the close of the summer season, the west, extending over an area of about 22,800 square
pre-monsoon showers are common especially in Kerala, kilometres. Its definition can also include the north
Karnataka and parts of Tamil Nadu in India. They help western coast of the island of Sri Lanka.[citation
in the early ripening of mangoes and are often referred needed] The coast has an average elevation of 80
to as “Mango showers. metres and is backed by the Eastern Ghats, a chain of
528. (c) Intercropping is growing two or more crops next low, flat-topped hills.
to each other at the same time.It is very important not Arikamedu is a coastal fishing village, under the
to have crops competing with each other for space, Ariankuppam Panchayat, on the southeastern coast of
nutrients, water, or sunlight. An example of an India, 4 kilometres (2.5 mi) from Pundicherry, on the
intercropping strategy is planting one crop that has Pundicherry-Cuddalore road; it was originally a French
deep roots with another that has shallow roots. colonial town. It is located on the bank of the
529. (c) Climate: Cotton grows well in warm and moist Ariyankuppam River (for most part of the year the river
climate where summer is long and where there is is considered a lagoon), also known as Virampattinam
salinity in the soil. Temperature: Cotton grown well in River, which forms the northern outlet of the Gingee
a temperature of 24°C. But cotton bursts out, high River as it joins the Bay of Bengal. As the site is
temperature is injurious. Rainfall: 60-100 cm rainfall is located at the bend of the river it provides protection
essential for the cultivation of cotton. to sea-going vessels that dock there.
530. (a) Temperate coniferous forest is a terrestrial habitat 535. (a) Cichlid are fish from the family Cichlidae in the
type defined by the World Wide Fund for Nature. order Cichliformes. Cichlids were traditionally classed
Temperate coniferous forests are found predominantly in a suborder, Labroidei, along with the wrasses
in areas with warm summers and cool winters and vary (Labridae), in the order Perciformes but molecular
in their kinds of plant life. In some, needle leaf trees studies have contradicted this grouping. The closest
dominate, while others are home primarily to broadleaf living relatives of cichlids are probably the convict
evergreen trees or a mix of both tree types.[1] A blennies and both families are classified in the 5th
separate habitat type, the tropical coniferous forests, edition of Fishes of the World as the two families in the
occurs in more tropical climates. Cichliformes, part of the subseries Ovalentaria. This
Temperate coniferous forests are common in the family is both large and diverse. At least 1,650 species
coastal areas of regions that have mild winters and have been scientifically described,[5] making it one of
heavy rainfall, or inland in drier climates the largest vertebrate families.
Temperate coniferous forests sustain the highest levels The largest quantity of cichilds are found in backwater
of biomass in any terrestrial ecosystem and are notable of kerala.
for trees of massive proportions in temperate rainforest 536. (c) Eratosthenes of Cyrene was a Greek polymath: a
regions. mathematician, geographer, poet, astronomer and music
531. (c) Anaimudi peak is located in Anamalai Hills in theorist. He was a man of learning, becoming the chief
Kerala at the elevation of 2,695 meters (8,843 ft), it is librarian at the Library of Alexandria. His work is
considered the highest peak in the Western Ghats and comparable to what is now known as the study of
the whole of South India. Dodabetta, is located geography and he introduced some of the terminology
approximately 10 km away from Ooty. It towers to a still used today.
staggering height of 8650 feet or 2,623 meters above
EBD_7341
166 Geography
He is best known for being the first person to calculate 545. (b) Arunachal Pradesh
the circumference of the Earth, which he did by using They also live in the Sonitpur and North Lakhimpur districts
the extensive survey results he could access in his role of Assam. Their population of around 300,000 makes them
at the Library; his calculation was remarkably accurate.
the most populous tribe of Arunachal Pradesh, closely
He was also the first to calculate the tilt of the Earth’s
axis, once again with remarkable accuracy. Additionally, followed by the tribes of the Adi according to 2001 census.
he may have accurately calculated the distance from The Nyishi language belongs to the Sino-Tibetan family,
the Earth to the Sun and invented the leap day. He however, the origin is disputed.
created the first global projection of the world, 546. (c) Physiological Density-the number of people supported
incorporating parallels and meridians based on the by a unit area of arable land.Physiological density is the
available geographic knowledge of his era. number of people per unit area of arable land. Arable
537. (b) Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh,
describes land that is suitable for growing crops.
Haryana, Delhi do not have coastline nor international
border. 547. (b) Son River, Son also spelled Sone, principal southern
538. (d) The south India region has a tropical climate and tributary of the Ganges (Ganga) River, rising in Madhya
depends on monsoons for rainfall. The region, which Pradesh state, central India. It flows north past Manpur
includes Karnataka, inland Tamil Nadu and western and then turns northeast. The river cuts through the
Andhra Pradesh, gets between 400 and 750 millimetres Kaimur Range and joins the Ganges above Patna, after a
(15.7 and 29.5 in) of rainfall annually with hot summers 487-mile (784-km) course.
and dry winters with temperatures around 20–24 °C
548. (d) Commercial farming is a type of farming in which
(68–75 °F).
539. (d) Sex Composition - The number of women and men crops are grown for commercial use only. It is a
in a country is an important demographic characteristic. modernized method of farming that is undertaken on a
The ratio between the number of women and men in large scale. In this type of farming the large land, labour
the population is called the Sex Ratio. In some and machines are used.
countries it is calculated by using the formula: or the The different types of commercial farming are:
number of males per thousand females. Mixed crop and livestock.
540. (b) Around 70% of the world’s total citrus production
Dairy farming.
is grown in the Northern Hemisphere, in particular
countries around the Mediterranean and the United Grain farming.
States, although Brazil is the largest citrus producer. Livestock ranching.
541. (c) Maruta makkal or tribes were ploughmen (ulavar) Mediterranean farming.
inabiting fertile, well-watered tracts (panai) and living Commercial gardening and fruit farming.
in villages called ur. The Kuravar is an ethnic Tamil 549. (d) Marginal land is land that has little or no agricultural
community native to the Kurinji mountain region of or industrial value. Marginal land has little potential for
southern India. Mullai Makkal or Pastoralists, also
profit and often has poor soil or other undesirable
called Ayar (Cowmen) were the habitat of Tamil
regions. Netal Makkal were fishing people living in characteristics. This type of land is often located at the
large coastal village called Pattinam and who were edge of deserts or other desolate areas.
living in small villages, called pakkam. 550. (a) Kadapa is a city in the Rayalseema region of the
542. (d) A Mediterranean climate or dry summer climate is south-central part of Andhra Pradesh, India. Kadapa
characterized by dry summers and mild, wet winters. district is endowed mainly with red and black soils ranging
The climate receives its name from the Mediterranean from poor to fertile soils. The soil of the district has been
Basin, where this climate type is most common.
classified into red ferruginous soil and black spoil. These
Mediterranean climate zones are typically located
along the western sides of continents, between roughly two classes can be sub divided into clay, loam sand with
30 and 45 degrees north and south of the equator. The finer distinctions. Kudapa regions are not rocky.
main cause of Mediterranean, or dry summer climate, is 551. (d) Geomorphic processes. Active and dominant
the subtropical ridge which extends northwards during geomorphic processes operating and hence influencing
the summer and migrates south during the winter due spatial distribution of plant and animals along the
to increasing north-south temperature differences. landscapes is mainly water movement. Running water
543. (d) Brahmaputra takes a ‘U’ turn at Namcha Barwa
has effected by speed, dissolution and rock weathering
and then continues to flow in Arunachal Pradesh and
after that, it is called as “Dihang River or Siang River”. which is facilitated by dissolved oxygen.
Explanation: The ‘U’ turn is pointed at the beginning 552. (d) Sclerophyllous plants occur in many parts of the
of Grand Canyon. world, but are most typical in the chaparral biomes.
544. (b) Bora – a cold Adriatic wind They are prominent throughout western (Perth region),
It rarely blows for more than three days. When Bora is of ea st ern (Sydney region) an d s outhern (Ad elai de
local origin, it will blow itself out in less than a day. Since region) parts of Australia, in the Mediterranean forests,
it brings cold and heavy air, it finds its way towards the w oodlan ds , a nd s crub biomes that cover th e
sea through mountain faults and between higher Mediterranean Bas in, C al ifornia n chapa rral a nd
mountain ranges. woodlands, Chilean Matorral, and the Cape Province
of South Africa.
Geography 167
553. (b) Warm ocean currents flow away from the equatorial 557. (a) The largest archaeological site in the subcontinent
region on the western side of ocean basins. The Gulf goes back hundreds of thousands of years to some of
Stream in the North Atlantic and the Kuroshio Current in the earliest uses of fire. Rohri Hills are located in the
the North Pacific are examples of warm currents. There the northeast corner of the province of Sindh. This limestone
current veers north-eastward across the Atlantic Ocean, hilly sequence supplied variety of raw material like chert/
where it is called the North Atlantic Drift and Brazil current. flint, lime stone and fuller’s earth to the ancient people,
554. (d) Indian states of Sikkim,Arunachal Pradesh, West and is a paradise for modern day quarries and contractors,
Bengal and also Jammu and Kashmir share boundary quarrying stone for construction of roads, cannals etc.
with three neighbouring countries. 558. (b) In Central Spain, the climate is continental, with
555. (c) The Hadley cell, named after George Hadley, is a baking hot summers and quite cold winters. The warm-
global scale tropical atmospheric circulation that features summer Mediterranean climate which predominates in
air rising near the Equator, flowing poleward at a height parts of northwestern Spain and mostly inland in central-
of 10 to 15 kilometers above the earth’s surface, northern Spain at altitudes above 900-1000 masl.
descending in the subtropics, and then returning 559. (a) The Black Sea is a body of water and marginal sea of
equatorward near the surface. This circulation creates the Atlantic Ocean between Eastern Europe, the
the trade winds, tropical rain-belts and hurricanes, Caucasus, and Western Asia. It is supplied by a number
subtropical deserts and the jet streams. Hadley cells are of major rivers, such as the Danube, Dnieper, Southern
the low-altitude overtuning circulation that have air Bug, Dniester, Don, and the Rioni. The watersheds of
sinking at roughly zero to 30 degree latitude. many countries drain into the Black Sea beyond the six
556. (b) Organic soils belong to the soil order Histosols and that immediately border it.
include the suborders Folists, Fibrists, Hemists and Volga River Basin Draining most of western Russian,
Saprists Histosols often occur in transitional zones the Volga is the largest river in Europe. From its source in
between dry upland areas and lacustrine or marine the Valdai Hills north east of Moscow the river flows
environments, but they are also present in grassland, east and south east to the Caspian Sea.
permafrost regions, anthropogenic deposits, floodplains
and alluvial fans.
EBD_7341
168 Polity
6 Polity
1. Which of the following is not a Parliamentary Committee? 7. Who among the following was never a Deputy Prime
[2007-I] Minister of India? [2007-II]
(a) Demands for Grants Committee (a) Devi Lal (b) GL Nanda
(b) Committee on Public Accounts (c) LK Advani (d) YB Chavan
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings 8. Which one of the following is the subject of the Narasimhan
(d) Committee on Esti mates Committee Reports of years 1991 and 1998? [2007-II]
2. Consider the following statements [2007-I] (a) Administrative Reforms
1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Council of (b) Banking Reforms
States. (c) Constitutional Reforms
2. The Council of States cannot reject a Money Bill nor (d) Electoral Reforms
amend it. 9. Consider the following statements [2007-II]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. The Annual Appropriation Bill is passed by the Lok
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Sabha in the same manner as any other Bill.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be
3. Which one of the following statements in not correct? initiated by an introduction of a Bill in either Lok
[2007-I] Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
(a) The Vice-President of India holds office for a period Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
of five years (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) The Vice-President of India can be removed by a simple (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
majority of votes passed in the Rajya Sabha only 10. Who of the following constitutes a Finance Commission
(c) The Vice-President of India continues to be in office for a State in India? [2007-II]
even after the expiry of his term till his successor (a) The President of India
takes over (b) The Governor of the State
(d) The Supreme Court of India has to look into all disputes (c) The Union Finance Minister
with regard to the election of the Vice-President of India (d) The Union Cabinet
4. Who was the President of India at the time of proclamation (d) Any sitting Judge of High Court or Supreme Court
of emergency in the year 1976? [2007-I] 11. Consider the following statements about the Attorney-
(a) V.VGiri General of India? [2007-II]
(b) Giani Zail Singh 1. He is appointed by the President of India
(c) Fakhr-ud-din Ali Ahmad 2. He has the right to take part in the proceeding of the
(d) Shankar Dayal Sharma Parliament.
5. The Sarkaria Commission Report deal with which one the 3. He has the right of audience in all courts in India.
following? [2007-I] Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Corruption in India (b) Centre-state relations (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) local governance (d) Inter-river dispute (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
6. Assertion (A) The number of the Members of the Union 12. Who among the following can be the Chairperson of the
Public Service Commission is preserved in the Constitution National Human Rights Commission? [2007-II]
of India. (a) A Member of either House of Parliament
Reason (R) The Union Public Service Commission was (b) A Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
constituted under the provisions in the Constitution of India. (c) A social worker actively involved in the promotion
Codes [2007-II] of human rights
(a) Bath A and R are true and R is the correct explanation 13. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution
of A of India includes the disqualification of a Legislator on
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct grounds of defection? [2007-II]
explanation of A (a) 8th Schedule (b) 7th Schedule
(c) A is true, but R is false (c) Schedule (d) 10th Schedule
(d) A is false, but R is true
Polity 169
14. Who among the following determines the authority who 20. Consider the following statements [2008-I]
shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to 1. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs constitute Consultative
the states and division of each State into territorial Committees of Members of both the Houses of Parliament.
constituencies? [2007-II] 2. The main purpose of these Committees are to provide a
(a) The President of India forum for formal discussions between the Government
(b) The Parliament of India and Members of Parliament on polices and programmes
(c) The Chief Election Commissioner of India of the Government.
(d) The Lok Sabha alone Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
15. Consider the following statements [2007-II] (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
1. The maximum number of the Judges of the Supreme (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Court of India is prescribed in the Constitution of 21. In which part of the Constitution, details of citizenship
India. are mentioned? [2008-I]
2. The maximum number of the Members of the Union (a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
Public Service Commission is prescribed in the 22. Match the following [2008-I]
Constitution of India. List I List II
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (Schedule in the (Subject)
(a) Only I (b) Only 2 Constitution of India)
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 A. Tenth Schedule 1. Languages
16. Consider the following statements [2007-II] B. Eighth Schedule 2. Provisions as to
1. When the Vice-President of India acts as the President disqualification on the
of India, he performs simultaneously the functions grounds of defection
of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha. C. First Schedule 3. Validation of certain Acts
2. The President, of India can promulgate ordinances and Regulations
at any time except when both Houses of Parliament D. Ninth Schedule 4. The States
are in session. Codes
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A B C D A B C D
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 2 3 4 1
17. Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains the 23. Financial distribution between the Union and the State
three lists that divide powers between the Union and the takes place on the basis of the recommendations of which
sates? [2008-I] one of the following? [2008-I]
(a) Fifth (b) Sixth (a) The National Development Council
(c) Seventh (d) Eigth (b) The Inter-State Council
18. What does the 93rd Constitutional Amendment deal with? (c) The Planning Commission
[2008-I] (d) The Finance Commission
(a) Inclusion of Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali 24. Who among the following was the first Law Minister of
languages in the Eighth Schedule India? [2008-I]
(b) Inclusion of service tax levied by Union and collected (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
and appropriated by the Union and the states in the (b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
Seventh Schedule (c) Dr BR Ambedkar
(c) Free and compulsory education for all children (d) T Krishnamachari
between the age of 6 and 14 years 25. Who is the Chairman of second Administrative Reforms
(d) No reservation in Panchayats need to be made in Commission? [2008-I]
favour of Scheduled Castes in Arunachal Pradesh (a) Bimal Jalan (b) Dr Karan Singh
19. Consider the following statements [2008-I] (c) M Veerappa Moily (d) Ahmed Patel
1. The Union Executive consists of the President and 26. Assertion (A) An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed
the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as be a decree of a Civil Court. [2008-II]
the head. Reason (R) Award of Lok Adalat is final and binding on
2. The President may, by writing under his hand all parties, and no appeal lies against thereto before any
addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. court
3. Executive power of the Union is vested in the Prime Codes
Minister. (a) Bath A and R are true and R is the correct explanation ofA
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 explanation of A
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 2 (c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
EBD_7341
170 Polity
27. Sarkaria Commission was established to study [2008-II] (a) Nagpur (b) Panaji
(a) President and Governoers' relations (c) Pune (d) Aurangabad
(b) Centre-State relations 34. Consider the following statements [2008-II]
(c) State and Panchayat body relations 1. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are
(d) President and Prime Minister' relations appointed by the President.
28. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 2. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are
[2008-II] eligible for further employment under the Government.
Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
to public order, morality and health, every religious (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
denomination or any section there of shall have the right. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious 35. Department of Official Language (Raj Bhasha Vibhag)
and charitable purposes. comes under which one of the following Ministries?
2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. [2008-II]
3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property. (a) Ministry of Culture
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above (d) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
29. Consider the following statements on Parliamentary 36. With respect to Article 371 A of the Constitution of India,
Committees [2008-II] the Governor of which one of the following States has
1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not associated with special responsibility with respect to law and order of the
the Committees on Public Accounts and Public State? [2008-II]
Undertakings. (a) Asom (b) Manipur
2. Members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn (c) Nagaland (d) Andhra Pradesh
from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. 37. Consider the following statements [2009-I]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. The Ministries Departments of the Union Government
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 are created by the Prime Minister.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The Cabinet Secretary is the Ex-officio Chairman of
30. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended which the Civil Services Board.
one of the following Panchayati Raj structures? [2008-II] Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) Gram Panchayat at the village level and Panchayat (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Samiti at the block level only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Panchayat Samiti at the block level and Zilla Parishad 38. The Veerapa Moily Commission in its report on
at the district level only Administrative Reforms among other aspects has
(c) Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat Samiti suggested doing away with which one of the following
at the block level and Zilla Parishad at the district pairs of Articles of the Constitution of India? [2009-I]
level (a) Articles 305 and 306 (b) Articles 307 and 308
(d) Gram Panchayat at the village level and Zilla Parishad (c) Articles 308 and 309 (d) Articles 310 and 311
Parishad at the district level only 39. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of
31. Who among the following was the Finance Minister of the following pairs is not correctly matched [2009-I]
India in the Interim Government during 1946-1947?
[2008-II] Subject List
(a) R K Shanmukham Chetty (a) Stock Exchanges The State List
(b) John Mathai (b) Forest The Concurrent List
(c) Liaquat Ali Khan (c) Insurance The Union List
(d) Chintamanrao Deshmukh
(d) Marriage and Divorce The Concurrent List
32. Consider the following statements [2008-II]
1. Article 46 of the Constitution of India provides for
free legal aid to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled 40. Which of the following is not a recommendation of the
Tribes. Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj ? [2009-I]
2. Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides for (a) Open participation of political parties in Panchayati
equality before law. Raj affairs
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Creation of a three-tier system
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Scheduled Tribes
33. The Bombay High Court does not have a bench at which (d) Compulsory powers of taxation to Panchayati Raj
one of the following places? [2008-II] Institution
Polity 171
41. In which one of the following Minsitries the census 3. In the performance of his duties he shall have the
organisation has been functioning on a permanent footing right of audience in all courts of India.
since 1961? [2009-I] Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Health and Family Welfare (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3
(b) Home Affairs (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Social Justice and Empowerment 48. In which of the following years the Fundamental Duties
(d) Human Resource Development have been added to the existent Fundamental Rights in
42. Consider the following Vice-Presidents of India [2009-I] the Constitution of India? [2009-I]
1. V.VGiri 2. M Hidayatullah (a) 1965 (b) 1976
3. BD Jatti 4. GS Pathak (c) 1979 (d) 1982
49. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of
Which one of the following is the correct chronology of
the Parliament? [2009-I]
their tenures?
(a) The Public Accounts Committee
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
(b) The Estimates Committee
(c) 3, 2, 1,4 (d) 4, 1,3, 2 (c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
43. Who among the following was the first Speaker of the (d) The Committee on Petitions
Lok Sabha? [2009-I] 50. Who among the following recommends to the Parliament
(a) M A Ayyangar (b) G V Mavalankar for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State?
(c) Sardar Hukam Singh (d) N Sanjiva Reddy [2009-II]
44. Which one of the following is the correct chronological (a) The President of India
order of the tenures of the following Presidents of Indian (b) The Governor of the concerned State
National Congress? (c) The Legislative Council of the concerned State
1. Jagjivan Ram 2. K Kamaraj (d) The Legislative Assembly of the concerned State
3. P D Tandon 4. U N Dhebar 51. The Sachar Committee Report pertains to [2009-II]
(a) 1 2 4 3 (a) Indian federalism
(b) 2 3 4 1 (b) Economic development of backward regions
(c) 3 4 2 1 (c) Indian Muslims
(d) 3 4 1 2 (d) OBC's
45. According to Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, in 52. The 73rd Amendment of the Constitution provided
three States there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Which of the following are the main features of this provision?
Scheduled Castes and Backward Classes. Which one of the [2009-II]
following States is not covered by the Article? [2009-I] 1. A three-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all states.
(a) Jharkhand (b) Punjab 2. Panchayat election in every 5 years.
3. Not less than 33% of seats are reserved for women.
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Odisha
4. Constitution of district planning committies to prepare
46. Match the following [2009-I]
development plans.
List I List II Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(Provision of the (Source) (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
Constitution of India) (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
A. Amendment of the Constitution of 53. Which of the following would be construed as a reasonable
Constitution Germany restriction of the right to freedom'? [2009-II]
(a) When the state disallows a candidate from securing
B. Directive Principles Constitution of
votes in the name of religion
Canada (b) When the state disallows citizens from forming a club
C. Emergency Power of Constitution of out of State funds that denies access to women
the President South Africa (c) When the Government of Nagaland disallows temporary
D. The Union-State Irish Constitution residents to buy immovable property in Nagaland.
Relations (d) All of the above
Codes : 54. In India the Supreme Command of the Armed Forces is,
vested in the President. This means that in the exercise of
A B C D A B C D
this power [2009-II]
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
(a) he/she cannot be regulated by law
(c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 3 7 4 2
(b) he/she shall be regulated by law
47. Consider the following statements with respect to the (c) during war, the President seeks advice only from the
Attorney General of India [2009-I] Chiefs of the Armed Forces
1. He is appointed by the President. (d) during war the President can suspended the
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required Fundamental Rights of citizens
by a Judge of High Court.
EBD_7341
172 Polity
55. Which one of the following is not a correct description of 63. Consider the following statements [2009-II]
the Directive Principles of State Policy? [2009-II] 1. A person who was born on January, 26th, 1951 in
(a) Directive Principles are not enforceable by the courts Rangoon, whose father was a citizen of India by birth
(b) Directive Principles have a political sanction at the time of his birth is deemed to be an Indian
(c) Directive Principles are declaration of objective for citizen by descent.
State Legislation 2. A person who was born on July, 1st 1988 in Itanagar,
(d) Directive Principles promise equal income and free whose mother is a citizen of India at the time of his
health care for all Indians birth but the father was not, is deemed to be a citizen
56. Which one of the following jurisdictions of the Indian of India by birth.
judiciary covers Public Interest Litigation? [2009-II] Which of the statements given above is/are corrcet?
(a) Original Jurisdiction (b) Appellate Jurisdiction (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Epistolary Jurisdiction (d) Advisory Jurisdiction (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
57. The quorum for Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament is 64. Who among the following was elected President of India
[2009-II] unopposed? [2009-II]
(a) One- twelveth of the total number of members of the (a) Dr Rajendra Prasad
House (b) Dr S Radhakrishnan
(b) One-sixth of the total numbers of members of the House (c) Dr Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(c) One-tenth of the total number of members of the House (d) K R Narayanan
(d) Two-third of the total number of members of the House 65. Which one of the following rights conferred by the
58. According to the Constitution (Fifty Second Amendment Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens?
Act, 1985 as amended in 2003, a legislator attracts [2009-II]
disqualification under the 10th Schedule if [2009-II] (a) Freedom of speech, assembly and form association
1. he voluntarily gives up the membership of the party (b) Freedom to move, reside and settle in any part of the
on whose ticket he was elected. territory of India
2. he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any (c) Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any
occupation, trade or business
direction issued by his political party.
(d) Right to constitutional remedies
3. as a result of split, less than one third of the members
66. The function of a Protem Speaker is to [2009-II]
formed a new group or party in the house.
(a) conduct the proceeding of the House in the absence
4. a member who has been elected as a independent
of the Speaker
member joins any political party.
(b) officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is unlikely to
be elected
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) swear members and hold charge till a regular Speaker
is elected
59. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers could
(d) scrutinize the authenticity of the election certificates
not vote for himself during the 'Vote of Confidence' that of members
he was seeking from the Lok Sabha? [2009-II] 67. If the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha
(a) VP Singh (b) PV Narasimha Rao [2009-II]
(c) Chandra Sekhar (d) Manmohan Singh (a) He/she has to get elected to the Lok Sabha within 6 months
60. Which one of the following states does not have Vidhan (b) He/she can declare the government's policies only
Parishad? [2009-II] in the Rajya Sabha
(a) Bihar (b) Maharashtra (c) He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Uttar Pradesh no confidence is under consideration
61. Identify the correct sequence of passing a Budget in the (d) He/she cannot take part in the budget deliberation in
Parliament [2009-II] the Lok Sabha
(a) Vote on Account, Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill 68. Under which of the following conditions security deposits
Discussion on Budget of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned
(b) Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill, Discussion on to him/her? [2009-II]
Budget, Vote on Accounts 1. The nomination made by the candidate if found to
(c) Discussion on Budget, Vote on Account, Finance be invalid.
Bill, Appropriation Bill 2. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination
(d) Discussion on Budget, Appropriation Bill, Finance even though it is found valid.
Bill, Vote on Account 3. The candidate lost the polls but secured l/6th of the
62. Which one of the following Commissions is not provided total number of valid votes polled in that election.
in the Constitution of India? [2009-II] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Planning Commission (b) UPSC (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
(c) Finance Commission (d) Election Commission (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Polity 173
69. Consider the following statements with respect to the (a) The religion cannot be mobilised for political ends
Comptroller and Auditor General of India [2010-I] (b) Abolishing untouchability from the country
1. He shall only be removed from office in like manner (c) The basic structures of the Constitution, as defined
and on the ground as a Judge of the Supreme Court. in the preamble, cannot be changed
2. He shall not be eligible for further office either under (d) Right to life and liberty cannot be suspended under
the Government of India or under the Government of any circumstance
any State after he has ceased to hold his office. 77. Which of the following statements regarding the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Fundamental Duties contained in the Constitution of India
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 are correct? [2010-II]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Fundamental Duties can be enforced through writ
70. Which one of the following International Human Rights
jurisdiction.
Instruments has been signed by India but not yet
2. Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the
ratified ? [2010-I]
Constitution since its adoption.
(a) Convention on the right of the child.
(b) Convention on the Elimination of all forms of 3. Fundamental Duties became a part of the Constitution
discrimination against women in accordance with the recommendations of the
(c) Convention on the political rights of women Swaran Singh Committee.
(d) Convention on the nationality of married women 4. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to the citizens
71. The Constitution (74th) Amendment Act makes mention of India.
of the [2010-I] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) composition of the National Development Council (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
(b) structure of the Planning Commission of India (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
(c) functions of the State Finance Commission 78. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is also
(d) functions of the Kaveri Water Authority available to a foreigner on Indian soil? [2010-II]
72. Under which of the following conditions can citizenship (a) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion,
be provided in India? [2010-I] race, caste, sex or place of birth
1. One should be born in India. (b) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
2. Either of whose parents was born in India (c) Protection of life and personal liberty according to
3. Who has been a resident of India for not less than procedure established by law
five years. (d) To practice any profession or to carry on any
Select the correct answer using the codes given below occupation, trade or business
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None of these DIRECTIONS (Qs. 79-81) : The following questions are based
73. Which one of the following is a human right as well as a on the following passage.
Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India? Civil society has become the leitmotif of movements struggling
[2010-I] to free themselves from unresponsive and often tyrannical post
(a) Right to Information (b) Right to Education
colonial elites. If the first wave of liberation took place along
(c) Right to Work (d) Right to Housing
with decolonisation, the second wave comes up against those
74. Consider the following statements [2010-I]
very elites who had taken power after decolonisation. I see the
1. The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is
distributed among the States on the basis of the beginning of an authentic civil society in the voice of those
population and the area of the State. outside the ambit of norms laid down by the state-ecology,
2. The 84th Amendment Act of the Constitution of India gender, class-in the resistance of those who refuse to let the
lifted the freeze on the delimitation of constituencies state site its projects wherever it places, in the voice of those
imposed by the 42nd Amendment. who reject corrupt elites in the political passions of those
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? whose nerves are not numbed by consumer capitalism, in the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 letters to the newspapers, in oral communication. These are
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 people who do not opt out of civil society, but who demand
75. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers that the state deliver what it has promised in the Constitution
resigned before facing a vote of no-confidence in the Lok and the law, who demand State accountability, who expand the
Sabha? [2010-I] sphere of rights to encompass those which has arisen out of
(a) Chandra Shekhar the struggles of the people.
(b) Morarji Desai 79. What are the methods adopted by civil society activists?
(c) Chaudhary Charan Singh [2010-II]
(d) VP Singh (a) Written and oral communication
76. For which one of the following Judgements of the Supreme (b) Social movements
Court of India, the Kesavananda Bharati vs State of India (c) Resistance movements, individually or collectively
case is considered a landmark? [2010-I] (d) Collective people's struggles
EBD_7341
174 Polity
80. What does the author mean by 'authentic civil society'? 84. What does the author mean by nyaya? [2010-II]
[2010-II] (a) Judiciary and judicial processes
(a) People who have lost faith in parliamentary system (b) The rule of law and the Constitution
(b) Citizens who are not corrupt but do not vote (c) A concept of justice that combines theories of justice
(c) Citizens who passionately advocate the cleansing with the practice of democracy
of institutional malpractice and societal injustices (d) Universal theories of justice that are applicable as
through non parliamentary methods standards in all societies
(d) Activists who want moral accountability and judicial 85. Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament starts at [2010-II]
redress of all wrong doings in society (a) first hour of the sitting (b) last hour of the sitting
81. What are the demands not generated by people's struggle? (c) 12 : 00 noon (d) no fixed timings
(a) Good delivery of public services [2010-II] 86. The core of political democracy lies in the basic axiom of
(b) Rule of law electoral democracy which is based on [2010-II]
(c) State accountability (a) Right to education (b) Freedom of speech
(d) Uniform civil code (c) Right to equality (d) Universal adult franchise
87. Which one of the following statements regarding judiciary
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 82-84) : The following questions are based
in India is not correct? [2010-II]
on the following passage.
(a) District Courts in India are presided over by a Judge
A government in a democratic country has to respond to on- (b) The District and Session Judge is the principal court
going priorities in public criticism and political reproach and to of civil jurisdiction
the threats to survival it has to face. The removal of long (c) The Munsiff's Court has both civil and criminal
standing deprivations of the disadvantaged people of our jurisdiction
country may, in effect, be hampered by the biases in political (d) The District and Session Judge has the power to
pressure, in particular when the bulk of the social agitation is impose capital punishment
dominated by new problems that generate immediate and noisy 88. The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated
discontent among the middle class Indians with a voice. If the in [2010-II]
politically active threats are concentrated only on some specific (a) either house of the Parliament
new issues, no matter how important (such as high prices of (b) a joint siting of both houses of the Parliament
consumer goods for the relatively rich, or the fear that India's (c) the Lok Sabha alone
political sovereignty might be compromised by its nuclear deal (d) the Rajya Sabha alone
with the USA), rather than on the terrible general inheritance of 89. Formal or procedural democracy does not by any means
India of acute deprivation, deficient schooling, lack of medical guarantee [2010-II]
attention for the poor and extraordinary under nourishment (a) political and civil rights
(especially of children and also of young women), then the (b) constitutionalism
pressure on democratic governance acts relentlessly towards (c) the rule of law
giving priority to only those particular new issues rather than (d) absence of caste discrimination
to the gigantic persistent deprivations that are at the root of so 90. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
much inequity and injustice in India. The perspective of [2010-II]
realisation of justice and that of an adequately broad nyaya are 1. A registered voter in India can contest an election to
central not only to the theory of justice, but also to the practice Lok Sabha from any constituency in India.
of democracy. 2. As per the Representation of the People Act, 1951, if
82. What are the 'new issues that dominate the middle class a person is convicted of any offence and sentenced
led social agenda today? [2010-II] to an imprisonment of 2 years or more, he will be
(a) Price rise, progressive taxation and the Indo-USA disqualified to contest election.
nuclear deal Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(b) Acute deprivation, malnourishment and famines (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Dowry deaths, gender inequalities and price rise (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2
(d) Illiteracy, poverty and infart mortality 91. Why is political power sharing through different levels of
83. What is the minimum mandate of a democratic government? government desirable in a democracy? [2010-II]
[2010-II] 1. It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between
(a) Respond to ongoing priorities in public criticism and various social groups.
threats to survival by decisive public action 2. It decreases the possibility of arbitrary decision-making.
(b) Respond to demands of middle class pressure groups 3. It prompts people's participation at different levels
on an urgent basis of government.
(c) Preempt social agitations by enacting sensitive laws Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(d) Attend to severity threats that threaten national (a) Only 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
sovereignty (c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2
Polity 175
92. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (b) MPs and MLAs of a State have the same number of
[2010-II] votes
1. In India, the constitutional remedy under Article 32 (c) all MPs and MLAs have one vote each
is available only in case of Fundamental Rights, not (d) MPs and MLAs of different States have different
in the case of rights which follow from some other numbers of votes
provision in the Constitution. 98. Which one among the following is not correct?
2. Both the Supreme Court and High Courts can issue A special category state invariably [2011-I]
the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, (a) is a border State (b) has harsh terrain
certiorari and quo warranto only for the purpose of (c) has low literacy rate (d) has poor infrastructure
enforcement of Fundamental Rights. 99. Despite being a Republican State, India is a member of the
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Commonwealth of Nations whose head is the British
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Monarch. This is because [2011-I]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) this mernbership does not affect the sovereign nature
93. In India the right to 'freedom of speech and expression' is of the Indian Republic
restricted on the grounds of [2010-II] (b) this membership only shows that the British ruled
1. the sovereignty and integrity of India. over India
2. contempt of court. (c) members of the association are sovereign and
3. friendly relation with foreign states. independent
4. protection of minorities. (d) it is a symbol of the unity among the members of the
Select the correct answer using the codes given below association
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 100. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five years from
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 the date of [2011-I]
94. Which of the following statements with regard to Inter- (a) its first meeting
State Council is/are correct? [2010-II] (b) issue of notification for the conduct of elections to
1. It was established under the provisions of the the Panchayat
Constitution of India. (c) declaration of the election results
2. The Council is a recommendatory body. (d) taking oath of office by the elected members
3. There is a standing committee of the Council under 101. Which one among the following is not true of the Planning
the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister of India to Commission? [2011-I]
process matters for consideration of the Council. (a) It is an advisory body and makes recommendations
Select the correct answer using the codes given below to the Cabinet
(a) Both 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 (b) It is responsible for the execution of development
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these programmes and plans
95. Which one among the following is a function of the Pro- (c) It is responsible for formulation of a plan for the most
Tem Speaker of the Lok Sabha? [2011-I] effective and balanced utilisation of the country's
(a) Conduct of the proceedings of the house in the resources
absence of the Speaker (d) It indicates the factors which tend to retard economic
(b) To check if the election certificates of the members development
of the house are in order 102. Which among the following statements regarding Lord
(c) Swear in the members of the house and hold the Ripon's plan for local self-government in India is/are
charge till a regular Speaker is elected correct? [2011-I]
(d) Give his assent to the bills passed by the house 1. The district should be the maximum area served by
96. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India one Committee or Local Board.
extends to [2011-I] 2. The Local Boards should consist of a large majority
(a) treaties and agreements signed by the Government of nominated official members and be presided over
of India by an official member as Chairman.
(b) disputes between the Government of India and one Select the correct answer using the codes given below
or more States (a) Only 1 (b) Onty 2
(c) disputes relating to implementation of the Directive (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Principles of State Policy 103. Which of the following features is/are contrary to the
(d) a bill passed by the Parliament which is violative of norms of a federal polity? [2011-I]
the Constitution 1. Common All India Service
97. The President of India is elected by a proportional 2. Single integrated judiciary
representation system through single transferable vote. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
This implies that [2011-I] (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) each elected MP or MLA has an equal number of votes (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
EBD_7341
176 Polity
104. The Civil Liability of Nuclear Damage Bill, passed in the 109. Statement I ' The Fundamental Rights protect the rights
Lok Sabha on August 2010, does not make provision for and liberties of the people against encroachment by the
[2011-I] legislative and executive wings of the government.
(a) establishment of claims commission and appointment Statement II The Fundamental Rights guarantee the rights
of claims commissioner of the citizens.
(b) a liability cap of `1500 crore on an operator in case of 110. Statement I The principle of equality before the law is not
an accident applicable to the President of India.
(c) a liability cap of `1500 crore also on the Government Statement II The President of India enjoys some special
of India in case of an accident privileges under the Constitution of India
(d) liability of the operator even if an accident is unintentional 111. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of
105. Which of the following statements regarding writ of India need the ratification by the legislatures of not less
certiorari is/are correct? [2011-I] than one-half of the states to effect amendment? [2011-I]
1. There should be court, tribunal or an officer having 1. The manner of election of the President of India.
legal authority to determine the questions of deciding 2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the
Fundamental Rights with a duty to act judicially. states.
2. Write of certiorari is available during the tendency of 3. Powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
proceedings before a subordinate court. 4. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only I (b) Only 2 (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
106. Which one among the following statements regarding the 112. Which of the following statements with respect to the
constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is judiciary in India is/are correct? [2011-I]
correct? [2011-I] 1. Unlike in the United States, India has not provided
(a) This right covers both child and adult illiteracy and for a double system of courts.
therefore, universally guarantees education to all 2. Under the Constitution of India, there is a single
citizens of India integrated system of courts for the Union as well as
(b) This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to the states.
14 years and becomes operational from the year 2015 3. The organisation of the subordinate judiciary varies
(c) This right has been taken from the British Constitution slightly from state to state.
which was the first Welfare State in the world Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(d) This right has been given to all Indian children (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
between the ages of 6 to 14 years under the 86th (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Constitutional Amendment Act 113. Consider the following statements about the powers of
the President of India [2011-I]
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 107-110) : The following questions consist
1. The President can direct that any matter on which
of two statements. Statement I and Statement II. You are to
decision has been taken by a Minister should be
examine these two statements carefully and select the answers
placed before the Council of Ministers.
to these questions using the codes given below. [2011-I]
2. The President can call all information relating to
Codes proposals for legislation.
(a) Both the Statements are true and Statement II is the correct 3. The President has the right to address and send
explanation of Statement I messages to either House of the Parliament.
(b) Both the Statements are true, but Statement II is not the 4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to
correct explaination of Statement I the administration of the Union must be
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false communicated to the President.
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement li is true Which of the statements given above are correct?
107. Statement I Adjournment is a short recess within the (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
session of the Parliament ordered by the Presiding Officer (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1,2, 3 and 4
of the House. 114. There are different arguments given in favour of power
Statement II When the Presiding Officer adjourns the sharing in a democratic political system. [2011-I]
House without fixing any date or time of the next meeting Which one of the following is not one of them?
of the House, it is known as adjournment sine die. (a) It reduces conflict among different communities
108. Statement I By virtue of a law passed by the Parliament of (b) Majority community does not impose its will on others
India in the year 2003, the people of Indian origin residing (c) Since, all are affected by the policies of the government,
in 16 countries enjoy dual citizenship status. they should be consulted in the governance of the
Statement II This law enables them to participate in country
economic activities, cast their vote or get elected to (d) It speeds up the decision-making process and
various legislative bodies in India. improves the chances of unity of the country
Polity 177
115. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for 2. Reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for
a period of [2012-I] consideration of the President.
(a) six years 3. Return the Bill, other than a money Bill, for
(b) during the pleasure of the President reconsideration of the legislature.
(c) for 6 years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(d) for 5 years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
116. Which of the following Committees are the Committees of (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
Parliament? [2012-I] 122. Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the
1. Public Accounts Committee Constitution of India? [2012-I]
2. Estimates Committee (a) Freedom to move freely throughout the country
3. Committee on Public Undertakings (b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
Select the correct answer using the code given below (c) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 anywhere in the country
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Freedom to practice any trade or profession
117. According to the Administrative Tribunal Act, 1985. the 123. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in
Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes and categories A, B, C and D in the year 1950.
complaints with respect to the service of persons who are In this context which of the following statements is
[2012-I] correct ? [2012-I]
(a) appointed to pubic services and posts in connection (a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of
with the affairs of the Union except members of the category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive
Defence services head of category B states. The Governor was the
(b) official and servants of the Supreme Court or any executive head of categories C and D states
High Courts (b) The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category
(c) members of the Secretarial staff of the Parliament or A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive
any state legislatures head of categories B and C states. The Governor
(d) members of the Defence services was the executive head of the category D states
118. With reference to the conduct of government business in (c) The Governor was the executive head of category A
the Parliament of India, the term 'closure' refers to [2012-I] states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of
(a) suspension of debate at the terminafan of a day's category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the
sitting of the Parliament executive head of categories C and D states
(b) a rule of legislative procedure under which further (d) The Governor was the executive head of category A
debate on a motion can be hatted states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive
(c) the termination of a Parliamentary session head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the
(d) refusal on the part of tie Government to have the executive head of categories C and D states
opposition look at important documents 124. The Kamraj Plan was a plan formulated in 1963 by then
119. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of [2012-I]
India gave verdicts which have a direct bearing on the (a) Union Cabinet Minister, whereby a new Constitution
Centre-State relations? [2012-I] for the Indian National Congress was proposed
(a) Keshavananda Bharati case (b) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby the senior
(b) Vishakha case ministers were asked to leave government and work
(c) S R Bommai case to rejuvenate the party
(d) Indira Sawhney case (c) Chief Minister of Madras, whereby a new set of
120. Which of the following are envisaged as being part o f principles for accepting donations for the party work
the 'Right against Exploitation' in the Constitution of India? was proposed
[2012-I] (d) Chief Minister of Madras to root out corruption from
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. India
2. Abolition of untouchability. 125. Which of the following condition/conditions must be
3. Protection of the interests of the minorities. fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories India? [2012-I]
and mines. 1. They must be physically present in their place of
Select the correct answer using the codes given below origin to exercise their franchise.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 countries or not are eligible to vote.
121. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 3. Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up form 6-A
Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of with electoral registration office.
India the Governor of a state may [2012-I] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
1. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the state (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
legislature. (c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
EBD_7341
178 Polity
126. The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to (b) Article 14, would enable the court to strike down a-
[2012-I] statute which failed to achieve the socialist goal to
(a) lay down positive instructions which would guide the fullest extent
State Policy at all levels (c) Article 25, would enable the court to ensure freedom
(b) implement Gandhiji's idea for a decentralised state guaranteed under that Article
(c) check the use of arbitrary powers by the government (d) Article 23, would enable the court to reduce inequality
(d) promote welfare of the backward sections of the society in income and status
127. Which one among the following pairs of level of government 133. Consider the following statements According to Hindu
and legislative power is not correctly matched? [2012-I] Law, marriage is defined as [2012-I]
(a) Central Government : Union List 1. A contract 2. A sacrament
(b) Local Governments : Residuary powers 3. Mutual understanding 4. Indissoluble
(c) State Governments : State List Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(d) Central and State Government : Concurrent List (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
128. Which one among the following is the distinguishing (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
factor between a pressure group and a political party? 134. Under which law it is prescribed that all proceedings in
[2012-I] the Supreme Court of India shall be in English language?
(a) Pressure groups are confined to a few, while political (a) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966 [2012-I]
parties involve larger number of people (b) A Legislation made by the Parliament
(b) Pressure groups do not seek active political power, (c) Article 145 of the Constitution of India
political parties do (d) Article 348 of the Constitution of India
(c) Pressure groups do not politically motivate people, 135. Which among the following conditions are necessary
while political parties do for the issue of writ of quo warranto? [2012-I]
(d) Political parties take political stance, while pressure 1. The office must be public and must be created by a
groups do not bother about political issues Statute or by the constitution itself.
129. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the 2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely
duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a period the function or employment of a servant at the will
(a) not exceeding three months [2012-I] and during the pleasure of another.
(b) not exceedng nine-months 3. There has been a contravention of the Constitution
(c) of one year at a time or a Statute or Statutory Instrument, in appointing
(d) of two years at a time such person to that office.
130. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one Select the correct answer using the codes given below
among the following statements is not correct? [2012-I] (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(a) A money bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(b) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or 136. The Constitution of India is republican because it
amend a money bill (a) provides for an elected Parliament [2012-I]
(c) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual (b) provides for adult franchise
Financial Statement (c) contains a bill of rights
(d) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the (d) has no hereditary elements
Demands for Grants 137. Take the case of dignity and equal rights for women. How
131. Suppose a Legislation was passed by the Parliament do democracies help? [2012-I]
imposing certain restrictions on newspapers. These (a) Women in democracies have equal degree of political
included page ceiling, price and advertisements. The representation in legislatures
legislation is included in the Ninth Schedule to the (b) Women in democracies have guaranteed rights and
Constitution of India. In this context, which one among are always treated with respect
the following statements is correct? [2012-I] (c) Women in democracies are not subjected sex
(a) The legislation is invalid as it violates the Freedom discrimination in most aspects of social life
of Press (d) In democracies, the principle of equality is accepted
(b) The legislation is valid by virtue of Article 31 B as legal norm, which makes it easier to guarantee
(c) The legislation is invalid as it imposes unreasonable their freedom and dignity
restrictions under Article 19 (2) of the Constitution 138. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties
(d) The legislation is valid as the Press is not a citizen of citizens under the Constitution of India? [2012-I]
under Article 19 of the Constitution (a) To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the
132. Which one among the following statements is not correct? neighbouring countries
[2012-I] (b) To protect monuments of national importance
The word 'socialist' in the Preamble of the Constitution of (c) To defend the country and render national service
India read with when called upon to do so
(a) Article 39 (d), would enable the court to uphold the (d) To know more and more about the history of India
constitutionality of nationalisation laws
Polity 179
139. Which one among the following is not an attribute of 145. The Instrument of Instructions contained in the Goverment
sustainability of Indian democratic model? [2012-II] of India Act, 1935 has been incorporated in the
(a) Unity in diversity in socio-cultural patterns Constitution of India in the year 1950 as [2012-II]
(b) Sustained economic growth specially after the 1990s (a) Fundamental Rights
(c) Regular elections in the centre and states since 1950s (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) A strong industrial base with a vibrant federal structure (c) Extent of Executive Power of State
140. The Preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation (d) Conduct of business of the Government of India
because it [2012-II] 146. The Rights to Information means and includes [2012-II]
(a) uses value loaded words 1. Inspection of documents.
(b) contains the real objective and philosophy of the 2. Taking out files from office to any place desired by
constitution makers the applicant.
(c) is a source of power and limitation 3. Taking photograph of files.
(d) gives and exhaustive list of basic features of the 4. Obtaining information in tapes.
Constitution Select the correct answer using the codes given below
141. In the Rajya Sabha, the states have been given seats (a) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(a) in accordance with their population [2012-II] (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) equally (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) on the basis of population and economic position (d) 2 and 4 only
(d) on the basis of present economic status 147. Consider the following statements [2012-II]
142. What is/are the major difference/differences between 1. In India, only two Union Territories have Legislative
a written and an unwritten Constitution? [2012-II] Assemblies.
1. A written Constitution is the formal source of all 2. Mizoram, Nagaland and Meghalaya, the three North-
Constitutional Laws in the country and the unwritten Eastern States of India, have only one seat each in
Constitution is not the formal source. the Lok Sabha.
2. A written Constitution is entirely codified whereas Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
an unwritten Constitution is not. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 148. Wh ich among the following provisions of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social
143. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from office Assistance Programme launched by the Government of
by [2012-II] India? [2012-II]
(a) the majority party in the house adopting a no- 1. Fundamental Rights
confidence motion 2. Fundamental Duties
(b) a resolution passed by not less than half of the total 3. Directive Principles of State Policy
membership of the house Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(c) a resolution passed by at least two-thirds of the total (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
membership of the house (c) Only 3 (d) All of these
(d) a resolution passed by a majority of all the members 149. With reference to Lok Adalats, which one among the
of the house following statements is correct? [2012-II]
144. Match the following [2012-II] (a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters
List I List II at pre-litigative state and not those matters pending
(Act) (Feature) before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and
A. The Indian Councils Introduction of provincial
not criminal in nature
Act, 1892 autonomy
(c) Lok Adalats has not been given any statutory status
B. The Indian Councils Introduction of the so far
Act, 1909 Indian principle of election (d) No appeal lies in a civil court against the order of the
C. The Government of Introduction of diarchy in Lok Adalat
India -Act, 1919 provinces 150. Delimitation of constituencies and determination of
D. The Government of Introduction of separate constituencies reserved for Scheduled Castes and
India Act, 1935 electorate for the Muslims Scheduled Tribes are done by [2012-II]
(a) Election Commission
Codes (b) Delimitation Commission
A B C D A B C D (c) Planning Commission
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2 (d) Election Commission with the assistance of Delimitation
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 4 3 2 Commission
EBD_7341
180 Polity
151. Which one among the following statements about the 3. At anytime before noon on the day preceding the
functioning of political parties in a democracy is not date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing
correct? [2012-II] of a motion that another member be chosen as the
(a) Political parties give political education to the people Deputy Speaker of the House.
(b) Political parties serve as a link between the government Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
and the people (a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 2
(c) Political parties fight elections and try to get the (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
maximum number of their candidates elected 157. Which one among the following is not included in the
(d) None of the above Fundamental Rights embodied in the Constitution of India?
152. Which one among the following is not a recommendation [2012-II]
of the Sarkaria Commission on the appointment of the (a) Right to Equality
Governor in a state? [2012-II] (b) Right to Freedom
(a) He/She must not have participated in active politics (c) Right against Exploitation
at least for sometime before his/her appointment as (d) Right to Information
Governor 158. Which one among the following countries redefined the
(b) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court may be principles of 'Panchashila' for the purpose of domestic
consulted by the President in selecting a Governor politics? [2013-I]
(c) The Governor's term of office of five years should (a) Ghana (b) China
not be disturbed except very rarely (c) Indonesia (d) Sri Lanka
(d) The Governor should not be the native of the state 159. The Parliament of India passed the Panchayats Extension
153. Which one among the following writs literally means you to Scheduled Areas Law popularly known as PESA law.
many have the body? [2012-II] Which one among the following statements regarding
(a) Certiorari (b) Habeas Corpus PESA law is not correct? [2013-I]
(c) Mandamus (d) Quo Warranto (a) PESA was meant to provide self-governance in the
154. Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty scheduled areas
of the citizen of India? [2012-II] (b) PESA disempowers Gram Sabhas
(a) To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit (c) PESA protects the interests of the tribals
of inquiry and reform (d) PESA conducts public hearings to protect inheritance
(b) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence rights of the tribals
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and 160. How does participatory budgeting seek to make the
integrity of India functioning of local governance institutions more
(d) To practice family planning and to control population transparent and accountable? [2013-I]
155. The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court 1. By allowing citizens to deliberate and negotiate over
[2012-II] the distribution of public resources.
(a) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding 2. By allowing citizens to play a direct role in deciding
its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of how and where resources should be spent.
natural justice 3. By allowing historically excluded citizens with access
(b) to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or to important decision-making venues.
quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to Select the correct answer using the codes given below
proceedings in a case for its review (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) where it can call upon a person to show under what (c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
authority he/she is holding the office 161. The Constituent Assembly of India convened to prepare
(d) to an authority to produce an illegally detained the Constitution of India appointed a sub-committee
person before the court for trial headed by Gopinath Bordoloi. [2013-I]
156. Consider the following statements relating to the Which of the following recommendations was/were made
procedure of the election of the Speaker and the Deputy by the committee?
Speaker of the Lok Sabha [2012-II] 1. Fifth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Assam)
1. The election of a Speaker shall be held on such date Tribal and Excluded Areas.
as the Prime Minister may fix and the Secretary 2. Constitution of District Councils in all autonomous
General shall send to every member . notice of this districts of Assam.
date. 3. Sixth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Assam)
2. The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on Tribal and Excluded Areas.
such date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary 4. Demarcation of territories in North-East India.
General shall send to every member notice of this Select the correct answer using the codes given below
date. (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 4
Polity 181
162. Consider the following statements [2013-I] (b) The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be
1. The Anti-Defection Law bans an elected member from suspended
voting against the explicit mandate of his/her party. (c) Punishments can be prescribed by a State Legislation
2. The Anti-Defection provisions do not apply if one-third for offences under Part III of the Constitution of India
of the members of a party disobey the mandate of the (d) The Fundamental Rights can be abrogated by law
party and constitute themselves as a separate party. made by the Parliament with regard to members of the
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? forces charged with the maintenance of public order
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 169. Besides representation, the Parliament of India is also a
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 deliberative body with diverse functions. [2013-I]
163. Which one among the following is not a constitutional Which one among the following is not a function of the
body in India? [2013-I] Parliament of India?
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General (a) Ventilating the grievances of the people
(b) National Commissioner for religious and Linguistic (b) Executing major policy decisions
Minorities (c) Holding the government accountable for its actions
(c) National Commission for Scheduled Castes and expenditure
(d) National Human Rights Commission (d) Amending the Constitution
164. Which one among the following committees of the Parliament 170. Consider the following statements regarding e-courts,
of India has no members of the Rajya Sabha? [2013-I] launched recently in India [2013-I]
(a) Public Accounts Committee 1. They will facilitate hearing of cases via video
(b) Estimates Committee conferencing.
(c) Public Undertakings Committee 2. They will follow the same procedures that are laid
(d) Departmentally Related Standing Committee on Finance out for the bench for hearing appeals in an open
165. India's Look East Policy was conceived in the early 1990s court.
at a time when India was in the process of adjusting to the Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
post-cold war watershed changes in the international (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
geostrategic environment. The Look East Policy [2013-I] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. reflects both historical imperatives and contemporary 171. The Governor may recommend the imposition of the
compulsion of the post-cold war new world order. President's rule in the state [2013-II]
2. seeks to optimise India's synergies in the extended (a) on the recommendation of the State Legislature
Asia-Pacific neighbourhood. (b) on the recommendation of the President
3. has led to India's participation in Asia-Pacific forums (c) on the recommendation of the Chief Minister
like ASEAN, East Asia Summit, BIMSTEC and other (d) if he is convinced that the Government of the State
institutions. cannot be carried on in accordance with the
Select the correct answer using the codes given below provisions of the Constitution of India
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 172. Power of the Supreme Court of India to decide the dispute
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 2 between centre and state falls under [2013-II]
166. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties (a) advisory jurisdiction
of citizens under the Constitution of India? [2013-I] (b) original jurisdiction
(a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the (c) appellate jurisdiction
neighbouring countries (d) constitutional jurisdiction
(b) To visit the monuments of national importance 173. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-
(c) To defend the country and render national service Presidential Elections are settled by [2013-II]
when called upon to do so (a) Election Commission of India
(d) To know more and more about the religions of India (b) Joint Committee of Parliament
167. The Government of India Act, 1919 [2013-I] (c) Supreme Court of India
1. Established a bicameral legislature at the centre. (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
2. Introduced dyarchy in the provincial executive. 174. Which of the following statements is not correct? [2013-II]
3. Introduced a Federal System of Government in India. (a) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council
Select the correct answer using the codes given below of States
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (b) The Council of States has no power to reject or amend
(c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 a Money Bill
168. Which one among the following statements is not correct? (c) the Council of Ministers is responsible to the House
[2013-I] of the People and not to the Council of States
(a) The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended (d) The House of the People has special powers with
except by virtue of Article 359 (1) of the Constitution respect to the State List compared to the Council of
of India States
EBD_7341
182 Polity
175. Which of the following pairs of constitutional authority 181. The Planning Commission of India has been constituted
and procedure of appointment is/are correctly matched? [2013-II]
[2013-II] (a) under constitutional provision with specific mention
1. President : Elected by an electoral college consisting for it
of elected MLAs and MPs (b) through an Act of Parliament
2. Vice-President: Elected by an electoral college (c) through a cabinet decision in this regard
consisting of MLAs and MPs (d) through constitutional amendment
3. Speaker : The House of People chooses after its first 182. The functions of the committee on estimates, as incorporated
sitting in the Constitution of India, shall be to [2014-I]
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 1. report what economies, improvements in organisation,
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 efficiency or administrative reform may be effected.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 2. suggest alternative policies in order to bring about
176. Among the following ideals and philosophy, identify those efficiency and economy in administration.
enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India. 3. examine whether the money is well laid out within
1. Sovereign democratic republic. [2013-II] the limits of the policy implied in the estimates.
2. Socialism and secularism. 4. examine the reports, if any, of the Comptroller and
3. Capitalism and free trade. Auditor General on the public undertakings.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
177. The Judge of the High Courts in India is administered 183. Political theory [2014-I]
oath of office by [2013-II] 1. deals with the ideas and principles that shape
(a) the Chief Justice of the High Court Constitutions.
(b) the Governor of the State 2. clarifies the meaning of freedom, equality and justice.
(c) the President of India 3. probes the significance of principles of rule of law,
(d) the Chief Justice of India separation of power and judicial review.
178. Match the following [2013-II] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
List I (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1
List II (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(Commission/
(Mandate) 184. The subject matter of an adjournment motion in the
Committee)
Parliament [2014-I]
A. Sachar Committee 1. Anti-Sikh Riots, 1984
1. must be directly related to the conduct of the Union
B. Srikrishna 2. Socio-economic and Government.
Commission educational conditions 2. may involve failure of the Government of India to
of Muslims in india perform its duties in accordance with the Constitution.
C. Ranganath Misra 3. Bombay Communal Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Commission Riots 1992 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
D. Nanavati (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Linguistic and religious
Commission minorities in India 185. The Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India
on the welfare of the Schedule Castes (SCs) and the
Codes: Scheduled Tribes (STs) shall [2014-I]
A B C D A B C D 1. examine whether the Union Government has secured
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 2 4 3 1 due representation of the SCs and the STs in the
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 1 3 4 2 services and posts under its control.
179. Which of the following freedoms is not specifically 2. report on the working of the welfare programmes for
mentioned in the Constitution of India cas a Fundamental the SCs and the STs in the Union Territories.
Right but has been subsequently upheld by the Supreme Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Court as such? [2013-II]
(a) Freedom of trade, occupation and business
(b) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country
186. Which of the following statements relating to Comptroller
(c) Freedom of association and union
and Auditor General in India is/are correct? [2014-I]
(d) Freedom of the press
1. He/She is not an officer of the Parliament but an
180. In the SR Bommai vs Union of India case, which one
officer under the President.
among the following features of the Constitution of India
2. He/She is an independent constitutional authority
was upheld by the Supreme Court as a basic structure?
not directly answerable to the House.
(a) Liberalism [2013-II]
(b) Secularism
(c) Dignity of the human person
(d) Freedom of religion
Polity 183
187. The principle of "collective responsibility' under (b) Provision for an Indian Union of Provinces and States
parliamentary democracy implies that [2014-I] (c) All the members of the Constituent Assembly were
1. a motion of no-confidence can be moved in the Council to be indians
of Ministers as a whole as well as an individual minister. (d) British Goverment was to supervise the affairs of the
2. no person shall be nominated to the cabinet except Constituent Assembly
on the advice of the Prime Minister. 193. Which of the following principles is/are taken into
3. no person shall be retained as a member of the Cabinet consideration by the Speaker while recognising a
if the Prime minister says that he shall be dismissed. parliamentary party or group? [2014-I]
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 1. An association of members who have an organisation
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 both inside and outside the House
(c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 3 2. An association of members who shall have at least
188. The Committee on Public Accounts under the Constitution one-third of the total number of members of the House
of India is meant for [2014-I] 3. An association of members who have a distinct
1. the examination of accounts showing the programme of parliamentary work
appropriation of sums granted by the House for the Select the correct answer using the codes given below
expenditure of the Government of India (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Onfy 1
2. scrutinising the report of the Comptroller and (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Auditor-General 194. The Annual Financial Statement of the Government of
3. suggesting the form in which estimates shall be India in respect of each financial year shall be presented
presented to the Parliament to the House on such day as the [2014-I]
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) Speaker may direct
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (b) President of India may direct
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these (c) Parliament may decide
189. The citizenship means [2014-I] (d) Finance Minister may decide
1. full civil and political rights of the citizens. 195. There are provisions in the Constitution of India which
2. the right of suffrage for election to the House of the
empower the Parliament to modify or annual the operation
People (of the Union) and the Legislative Assembly
of certain provisions of the Constitution without actually
of every state.
amending them. [2014-I]
3. the right to become a Member of the Parliament and
They include
Member of Legislative Assemblies.
1. any law made under Article 2 (relating to admission
or establishment of new states)
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
2. any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation
190. Which of the statements relating to the Deputy Speaker of new states)
of the Lok Sabha is/are correct? [2014-I] 3. amendment of First Schedule and Fourth Schedule
1. The office of the Deputy Speaker acquired a more Select the correct answer using the codes given below
prominent position after the enforcement of the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Constitution of India in 1950. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of these
2. He/She is elected from amongst the members. 196. Which of the following statements in the context of
3. He/She holds office until he/she ceases to be a structure of the Parliament is/are correct? [2014-I]
member of the House. 1. The Parliament of India consists of the President,
Select the correct answer using the codes given below the Council of States and the House of the People.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 2. The President of India is directly elected by an
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 electoral college consisting of the elected members
191. After a Bill has been passed by the Houses of the of both the Houses of the Parliament only.
Parliament, it is presented to the President who may either Select the correct answer using the codes given below
give assent to the Bill or with hold his assent. The (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
President may [2014-I] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) assent within six months 197. The legislative power of the Parliament includes making
(b) assent or reject the Bill as soon as possible laws [2014-I]
(c) return the Bill as soon as possible after the Bill is 1. on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List
presented to him with a message requesting the and State List.
House to reconsider the Bill 2. in respect of entries in the State List if two or more
(d) with hold his assent even if the Bill is passed again State Legislatures consider it desirable
by the Houses 3. for implementing any treaty agreement or convention
192. Which one among the following was not a proposal of with any country even if it falls in the State List.
the Cabinet Mission, 1946? [2014-I] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) The Constituent Assembly was to be constituted on (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2
the democratic principle of population strength (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
EBD_7341
184 Polity
198. Consider the following statements [2014-I] 203. 'The Draft Constitution as framed only provides a
1. Forming a cooperative society is a Fundamental machinery for the government of the country. It is not a
Right in India. contrivance to install any particular party in power as has
2. Cooperative societies do not fall within the ambit of been done in some countries. Who should be in power is
the Right to Information Act, 2005. left to be determined by the people, as it must be, if the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? system is to satisfy the test of democracy'. [2014-I]
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 The above passage from Constituent Assembly debates
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is attributed to
199. Match the following [2014-I] (a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr B R Ambedkar
List II (c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
List I
(Role in making of the (d) Acharya J B Kriplani
(Person) 204. Certain Bills can not be introduced or proceeded with
Constitution of India)
unless the recommendation of the President is received.
Member. Drafting
A. Rajendra Prasad 1. However, no recommendation is required in some other
Committee cases. In which one of the following cases such
Chairman.Constituent recommendation is not required? [2014-I]
B. T T Krishanamachari 2.
Assembly (a) For introduction of Bills and for moving amendments
Chairman. Drafting relating to financial matters
C. H C Mukherjee 3. (b) For introduction of a Bill relating to formation of new
Committee
states or of alternation of areas of existing states
Vice Chairman. (c) For moving of an amendment making provision for
D. B R Ambedkar 4.
Constituent Assembly the reduction or abolition of any tax
Codes (d) For introduction of a Bill or moving of an amendment
A B C D A B C D affecting taxation in which states are interested
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3 205. Consider the following statements about local government
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2 in India: [2014-II]
200. Which one of the following statements regarding the 1. Article 40 of Indian Constitution provides for the
Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the State to organize village panchayats and endow them
empowerment of women is correct? [2014-I] with such powers and authority as may be necessary
(a) The Committee will consist of members of the Lok to make them function as units of self-government.
Sabha only 2. The 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendments inserted
Part IX and IX A in the Constitution.
(b) A Cabinet Minister can be a member of the Committees
3. The provisions in Parts IX and IX A of Indian
(c) The term of office of the members of the Committee Constitution are more or less parallel and analogous.
shall not exceed two years 4. The 73rd Constitution Amendment is applicable to
(d) It reports on the working of welfare programmes for all states irrespective of size of population.
the women Which of the statements given above are correct?
201. Consider the following statements about democracy (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
[2014-I] (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. It consists with the formation of government elected 206. Which of the following is/are department(s) in Ministry
by the people. of Defence ? [2014-II]
2. In democracy, those currently in power have a fair 1. Department of Defence
chance of losing. 2. Department of Defence Research and Development
3. Each vote has one value. 3. Department of Defence Production
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 4. Department of Defence Finance
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(c) Only 1 (d) 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
202. Which of the following statements are correct regarding (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 only
Joint Session of the Houses of the Parliament in India? 207. Consider the following statements about State Election
[2014-I] Commission ? [2014-II]
1. It is an enabling provision, empowering the President 1. The State Election Commissioner shall be appointed
to take steps for resolving deadlock between the two by the Governor of the State.
Houses. 2. The State Election Commission shall have the power
2. It is not obligatory upon the President to summon of even preparing the electoral rolls besides the power
of superintendence, direction and control of election
the Houses to meet in a joint sitting.
to the panchayats.
3. It is being notified by the President. 3. The State Election Commissioner cannot be removed
4. It is frequently resorted to establish the supremacy in any manner from his office until he demits himself
of the Lok Sabha. or completes his tenure.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
Polity 185
208. Which of I the following statements about Indian Judiciary (a) Members of the armed forces
is not correct ? [2014-II] (b) Members of the forces charged with the
(a) The Constitution of India has not provided for responsibility of maintenance of public order
double system of courts as in the United States (c) Members of the forces employed in connection with
(b) The organization of the subordinate judiciary in India the communication systems set up in the country
varies slightly from State to State (d) Members of the forces employed in connection with
(c) Every State in India has separate High Court the communication systems set up for maintenance
(d) The Supreme Court has issued direction to constitute of public order
an All India Judicial Service to bring about uniformity 214. Notification regarding commencement on cessation of a
in designation of officers in criminal and civil side state of war is the responsibility of [2015-I]
209. Which among the following about the Rangarajan Panel (a) Ministry of Home Affairs
Report on poverty estimation (submitted in July, 2014) is/ (b) Ministry of Defence
are correct? [2014-II] (c) Ministry of External Affairs
1. The report states that three out of ten people in India (d) None of the above
are poor 215. Parliamentry Democracy is one where [2015-I]
2. The report endorsed the Tendulkar committee 1. a balance of popular participation and elite rule takes
suggestion on determining poverty line in India place
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2. the government is responsible not to the public but
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only to the elected representatives.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. the parliamentarians are delegated the responsibility
210. Which of the following about the principles of Panchsheel of thinking and acting on behalf of their constituents.
are correct ? [2014-II] Select the correct answer using the code given below :
1. These are a set of five principles governing relations (a) 1, 2 and 3
between States (b) 2 and 3 only
2. The assumption of Panchsheel was that newly (c) 1 and 3 only
independent States after decolonization would be (d) 2 only
able to develop a new and more principled approach 216. When martial law is imposed, Parliament cannot make law
to international relations in respect of which one of following matters? [2015-I]
3. The first formal codification in treaty form was done (a) Indemnify any person in respect of any act done by
in an agreement between China and India him in connection with the maintenance of order in
Select the correct answer using the code given below : the area where martial law was in force
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (b) Parliament can by law validate any sentence passed
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only when martial law was in force in the area
211. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court (c) A law of Parliament can validate forfeiture ordered
rule that Constitutional - Amendments were also laws when martial law was in force in the area
under Article 13 of the Constitution of India, which could (d) Any act done under martial law can be validated by
be declared void for being inconsistent with Fundamental Parliament by law
Rights ? [2015-I] 217. Which among the following features of a federal system
(a) Keshavanand Bharati Case is not found in the Indian Political System ? [2015-I]
(b) Golaknath Case (a) Dual citizenship
(c) Minerva Mills Case (b) Distribution of powers between the Federal and the
(d) Maneka Gandhi Case State Governments
212. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct for (c) Supremacy of the Constitution
the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India? [2015-I] (d) Authority of the Courts to interpret the Constitution
1. It was inserted by the first amendment in 1951. 218. Which of the following is not true of Article 32 of the
2. It includes those laws which are beyond the purview Indian Constitution ? [2015-I]
of judicial review. (a) It gives the Supreme Court and the High Courts the
3. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment. power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental
4. The laws in the Ninth Schedule are primarily those Rights.
which pertain to the matters of national security. (b) It is included in Part III of the Indian Constitution
Select the correct answer using the code given below : and is therefore itself a Fundamental Right.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Dr. Ambedkar called it the ‘very soul of the Indian
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 3 only Constitution’.
213. Which one of the following categories of persons is not (d) An aggrieved person has no right to complain under
treated at par so far as the availability of Fundamental Article 32 where a Fundamental Right has not been
Rights is concerned ? [2015-I] violated.
EBD_7341
186 Polity
219. Which of the following statements is/are not true for the Select the correct answer using the code given below.
category of the Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) inserted (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4
by the amendment to the Citizenship Act of India in 2003? (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 only
[2015-I] 225. Which of the following is/are not central feature(s) of
1. It gives dual citizenship to Persons of Indian Origin Article 343 of the Constitution of India?
(PIO) who are citizens of another country. 1. Hindi in Devanagari Script shall be the national
2. It gives Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) who are language of the Union.
citizens of another country, an OCI card without 2. The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in
citizenship. Devanagari Script.
3. It permits the OCI to vote in general elections in India. 3. English language shall continue to be used for official
4. It allows the OCI to travel to India without visa. purposes within States.
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 4. If two or more States agree, Hindi language should
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 be the official language of communication between
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 4 the States.
220. The power to decide the date of an election to a State Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Legislative Assembly rests with the [2015-I] (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only
(a) President of India (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 only
(b) Chief Minister and his/her Cabinet 226. After the general elections, the Protem Speaker is
(c) Election Commission of India (a) elected by the Lok Sabha [2015-II]
(d) Parliament (b) appointed by the President of India
221. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (c) appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
[2015-I] (d) the senior most member of the Lok Sabha
(a) The President cannot pardon a person sentenced 227. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
by a Court Martial. using the code given below the Lists : [2015-II]
(b) The supreme command of the defence forces of the List-I List-II
Union vests in the President, but its exercise has to (Leader) (Party)
be regulated by law. A. Shyama Prasad 1. Communist Party of
(c) A person awarded rigorous imprisonment cannot Mukherjee India
be compelled to do hard work as this would amount B. Minoo Masani 2. Bharatiya Jana Sangh
to violation of Article 23 of the Constitution of India. C. S. A. Dange 3. Swatantra Party
(d) The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 excludes the D. Ashok Mehta 4. Praja Socialist Party
powers of the High Courts under Article 226 of the Code :
Constitution of India in relation to service matters A B C D
of persons in the armed forces. (a) 2 3 1 4
222. Which would be the most appropriate description concerning (b) 4 1 3 2
the Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha ? [2015-I] (c) 2 1 3 4
It aspired to (d) 4 3 1 2
(a) do political work among youth, peasants and workers. 228. Which of the following is/are not central tenet(s) of the
(b) spread the philosophy of revolution among students. Constitution of India? [2015-II]
(c) initiate discussions regarding anti-imperialism among 1. Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion
workers. 2. Gives official status to certain religions
(d) help the formation of a Trade Union Movement in Punjab. 3. Provides freedom to profess any religion
223. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains 4. Ensures equality of all citizens within religious
provisions for the administration of Tribal areas. Which communities
of the following States is not covered under this
Schedule? [2015-I]
(a) Assam (b) Manipur (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) Meghalaya (d) Tripura (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 only
224. A Bill is deemed to be a 'Money Bill' if it has any provisions 229. The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of thought
dealing with [2015-II] and expression to all its citizens subject to [2015-II]
1. imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation 1. implementation of Directive Principles
of any tax 2. Fundamental Duties
2. appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund 3. Right to Equality
of India Select the correct answer using the code given below.
3. imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties (a) l and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
4. payment of fee for licences or fee for service rendered (c) 1 only (d) l, 2 and 3
Polity 187
230. Which one of the following is not a component of the 3. opening Hindu religious institutions of a public
Realist Theory? [2015-II] character to all Hindus
(a) The State is the preeminent actor 4. defamation or incitement to an offence
(b) State sovereignty is important for the affirmation of Select the correct answer using the code given below.
juridical authority over territory (a) 1,2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) The primary objective of all States is survival (c) 3 and 4 only (d) l and 2 only
(d) Survival can be assured in cooperation with 237. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is / are
international organizations available to non-citizens? [2015-II]
231. Which one of the following does not form part of Immanuel 1. Equality before Law
Kant's theory of 'perpetual peace'? [2015-II] 2. Right against Discrimination
(a) Republican Constitutionalism 3. Equality of Opportunity
(b) Federal contract among States to abolish war 4. Protection of Life and Personal Liberty
(c) World Government Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(d) Transformation of individual consciousness (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 4 only
232. Which one of the following statements about the process (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
of the Parliament to make new States is not correct? 238. Which of the following statements about the formation of
[2015-II] the Constituent Assembly is/are correct? [2015-II]
(a) The Parliament may by law form a new State and alter 1. The members of the Constituent Assembly were
the boundaries or names of existing States. chosen on the basis of the provincial elections of 1946.
(b) A Bill to this effect cannot be introduced in the Parliament 2. The Constituent Assembly did not include
except on the recommendation of the President. representatives of the Princely States.
(c) A Bill to this effect may be referred by the President 3. The discussions within the Constituent Assembly were
to the Legislature of the affected State. not influenced by opinions expressed by the public.
(d) Such a law will fall under the purview of Article 368. 4. In order to create a sense of collective participation,
233. Which one of the following statements with regard to submissions were solicited from the public.
India's economy between 1814 to 1860 is not correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
[2015-II] (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(a) Between 1814 and 1850, four commodities dominated (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
India's exports-raw silk, opium, cotton and indigo. 239. Which of the following laws have been repealed by the
(b) Between 1814 and 1860, five commodities dominated Constitution of India? [2015-II]
India's exports-raw silk, opium, cotton, indigo and jute. 1. The Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Indigo and raw silk required processing techniques. 2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947
(d) Indigo and raw silk were financed by foreign capital. 3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949
234. Which of the following statements with regard to citizenship 4. The Preventive Detention Act, 1950
provisions of the Constitution of India is/ are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
[2015-II] (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
1. No person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Article 5, or be deemed to be a citizen of India by 240. A writ of Habeas Corpus for the release of a person can be
virtue of Article 6 or Article 8, if he /she has voluntarily issued [2015-II]
acquired the citizenship of any foreign State. 1. where the arrest or detention has taken place in
2. The Parliament has power to make any provision with contravention of the procedure established by law
respect to the acquisition and termination of 2. to secure the release of a person imprisoned on a
citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship. criminal charge
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3. where the arrest has taken place for contempt of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Court or the Parliament
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
235. The protection against arrest and detention under Article (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
22 of the Constitution of India is not available to (c) 1 only (d) l and 2 only
1. an enemy alien [2015-II] 241. Which one of the following changes has not been made
2. a person detained under a preventive detention law to the Citizenship Act of India by the Amendment in 2015?
3. a foreigner [2015-II]
4. an overseas citizen of India (a) The Overseas Citizens of India will now be called the
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Overseas Citizens of India Cardholders
(a) l and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 (b) The Non-Resident Indians are entitled to vote in
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 only elections in India
236. Freedom of conscience under the Constitution of India is (c) The Persons of Indian Origin have been placed at
subject to [2015-II] par with the Overseas Citizens of India
1. public order, morality and health (d) The Persons of Indian Origin are now entitled to
2. a law providing for social welfare and reform lifelong visa to visit India
EBD_7341
188 Polity
242. Which one of the following statements about Electoral 250. Consider the following statements: [2016-I]
Government in India is not correct? 1. The province of Assam was created in the year 1911
(a) The superintendence, direction and control of elections 2 Eleven districts comprising Assam were separated
are vested in the Election Commission of India. from the Lieutenant Governorship of Bengal and
(b) There is one general electoral roll for every territorial established as an independent administration under
constituency. a Chief Commissioner in the year 1874
(c) The Parliament has the power to make laws relating Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
to the delimitation of constituencies. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) The Supreme Court of India has the authority to (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
scrutinize the validity of a law relating to delimitation 251. Consider the following statements about the President of
of constituencies. India. [2016-I]
243. Which one of the following is not a recommendation of 1. The President has the right to address and send message
the Fourteenth Finance Commission? to The Council of Ministers to elicit specific information
(a) Share of States in Central Divisible Pool is increased 2. The President can call for information relating to
from 32 per cent to 42 per cent proposal for legislation
(b) Area under forest cover is an important variable in 3. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to
distribution of States' share among States administration of the Union must be communicated
to the President
(c) Fiscal discipline is dropped as a variable in
Which of the statements given above are correct?
distribution of States share among States
(d) Sector specific grant is recommended as in the
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
previous Finance Commissions
252. In which one of the following cases, the Constitutional
244. With which one of the following countries. India has signed
validity of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights of
an MoU under the International Cooperation on Divorce) Act 1986, was upheld by the Supreme court of
Brahmaputra and Sutluj rivers? [2016-I] India? [2016-I]
(a) Pakistan (b) China (a) Muhammad Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum
(c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal (b) Danial Latifi v. Union of India
245. Which of the following is / are Constitutional Body / Bodies? (c) Mary Roy v. State of Kerala
[2016-I] (d) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
1. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes 253. Which one of the following is not among th aims of the
2. National Commission for Women Second Five Year Plan (1956 - 57 to 1960 - 61)?
3. National Commission for Minorities (a) Rapid industrialization with particular emphasis on
4. National Human Right Commission the development of basic and heavy industrics
Select the correct answer using the code given below (b) Large expansion of employment opportunities
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) Achieve self - sufficiency in food grains and increase
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 agricultural production to meet the requirements of
246. Which one of the following nations not a member of the industry and exports
Eurasian Economic Union ? [2016-I] (d) Reduction of inequalities in income and wealth and a
(a) Belarus (b) Russia more even distribution of economic power
(c) Kazakhstan (d) Uzbekistan 254. The National Policy for Children, 2013 recognizes every
247. BRICS leader signed the agreement to establish a New person as a child below the age of: [2016-I]
Development Bank at the summit held in: [2016-I] (a) 12 years (b) 14 years
(a) New Delhi, India (2012) (c) 16 years (d) 18 years
(b) Durban, South Africa (2013) 255. A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to
(c) Fortoleza, Brazil (2014) continue as a Member of the House if the Member [2016-I]
(d) Ufa, Russia (2015) (a) voluntarily gives up his / her membership of the
248. The category of Overseas citizens of india was entered in political party from which he /she was elected
the citizenship Act of India through an amendement in (b) is expelled by the political party from which he / she
the year: [2016-I] had been elected to the House
(a) 1986 (b) 1992 (c) Joins a political party after being elected as an
(c) 1996 (d) 2003 independent candidate
249. The Right to Education was added to the fundamental (d) abstains from voting contrary to the direction by his
Rights in the Constitution of India through the [2016-I] / her political party
(a) Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 256. Which one of the following language is not recognized in
(b) Constitution (93th Amendment) Act, 2005 the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India [2016-I]
(c) Constitution (87th Amendment) Act, 2003 (a) English (b) Sanskrit
(d) Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 (c) Urdu (d) Nepali
Polity 189
257. What were the 12 states of the Sikh confederacy called ? 263. Consider the following statements : [2016-I]
[2016-I] 1. The President of India shall have the power to
(a) Misl (b) Gumata appoint and remove the Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Sardari (d) Rakhi 2. The Speaker has to discharge the function of his office
258. Which of the statement given below is / are correct? [2016-I] himself throughout of his office term and cannot
1. The ideal of a common civil code is set forth in Article delegate his function to the Deputy Speaker during
44 of the Constitution of India his absence from the station or during his illness.
2. In certain respects, the High Courts in India have been Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
given more extensive power than the Supreme Court (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. The Supreme Court of India, the first fully independent (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Court for the country was set up under the Constitution 264. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005)
of India in 1950 was concerned with [2016-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (a) reforms in institutional arrangements for good
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only governance
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only (b) reforms in the Indian Penal Code and the Criminal
259. Which one of the following Articles Schedules in the Justice System
Constitution of India deals with Autonomous District (c) creating an ombudsma mechanism for reduction of
Councils? [2016-I] corription in public life
(a) Eighth Schedule (b) Article 370 (d) devising new measures for urban governance and
(c) Sixth Schedule (d) Article 250 management
260. Which of the following statement about Comptroller and 265. As per the Constitution of india, the Writ of Prohibition
Auditor General of India (CAG) are correct? [2016-I] relates to an order : [2016-I]
1. The CAG will hold office for a period of six years 1. issued against judicial and quasi judicial authority
from the date he assumes the office, He shall vacate 2. to prohibit an inferior Court from proceeding in a
office on attaining the age of 65 years, if earlier than particular case where it has no jurisdiction to try
the expiry of the 6 years term 3. to restrain a person from holding a public office to
2. The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution when he is not entitled
of India Select the correct answer using the code given below :
3. The CAG is a multi-member body appointed by the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
President of India in constitution with the prime (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Minister and the Council of Ministers 266. Who among the following Prime Ministers of India were
4. The CAG may be removed by the President only on defeated by a vote of No Confidence ? [2016-I]
an address from both Houses of Parliament, on the 1. Morarji Desai 2. Viswanath Pratap Singh
grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity 3. H.D. Deve Gowda 4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Select the correct answer using the code given below : Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1,2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
261. Which of the following statements relating to the 267. Which of the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha
Scheduled Tribe and other Traditional Forest Dwellers is / are correct ? [2016-I]
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 are correct ? 1. The maximum Permissible strength of Rajya Sabha is 250
[2016-I] 2. In Rajya Sabha, 238 members are elected indirectly
1. The Act recognizes forest rights of forest dwelling from the States and Union Territories.
Scheduled Tribes who have been occupying the 3. It shares legislative powers equally with Lok Sabha
forest land before October 25, 1980 in matters such as creation of All India Services
2. The onus of implementation of the Act lies at the Select the correct answer using the code given below.
level of the State / UT Governments (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
3. The Act seeks to recognize and vest certain forest (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
rights in the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and 268. Which of the following statements relating to the office
other traditional forest dwellers of the President of India are correct ? [2016-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1. The President has the power to grant pardon to a
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only criminal in special case
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The President can promulgate ordinances even when
262. In which one of the following judgments of the the Parliament is in session
Consitutional Bench of the Supreme Court of India, the 3. The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha during
‘rarest of rare’ principle in the award of death penalty was emergency.
first laid down? [2016-I] 4. The President has the power to nominate two member
(a) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980) in the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Indian community
(b) Gopalanachari v. State of Kerala (1980) Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(c) Dr. Upendra Boxi v. State of UP (1983) (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(d) Tukaram v. State of Maharashtra (1979) (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 only 4
EBD_7341
190 Polity
269. According to Census 2011, which one of the following is 1. Article 19 (Protection of right to freedom of speech)
the correct sequence of States in decreasing order of their 2. Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty)
total size of population? [2016-II] 3. Article 15 (Prohibition of discrimination)
(a) Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab 4. Article 16 (Equality of opportunity)
(b) Jharkhand, Kerala, Assam, Punjab Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) Kerala, Jharkhand, Punjab, Assam (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) Jharkhand, Kerala, Punjab, Assam (c) l, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only
270. Which among the following Acts were repealed by Article 276. A citizen of India will lose his or her citizenship if he or she
395 of the Constitution of India? [2016-II] [2016-II]
1. The Government of lndia Act, 1935 1. renounces Indian citizenship
2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 2. voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country
3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949 3. marries a citizen of another country
4. The Government of India Act, 1919 4. criticizes the Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 4
271. On 26th November, 1949, which of the following provisions 277. Which one of the following statements is not correct with
of the Constitution of India came into effect? [2016-II] respect to protection of individuals being tried for offences?
1. Citizenship 2. Elections [2016-II]
3. Provisional Parliament 4. Fundamental Rights (a) A confession can never be used as evidence against
Select the correct answer using the code given below. the accused.
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (b) The accused must have violated an existing law.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) l and 2 Only (c) An accused cannot be tried and punished for the
272. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent same offence again.
Assembly of India is/are correct? [2016-II] (d) The quantum of punishment must be provided in law
1. The Assembly was elected indirectly by the members as it existed on the date of commission of an offence.
of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. 278. Which one of the following statements is not correct with
2. The elections were held on the basis of Universal respect to Article 32 of the Constitution of India? [2016-II]
Adult Franchise. (a) It provides remedies to citizens for the enforcement
3. The scheme of election was laid down by the Cabinet of fundamental rights.
Delegation. (b) It is a part of fundamental rights.
4. The distribution of seats was done on the basis of (c) The Supreme Court cannot refuse a writ petition
the Mountbatten Plan. under Article 32 on the ground of delay.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (d) Protection under Article 32 also applies to the
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 enforcement of ordinary law which has nothing to
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 only do with the fundamental rights.
273. The All India Census was [2016-II] 279. Which one of the following writs is issued by the Supreme
1. first attempted in 1872 Court to secure the freedom of a person upon unlawful
2. regularly undertaken since 1881 arrest? [2016-II]
3. always undertaken as a five-year exercise (a) Habeas Corpus (b) Mandamus
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Certiorari (d) Quo Warranto
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 280. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India,
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1,2 and 3 which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
274. The basic structure doctrine with regard to the Constitution [2016-II]
of India relates to [2016-II] (a) To respect the National Flag
1. the power of judicial review (b) To defend the country
2. the judgment in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) (c) To provide education to one's child
3. the constraints on Article 368 of the Constitution of (d) To promote village and cottage industries
India 281. Under Article 352 of the Constitution of India, an emergency
4. the judgment in Golaknath case (1967) can be declared it security of any part of India is threatened
Select the correct answer using the code given below. ' by [2016-II]
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. war 2. external aggression
(c) l and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only 3. armed rebellion 4. internal disturbance
275. Which of the following fundamental rights as enshrined Select the correct answer using the code given below.
in the Constitution of India belong only to the citizens? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
[2016-II] (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only
Polity 191
282. 'Which one of the following statements is not true of the 3. The laws relating to delimitation of constituencies
Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005? are made by the Election Commission of India.
[2016-II] 4. No election shall be called in question except by an
(a) This Act provides civil remedies to protect a woman election petition.
subjected to domestic violence. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(b) Onlywomen can make a complaint under this legislation. (a) 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) Relief may be sought only against the husband or a (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 4 only
male live-in partner with whom the woman has lived 288. Which one of the following statements with regard to the
in a domestic relationship. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is not correct?
(d) The Act includes not just wives but also women in [2016-II]
marriage-like relationships. (a) The Union and every State Government shall
283. Which of the following are constitutional provisions and consult the Commission on all major policy matters
laws for the protection of the rights of the Scheduled affecting Scheduled Tribes.
Castes in India? [2016-II] (b) All the reports of the Commission and its
1. Article 17 of the Constitution of India recommendations shall be laid only before Lok Sabha.
2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 (c) The Commission, while investigating any matter, has
3. The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes all the powers of a Civil Court.
(Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 (d) The Commission has the power to regulate its own
Select the correct answer using the code given below. procedures.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only 289. The right to form associations and unions is a right
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only [2016-II]
284. Which one of the following is not true about the powers (a) guaranteed to everybody
of the Supreme Court? [2016-II] (b) to freedom guaranteed to citizens only
(a) The Supreme Court has original and exclusive (c) to equality before law
jurisdiction in intergovernmental disputes. (d) to life and personal liberty
(b) The Supreme Court has advisory jurisdiction on a
290. Some Indian territory was transferred in 2015 to Bangladesh
question of law or fact which may be referred to it
by following which procedure? [2016-II]
by the President of India.
(a) By an agreement between the Government of India
(c) The Supreme Court has the power to review its own
and the Government of Bangladesh
judgment or order.
(b) By a legislation passed by the Parliament amending
(d) The Supreme Court has the exclusive power to issue
Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India
writs to protect the fundamental rights of the people.
(c) By amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India
285. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India pertains
to the administration of tribal areas in which of the by exercising amending power of the Parliament
following States? [2016-II] (d) By amending Schedule 1 to the Constitution of India
(a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram by exercising amending power of the Parliament and
(b) Meghalaya, Tripura, Manipur and Mizoram ratification by sixteen State Legislatures
(c) Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura 291. Which one of the following statements is correct in relation
(d) Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh to the GST Bill passed by the Rajya Sabha in August 2016?
286. Which one of the following statements with regard to the [2017-I]
Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct? (a) It will replace all central taxes, duties, etc., only by a
[2016-II] single tax.
(a) It was inserted by the Constitution (First Amendment) (b) It will subsume central as well as State taxes, duties, etc.
Act, 1951. (c) GST will be levied on alcoholic liquor for human
(b) The Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth consumption at a uniform rate of 25 percent.
Schedule shall become void on the ground that it violates (d) Petroleum and petroleum products shall not be
a fundamental right in Part III of the Constitution. subjected to the levy of GST.
(c) The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review 292. To be eligible to contest election under the Haryana
of an Act included in the Ninth Schedule on the Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015, a candidate should
doctrine of basic structure. [2017-I]
(d) The appropriate Legislature can repeal or amend an 1. have a functional toilet at home
Act specified in the Ninth Schedule. 2. have payment slips of power bills
287. Which of the following statements with regard to the 3. not be a cooperative loan defaulter
conduct of elections in India is / are not correct?[2016-II] 4. have studied minimum matriculation irrespective of
1. The responsibility for the prepara tion of the electoral category
rolls is vested in the Election Commission of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2. The Model Code of Conduct comes into existence (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
as soon as the date of the election is announced. (c) l, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 only
EBD_7341
192 Polity
293. Arrange the following Commissions chronologically on 1. The executive power of the Union shall be vested in
the basis of their date of setting : [2017-I] the President.
1. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission 2. The executive power shall be exercised by the
2. The Eleventh Finance Commission President only through officers subordinate to him.
3. Punchhi Commission 3. The supreme command of the defence forces of the
4. Sarkaria Commission Union shall be vested in the President.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 4, 2, 1,3 (b) 4, 3, 2,1 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3, 2, 4,1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
294. Which of the following statements with regard to 299. Which of the following statements regarding Article 21 of
Panchayats in India are correct? [2017-I] the Constitution of India is/ are correct? [2017-I]
1. Seats in a Panchayat are filled by direct election from 1. Article 21 is violated when the under-trial prisoners
are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite
the territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area.
period.
2. The Gram Sabha is the body of persons registered in
2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not
the electoral rolls relating to a village within the
even the State has the authority to violate that right.
Panchayat area. 3. Under Article 21, the right of a woman to make reproductive
3. The Panchayats work on the principle of constitutional choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.
autonomy. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
4. The State Legislature may by law endow the Panchayats (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) l and 2 only
with the power and authority to enable them to function. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 300. Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding
(a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 Right to Education in India? [2017-I]
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only 1. Free and compulsory education should be provided
295. Which of the following statements regarding Indian federal to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.
system is/are correct? [2017-I] 2. The imperative of the provision of the Right to
1. All States have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha. Education Act, 2009 is that schools must have
2. Consent of a State is not required for altering its qualified teachers and basic infrastructure.
boundaries. 3. There should be quality education without any
3. There is no dual citizenship in India. discrimination on the ground of economic, social and
Select the correct answer using the code given below. cultural background.
(a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) l and 3 only (d) 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
296. Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
Court of India? [2017-I] 301. Which one of the following statements regarding freedom
1. Original jurisdiction in a dispute between the to manage religious affairs as per the Constitution of India
Government of India and one or more States is not correct? [2017-I]
2. The power to hear appeals from the High Courts (a) Every religious denomination shall have the right to
3. Passing decrees and orders for doing justice in any manage its own affairs in matters of religion except
matter before it. some minor communities.
4. Render advice to the President of India in matters of law (b) Every religion or any section thereof shall have the right
to own and acquire movable and immovable property.
(c) Every religious community has the right to establish
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
and maintain institutions for religious and charitable
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only
purposes.
297. In the elections to the provincial legislatures in 1937 in (d) Every community has the right to manage its own
British India [2017-I] affairs in matters of religion.
1. only about 10 to 12 percent of the population had 302. Which one of the following statements relating to
the right to vote protection against arrest and detention of individuals
2. the untouchables had no right to vote under Article 22 is not correct? [2017-I]
3. the Congress won an absolute majority in five out of (a) No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody
eleven provinces without being informed of the grounds for such arrest.
4. the Muslim League won more than 80 percent of the (b) No person shall be denied the right to consult, and
seats reserved for Muslims be defended by, a legal practitioner of his / her choice.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Every person who is arrested and detained in custody
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 within a period of one week of such arrest.
298. Which of the following statements relating to the powers (d) The right to protection against arrest is not available
of the President of India is/are correct? [2017-I] to a person in jail pursuant to a judicial order.
Polity 193
303. Which one of the following indices is now used by the 308. Which one of the following constitutional authorities
Reserve Bank of India to measure the rate of inflation in inquires and decides in case of doubts and disputes arising
India? [2017-I] out of election of the President and Vice President of India?
(a) NASDAQ Index (b) BSE Index [2017-I]
(c) Consumer Price Index (d) Wholesale Price Index (a) The Supreme Court of India
304. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding (b) The Election Commission of India
the Preamble of the Indian Constitution? [2017-I] (c) The Parliamentary Committee
1. The Preamble by itself is not enforceable in a Court (d) The High Court of Delhi
of Law. 309. In which two Indian States of the four mentioned below, it
2. The Preamble states the objectives which the is necessary to hold certain minimum educational
Constitution seeks to establish and promote. qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections?
3. The Preamble indicates the source from which the [2017-II]
Constitution derives its authority. 1. Punjab 2. Haryana
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3. Karnataka 4. Rajasthan
(a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) l and 3 only (d) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
305. Which one of the following statements relating to cultural (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
and educational rights in India is not correct? [2017-I] 310. Which of the following statements about ‘delegation’ is/
(a) Every section of the citizens has the right to conserve are correct? [2017-II]
its language, script or culture. 1. It is the abdication of responsibility.
(b) No citizen shall be denied admission into any 2. It means conferring of specified authority by a lower
educational institution maintained by the State or authority to a higher one.
receiving aid out of State funds on grounds of 3. It is subject to supervision and review.
religion, race or language. 4. It is a method of dividing authority in the organization.
(c) The State shall, in granting aid to educational Select the correct answer using the code given below.
institutions, discriminate against any educational (a) 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
institution on the ground that it is under the (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
management of a majority community. 311. Which of the following features were borrowed by the
(d) All minorities, whether based on religion or language, Constitution of India from the British Constitution?
shall have the right to establish and administer [2017-II]
educational institutions of their choice. 1. Rule of Law 2. Law-making Procedure
306. Which one of the following statements relating to the 3. Independence of Judiciary 4. Parliamentary System
Directive Principles of State Policy is not correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.
[2017-I] (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4
(a) The provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4
of India shall not be enforceable by any Court. 312. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution
(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental of India has fixed the number of Members of the Rajya
in the governance of the country. Sabha to be elected from each State? [2017-II]
(c) It shall be the duty of the State to apply the Directive (a) Fifth Schedule (b) Third Schedule
Principles in making laws. (c) Sixth Schedule (d) Fourth Schedule
(d) The Directive Principles are directed in making India 313. The Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the Constitution
an advanced capitalist country of the world. of India can be suspended only by
307. Which one of the following statements is not correct (a) a proclamation of National Emergency
regarding the Office of the Vice President of India? (b) an Act passed by the Parliament
[2017-I] (c) an amendment to the Constitution of India
(a) The Vice President is elected by an electoral college (d) the judicial decisions of the Supreme Court
consisting of the elected members of both the Houses 314. Which of the following statements about the 73rd and 74th
of the Parliament. Constitution Amendment Act is/are correct? [2017-II]
(b) The Vice President is elected in accordance with the 1. It makes it mandatory for all States to establish a
system of proportional representation by means of three-tier system of Government.
single transferable vote. 2. Representatives should be directly elected for five
years.
(c) The Vice President shall not be a member of either
3. There should be mandatory reservation of one-third
House of the Parliament or of a House of the
of all seats in all Panchayats at all levels for women.
Legislature of any State.
(d) The Vice President of India shall be ex officio
Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
any office of profit.
EBD_7341
194 Polity
315. A Joint Sitting of the Parliament is resorted to, for resolving (a) N. G. Ayyangar (b) K. M. Munshi
the deadlock between two Houses of the Parliament for (c) B. N. Rau (d) Muhammad Saadulah
passing which of the following Bills? [2017-II] 321. Which one of the following criteria got the highest weight
1. Money Bill for determination of shares of States in the formula given
2. Constitutional Amendment Bill by the 14th Finance Commission? [2017-II]
3. Ordinary Bill (a) Population (b) Income distance
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Area (d) Tax effort
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 322. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be held up by
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 the Rajya Sabha for how many weeks? [2017-II]
316. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (a) Two (b) Three
[2017-II] (c) Four (d) Five
1. The Directive Principles of State Policy are meant for 323. Constitutional safeguards available to Civil Servants are
promoting social and economic democracy in India. ensured by [2017-II]
2. The Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of (a) Article 310 (b) Article 311
the Constitution of India are ordinarily subject to (c) Article 312 (d) Article 317
reasonable restrictions. 324. A writ issued to secure the release of a person found to be
3. Secularism is one of the basic features of Constitution detained illegally is [2017-II]
of any country. (a) Mandamus (b) Habeas corpus
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Certiorari (d) Prohibition
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 325. Which one of the following cannot be introduced first in
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 the Rajya Sabha? [2017-II]
317. The President of India is elected by an Electoral College (a) Constitutional Amendment
comprising of elected members of which of the following? (b) CAG Report
[2017-II] (c) Annual Financial Statement
1. Both the Houses of the Parliament (d) Bill to alter the boundaries of any State
326. The National Commission for Women was created by
2. The Legislative Assemblies of States
[2017-II]
3. The Legislative Councils of States
(a) an amendment in the Constitution of India
4. The Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and
(b) a decision of the Union Cabinet
Puducherry
(c) an Act passed by the Parliament
(d) an order of the President of India
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 327. Who among the following was the Chief Justice of India
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced in
318. Consider the following statements about the Scheduled the Indian Judicial System? [2017-II]
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes under the provisions of (a) M. Hidayatullah (b) A. S. Anand
the Constitution of India : [2017-II] (c) A. M. Ahmadi (d) P. N. Bhagwati
1. State can make any special provision relating to 328. Which one of the following statements about the All India
their admission to the Government educational Services is correct? [2017-II]
institutions. (a) The All India Services may be created by an Act of
2. State can make any special provision relating to the Parliament.
their admission to the private educational (b) The endorsement of the Rajya Sabha is not essential
institutions aided by the State. for the creation of the All India Services.
3. State can make any special provision relating to (c) The rules of recruitment to the All India Services are
their admission to the private educational determined by the UPSC.
institutions not aided by the State. (d) The conditions of service to the All India Services
4. State can make any special provision relating to may be altered by the UPSC.
their admission to the minority educational 329. Which one of the following statements about emergency
institutions as described in Article 30. provisions under the Constitution of India is not correct?
Which of the statements given above are correct? [2017-II]
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (a) The powers of the Union Executive extend to giving
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 directions to the States concerning the exercise of
319. Article 21 of the Constitution of India includes [2017-II] their powers.
1. Rights of transgenders (b) The Union Executive can issue a provision relating
2. Rights of craniopagus twins to reduction of salaries of employees of the State
3. Rights of mentally retarded women to bear a child Governments.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Governors have no emergency powers like the
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only President of India.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation
320. Who among the following was not a member of the has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of
Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly? the State is threatened, he may declare financial
[2017-II] emergency in the State.
Polity 195
330. Why was constitutional amendment needed for introducing 3. He is a whole-time counsel for the Government.
GST? [2017-II] 4. He must have the same qualifications as are
(a) States were not willing to agree with the Union for required to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
introduction of GST without amendment in the Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Constitution. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(b) GST was to be implemented on concurrent base and (c) 3 only (d) 1 only
Article 246 was inadequate for such a case. 336. Under which one of the following Amendment Acts was
(c) The Empowered Committee of Finance Ministers had Sikkim admitted into the Union of India? [2018-I]
recommended for constitutional amendment. (a) 35th (b) 36th
(d) The GST Council had recommended for constitutional (c) 37th (d) 38th
amendment so that its power enhances. 337. Which one of the following statements in respect of the
331. Which of the following are the functions of the National States of India is not correct? [2018-I]
Human Rights Commission (NHRC)? [2018-I] (a) States in India cannot have their own constitutions.
1. Inquiry at its own initiative on the violation of (b) The State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own constitution.
human rights. (c) States in India do not have the right to secede from
2. Inquiry on a petition presented to it by a victim. the Union of India.
3. Visit to jails to study the condition of the inmates. (d) The maximum number of members in the Council of
4. Undertaking and promoting research in the field Ministers of Delhi can be 15 percent of the total
of human rights. 338. Which one among the following States of India has the
Select the correct answer using the code given below. largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only [2018-I]
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) West Bengal (b) Bihar
332. A person is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu
a Member of either House of the Parliament if the person 339. Which of the following statements about the Ordinance-
[2018-I] making power of the Governor is/are correct? [2018-I]
1. holds any office or profit under the Government 1. It is a discretionary power.
of India or the Government of any State other than 2. The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw
an office declared by the Parliament by law not to the Ordinance at any time.
disqualify its holder Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2. is an undischarged insolvent (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. Is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule of the (c) Both 1and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Constitution of India 340. Which one of the following is not an International Human
4. Is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a Rights Treaty? [2018-I]
competent Court (a) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (b) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Discrimination against Women
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
333. According to the Election Commission of India, in order (d) Declaration on the Right to Development
to be recognized as a ‘National Party’, a political party 341. In the context of elections in India, which one of the
must be treated as a recognized political party in how following is the correct full form of VVPAT? [2018-I]
many States? [2018-I] (a) Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail
(a) At least two States (b) At least three States (b) Voter Verifying Paper Audit Trail
(c) At least four States (d) At least five States (c) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
334. Which one of the following Amendments to the (d) Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trial
Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of 342. Which of the following statements relating to the duties
Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of of the Governor is / are correct? [2018-II]
members of the House of the People or Legislative 1. The duties of the Governor as a constitutional Head
Assembly in the States? [2018-I] of the State do not become the subject matter of
(a) 91st Amendment (b) 87th Amendment questions or debate in the Parliament.
(c) 97th Amendment (d) 90th Amendment 2. Where the Governor takes a decision independently
335. Which of the following statements about attorney General of his Council of Ministers or where he acts as the
of India is/are not correct? [2018-I] Chief Executive of the State under President’s rule,
1. He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India. his actions are subject to scrutiny by the Parliament.
2. He is entitled to the privileges of a Member of the Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Parliament. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
EBD_7341
196 Polity
343. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution 351. Which one of the following criteria is not required to be
of India deals with the special provision with respect to qualified for appointment as Judge of the Supreme Court?
the State of Assam? [2018-II] [2018-II]
(a) Article 371A (b) Article 371 B (a) At least five years as a Judge of a High Court
(c) Article 371C (d) Article 371D (b) At least ten years as an Advocate of a High Court
344 Provisions of which one of the following Articles of the (c) In the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist
Constitution of India apply to the State of Jammu and (d) At least twenty years as a Sub Judicial Magistrate
Kashmir? [2018-II] 352. Which one of the following is not among the duties of the
(a) Article 238 (b) Article 370 Chief Minister? [2018-II]
(c) Article 371 (d) Article 371G (a) To communicate to the Governor of the State all
decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the
345. Which one of the following Schedules to the Constitution
administration of the affairs of the State and
of India provides for setting up of Autonomous District
proposals for legislation
Councils? [2018-II]
(b) To furnish information relating to the administration
(a) Third Schedule (b) Fourth Schedule of the State and proposals for legislation as the
(c) Fifth Schedule (d) Sixth Schedule Governor may call for
346. Who has the power of annulment or suspension of Acts (c) To communicate to the President all decisions of the
and Resolutions of the Autonomous District and Regional Council of Ministers relating to the administration of
Councils? [2018-II] the State in the monthly report
(a) The Governor (d) To submit for the consideration of the Council of
(b) The President Ministers any matter on which a decision has been
(c) The Chief Minister of the State taken by a Minister but has not been considered by
(d) The Prime Minister the Council, if the Governor so requires
347. The audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General 353. Which one of the following is not considered a part of the
of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be Legislature of States? [2018-II]
submitted to [2018-II] (a) The Governor (b) TheLegislative Assembly
(a) the President (c) The Legislative Council (d) The Chief Minister
(b) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha 354. Which one of the following regarding the ordinance-
(c) the Prime Minister making power of the Governor is not correct? [2018-II]
(d) the Vice President (a) It is not a discretionary power.
348. Which of the following is not related to the powers of the (b) The Governor may withdraw the ordinance anytime.
Governor? [2018-II] (c) The ordinance power can be exercised when the
(a) Diplomatic and military powers Legislature is not in session.
(b) Power to appoint Advocate General (d) The aid and advice of ministers is not required for
declaring the ordinance.
(c) Summoning, proroguing and dissolving State Legislature
355. The Deccan Agriculturalists’ Relief Act of 1879 was
(d) Power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission
enacted with which one of the following objectives?
of punishments
[2019-I]
349. Which one of the following regarding the procedure and (a) Restore lands to the dispossessed peasants
conduct of business in the Parliament is not correct? [2018-II] (b) Ensure financial assistance to peasants during social
(a) To discuss State matters and religious occasions
(b) To discuss issues of the use of police force in suppressing (c) Restrict the sale of land for indebtedness to outsiders
the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe communities (d) Give legal aid to insolvent peasants
(c) To discuss issues in dealing with violent disturbances in 356. Which among the following writs is issued to quash the
an Undertaking under the control of the Union Government order of a Court or Tribunal? [2019-I]
(d) To discuss issues for putting down the demands of (a) Mandamus (b) Prohibition
the industrial labour (c) Quo Warranto (d) Certiorari
350. Which of the following is not under the powers and 357. Which among the following statements about the power
functions of the Election Commission of India? to change the basic structure of the Constitution of India
(a) Superintendence, direction and control of the is/are correct? [2019-I]
preparation of electoral rolls 1 It falls outside the scope of the amending powers of
(b) Conduct of elections to the Parliament and to the the Parliament.
Legislature of each State 2 It can be excercised by the people through
(c) Conduct of election to the office of the President representatives in a Constituent Assembly.
and the Vice President 3 It falls within the consitituent powers of the Parliament.
(d) Appointment of the Regional Commissioners to a Select the correct answer using the code below.
ssist the Election Commission in the performance of (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
the functions conferred on the Commission (c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3
Polity 197
358. When a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the 4. A Judge of the Supreme Court can resign his office
right to move a Court for the enforcement of all Fundamental by writing under his hand addressed to the Chief
Rights remains suspended, except [2019-I] Justice of India.
(a) Article 20 and Article 21 Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(b) Article 21 and Article 22 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) Article 19 and Article 20 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
(d) Article 15 and Article 16 364. Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in [2019-II]
359. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution (a) creation of new States
of India lays down that no citizen can be denied the use (b) declaring a war
of wells, tanks and bathing Ghats maintained out of State (c) financial emergency
funds? [2019-I] (d) authorizing Parliament to legislate on a subject in the
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 15 State List
(c) Article 16 (d) Article 17 365. Which one among the following is not a part of the
360. Which one of the following is not a correct statement Fundamental Rights (Part III) of the Constitution of India?
regarding the provision of Legislative Council in the State [2019-II]
Legislature? (a) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced
(a) The States of Bihar and Telangana have Legislative labour
Councils. (b) Prohibition of employment of children in factories
(b) The total number of members in the Legislative (c) Participation of workers in management of industries
Council of a State shall not exceed one-third of the (d) Practice any profession, or to carry on any
total number of members in the Legislative Assembly. occupation, trade or business
(c) One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by 366. Which of the following statements relating to the Fifth
electorates consisting of local bodies and authorities. Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct ?
(d) One-twelfth of all members shall be elected by [2019-II]
graduates residing in the State. (a) It relates to the special provision for administration
361. Which one of the following is not correct about the of certain areas in the States other than Assam,
Panchayats as laid down in Part IX of the Constitution of
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
India? [2019-I]
(b) Tribal advisory councils are to be constituted to give
(a) The Chairperson of a Panchayat needs to be directly
advice under the Fifth Schedule.
elected by people in order to exercise the right to
(c) The Governor is not authorized to make regulations
vote in the Panchayat meetings.
to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by, or among
(b) The State Legislature has the right to decide whether
members of the Scheduled Tribes.
or not offices of the Chairpersons in the Panchayats
(d) The Governors of the States in which there are
are reserved for SCs, STs or women.
scheduled areas have to submit reports to the
(c) Unless dissolved earlier, every Panchayat continues
President regarding the administration of such areas.
for a period of five years.
(d) The State Legislature may by law make provisions 367. Consider the following statements with regard to the
for audit of accounts of the Panchayats. formation of new States and alteration of boundaries of
362. Which one of the following statements about the existing States : [2019-II]
provisions of the Constitution of India with regard to the 1. Parliament may increase the area of any State.
State of Jammu and Kashmir is not correct? [2019-I] 2. Parliament may diminish the area of any State.
(a) The Directive Principles of State Policy do not apply. 3. Parliament cannot alter the boundary of any State.
(b) Article 35A gives some special rights to the 4. Parliament cannot alter the name of any State.
permanent residents of the State with regard to Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
employment, settlement and property. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Article 19(1)(f) has been omitted. (c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 only
(d) Article 368 is not applicable for the amendment of 368. Consider the following statements : [2019-II]
Constitution of the State. 1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed
363. Which of the following statements as per the Constitution by the President of India upon the recommendations
of India are not correct ? [2019-II] of the Governor of the concerned State.
1. The President tenders his resignation to the Chief 2. As provided in the Code of Civil Procedure, High
Justice of India. Courts have original appellate advisory jurisdiction
2. The Vice-President tenders his resignation to the at the State level.
President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
3. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
removed from his office in the like manner as the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
President of India.
EBD_7341
198 Polity
369. Which one of the following forms of Constitution contains (a) The Government of India Act, 1858
the features of both the Unitary and Federal Constitution? (b) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
[2019-II] (c) The Government of India Act, 1919
(a) Unitary (b) Federal (d) The Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Quasi-Federal (d) Quasi-Unitary 379. Which one of the following statements with regard to the
370. Article 371A of the Constitution of India provides special functioning of the Panchayats is not correct? [2020-I]
privileges to [2019-II] (a) Panchayats may levy, collect and appropriate taxes,
(a) Nagaland (b) Mizoram duties, tolls, etc.
(c) Sikkim (d) Manipur (b) A person who has attained the age of 25 years will
371. How many Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-Ill of the be eligible to be a member of a Panchayat.
States Re-organization Act, 1956 ? [2019-II] (c) Every Panchayat shall ordinarily continue for five
(a) Eight (b) Seven years from the date of its first meeting.
(c) Six (d) Five (d) A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution
372. Which provision of the Constitution of India provides shall continue only for the remainder of the full period.
that the President shall not be answerable to any Court in 380. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding
India for the exercise of powers of his office ? [2019-II] the Members of Parliament Local Area Development
(a) Article 53 (b) Article 74 Scheme (MPLADS)? [2020-I]
(c) Article 361 (d) Article 363 (a) Members of the Parliament (MPs) sanction, execute
373. Which law prescribes that all proceedings in the Supreme and complete works under the scheme.
Court shall be in English language ? [2019-II] (b) Nominated Members of the Parliament can recommend
(a) Article 145 of the Constitution of India works for implementation anywhere in the country.
(b) Article 348 of the Constitution of India (c) The scheme is fully funded by the Government of India.
(c) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966 (d) The annual entitlement per MP is `5 crore.
(d) An Act passed by the Parliament 381. Overseas Indians can exercise franchise in an election to
374. The total number of members in the Union Council of the Lok Sabha under which of the following conditions?
Ministers in India shall not exceed [2019-II] 1. They must be citizens of India. [2020-I]
(a) 10% of the total number of members of the Parliament 2. Their names must figure in the electoral roll.
(b) 15% of the total number of members of the Parliament 3. They must be present in India to vote.
(c) 10% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(d) 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
375. Which one of the following is not enumerated in the (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 only
Constitution of India as a fundamental duty of citizens of 382. Which one of the following was added as a fundamental
India? [2019-II] duty through the Constitution (86th Amendment) Act,
(a) To safeguard public property 2002? [2020-I]
(b) To protect and improve the natural environment (a) To strive towards excellence in individual and
(c) To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry collective activity
(d) To promote international peace and security (b) To provide opportunities for education to one’s child
376. Which one of the following conditions laid down in the between the age of 6 and 14 years
Constitution of India for the issue of a writ of Quo- (c) To work for the welfare of women and children
Warranto is not correct ? [2019-II] (d) To promote peace and harmony
(a) The office must be public and it must be created by a 383. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution
Statute of India protects a person against double jeopardy? [2020-I]
(b) The office must be a substantive one (a) Article 20 (b) Article 21
(c) There has been a contravention of the Constitution (c) Article 22 (d) Article 23
or a Statute in appointing such person to that office 384. Which one of the following Articles was defended by Dr.
(d) The appointment is in tune with statutory provision B. R. Ambedkar on the plea that it would be used as ‘a
377. Under which one of the following Article of the matter of last resort’? [2020-I]
Constitution of India, a statement of estimated receipts (a) Article 352 (b) Article 359
and expenditure of the Government of India has to be laid (c) Article 356 (d) Article 368
before the Parliament in respect of every financial year ? 385. What is the ground on which the Supreme Court can refuse
[2019-II] relief under Article 32? [2020-I]
(a) Article 110 (b) Article 111 (a) The aggrieved person can get remedy from another court
(c) Article 112 (d) Article 113 (b) That disputed facts have to be investigated
378. Which one of the following Acts reserved seats for women (c) That no fundamental right has been infringed
in Legislatures in accordance with the allocation of seats (d) That the petitioner has not asked for the proper writ
for different communities? [2020-I] applicable to his/her case
Polity 199
386. Who among the following stated in the Constituent (c) the State Election Commission
Assembly that on 26th January, 1950, India was going to (d) the Election Commission of India
enter a life of contradictions? [2020-I] 389. The 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (b) Jawaharlal Nehru powers between [2020-I]
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) S. P. Mukherjee (a) the Union and the State Legislatures
387. The power of the Supreme Court to decide in the case of (b) the State Legislatures and the Panchayat
a dispute between two or more States is called [2020-I] (c) the Municipal Corporation and the Panchayat
(a) original jurisdiction (b) inherent jurisdiction (d) the Gram Sabha and the Panchayat
(c) plenary jurisdiction (d) advisory jurisdiction 390. The provisions of the Constitution of India pertaining to
388. The power to legislate on all matters relating to elections the institution of Panchayat do not apply to which one of
to Panchayats lies with [2020-I] the following States? [2020-I]
(a) the Parliament of India (a) Meghalaya (b) Tripura
(b) the State Legislatures (c) Assam (d) Goa
1. (a) Demands for Grants Committees are Departmentally Consolidated Fund of India. The procedure for passing
Related Standing Committees.After the General this Bill is the same as in the case of other money Bills.
Discussion on the Budget is over, the House is adjourned An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only
for a fixed period. During this period, the Demands for by the introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament.
Grants of the Ministries/ Departments are considered by The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid
the Committees. It is not a parliamentary committee. down in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India.
2. (c) Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. 10. (b) According to Article 243 (I) the governor of the state
Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the shall set up the Finance Commission within the period of one
Rajya Sabha.Rajya Sabha(Council of States) cannot reject year. State Finance Commissions receive grants from the
or amend this bill. It can only recommend amendments. Finance Commission that is set up by the central government.
3. (b) According to Article 67, a Vice-President may be 11. (d) Attorney General of India is appointed by the President
removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of of India under Article 76(a) of the Constitution and holds
States passed by a majority of all the then members of the office during the pleasure of the President.
Council and agreed to by the House of the People. 12. (b) The Human Right Commission consists of a chairman
4. (c) In India, "the Emergency" refers to a 21-month period in and other four members. The chairman should be a retired
1975-77 when Prime Minister Indira Gandhi unilaterally had a chief justice of India.
state of emergency declared across the country.Fakhruddin 13. (d) The 10th Schedule to the Indian Constitution is
Ali Ahmed was the President at that time. known as Anti-Defection Law. It was inserted by the 52nd
5. (b) Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 to Amendment Act 1985 to the Constitution. It sets the
examine the relationship and balance of power between provisions for disqualification of elected members on the
state and central government. grounds of defection to another political party.
6. (d) A is false because the constitution without specifying 14. (b) According to article 82 of Indian Constitution, the
the strength of the Commission has left the matter to the parliament of India shall readjust the allocation of seats in
discretion of the president, who determines its the Lok Sabha to the states and division of each state into
composition. According to article 315, the UPSC consists territorial constituencies.
of a chairman and other members appointed by the 15. (a) Article 124 (a) of the Indian Constitution stipulates
president of India. Articles 315 to 323 of Part XIV of the that "There shall be a Supreme Court of India constituting
constitution provide for a Public Service Commission for of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law
the Union and for each state. prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other
7. (b) Gulzarilal Nanda became the Prime Minister of India Judges". At present the Supreme Court consists of thirty
for two short periods following the deaths of Jawaharlal one judges (one chief justice and thirty other judges).
Nehru in 1964 and Lal Bahadur Shastri in 1966. Under article 315 the UPSC consists of a chairman and
8. (b) Two expert committees were established under former other members appointed by the president of India. The
RBI Governor M. Narasimhan in 1991 and 1998 to look constitution without specifying the strength of the
into all aspects of the financial system in India. The report Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the
of this committee had comprehensive recommendations president, who determines its composition.
for financial sector reforms including the banking sector 16. (b) Article 65 of the Indian Constitution says that while
and capital markets. acting as president or discharging the functions of
9. (b) The Appropriation Bill is intended to give authority president, the Vice President does not perform the duties
to Government to incur expenditure from and out of the of the office of the chairman of Rajya sabha.
EBD_7341
200 Polity
Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President certain simpler method of conciliation instead of the process of
law making powers to promulgate Ordinances when either arguments in court.
of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session and 27. (b) Sarkaria Commission was set up by the central
hence it is not possible to enact laws in the Parliament. government of India in June 1983 to examine the relationship
17. (c) 7th Schedule gives allocation of powers and and balance of power between state and central
functions between Union & States. It contains 3 lists: governments in the country and suggest changes within
Union List (97 Subjects) the framework of Constitution of India.
States List (66 subjects) 28. (d) Article 26 of the Indian Constitution states freedom
Concurrent List(52 subjects) to manage religious affairs subject to public order, morality
18. (c) Parliament passed the 93rd Constitution Amendment and health, every religious denomination or any section
Bill relating to the provision of reservation for socially and thereof shall have the right-
educationally backward classes of citizen or for the SCs (a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious
and STs related to admission in educational institutions. and charitable purposes;
19. (d) The Union executive consists of the President, the (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
Vice-President, and the Council of Ministers with the Prime (c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property;
Minister as the head to aid and advise the President.He and
may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice- (d) to administer such property in accordance with law
President, resign his office (Article 61). According to article 29. (d) Committee on Public Accounts and Committee on
52,executive power of the Union is vested in the President. Public Undertakings consist of 15 members elected by
20. (c) The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs handles affairs the Lok Sabha and 7 members of the Rajya
relating to the Parliament of India and works as a link Sabha.Committee on Estimates consists of 30 members
between the two chambers, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst
Sabha. It constitutes consultative committees of members its members.
of Parliament and makes arrangements for holding their 30. (c) The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed by
meetings, both during and between sessions. the Government of India in January 1957 to examine the
21. (b) Details of Citizenship are mentioned in part ll(Article working of the Community Development Programme(1952).It
5-11) of the constitution. recommended a 3-tier Panchayati Raj system-Gram Panchayat
22. (b) Schedule X was added by 52nd amendment in 1985. at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and
It contains provisions of disqualification on the grounds Zila Parishad at the district level.
of defection. 31. (c) Liaquat Ali Khan became the first Finance Minister
Schedule Vlll contains List of 22 languages of India of India in the Interim Government during 1946-1947.
recognized by Constitution. 32. (b) Article 46 deals with Promotion of educational and
Schedule l deals with the List of States & Union Territories. economic interests of the weaker sections of the people,
Schedule IX Contains acts & orders related to land tenure, and in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the
land tax, railways, and industries. Added by Ist amendment Scheduled Tribes and shall protect them from social
in 1951.Laws underSchedule IXare beyond the purview injustice and all forms of exploitation. It does not provide
of judicial review even though they violate fundamental free legal aid to them. According to Article 14, "the State
rights enshrined under part III of the Constitution. shall not deny to any person equality before the law or
23. (d) The Finance Commission is constituted by the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India".
President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to 33. (c) The Bombay High Court has benches in Nagpur,
give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues Aurangabad and Panaji.
between the Union and the States and amongst the States 34. (a) According to Article 316(a)of the Indian
themselves. Constitution, the chairman and the members of the UPSC
24. (c) Jawaharlal Nehru took charge as the first Prime are appointed by the president. Under Article 316(3) a
Minister of Indiaon 15 August 1947, and chose 15 other person who holds office as a member of a Public Service
members for his cabinet in which B. R. Ambedkar was the Commission shall, on the expiration of his term of office,
first law minister of India. be ineligible for re-appointment to that office.
25. (c) The 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission was 35. (b) Department of Official language(Raj Bhasha Vibhag)
initially set up under the Chairmanship of Mr. Veerappa comes under Ministry of Home affairs.
Moily, who resigned with effect from 1st April 2009. He was 36. (c) Article 371A deals with the special provision with
succeeded by V. Ramachandran. The Commission was to respect to the State of Nagaland.
prepare a detailed blueprint for revamping the public 37. (b) The Government of India (Allocation of Business)
administration system in India. Rules, 1961 are made by the President of India under Article
77 of the Constitution for the allocation of business of the
26. (b) The award of the Lok Adalat is fictionally deemed to
Government of India. The Ministries/Departments of the
be decrees of Court and therefore the court has all the
Government are created by the President on the advice of
powers in relation thereto as it has in relation to a decree
the Prime Minister under these Rules. The Cabinet
passed by itself. This includes the powers to extend time in
Secretary is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services
appropriate cases. The award passed by the Lok Adalat is
Board of the Republic of India.
the decision of the court itself, though, arrived at by the
Polity 201
38. (d) The Second Administrative Reforms Commission were Originally ten in number, but by the 86th Amendment
(ARC) was constituted under the Chairmanship of in 2002 they were increased to eleven.
Veerappa Moily in 2005 for preparing a detailed blueprint 49. (b) The estimates committee is the largest committee of
for revamping the public administrative system. the parliament. This Committee consists of 30 members
Article 310 -Tenure of office of persons serving the Union who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from amongst
or a State its members. The term of office of the Committee is one
Article 311 -Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons year. The committee was constituted in 1950 on the
employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State. recommendation of John Mathai, the then finance minister
39. (a) Stock Exchange is the subject of union list. of India.
40. (b) Creation of a three-tier system was not the 50. (d) The legislative assembly of the concerned state
recommendation of Ashok Mehta Committee. According to recommends to the parliament for the abolition of the
this committee,the 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj should be legislative council in a state (Article 169).
replaced by the 2-tier system. Ashoka Mehta committee was 51. (c) The Rajinder Sachar Committee was commissioned
appointed by the Janata Government under the chairmanship to prepare a report on the latest social, economic and
of Ashoka Mehta. educational condition of the Muslim community of India.
41. (b) The responsibility of conducting the decennial It was appointed by the Indian Prime Minister Manmohan
Census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Singhin 2005.
Census Commissioner, India under Ministry of Home 52. (a) The salient features of the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 are: -
Affairs, Government of India. · To provide 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all States
42. (a) Correct chronological order of the Vice-Presidents having population of over 20 lakhs.
of India is as follows: · To hold Panchayat elections regularly every 5 years.
1. V.V .Giri - 1967 · To provide reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes,
2. G.S Pathak 1969 Scheduled Tribes and women (not less than 33%)
3. B.D Jatti-1974 · To appoint State Finance Commission to make
4. M Hidayatullah- 1979 recommendations as regards the financial powers of the
43. (b) Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar became the Speaker of Panchayats.
the Provisional Parliament on 26 November 1949 and · District planning committee to role of consolidate the
continued to occupy the office till the 1st Lok Sabha that plans prepared by panchayats and municiplalities was
provided as per 74th Amendment.
was constituted in 1952.
53. (d)
44. (c) Correct chronological order of the presidents of
54. (b) According to Article 53(b) of the Indian Constitution
Indian National Congress is -
the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union
1. Purushottam Das Tandon-1950 shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof
2. U. N. Dhebar- 1955 shall be regulated by law.
3. K. Kamaraj- 1964 55. (d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines
4. Jagjivan Ram- 1970 for creating a social order characterized by social,
45. (b) According to Article 164(1) in the State of Bihar, economic, and political justice, liberty, equality, and
Madhya Pradesh and Orissa, there shall be a Minister in fraternity as enunciated in the constitution's preamble. It
charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of does not promise equal income and free healthcare for all
the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and backward classes Indians.
or any other work. Punjab is not covered by the Article. 56. (b) PIL (Public Interest Litigation) writ petition can be
46. (b) Constitution of India is unique in itself. Many features filed in Supreme Court under Article 32 only if a question
of our constitution are borrowed from various sources concerning the enforcement of a fundamental right is
around the world. involved. Under Article 226, a writ petition can be filed in
1. Amendment of the constitution - Constitution of a High court whether or not a Fundamental Right is
South Africa involved. Thus, it comes under appellate jurisdiction.
2. Directive Principles- Irish Constitution 57. (c) The quorum to constitute a joint sitting shall be one-
3. Emergency Powers of the President- Constitution of tenth of the total number of members of the Houses.
the Germany 58. (d) The Tenth Schedule ( Anti-Defection Act) was
4. The Union State Relations- Constitution of Canada included in the Constitution in 1985 by the Rajiv Gandhi
47. (b) The Attorney General of India is the chief legal ministry and sets the provisions for disqualification of
advisor of Indian government. He is appointed by the elected members on the grounds of defection to another
President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution. political party.
He must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge 59. (b). P V Narasimha Rao could not vote for himself during
of the Supreme Court. The Attorney General has the right vote of confidence.
of audience in all Courts in India as well as the right to 60. (c) Up to 2014, seven (out of twenty-nine) states have a
Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Jammu and
participate in the proceedings of the Parliament. He holds
Kashmir, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar
office during the pleasure of the President.
Pradesh.Tamilnadu does not have Legislative Council.
48. (b) The Fundamental Duties were added to the
61. (d) The correct sequence is, Discussion on Budget,
Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976 on the Appropriation Bill, Finance Bill, Vote on Account.
recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. They
EBD_7341
202 Polity
62. (a) The Planning Commission was set up by a Resolution 73. (b) The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002
of the Government of India in March 1950.It is not provided inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide
in the constitution of India. free and compulsory education of all children in the age
63. (c) A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right.
but before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of India by birth This is recognized in the International Covenant on
irrespective of the nationality of his parents, considered Economic, Social and Cultural Rights as a human right
citizen of India by birth if either of his parents is a citizen that includes the right to free, compulsory primary
of India at the time of his birth. The citizenship of India is education for all.
mentioned in Articles 5 to 11 (Part II).
74. (c) The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is
64. (c) Dr.Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the sixth President of
distributed among States in such a way that the ratio
India. After the death of Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed in
between the number of seats allotted to each State and
office,Reddy was elected unopposed. He was only
population of the State is, as far as practicable, the same
President to be elected thus, after being unanimously
for all States. The 84th Amendment to the Constitution
supported by all political parties including the opposition
(which was numbered as the 91st Amendment Bill before
Congress party. He was elected president on 21 July 1977.
it was passed in Parliament) lifted the freeze on the
65. (c) Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any occupation
delimitation of constituencies, as stipulated by the 42nd
trade or business is also available to non citizens.
Constitution amendment of 1976, and allowed delimitation
66. (c) Protem Speaker performs the duties of the office of
within States on the basis of the 1991 Census.
the Speaker from the commencement of the sitting of the
75. (c) OnAugust 20, 1979, Charan Singh resigned without
new Lok Sabha till the election of the Speaker. Protem
moving the motion after the Congress withdrew support.
speaker is mainly an operating and temporary speaker.
76. (c) Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala(1973)is a
67. (c) He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of
landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that
no confidence is under consideration.
outlined the Basic Structure doctrine of the Constitution.In
68. (d) The deposit made by a candidate shall be returned if
the case, the Supreme Court ruled that all provisions of
the following conditions are satisfied:-
the constitution, including Fundamental Rights can be
(i) the candidate is not shown in the list of contesting
amended. However, the Parliament cannot alter the basic
candidates, that is to say, either his nomination was
structure of the constitution like secularism, democracy,
rejected or after his nomination was accepted, he withdrew
federalism, separation of powers.
his candidature; or
77. (d) The fundamental duties are defined as the moral
(ii) he dies before the commencement of the poll; or
obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of
(iii) he is elected; or
patriotism and to uphold the unity of India. The
(iv) he is not elected but gets more than 1/6th of the total
Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the
number of valid votes polled by all the candidates at the election.
Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the
69. (c) Under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution the
recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. The
Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is an
fundamental duties are contained in Art. 51APart IV(a).
authority who audits all receipts and expenditure of the
The fundamental duties however are non-justifiable in
Government of India and the state governments, including
character. This means that no citizen can be punished by
those of bodies and authorities substantially financed by
a court for violation of a fundamental duty.
the government. The CAG shall only be removed from
78. (c) According to article 21 of the Indian Constitution,
office in like manner and on the like grounds as a judge of
no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty
the Supreme Court of India :Article148(a)
except according to procedure established by law. The
The Comptroller and Auditor General shall not be eligible
Supreme Court of India on 19 June 2013 in its decision
for further office either under the Government of India or
established that right to life and liberty, enshrined under
under the Government of any State after he has ceased to
Article 21 of the Constitution, is available to foreign
hold his office:Article 148(d)
nationals also.
70. (d) Convention on the nationality of married women has
been signed by India but not yet ratified. India signed the 79. (c) Resistance movements, individually or collectively
convention on 15th May 1957. is the methods adopted by civil society.
71. (c) 74th Amendment deals with Muncipalities and urban 80. (d) According to author, authentic civil society means
local bodies. The Finance Commission Constituted under "Activists who want moral accountability and juridical
243-I shall review the Financial Position of Muncipalities. redress of all wrongdoing in society.
72. (a) Under article 5 of the Indian Constitution Citizenship 81. (d) Uniform civil code is not generated by people's
at the commencement of the Constitution every person struggle.
who has his domicile in the territory of India and
82. (a) New issues that dominate the middle class led social
(a) who was born in the territory of India; or
(b) either of whose parents was born in the territory of agenda today are price rise, progressive taxation, and the
India; or Indo -USA nuclear deal.
(c) who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of 83. (a) The minimum mandate of a democratic government
India for not less than five years preceding such is to respond to ongoing priorities in public criticism and
commencement, shall be a citizen of India. threats to survival by decisive public action.
Polity 203
84. (c) nyaya is a concept of justice that combines theories · defamation,
of justice with the practice of democracy. · incitement to an offence,
85. (c) In Indian parliament, Zero hour starts at 12:00 noon. · Sovereignty and integrity of India.
Zero Hour in Parliament starts at 12 noon during which 94. (c) The Inter-State Council was established under Article
members raise matters of importance, especially those that 263 of the Constitution of India through a Presidential
cannot be delayed. Nobody knows which issue a member Order dated 28 May 1990. As the article 263 makes it clear
would raise during this hour. that the Inter-State Council is not a permanent
86. (d) The core of political democracy is based on Universal constitutional body for coordination between the States
adult Franchise. pertaining to civil matters in India. of the Union. It can be established 'at any time' if it appears
87. (c) District Munsiff Court (District Munsif Court) is the to the President that the public interests would be served
court of the lowest order handling matters by the establishment of such a Council. The Council is a
88. (a) Under Article 61, the President of India can be recommendatory body. The Council shall consist of Prime
removed from the office by a process of impeachment for Minister (Chairman), Chief Ministers of all States and
the violation of the Constitution. The impeachment is to union territories (Member), Administrators (UT) and Six
be initiated by either House of Parliament. Ministers of Cabinet rank to be nominated by the Prime
89. (c) Procedural democracy is a democracy in which the Minister (Member). Home minister chairs the standing
people or citizens of the state have less influence than in committee.
traditional liberal democracies. This type of democracy is 95. (c) Protem speaker is chosen with the agreement of the
characterized by voters choosing to elect representatives members of the Lok Sabha and legislative assembly, so
in free elections. Procedural democracy is quite different that he can carry on the activities untilthe permanent
from substantive democracy, which is manifested by equal speaker is chosen. Protem speaker is appointed for a limited
participation of all groups in society in the political time period. Generally in such a condition when the Lok
process.Namibia, Angola, and Mozambique are examples Sabha and Legislative Assemblies have been elected, but
of examples of procedural democracies. the vote for the speaker and deputy speaker has not taken
90. (b) A registered voter in India can contest an election to place.
Lok Sabha from any constituency in India except 96. (b) The original jurisdiction of supreme court of India
autonomous Districts of Assam, Lakshadweep and Sikkim. extends to all cases between the Government of India and
According to Section 8 of Representation of Peoples Act the States of India or between Government of India and
1951,a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to states on side and one or more states on other side or
imprisonment for not less than two years [other than any cases between different states.
offence referred to in sub-section (a) or sub-section (b)] 97. (c) Irrespective of the fact that a number of seats may
shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and have to be filled, this system postulates one vote for each
shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six voter with the reservation that this single vote is
years since his release. transferred to other candidates. This is the reason why
91. (b) Power sharing helps in reducing the conflict between this system is known as "single transferable vote system."
various social groups. Hence, power sharing is necessary 98. (c) As per Gadgil formula a special category state gets
for maintaining social harmony and peace.Power sharing preferential treatment in federal assistance and tax breaks.
helps in avoiding the tyranny of majority. The tyranny of The special-category states get significant excise duty
majority not only destroys the minority social groups but concessions and thus help these states attract large
also the majority social group. It decreases the possibility number of industrial units to establish manufacturing
of arbitrary decision making.People's voice forms the basis facilities within their territory. 90% of the central assistance
of a democratic government (people's participation at is treated as grant and remaining 10% is considered as
different levels of government). loan unlike other states which get 30% grant and 70%
92. (c) According to Article 32, when an individual feels loan.
that he has been "unduly deprived" of his fundamental 99. (b) The Commonwealth of Nations is an intergovernmental
rights, he can move the Supreme Court and seek justice. organisation of 53 member states that were mostly territories
Apart from the Supreme Court, the High Courts also have of the former British Empire. The membership only shows
that the British ruled over India.
the power to protect fundamental rights. Like the apex
100. (a) According to Article 243(E), every Panchayat, unless
court, they also can issue writs for the enforcement of
sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force,
fundamental rights of the citizens. The both courts can
shall continue for five years from the date appointed for
issue five different writs - Certiorari, Habeas Corpus, its first meeting and no longer.
Mandamus, Prohibition, and Quo Warranto. 101. (b) The Planning Commission was established in March
93. (a) Freedom of speech and expression is restricted on 1950 by an executive resolution of the government of India.
the ground of : The Planning Commission is neither constitutional nor a
· security of the State, statutory body. In India, it is the supreme organ of
· friendly relations with foreign States, planning for social and economic development. It is not
· public order, responsible for taking and implementing decisions. It is
· decency and morality, only a staff agency, an advisory body and has no executive
· contempt of court, responsibility.
EBD_7341
204 Polity
102. (d) Lord Ripon's plan for local Self government in India citizens of India. The seven fundamental rights recognised
isas follows: by the Indian constitution Aliens (persons who are not
1. The sub-division, not the district, should be the citizens) are also considered in matters like equality before
maximum area served by one committee or local board law. They are enforceable by the courts, subject to certain
with primary boards under it serving very small areas, so restrictions. It protects the rights and liberties of the people
that each member of it might possess knowledge of and against encroachment by the legislative and executive
interest in its affairs. wings of the government.
2. The local boards should consist of a large majority 110. (a) According to Article 361, the principle of equality
of elected non-official members, and theyshould be before the law is not applicable to the president of India
presided over by a non-official member. because the president of India enjoys some special
103. (d) India is a Quasi-Federal country because the privileges under the Constitution of India.
Constitution of India is federal in nature but unitary in 111. (a) Bills that have to be passed by Special Majority and
spirit. It has common features of a federation such as
also to be ratified by not less than one-half of the State
written Constitution, supremacy of Constitution, rigidity
Legislatures . This comprises of Constitutional
of Constitution, two governments, division of powers,
Amendment Bills which seek to make any change in
bicameralism as well as unitary features like single
articles relating to:
Constitution, integrated judiciary and All-India Services
etc. · The Election of the President.
104. (c) The Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Bill 2010 fixes · The extent of the Executive Power of the Union and
liability for nuclear damage and specifies procedures for the States.
compensating victims. Clause '6' of this act defines the · The Supreme Court and the High Courts.
share of financial liability. It states that the liability of an · Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule.
operator for each nuclear incident shall be for nuclear · The representation of States in Parliament.
reactors having power equal to 10 MW or above Rs. 1,500 · The provisions of Article 368 itself.
crores. An operator shall not be liable for any nuclear 112. (d) The U.S. court system is divided into two
damage due to natural disaster, act of armed conflict, war, administratively separate systems, the federal and the
terrorism etc. state, each of which is independent of the executive and
105. (b) If a lower court or tribunal gives its decision but legislative branches of government. One of the unique
based on wrong jurisdiction the affected party can move features of the Indian Constitution is that, notwithstanding
this writ to a higher court like supreme court or High Court. the adoption of a federal system and existence of Central
The writ of certiorari issued to subordinate judicial or quasi Acts and State Acts in their respective spheres, it has
judicial body when they act. generally provided for a single integrated system of Courts
· Without or in excess of jurisdiction to administer both Union and State laws. At the apex of
· In violation of the prescribed procedure the entire judicial system, exists the Supreme Court of
· In contravention of principles of natural justice India below which are the High Courts in each State or
· Resulting in an error of law apparent on the face of record. group of States. Below the High Courts, lies a hierarchy
106. (d) The 86th amendment to the Constitution approved of Subordinate Courts.
in 2002 providing free and compulsory education to all 113. (c) According to Article 78 it shall be the duty of the
children age 6 to 14 years has been notified. It included Prime Minister-
Article 21(a) in the Indian constitution making education (a) to communicate to the President all decisions of the
a fundamental right. council of Ministers relating to the administration of the
107. (b) 'Adjournment' refers to postpone the further affairs of the union and proposals for legislation;
transaction of the business for specified time by the (b) to furnish such information relating to the
presiding officer of the House. Adjournment terminates administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals
the sitting of the House which meets again at the time for legislation as the President may call for;
appointed for the next sitting. Adjournment sine die refers (c) if the President so requires, to submit for the
to termination of a sitting of the House without any definite consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on
date being fixed for the next sitting. which a decision has been taken by a Minister.
108. (c) The Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) scheme was 114. (b)
introduced by amending The Citizenship Act, 1955 in 115. (c) The Chief Election Commissioner holds office for a
August 2005. The scheme was launched during the term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years,
Pravasi Bharatiya Divas convention at Hyderabad in 2006. whichever is earlier.
Overseas citizens of India will not enjoy the following 116. (d) There are three Financial Committees in the Indian
rights even if resident in India: (i) the right to vote, (ii) the Parliament mentioned below:
right to hold the offices of President, Vice-President, Judge 1. Estimates Committee- This Committee consists of 30
of Supreme Court and High Court, Member of Lok Sabha, members who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year
Rajya Sabha, Legislative Assembly or Council (iii) from amongst its members. The term of the Committee is
appointment to Public Services (Government Service). one year.
109. (a) Fundamental Rights guarantee civil liberties such that 2. Committee on Public Undertakings- The Committee
all Indians can lead their lives in peace and harmony as on Public Undertakings consists of 22 members(15
Polity 205
members from Lok Sabha and 7 members from Rajya constitution. The Directive Principles may be said to
Sabha) .The term of the Committee is one year. contain the philosophy of the constitution. The Directive
3. Public Accounts Committee- This Committee consists principles are broad directives given to the state in
of 22 members (15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 members accordance with which the legislative and executive
from the Rajya Sabha.). The term of the Committee is one powers of the state are to be exercised.
year. 127. (b) The State list contains 66 subjects of local or state
117. (a) The Central Administrative Tribunal has been importance. The state governments have the authority to
established for adjudication of disputes with respect to make laws on these subjects. These subjects include
recruitment and conditions of service of persons police, local governments, trade, commerce and
appointed to public services and posts in connection with agriculture. Parliament has exclusive power to make any
the affairs of the Union or other local authorities within law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the
the territory of India. Concurrent List or State List.
118. (a) "Closure" is one of the means by which a debate Note: Residuary Power retained by a governmental
may be brought to a close by a majority decision of the authority after certain powers have been delegated to other
House, even though all members wishing to speak have authorities.
not done so. 128. (b) Pressure groups do not seek active political power,
119. (c) S. R. Bommai v. Union of Indiawas a landmark political parties do. Political parties exist to gain power
judgment of the Supreme Court of India regarding over governmental policy by winning elections for political
provisions of Article 356 of the Constitution of India and office. Interest groups do not necessarily have their
related issues. This case had huge impact on Centre-State members run for office and they vote in a nonpartisan
Relations. The misuse of Article 356 was stopped after way, supporting candidates who promote their point of
this judgment.Article 356 deals with imposition of view.
President's Rule over a State of India. 129. (c) While a proclamation of emergency is in operation,
120. (c) Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution this period may be extended by Parliament by law for a
safeguard women and children and others against period not exceeding one year at a time.Under Article 352
exploitation of various forms. the president can declare a national emergency when the
Article 23 declares slave trade, prostitution and human security of India or part of it is threatened by war or external
trafficking a punishable offence. aggression or armed rebellion.
Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits employment 130. (c) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha.
of children below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a
like factories and mines. Money Bill. It can only make recommendations on the
121. (d) All of the above statements are correct. Money Bill. Whether a particular Bill is a Money Bill or
122. (c) The Indian Constitution does not recognize property not is to be decided by the Speaker of Lok Sabha. Rajya
right as a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th Sabha may discuss the Annual Financial Statement. It
amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and has no power to vote on the Demands for Grants.
dispose of property as a fundamental right. 131. (b) Article 31B of the Constitution of India ensured that
123. (c) The constitution of 1950 distinguished between three any law in the 9th Schedule could not be challenged in
main types of states: courts and Government can rationalize its programme of
The Part A states were ruled by an elected governor and social engineering by reforming land and agrarian laws.
state legislature. In other words laws under Ninth Schedule are beyond the
The Part B states were governed by a rajpramukh. purview of judicial review even though they violate
The Part C states were governed by a chief commissioner fundamental rights enshrined under part III of the
appointed by the President of India. Constitution. On the one hand considerable power was
The Part D states were administered by a lieutenant given to legislature under Article 31B and on the other
governor appointed by the central government. hand the power of judiciary was curtailed, this is the
124. (b) K. Kamaraj resigned from the Tamil Nadu Chief starting point of tussle between legislature and judiciary.
Minister Post on 2 October 1963. He proposed that all 132. (c)
senior Congress leaders should resign from their posts 133. (b) According to Hindu Law, marriage is defined as a
and devote all their energy to the revitalization of the Holy Sanskar (Sacrament).
Congress. This is known as the Kamaraj Plan. Six Union 134. (d) Article 348 of Indian Constitution mentions the
Ministers and six Chief Ministers including Lal Bahadur language to be used in Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Shastri, Jagjivan Ram, Morarji Desai, Biju Patnaik and S.K. According to the article 348, the language of all
Patil followed suit and resigned from their posts. proceedings in the Supreme court and in every high court
125. (a) NRIs can’t vote if they have acquired citizenship of shall be English.
other country. 135. (d) All the conditions given in the question are necessary
126. (a) The purpose of Directive Principle of State Policy is for issuing writ of quo warranto. The conditions necessary
to lay down positive instructions which would guide State for the issue of a writ of quo warranto are as follows :
Policy at all levels. The Directive Principles of State Policy (i) The office must be public and it must be created by a
contained in Part IV, Articles 36-51 of the Indian statue or by the constitution itself.
EBD_7341
206 Polity
(ii) The office must be a substantive one and not merely · Any reproduction of image or images embodied in
the function or employment of a servant at the will and such microfilm (whether enlarged or not).
during the pleasure of another. · Any other material produced by a computer or any
(iii) There has been a contravention of the constitution on other device
or a statute or statutory instrument, in appointing such person It does not include taking photograph of files.
to that office. 147. (a) Delhi and Puducherry have their own elected
136. (a) The constitution of India is republican because it legislative assemblies and the executive councils of
provides for an elected parliament. ministers.
137. (d) Right to Equality refers to the equality in the eyes of 148. (c) The National Social Assistance Programme(NSAP)
law, discarding any unfairness on grounds of caste, race, represents a significant step towards the fulfilment of the
religion, place of birth and sex. It provides equal right to Directive Principles in Article 41 of the Constitution. It
women. came into effect from 15th August 1995.
138. (c) The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 149. (d) Award has the same effect as of a Civil Court decree. The
1976 has incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article Supreme Court has held that award of the Lok Adalat is as
51(a) of the constitution of India. The 86th Constitution good as the decree of a Court. The award of the Lok Adalat is
Amendment Act 2002 has added one more Fundamental fictionally deemed to be decrees of Court and therefore the
Duty in Article 51(a) of the constitution of India. As a courts have all the powers in relation thereto as it has in relation
result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of the citizen to a decree passed by itself. It was the legal services authority
of India. act 1987, which gave statutory status to Lok Adalat.
139. (b) Sustained economic growth specially after the 1990s, 150. (b) Delimitation commission of India is a Commission
is not an attribute of sustainability of Indian democratic established by Government of India under the provisions
model. of the Delimitation Commission Act. In India, such
140. (b) The preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation Delimitation Commissions have been constituted 4 times
because it contains the real objective and philosophy of - in 1952 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952, in
the constitution makers. 1963 under Delimitation Commission Act, 1962, in 1973
141. (a) In the Rajya Sabha the states have been given seats under Delimitation Act, 1972 and in 2002 under Delimitation
on the basis of population. Act, 2002. The main task of the commission is to redraw
142. (c) A written constitution is one which is found in one the boundaries of the various assemblyand Lok Sabha
or more than one legal documents duly enacted in the constituencies based on a recent census. The
form of laws. It is precise, definite and systematic and representation from each state is not changed during this
codified. An unwritten constitution is one in which most exercise. However, the number of SC and ST seats in a state
of the principles of the government have never been is changed in accordance with the census.
enacted in the form of laws. It consists of customs, 151. (a) "Political parties give political education to the people"
conventions, traditions and some written laws bearing is not the function of political parties in a democracy.
different dates. It is not codified. It is unsystematic, 152. (b) Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the
indefinite and unprecise.So, Written constitution is the central government of India. According to the commission,
formal source of all constitutional laws and Unwritten Chief Minister should be consulted before appointing the
Constitution is not the formal source. Governor.
143. (d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha may be removed from his 153. (b) Habeas corpus writs literally means you should have
office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by the body. It is writ that a person may seek from a court to
a majority of all the then members of the House. No obtain immediate release from an unlawful confinement.
resolution for the purpose of removal of the Speaker or the 154. (d) To practise family planning and to control population,
Dy. Speaker shall be moved unless at least fourteen days is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The
notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the
144. (a) The Indian Council Act 1892- Introduction of the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally
principle of election ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to
The Indian Council Act 1909- Introduction of separate eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a
electorate for the Muslims duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child
The government of India act 1919- Introduction of diarchy or ward was provided opportunities for education between
in provinces the ages of six and fourteen years.
The government of India Act 1935- Introduction of 155. (a) The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior
provincial autonomy. court to a lower court or tribunal directing the judge and
145. (b) The Directive Principles resemble the instrument of the parties to cease the litigation because the lower court
instructions enumerated in the "government of India Act does not have proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the
of 1935". matters before it.
146. (c) The right to information includes 156. (a) · Election of Speaker shall be held on such date as
· Any document, manuscript and file the President may fix, and the Secretary-General shall send
· Any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy notice of this dateto every member.
of a document;
Polity 207
· The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on authorised person within 15 days of such incident. As per
such date as the Speaker may fix and the Secretary-General the 1985 Act, a 'defection' by one-third of the elected
shall send notice of this dateto every member. members of a political party was considered a 'merger'.
· At any time before noon on the day preceding the Finally, the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003,
date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing, changed this. So now at least two-thirds of the members
addressed to the Secretary-General, of a motion that of a party have to be in favour of a "merger" for it to have
another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the validity in the eyes of the law.
House and the notice shall be seconded by a third member 163. (b) National Commission for Religious and Linguistic
and shall be accompanied by a statement by the member Minorities was constituted by Government on 29 October
whose name is proposed in the notice that he is willing to 2004 to look into various issues related to Linguistic and
serve as Deputy Speaker, if elected. Religious minorities in India. It is also called Ranganath
157. (d) RTI act was passed by Parliament on 15 June 2005 Misra Commission because it was chaired by former Chief
and came fully into force on 12 October 2005. Justice of India Justice Ranganath Misra.
It has been given the status of a fundamental right under 164. (b) The Estimates Committee is a Parliamentary
Article 19(a) of the Constitution. Article 19 (a) under which Committee consisting of 30 Members, elected every year
every citizen has freedom of speech and expression and by the Lok Sabha from amongst its Members. The
have the right to know how the government works, what Chairman of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker
role does it play, what are its functions and so on. from amongst its members. The term of office of the
158. (c) Indonesia redefined the principles of Panchashila for Committee is one year.
the purpose of domestic politics. It has been suggested 165. (a) 'Look East' policy does not optimize India's synergies
that the five principles had partly originated as the five in the extended Asia-Pacific neighbourhood. In many
principles of the Indonesian state. In June 1945 Sukarno cases, India's membership to these forums has been a
had proclaimed five general principles or pancasila on which result of attempts by the region to balance China's growing
future institutions were to be founded. Panchashila influence in the area. Notably, Japan brought India into
comprises of five principles held to be inseparable and ASEAN+6 to dilute the ASEAN+3 process, where China
interrelated: is dominant, while Singapore and Indonesia played a
1. Belief in the one and only God significant role in bringing India into the East Asia Summit.
2. Just and civilized humanity The United States and Japan have also lobbied for India's
3. The unity of Indonesia membership in the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation.
4. Democracy 166. (c) One of the fundamental duties is to "defend the
5. Social justice country and render national service when called upon to
159. (b) Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas do so."
Act(PESA) is a law enacted by the Government of India 167. (d) This act made the central legislature bicameral. The
to cover the "Scheduled areas" which are not covered in first house which was central legislature with 145 members
the 73rd amendment or Panchayati Raj Act of the Indian (out of which 104 elected and 41 nominated) was called
Constitution. It was enacted on 24 December 1996 to central Legislative Assembly and second with 60 members
enable Gram Sabhas to self-govern their natural resources. (out of which 33 elected and 27 nominated) was called
160. (d) Participatory Budgeting is a democratic process of Council of States.It Introduced Diarchy in the provincial
deliberation by citizens, civic officials and elected executive. Federal system of Government was introduced
representatives on the issues that need attention and in India by The Government of India Act 1935.
collectively arriving at decisions that would directly be 168. (c) The State shall not make any law which takes away
included in the budget of the government. Participatory or abridges the rights conferred by this Part lll and any
budgeting empowers the citizens to present their demands law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent
and priorities for improvement and influence through of the contravention, be void.
discussions and negotiations the budget allocations made 169. (b) Our Parliamentary system blends the legislative and
by their municipalities. It is an opportunity in which the the executive organs of the State in as much as the
common citizens can decide about the allocation and executive power is wielded by a group of Members of the
distribution of public expenditure in their areas or regions. Legislature who command majority in the Lok Sabha.
161. (c) Sub-committee headed by Gopinath Bordoloi was 170. (c) The E-courts project was established in 2005.
appointed by the constituent Assembly of India to According to the project, all the courts including taluk
recommend the future pattern of administration of the courts will get computerized. As per the project in 2008, all
North Eastern Frontiers Areas. the District courts were initialised under the project. In
162. (a) The grounds for disqualification under the Anti- 2010, all the District courts were computerized. The project
Defection Law are as follows: also includes producing witnesses through video
If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary conferencing. The judicial service centres are available in
to any direction issued by his political party or anyone all court campuses. The Public as well as the advocates
authorised to do so, without obtaining prior permission. can walk in directly and ask for the case status, stage and
As a pre-condition for his disqualification, his abstention next hearing dates.
from voting should not be condoned by his party or the
EBD_7341
208 Polity
171. (d) President's rule refers to Article 356 of the Constitution 180. (b) The case of S.R.Bommai vs Union of India is a landmark
of India deals with the failure of the constitutional machinery case in the purview of the Indian Constitutional history
of an Indian state. In the event that government in a state is relating to the proclamation of emergency under Article 356
not able to function as per the Constitution, the state comes of the Constitution. The case mainly came up with the issue
under the direct control of the central government, with of the power of the President to issue proclamation under
executive authority exercised through the Governor instead Article 356 of the Constitution including the power to dissolve
of a Council of Ministers headed by an elected Chief State Legislative Assemblies and also issues relating to
Minister accountable to the state legislature. Article 356 is federalism and secularism as a part of basic structure.
invoked if there has been failure of the constitutional 181. (c) The Planning Commission was established in March
machinery in any states of India. 1950 by an executive resolution of the Government of
172. (b) Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court(Article India, on the recommendation of the Advisory Planning
131): Supreme court has power to decide disputes Board constituted in 1946, under the chairmanship of KC
· between the Government of India and one or more States Neogi. Thus, the Planning Commission is neither
· between the Government of India and any State or States constitutional nor a statutory body. Planning commission
on one side and one or more other States on the other has been replaced by new institution namely NITI Aayog.
· between two or more States. 182. (c) The Committee on Public Undertakings examines the
173. (c) All doubts and disputes arising out of or in reports of the Comptroller & Auditor General on public
connection with the election of a President or Vice- undertakings.
President shall be inquired into and decided by the 183. (d) Political Theory deals with the study of political
Supreme Court whose decision shall be final (Article 71(a)). institutions as well as with theories of state, law, liberty,
174. (d) The Constitution empowers Parliament of India to equality and representation.
make laws on the matters reserved for States (States List). 184. (b) The subject matter of the motion must have a direct
However, this can only be done if Rajya Sabha first passes or indirect relation to the conduct or default on the part of
the Union Government and must precisely pinpoint the
a resolution by two-thirds supermajority granting such a
failure of the Government of India in the performance of
power to the Union Parliament. The union government
its duties in accordance with the provisions of the
cannot make a law on a matter reserved for states without
Constitution and Law.
an authorisation from Rajya Sabha.So the House of People
185. (a) The main functions of the Committee are to consider
does not have special powers with respect to the state
all matters concerning the welfare of the Scheduled Castes
list.
and Scheduled Tribes, falling within the purview of the
175. (c) The Vice-President is elected by an Electoral College,
Union Government and the Union Territories, to consider
which consists of the members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya
the reports submitted by the National Commission for
Sabha (both elected and nominated members).
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and to examine
176. (a) According to the preamble of Indian Constitution,
the measures taken by the Union Government to secure
India is aSovereign, Socialist, Secular and Democratic
republic. Capitalism and free trade is not enshrined in the due representation of the Scheduled Castes and
preamble of the Indian constitution. Scheduled Tribes in services and posts under its control.
177. (b) According to Article 219 of Indian Constitution (Oath 186. (b) The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is
or affirmation by Judges of High Courts) every person appointed by the President of India. CAG is an authority
appointed to be a Judge of a High Court shall, before he that was established by the Constitution of India under
enters upon his office, make and subscribe before the article 148. Report of CAG of Union Accounts to be
Governor of the State, or some person appointed in that submitted to President who causes them to be laid before
behalf by him, an oath or affirmation according to the form each house of parliament.
set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule. 187. (d) Cabinet collective responsibility is a tradition in
178. (a) The Rajinder Sachar Committeewas appointed in 2005 parliamentary governments in which the prime minister is
by the then Indian Prime Minister Manmohan Singh to responsible for appointing the cabinet ministers. It is the
prepare a report on the latest social, economic and Prime Minister who enforces collective responsibility
educational condition of the Muslim community of India. amongst the Ministers through his ultimate power to
Srikrishna Commission was constituted by the Government dismiss a Minister. No person shall be nominated to the
of Maharashtra for investigating the causes of the Bombay cabinet except on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Riots. Secondly, no person shall be retained as a Member of the
Ranganath Misra Commission was constituted by the Cabinet if the Prime Minister says that he should be
Government of India on 29 October 2004 to look into dismissed. In India, a Motion of No Confidence can be
various issues related to Linguistic and Religious introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
minorities in India. 188. (c) The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a committee
Nanavati commission was established by the Indian of selected members of Parliament, constituted by the
Government in 2000 to investigate the 1984 anti-Sikh riots. Parliament of India, for the auditing of the expenditure of
179. (d) The constitution of India does not specifically the Government of India. Its chief function is to examine
mention the freedom of press. Freedom of press is implied the audit report of Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
from the Article 19(a)(a) of the Constitution. after it is laid in the Parliament.
Polity 209
189. (d) All statements are true. Citizenship is covered in Part be regulated in such States by Parliament by law.
II of the Indian constitution (articles 5-11). Article 253- Legislation for giving effect to international
190. (c) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the vice- agreements notwithstanding anything in the foregoing
presiding officer of the Lok Sabha.He/She is elected from provisions of this Chapter, Parliament has power to make
amongst the members. It acquired a more prominent any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India
position after 1950. He holds office till either he ceases to for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with
be a member of the Lok Sabha or he himself resigns. any other country or countries or any decision made at
191. (c) Article 111 of the Indian constitution stipulates that any international conference, association or other body.
the President shall give assent to a bill passed by both 198. (c) With the enactment of the 97th amendment to the
houses of the parliament or return the bill as soon as Constitution of India and its inclusion in Part IX of the
possible for reconsideration with his recommendation. Constitution, formation of cooperative societies has
192. (d) The Cabinet mission arrived on March 24, 1946. The become one of the fundamental rights of an Indian citizen.
objective of this mission was to: Cooperative societies have thus come under the ambit of
· Devise a machinery to draw up the constitution of The Right to Information Act. Cooperative societies
Independent India. normally include cooperative banks, credit societies, sugar
· Make arrangements for interim Government. factories, distilleries, handloom-power loom factories,
· Thus the mission was like a declaration of India's distilleries, milk producing societies, water supply
independence. societies etc.
· British Government was to supervise the affairs of 199. (a) The Constitution of India was drafted by the
the constituent Assembly, was not the aim of the mission. constituent assembly and it was set up under the cabinet
193. (c) In recognizing a parliamentary party or group, the Mission plan on 16 May 1946. Dr. Rajendra Prasad then
speaker shall take into consideration the following became the President of the Constituent Assembly.
principles: Tiruvellore Thattai Krishnamachari was a member of
An association of members who propose to form a drafting committee. Harendra Coomar Mookerjee was the
parliamentary party: Vice-president of the Constituent Assembly of India for
1. Shall have an association of members who have a drafting the Constitution of India. Bhimrao Ambedkar was
distinct programme of parliamentary work appointed Chairman of the Constitution Drafting
2. Shall have an organization both inside and outside Committee.
the house 200. (d) The Committee on Empowerment of Women was
3. Shall have at least a strength equal to the quorum constituted on 29th April 1997. The Committee consists
fixed to constitute a sitting of the house i.e one tenth of of 30 Members of whom 20 are nominated by the Speaker
the total number of members of the house. from amongst the Members of Lok Sabha and 10 are
194. (b) According to article 112,the President shall in respect nominated by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha from amongst
of every financial year cause to be laid before both the the Members of the Rajya Sabha. A Minister cannot be
Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts nominated a Member of the Committee. The term of the
and expenditure of the Government of India for that year, Committee does not exceed one year. One of the functions
in this Part referred to as the annual financial statement. of the committee is to report on the working of the welfare
195. (a) Article 2- (Admission or establishment of new States) programmes for the women.
Parliament may by law admit into the Union, or establish 201. (b) Democracy is a form of government that allows people
new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit. to choose their rulers. In a democracy only leaders elected
Article 3- Formation of new States and alteration of areas, by the people can rule the country. A democracy must be
boundaries or names of existing States. based on a free and fair election where those currently in
Amendment in the First and Fourth schedule can be done power have a fair chance of losing. Each adult citizen must
through constitution amendment bill. have one vote and each vote must have one value.
196. (a) Article 79- There shall be a Parliament for the Union 202. (b) Article 108 of the Constitution empowers the President
which shall consist of the President and two Houses to to summon a joint session of both houses "for the purpose
be known respectively as the council of States and the of deliberating and voting on the Bill". In India, if a bill has
House of the People. been rejected by any house of the parliament and if more
Article 54 - The President shall be elected by the members than six months have elapsed, the President may summon
of an electoral college consisting of the elected members a joint session for purpose of passing the bill. If at the joint
of both Houses of Parliament; and the elected members of sitting the Bill is passed with or without amendments with
the Legislative Assemblies of the States. a majority of total number of members of the two Houses
197. (d) Article 248- Parliament has exclusive power to make present and voting, it shall be deemed to be passed by
any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the both the Houses. It is not frequently restored to establish
Concurrent List or State List. the supremacy of the Lok Sabha.
Article 252- If it appears to the Legislatures of two or more 203. (b) On 29 August 1947, the Drafting Committee was
States to be desirable that any of the matters with respect appointed with Dr B. R. Ambedkar as the Chairman along
to which Parliament has no power to make laws for the with six other members assisted by a constitutional
States except as provided in Articles 249 and 250 should advisor. These members were Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant,
EBD_7341
210 Polity
K M Munshi, Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, N Gopala swami 215. (b) Popular participation is unmediated; the people are
Ayengar, B L Mitter and Md. Saadullah. A Draft the government, there is no separate elite or ruling-class
Constitution was prepared by the committee and between the government and their people. This is an
submitted to the Assembly on 4 November 1947.This is indirect and limited form of democracy where the people
Ambedkar's second argument rested on the legitimacy of choose who shall make decisions on their behalf. In the
the democratic system. responsible democracy, the government is responsible
204. (c) The recommendation of the president is required for first to the parliament's lower house, which is more
introduction of money bills or for moving amendments to numerous, directly elected and thus more representative
acts relating to financial matters, except those making than the upper house. The people vote for their
provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax. So, for representative who speaks on behalf of their constituents.
option (c) president's recommendation is not required. 216. (d) Any act done under martial law cannot be validated
205. (b) 73 rd constitution amendment is applicable to all by parliament by law.
states except Jammu & Kashmir. 217. (a) Dual Citizenship is not found in the Indian political
206. (b) Ministry of Defence comprises of four Departments system. The Indian Constitution does not allow dual
as Department of Defence (DOD), Department of Defence citizenship. Automatic loss of Indian citizenship covered
Production (DDP), Defence Research & Development in Section 9(1) of the Citizenship act 1955, provides that
organisation (DRDO) and Department of Ex-Servicemen any citizen of India who by naturalisation or registration
Welfare (DESW). acquires the citizenship of another country shall cease
207. (b) Three Election Commissioners in the each State shall to be a citizen of India. Indian Government has started
be appointed by the Governor of the respective State from OCI (Overseas citizen of India) Scheme in 2005.According
a penal of five names for each office forwarded by the to the scheme if you are already a Person of Indian origin
Election Commission of Bharatto the provision of the (POI) and have taken up citizenship abroad, you can take
Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992 and the up benefits of OCI scheme, which gives you the same
Constitution (Seventy-fourth Amendment) Act, 1992, travel and residence privileges like other Indians but you
whereunder the constitution of State Election Commissions are not allowed to vote and take up jobs in Government
and appointment of State Election Commissioners are sector.
contemplated to superintend, direct and control the 218. (d) Under Article 226,a High Court can issue these writs
preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of not only for the purpose of enforcement of the
elections to Panchayats and Municipalities. Election fundamental rights but also for the redress of any other
Commissioner of a State can be removed by the Full Bench injury or illegality, owing to contravention of the ordinary
of State Judicial Commission on the basis of enquiry and law.
investigation made by a judicial committee constituted for 219. (c) It does not permit the OCI to vote in general election
the purpose, consisting of two Chief Justices and one Judge in India. On the occasion of first Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas
from different High Courts. on 9th January 2003, former Prime Minister AtalBihari
208. (c) Every state in India does not have a separate High Vajpayee had made an announcement for grant of dual
Court .The constitution provides that parliament may by citizenship to PIOs. The necessary Legislation was
law establish a common High Court for two or more states introduced by the Government of India in Parliament in
and a Union Territory. May 2003.
209. (a) The Panel has dismissed the tendulkar committee report. 220. (c) The power to decide the date of an election a state
210. (c) legislative assembly rests with the election commission of India.
211. (a) Kesavananda Bharati. v. State of Kerala is a landmark 221. (a) Option (a) is not correct. Under Article 72 of the
decision of the Supreme Court of India that outlined the Indian Constitution the Indian President is empowered
Basic Structure doctrine of the Constitution Upholding to grant pardon, he can reprieve, respite or remit the
the validity of clause (4) of article 13 and a corresponding punishment in all cases where the punishment or sentence
provision in article 368(3) inserted by the 24th is by a court martial.
Amendment. The Court settled in favour of the view that 222. (b) Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha aspired to spread
Parliament has the power to amend the Fundamental the philosophy of revolution among students.
Rights also. 223. (b) Tribal areas generally mean areas having
212. (c) The Ninth Schedule was added by the 1 st preponderance of tribal population. However, the
Amendment 1951 to protect the laws included in it from Constitution of India refers tribal areas within the States
judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura & Mizoram, as those areas
rights.However in 2007 Supreme Court ruled that the laws specified in Parts I, II, IIA & III of the table appended to
included in it after 24 April 1973 are now open to judicial paragraph 20 of the Sixth Schedule.
review. 224. (a) A Bill shall be deemed to be a money Bill if it contains
213. (a) Members of Armed Forces are not treated at par so the following matters
far as the availability of Fundamental Rights is concerned. (I) The imposition abolition, remission, alteration or
214. (c) Notification regarding commencement or cessation regulation of any tax
of a state of war is the responsibility of Ministry of External (II) The regulation of the borrowing of money or the
Affairs. giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or
Polity 211
the amendment of the law with respect to any financial 235. (a) Article 22 of the Constitution of India states that no
obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the protection against arrest and detention is available to
Government of India. enemy of foreign state or a person detained under
(III) The custody of the consolidated fund or the preventive detention law.
contigency Fund of India, The payment of money into or 236. (b)
withdrawal of money from any such fund. (i) Morality, health and other provisions relating to
225. (a) Hindi wrtten in Devanagari script is to be the official fundamental rights.
language of the Union. However, for the period of fifteen (ii) Regulate or religious practice: and
years from the commencement of the constitution (i.e., (ii) Provide for social welfare and reform or throw open
from 1950 to 1965), the English language would continue Hindu religious institutions for public character to all
to be used for all the official purposes of the union for classes and sections of Hindus.
which it was used before 1950. Even after fifteen years, 237. (b) Equality before law and protection of life and
parliment many provide for the continued use of English personal liberty are available to non citizens by
language for the specific purposes. fundamental Rights of Indian Constitution.
226. (b) After the general election and newly formed 238. (d) The formation of the Constituent Assembly includes
government, the legislative section prepares a list of senior the following facts-
Lok Sabha member (MPs), This list is submitted to the (i) On the basis of the provincial election of 1946, the
minister of parliamentary affairs through this process a members of the Constituent Assembly were choosen.
pro tem Speaker is seleced and is approved by the (ii) Opinions were invited from the public to evolve a
President. sense of mass participation.
227. (a) Leader Party 239. (c) The Government of Indfia Act 1935 and the abolition
Shyama Prasad Mukherjee - Bhartiya Jana Sangh of Privy council Jurisdiction Act 1949. were repealed by
Minoo Masani - Swatantra Party the Constitution of India. It took place due to out of use
S.A. Dange - Communist Party of in free India.
India 240. (c) Habeas Corpus is a legal remedy to provide relief to
Ashok Mehta - Praja Socialist Party detaines from unlawful imprisonment.
228. (d) There is no provison in the Constitution of India to 241. (b) Citizenship Act of India (amendment 2015) entitles
give official status to a particular religion. the NRI to vote in elections in India.
229. (c) The Part IV of the Constitution of India provides 242. (d) Under Article 82 of the constitution, after every
the Directive Principle of State Policy. This policy has census, the delimitation commission demarcates the
the following categories- social justice, economic welfare, boundary of parliamentary constituency on the basis of
foreign policy, legal and administrative matters. Delimitation Act.
230. (d) Realists believe in self assistance. They think that 243. (c) The fourteenth finance commission wants the states
no other country may be trusted for the survival. to share a larger fiscal responsibility for the
231. (c) Immanuel Kant (22 April, 1724 - 12 Feb 1804), a great implementation of the scheme.
German philosopher proposed the theory of perpetual 244. (b) India has signed a Memorandum of Understanding
peace containing following points:- (MoU) with China in Beijing on October 2013 for
(i) No standing army existance. strengthening cooperation on Trans-border Rivers.
(ii) No any independent state will be interfered with any 245. (d) Constitutional bodies are formed by the constitution
other dominion state. which helps the government to run properly.
(iii) No state will be interfered by another state 246. (d) Uzbekistan in not a member of the Eurasian Economic
constitutionally. Union.
(iv) Existance of universal peace policy. 247. (c) BRICS Leaders signed to set up a Development Bank at
232. (d) The Bill may be introduced in either house of Parliament the 6th BRICS summit held in Fortaleza, Brazil, (15th July 2014).
to form a new state. It needs a Prior Permission of the 248. (d) In year 2003, by an amendment in constitution the
President before introduction of the Bill. category of 'Overseas Citizen of India' was entered in the
Moreover, the Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that Citizenship Act of India.
laws made for admission or establishment of new states 249. (a) In 2002, through the 86th amendement act, the Right
(under Article 2) and formation of new states and to Education was added to the Fundamental Rights.
alternation of areas, boundaries or names of existing 250. (c) Assam Province was created in the year (1911) when
states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as eleven districts comprising it were separated from the Lt.
amendments of the Constitution under Article 368. Governorship of Bengal and established as an independent
233. (b) During the period of 1814-1850, commodities such as administration under a chief commissioner.
251. (d) The rights of Indian President-
cotton, opium and raw silk were exported from British India.
(i) To address the Council of Ministers
Indigo was not dominately exported during that time.
(ii) To send message to the Council of Ministers.
234. (c) Generally citizenship is terminated due to possession
(iii) To Call for information regarding proposals of Legislation.
of citizenship of any foreign state. The parliament has
(iv) The president will receive all decisions of the council
power about acquisition and termination of citizenship
of Ministers concerned with administration of the Union.
of a person.
EBD_7341
212 Polity
252. (b) In the Case of Danial Latifi Vs. Union of India, the court by the President from among persons who have achieved
decision gave. The extension to the right of a muslim woman distinction in literature, art, science and social services.
to get maintenance till she gets remarriage. 268. (b) The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha only. On
253. (c) The third five year plan (1961-1966) had no objective the other hand, President can nominate 12 member in Rajya
to increase wheat production and other agricultural Sabha.
products. 269. (a)
254. (d) The National policy for children 2013 states - Ranking of States and 2011
(i) a child is any person below 18 years old. Union Territories by
(ii) Childhood is an integral part of life. populations
(iii) Every child is unique and important national asset. India/State/Union Population 2011
(iv) All Children have the right to grow in a family environment. Territory
255. (b) A MP elected from a particular party does not become
Kerala 3,33,87,677
disqualified for a member of a house, when he is expelled
by that particular party. Jharkhand 3,29,66,238
256. (a) The recognized languages in the 8th Schedule of the Assam 3,11,69,272
constitution - Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Punjab 2,77,04,236
Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam,
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Manipuri, Marathi, Nepalli, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit,
Earthquakes occur at places where 2 tectonic plates
Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu & Urdu.
interact. These can be convergent boundaries, Divergent
257. (c) Misl was confederation of 12 sovereign states of the
sikh confederacy. They were - Phulkian, Ahluwalia, Bhangi, boundaries or transform faults.
Kanheya, Ramgarhia, Singhpuria, Panjgarhia, Nishanwalia, Intensity of earthquake decreases with distance from the
Sukerchakia, Dallewalia, Nakai and Shaheedan. epicenter.
258. (a) Article 44 of the constitution states about the existence 270. (a) The Government of India Act, 1935 and The Indian
of uniform civil code for all citizens in the country. Independence Act, 1947, together with all enactments
Each High court has power to issue to any person within amending or supplementing the latter act, but not
it jurisdiction, orders different writs including habeas including the abolition of Privy Council jurisdiction act,
corpus, mandamus, prohibition quo-warranto and certiorari. 1949 are hereby repealed by Article 395 of the Constitution
Supreme Court of India was established on January 28, of India.
1950. It is the highest Judicial forum. 271. (b) The constitution came into force on 26 January 1950,
259. (c) The sixth schedule to the constitution of India deals but some provisions relating to Citizenship, Elections,
with Autonomous District Councils (ADCs). provisional parliament, temporary & transitional
260. (a) The CAG is an authority, established by the provisions were given immediate effect on 26 November
constitution. Who audits all receipts and expenditure of 1949.
the Government of India and the State Governments. 272. (d) The members of the Constituent assembly were
261. (b) On 29th December, 2006 the Scheduled Tribes and indirectly elected by the members of the provincial
other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest assemblies by method of single transferable vote system
Rights) Act came into force. of proportional representations. The membership plan was
262. (a) The principle of 'Rarest of Rare' has been laid down roughly as per suggestions of the Cabinet Mission plan.
by the top court in the landmark judgement in Bachan The basis of divisions of seats was "population" roughly
Singh versus State of Punjab in 1980. in 1:10 Lakh ratio.
263. (d) The speaker has the authority to discharge the 273. (c) In 1872 the first census was conducted in India in
functions of his office in his whole term but can't delegate different parts. The first All India census was conducted
his functions to the Deputy Speaker during his absence. in the year 1881 and since then it is a decennial regular
The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be removed by passing a event.
resolution in Lok Sabha with an absolute majority, that is, 274. (a) The process of judicial scrutiny of legislative acts is
majority of votes of the total members in the house. called Judicial Review. If law passed by parliament violates
264. (a) The Second Administrative Reforms Commission any provision of the constitution, the Supreme Court has
(2005) was setup by the Government of India as a the power to declare such a law invalid.
committee of inquiry to prepare a detailed blueprint for The Supreme Court held the view in Kesavananda Bharti
revamping the public administration system. case that Article 368 did not enable Parliament to alter the
265. (a) A Writ of prohibition is issued primarily to prevent basic structure or framework of the Constitution.
an inferior court from exceeding its jurisdiction, or acting Parliament could not use its amending powers under
contrary to the rule of natural justice. The writ lies only Article368 to 'alter' the 'basic structure' or framework of
against a body exercising public functions of a judicial or the constitution.
quasi-judicial character. 275. (c) Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) is
266. (c) Vishwanath Pratap Singh, H.D. Deve Gowda, Atal available to foreigners and Citizens both.
Bihari Vajpayee were defeated by a vote of 'no confidence'. 276. (c) The citizenship cannot be deprived merely on the
267. (a) The Constitution lays down 250 as the maximum ground of marriage with a foreigner and criticizing the
strength of the Rajya Sabha, out of which 12 are nominated Government.
Polity 213
277. (a) form associations or unions; to move freely throughout
278. (d) Only the fundamental rights guaranteed by the the territory of India; to reside in any part of India; to
constitution can be enforced under Article-32 and not practice any profession, or to carry on any , trade or
any other rights. business.
279. (a) Habeas Corpus- The court can order a person who 290. (c) Exchange of territories between India and Bangladesh
has detained another person to produce the body of the took place by passing of the Constitution (119th
latter before it. Amendment) Bill by the Parliament of India on 7th May
280. (d) The fundamental duties include to abide by the 2015. The bill proposed to amend the 1st schedule of the
Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the constitution to exchange the disputed territories occupied
by both the nations in accordance with the India-
National Flag and the National Anthem; to uphold and protect
Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement-1974.
the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; to defend the
The bill now after the assent of the President entered in to
country and render national service when called upon to do the statue book as Constitution 100th Amendment Act
so; to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as 2015.
the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen 291. (b) Goods and Services Tax (GST) will replace all central
years. and state taxes by a single tax. Petroleum products like
281. (a) Under Article 352 of the constitution of India a kerosene, naphtha and LPG will be under GST, while five
Proclamation of Emergency can be declared if security of items, including crude oil, natural gas, aviation fuel, diesel
India or any territory is threatened by war or by external and petrol have been excluded. Alcohol for human
aggression or by armed rebellion. consumption will be out of GST.
282. (c) The aggrieved wife or female may also file a complaint 292. (a) The Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Bill, 2015
against a relative of the husband or the male partner with is an amendment of the Haryana Panchayati Raj Act, 1994.
whom the woman has lived in a domestic relationship. The minimum eligibility of a candidate for contesting
283. (c) Article 17 of the constitution of India deals with election are: having a functional toilet at home, having
untouchability and enforcement of any disability arising power bills payment slips, should not be a cooperative
out of Untouchability is an offence punishable in loan defaulter, and having minimum matriculation degree
accordance with law. The protection of civil rights act, for people in the general category, middle standard or
1955 deals with punishment for the preaching and practice class 8th passed for the women (general) and Scheduled
of untouchability and for matters connected with it. The caste candidates, and class V passed for women SC
scheduled castes and the scheduled tribes (prevention of candidates.
atrocities) act, 1989 forbids any atrocities against them 293. (a) Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 to
and any offence under this act is punishable. study balance of power between Indian states and central
284. (d) The power to issue writs including Habeas Corpus, governments. The Eleventh Finance Commission was
Mandamus, Quo Warrento, Certiorari, and Prohibition for constituted by the President on July 3, 1998 to make
the protection of the fundamental rights of the citizen is recommendations on several things like Chapter I of Part
not exclusive to Supreme Court. The high courts are also XII of the Constitution. Second Administrative Reforms
empowered to issue writs in these cases. The Citizens can Commission was constituted on 31 August 2005 to reform
approach either the high court or directly to Supreme Court. the public administrative system. Punchhi Commission
285. (a) The Sixth Schedule of the constitution of India was constituted on April 28, 2007.
pertains to administration of tribal areas in states of 294. (c) Panchayati system functions as a system of
Tripura,Meghalaya,Mizoram and Assam. governance in India in which gram panchayats acts as
286. (b) Article 31-B was inserted by the First Constitutional basic units of local administration. A village with
population of 1500 and more forms Gram Sabha. Article
(Amendment) Act 1951 which states that without
243G, empower State legislatures to provide Panchayats
prejudiced to the generality of the provisions contained
with powers and authority to enable them to function.
in Article 31-A, none of the Acts and Regulations specified
Seats in a Panchayat are filled by persons chosen by
in the Ninth Schedule of the constitution of India nor any
direct election from territorial constituencies in the
of the provisions thereof shall be deemed to be void.
Panchayat area.
287. (a) Article 327 empowers the Parliament to make 295. (b) Part XI of the Indian constitution mentions
provision from time to time with respect to all matters distribution of power between the federal government
relating to, or in connection with, elections to either house (the Centre) and the states in India. Parliament can make
of parliament or to the house or either house of the laws to alter the boundaries of states. India does not
legislature of a state including the delimitation of recognize dual citizenship.
constituencies. 296. (a) The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial
As per article 329 of the constitution of India no election body in India and exercises extensive powers in the form
to either house of parliament or to the house or either of original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions. It has
house of the legislature of a state shall be called in question jurisdiction to solve conflicts between the central and
except by an election petition presented to authority. state governments and enjoys power to pass decree or
288. (b) The commission presents an annual report to the make order to do justice. It has special advisory
President. The president places all such reports before jurisdiction in matters which may specifically be send to
the Parliament. it by the President.
289. (b) Under the Right to Freedom all citizens have the right 297. (a) Provincial elections in British India (1937) under the
to freedom of speech and expression; to assemble; to Government of India Act 1935 were held in eleven
EBD_7341
214 Polity
provinces, including Madras, Bihar, Orissa. Indian 306. (d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are a set of
National Congress won in eight of the provinces. The guidelines for central and state governments of India for
All-India Muslim League won 106 seats (about 80% of framing laws and policies. These are contained in Part IV
total Muslim seats). Untouchables were allowed to vote. (Article 36-51) in Indian Constitution, and though not
Around 30.1 million people, including 4.25 million women, enforceable, the principles, are fundamental in the
had the right to vote. governance of the country. They aim to promote social
298. (c) The President of India is the head of the executive of and economic democracy through a welfare state.
the Union Government and all executive powers are 307. (a) Vice-President is elected by an Electoral College, which
exercised by him/her either directly or through the consists of the members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
subordinate officers. President can appoint the important (both elected and nominated members). He/she is the ex
officers in Central Government including the Attorney- officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. The qualification
General for India. The supreme commander of all the for getting elected as Vice president is that he/she should
defense services is the President. be more than 35 years of age and should not hold any
299. (b) Supreme Court of India has ruled that it is the violation office of profit.
of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution if an under-trial 308. (a) All doubts and disputes arising related to the
prisoner is held in custody for long period, and such election of a President or Vice-President are inquired into
prisoner has the right to get bail. Article 21 also ensures and decided by the Supreme Court and its decision is
woman’s right to make reproductive choices and is treated final. If the election of a person as President or
considered as personal liberty of women. Vice-President is declared null by the Supreme Court,
300. (a) Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education any acts by him/her in the exercise of powers and duties
(RTE) Act, 2009 was enacted on 4 August 2009, which as President or Vice-President shall not be invalidated.
focuses on free and compulsory education for children 309. (b) Rajasthan is the first state to brought minimum
between 6 and 14, quality of education, no discrimination qualification of Class X for contesting the zilla parishad or
in education based on socio-economic and cultural panchayat samiti polls, Class VIII to contest sarpanch
background, schools with qualified teachers with basic elections, and Class V for scheduled areas. The minimum
infrastructure, standards relating to pupil teacher ratios, education qualification set by the Haryana law to contest
etc. panchayat polls is Class X for general candidates, Class
301. (a) Freedom to manage religious affairs under Constitution VIII pass for women and Dalits, Class V for Dalit women.
of India ensures establishing and maintaining institutions 310. (b) Delegation means conferring of specified authority
for religious and charitable purposes, managing its own by a lower authority to a higher one. It is a method of
affairs in religious matters, own and acquire movable and dividing authority in the organization.
immovable property, and administering such property in 311. (c) Rule of Law and Parliamentary system are borrowed
accordance with law. features of Constitution of India from British Constitution.
302. (c) Protection against arrest and detention of Feature of Independence of Judiciary is taken from US
individuals under Article 22 ensures that every person Constitution. Law making procedure has been borrowed
who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced from Japan.
before the nearest magistrate within a period of twenty- 312. (d) The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides
four hours of such arrest excluding the time taken for the for allocation of seats to the States and Union Territories
journey from the place of arrest to the court of the in Rajya Sabha. The allocation of seats is made on the
magistrate. basis of the population of each State. Consequent on
303. (c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has considered Consumer the reorganization of States and formation of new States,
Price Index (CPI), a measure of changes in the price level the number of elected seats in the Rajya Sabha allotted
of the market of consumer goods, as the new parameter to to States and Union Territories has changed from time to
measure of inflation in India. Earlier, RBI had given more time since 1952.
importance to Wholesale Price Index (WPI) than CPI as 313. (a) During a national emergency, many Fundamental
the key to measure inflation. NASDAQ is a stock market Rights of Indian citizens can be suspended. The six
index of the common stocks and securities. BSE Index is a freedoms under Right to Freedom are automatically
stock market index of companies listed on Bombay Stock suspended. By contrast, the Right to Life and Personal
Exchange. Liberty cannot be suspended according to the original
304. (a) Preamble is a brief introductory statement to the Constitution.
Constitution of India which sets out the guiding purpose and 314. (*)
principles of the document, and it indicates the source from 315. (c) A joint sitting of parliament is resorted to for resolving
which the document derives its authority, meaning, the people. the deadlock between two houses of the parliament for
Preamble is not an integral part of the Indian passing of only Ordinary Bill and Finance Bill , not for
constitution and therefore it is not enforceable in a court of law. Constitution amendment and Money Bill.
305. (c) The Cultural and Educational Rights is guaranteed 316. (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy are meant for
under articles 29 and 30 of Indian constitution guarantees. promoting social and economic democracy in India. The
Article 30 mentions that all minority communities have Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the constitution
the right to establish and administer educational of India are ordinarily subject to reasonable restrictions.
institutions of their choice and that the state shall not 317. (c) The President is elected by the members of an
discriminate on the grounds of religion or language while electoral college consisting of the elected members of
granting aid to educational institutions.
Polity 215
both the Houses of Parliament and the elected members Constitutional Amendment Bill 2011. But he failed to make
of the Legislative Assemblies of States and the Union consensus between Centre and State. Since its first day,
Territories of Delhi and Pondicherry. the BJP led NDA government trying to push the biggest
318. (c) 1,2 and 3 are correct. tax reform since 1947. In the Union budget also Union
319. (d) Article 21 of the Constitution of India, 1950 provides Finance Minister repeated the importance of GST. The
that, “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal States do not have the powers to levy a tax on supply of
liberty except according to procedure established by law.” services while the Centre does not have power to levy tax
320. (c) The Drafting Committee had seven members: Alladi on the sale of goods. Thus, the Constitution does not
Krishnaswami Ayyar, N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar ; B.R. vest express power either in the Central or State
Ambedkar, K.M Munshi, Mohammad Saadulla, B.L. Mitter Government to levy a tax on the ‘supply of goods and
and D.P. Khaitan. B N Rau was the Constitutional Advisor. services’. Moreover, the Constitution also does not
321. (b) In the formula given by the Fourteen Finance empower the States to impose tax on imports. Therefore, it
Commission, income inequality in the states got 50% is essential to have Constitutional Amendments for
weightage in the tax distribution and population got empowering the Centre to levy tax on sale of goods and
17.5% weightage. ‘Forest cover’ was assigned 7.5% States for levy of service tax and tax on imports and other
weightage, ‘area’ 15 per cent weightage and tax effort got consequential issues. As part of the exercise on
10% weightage. Constitutional Amendment, there would be a special
322. (a) A Money Bill after having been passed by the Lok attention to the formulation of a mechanism for upholding
Sabha, and sent to Rajya Sabha for its recommendations, the need for a harmonious structure for GST along with
has to be returned to Lok Sabha by the Rajya Sabha, with in the concern for the powers of the Centre and the States in
a period of fourteen days from the date of its receipt, with or a federal structure. Thus the Constitution of India has
without recommendations. been amended by the Constitution (one hundred and first
323. (b) The Constitution of India through Article 311, thus amendment) Act, 2016 recently for this purpose. Article
protects and safeguards the rights of civil servants in 246Aof the Constitution empowers the Centre and the
Government service against arbitrary dismissal, removal States to levy and collect the GST.
and reduction in rank. Such protection enables the civil 331. (d) All are correct.
servants to discharge their functions boldly, efficiently 332. (b) A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as,
and effectively. and for being, a member of either House of Parliament-(a) if
324. (b) “Habeas Corpus” is a Latin term which literally means he holds any office of profit under the Government of India
“you may have the body.” The writ is issued to produce or the Government of any State, other than an office declared
a person who has been detained , whether in prison or in by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder; (b) if he is
private custody, before a court and to release him if such of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent
detention is found illegal. court; (c) if he is an undischarged insolvent; (d) if he is not
325. (c) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship
Financial Statement. of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of
326. (c) The National Commission for Women was set up as allegiance or adherence to a foreign State; (e) if he is so
statutory body in January 1992 under the National disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament. A
Commission for Women Act, 1990 ( Act No. 20 of 1990 of person shall be disqualified for being a member of either
Govt.of India) to review the Constitutional and legal House of Parliament if he is so disqualified under the Tenth
safeguards for women; recommend remedial legislative Schedule.
measures, facilitate redressal of grievances and advise 333. (c) According to the Election Commission of India, in
the Government on all policy matters affecting women. order to be recognized as a 'National Party', a political
327. (d) In August 1985, P N Bhagwati became Chief Justice party must be treated as a recognized political party in
of India. As a supreme court judge, Bhagwati introduced atleast four States. The other two conditions are: Secure
the concepts of public interest litigation and absolute at least 6% of the valid vote in an Assembly or a Lok
liability to the Indian judicial system. Sabha General Election in any four or more states and won at
328. (a) The Parliament can create new All-India Services least 4 seats in a Lok Sabha General Election from any State
(including an All-India Judicial Service), if the Rajya Sabha or States; Win at least 2% of the total Lok Sabha seats in a
passes a resolution declaring that it is necessary or expedient Lok Sabha General Election and these seats have to be won
in the national interest to do so. from at least 3 states.
329. (d) If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation 334. (a) Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed
has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of
State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency total number of members of the House of the People or
in the State. Legislative Assembly in the States.
330. (a) The constitutional bill was presented by Union 335. (c) The Attorney General of India is the Indian
Finance Minister on 19th November 2014 to facilitate easy government's chief legal advisor, and is primary lawyer in
implementation of GST Law. The idea about GST was the Supreme Court of India. He can be said to be the
first time initiated by former Union Finance Minister lawyer from government's side. He is appointed by the
P. Chidambaram. Under UPA Regime by introducing 115th President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution
EBD_7341
216 Polity
and holds office during the pleasure of the President. He has 341. (c) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) is a
right of audience in all courts within the territory of India. He method of providing feedback to voters using a ballot
has also the right to speak and take part in proceedings of less voting system. It is intended as an independent
both the houses of both the houses of parliament including verification system for voting machines designed to allow
joint sittings. But cannot vote in parliament. Further, he can voters to verify that their vote was cast correctly, to detect
also be made a member of any parliamentary committee but possible election fraud or malfunction, and to provide a
in the committee also, he has no power to vote. He has all the means to audit the stored electronic results. It contains
powers and privileges that of a member of parliament.. He name of the candidate (for whom vote has been casted)
must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the and symbol of the party/ individual candidate.
342. (b) Where the Governor takes a decision independently of
Supreme Court or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the
his Council of Ministers or where he acts as the Chief Executive
President and must be a citizen of India. He/She is not a full-
of the State under President’s rule, his actions are subject to
time counsel of the Government.
scrutiny by the Parliament. This statement is correct .
336. (b) Sikkim became a state of India via the Thirty-sixth 343. (b) Article 371B in The Constitution Of India 1949 provides
Amendment Act, 1975 on 26th April, 1975. The Sikkim special provision with respect to the State of Assam
State day is observed on 16th May of every year because Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, the President
this was the day when the first Chief Minister of Sikkim may, by order made with respect to the State of Assam,
assumed office. provide for the constitution and functions of a committee
337. (d) Article 1 of the Constituion of India uses the word of the Legislative Assembly of the State consisting of
"Union of states" instead of "federation of states" thus members of that Assembly elected from the tribal areas
states do not have right to secede. Jammu and kashmir specified in Part I of the table appended to paragraph 20 of
has its own Constitution as per article 370. No other state the Sixth Schedule and such number of other members of
has their own constitution. As per article 239AA of Indian that Assembly as may be specified in the order and for the
Constitution, number of Cabinet Ministers cannot exceed modifications to be made in the rules of procedure of that
ten percent of Delhi assembly seats. Assembly for the constitution and proper functioning of
338. (a) Total membership of legislative assembly varies such committee.
according to the state's population. Uttar Pradesh have 344. (b) Article 370 of the Indian constitution is an article
the highest membership- 403 followed by West Bengal- that gives autonomous status to the state of Jammu and
294 and Maharashtra- 288. Kashmir. The article is drafted in Part XXI of the
339. (d) The ordinance-making power of the governor under Constitution: Temporary, Transitional and Special
Article 214 is similar to that of the president under Article Provisions.
123. The governor can issue ordinance only when two 345. (d) Sixth Schedule, the four states viz. Assam,
conditions are fulfilled ; (a) the governor can only issue Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram contain the Tribal Areas
ordinances when the legislative assembly of a state both which are technically different from the Scheduled Areas.
houses in session or where there are two houses in a state Though these areas fall within the executive authority of
both houses are not in session. (b) the governor must be the state, provision has been made for the creation of the
satisfied that circumstance exist which render it necessary District Councils and regional councils for the exercise of
for him to take immediate action. The court cannot question the certain legislative and judicial powers.
the validity or the ordinance on the ground that there was 346. (a) If at any time the Governor is satisfied that an act or
no necessity or sufficient ground for issuing the ordinance resolution of a District or a Regional Council is likely to
by the governor. The existence of such necessity is not a endanger the safety of India _504[or is likely to be
justiciable discretionary. The exercise of ordinance-making prejudicial to public order], he may annul or suspend such
power is not discretionary. The governor exercises this act or resolution and take such steps as he may consider
power on the advice of the cabinet. It is not a discretionary necessary (including the suspension of the Council and
power and shall be exercised with aid and the advice of the assumption to himself of all or any of the powers
members. The Governor himself shall be competent to vested in or exercisable by the Council) to prevent the
withdraw the ordinance at any time. commission or continuance of such act, or the giving of
340. (d) There are nine core international human rights effect to such resolution.
treaties- International Convention on the Elimination of 347. (a) The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General
All Forms of Racial Discrimination (ICERD); International of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be
Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR); submitted to the president, who shall cause them to be
International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural laid before each House of Parliament.
Rights (ICESCR); Convention on the Elimination of All 348. (a) Diplomatic and military powers is related to the powers
Forms of Discrimination against Women; Convention of the President. It is not the power of Governor.
against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading 349. (b) Use of police force comes under state list so
Treatment or Punishment; Convention on the Rights of statement (b) is not correct.
the Child; International Convention on the Protection of 350. (d) The President appoints Regional Commissioners
the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their after consultation with the election commission to assist
Families; International Convention for the Protection of the election Commissioner.
All Persons from Enforced Disappearance; Convention 351. (d) Eligibility of a judge of the Supreme Court
on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities. A judge of one high court or more (continuously), for at
least five years, or.
Polity 217
An advocate there, for at least ten years, or. mentioned in the Constitution that is the manner same as
A distinguished jurist, in the opinion of the president, removal of a Supreme Court Judge. A Judge of SC may
power conferred by clause(2) of article 124 of the resign his office, by submitting his resignation letter to
Constitution of India. the President.
352. (c) To communicate to the President all decisions for 364. (d) Rajya Sabha in India’s Parliament has certain exclusive
the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of powers with respect to the following: Enable the parliament
the State in the monthly report is not the duties of the to make law on a matter of state list. Creation of new All
Chief Minister.
India Services. Enforcing proclamation of emergency when
353. (d) Legislature of States consist of (a) The Governor (b)
The Legislative Assembly (c) The Legislative Council. Lok Sabha is dissolved.
354. (d) The exercise of ordinance-making power is not 365. (c) The Constitution offers all citizens, individually and
discretionary. The governor exercises this power on the collectively, some basic freedoms. These are guaranteed in
advice of the cabinet. the Constitution in the form of six broad categories of
355. (b) Deccan Riots Commission was set up in 1878 to look Fundamental Rights, which are justiciable. Article 12 to 35
into the causes of the Deccan riots. In 1879, the contained in Part III of the Constitution deal with
Agriculturists Relief Act was passed which ensured that Fundamental Rights. These are:
the farmers could not be arrested and imprisoned if they Right to equality, including equality before law,
were unable to pay their debts. prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race,
356. (d) The writ of certiorari can be issued by the Supreme caste, sex or place of birth, and equality of opportunity
Court or any High Court for quashing the order already in matters of employment.
passed by an inferior court, tribunal or quasi-judicial Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly,
author-ity. association or union, movement, residence, and right to
357. (c) If the Supreme Court finds any law made by the practice any profession or occupation (some of these
Parliament inconsistent with the constitution, it has the rights are subject to security of the State, friendly relations
power to declare that law to be invalid. Thus, to preserve with foreign countries, public order, decency or morality).
the ideals and philosophy of the original constitution, the Right against exploitation, prohibiting all forms of forced
Supreme Court has laid down the basic structure doctrine. labour, child labour and traffic in human beings.
According to the doctrine, the Parliament cannot destroy Right to freedom of conscience and free profession,
or alter the basic structure of the doctrine. practice, and propagation of religion.
358. (a) Where a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, Right of any section of citizens to conserve their culture,
the President may by order declare that the right to move language or script, and right of minorities to establish and
any court for the enforcement of such of the rights administer educational institutions of their choice; and
conferred by Part 3 (fundamental rights) except Art 20 & Right to constitutional remedies for enforcement of
21 and all proceedings pending in any Court for the Fundamental Rights.
enforcement of the same shall remain suspended for the 366. (c) The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with
period during which the proclamation is in force. the administration and control of Scheduled Areas as
359. (b) Article 15 states Prohibition of discrimination on well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any State other
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. No than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, Mizoram.
place of birth or any of them, be subject to any disability, In the Article 244(1) of the Constitution, expression
liability, restriction or condition with regard to- (a) access Scheduled Areas means such areas as the President may
to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public by order declare to be Scheduled Areas.
entertainment; or (b) the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, The President may at any time by order direct that
roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or the whole or any specified part of a Scheduled Area shall
partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the cease to be a Scheduled Area or a part of such an area;
general public. increase the area of any Scheduled Area in a State after
360. (c) One third are elected by members of local bodies such consultation with the Governor of that State; alter, but only
as municipalities, gram sabhas/gram panchayats, by way of rectification of boundaries, any Scheduled Area;
panchayat samitis and Zila Parishads. on any alteration of the boundaries of a State on the
361. (a) The chairperson of a panchayat can be elected directly admission into the Union or the establishment of a new
or indirectly, as the legislature may provide. State, declare any territory not previously included in any
362. (c) Article 19 (1) (f) and 31 (2) have not been abolished State to be, or to form part of, a Scheduled Area; rescind, in
for this State and hence, properly still stands guaranteed relation to any State of States, any order or orders made
to the people of Jammu and Kashmir. under these provisions and in consultation with the
363. (d) President removal from office is to be in accordance Governor of the State concerned, make fresh orders
with procedure prescribed in Article 61 of the redefining the areas which are to be Scheduled Areas.
Constitution. He may, by writing under his hand 367. (c) The Fifth Amendment of the Constitution of India,
addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. officially known as The Constitution (Fifth Amendment)
Comptroller and Auditor General of India can be removed Act, 1955, empowered the President to prescribe a time
by the President only in accordance with the procedure limit for a State Legislature to convey its views on
EBD_7341
218 Polity
proposed Central laws relating to the formation of new 373. (b) Article 348 (1) of the Constitution of India provides
States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of that all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every
existing States.The amendment also permitted the President High court shall be in English Language until Parliament
to extend the prescribed limit, and prohibited any such bill by law otherwise provides.
from being introduced in Parliament until after the expiry 374. (d) All union cabinet members shall submit in writing to
of the prescribed or extended period. The 5th Amendment the President to propose proclamation of emergency by
re-enacted the proviso to Article 3 of the Constitution. the president in accordance with Article 352. According to
Under the proviso to Article 3 of the Constitution (relating the Constitution of India, the total number of ministers in
to formation of new States and alteration of areas, the council of ministers must not exceed 15% of the total
number of members of the Lok Sabha.
boundaries or names of existing States), no bill for the purpose
375. (d) The Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State
of forming a new state, increasing or decreasing the area of
Policy and Fundamental Duties are sections of the
any state or altering the boundaries or name of any state
Constitution of India that prescribe the fundamental
could be introduced in. obligations of the states to its citizens and the duties and
368. (b) The Governor of each State shall appoint a person the rights of the citizens to the State
who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and
Court to be Advocate General for the State. The Governor institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;
appoints the Advocate General of the state. The person To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our
who is appointed should be qualified to be appointed a national struggle for freedom;
judge of a high court. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity
The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is a procedural law of India.
related to the administration of civil proceedings in India. 376. (d) The word Quo Warranto literally means “under what
The Code is divided into two parts: the first part contains authority?” This kind of a writ is issued to ensure that the
158 sections and the second part contains the First person holding a public office to which he is not entitled.
Schedule, which has 51 Orders and Rules. The writ of quo-warranto is used to prevent illegal
The act clarified that the provisions of the Civil Procedure assumption of any public office or usurpation of any public
Code as amended by the Act would have an overriding office by anybody. The fundamental basis of the
effect over any rules of the High Court or of the proceeding of Quo Warranto is that the public has an
amendments made by the state government concerned. interest to see that an unlawful claimant does not usurp a
369. (c) A unitary system is governed constitutionally as one public office. For example, a person of 62 years has been
single unit, with one constitutionally created legislature. appointed to fill a public office whereas the retirement age
... In Unitary Constitution the provinces are subordinate is 60 years. Now, the appropriate High Court has a right to
to the centre, but in federal constitution, there is a division issue a writ of Quo Warranto against the person and declare
of powers between the federal and the state governments. the office vacant.
Quasi federal refers to government organized similar to a 377. (c) Annual financial statement. (1) The President shall in
respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both
union of states under a central government rather than the
the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated
individual governments of the separate states.
receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for
Quasi federal refers to a system of government where the
that year, in this Part referred to as the annual financial
distribution of powers between the centre and the state statement.
are not equal. India is a federation with a unitary bias and 378. (d) Salient Features of the Government of India Act 1935
is referred as a quasi federal state because of strong central were as follows:
machinery. States are also dependent on the centre for Abolition of provincial dyarchy and introduction of
resources. dyarchy at centre.
370. (a) 371A. Special provision with respect to the State of Abolition of Indian Council and introduction of an
Nagaland.—(1) Notwithstanding anything in this advisory body in its place.
Constitution,— Provision for an All India Federation with British India
No Act of Parliament in respect of— (i) religious or social territories and princely states.
practices of the Nagas, (ii) Naga customary law and Elaborate safeguards and protective instruments for minorities.
procedure, (iii) administration of civil and criminal justice Supremacy of British Parliament.
involving decisions according to Naga customary law, (iv) Increase in size of legislatures, extension of franchise,
ownership and transfer of land and its resources. division of subjects into three lists and retention of
371. (d) Originally five councils were created as per the States communal electorate.
Reorganization Act 1956 as follows: Northern Zonal Separation of Burma from India.
Council: Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, 379. (b) Functioning of Panchayat:
Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Implementing various initiatives to create clean, beautiful
Union Territory of Chandigarh. and green villages.
372. (c) Article 361 of the co situation of India extends protection Implementing Poverty Eradication initiatives through
to the president from legal liability. He enjoys personal Maharashtra Rajya Gramin Jivanonnati Abhiyan.
immunity legal liability for his official acts. During his term of Providing shelter and shelter related facilities under
office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings. Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awaas Yojana
Polity 219
Empowering Panchayati Raj System by empowering which may, prima facie, appear to have been infringed. It
public representatives under development program is possible very often to decide questions of fact on
through training. affidavits. If the petition and the affidavits in support
380. (a) Nominated Members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya thereof are not convincing and the Court is not satisfied
Sabha may also select works for implementation in one that the petitioner has established his fundamental right
or more districts, anywhere in the country. MPs can also or any breach thereof, the Court may dismiss the petition
recommend work of upto Rs. 25 lakhs per year outside
on the ground that the petitioner has not discharged the
their constituency or state of election to promote national
unity, harmony and fraternity. MPs can recommend work onus that lay on him.
of upto 25 lakh for Natural Calamity in the state and upto 386. (a) While concluding the debate in the constituent
Rs. 1 crore in the country in case of Calamity of Severe assemble, as chairperson of drafting committee,
Nature. Babasaheb had said that, “On the 26th of January 1950,
381. (a) An overseas elector is a person who is a citizen of we are going to enter into a life of contradictions. In
India and who has not acquired citizenship of any other politics we will have equality and in social and economic
country and is otherwise eligible to be registered as a life we will have inequality. In politics we will be
voter and who is absenting from his place of ordinary recognizing the principle of one man one vote and one
residence in India owing to his employment, education vote one value. In our social and economic life, we shall,
or otherwise is eligible to be registered as a voter in the by reason of our social and economic structure, continue
constituency in which his place of residence in India as to deny the principle of one man one value.
mentioned in his passport is located. According to the 387. (a) In India, the Supreme Court has original, appellate
provisions of Section 20A of the Representation of
and advisory jurisdiction.[1] Its exclusive original
People Act, 1950, an NRI settled in foreign land can
become an elector in electoral roll in India. jurisdiction extends to all cases between the Government
382. (b) The 86th amendment to constitution of India in 2002, of India and the States of India or between Government
provided right to education as a fundamental right in part- of India and states on one side and one or more states on
III of the Constitution. A new article 21A was inserted other side or cases between different states. Original
which made right to education a fundamental right for jurisdiction is related to cases which are directly brought
children between 6-14 years. to the Supreme Court Cases which require the
383. (a) Article 20 of the Indian Constitution provides protection interpretation of the constitution or cases relating to the
in respect of conviction for offences, and article 20(2) denial of fundamental rights are heard In the supreme
contains the rule against double jeopardy which says that court. In case there is a dispute between two or more
“no person shall be prosecuted or punished for the same states or between the union and the states, the Supreme
offence more than once.” The protection under clause (2) of Court decides such cases. In addition, Article 131 of the
Article 20 of Constitution of india. Constitution of India grants original jurisdiction to the
384. (c) Article 356 deals with imposition of President’s Rule
Supreme Court on all cases involving the enforcement of
over a State of India. When a state is under President’s
Rule, the elected state government (led by the Chief fundamental rights of citizens.
Minister and the Council of Ministers) is dismissed and 388. (b) Article-243 A. Gram Sabha. - A Gram Sabha may
Council of ministers is suspended at legislature, and exercise such powers and perform such functions at the
administration is conducted directly by the Governor of village level as the Legislature of a State fixing tenure of
the state. The Governor is an appointee of the President 5 years forPanchayats and holding elections within a
and thus, effectively, a functionary of the Union period of 6 months in theevent of supersession of any
Government. Bhimrao Ambedkar, chairman of the Panchayat, disqualifications for membership of
Drafting Committee of the Constitution of India, referred Panchayats.
to Article 356 as a dead letter of the Constitution. In the 389. (d) The 11th Schedule distributes powers between the
constituent assembly debate it was suggested that Article State Legislature and the Panchayat just as the 7th
356 is liable to be abused for political gains. The Supreme Schedule distributes powers between the Union and the
Court said that Article 356 is an extreme power and is to State Legislature. Powers to impose taxes and financial
be used as a last resort in cases where it is manifest that
resource.It can also assign to a Panchayat various taxes,
there is an impasse and the constitutional machinery in a
duties.
State has collapsed.
390. (a) Part-IX of the Constitution of India deals with the
385. (c) The Supreme Court does not countenance the
Panchayati Raj system for the rural areas. It consists of
proposition that, on an application under Article 32 of
definitions of various terms, composition, duration,
the Constitution, the Court may decline to entertain the
reservation, powers, etc. of a Panchayat. It states that
same on the simple ground that it involves the
this part does not apply to the states of Nagaland,
determination of disputed questions of fact or on any
Meghalaya, and Mizoram.
other ground. The Court would be failing in its duty as
the custodian and protector of the fundamental rights,
EBD_7341
220 Economics
7 Economics
1. Consider the following statements [2007-II] 7. By which one of the following years does the 11th Five
1. The current Economic Census is the seventh in the Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele-density in India
series so far conducted in India. from the present 1.9%? [2008-II]
2. The Economic Census in India is undertaken by the (a) 2009 (b) 2010
Department of Economic Affairs (Union Ministry of (c) 2011 (d) 2012
Finance). 8. The 11th Five Year Plan strategy to raise agricultural output
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? envisages which of the following? [2008-II]
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 1. Greater attention to land reforms.
(c) Both l and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Double the rate of growth of irrigated area.
2. According to the provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility 3. Promote animal husbandry and fishery.
and Budget Management [FRBM]. 4. Interest free credit to the farmers.
Act., 2003 and FRBM Rules, 2004, the Government is under Select the correct answer using the codes given below
obligation to present three statements before the parliament (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
along with the Annual Budget. Which one of the following (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
is not one of them? [2008-I] 9. Consider the following statements [2011-II]
(a) Macroeconomic Framework Statement 1. The current global economic crisis owes its genesis
(b) Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement to the subprime crisis in the United States.
(c) Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement 2. The Indian economy is showing a faster recovery
(d) Statement showing Short term Fiscal Policy from the economic crisis than its western counterparts.
3. As per the Economic Survey 2007-2008, which one of the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
following is the largest source of revenue of the (a) Only 1
Government of India? [2008-II] (d) Only 2
(a) Excise Duty (b) Personal income Tax (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Corporation Tax (d) Customs Duties (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. The acronym SRO, being used in the capital market for 10. Which one of the following Public Sector Bank's emblem
various market participants, stands for which one of the figures a dog and the words 'faithful friendly, in it?
following? [2008-II] (a) Punjab National Bank [2011-II]
(a) Self regulatory Organisations (b) Syndicate Bank
(b) Small Revenue Operators (c) Oriental Bank of Commerce
(c) Securities Roll-back Operators (d) State Bank of India
(d) Securities Regulatory Organisations 11. Consider the following statements with regard to Statutory
5. Consider the following statements [2008-II] Liquidity Ratio (SLR) [2011-II]
1. Food for Work Programme was launched in India 1. To meet SLR, Commercial banks can use cash only.
during the 10th Five Year Plan. 2. SLR is maintained by the banks with themselves.
2. The Planning commission in India is a constitutional 3. SLR restricts the banks leverage in pumping more
body. money into the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) only 2
6. Which one of the following statements regarding Monitorable 12. Consider the following statements relating to estimation
Socio-Economic target of the 11th Five Year Plan, under the of National Income. [2011-II]
head Environment, is not correct? [2008-II] 1. Foreigners working in India Embassies are normal
(a) Treat all urban waste water by 201 1-2012 to clear residents of India.
river waters 2. Foreigners working in the office of WHO, World Bank,
(b) Increase energy efficiency by 20 percentage points UNO etc, located in India are not normal residents of
by 2016-1017 India.
(c) Attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities 3. Indians working in foreign embassies in India are not
by 2011-2012 normal residents of India.
(d) Increase forest and tree cover by 15 percentage points
Economics 221
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 4. Nowhere is this more obviously the case of war and
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 struggle than in West Asia and Central America.
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these Select the correct answer using the codes given below
13. Brent index is associated with [2011-II] (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(a) crude oil prices (b) copper future prices (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) gold future prices (d) shipping rate index 19. Consider the following statements about Sinking Fund
14. Match the following [2011-II] 1. It is a method of repayment of public debt. [2011-II]
List I List II 2. It is created by the government out of budgetary
(Phase of Industrial (Feature) revenues every year.
Revolution) Winch of the statements given above is/are contact?
A. First Phase 1. Rise of steel, chemical, (a) Oniy 1 (b) Only 2
electricity industries (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
B. Third Phase 2. Rise of cotton mill 20. Match the following
C. Second Phase 3. Rise of steam engine List I List II
D. Fourth Phase 4. Rise of petro chemicals, (Five Year Plan) (Emphasis)
jet aircraft, computers A. First 1. Food security and
Codes: women empowerment
A B C D B. Second 2. Heavy industries
(a) 2 3 1 4 C. Fifth 3. Agriculture and
(b) 2 1 3 4 community
(c) 4 1 3 2 development
(d) 4 3 1 2 D. Ninth 4. Removal of poverty
15. Consider the following statements [2011-II] Codes :
1. In India the minimum denomination coin acceptable A B C D
for transaction is 50 paise. (a) 1 2 4 3
2. Coins below 50 praise is not a legal tender for payment. (b) 1 4 2 3
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) 3 2 4 1
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) 3 4 2 1
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 21. Statement I Deficit financing does not lead to inflation if
16. A recent survey (by Bloomberg) shows that the USA has adopted in small doses.
fallen behind emerging markets in Brazil, China and India Statement II Deficit financing is an often used tool for
as the preferred place to invest. Why is it so? [2011-II] financing budgetary deficits. [2011-II]
1. Unstable economic situation of the USA which the Codes :
global investors feel not likely to improve in the near (a) Both the Statements are individually true and
future. Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement
2. Global investors are finding Brazil, China and India (b) Both the Statements are individually true, but Statement II
to be actually more amenable to foreign investment. is not the correct explanation of Statement I
Select the correct answer using the code given below (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is lalse
(a) Only 1 (b) only 2 (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 22. Fiscal Policy in India is formulated by [2012-I]
17. India's market regulator SEBI is on course to relax (a) the Reserve Bank of India
investment norms for sovereign wealth funds, the (b) the Planning Commission
investment vehicles which are directly controlled by the (c) the Finance Ministry
government of a country. The main reason behind this (d) the Securities and Exchange Board of India
move is [2011-II] 23. Which of the following statements is/are correct? [2012-I]
(a) the desire of the Government of India to attract more 1. If a country is experiencing increase in its per capita
foreign investment GDP, its GDP must necessarily be growing.
(b) pressure by foreign Governments on India to execute 2. If a country is experiencing negative inflation its GDP
specific mutual agreements on financial services. must be decreasing.
(c) SEBI's desire to create a more level playing field for Select the correct answer using the codes given below
foreign investors (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(d) RBI's relevant directives to SEBI (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. Which of the following statements are correct? [2011-II] 24. National income ignores [2012-I]
1. The global economy relied on oil for much of the 20th (a) sales of a firm (b) salary of employees
century as a portable and indispensable fuel. (c) exports of the IT sector (d) sale of land
2. The immense wealth associated with oil generates 25. When the productive capacity of the economic systems
political struggles to control it. of a state is inadequate to create sufficient number of jobs,
3. History of petroleum is also the history of war and it is called [2012-I]
struggle.
EBD_7341
222 Economics
(a) seasonal unemployment Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(b) structural unemployment (a) 1,2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) disguised unemployment (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
(d) cyclical unemployment 33. The sharp depreciation of rupee in the Forex market in the
26. Which of the following statements is/ are correct? year 2011 was due to [2013-I]
1. NIFTY is based upon 50 firms in India. [2012-I] 1. flight to safety by foreign investors.
2. NIFTY is governed and regulated by the Reserve 2. meltdown in European markets.
Bank of India. 3. inflation in emerging market economies:
3. NIFTY does not trade in mutual funds. 4. lag effect of monetary policy tightening.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
27. Which of the following measures should be taken when 34. Which of the following occupations are included under
an economy is going through in inflationary pressures? secondary sector as per the national income accounts ?
1. The direct taxes should be increased. [2012-I] [2013-I]
2. The interest rate should be reduced. 1. Manufacturing 2. Construction
3. The public spending should be increased. 3. Gas and water supply 4. Mining and quarrying
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
28. Consider the following statements [2012-II] 35. The government can influence private sector expenditure
1. High growth will led to inflation. by [2013-I]
2. High growth will lead to deflation. 1. taxation 2. subsidies
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. macro-economic policies 4. grants
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
29. Which of the fallowing are responsible for the decrease of (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
per capita holding of cultivated land in India? [2012-II] 36. Which one among the following is a fixed cost to a
1. Low per capita income. manufacturing firm in the short run? [2013-I]
2. Rapid rate of increase of population. (a) Insurance on buildings
3. Practice of dividing land equally among the heirs. (b) Overtime payment to worker
4. Use of traditional techniques of ploughing. (c) Cost of energy
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (d) Cost of raw materials
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 37. Which of the following are included in the category of
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4 direct tax in India? [2013-I]
30. In the parlance of financial investment, the term bear denotes 1. Corporation tax 2. Tax on income
[2012-II] 3. Wealth tax 4. Customs duty
(a) an investor, who feels that the price of a particular 5. Excise duty
security is going to fall Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(b) an investor, who expects the price of a particular share (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
to rise (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(c) a shareholder, who has an interest in a company, 38. The concept which tries to ascertain the actual deficit in
financially or otherwise the revenue account after adjusting for expenditure of
(d) any lender, whether by making a loan or buying a bond capital nature is termed as [2013-I]
31. Which one among the following is an appropriate (a) revenue deficit
description of deflation? [2012-II] (b) effective revenue deficit
(a) it is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against (c) fiscal deficit
other currencies (d) primary deficit
(b) It is a persistent recession in the economy 39. Which of the following institutions was/were asked by
(c) It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods the Government of India to provide official estimates of
and services black (unaccounted) money held by Indians, both in India
(d) It is fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time and abroad? [2013-I]
32. The lower growth of coal production in India during 2011- 1. National Institute of Public Finance and Policy.
2012 was primarily due to [2013-I] 2. National Council of Applied Economic Research.
1. environmental restrictions. 3. National Institute of Financial Management.
2. non-availability of forestry clearance. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
3. poor law and order situation in coal producing states. (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
4. excessive rainfall in coal mining areas. (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Economics 223
40. FDI in Multi-Brand Retail Trade (MBRT) in all products is 2. Starting in 2011-12, corporate and infrastructure
now permitted in India subject to [2013-I] investment started slowing both as a result of
1. a ceiling of 51% investment bottlenecks as well as the tighter monetary
2. minimum amount to be brought in as FDI by the policy.
foreign investor is US $ 100 million. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
3. atleast 50% of the procurement of manufactured/ (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
processed products should be sourced from 'small (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
industries'. 46. The main functioning of the banking system is to
4. retail sales locations set-up only in cities with a (a) accept deposits and provide credit [2013-II]
population of more than 10 lakh. (b) accept deposits and subsidies
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (c) provide credit and subsidies
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 (d) accept deposits, provide credit and subsidies
(c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 4 47. The income elasticity of demand for inferior goods is
41. Which one among the following is not a salient feature of [2013-II]
the Companies Bill as amended in the year 2012?[2013-I] (a) less than one (b) less than zero
(a) For spending the amount earmarked for corporate (c) equal to one (d) greater than one
social responsibility, the company shall give 48. The average fixed cost curve will always be [2013-II]
preferences to local areas where it operates (a) a rectangular hyperbola
(b) Punishment for falsely inducing a person to enter (b) a downward sloping convex to the origin curve
into an agreement with bank or financial institution (c) a downward sloping straight line
with a view to obtaining credit facilities (d) a U-shaped curve
(c) There is no limit in respect of companies in which a 49. In a perfectly competitive economy production and
person may be appointed as auditor consumption will both be Pareto optimal, if the economy
(d) 'Independent directors' shall be excluded for the operates at a point where [2013-II]
purpose of computing 'one-third of retiring directors' (a) there is general equilibrium
42. Which of the following factors was not a reason behind (b) output levels are below equilibrium
the occurrence of the Industrial Revolution in England (c) output levels are above equilibrium
first? [2013-II] (d) consumption is less than output
(a) No part of the country was far from the sea 50. If the average total cost is declining then [2013-II]
(b) Navigable rivers made inland transport easier. (a) the marginal cost must be less than the average total
(c) In England machines could be operated by wind or cost
water power due to favourable climate condition (b) total cost must be constant
(d) England had coal, iron and other necessary mineral (c) the average fixed cost curve must be above the
resources average variable cost curve
43. Consider the following statements [2013-II] (d) the marginal cost must be greater than the average
1. The recent decision of Government of India to total cost
partially decontrol the sugar industry gives the millers 51. The production function of a firm will change whenever
the freedom to sell sugar in open market and removes (a) input price changes [2013-II]
their obligation to supply sugar at subsidised rates (b) the firm employs more of any input
to ration shops. (c) the firm increases its level of output
2. C. Rangarajan panel also suggested decontrolling of (d) the relevant technology changes
sugar industry in India. 52. The Government of India and Reserve Bank of India have
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? decided to introduce 1 billion pieces of ` 10 notes in
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 polymer/plastic on a field trial basis.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the following is/ are the objectives behind this
44. In India, the price of petroleum products has been move? [2013-II]
deregulated mainly to [2013-II] 1. Increase of the lifetime of the notes.
(a) reduce the burden of subsidies given to the oil 2. Combating counterfeiting.
companies 3. Reducing the cost of minting of currency.
(b) discourage the exploration of oil reserves in the Select the correct answer using the codes given below
country (a) 1 and 2
(c) discourage the demand for private vehicles (b) Only 2
(d) curb the use of black money in the economy (c) Only 3
45. Which of the following factors is/are responsible for recent (d) All of the above
rapid slow down of Indian economy despite recovering 53. Corporation tax is imposed by [2013-II]
from the global financial crisis. [2013-II] (a) State Government
1. The boost to demand given by monetary and fiscal (b) Central Government
stimulus following the crisis was large. (c) Local Government
(d) State as well as Central Government
EBD_7341
224 Economics
54. The value of money varies [2013-II] (b) higher but their weight is lower compared to food
(a) directly with the, interest rate products
(b) directly with the price level (c) lower but their weight is higher compared to food
(c) directly with the volume of employment products
(d) inversely with the price level (d) lower and their weight is also lower compared to food
55. The effect of a government surplus upon the equilibrium products
level of NNP [Net National Product] is substantially the 62. Corporation tax in India is levied on income of a company.
same as [2013-II] Which one of the following does not include Corporation
(a) an increase in investment tax? [2014-I]
(b) an increase in consumption (a) Profit from business (b) Capital gain
(c) an increase in saving (c) Interest on securities (d) Sale proceed of assets
(d) a decrease in saving 63. According to the Companies Act, 2013, 'nominal capital'
56. Which bank is limited to the needs of agriculture and rural implies [2014-I]
finance? [2013-II] (a) such part of capital, which has been called for
(a) SBI (b) NABARD payment
(c) IFC (d) RBI (b) the maximum amount of share capital of a company
57. Share of food in total consumption expenditure has been (c) such part of capital, which has been received by a
coming down as Per Capita Income grew over time in last company from its shareholders
sixty years because [2014-I] (d) such capital as the company issues from time to time
(a) people have been purchasing less food for subscription
(b) people have been preferring non-cereal items in their 64. 'Inclusive growth' is a phrase used in India's [2014-I]
food basket 1. 9th Plan 2. 10th Plan
(c) growth in food expenditure has been lower than 3. 11th Plan 4. 12th Plan
growth in per capita income Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(d) percentage of the poor in population has increased (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
over time (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 4
58. In India, mergers and acquisition of firms are regulated by 65. MONEX is associated with [2014-II]
[2014-I] (a) Montreal experiment (b) Monetary experiment
(a) National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council (c) Lunar experiment (d) Monsoon experiment
(b) Competition Commission of India 66. Consider the following statements relating to the Non-
(c) Security and Exchange Board of India Alignment Movement: [2014-II]
(d) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion l. The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was created and
59. Classification of an enterprise into public or private sector founded during the collapse of the colonial system
is based on [2014-I] and the independence struggles of the peoples of
(a) number of employees in the enterprise Africa, Asia, Latin America and other regions of the
(b) ownership of assets of the enterprise world and at the height' of the Cold War.
(c) employment conditions for workers in the enterprise 2. The First Summit of the Movement of Non-Aligned
(d) nature of products manufactured by the enterprise Countries was convened by the leaders of India,
60. Which of the following statements about India's Indonesia, Egypt, Syria and Yugoslavia at Belgrade
unorganised sector are true? [2014-I] on September 1-6, 1961.
1. Labour is more in number than that in the organised 3. During the early days of the Movement, its actions were
sector. a key factor in the decolonization process, which led
2. Job security and work regulation are better in later to the attainment of freedom by many countries
unorganised sector. and to the founding of several new sovereign States.
3. They are usually not organised into trade unions. 4. The fundamental principle of the movement is to
4. Workers are usually employed for a limited number maintain equal distance from both the super powers by
of days. joining the military alliances of both the blocs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) l and 2 only
61. In India, contribution of food inflation to overall inflation 67. Consider the following statements relating to the World
1 2 Bank:
is around rd to th . Within food inflation, contribution [2014-II]
3 5 1. The World Bank was established in 1946, which is
of food articles is higher because price rise in food articles headquartered in New York.
is [2014-I] 2. The World Bank Group has set for itself the goal to
(a) higher and their weight is also higher compared to end extreme poverty from the World by 2030.
food products 3. The World Bank is a vital source of financial and
technical assistance to developing countries around
Economics 225
the world. It. is not a bank in the ordinary sense but a (d) When total product : Marginal product
unique partnership to reduce poverty and support begins to decline becomes positive
development. 72. The way total output changes due to change in all inputs
4. The World Bank Group comprises five institutions in same proportion is known as law of [2014-II]
managed by their member countries in order to (a) Returns to scale (b) Diminishing returns
promote shared prosperity by fostering the income (c) Increasing returns (d) Constant returns
growth of the bottom 40% for every country. 73. Which of the following statements is/are true? [2014-II]
Which of the statements given above are correct? 1. If increase in demand and supply are of equal
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 magnitude, the price will remain unchanged, but the
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 only equilibrium quantity will increase.
68. Which of the following statements about International 2. If increase in demand is of greater magnitude than
Monetary Fund (IMF) are correct ? [2014-II] increase in supply, both equilibrium price and
1. The IMF is a United Nations specialized agency. equilibrium quantity will increase.
2. The IMF was founded at the Bretton Woods Conference 3. If increase in supply is of greater magnitude than
in 1944 to secure international monetary cooperation. increase in demand, equilibrium price will fall but
3. The objective of the IMF is to stabilize currency equilibrium quantity will increase.
exchange rates, and to expand international liquidity Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(access to hard currencies). (a) 1 only I (b) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only 74. A market in which there are large numbers of sellers of a
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only particular product, but each seller sells somewhat
69. Consider the following statements relating to the World differentiated but close products is termed as [2014-II]
Trade Organization (WTO): [2014-II] (a) Perfect competition (b) Monopoly
1. The WTO deals with the global rules of trade between (c) Monopolistic competition (d) Oligopoly
nations. 75. The value of all final goods and services produced by the
2. The goal of the WTO is to help producers of goods normal residents of a country and their property, whether
and services, exporters, and importers conduct their operating within the domestic territory of the country or
business. outside in a year is termed as [2014-II]
3. The WTO, which is a successor body of the General (a) Gross National Income (b) Net National Income
Agreement on Tariffs and Trade, came into being (c) Gross Domestic Product (d) Net Domestic Product
following the Uruguay Round of Negotiations. 76. Which of the following statements are correct? [2014-II]
4. The WTO distances itself in framing of rules on trad 1. When marginal revenue is positive, total revenue
in intellectual property rights. increases with increase in output.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 2. When marginal revenue is zero, total revenue is maximum.
(a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 3. When marginal revenue becomes negative, total
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 only revenue falls with increase in output.
70. World Bank in June 2014 released a study report on India's Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Power Sector titled 'More Power' to India : The Challenge (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
of Electricity Distribution'. Which of the following is/are (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
the key recommendation(s) of the report ? [2014-II] 77. National product at factor cost is equal to [2014-II]
1. Ensure regulatory autonomy, effectiveness and (a) Domestic product + Net factor income from abroad
accountability for utilities and regulators (b) National product at market prices - indirect taxes +
2. Insulate utilities from State Governments to prevent subsidies
interference with internal operations (c) Gross domestic-product - depreciation
3. Scrap the Electricity Act 2003 in order to improve the (d) National product at market prices + Indirect taxes +
revenue generation of the power distribution companies 1. subsidies
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 78. Which of the following theories form the basis of
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) l and 2 only international trade ? [2014-II]
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only 1. Absolute cost difference
71. Which one among the following pairs is not correctly 2. Comparative cost difference
matched ? [2014-II] 3. Opportunity cost
(a) When total product : Marginal product Select the correct answer using the code given below:
increases at an increases (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
increasing rate (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1,2 and 3
(b) When total product : Marginal product 79. Which one among the following is not a source of tax
increases at a declines revenue for the Central Government in India ? [2014-II]
diminishing rate (a) Income tax (b) Customs duuties
(c) When total product : Marginal product (c) Service tax (d) Motor Vehicle tax
reaches its maximum becomes zero
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226 Economics
80. Which of the following does not form part of current 88. Private investment in Indian agriculture is mostly on labour-
account of Balance of Payments? [2014-II] saving mechanization. This could be a response to
(a) Export and import of goods (a) rising productivity of agricultural sector [2015-II]
(b) Export and import of services (b) rising inequality in agriculture
(c) Income receipts and payments (c) rising wages and tighter labour market
(d) Capital receipts and payments (d) debt write-off by the Government
81. Which of the following is not the recommendation of the 89. Which one of the following is the major source of gross
Arvind Mayaram Committee on Rationalizing the FDI/FPI tax revenue (GTR) for the Government of India?[2015-II]
definition (June 2014) ? [2014-II] (a) Income tax (b) Corporation tax
(a) Foreign investment of 10 per cent or more in a listed (c) Customs duty (d) Service tax
company will be treated as foreign direct investment (FDI) 90. Which of the following statements in the context of income-
(b) In a particular company, an investor can hold the environment relationship is /are correct? [2015-II]
investments either under the FPI (Foreign Portfolio (1) Pollution trends tend to follow an inverse-U shaped
Investment) route or under the FDI route, but not both relationship across different stages of economic
(c) Any investment by way of equity shares, compulsorily development.
convertible preference shares debentures which is less (2) In the beginning stage, pollution increases due to
than 10 per cent of the post issue paid up equity capital urbanization and industrialization.
of a company shall be treated as FPI (3) In the later stage, pollution declines due to structural
(d) On NRI Investors, the Committee recommended changes towards services sector.
treating non-repatriable invesnnent as FDI Select the correct answer using the code given below.
82. Which of the following statements is/are correct? [2015-I] (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
1. The Marxist theory repudiates the idea of the (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
atomised and alienated individual. 91. Which one of the following represents a progressive tax
2. Marxism upholds the idea of the natural rights of structure? [2015-II]
men and individuals. (a) Tax rate is the same across all incomes
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (b) Tax rate increases as income increases
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Tax rate decreases as income increases
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Each household pays equal amount of tax
83. Demand for a commodity refers to [2015-I] 92. Which one of the following is an example of a 'natural
(a) Desire for that commodity monopoly'? [2015-II]
(b) Need for that commodity (a) Indian Airlines
(c) Quantity demanded of that commodity (b) Delhi Jal Board
(d) Quantity demanded at certain price during any particular (c) Delhi Transport Corporation
period of time (d) Steel Authority of India
84. An exceptional demand curve is one that slopes[2015-I] 93. What is meant by price discrimination? [2015-II]
(a) downward to the right (b) upward to the right (a) Increase in price of a commodity over time
(c) horizontally (d) upward to the left (b) A situation where the same product is sold to different
85. Rise in the price of a commodity means [2015-I] consumers for different prices
(a) rise in the value of currency only (c) Subsidization of a product by the Government to sell
(b) fall in the value of currency only it at a lower price
(c) rise in the value of commodity only (d) General decrease in price of a commodity over time
(d) fall in the valueofcurrencyand rise in the value ofcommodity. 94. What is meant by 'Public Good'? [2015-II]
86. Under flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is (a) A commodity produced by the Government
determined [2015-II] (b) A commodity whose benefits are indivisibly spread
(a) predominantly by market mechanism among the entire community
(b) by the Central Bank (c) A Government scheme that benefits the poor households
(c) as a weighted index of a group of currencies (d) Any commodity that is very popular among general
(d) by the World Trade Organization public
87. Which one of the following is not correct in the context of 95. In view of the fact that kerosene is an inferior good in
industrial clusters development in India? [2015-II] India, what is/are its implication(s)? [2015-II]
(a) Industrial clusters play an important role for the MSME 1. As households get richer, they consume less kerosene.
participants in their inclusiveness, technology 2. Over time there is a decline in quality of kerosene.
absorption and efficiency improvement 3. Government needs to stop subsidies on kerosene.
(b) Industrial clusters are visible in traditional handloom, Select the correct answer using the code given below.
handicrafts and modern SME (a) 1 only
(c) Industrial cluster programmes in India are administered (b) 1 and 2 only
by various ministries (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Industrial clusters lead to promotion of monopoly in (d) 1, 2 and 3
the market
Economics 227
96. Which of the following factors led to a decline in inflation 3. A progressive tax takes a larger share of tax from
rate in India during 2014-2015? [2015-II] poor families than it does from rich families
1. Persistent decline in crude oil prices 4. Indirect taxes have the advantage of being cheaper
2. Softness in global prices of tradables such as edible and easier to collect
oils and coal Select the correct answer using the code given below:
3. Tight monetary policy pursued by the Reserve Bank (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
of India (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 104. Which of the following statement (s) is /are false?[2016-I]
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only 1. Wage Boards are tripartite in nature, with
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 representatives from workers, employers and
97. Which one of the following statements about the independent members.
Companies Act, 2013 is not correct? [2015-II] 2. Except for the wage Board for Journalists and Non -
(a) The Act regulates the corporate sector to make it Jouralists, all the other wage boards are statutory in
accountable. nature
(b) It provides for Corporate Social Responsibility. 3. Second National Commission on labour has
(c) It provides more opportunities for new entrepreneurs. recommended against the utility of wages boards.
(d) It enables wide application of Information Technology. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
98. Which one of the Five Year Plans had a high priority to (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
bring inflation under control and to achieve stability in the (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
economic situation? [2016-I] 105. Which of the following is not a ‘Public Good’? [2016-I]
(a) Fourth Plan (1969 - 74) (b) Fifth Plan (1974 - 79) (a) Electricity (b) National Defence
(c) sixth Plan (1980 - 85) (d) Seventh Plan (1985 - 90) (c) Light House (d) Public Parks
99. Which of the following statements is / are true with respect 106. Which of the following is / are the example (s) of Transfer
to Phillips curve? [2016-I] Payment(s)? [2016-I]
1. It shows the trade - off between unemployment and 1. Unemployment Allowance 2. Payment of salary
inflation
3. Social Security Payment 4. Old age Pension
2. The downward sloping curve of Phillips curve is
generally held to be valid only in the short run.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. In the long run , Phillips Curve is usually thought to
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) None of the above
be horizontal at the non accelerating inflation rate of
107. Which of the following statements (s) are true with respect
unemployment (NAIRU)
to the concept of “EFFICIENCY” as used in mainstream
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only economics? [2016-I]
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Efficiency occurs when no possible recorganisation
100. Which of the following is /are example (s) of ‘Near Money’? of production can make anyone better off with out
1. Treasury Bill [2016-I] making someone else worse off
2. Credit Card 2. An economy is elearly inefficient if it is inside the
3. Saving accounts and small time deposits Production Possibility Frontier (PPF)
4. Retail money market mutual funds 3. At a minimum, an efficient economy is on its
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Production Possibility Frontier (PPF)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 4. The terms such as ‘ Pareto Efficiency’, ‘Pareto
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 Optimality’ and ‘Allocative Efficiency’ are all
101. Which one of the following terms is used in Economics to essentially one and same which denote ‘efficiency in
denote a technique for avoiding a risk by making a resource allocation’
counteracting transaction? [2016-I] Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) dumping (b) Hedging (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Discounting (d) Deflating (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
102. Which one of the following is not a thrust area in the 108. The headquarters of 'Economic and Social Commission
railway budget 2015 - 16? [2016-I] for Asia and the Pacific' is located at [2016-II]
(a) Online booking of disposable bed rolls (a) Singapore (b) Manila
(b) Defence Travel System to eliminate Warrants (c) Bangkok (d) Hong Kong
(c) 180 days in advance ticket booking facility for passengers 109. Which of the following with regard to the term 'bank run' is
(d) Bio - Toilets correct? [2016-II]
103. Which of the following statements are correct? [2016-I] (a) The net balance of money a bank has in its chest at
1. Ability to pay principle of taxation holds that the the end of the day's business
amount of taxes people pay should relate to their (b) The ratio of bank's total deposits and total liabilities
income or wealth (c) A panic situation when the deposit holders start
2. The Benefit Principle of taxation states that individuals withdrawing cash from the banks
should be taxed in proportion to the benefit they (d) The period in which a bank creates highest credit in
receive from Government programmes the market
EBD_7341
228 Economics
110. Which of the following will be the outcome if an economy (d) a person aged ten and above who can both read and
is under the inflationary pressure? [2016-II] write with understanding in any language is treated
1. Domestic currency heads for depreciation. as a literate
2. Exports become less competitive with imports getting 119. Consider the following statements about the Second Five-
costlier. Year Plan : [2017-I]
3. Cost of borrowing decreases. 1. It was drafted under the leadership of K. N. Raj.
4. Bondholders get benefitted. 2. It proposed that industries like electricity, railways,
Select the correct answer using the code given below. steel, machineries and communication could be
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 developed in the public sector.
(c) I and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 3. The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture
111. According to the Classical Theory of Employment, very difficult.
deviations from the state of full employment are [2016-II] 4. The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture
(a) purely temporary in nature (b) permanent in nature really easy.
(c) imaginary situations (d) normal situations Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
112. Capital deepening refers to [2016-II] (a) 1 only (b) l and 2
(a) going for more fixed capital per worker (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
(b) emphasis on social overhead capital 120. Which one of the following is not a component of Revenue
(c) constant capital-output ratio Receipts of the Union Government? [2017-I]
(d) increasing capital-output ratio (a) Corporate tax receipts (b) Dividends and profits
113. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (c) Disinvestment receipts (d) Interest receipts
[2016-II] 121. TRIPS Agreement pertains to [2017-I]
(a) Creation of National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (a) international tariff regime
(NIIF) was announced in the Union Budget, 2015-16. (b) intellectual property protection
(b) NIIF is a fund for enhancing infrastructure facility in (c) international practices on trade facilitation
the country. (d) international taxation of property
(c) NIIF and NIF (National Investment Fund) are the 122. The 76% growth rate registered by Indian economy during
names of the same organization, the year 2015-16 is based on [2017-I]
(d) NIIF can have more than one alternative investment fund, (a) Gross National Product at market prices
114. Which one of the following statements is correct with (b) Gross Value Added at constant prices
respect to the composition of national income in India? (c) Gross Domestic Product at market prices
[2016-II] (d) Gross Domestic Product at constant prices
(a) The share of manufacturing sector has declined. 123. Which of the following statements about the Trans-Pacific/
(b) The share of services sector has increased sharply. Partnership (TPP) is / are correct? [2017-I]
(c) The share of agriculture has remained static. 1. The TPP was signed by 12 Pacific Rim nations in the
(d) The share of services sector has declined. year 2015.
115. In India, the term 'hot money' is used to refer to[2016-II] 2. The TPP is likely to be a game-changer in global trade
(a) Currency + Reserves with the RBI as member countries account for about 40 percent of
(b) Net GDR global GDP.
(c) Net Foreign Direct Investment 3. India is a founder member of TPP.
(d) Foreign Portfolio Investment Select the correct answer using the code given below.
116. Which one of the following is/are credit rating agency/ (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
agencies in India ? [2016-II] (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
(a) CRISIL (b) CARE 124. Which of the following statements about Bitcoin is/are
(c) ICRA (d) All of the above correct? [2017-I]
117. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Fourteenth 1. It is a decentralized virtual currency.
Finance Commission? [2016-II] 2. It is generated through complex computer software
(a) C. Rangarajan (b) Vijay Kelkar systems.
(c) Y. V. Reddy (d) Rakesh Mohan 3. The Reserve Bank of India recognized it as a legal
118. Which one of the following statements is correct? tender in January 2016.
For the purpose of Census 2011 [2017-I] Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) a person aged seven and above who can both read (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
and write with understanding in any language is (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
treated as a literate 125. In the year 2016, the Government of India announced a
(b) a person aged eight and above who can both read ` 6,000 crore special package for the textile and apparel
and write with understanding in any language is sector to [2017-I]
treated as a literate 1. create one crore jobs within three years
(c) a person aged nine and above who can both read 2. create jobs equally for men and women
and write with understanding in any language is 3. provide tax and production incentives for the entrepreneurs
treated as a literate
Economics 229
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1. Efficiency enhancer subindex
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only 2. Innovation and sophistication factors subindex
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Life expectancy enhancer subindex
126. The Twelfth Five-Year Plan focussed on inclusive growth. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Which of the following were considered as challenges for (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
inclusiveness ? [2017-I] (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Poverty 2. Group inequality 135. In India, the base year of the new GDP series has been
3. Regional imbalance 4. Unemployment shifted from 2004-05 to
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 2007 - 08 (b) 2008 - 09
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2010 - 11 (d) 2011 - 12
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only 136. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
127. The Most Favoured Nation (MFN) Clause under WTO the code given below the Lists :
regime is based on the principle of [2017-I] List-I List-II
(a) non-discrimination between nations (Type of Deficit) (Explanation)
(b) discrimination between nations A. Fiscal Deficit 1. Total Expenditure–
(c) differential treatment between locals and foreigners Revenue Receipts &
(d) uniform tariff across commodities Non-debt Capital
128. Goods and Services Tax likely to be levied in India is not a Receipts
[2017-I] B. Revenue Deficit 2. Revenue Expenditure –
(a) gross value tax (b) value-added tax Revenue Receipts
(c) consumption tax (d) destination-based tax C. Effective Revenue 3. Revenue Deficit –
129. Which one of the following sectors is not affected by the Deficit Grants for Creation of
changes made in the Foreign Direct Investment Policy in Capital Assets
June 2016? [2017-I] D. Primary Deficit 4. Fiscal Deficit –
(a) Multi-brand retailing Interest Payments
(b) Defence Code :
(c) Private security agencies A B C D
(d) Manufacturing of small arms and ammunitions (a) 1 2 3 4
covered under the Arms Act, 1959 (b) 1 3 2 4
130. BREXIT refers to the Great Britain leaving which one of (c) 4 2 3 1
the following? [2017-I] (d) 4 3 2 1
(a) International Monetary Fund 137. Who among the following scholars argued that “capital
(b) Commonwealth created underdevelopment not because it exploited the
(c) World Trade Organization underdeveloped world, but because it did not exploit it
(d) European Union enough”?
131. Arrange the following events in sequential order as they (a) Bill Warren (b) Paul Baran
happened in India : (c) Geoffrey Kay (d) Lenin
1. Mahalanobis Model 2. Plan Holiday 138. Which one of the following is not an exclusive right of the
3. Rolling Plan concerned coastal nations over Exclusive Economic Zone
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (EEZ)? [2018-I]
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 2, 1 (a) Survey and exploitation of mineral resources of ocean
(c) 2, 3, 1 (d) 1, 3, 2 deposits
132. The monetary policy in India uses which of the following (b) Exploitation of marined water energy and marine
tools? organisms including fishing
1. Bank rate (c) Conservation and management of marine resources
2. Open market operations (d) Navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables
3. Public debt 139. Which one of the following statements about Exchange-
4. Public revenue Traded Fund (ETF) is not correct? [2018-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) It is a marketable security.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (b) It experiences price changes throughout the day.
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) It typically has lower daily liquidity and higher fees
133. Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if prices of than mutual fund shares.
(a) domestic goods remain constant (d) An ETF does not have its net asset value calculated
(b) exports become cheaper to importers once at the end of every day.
(c) imports remain constant 140. The Reserve Bank of India has recently constituted a high-
(d) exports rise proportionately level task force on Public Credit Registry (PCR) to suggest
134. Which of the following indicators have been used by the a road map for developing a transparent, comprehensive
World Economic Forum to calculate Global Competitiveness and near-real-time PCR for India. The task force is headed
Index for 2016–2017? by [2018-I]
EBD_7341
230 Economics
(a) Sekar Karnam (b) Vishakha Mulye Arrange the aforesaid parameters in descending order in
(c) Sriram Kalyanaraman (d) Y. M. Deosthalee terms of their weights.
141. Which of the following statements about the India Post (a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 (b) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3
Payments Bank (IPPB) is/are correct? [2018-I] (c) 1 - 3 - 2 - 4 (d) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1
1. It has been incorporated as a Public Limited Company. 149. The natural rate of unemployment hypothesis was
2. It started its operation by establishing two pilot advocated by [2018-II]
branches at Hyderabad and Varanasi. (a) Milton Friedman (b) A. W. Phillips
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) J. M. Keynes (d) R. G. Lipsey
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 150. As per the extant policy, Foreign Direct Investment is
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 permitted in the defence sector under the automatic route
142. Growth in production (in percent) of which one of the up to which one of the following limits?
following core industries in India during the period (a) 26 percent (b) 74 percent
2015-2016 was negative? [2018-I] (c) 51 percent (d) 49 percent
(a) Natural gas (b) Refinery products
(c) Fertilizer (d) Coal DIRECTIONS: The following four (4) items consist of two
143. Which one of the following events is not correctly matched statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two
with the year in which it happened? [2018-I] statements carefully and select the correct answer using the
(a) Inauguration of the SWIFT system of electronic code given below. Code: [2018-II]
interbank fund transfers worldwide—1985 (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II
(b) Conclusion of the Uruguay Round of GATT—1994 is the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Inauguration of the World Trade Organization—1995 (b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II
(d) Establishment of the first wholly electronic stock is not the correct explanation of Statement I
exchange (Nasdaq)—1971 (c) Statement I is true but statement II is false
144. Consider the following statements about impact of tax: (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
[2018-I] 151. Statement I : The overall fiscal deficit of the States in India
1. A tax is shifted forward to consumers if the demand during 2017-2018 stayed above the FRBM threshold level
is inelastic relative to supply. of 3 percent for the third successive year.
2. A tax is shifted backward to producers if the supply Statement II : Special Category States had run up a higher
is relatively more inelastic than demand. level of fiscal deficit in 2017-2018 compared to 2016-2017.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 152. Statement I : There has been a sharp decline in savings
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only rate in Indian economy between 2007-2008 to 2015-2016.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement II : There has been a fall in household and
145. According to the law of diminishing marginal utility, as public savings.
the amount of a good consumed increases, the marginal 153. Statement I : Private investments in research have severely
utility of that good tends to [2018-I] lagged public investments in India.
(a) improve Statement II : Universities play a relatively small role in
(b) diminish the research activities of the country.
(c) remain constant 154. Statement I: Agriculture in India still accounts for a
(d) first diminish and then improve substantial share in total employment.
146. According to the latest Reserve Bank of India study on Statement II : There has been no decline in volatility of
State finances, capital spending is maximum on [2018-II] agricultural growth in India.
(a) rural development 155. Who among the following shall cause the accounts of the
Autonomous District and Regional Council Funds to be
(b) water supply and sanitation
audited? [2018-II]
(c) urban development
(a) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(d) education
(b) The Chartered Accountant empanelled by the
147. According to the World Bank’s Doing Business Report,
Government of India
2018, India’s ranking has improved in 2018 as compared to
(c) The State Government Auditors
2017 in which of the following areas? [2018-II]
(d) Any Chartered Accountant
1. Paying taxes 2. Resolving insolvency
156. According to the updated World Bank data for 2017, India
3. Starting a business 4. Getting electricity is the sixth biggest economy of the world (in terms of
Select the correct answer using the code given below. GDP). Which one of the following is not ahead of India?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (a) Japan (b) UK [2018-II]
(c) 1 , 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (c) France (d) Germany
148. The Fourteenth Finance Commission assigned different 157. Which one of the “following is correct about ‘Aaykar
weights to the following parameters for distribution of tax Setu’? [2018-II]
proceeds to the States : [2018-II] (a) It is a mechanism for achieving excellence in public
1. Income distance 2. Population sector delivery related to GST.
3. Demographic changes 4. Area
Economics 231
(b) With the use of a mobile app, it facilitates online 165. According to John Maynard Keynes, employment
payment of taxes. depends upon [2019-I]
(c) It is a communication strategy designed to collect (a) aggregate demand (b) aggregate supply
information and build a database of tax defaulters. (c) effective demand (d) rate of interest
(d) It enables electronic filing and processing of import 166. Which one of the following canons of taxation was not
and export declarations. advocated by Adam Smith? [2019-I]
158. Which one of the following statements is not correct. (a) Canon of equality
[2019-I] (b) Canon of certainty
(a) When total utility is maximum, marginal utility is zero. (c) Canon of convenience
(b) When total utility is decreasing marginal utility is negative (d) Canon of fiscal adequacy
(c) When total utility is increasing, marginal utility is 167. Eight States have achieved more than 99% household
positive. electrification prior to the launch of ‘Saubhagya Scheme’.
(d) When total utility is maximum, marginal and average Which one of the following is not among them? [2019-I]
utility are equal to each other. (a) Kerala (b) Punjab
159. Consider the following statements about indifference (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh
curves: [2019-I] 168. Which one of the following statements with regard to
1 Indifference curves are convex to the origin. economic models is not correct ? [2019-II]
2 Higher indifference curves represents higher level (a) They involve simplification of complex processes.
of satisfaction. (b) They represent the whole or a part of a theory.
3 Two indifference curves cut each other. (c) They can be expressed only through equations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (d) They help in gaining an insight into cause and effect.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 169. The value of the slope of a normal demand curve is
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only (a) positive (b) negative [2019-II]
160. Consider the following statements about a joint-stock (c) zero (d) infinity
company: [2019-I] 170. Which one of the following is an example of a price floor ?
1 It has a legal existence. [2019-II]
2 There is limited liability of shareholders (a) Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Jowar in India
3 It has a democratic management (b) Subsidy given to farmers to buy fertilizers
4 It has a collective ownership. (c) Price paid by people to buy goods from ration shops
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (d) Maximum Retail Price (MRP) printed on the covers/
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only packets of goods sold in India
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 171. Which one of the following factors is not considered in
161. When some goods or productive factors are completely determining the Minimum Support Price (MSP) in India ?
fixed in amount, regardless of price, the supply curve is (a) Cost of production [2019-II]
(a) horizontal [2019-I] (b) Price trends in international and domestic markets
(b) downward sloping to the right (c) Cost of living index
(c) vertical (d) Inter-crop price parity
(d) upward sloping to the right 172. Which one of the following is not a dimension of the
162. A market situation when many firms sell similar but not Human Development Index ? [2019-II]
identical products is termed as [2019-I] (a) A long and healthy life
(a) perfect competition (b) imperfect competition (b) Knowledge
(c) monopolistic competition (d) oligopoly (c) Access to banking and other financial provisions
163. Consider the following statements: [2019-I] (d) A decent standard of living
1. Inflation in India continued to be moderate during 173. Gini Coefficient or Gini Ratio can be associated with which
2017-18. one of the following measurements in an economy ?
2. There was significant reduction in food inflation, [2019-II]
particularly pulses and vegetables during the period. (a) Rate of inflation (b) Poverty index
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) Income inequality (d) Personal income
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 174. What do you mean by ‘Demographic Dividend’ ?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2019-II]
164. Which one of the following hypotheses postulates that (a) A rise in the rate of economic growth due to a higher
individual’s consumption in any time period depends share of working age people in a population
upon resources available to the individual, rate of return (b) A rise in the rate of literacy due to development of
on his capital and age of the individual? [2019-I] educational institutions in different parts of the country
(a) Absolute Income Hypothesis (c) A rise in the standard of living of the people due to
(b) Relative Income Hypothesis the growth of alternative livelihood practices
(c) Life Cycle Hypothesis (d) A rise in the gross employment ratio of country due
(d) Permanent Income Hypothesis to government policies
EBD_7341
232 Economics
175. Which one of the following equals Personal Disposable 184. Which one of the following is the biggest cause of
Income? [2019-II] incidence of migration of female persons in India?[2020-I]
(a) Personal Income – Direct taxes paid by households (a) Employment (b) Education
and miscellaneous fees, fines, etc. (c) Marriage (d) Business
(b) Private Income – Saving of Private Corporate Sectors 185. Which one of the following is not correct about Repo
– Corporation Tax rate? [2020-I]
(c) Private Income – Taxes (a) It is the interest rate charged by the Central Bank on
(d) Total expenditure of Households – Income Tax – Gifts overnight loan.
received (b) It is the interest rate paid by the commercial banks on
176. The working of the price mechanism in a free-market overnight borrowing.
economy refers to which one of the following ?[2019-II] (c) It is the interest rate agreed upon in the loan contract
(a) The interplay of the forces of demand and supply between a commercial bank and the Central Bank.
(b) Determination of the inflation rate in the economy (d) It is the cost of collateral security.
(c) Determination of the economy’s propensity to consume 186. The Cash Reserve Ratio refers to [2020-I]
(d) Determination of the economy’s full employment output (a) the share of Net Demand and Time Liabilities that
177. Indexation is a method whose use can he associated with banks have to hold as liquid assets
which one of the following ? [2019-II] (b) the share of Net Demand and Time Liabilities that
(a) Controlling inflation banks have to hold as balances with the RBI
(b) Nominal GDP estimation (c) the share of Net Demand and Time Liabilities that
(c) Measurement of savings rate banks have to hold as part of their cash reserves
(d) Fixing of wage compensation (d) the ratio of cash holding to reserves of banks
178. Who among the following has given the concept of Human 187. In economics, if a diagram has a line passing through the
Development ? [2019-II] origin and has 45° angle with either axis and it is asserted
(a) Amartya Sen (b) Mahbub-ul-Haq that along the line X = Y, what is tacitly assumed?[2020-I]
(c) Sukhamoy Chakravarty (d) G.S. Chaddha (a) Both variables are pure numbers.
179. Which of the following statements with regard to the ‘Make (b) Both variables are in the same unit.
in India’ initiative is/are correct ? [2019-II]
(c) Both variables are in different units.
1. It was launched in the year 2018.
(d) At least one variable is a pure number.
2. Its objective is to foster innovation.
188. In September 2019, which one of the following travel giants
declared itself bankrupt? [2020-I]
(a) Expedia (b) Cox & Kings
(c) SOTC (d) Thomas Cook
180. Which one of the following States does not have a
Legislative Council ? [2019-II] 189. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the Lists : [2020-I]
(a) Karnataka (b) Telangana
(c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Arunachal Pradesh List-I List-II
181. Which of the following statements about ‘Invest India’ is/ (Market structure) (Characteristic)
are correct ? [2019-II] A. Perfect 1. Only one producer
1. It is a joint venture (not for profit) company. competition selling one commodity
2. It is the National Investment Promotion and Facilitation B. Monopoly 2. Few producers selling
Agency of India. similar or almost similar
Select the correct answer using the code given below: products
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only C. Monopolistic 3. Many producers
(c) Both l and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 competition selling
182. Who among the following was the Chairman of the differentiated products
Committee on Deepening Digital Payments appointed by D. Oligopoly 4. Many producers
the RBI ? [2019-II] selling similar
(a) H.R. Khan (b) Nandan Nilekani products
(c) N.R. Narayana Murthy (d) Sanjay Jain Code:
183. Saubhagya, a Government of India Scheme, relates to which A B C D
of the following areas? [2020-I] (a) 4 3 1 2
(a) Achieving universal household electrification (b) 4 1 3 2
(b) Providing clean cooking fuel to poor households (c) 2 1 3 4
(c) Rationalizing subsidies on LPG (d) 2 3 1 4
(d) Stopping female foeticide
Economics 233
190. Which of the following are considered to be the four pillars 192. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Economic
of human development? [2020-I] Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM)? [2020-I]
(a) Equity, inclusion, productivity and empowerment (a) Ratan P. Watal
(b) Equity, productivity, empowerment and sustainability (b) Bibek Debroy
(c) Productivity, gender, inclusion and equity (c) Ashima Goyal
(d) Labour, productivity, inclusion and equity
(d) Sajjid Chinoy
191. The Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
consists of [2020-I] 193. Recently the Reserve Bank of India has imposed limitations,
(a) the Department of Heavy Industry and the Department initially for a period of six months, on the withdrawal of
for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade amount by account holders of which one of the following
(b) the Department of Public Enterprises and the Department banks? [2020-I]
for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (a) Indus Lnd Bank
(c) the Department of Scientific and Industrial Research (b) Dhanlaxmi Bank
and the Department of Heavy Industry (c) Punjab and Maharashtra Cooperative Bank
(d) the Department of Heavy Industry and the Department (d) South Indian Bank
of Public Enterprises
1. (d) In 1976, Government of India launched a plan scheme 8. (c) 11th Five Year Plan's initiatives for agriculture were:
called "Economic Census and Surveys". In 1977 Central • Focusing on land reform issues
Statistical Organisation conducted First economic census • Doubling the rate of growth of irrigated area
in collaboration with the Directorate of Economics & • Promoting animal husbandry and fishery
Statistics (DES) in the States/Union Territories. Current • Providing easy access to credit at affordable rates
Economic Census is Sixth Economic Census held in 2013. 9. (c) The U.S. subprime mortgage crisis was a nationwide
The Central Statistics Office (CSO) in the Ministry of banking emergency that coincided with the U.S. recession
Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI) of December 2007 - June 2009. It was triggered by a large
conducted the Sixth Economic Census during January, decline in home prices, leading to mortgage delinquencies
2013 to April, 2014 in collaboration with Directorates of and foreclosures and the devaluation of housing-related
Economics and Statistics in all the States and Union securities. India has not only shown greater resistance
Territories. during financial crises but it was one of the countries
2. (d) The Act requires the government to lay before the showing the fastest recovery too. This financial crisis
parliament three policy statements in each financial year displayed the robustness of Indian economy. It has also
namely Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement; Fiscal Policy helped in further fine-tuning our economic policies and
Strategy Statement and Macroeconomic Framework Policy changing the vision of various corporate.
Statement. 10. (b) Syndicate Bank. The symbol of dog implies that Bank
3. (c) As per economic survey 2007-2008 corporation tax is is trustworthy and a friend. Its slogan is : Your faithful and
the largest source of revenue of the Government of India. friendly financial partner.
4. (a) A self-regulatory organization (SRO) is a non-gov- 11. (c) SLR used by bankers indicates the minimum
ernmental organization that has the power to create and percentage of deposits that the banks have to maintain in
enforce industry regulations and standards. The priority the form of gold, cash or other approved securities.
is to protect investors through the establishment of rules 12. (b) Only statement 2 is correct. Statements 1 & 3 are wrong.
that promote ethics and equality. 13. (a) Brent Crude is a major trading classification of sweet
5. (a) According to The National Food for Work light crude oil that serves as a major benchmark price for
Programme, food subsidy should be better targeted purchases of oil worldwide. Brent Crude is extracted from
through targeted public distribution system and specific the North Sea and comprises Brent Blend, Forties Blend,
programmes for the poor like Food for Work Programme. Oseberg and Ekofisk crudes .The Brent Crude oil marker is
The National Food for Work Programme was launched on also known as Brent Blend, London Brent and Brent
14 November 2004 in 150 of the most backward districts of petroleum. The index represents the average price of
India with the objective of generating supplementary wage trading in the 25 day Brent Blend, Forties, Oseberg, Ekofisk
employment. The Planning commission is not a (BFOE) market in the relevant delivery month as reported
constitutional body. and confirmed by the industry media.
6. (d) Target of 11th Five Year Plan is to increase forest and 14. (a) Phases of Industrial Revolution:
tree cover by 5 percentage points. 1. First phase- Rise of Cotton mill
7. (d) The aim of 11 th Five Year Plan is to connect every 2. Second phase- Rise of steel, chemicals, electricity industries.
village by telephone and provide broadband connectivity 3. Third phase- Rise of steam engine
to all villages by 2012. 4. Fourth phase- Rise of petrochemicals, jet aircraft, computers
EBD_7341
234 Economics
15. (c) India has already banned 25-paisa coin. Now 50-paisa should be increased when an economy is going through
is the minimum denomination coin. in inflationary pressures.
16. (c) According to Bloomberg LP, an American company, 28. (a) Typically, higher inflation is caused by strong
the economy of USA is fallen. Instead, Brazil, India, China economic growth. If Aggregate demand in an economy
have emerged as investor-friendly nations. expanded faster than aggregate supply, we would expect
17. (a) The main reason behind this move is the desire of the to see a higher inflation rate. If demand is rising faster than
government of India to attract more foreign investment. supply, then this suggests that economic growth is higher
18. (a) All statements are correct. than the long run sustainable rate of growth.
19. (c) A sinking fund is a fund created by the government Note: A sustained rise in prices is known as inflation. A
and gradually accumulated every year by setting aside a large rise in prices is often caused by economic growth.
part of current public revenue in such a way that it would be 29. (b) Rapid rate of increase of population and practice of
sufficient to pay off the funded debt at the time of maturity. dividing land equally among the heirs are responsible for
Under this method, the aggregate burden of public debt is the decrease of per capita holding of cultivated land in
least felt, as the burden of taxing the people to repay the India.
debt is spread evenly over the period of the accumulation 30. (a) The term bear denotes an investor who believes that
of the fund. The preferable alternative for the government a particular security or market is headed downward. Bears
is to raise a new loan and credit the proceeds of sinking attempt to profit from a decline in prices. Bears are generally
fund. It is a separate fund established by a government. pessimistic about the state of a given market. Bearish
20. (c) 1. First Five Year Plan (1951-56)- Agriculture and sentiment can be applied to all types of markets including
community development commodity markets, stock markets and the bond market.
2. Second Five Year Plan (1956-61)- Heavy Industry 31. (c) Deflation is defined as a fall in the general price level
3. Fifth Five Year Plan (1974-79)- Removal of Poverty of goods and services. It is a negative rate of inflation. It
4. Ninth Five Year Plan (1997-2002)- Food Security and means the value of money increases rather than decreases.
woman empowerment 32. (d) The lower growth of coal production in India during
21. (b) Deficit Financing is an expansionist device of 2011-2012 was primarily due to environmental regulations
currency machine and is accompanied by inflation and and Off-take suffered heavily in most of the coal fields due
has many adverse effects on the economy. It has also to excessive rainfall in August-September 2011.
been compared to a drug market in red 'Poison' which is 33. (d)
prescribed for a certain purpose and has to be administered 34. (c) Primary sector-Agriculture, fishing, mining and quarrying
in small regulated dose. When the outlay of a government Secondary sector- Manufacturing and construction, Gas
exceeds its tax revenues, the government budget is said to and water supply
be in deficit; government spending in excess of tax receipts Tertiary sector- trade, transport etc, finance & real estate,
is known as deficit spending. Governments usually issue community and personnel services
bonds to match their deficit. 35. (a) Government influences private sector expenditure by
22. (c) The Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under taxation, subsidies, macro economic policies and grants.
Ministry of Finance is the nodal agency of the Union 36. (a) In the short run insurance premium are fixed costs
Government to formulate and monitor country's economic because they are independent of the level of production.
policies and programmes having a bearing on domestic 37. (a) Corporation Tax, Wealth Tax and Income Tax are in
and international aspects of economic management. the category of direct tax.
23. (c) Negative inflation is decrease in price level and 38. (b) Effective Revenue Deficit is basically revenue deficit
economic growth is defined as GDP. A decrease in inflation excluding expenditure on capital generation form grants
means the prices has fallen. So, there is increase in from the Centre to the states. It signifies the amount of
purchasing power of money. It increases consumption, capital receipts that are being used for actual consumption
therefore GDP increases. expenditure of the Government. It is a new term introduced
24. (d) National Income ignores sale of land. in the Union Budget 2011-12. It has now become a new
25. (b) Cyclical unemployment is unemployment that results fiscal parameter.
when the overall demand for goods and services in an 39. (d) The government had selected three think tanks in
economy cannot support full employment. It occurs during March 2011 in order to estimate the quantum of black money.
periods of slow economic growth or during periods of These three think tanks are - National Institute of Financial
economic contraction. Management (NIFM), National Council for Applied
26. (d) NIFTY is an Index computed from performance of Economic Research (NCEAR) and National Institute of
top stocks from different sectors listed on NSE (National Public Finance and Policy (NIPFP).
stock exchange). NIFTY consists of 50 companies from 24 40. (d) In respect to multi-brand retail trading, changes made
different sectors. Indian Capital Markets are regulated and in 2012 permitted up to 51 % FDI with prior government
monitored by the Ministry of Finance, The Securities and approval. The foreign investor has to bring in a minimum
Exchange Board of India and The Reserve Bank of India. It investment of USD 100 million in an entity engaged in
does not trade in mutual funds. multi brand retail trading. Similar to the requirement of
27. (a) Cost-push inflation occurs when businesses respond mandatory local sourcing as applicable in single brand
to rising costs, by increasing their prices to protect profit product trading (prior to Cabinet meeting) at least 30% of
margins. There are many reasons why costs might rise: the procurement of manufactured/ processed products
Component costs, Rising labour costs and higher indirect shall be sourced from `small industries`. The reach of retail
taxes imposed by the government. So, the direct taxes sales outlets of foreign multi brand retail trader will be
Economics 235
limited to only those cities with a population of 1 million 51. (d) The production function of a firm will change
(including an area of 10 kilometres around the municipal/ whenever input price changes.
urban agglomeration limits of such cities). 52. (a) The government and the RBI have decided to launch
41. (c) As per amendment in Clause 141, the limit in respect of one billion pieces of Rs 10 bank notes made of plastic on a
maximum number of companies in which a person may be field trial basis in 5 cities viz. Kochi, Mysore, Jaipur,
appointed as auditor has been proposed as twenty companies. Bhubhaneswar and Shimla. Primary goal of introduction
42. (c) On the natural side England has in abundance three of polymer notes is to increase its life. It could also help in
important commodities - water, iron and coal. Water in combating counterfeiting. RBI will embark on polymer
Britain's numerous hilly districts provides the power to drive notes on a long term basis only if the cost-benefit calculus
mills in the early stages of industrialization; the rivers, is decidedly positive in all dimensions.
amplified from 1761 by a developing network of canals, 53. (d) Corporation Tax is imposed by State as well as Central
facilitate inland transport in an age where roads are only Government. Corporation tax is imposed on the income or
rough tracks; and the sea, never far from any part of Britain, capital of some types of legal entities. The taxes may also
makes transport of heavy goods easy between coastal cities. be referred to as income tax.
43. (c) The decision to partially decontrol the sugar sector 54. (d) The variation in the value of money is always
was taken by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs accompanied by opposite variation in the price of
(CCEA). This gives millers the freedom to sell in the open commodities and services. In brief, the value of money varies
market and remove their obligation to supply the sweetener inversely with the price level. It is reciprocal of price level.
at subsidised rates to ration shops. The Rangarajan Vm =1/p (where Vm denotes value of money and p stands
Committee has recommended total decontrol of the sugar for price level).
industry by doing away with the levy sugar obligation, 55. (b) The effect of a government surplus upon the
release mechanism and freeing of export-import. equilibrium level of NNP (Net National Product) is
44. (a) The sharp decline in crude oil price helped the substantially the same as an increase in consumption.
government to deregulate the price of diesel and thus reduce 56. (b) Committee to review the arrangements for institutional
a huge burden of subsidy on the exchequer. India if not a credit for agriculture and rural development (CRAFICARD)
producing giant, is certainly a refining hub where it refines under the Chairmanship of Shri B. Sivaraman, recommended
and markets around 220 metric million tonnes of petroleum the formation of National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
products. Out of this around 160 mmt is used for domestic Development (NABARD). The bank came into existence on 12
consumption while the rest is used for exports. Therefore, July 1982. It is limited to the need of agriculture and rural finance.
the drop in price of oil will be a blessing for the Indian 57. (c) Share of food in total consumption expenditure has been
refiners and the oil marketing companies. coming down as per capita income grew over time in last sixty
45. (c) Factors responsible for this are given below: years because growth in food expenditure has been lower
1. The boost to demand given by monetary and fiscal than growth in per capita income.
stimulus following the crisis was large. Final consumption 58. (b) The Competition Act, 2002 prohibits anti-competitive
grew at an average of over 8% annually between 2009-10 agreements, abuse of dominant position by enterprises
and 2011-12. The result was strong inflation and a powerful and regulates combinations (acquisition, acquiring of
monetary response that also slowed consumption demand. control and Merger and acquisition), which causes or likely
2. Beginning in 2011-12 corporate and infrastructure to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition
investment started slowing both as a result of investment within India. Competition Commission of India was
bottlenecks as well as the tighter monetary policy. established on 14 October 2003 and became fully functional
46. (a) The main functioning of the banking system is to accept in May 2009. It is a body of the Government of India
deposits and provide credit. The bank collects deposits from responsible for enforcing the Competition Act, 2002
public. These are savings, fixed, current and recurring deposits. throughout India and to prevent activities that have an
The bank advances loan to the business community and adverse effect on competition in India
other members of the public. The types of bank loans and 59. (b) A company organized for commercial purposes is
advances are overdraft, cash credits, loans and discounting called an enterprise. Classification of an enterprise into
of bill of exchange. public or private sector is based on ownership of assets of
47. (b) Inferior goods have a negative(less than 0) income the enterprise.
elasticity of demand meaning that demand falls as income 60. (b) Unorganized workers (UW) in India have increased
rises. many folds post independence. Around 52% of UW's are
48. (a) Total fixed costs are constant, so the average fixed engaged in agriculture & allied sector and they constitute
cost curve diminishes with the output. Thus, the average more than 90% of the labour work force.
fixed cost curve is a rectangular hyperbola. Characteristics of unorganized sector are:
49. (a) General equilibrium involving both production and • Excessive seasonality of employment
consumption also ensures the achievement of pareto • Poor working conditions
efficiency. Pareto efficiency in this regard requires that • No fixed jobs
marginal rate of transformation should be equal to the • Work in very poor working environment
marginal rate of substitution of the individuals. • No job regulation
50. (a) When marginal cost is less than average cost, average • No security of Employment
cost must be falling. When marginal cost exceeds average • Employed for a limited period
cost must be rising. The marginal cost and average cost
curves are related to each other.
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236 Economics
61. (c) 70. (b) This report reviews the evolution of the Indian power
62. (d) Generally, the income of a company falls under any sector since the landmark Electricity Act of 2003, with a
of the following 4 heads of income: focus on distribution as key to the performance and
(1) Profits or gains from the business viability of the sector. While all three segments of the
(2) Income from property, whether it is housing, power sector (generation, transmission, and distribution)
commercial, self-occupied or let-out. If the property is used are important revenues originate with the customer at
in the company's business operations, it does not fall under distribution, so subpar performance there hurts the entire
this head. value chain.
(3) Capital gains 71. (b) When total product begins to decline, marginal
(4) Income from other sources including winnings from product is negative.
lotteries, races and interest on securities. 72. (a) The way total output changes due to change in all inputs
63. (b) Nominal, authorized or registered capital means the sum in the same proportion is known as "law of return to scale".
mentioned in the capital clause of Memorandum of 73. (d)
Association. It is the maximum amount which the company 74. (c) Monopolistic competition is a form of market in which
raises by issuing the shares and on which the registration fee there are large numbers of sellers of a particular products but
is paid. This limit cannot be exceeded unless the each seller sells somewhat differentiated but close products.
Memorandum of Association is altered. 75. (a) The sum of a nation's gross domestic product (GDP)
64. (c) Inclusive growth is a phrase used in India for 11th plus net income received from overseas. Gross national
(2007-2012) and 12th (2012-2017) Five year plans. income (GNI) is defined as the sum of value added by all
65. (d) MONEX is associated with Monsoon Experiment. The producers who are residents in a nation, plus any product
Monsoon Experiment (MONEX) was the core of the Global taxes (minus subsidies) not included in output, plus income
Atmospheric Research Program (GARP) Monsoon received from abroad such as employee compensation and
subprogram, which was a major international effort to property income.
achieve a better understanding of the planetary monsoon 76. (d)
circulation. 77. (a) Net National Product at factor Cost = National Product
66. (a) at market prices – Indirect taxes + subsidies.
67. (b) The WBG came into formal existence on 27 December 78. (c) Absolute cost difference, comparative cost difference
1945 following international ratification of the Bretton and opportunity cost all form the basis of international trade.
Woods agreements. The Group's headquarters are in 79. (d) Motor Vehicle tax is not a source of tax revenue for
Washington, D.C.It was created in 1944 to help Europe the central government in India.
rebuild after World War II.Its mission is defined by two 80. (d) Capital receipts and payments do not form part of
goals - to end extreme poverty by 2030 and to boost current account of Balance of Payment.
prosperity among the poorest 40 percent in low- and 81. (d) Union Finance Ministry on 21 June 2014 accepted the
middle-income countries. The World Bank comprises of recommendations of Arvind Mayaram Committee on
five institutions.They are : rationalising the FDI/FPI definition. On NRI Investors, the
(1) International Bank for Reconstruction and Committee recommended treating non-repatriable investment
Development(IBRD), as domestic and exempting it from FDI related conditions.
(2) the International Development Association (IDA), 82. (d) Marx was initially in the Young Hegelian camp and
(3) the International Finance Corporation (IFC), like Feuerbach, rejected the spiritual basis. Marx believed
(4) the Multilateral Investment Guarantee that alienation is a systematic result of capitalism.
Agency(MIGA) Essentially, there is an "exploitation of men by men" where
(5) International Centre for Settlement of Investment the division of labour creates an economic hierarchy.
Disputes(ICSID). 83. (d) The demand for a commodity at a given price is the
68. (a) The IMF is a UN's specialized agency. IMF was formed quantity that will be purchased at a unit of time and at a
in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conferenceto promote unit price. Demand has the following features; Demand
international economic cooperation, international trade, refers to the quantity at a given price, Demand must be
employment, and exchange-rate stability, including by defined per unit time.
making financial resources available to member countries 84. (a) An exceptional demand curve is one that slopes
to meet balance-of-paymentsneeds. upward to the right
69. (a) The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only y
global international organization dealing with the rules of
trade between nations. At its heart are the WTO
agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the Price
world's trading nations and ratified in their parliaments.
The goal is to help producers of goods and services,
exporters and importers conduct their business. The x
Qty
Uruguay Round led to the creation of the World Trade 85. (b) Rise in the price of a commodity means both fall in the
Organization, with GATT remaining as an integral part of value of currency and rise in the value of commodity.
the WTO agreements. The agreements fall into a simple 86. (a) A flexible exchange rate system is a kind of a monetary
structure with six main parts, intellectual property system which allows the exchange rate to be regulated by
(Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual supply and demand in relation to other currencies.
Property Rights (TRIPS)) was one of them.
Economics 237
87. (c) Industrial clusters development has an objective to Examples :-
support the sustainability and growth of small and medium · Un employment allowance
enterprises in India. This scheme is governed and · Social security payments
administered by the Ministry of micro, small and medium · Old age pension
enterprises. · Student grant
88. (c) The entry of Private investment in Indian agriculture · Subsidies to farmers, exporters & manufacturer.
would be responsible for rising wages and tightening labour 107. (d) When the re-organisation of production is not possible
market due to labour saving mechanism. which can make any one better off with out making someone
89. (b) Corporation tax in India is the major source of Gross else worse off then efficiency occurs. Pareto Efficiency, pareto
Tax Revenue (GTR) for the Government of India. It has Optimality and Allocative Efficiency are all the same and
great tax collection in comparison to income tax, custom indicates "efficiency in resource allocation".
duty and service tax. 108. (c) The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and
90. (c) Pollution trends show inverse relationship with the Pacific (ESCAP) is the regional development arm of
economic development. In early stage, pollution increases the United Nations for the Asia-Pacific region. It is a
due to urbanization and industrialization. At last, pollution conglomerate of 53 Member States and 9 Associate
declines due to structural changes towards service sector. Members. The headquarters of ESCAP is in Bangkok.
91. (b) Progressive tax structure means increase in tax rate 109. (c) A bank run occurs when a large number of customers
with increase in taxable amount. The word-progressive of a bank or another financial institution withdraw their
denotes a progress from low to high. deposits simultaneously due to concerns about the bank's
92. (b) When monopoly is arisen due to climatic, solvency. The panic situation arises when depositors
environmental and any natural factors in a particular area withdraw their part fearing that the bank will be unable to
or in any country, known as Natural monopoly. repay their deposits in full and on time,
Example of Natural monopolies include monopoly 110. (c) If an economy is under inflationary pressure the most
of South Africa on gold and diamond mining and oil likely effects include the depreciation of domestic
production by Arabic nation. currencies and the cost of borrowing also decreases.
93. (b) When different consumers pay different prices for 111. (a) Full employment is the employment level at which every
the same product, this situation is known as price individual who desires to work at the existing wage rate
discrimination. gets employed. If the condition of unemployment occurs, it
94. (b) Public good means a commodity or service which is is a temporary/abnormal condition in the economy.
given without profit to everyone in a society by 112. (d) Capital Deepening is the process of increasing the
government or any organisation. amount of capital per worker.
95. (a) Generally Kerosene is used as fuel by the poor, As 113. (c) The purpose of the National Investment Fund (NIF)
they get prosperity, they use little this fuel. is related to disinvestment proceedings of central public
96. (a) Government strict measures to control food inflation sector enterprises and to invest the same to generate
and persistent decline in crude prices results in declining earnings without depleting the corpus.
trend in inflation during 2014-15. National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is a
97. (c) fund created by the Government of India for enhancing
98. (b) The Fifth Five year plan (1974-79) had a high priority infrastructure financing in the country.
to bring inflation under control and to achieve stability in 114. (b) The contribution of Services Sector of India to overall GDP
the economic situation. has increased sharply, from 41% in 1990-91 to 66% in 2014-15.
99. (c) The long-run Phillips curve is now seen as a vertical 115. (d) Hot money is cash that investors from foreign
line at the natural rate of unemployment, where the rate of countries will invest during the short term in search of the
inflation has no effect on unemployment. highest interest rate possible. With the opening up of debt
100. (d) Near Money is a term used in economics to describe and equity markets to foreign portfolio investors, the FPI
highly liquid assets that can easily be converted into cash. (Foreign Portfolio Investment) has emerged as the leading
101. (b) Hedging is used in limiting or offsetting probability form of quick money flows globally.
of loss from fluctuations in the prices of commodities, 116. (d) All three CRISIL,CARE and ICRA are credit rating
currencies or securities. agencies
102. (c) The Advance Reservation Period (ARP) for booking 117. (c) Y. V. Reddy is the Chairman of Fourteenth Finance
tickets in trains is 120 days. Commission of India.
103. (c) A progressive tax receives a larger percentage from 118. (a) In 2011 Census, a person aged seven years and above
the income of higher earners than it acts from low income who can both read and write in any language, is treated
person. as ‘literate’. In the Censuses prior to 1991, children below
104. (b) Besides for the Wage Boards for journalists and non- five years of age were treated as illiterates, but later, keeping
journalists newspaper and new-agency employees being in mind that the ability to read and write with
Statutory Wage Board, all other wage boards are non- understanding is not generally achieved until one has
statutory in application. That is why recommendations time to develop these skills, the defining age for the literate
made by these boards are out of enforceable by the law. category was raised to seven in the Censuses of 2001 and
105. (a) Electricity is not public good but it is club good 2011.
including roads, bridges, gas, sewage, wires, telecom. 119. (c) Indian economist K. N. Raj drafted sections of India’s
106. (c) Transfer payment is a payment of money to individuals first Five-Year Plan. Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61) was
by government without taking any goods or services.
EBD_7341
238 Economics
drafted by scientist and statistician P.C. Mahalanobis, made applicable for small arms, and FDI limit is raised to
and mainly focused on heavy industries and 74% for private security agency.
transportation, particularly in the public sector. 130. (d) Brexit refers to Great Britain’s expected withdrawal
120. (c) Government receipts which create liability or reduce from the European Union (EU). A referendum was held on
assets is called capital receipts and the receipts which 23 June 2016, in which 52% of votes were in favor of
neither create liability nor reduce assets of Government leaving the EU. UK’s economy was expected to be affected
are called revenue receipts. Corporate tax receipt, dividends by the Brexit vote.
and profits and interest receipt are revenue receipts 131. (a) Mahalanobis model in India occurred as an analytical
(increase income), but disinvestment receipt is capital framework for India’s Second Five Year Plan in 1955. The
receipt (reduces asset). duration of plan holiday was from 1966 to 1969. The main
121. (b) The Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of reason behind the plan holiday was the Indo-Pakistan
Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) is an international war & failure of third plan. During this plan annual plans
legal agreement between the members of the World Trade were made and equal priority was given to agriculture its
Organization regarding setting standards for the allied sectors and the industry sector. Rolling Plan was
regulation of intellectual property by national started with an annual plan for 1978-79 and as a
governments. It has 162 member nations and became continuation of the terminated fifth year plan.
effective on January 1, 1995. 132. (a) Monitory policy in India uses 7 tools viz. cash reserve
122. (d) Real GDP or Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth ratio, statutory liquidity ratio, repo and reserve repo rates, bank
of India at constant prices in the year 2015-16 is estimated rate, marginal standing funding and open market operations.
at 7.56 percent in comparison to the growth rate of 7.24 133. (a) Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if
percent in 2014-15. Real Gross Value Added growth at prices of domestic goods remains constant.
basic constant prices in 2015-16 is 7.3 per cent. Gross 134. (b) GCI scores are calculated on basis of 12 categories
National Product is the total value of goods produced called ‘pillars of competitiveness which covers both
and services provided by a country during a year. business and social indicators. It includes pillars such as
123. (b) The Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) is a trade institutions, infrastructure, health and primary education,
agreement between 12 Pacific Rim nations including labour market efficiency, financial market development,
Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, technological readiness and market size.
New Zealand, Peru, Singapore, the United States (until 135. (d) In January 2015, the Ministry of Statistics &
January 23, 2017) and Vietnam. These members account for Programme Implementation has released the new series
40 percent of global GDP. India is not a member of the TPP. of national accounts, revising the base year from 2004-05
124. (b) Bitcoin is a digital currency and was invented on to 2011-12. The base year of national accounts was last
October 31, 2008 by an unidentified programmer, or group revised in January 2010.
of programmers called Satoshi Nakamoto. It uses complex 136. (a) A-1,B-2,C-3 and D-4 is the correct answer.
computer software for its generation called Bitcoin mining. 137. (c) Geoffrey Kay has given the famous dictum- ‘capital created
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) does not allow the use of underdevelopment not because it exploited the underdeveloped
Bitcoins, and warned those investing in it. world, but because it did not exploit it enough.’
125. (c) In 2016, the Union Government of India announced a 138. (a) An exclusive economic zone (EEZ) is a sea zone
Rs. 6,000 crore special package for the textile and apparel prescribed by the United Nations Convention on the Law
industry to create one crore jobs, mostly for women, in the of the Sea over which a state has special rights regarding
next three years. The package included several tax and the exploration and use of marine resources, including
production incentives. The government also planned to energy production from water and wind. It stretches from
bring in more flexibility in labor laws to increase productivity. the baseline out to 200 nautical miles (nmi) from its coast.
126. (a) 12th Five Year Plan (2012 - 2017) aimed at achieving The term does not include either the territorial sea or the
growth rate of 8% by focusing on inclusive growth. The continental shelf beyond the 200 nmi limit.
government aimed reducing poverty by 10 per cent during 139. (c) An ETF, or exchange-traded fund, is a marketable
the plan. Skill Development Strategies needed for security that tracks an index, a commodity, bonds, or a
increasing employment. Promoting regional balances will basket of assets like an index fund.
promote equal economic growth of all states. 140. (d) The Reserve Bank of India has constituted a 10-
member 'High Level Task Force on Public Credit Registry
127. (a) Most-favoured-nation (MFN) Clause under the
(PCR) for India', which is headed by YM Deosthalee, ex-
WTO regime ensured that countries should not
CMD, L&T Finance Holdings.
discriminate between their trading nations and also that
141. (a) India Post Payments Bank is incorporated as a Public
national and international business entities get equal
Sector Bank under the Department of Posts with 100%
treatment. The clause forms the first article of the General GOI equity. IPPB was launched on January 30th, 2017 in
Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). Reducing tariffs Ranchi and Raipur with the objective of being present in
and non-tariff barriers is also highlighted by the clause. all corners of India by the end of the year.
128. (a) GST would be applied at each stage of sale/purchace 142. (a) Growth in production (in percent) of natural gas
of goods services, according to value added. industries in India during the period 2015 - 2016 was
129. (a) Changes in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy negative. Production of refinery products, crude oil, natural
affected single brand trading, defense, and private gas, steel and cement dwindled in the period whereas
security sectors, manufacturing of small arms, fertilisers, coal and cement reported healthy output
pharmaceuticals. Eight year relaxation for single brand numbers. Electricity had no fluctuation from last year.
retail is proposed, FDI limit for defense sector has been
Economics 239
143. (a) The Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial a year ago, with the slippage ranging from a marginal 0.1 to
Telecommunication (SWIFT) was founded in Brussels in profligate 4.63 percentage points.
1973 under the leadership of its inaugural CEO, Carl 152. (a) There has been a sharp decline in savings rate in
Reuterskiöld , and was supported by 239 banks in fifteen Indian economy between 2007-2008 to 2015-2016. The
countries. It started to establish common standards for household savings rate could remain stagnant or even
financial transactions and a shared data processing system decline as financial liabilities increase with greater retail
and worldwide communications network designed by credit penetration.
Logica and developed by The Burroughs Corporation. 153. (c) “Private investments in research have severely lagged
Fundamental operating procedures, rules for liability, etc., public investments in India. According to one analysis
were established in 1975 and the first message was sent in (Forbes, 2017) there are 26 Indian companies in the list of
1977. SWIFT's first United States operating center was the top 2,500 global R&D spenders. Public expenditure on
inaugurated by Governor John N. Dalton of Virginia in 1979. research has been stagnant—between 0.6 and 0.7% of Gross
144. (c) The tax incidence depends on the relative price Domestic Product (GDP)—over the past two decades,
elasticity of supply and demand. When supply is more elastic indicating a need for increased contribution from the private
than demand, buyers bear most of the tax burden. When sector and universities towards research and development.
demand is more elastic than supply, producers bear most of 154. (c) Indian agricultural output growth has grown from
the cost of the tax. Tax revenue is larger the more inelastic about 2% average in the first decades to over 3% now and
the demand and supply are. the annual volatility (measured by standard deviation) has
145. (b) The law of diminishing marginal utility states that as a been reduced from 6% to about 3%. Agriculture is the
person increases consumption of a product while keeping most important sector of Indian Economy. Indian
consumption of other products constant, there is a decline agriculture sector accounts for 18 per cent of India›s gross
in the marginal utility that person derives from consuming domestic product (GDP) and provides employment to 50%
each additional unit of that product. of the countries workforce. India is the world›s largest
146. (d) According to the latest Reserve Bank of India study producer of pulses, rice, wheat, spices and spice products.
on State finances, capital spending is maximum on education. 155. (a) The Comptroller and Auditor-General shall cause the
147. (c) India’s score went from 56.05 in Doing Business 2017 accounts of the District and Regional Councils to be
to 60.76 in Doing Business 2018. This means last year audited in such manner as he may think fit, and the reports
India improved its business regulations in absolute terms
of the Comptroller and Auditor General relating to such
– indicating that the country is continuing its steady shift
accounts shall be submitted to the Governor who shall
towards best practice in business regulation. The report
cause them to be laid before the Council.
also recognizes India as one of the top 10 improvers in this
156. (c) According to updated World Bank figures on GDP
year’s assessment, having implemented reforms in 8 out of
of countries for 2017, India has become world›s sixth-biggest
10 Doing Business indicators viz. starting a business, dealing
economy surpassing France to seventh place. India›s gross
with construction permits, getting credit, protecting minority
investors, paying taxes, trading across borders, enforcing domestic product (GDP) amounted to $2.597 trillion at the
contracts and resolving insolvency. end of 2017, as against $2.582 trillion for France
148. (b) Criteria and weights for the horizontal distribution of 157. (b) The Income Tax Department has introduced a mobile
the tax is income distance (50%), Population (17.5%), Area app, named.. Aaykar Setu – It’s a free mobile application. It
(15%), Demographic change (10%), and forest cover (7.5%). provides linkage to various services of the Income-tax
149. (a) The natural rate of unemployment is the name that was Department through a single window.
given to a key concept in the study of economic activity. 158. (d) When total utility is maximum, marginal utility is zero
Milton Friedman and Edmund Phelps, tackling this ‘human’ and it is not equal to average utility.
problem in the 1960s, both received the Nobel Prize in 159. (b) In economics, an indifference curve connects points
economics for their work, and the development of the concept on a graph representing different quantities of two goods,
is cited as a main motivation behind the prize. A simplistic points between which a consumer is indifferent. That is,
summary of the concept is: ‘The natural rate of unemployment, the consumer has no preference for one combination or
when an economy is in a steady state of “full employment”, is bundle of goods over a different combination on the same
the proportion of the workforce who are unemployed’. curve. Two indifference curves cannot cut each other.
150. (d) As per the extant FDI policy, foreign investment up to 160. (d) All the statements are correct about a joint-stock company.
49% is permitted under the automatic route, foreign 161. (a) Some goods or productive factors are completely fixed
investment beyond 49% and upto 100% is permitted through in amount, regardless of price. There is only one Mona
Government approval, wherever it is likely to result in access Lisa by da Vinci. Nature's original endowment of land can
to modern technology or for other reasons to be recorded. be taken as fixed in amount. In this case, the supply curve
151. (b) Fiscal deficit for 2017-18 was the highest among major is always horizontal.
states for Assam (12.7%) — which is under special 162. (c) Monopolistic competition is a market structure which
category — while Bihar (7.2%), Punjab (4.5%), Rajasthan combines elements of monopoly and competitive markets. It
(3.5%) Odisha (3.5%), Madhya Pradesh (3.4%), Andhra is a situation when firms sell similar but not identical products.
Pradesh (3.4%) and Kerala (3.4%) also reported the deficit 163. (c) Inflation in the country continued to moderate during
to be much above the 3% norm. 3% fiscal deficit in the 2017-18. Consumer Price Index (CPI) based headline
current financial year, but an analysis by FE of 14 state inflation averaged 3.3 per cent during the period which is
budgets presented recently suggests they might not. As the lowest in the last six financial years. This has been
the year is drawing to a close, seven of these states have stated in the Economic Survey 2017-18. There was a
revised their FY18 fiscal deficits to be higher than projected significant reduction in food inflation too.
EBD_7341
240 Economics
164. (b) Developed by James Duesenberry, the relative income commonly used measurement of inequality. It was
hypothesis states that an individual's attitude to developed by the Italian statistician and sociologist
consumption and saving is dictated more by his income in Corrado Gini and published in his 1912 paper Variability
relation to others than by abstract standard of living; the and Mutability.
percentage of income consumed by an individual depends 174. (a) Demographic dividend, as defined by the United
on his percentile position within the income distribution. It Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) means, “the economic
also depends on the rate of return of his capital and age of growth potential that can result from shifts in a
the individual. population’s age structure, mainly when the share of the
165. (c) According to Keynes, the volume of employment in a working-age population (15 to 64) is larger than the non-
country depends on the level of effective demand of people working-age share of the population (14 and younger,
for goods and services. Unemployment is attributed to the and 65 and older).
deficiency of effective demand. In other words, it is “a boost in economic productivity
166. (d) Adam Smith said taxation should be imposed in that occurs when there are growing numbers of people in
proportion to the benefits a taxpayer receives from the state the workforce relative to the number of dependents.
and should be equity, certainty, convenience, and efficiency. UNFPA stated that, “A country with both increasing
167. (d) Eight States which have already achieved more than 99 numbers of young people and declining fertility has the
per cent household electrification prior to launch of Saubhagya potential to reap a demographic dividend.
scheme are ineligible for participation under the award scheme. 175. (a) Disposable income is total personal income minus
These eight states are Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Goa, Haryana, personal current taxes. In national accounts definitions,
Himachal Pradesh, Kerala, Punjab and Tamil Nadu. personal income minus personal current taxes equals
168. (c) The economic model is a theoretical construct disposable personal income.[2] Subtracting personal
representing economic processes by a set of variables outlays (which includes the major category of personal
and a set of logical and/or quantitative relationships [or private] consumption expenditure) yields personal (or,
between them. The economic model is a simplified, often private) savings, hence the income left after paying away
mathematical, framework designed to illustrate complex all the taxes is referred to as disposable income.
processes. Frequently, economic models posit structural 176. (a) The term free price system refers to an economic
parameters.A model may have various exogenous system where prices are decided by exchange of demand
variables, and those variables may change to create and supply and the prices resulting from it is taken as a
various responses by economic variables. signal which is communicated between consumers and
Methodological uses of models include investigation, producers and which helps in guiding production and
theorizing, and fitting theories to the world. distribution of the resources.
169. (b) Normal demand curve is the graph that shows The interaction of buyers and sellers in free markets
relationship between demand and price under ceteris enables goods, services, and resources to be allocated
paribus… normal demand curve shows negative slope prices. ... Resources move towards where they are in the
because of the inversely proportional between price and shortest supply, relative to demand, and away from where
quantity demanded in the market such that when the price they are least demanded.
is higher quantity demanded decreases and vise versa. 177. (a) Indexation is a technique to adjust income payments
170. (a) Minimum Support Price is the price at which by means of a price index, in order to maintain the
government purchases crops from the farmers, whatever purchasing power of the public after inflation, while
may be the price for the crops. Minimum Support Price is deindexation is the unwinding of indexation. Indexation is
an important part of India›s agricultural price policy. The used to adjust the purchase price of an investment to reflect
MSP helps to incentivize the framers and thus ensures the effect of inflation on it. A higher purchase price means
adequate food grains production in the country. lesser profits, which effectively means a lower tax. With
171. (c) A cost-of-living index is a theoretical price index that the help of indexation, you will be able to lower your long-
measures relative cost of living over time or regions. It is term capital gains, which brings down your taxable income.
an index that measures differences in the price of goods 178. (b) Human development is defined as the process of
and services, and allows for substitutions with other items enlarging people’s freedoms and opportunities and
as prices vary. improving their well-being. ... The human development
Minimum Support Price is the price at which government concept was developed by economist Mahbub ul Haq.
purchases crops for the farmers, to safeguard the interests 179. (d) It was launched by Prime Minister. Narendra Modi
of the farmers. on 25 September 2014.
172. (c) The Human Development Index (HDI) is a statistic Make in India is a major national programme of the
composite index of life expectancy, education, and per Government of India designed to facilitate investment,
capita income indicators, which are used to rank countries foster innovation, enhance skill development, protect
into four tiers of human development. ... Examples intellectual property and build best in class manufacturing
include—Being: well fed, sheltered, healthy; Doing: work, infrastructure in the country.
education, voting, participating in community life. 180. (d) The State Legislative Council is the upper house in
173. (c) In economics, the Gini coefficient sometimes called those states of India that have a bicameral state legislature;
the Gini index or Gini ratio, is a measure of statistical the lower house being the State Legislative Assembly. Its
dispersion intended to represent the income or wealth establishment is defined in Article 169 of the Constitution
distribution of a nation’s residents, and is the most of India.
Economics 241
As of November 2019, after the bifurcation of Jammu and 187. (b) Because the function is increasing, the slope must
Kashmir, 6 out of 28 states have a State Legislative Council. be positive. An angle of 45 degrees means that the values
The latest state to have a council is Telangana. of x equal the values of y. To find the slope of a straight
In accordance with a resolution passed by the Andhra Pradesh line use this equation M(slope)= (Y2 – Y1)/(X2 – X1), and
Vidhan Sabha, the Indian Parliament abolished the Vidhan as before X1=Y1 and X2=Y2. Depending on the previous
Parishad through the Andhra Pradesh Legislative Council information, the slope is 1.
(Abolition) Act in 1985, after the Congress (I) suffered a major 188. (d) British travel giant Thomas Cook collapsed after
defeat in the state elections in Andhra Pradesh. failing to secure rescue funding, the British Civil Aviation
181. (c) Invest India is India’s official agency dedicated to Authority said Sunday.
investment promotion and facilitation. It is a not-for-profit, 189. (b) Perfect competition-the situation prevailing in a
single window facilitator, set up in 2010 for prospective market in which buyers and sellers are so numerous and
overseas investors and to those aspiring Indian investors well informed that all elements of monopoly are absent
desiring to invest in foreign locations, and acts as a and the market price of a commodity is beyond the control
structured mechanism to attract investment. Invest India of individual buyers and sellers.
is essentially an Investment Promotion Agency in India. Monopolistic competition is a type of imperfect
182. (b) The Reserve Bank of India had constituted a High- competition such that many producers sell products that
Level Committee on Deepening of Digital Payments under are differentiated from one another and hence are not
the Chairmanship of Shri Nandan Nilekani, former Chairman, perfect substitutes.
UIDAI, in January 2019. A monopoly exists when a specific person or
183. (a) Saubhagya. Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar enterprise is the only supplier of a particular commodity.
Yojana – ‘Saubhagya’ a new scheme was launched by This contrasts with a monopsony which relates to a single
the Hon’ble Prime Minister on 25th September 2017. Under entity’s control of a market to purchase a good or service
Saubhagya free electricity connections to all households An oligopoly is a market form wherein a market or
(both APL and poor families) in rural areas and poor industry is dominated by a small group of large sellers.
families in urban areas will be provided. Oligopolies can result from various forms of collusion
184. (c) Most Common Reason For Migration Among Indian which reduce competition and lead to higher prices for
Women: Marriage. Data from 2011 Census says marriage consumers. Oligopolies have their own market structure.
was the reason behind 46 percent migrations in India, of 190. (b) Four basic pillars of human development: equity,
which 97 percent are women. Marriage is the biggest sustainability, productivity, empowerment. Equity is the
reason why women migrate from one place to another. idea of fairness for every person, between men and women;
185. (c) Repo rate refers to the rate at which commercial we each have the right to education and health care.
banks borrow money by selling their securities to the 191. (d) The Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public
Central bank of our country. Reserve Bank of India Enterprises is an executive agency of the Government
(RBI) to maintain liquidity, in case of shortage of funds of India that administers 48 central public sector
or due to some statutory measures. It is one of the enterprises (PSEs) and assists them in their effort to
main tools of RBI to keep inflation under control. improve capacity utilisation and increase profitability,
Technically, repo stands for ‘Repurchasing Option’ or generate resources and re-orient strategies to become
‘Repurchase Agreement’. It is an agreement in which more competitive. The ministry serves as an interface
banks provide eligible securities such as Treasury Bills between PSEs and other agencies for long-term policy
to the RBI while availing overnight loans. An agreement formulation. The ministry also encourages the
to repurchase them at a predetermined price will also rest ructuring of PSEs t o make their operations
be in place. Thus, the bank gets the cash and the central competitive and viable on a long-term and sustainable
bank the security. basis.
186. (b) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a specified minimum 192. (b) Dr. Bibek Debroy is Chairman of Economic Advisory
fraction of the total deposits of customers, which Council to the Prime Minister, Government of India.He is
commercial banks have to hold as reserves either in cash an economist and was educated in Ramakrishna Mission
or as deposits with the central bank. CRR is set according School, Narendrapur; Presidency College, Kolkata; Delhi
to the guidelines of the central bank of a country. School of Economics and Trinity College, Cambridge.
The CRR (4 per cent of NDTL) requires banks to 193. (c) The Reserve Bank of India has ordered Punjab and
maintain a current account with the RBI with liquid cash. Maharashtra Co-operative (PMC) Bank not to do any
... While ensuring some liquid money against deposits is business for six months and capped depositor
the primary purpose of CRR, its secondary purpose is to withdrawals at Rs 1,000, throwing the lives of thousands
allow the RBI to control liquidity and rates in the economy. of traders, self-employed and daily wage earners into
disarray.
EBD_7341
242 General Knowledge
8 General Knowledge
1. Which one among the following administers the 12. What is an ECO-MARK? [2008-I]
International Development Association? [2007-II] (a) A scheme for labelling pollution-tree industrial until
(a) UNDP (b) UNIDO (b) A scheme for labelling environment friendly consumer
(c) IFAD (d) IBRD product
2. As per the Census 2001, what is the approximate percentage (c) A cost effective production technique
of the Scheduled Tribe population of India? [2007-II] (d) An international certification xcognilux Eco-friendly
(a) 4% (b) 5% building
(c) 7% (d) 8% 13. Which one of the following countries is not a founder
3. What is the target year for eliminating the revenue deficit member of OPEC? [2008-I]
by the Government of India as per the Fiscal Responsibility (a) Algeria (b) Kuwait
and Budget Management Act as amended in the year 2004? (c) Iraq (d) Iran
(a) 2007-08 (b) 2008-09 [2007-II] 14. Consider the following statements [2008-II]
(c) 2009-10 (d) 2010-11 1. The USSR assisted in the building of the Bhilai Steel
4. WTO came into existence at the conclusion of which Round Plant.
of GATT? [2007-II] 2. The British assisted in the building of the Bokaro
(a) Singapore (b) Uruguay Steel Plant.
(c) Tokyo (d) Marrakesh Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
5. Where was the Sixth WTO Ministerial Conference (MC6)
held? [2007-II]
(a) Singapore (b) Bangkok
15. In which of the following International Organisations is
(c) Hong Kong (d) Kuala Lumpur
India a member? [2008-II]
6. Which one of the following countries is not a member of
the OPEC? [2007-II] 1. Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation.
(a) Algeria (b) Indonesia 2. Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development
(c) Malaysia (d) Nigeria Select the correct answer using the codes given below
7. Who among the following Indian freedom fighters made (a) only1 (b) Only 2
an attempt to estimate the per capita income of India? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
[2008-I] 16. Which one of the following countries is not a member of
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (b) Feroze Shah Mehta ASEAN? [2008-II]
(c) Surendranath Banerjee (d) Dadabhai Naoroji (a) Brunei Darussalam (b) Cambodia
8. What is the period covered by the recommendations of (c) Vietnam (d) India
the 12th Finance Commission? [2008-I] 17. Who among the following was the first Chairman of the
(a) Year 2004-2009 (b) Year 2005-2010 Planning Commission? [2008-II]
(c) Year 2006-2011 (d) Year 2007-2012 (a) Dr Rajendra Prasad (b) Pt Jawaharlal Nehru
9. Which one of the following is not a member of ASEAN? (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (d) JB Kripalani
(a) Cambodia (b) Malaysia [2008-I] 18. Match the following. [2008-II]
(c) Singapore (d) South Korea List I List II
10. Consider the following statements : [2008-I] (Person) (Organisation)
1. BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral A. Juan Somavia 1. IAEA
Technical and Economic Cooperation) is visualised B. Margaret Chan 2. ILO
as a bridging link between ASEAN and SAARC. C. Kemal Dervis 3. WHO
2. It was formerly known as the Bangkok Agreement. D. Mohamed ElBaradei 4. UNDP
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Codes :
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 A B C D
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 2 3 4
11. Who of the following is the Chairman of the 13th Finance (b) 2 3 4 1
Commission? [2008-I] (c) 2 4 3 1
(a) Vijay Tendulkar (b) M Damodaran (d) 1 3 2 4
(c) Vijay L Kelkar (d) YV Raddy
General Knowledge 243
19. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (c) Mining and Quarrying
Organisation Headquarters (d) Manufacturing
A International Labour Organisation Geneva 28. Match the following [2011-II]
B. International Maritime Organisation London List I List II
C International Monetary Fund Washington D.C. (Industrial policy) (Salient feature)
D. International Atomic Energy Agency New York A. The industrial policy 1. Began the process of
[2008-II] 1948 state-centric economy
20. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development B. The industrial policy 2. Reaffirmed faith in
is also known as [2008-II] 1956 mixed economy
(a) Credit Bank (b) Exim Bank C. The industrial policy 3. Initiated public-private
(c) World Bank (d) Asian Bank 1980 partnership
21. Consider the following statements about IAEA [2009-I] D. The industrial policy 4. Ushered in mixed
1. It was set-up as the world's Atoms for Peace 1991 economy
organisation in 1957. Codes :
2. The IAEA Secretariat is headquartered at the Vienna A B C D
international Centre in Vienna, Austria. (a) 4 1 2 3
3. In terms of its statute, the IAEA reports annually to (b) 4 2 1 3
the UN General Assembly. (c) 3 1 2 4
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (d) 3 2 1 4
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 29. Consider the following statements regarding India's
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 3 advocacy for a permanent seat in the United Nations
22. In which of the following years was General Agreement on Security Council. [2011-II]
Tariffs and Trade (GATT) absorbed into the World Trade 1. India is the largest democracy in the world.
Organisation (WTO)? [2009-I] 2. India is among the top five largest growing economies
(a) 1991 (b) 1995 in the world
(c) 2000 (d) 2005 3. India has been the largest contributor to the United
23. Which one among the following States has the highest Nations Peace keeping Forces..
gender disparity? [2009-I] 4. India is one of the top ten contributors of the United
(a) Odisha (b) Uttar Pradesh Nations Budget.
(c) Haryana (d) Maharashtra Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
24. In which one of the following places was Asia's first Export (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) Both 1 and 2
Processing Zone (EPZ) set-up? [2009-I] (c) Only 2 (d) 1, 3 and 4
(a) Santa Cruz (b) Kandla 30. Consider the following statements [2011-II]
(c) Cochin (d) Surat 1. The five permanent members of the Security Council
25. Which one of the following crops production has been are the only countries recognised as nuclear-weapon
exceeding target since 2004-2005 in India, but its growers states under the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty.
have been committing suicide in large numbers in many 2. The term of non-permanent members of the council
parts of the country every year? [2011-II] is five years.
(a) Pulse (b) Cotton Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Oilseeds (d) Wheat (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
26. Consider the following statements about Tata Steel (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
[2011-II] 31. Which among the following statements about European
1. It is Asia's first privately owned integrated iron and Union (EU) are correct? [2011-II]
steel plant. 1. The EU is the world's largest economy.
2. It is the first company outside Japan to get the Deming 2. The EU has its own flag, anthem and currency.
Application Prize in 2008, for excellence in total quality 3. The EU's combined armed forces are the second
management. largest in the world.
3. Immediately after the enactment of Provident Fund 4. The EU has its own Constitution.
Law in India, Tata Steel introduced provident fund Select the correct answer using the codes given below
for its employees. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
4. It is the first company in the world to get Social (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
Accountability 8000 certification from Social 32. Which one among the following statements about South
Accountability International, USA. Asia is not correct? [2011-II]
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) All the countries in South Asia are currently democracies
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (b) SAFTA was signed at the 12th SAARC Summit in
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1,2, 3 and 4 Islamabad
27. During the year 2009-10, which of the following sectors (c) The US and China play an influential role in the politics
experienced negative growth rate in India? [2011-II] of some South Asian States
(a) Agriculture, Forestry and Fishing (d) Bangladesh and India have agreements on river water
(b) Construction sharing and boundary disputes
EBD_7341
33. Which one among the following statements about United (b) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
Nations organs is correct? [2011-II] (c) Janshree Bima Yojana
(a) Decisions of the General Assembly are binding on all (d) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana
members 42. ONGC Videsh (the state-owned and gas company of India)
(b) The term of the non-permanent members of the recent (September, 2012) signed a definitive agreement with
Security Council is for three years [2013-I]
(c) International Court of justice has 20 Judges elected (a) Russia (b) Azerbaijan
for a period of five years (c) Iran (d) South Sudan
(d) The Trusteeship Council has been suspended since 43. Statement-I : The economy of India in the 19th century
1 November, 1994 came to a state of ruin under English East India Company.
34. The basis of European Union began with the signing of Statement-II : English East India Company's acquisition
[2012-I] of Diwani right led to the miseries of the peasants and
(a) Maastricht Treaty (b) Treaty of Paris those associated with the traditional handicrafts industry
(c) Treaty of Rome (d) Treaty of Lisbon of India. [2013-II]
35. Which one among the following is not a clause of World Codes :
Trade Organisation? [2012-I] (a) Both the Statements are individuals true and
(a) Most favoured nation treatment Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Lowering trade barriers with negotiations (b) Both the Statements are individuals true, but Statement II
(c) Providing financial support to the countries having
is not the correct explanation of Statement I
deficit balance of payments
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(d) Discouraging unfair trade practices such as antidumping
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
and export subsidies
44. Which of the following statements about Prof. CNR Rao
36. Special Drawing Rights [SDRs] relate to [2012-I]
(a) the World Bank is/are correct? [2014-I]
(b) the Reserve Bank of India 1. He is considered to be an international authority in
(c) the World Trade Organisation solid-state and structural chemistry.
(d) the International Monetary Fund 2. He is the first Indian to reach the H-index of 100,
37. Which one among the following is not a Millennium reflecting the economy of the body of his published
Development Goal of the United Nations ? [2012-I] research work.
(a) Eradicate extreme poverty Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(b) Reduce birth rate and death rate (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Improve maternal health (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Promote gender equality 45. Consider the following statements about Pragati missile
38. Recently, Apple Computers of USA has launched a touch system of India [2014-I]
pad which allows a user to operate desktop computer with 1. It is a short range solid fuel missile system.
finger gestures, eliminating the need for a mouse. What is 2. It has all weather day and night operational launch
the name of the device? [2012-II] capability.
(a) Mirror image pad (b) Virtual pad Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Fingertrip track pad (d) Magic track pad (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
39. Consider the following statements [2012-II] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Rural forestry aims to raise the trees on community 46. Consider the following statements about Indira Gandhi
land and on privately owned land. Prize for Peace. Disarmament and Development [2014-I]
2. Farm forestry encourages individual farmers to plant 1. Angela Merkel, Chancellor of Germany, was selected
trees on their own farmland to meet the domestic need for the prize for the year 2013.
of the family. 2. The award is accorded annually to individuals only.
Which of the statement (s) given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Human Poverty Index [HPI] developed by UNDP is based 47. Which of the following is/are the objective (s) of 'Mahatma
on which of the following deprivations? [2013-I] Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha Yojana'?
1. Income deprivation To encourage and enable the overseas Indian workers by
2. Literacy deprivation giving government contribution to [2014-I]
3. Social services deprivation 1. save for their return and resettlement.
4. Employment deprivation 2. save for their old age.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 3. obtain a life insurance cover against natural death
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 for the entire life of the worker.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
41. Which one among the following programmes has now been
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
restructured as the National Rural Livelihood Mission?
(c) Only 1 (d) All of these
(a) Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana [2013-I]
48. Which of the following are the most important reason/ 3. BIMSTEC was rechristened as BISTEC in the year 2014.
reasons of flood becoming a destructive natural hazard in Select the correct answer using the code given below :
the Ganga-Brahmaputra valley ? [2014-II] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. Due to population pressure more and more people (c) l and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
are living in flood prone areas 54. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
2. Increased frequency and magnitude of landslide and using the code given below the Lists : [2014-II]
soil erosion in the upper catchments List I List II
3. Increase in the amount and intensity of rainfall in the (Training institute) (Location)
north-western part of India A. National Academy 1. Hyderabad
Select the correct answer using the code given below : of Direct Taxes
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only B. Rafi Ahmed Kidwai - 2. Nagpur
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 National Postal
49. Which of the following is/are Paramilitary Force(s) of India? Academy
1. Indian Coast Guard [2014-II] C. Sardar Vallabhbhai 3. Dehradun
2. Assam Rifles Patel National
3. Directorate General of Resettlement Police Academy
Select the correct answer using the code given below : D. Indira Gandhi 4. Ghaziabad
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) l and 3 only National Forest
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 2 only
Academy
50. Consider the following statements about FIFA: [2014-II]
Code:
1. It is an association governed by Swiss law, founded
A B C D
in 1904 and based in Zurich.
(a) 2 4 1 3
2. FEFA has been engaging with its stakeholders and
(b) 2 1 4 3
other institutions to find sensible ways of addressing
environmental issues and mitigate the negative (c) 3 4 1 2
environmental impacts linked to its activities. (d) 3 1 4 2
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 55. The Patola weave was traditionally done in [2014-II]
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Pochampally and Kanchipuram
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Surat and Patan
51. Consider the following statements about SAARC : (c) Dacca and Benares
[2014-II] (d) Benares and Paithan
l. The SAARC Secretariat is located at Kathmandu. 56. V M Dandekar and Neel Kanth Rath were well-known for
2. The Secretariat is headed by the Secretary General, who their [2014-II]
is appointed by the Council of Ministers from Member (a) study on the spread of the Green Revolution
States in alphabetical order for a three year term. (b) advocacy of nuclear power
3. The Secretary General is assisted by eight Directors (c) advocacy of liberalization
on deputation from the Member States. (d) study on poverty in India
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 57. Consider the following statements about the recently
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only concluded field exercise Sarvada Vijay: [2014-II]
(c) 1, 2.and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only 1. It was a joint exercise of Indian Army, Navy and Air
52. Consider the following statements on SAFTA: [2014-II] Force.
1. SAFTA is a trade liberalisation programme among 2. The overall aim of the exercise was to practise
the South-Eastern countries of Asia. conventional cross-border thrusts into enemy territory.
2. According to SAFTA, the Ministerial Council shall Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
meet at least once every year or more often as and (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
when considered necessary by the Contracting States. (c) Both l and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 58. Which one among the following is a state-of-the-art
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only acoustic sensor-based target training system developed
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 by the CSIR for shooters of the Indian Army? [2014-II]
53. Consider the following statements on Bay of Bengal (a) SHANKH (b) DHVANI
Initiative for Multisectoral Technical and Economic (c) NISHAN (d) PRAHAR
Cooperation (BIMSTEC) : [2014-II] 59. The technique of inducing rain from cloud is called
1. BIMSTEC has seven members - Bangladesh, Bhutan, [2014-II]
India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand. (a) Cloud computing
2. BIMSTEC provides a link between South Asia and (b) Cloud control
South East Asia by way of economic cooperation (c) Cloud engineering
and linkages in identified areas of cooperation. (d) Cloud seeding
EBD_7341
60. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer 67. Operation Kachhapa is an NGO initiative for the
using the code given below the Lists : [2014-II] conservation of [2014-II]
List I List II (a) Hawksbill turtles (b) Olive Ridley sea turtles
(Founder/ First (Premier Research (c) Green turtles (d) Leatherback turtles
Director) Institute) 68. Barji oil refinery is located at [2014-II]
A. Vikram Sarabhai 1. Indian Statistical (a) Iran (b) Iraq
Institute (c) South Sudan (d) Russia
B. Homi J Bhabha 2. Jawaharlal Nehru 69. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
Centre for Advanced using the code given below the Lists : [2015-I]
Scientific Research List I (Industry) List II (Location)
C. C N R Rao 3. Tata Institute of A. Railway equipment 1. Kochi
fundamental Research B. Automobile 2. Ludhiana
C. Ship-building 3. Bhilai
D. P. C. Mahalanobis 4. Physical Research
D. Bicycle 4. Jabalpur
Laboratory
Code :
Code :
(a) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2 (b) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2
A B C D (c) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3 (d) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3
(a) 4 3 2 1 70. Which one of the following is the most appropriate and
(b) 4 2 3 1 correct practice from the point of view of a healthy
(c) 1 3 2 4 environment ? [2015-I]
(d) 1 2 3 4 (a) Burning of plastic wastes to keep the environment clean
61. Consider the following statements about GAGAN (GPS (b) Burning of dry and fallen leaves in a garden or field
Aided Geo Augmented Navigation) system: [2014-II] (c) Treatment of domestic sewage before its release
1. It offers free enhanced satellite navigation signals (d) Use of chemical fertilizers in agricultural fields
over India which are ten times more precise than GPS. 71. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
2. It was developed jointly by ISRO and NASA. using the code given below the Lists : [2015-I]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? List I (Sanctuary) List II (State)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only A. Sharavati Valley 1. Gujarat
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 B. Satkosia Gorge 2. Goa
62. Andaman and Nicobar Command is [2014-II] C. Pirotan Island 3. Odisha
(a) a Command of the Indian Army D. Bhagwan Mahavir 4. Karnataka
(b) a regional Command of the Indian Coast Guard Code :
(c) an integrated theater Command operating directly (a) A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4 (b) A-4; B-1; C-3; D-2
under the Chiefs of Staff Committee (c) A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2 (d) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4
(d) a joint Command of the Indian Navy and the Indian 72. The word ‘vaccination’ has been derived from a Latin
Air Force word which relates to [2015-I]
(a Pig (b) Horse
63. Arihant is a [2014-II]
(c) Cow (d) Dog
(a) Multi barrel rocket launcher
73. Which one among the following was the theme of the
(b) Airborne Early Warning and Control System
International Day of the Preservation of the Ozone Layer-
(c) Unmarmed Combat Aerial Vehicle 2014 ? [2015-I]
(d) Nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (a) Ozone Day - A healthy atmosphere, the future we want
64. Which one among the following is not a Command of the (b) Protecting our atmosphere for generations to come
Indian Army ? [2014-II] (c) HCFC phase out: a unique opportunity
(a) South-Westem Command (d) Ozone Layer Protection : The Mission Goes On
(b) South-Eastern Command 74. Which one among the following was not an outcome of
(c) Army Training Command the fifth BRICS summit held in Durban in South Africa in
(d) Central Command March 2013 ? [2015-I]
65. Master Chief Petty Officer is a rank in the [2014-II] (a) Signing of two agreements on Extending Credit
(a) Indian Navy Facility in Local Currencies and BRICS Multilateral
(b) Military Engineering Service Letter of Credit Confirmation Facility
(c) The Army Aviation Corps (b) Proclamation of establishment BRICS-led New
(d) Indian Air Force Development Bank
66. 'Project Seabird' is connected with [2014-II] (c) Creation of a safety net through a Contingent Reserve
(a) Greenfield naval base at West Coast of India Arrangement (CRA) among BRICS countries
(b) Anti pirate operation at Somalia (d) Setting up of BRICS Business Council and BRICS
(c) Indian Navy's island development project Think Tank Council
(d) Shipyard in Kutch district, Gujarat
75. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ? 81. The Central Industrial Security Force is under the
[2015-I] administrative control of which of the following ministries?
(a) The Armed Forces Tribunal has the power to [2015-I]
adjudicate disputes relating to conditions of service (a) Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
of persons subject to the Army Act, 1950. (b) Headquarters of the Integrated Joint Staff
(b) Findings and sentences of court martial can be (c) Ministry of Home Affairs
challenged before the Armed Forces Tribunal. (d) PMO
(c) The Chairperson and members of the Armed Forces 82. Which of the following is/are not the characteristic(s) of
Tribunal shall be appointed only after consultation the First Past The Post System (FPTP) ? [2015-I]
with the Chief Justice of India. 1. It is a majoritarian system where minorities are likely
(d) The Chairperson and members of the Armed Forces to remain unrepresented.
Tribunal can be removed only after consultation with 2. A candidate may win an election even if he/she gets
the Chief Justice of India. less than the majority of the votes cast.
76. In recent plans, certain words/phrases were used in the 3. It generates proportionality between the votes cast
title of the plan along with 'growth'. They are [2015-I] and the seats won.
1. Inclusive 2. Faster 4. It always leads to a two party system and a stable
3. More inclusive 4. Sustainable and accountable government.
5. More sustainable
Which combination is true of the Twelfth Five Year Plan
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
(2012 - 17) ?
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 4 only
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1, 4 and 5
83. Which of the following statement(s) with regard to the
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
77. ‘And Then One Day : A Memoir’ is an autobiography of Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 is/are correct ?
[2015-I] [2015-I]
(a) Kamal Hasan (b) Shahrukh Khan 1. The Act is applicable only to the States of Manipur,
(c) Naseeruddin Shah (d) Karan Johar Tripura and Nagaland.
78. Upari refers to which one of the following ? [2015-I] 2. A person taken into custody under the above Act
(a) A form of Marathi poetry that emerged during the must be handed over to the officer-in-charge of the
Maratha period nearest police station with least possible delay.
(b) A category of tenancy tenure held under the Maratha 3. An area can be declared as a disturbed area under
regime the above Act only when the State Government is of
(c) A court official during Maratha rule the opinion that the use of the armed forces in aid of
(d) A group of peasants who rebelled against their civil power is necessary to contain a dangerous
oppressive landlords under Maratha rule condition in the concerned area.
79. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? Select the correct answer by using the code given below:
[2015-I] (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
1. Professor Kamal Bawa was conferred with the Midori (c) 3 only (d) 2 only
Prize (2014) for biodiversity for his research on 84. Indian Coast Guard is [2015-I]
climate change in the Himalayas. (a) a branch of the Indian Navy
2. Midori Prize is an annual international prize given to (b) an organization under the Central Board of Excise
an individual for outstanding contribution to the and Customs
conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity at (c) an organization under the Ministry of Defence
global, regional or local levels. (d) a para-military force under the Ministry of Home Affairs
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 85 Which among the following is not an aspect of Gender
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Mainstreaming (GM) ? [2015-I]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) GM was established as a global strategy for
80. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? achieving gender equality by the United Nations.
[2015-I] (b) It was adopted in 1995 in the Beijing Platform of Action.
(a) The Central Government is empowered to issue a (c) It requires a review of government policy in all
notification to specify any service in a State as a sectors for eliminating gender disparity.
service of vital importance to the community. (d) GM was followed by the Convention on the
(b) Such a notification remains valid for six months. Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against
(c) Every command given by a superior officer casts a Women (CEDAW).
duty on all persons subject to the Army Act, 1950, the 86. Information under the RTI Act, 2005 can be provided in
Air Force Act, 1950 or the Navy Act, 1957 to obey the respect of [2015-I]
command when such a notification is in force.
(a) National Security Council Secretariat
(d) The provisions of the Armed Forces (Emergency
(b) Assam Rifles
Duties) Act, 1947 are applicable in connection with
(c) Border Road Development Board
vital services imposed in an emergency on the armed
(d) Border Road Organisation
forces.
EBD_7341
87. Who acts as the chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee? (a) It defines what constitutes discrimination aganist
[2015-I] women and sets up an agenda for national action
(a) The President of India in his capacity as the (b) It was adopted in 1979 by the United Nations
commander-in-chief (c) It commits States to undertake measures to end
(b) The Prime Minister discrimination in their legal system
(c) The Defence Minister (d) India is not a ratifying country and is therefore not
(d) The senior-most Chief of Staff legally bound to put its provisions into practice
88. Which of the following statements is not true ? [2015-I] 95. The Supreme Court guidelines issued in the Vishaka Case
(a) The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) pertain to [2015-I]
had regulated global trade since 1947. (a) domestic violence
(b) GATT was replaced by the World Trade Organisation (b) rape and sexual violence
(WTO) in 1995. (c) sexual harassment at the work place
(c) The Most Favoured Nation principle under GATT (d) trafficking in women
provided that preferential trading agreements reached 96. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?
with one country should be extended to other countries. [2015-I]
(d) The WTO has been able to cover in it agreements the (a) India does not have a Chief of Defence Staff.
agriculture and textile sectors which are the principal (b) India does not have a Permanent Chairman, Chiefs
concerned for the Least Developed Countries (LDCs). of Staff Committee.
89. Which of the following is not a part of contemporary Indian (c) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee who
foreign policy in relationships with its neighbours? [2015-I] functions as Chief of the Defence Staff.
(a) Look East policy for linking up with South-East Asia (d) India has a Chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee who
via Myanmar does not function as Chief of the Defence Staff.
(b) Panchsheel 97. Which of the following facts are related to Burma
(c) Non-alignment (Myanmar)? [2015-II]
(d) SAARC 1. It shares its borders with India, China, Bangladesh and
90. What was the common element among [2015-I] Vietnam.
(i) G.D. Birla (ii) Ambalal Sarabhai and 2. It is ruled by a military government.
(iii) Walchand Hirachand? 3. The National League for Democracy was not allowed
(a) They were leading members of the socialist movement to contest the elections held in the year 2010.
in India 4. Myanmar is a member of ASEAN.
(b) They were Indian industrialists Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) They were nationalist leaders (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only
91. Which of the following is not true for SAFTA (South Asian 98. Which of the following are members of BRICS?[2015-II]
Free Trade Area) ? [2015-I] (a) Bhutan, Russia, India, China and Sri Lanka
(a) It is a step towards a South Asian customs union (b) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa
and common market. (c) Brazil, Russia, Indonesia, China and Singapore
(b) The agreement came into effect in 2006. (d) Bangladesh, Republic of' Korea, Indonesia, Canada
(c) The SAFTA is a trade liberalisation regime. and Sri Lanka
(d) SAFTA agreement takes precedence over any other 99. The 'Panchsheel Agreement' for peaceful coexistence was
agreement a member country may have with states signed between [2015-II]
outside SAFTA. (a) India and Bhutan (b) India and Nepal
92. Which of the following is not a laid down principle of the (c) India and China (d) India and Pakistan
Panchsheel ? [2015-I] 100. RIO + 20' is the Short name for [2015-II]
(a) Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity (a) Millennium Development Goals
(b) Mutual non-aggression (b) United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development
(c) Mutual support for each other in world forum (c) Earth Summit
(d) Mutual non-interference in each other's internal affairs (d) Post-20l5 Development Agenda
93. What was the claim to fame of Dr. Dwarka Nath Kotnis ? 101. Which one of the following is not a member of MERCOSUR
[2015-I] (Southern Common Market)? [2015-II]
(a) He provided succour to the poor (a) Argentina (b) Paraguay
(b) He set up hospitals in the difficult to reach regions of India (c) Uruguay (d) Chile
(c) He was a leading Indian nationalist 102. Borobudur is the site of [2015-II]
(d) He laid down his life providing medical help to the (a) a huge temple of Vishnu and Shiva in Java, built in
Eighth Route Army the 12th Century AD
94. Which of the following is not true about the Convention (b) an enormous Stupa in Java, built in the 8th Century AD
on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against (c) a magnificent palace of a Chola King in Tamil Nadu
Women (CEDAW) ? [2015-I] (d) a Jain Monastery in Gujarat
103. The electronic voting machines are developed jointly with (c) Defence budget for 2015-2016 accounts for less than
1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited [2015-II] 2 per cent of the GDP.
2. Bharat Electronics Limited (d) Certain financial powers are delegated to the Vice
3. Electronics Corporation of India Limited Chief of Army Staff for capital acquisitions.
4. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited 113. 'Arihant' is the name of [2015-II]
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) an infantry combat vehicle
[2015-II] (b) a ballistic missile
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) an attack helicopter
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 (d) a nuclear powered submarine
104. Khan Shaheb Osman Ali Stadium is located at [2015-II] 114. Where was the 14th Asia Security Summit (Shangri-La
(a) Karachi (b) Dhaka Dialogue) held in May 2015? [2015-II]
(c) Fatullah (d) Chittagong (a) Beijing (b) Bangkok
105. May 31 is celebrated as 'World No Tobacco Day' by the (c) Jakarta (d) Singapore
World Health Organization. Which one of the following 115. Which one of the following is not correct about the Defence
was the theme of the 'World No Tobacco Day, 2015'? Research and Development Organization (DRDO)? [2015-II]
(a) Raise taxes on tobacco [2015-II] (a) DRDO was formed in the year 1958
(b) Stop illicit trade of tobacco products (b) It is a network of 10 laboratories engaged in developing
(c) Ban tobacco advertising, promotion and sponsorship defence technologies
(d) Tobacco-free youth (c) DRDO operates under the Ministry of Defence
106. Government of which one of the following States has (in (d) Some of its major products include development
May 2015) decided to withdraw the Armed Forces (Special missiles, armaments, light combat aircrafts, etc".
Powers) Act from the State? [2015-II] 116. 'Red Flag' is the name of a joint exercise between India and
(a) Tripura (b) Assam which one of the following countries? [2015-II]
(c) Nagaland (d) Arunachal Pradesh (a) China (b) Saudi Arabia
107. Which of the following statements with regard to New (c) USA (d) Japan
Development Bank BRICS, formerly referred to as the 117. In November 2014, which one of India's neighbouring
BRICS Development Bank, is/are correct? [2015-II] countries allowed a Chinese submarine to dock at one of
1. The Headquarters of the Bank is situated at Moscow, its ports? [2015-II]
Russia. (a) Bangladesh (b) Sri Lanka
2. K.V. Kamath is the first President of the Bank. (c) Maldives (d) Pakistan
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 118. Headquarters of which one among the following Railway
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Zones in India is situated at the highest elevation from the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 mean sea level ? [2016-I]
108. Weibo is a social media platform popularly used in (a) East Central Railway (b) South Eastern Railway
(a) South Korea (b) China [2015-II] (c) South western Railway (d) West Central Railway
(c) Thailand (d) Japan 119. Norman Borlaug won Nobel peace Prize his contributions
109. Who is the current Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog? in [2016-I]
[2015-II] 1. development of high yielding crops
(a) Raghuram Rajan (b) Arvind Panagariya 2. modernization of irrigation infrastructure
(c) Bibek Debroy (d) V. K. Saraswat 3. introduction of synthetic fertilizers and pesticides
110. Which one of the following is not provided regular budgetary Select the correct answer using the code given below :
support by the Ministry of Defence? [2015-II] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Himalayan Mountaineering Institute, Darjeeling (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
(b) Institute for Defence Studies and Analyses, New Delhi 120. ‘Citizenfour’ The 87th Academy Award winner in the
(c) Armed Forces Tribunal category of documentary feature, is based on the life of
(d) United Service Institution of India, New Delhi [2016-I]
111. In April 2015, India and France agreed to conclude an inter- (a) Abraham Lincoln (b) Albert Einstein
governmental agreement in respect of which one of the (c) Edward Snowden (d) Laura Poitras
following platforms? [2015-II] 121. Which one the following services of India Post has
(a) Rafale Medium Multirole Combat Aircraft permanently been discontinued? [2016-I]
(b) Scorpene Submarines (a) Money Order (b) Telegram
(c) Infantry Mobility Vehicles (c) Postal Life Insurance (d) Inland Letter
(d) Precision Guided Munitions System 122. The rank of Major General in India Army is equivalent to:
112. Which one of the following statements is incorrect? (a) Air Marshal in Indian Air Force [2016-I]
[2015-II] (b) Rear Admiral in India Navy
(a) India is the third largest importer of the defence equipment. (c) Air commodore in India Air Force
(b) India meets more than 50 per cent of its requirement (d) Commodore in Indian Navy
of the defence equipment through imports.
EBD_7341
123. After hot sunny day, people sprinkle water on the roof- (a) Yama, Indra, Varuna and Kubera
top because : [2016-I] (b) Indra, Varuna, Skanda and Kubera
(a) water helps air around the roof - top to absorb the (c) Indra, Varuna, Yama and Brahma
heat instantly (d) Yama, Shiva, Kubera and Indra
(b) water has lower specific heat capacity 132. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(c) water is easily available [2016-II]
(d) water has large latent heat of vaporisation (a) Centre for Science and Environment in a recent study
124. Which of the following statement with regard to UID / found that a number of commonly available brands
Aadhar Card are correct? [2016-I] of prepackaged breads tested positive for potassium
1. It is a 12 digit unique form of identification for all bromate and potassium iodate.
residents of India (b) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
2. It is an identity number along with the biometric recommended to the Health Ministry to remove potassium
information of the individuals bromate from the list of permissible food additives.
3. It is a national identity and citizenship card (c) The Union Government banned the use of potassium
Select the correct answer using the code given below bromate as a food additive on the basis of the above
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only recommendation.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Potassium bromate is a neurotoxin.
125. The first summit of the Forum for India-Pacific Islands 133. Which of the following voted for Brexit in June 2016?
Cooperation (FIPIC) was held in : [2016-I] (a) England and Scotland [2016-II]
(a) Jaipur (b) Suva (b) England and Wales
(c) New Delhi (d) Port Moresby (c) Scotland and Northern Ireland
126. Which one of the following is the largest source of (d) Wales and Northern Ireland
electricity in India? [2016-II] 134. Which one of the following statements about reusable
(a) Hydropower plants (b) Nuclear power plants space vehicle of ISRO is not correct? [2016-II]
(c) Thermal power plants (d) Wind energy (a) In June 2016, ISRO successfully launched India's first
127. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using reusable space vehicle.
the code given below the Lists : [2016-II] (b) The space vehicle was launched from Satish Dhawan
List-I List-II Space Centre at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.
(Railway Zone) (Headquarters) (c) The reusable launch vehicle climbed to a height of 65
A. North Eastern Railway l. Kolkata km before automatically steering back for landing.
B. East Central Railway 2. Bilaspur (d) The vehicle was initially boosted by a rocket that
C. South East Central 3. Hajipur contained liquid fuel.
Railway 135. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
D. South Eastern Railway 4. Gorakhpur [2016-II]
Code : (a) BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile made by India
A B C D and Russian Federation.
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) The name BrahMos came from two rivers,
(b) 1 3 2 4 Brahmaputra of India and Moskva of Russia.
(c) 1 2 3 4 (c) Indian military scientists were capable of integrating
(d) 4 3 2 1 BrahMos cruise missile with Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter.
128. Which one of the following is correct? [2016-II] (d) Defence Research and Development Organization is
(a) Guindy National Park is known for tiger reserve. the manufacturer of Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter.
(b) Namdapha National Park is meant for lion conservation. 136. Neil O'Brien, who died recently, was a famous. [2016-II]
(c) Jaldapara is a biosphere reserve. (a) journalist (b) billiards player
(d) Rann of Kutch is a Wild Ass Sanctuary. (c) dramatist (d) quiz master
129. Which one of the following statements concerning research 137. Consider the following statement : [2016-II]
centres in India is not correct? [2016-II] "If you feel you are trapped in a black hole, don't give up.
(a) Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology is located at There is a way act"
Kolkata. Who among the following made the above statement?
(b) Central Arid Zone Research Institute is located at (a) Albert Einstein (b) Stephen Hawking
Jodhpur. (c) C. V. Raman (d) Abdus Salam
(c) Centre for Social Forestry and Eco-Rehabilitation is 138. Recently the Government of India cleared the proposal for
located at Allahabad.
the production of 18 indigenous 'Dhanush' artillery guns
(d) Institute of Forest Productivity is located at Ranchi.
to be produced in India by [2016-II]
130. Which one of the following does not signify a battle tank?
(a) Indian Army
(a) T-55 (b) T-155 [2016-II]
(b) US Army
(c) T-72 (d) T-90
(c) Indian Ordnance Factory Board
131. Which of the following Gods are also known as Lokapalas
(d) Indian and US Army jointly
or the Guardians of the Universe? [2016-II]
139. Who among the following won the Men's Singles Title in 148. Which one of the following is not one of the Commands of
the Australian Open Tennis Tournament, 2016?[2016-II] the Indian Army? [2016-II]
(a) Jamie Murray (b) Bruno Soares (a) South Western Command
(c) Novak Djokovic (d) Andy Murray (b) North Eastern Command
140. Who among the following was defeated by Chile to won (c) Central Command
the Copa America Football Championship, 2016?[2016-II] (d) Army Training Command (ARTRAC)
(a) Colombia (b) Argentina 149. Which one of the following statements is correct? [2016-II]
(c) Ecuador (d) Peru (a) The rank of Second Lieutenant has been abolished.
141. Which one of the following is the highest altitude zoo in (b) The Chief of Army Staff carries the rank of field Marshal.
the world ? [2016-II] (c) All officers posted to Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(a) Cheyenne Mountain Zoo wear the ranks of the Indian Navy.
(b) Pandit G. B. Pant High Altitude Zoo (d) The rank of Major General is higher than the rank of
(c) Himalayan Zoological Park, Gangtok Lieutenant General.
(d) Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park 150. Which one of the following is not an Air Defence Missile
142. Which one of the following statements about the Missile system?
Technology Control Regime is not correct? [2016-II] (a) Akash (b) Trishul
(a) The Missile Technology Control Regime is an informal (c) Tatra (d) Astra
and voluntary partnership initially formed among G- 151. The members of NAFTA are, [2016-II]
7 countries. (a) USA, Canada and Mexico (b) USA, Canada and India
(b) Members of the Missile Technology Control Regime (c) USA, Canada and Japan (d) USA, UK and India
prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned 152. AIDS is caused by the Human Immuno-deficiency Virus
aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above (HIV). The transmission of HIV infection generally occurs
500 kg payload for more than 300 km. through [2017-I]
(c) China applied to join the Regime but members did (a) eating contaminated food and water
not offer the membership. (b) transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products
(d) No other country outside the membership follows (c) inhaling polluted air
the Regime rules. (d) shaking hand with infected person
143. The first Tejas squadron of Indian Air Force consists of 153. In which one of the following States is Loktak Lake
(a) 20 aircrafts With 4 in reserve [2016-II] situated? [2017-I]
(b) 100 aircrafts with 10 in reserve (a) Sikkim (b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) 20 aircrafts with no reserve (c) Manipur (d) Meghalaya
(d) 25 aircrafts with 5 in reserve 154. Kwashiorkor disease in children is caused by [2017-I]
144. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of (a) sufficient carbohydrates but less fats in diet
Andaman and Nicobar Command? [2016-II] (b) sufficient carbohydrates and fats but deficient
(d) It is the first integrated theatre command in India. proteins in diet
(b) Its headquarters is at Port Blair. (c) sufficient vitamins but deficient fats in diet
(c) It is commanded by a three-star oficer. (d) sufficient fats but deficient vitamins in diet
(d) It was set up by the British during the Second World War. 155. With regard to 'Project Tiger', which one of the following
145. Who is the Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee? statements is not correct? [2017-I]
(a) The Chief of Army Staff [2016-II] (a) It was launched in India in the year 1973.
(b) The Chief of Naval Staff (b) The objective of the Project is to preserve the habitats
(c) The Chief of Air Staff and tigers therein as natural heritage.
(d) The member who has been the longest on the Committee (c) The Project emphasized to ensure viable population
146. Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is [2016-II] of tigers in India.
(a) an infantry regiment of the Indian Army (d) There are no Tiger Reserves in north-eastern part of India.
(b) a battalion of the Rashtriya Rifles. 156. Which one of the following is not a biosphere reserve of
(c) the name of the Armed Police of the State of Jammu India? [2017-I]
and Kashmir (a) Agasthyamalai (b) Nokrek
(d) a paramilitary force under the Ministry of Home Affairs (c) Great Nicobar (d) Great Himalayan
the Indian Navy. 157. Which one of the following statements with regard to the
147. Which one of the following is correct? [2016-II] Indian Railways is not correct? [2017-I]
(a) Infantry Regiment is also known as the Mechanized (a) The Indian rail networks have been developed
Infantry Regiment. throughout the Konkan coast.
(b) Corps of Electrical and Mechanical Engineers is (b) There is very low density of railway lines in the
subsumed in the Corps of Engineers. Himalayan region.
(c) Army Medical Corps and Army Dental Corps are two (c) The north Indian plain has a dense network of railway.
divisions of the Army Service Corps. (d) At present, India has the largest railway network in
(d) Army has its own Corps of Air Defence. the world.
EBD_7341
158. 'Rand/ZAR' is the currency of [2017-I] 2. Gravitational waves were generated due to merger of
(a) Burundi (b) Libya two black holes at about 1.4 billion light-years distant.
(c) Sudan (d) South Africa 3. Gravitational waves were inserted due to collision of
159. Which one of the following statements is not correct? two white dwarf stars at about 1.4 billion light-years
(a) Pavo cristatus is the national bird of India. [2017-I] distant.
(b) Nelumbo nucifera Gaert is the national flower of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) Ficus benghalensis is the national tree of India. (a) 1 only (b) l and 2 only
(d) Mangifera indica is the national animal of India. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
160. The sensitive information leaked in August 2016 concerns 169. Which one of the following is not an Inter-Services
which one of the following defence platforms of India? Establishment? [2017-I]
(a) Fifth Generation Fighter Aircraft [2017-I] (a) Officers Training Academy
(b) Combat Helicopters (b) National Defence Academy
(c) Submarines (c) National Defence College
(d) Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (d) Armed Forces Medical College
161. How many medals were won by India in 2016 Summer 170. Which one of the following is a Peacetime Gallantry
Olympics? [2017-I] Award? [2017-I]
(a) One Silver and one Bronze (b) Two Gold (a) Shaurya Chakra (b) Vir Chakra
(c) Two Bronze (d) None
(c) Yudh Seva Medal (d) Pararn Vir Chakra
162. India became a member of which one of the following in
171. The Headquarters of the Southern Naval Command of the
2016? [2017-I]
Indian Navy is located at which one of the following
(a) Non-Proliferation Treaty
places? [2017-I]
(b) Missile Technology Control Regime
(c) Nuclear Suppliers Group (a) Karwar (b) Kochi
(d) Wassenaar Arrangement (c) Thiruvananthapuram (d) Chennai
163. India signed an agreement in 2016 to develop a strategic 172. Which of the following statements are correct about
port in one of its neighbouring countries. What is the 'Saakshar Bharat' scheme? [2017-I]
name of the port? [2017-I] 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme which was launched
(a) Chabahar (b) Gwadar during the Eleventh Five-Year Plan.
(c) Hambantota (d) Mongla 2. The scheme applies to women in particular and
164. Which one of the following statements is not correct in disadvantaged groups in general.
respect of the South Asian Association for Regional 3. The scheme applies to persons above the age of 10
Cooperation (SAARC)? [2017-I] years.
(a) Its Headquarters is located in Kathmandu. 4. The scheme is anchored with Panchayati Raj
(b) China is the only country with an Observer status in Institutions and Local Self-Government.
SAARC. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) The First SAARC Summit was held in Dhaka. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) The Eighteenth SAARC Summit was held in Nepal. (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
165. Who among the following won a Gold medal for India in 173. BRICS Summit, 2016 was held in [2017-I]
Men's Javelin Throw event at the 2016 Rio Paralympic (a) Brazil (b) China
Games? [2017-I] (c) India (d) South Africa
(a) Rinku Hooda (b) Devendra Jhajharia 174. Which country signed a Memorandum of Understanding
(c) Sundar Singh Gurjar (d) Mariyappan Thangavelu with India for promoting the production of Pigeon peas/
166. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited handed over the first two Tur and other pulses in July 2016? [2017-I]
indigenously designed and manufactured light combat (a) South Africa (b) Syria
aircrafts to the Indian Air Force in 2016. What is the name (c) Egypt (d) Mozambique
of these new combat aircrafts? [2017-I] 175. Which one of the following intellectual property rights is
(a) Marut (b) Garud protected without making any registration? [2017-I]
(c) Tejas (d) Pushpak (a) Copyright (b) Patent
167. Consider the following statement about a famous football (c) Industrial design (d) Trademark
player : [2017-I] 176. Amartya Sen was awarded the Nobel Prize for his
"He was diagnosed with a growth hormone deficiency contribution to [2017-I]
during his childhood but went on to win three European (a) Monetary Economics (b) Welfare Economics
Golden Shoes in his career." [2017-I] (c) Environmental Economics (d) Development Economics
Who is that player? 177. The rank of Captain of the Indian Navy is equivalent to
(a) Andres Iniesta (b) Lionel Messi which one of the following? [2017-I]
(c) Cristiano Ronaldo (d) Zinedine Zidane
(a) Captain of the Indian Army
168. Which of the following statements is/ are correct?
(b) Group Captain in the Indian Air Force
[2017-I]
(c) Lieutenant Colonel of the Indian Army
1. In June 2016, the LIGO group of scientists announced
(d) Wing Commander of the Indian Air Force
the detection of a second set of gravitational waves.
178. Which one of the following statements is correct in relation 189. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
to the Indian Air Force? [2017-I] the code given below the Lists : [2017-II]
(a) It has bases in many friendly countries. List-I List-II
(b) It does not carry out joint exercises with any country. (Concern) (Product)
(c) It has a separate Maintenance Command. A. TISCO 1. Chemicals
(d) No officer has ever been elevated to the rank of B. BALCO 2. Iron & Steel
Marshal of the Indian Air Force. C. BPCL 3. Electronics
179. The Indian Navy in October 2016 commissioned the highly D. BEL 4. Aluminium
maneuverable fast attack craft INS Tihayu. INS Tihayu Code :
would be based in [2017-I] A B C D
(a) Kochi (b) Panaji (a) 2 1 4 3
(c) Visakhapatnam (d) Mumbai (b) 2 4 1 3
180. In which one of the following cities are the Summer (c) 3 4 1 2
Olympics, 2020 going to be held? [2017-I] (d) 3 1 4 2
(a) London (b) Paris 190. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
(c) Tokyo (d) Moscow the code given below the Lists : [2017-II]
List-I List-II
181. Who among the following is the President of Republic of
(National Highway) (Route)
the Union of Myanmar? [2017-I]
A. NH-2 1. Delhi-Jaipur-
(a) Aung San Suu Kyi (b) Htin Kyaw
Ahmedabad-Mumbai
(c) Myint Swe (d) Henry Van Thio
B. NH-4 2. Thane-Pune-
182. Who among the following is the recipient of the Jnanpith Bengaluru-Chennai
Award, 2016? [2017-II] C. NH-7 3. Delhi-Agra-
(a) Shankha Ghosh Allahabad-Kolkata
(b) Raghuveer Chaudhari D. NH-8 4. Varanasi-Jabalpur-
(c) Pratibha Ray Nagpur-Hyderabad-
(d) Rehman Rahi Bengaluru-Madurai-
183. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which were Kanyakumari
adopted by the UNO in place of the Millennium Code :
Development Goals (MDGs), 2015, aim to achieve the 17 A B C D
goals by the year [2017-II] (a) 3 4 2 1
(a) 2020 (b) 2030 (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2040 (d) 2050 (c) 1 4 2 3
184. Teejan Bai, a recipient of the M. S. Subbulakshmi (d) 3 2 4 1
Centenary Award, 2016, is an exponent in [2017-II] 191. One carbon credit is accepted as equivalent to [2017-II]
(a) Kannada classical vocal (a) 100 kg of carbon
(b) Kajari dance (b) 100 kg of carbon dioxide
(c) Bihu dance (c) 1000 kg of carbon
(d) Pandavani, a traditional performing art (d) 1000 kg of carbon dioxide
185. Who among the following is the recipient of the 192. ‘Tuvalu’ has become a point of discussion recently. Why?
Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2016? [2017-II] [2017-II]
(a) Nana Patekar (b) Manoj Kumar (a) Potato plant that could grow in high altitude
(c) Javed Akhtar (d) K. Viswanath (b) Place in equatorial Africa, where snow is found
186. The Nobel Prize in Physics for the year 2016 was given to (c) New innovative technology to meet global warming
(a) David J. Thouless [2017-II] (d) A country under threat of submergence due to ice
(b) F. Duncan M. Haldane melting and sea level rise
(c) J. Michael Kosterlitz 193. The National Handloom Day is observed on [2017-II]
(d) All of them (a) 7th June (b) 17th July
187. Which one of the following political parties was launched (c) 7th August (d) 17th September
by Irom Sharmila in Manipur? [2017-II] 194. Venus, the first environmental research satellite was
(a) People’s Resurgence and Justice Alliance launched in August 2017 by which one of the following
(b) Manipur Resistance Alliance countries? [2017-II]
(c) Tribal Resistance Party (a) India (b) Russia
(d) Revolutionary People’s Party (c) China (d) Israel
195. Which one of the following was the theme of the World
188. Which one of the following planets was explored by
Environment Day, 2017? [2017-II]
Cassini Mission launched by NASA, which ended in
(a) Green Economy : Does it include you?
September 2017? [2017-II]
(b) Connecting People to Nature
(a) Sun (b) Neptune
(c) Think, Eat, Save
(c) Saturn (d) Jupiter
(d) Many Species, One Planet, One Future
EBD_7341
196. The all-women expedition of Indian Navy to circumnavigate 205. In which one of the following groups of States in India is
the globe on the sailing vessel, INSV Tarini, is scheduled the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) Project
to have four stopovers. Which one of the following is not being implemented as a pilot investment? [2018-I]
one of them? [2017-II] (a) Gujarat, Kerala and Goa
(a) Fremantle (b) Lyttelton (b) Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Port Stanley (d) Durban (c) Gujarat, Odisha and West Bengal
197. Where is world’s first Partition Museum inaugurated (d) Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
recently? [2017-II] 206. Which of the following statements about the National
(a) New Delhi (b) Lahore Water Academy (NWA) is/are correct? [2018-I]
(c) Amritsar (d) Islamabad 1. The primary objective of the NWA is to function as
198. The Setu Bharatam Programme of the Government of India Centre of Excellence in training for in-service
is a programme for [2017-II] engineers from Central and State organizations on
(a) building bridges across major rivers for transport of various aspects of water resource planning.
goods 2. The NWA is located in New Delhi.
(b) building bridges for safe and seamless travel on Select the correct answer using the code given below.
national highways (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) building roads to connect coastal areas (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 237.
(d) training of highway engineers at the entry level and
207. Which one of the following Indian States has the highest
service level
percentage of Scheduled Tribe population to its total
199. Which one of the following statements about the Global
population? [2018-I]
Environment Facility Grant Agreement, Signed by India in
(a) Mizoram (b) Nagaland
August 2017 with the World Bank for ‘Ecosystem Service
Improvement Project’, is not correct? [2017-II] (c) Meghalaya (d) Arunachal Pradesh
(a) The size of the project is about USD 25 million. 208. Which of the following National Parks of India are declared
(b) The duration of the project is 15 years. as World Heritage by UNESCO? [2018-I]
(c) The project will entirely be financed by the World 1. Keoladeo National Park
Bank out of its GEF Trust Fund. 2. Sundarbans National Park
(d) The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate 3. Kaziranga National Park
Change will implement the project. 4. Ranthambore National Park
200. UBI, as an alternative for subsidies in poverty alleviation, Select the correct answer using the code given below.
stands for [2017-II] (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) Union Basic Income (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) Undefined Basic Income 209. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
(c) Unconditional Basic Income the code given below the Lists : [2018-I]
(d) Universal Basic Income List-I List-II
201. Which one of the following authorities has recently (Railway Zone) (Headquarters)
launched the mobile apps ‘MyFASTag’ and ‘FASTag’ A. North Central 1. Secunderabad
Partner? [2017-II] B. North Eastern 2. Jabalpur
(a) Telecom Regulatory Authority C. West Central 3. Gorakhpur
(b) National Highways Authority D. South Central 4. Allahabad
(c) Airports Economic Regulatory Authority Code :
(d) National Disaster Management Authority A B C D
202. ‘Pragati’ scholarship scheme of the Government of India (a) 4 3 2 1
is meant for [2017-II] (b) 4 2 3 1
(a) higher education of girls (c) 1 2 3 4
(b) technical education of girls (d) 1 3 2 4
(c) secondary education of girls 210. Which one of the following is the maximum age of joining
(d) elementary education of girls National Pension System (NPS) under the NPS-Private
203. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Saansad Sector? [2018-I]
Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY)? [2017-II] (a) 55 years (b) 60 years
(a) It focuses on community participation. (c) 65 years (d) 70 years
(b) It is to be guided by a Member of the Parliament. 211. In October 2017, India sent its first shipment of wheat to
(c) It aims at creating infrastructure for the village. Afghanistan as a part of commitment made by the
(d) A Village Development Plan would be prepared for Government of India to supply 1.1 million tonnes of wheat
every identified Gram Panchayat. to that country on grant basis. The shipment was sent
204. Which one of the following is not included in the National through [2018-I]
Air Quality Index? [2017-II]
(a) Iran (b) Pakistan
(a) Sulphur (b) Nitrogen dioxide
(c) Tajikistan (d) China
(c) Lead (d) Methane
212. Which one of the following statements with regard to 221. The Ministry of Power, Government of India has recently
Antrix Corporation Limited is correct? [2018-I] constituted a Committee to investigate the causes of the
(a) It is a commercial arm of the Department of Industrial accident that occured on 1st November, 2017 at Feroze
Policy and Promotion. Gandhi Thermal Power Plant Ltd., Unchahar, in Uttar
(b) It is under the administrative control of the Department Pradesh. Who among the following is the Chairman of the
of Space. Committee? [2018-I]
(c) It is under the administrative control of the Ministry (a) Dr. L. D. Papney
of Health and Family Welfare. (b) Shri Dhawal Prakash Antapurkar
(d) It is a commercial arm of the Department of Science (c) Shri Subir Chakraborty
and Technology. (d) Shri P. D. Siwal
213. Which one of the following was a focus country of the 222. In November 2017, an Indian short film, The School Bag
‘World Food India’, a mega food event held in November won the Best Short Film Award at the South Asian Film
2017 in New Delhi? [2018-I] Festival held at Montreal. Who among the following is the
(a) Germany (b) Japan Director of the film? [2018-I]
(c) Denmark (d) Italy (a) Anurag Kashyap (b) Dheeraj Jindal
214. Which one of the following States will host the Nobel (c) Sujoy Ghosh (d) Samvida Nanda
223. In November 2017, India’s MC Mary Kom won the gold
Prize Series—India 2018 (Science Impacts Life) Exhibition?
medal at the Asian Boxing Championship, 2017 held at Ho
(a) Gujarat (b) Rajasthan [2018-I]
Chi Minh City in Vietnam. In which one of the following
(c) Goa (d) Madhya Pradesh
categories was she declared winner? [2018-I]
215. The Ministry of Communication has recently launched a
(a) 48 kg (b) 51 kg
Pan India scholarship programme for school–children (c) 54 kg (d) 57 kg
called ‘Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana’. The objective of the 224. Which one of the following is the theme of the World Soil
scheme is to increase the reach of [2018-I] Day, 2017? [2018-I]
(a) sports (b) philately (a) Soils and pulses, a symbol for life
(c) music (d) web designing (b) Caring for the Planet starts from the Ground
216. Which one of the following temples of India has won the (c) Soils, a solid ground for life
‘UNESCO Asia Pacific Award of Merit, 2017’ for cultural (d) Soils, foundation for family farming
heritage conservation? [2018-I] 225. Who among the following is the winner of the National
(a) Kamakhya Temple, Guwahati Badminton Championship (Men), 2017? [2018-I]
(b) Sri Ranganathaswami Temple, Srirangam (a) Kidambi Srikanth (b) H. S. Prannoy
(c) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai (c) Ajay Jayaram (d) Sai Praneeth
(d) Kedarnath Temple, Kedarnath 226. Which one of the following is not a correct ascending order
217. Which one of the following teams was defeated by India to of commissioned ranks in the defence forces of India?
win the Women’s Hockey Asia Cup title, 2017? [2018-I] [2018-I]
(a) Japan (b) China (a) Lieutenant, Captain, Major, Lieutenant Colonel, Colonel,
(c) South Korea (d) Pakistan Brigadier, Major General, Lieutenant General, General
218. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (b) Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader,
(a) India joined MTCR in 2016. [2018-I] Wing Commander, Group Captain, Air Commodore,
(b) India submitted a formal application for membership Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal
of the NSG in 2016. (c) Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader,
(c) India proposed the Comprehensive Convention on Group Captain, Wing Commander, Air Commodore,
International Terrorism in 1996. Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal
(d) The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (d) Sub Lieutenant, Lieutenant, Lieutenant Commander,
(CHOGM) was held in 2016 at Malta. Commander, Captain, Commodore, Rear Admiral, Vice
219. Which of the following about the role of Indian Coast Admiral, Admiral
Guard is/are correct? [2018-I] 227. Which one of the following became a part of China in 1997
1. Indian Coast Guard has been entrusted with the following the principle of ‘one country, two systems’?
offshore security coordination authority (a) Tibet (b) Hong Kong [2018-I]
2. Lead intelligence agency for coastal and sea border (c0 Xinjiang (d) Inner Mongolia
3. Coastal security in territorial waters 228. Consider the following statements about National Wildlife
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Action Plan (NWAP) of India for 2017-2031 : [2018-I]
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 1. This is the Third National Wildlife Action Plan.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 only 2. The NWAP is unique as this is the first time India
has recognized the concerns relating to climate
220. Which one of the following is India’s first indigenously
change impact on wildlife.
designed and developed long-range subsonic cruise
3. The NWAP has ten components.
missile which can be deployed from multiple platforms?
(a) Astra (b) Akash [2018-I]
(c) Nirbhay (d) Shankhnaad (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
EBD_7341
229. eBiz is one of the integrated services projects and part of 235. The projects under Coastal Berth Scheme of the flagship
the 31 Mission Mode Projects (MMPs) under the National Sagarmala Programme are distributed over how many
e-Governance Plan of the Government of India. eBiz is States? [2018-I]
being implemented under the guidance and aegis of the (a) Eight (b) Ten
Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry (c) Twelve (d) Fourteen
of Commerce and Industry by [2018-I] 236. ‘SAMPRITI-2017’ is a joint military exercise between armed
(a) Tata Consultancy Services forces of India and [2018-I]
(b) Infosys Technologies Limited (a) Bhutan (b) Bangladesh
(c) Wipro (c) Pakistan (d) Myanmar
(d) HCL Technologies 237. The judgement of the Supreme Court of India in the
230. Which of the following statements about the olive ridley Vishakha Case pertains to [2018-I]
turtles is/are correct? [2018-I] (a) sexual harassment in the work-place
1. They are the smallest and most abundant of all (b) Sati
sea turtles found in the world. (c) dowry death
2. They live in warm waters of Pacific, Atlantic and (d) rape
Indian Oceans. 238. The first BRICS Summit, after the inclusion of South
3. The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass Africa, was held at [2018-I]
nesting site for the olive ridley turtles. (a) Brasilia (b) Sanya
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Yekaterinburg (d) Durban
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only 239. Which one of the following statements about the Elephant
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only Island is correct? [2018-I]
231. Consider the following statements about Indo-Tibetan (a) It was given its name by the British after a large
Border Police (ITBP) : [2018-I] elephant structure located there.
1. ITBP was raised in 1962. (b) It contains one large cave.
2. ITBP is basically a mountain trained force. (c) It is well-known for a spectacular carving of Vishnu
3. ITBP replaced Assam Rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal described in the Vishnudharmottara Purana.
Pradesh in 2004–2005 for border guarding duty. (d) It is associated with the Pashupata sect.
4. ITBP presently has 52 service battalions. 240. Khasi language is included in [2018-II]
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) Munda branch of Austro-Asiatie sub-family
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) Mon-Khmer branch of AustroAsiatic sub-family
(b) 3 and 4 only (c) North Assam branch of SinoTibetan family
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Assam-Myanmari branch of SinoTibetan family
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only 241. The headquarters of Metro Railway Zone is located in
232. Which one of the following is not an objective of the (a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai [2018-II]
Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)? (c) Kolkata (d) Chennai
[2018-I] 242. The story Gandatindu Jataka was written in which language?
(a) To achieve convergence of investment in irrigation (a) Sanskrit (b) Telugu [2018-II]
at the field level (c) Tamil (d) Pali
(b) To expand cultivable area under irrigation 243. Pakyong Airport is located in [2019-I]
(c) To improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce (a) Sikkim (b) Jammu and Kashmir
wastage of water (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Mizoram
(d) To protect farmers against crop failure due to natural 244. The United Nations has been observing International Day
calamities of Rural Women on [2019-I]
233. Which one of the following statements about Deen Dayal (a) 15th July (b) 15th August
Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is not (c) 15th September (d) 15th October
correct? [2018-I] 245. Who designed the Bombay Secretariat in the 1870s?
(a) It is a placement-linked skill training programme (a) H. St. Clair Wilkins [2019-I]
exclusively for rural girls. (b) Sir Cowasjee Jehangir Readymoney
(b) It aims to convert India’s demographic surplus into a (c) Purushottamdas Thakurdas
demographic dividend. (d) Nusserwanji Tata
(c) The scheme aims to benefit more than 55 million poor 246. Who was the founder of Mahakali Pathshala in Calcutta?
rural folk. (a) Her Holiness Mataji Maharani Tapaswini [2019-I]
(d) It is a generational poverty alleviation programme. (b) Sister Nivedita
234. Where is Hambantota Port located? [2018-I] (c) Madame Blavatsky
(a) Iran (b) Sri Lanka (d) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Japan (d) Pakistan
247. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer (c) National Technology Day
using the code given below the Lists: [2019-I] (d) National Anti-Terrorism Day
List-I List-II 254. ‘Naropa’ is an annual festival of [2020-I]
(Author) (Book) (a) Sikkim (b) Ladakh
A. Sekhar 1. Jawaharlal Nehru: A (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Nagaland
Bandyopadhyay Biography, Vol-I, 1889- 255. Which one of the following is India’s official entry for the
1947 Best International Feature Film category in the 92nd
B. Sarvepalli Gopal 2. From PlasseytoPartition: Academy Awards? [2020-I]
(a) Bulbul Can Sing (b) Super Deluxe
A History of Modern
(c) Gully Boy (d) And The Oscar Goes To
India
256. The Global Goalkeeper Award is given by [2020-I]
C. David Hardiman 3. The Ascendancy of
(a) the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation
the Congress in Uttar
(b) the United Nations Environment Programme
Pradesh, 1926-1934
(c) the Kellogg School of Management
D. Gyanendra Pandey 4. Gandhi in His Time
(d) the World Meteorological Organization
and Ours
257. ‘Gandhi Solar Park’ is located at [2020-I]
Code:
(a) New York (b) Vladivostok
A B C D
(c) Thimphu (d) Houston
(a) 2 4 1 3
258. Who among the following was the first to arrive in Africa as
(b) 2 1 4 3 traders that eventually led to European colonization of
(c) 3 1 4 2 Africa? [2020-I]
(d) 3 4 1 2 (a) French (b) Spanish
248. Which one of the following is the largest fresh water lake (c) Portuguese (d) Dutch
in India ? [2019-II] 259. The College of Military Engineering affiliated to Jawaharlal
(a) Chilika (b) Loktak Nehru University is situated at [2020-I]
(c) Dal (d) Wular (a) New Delhi (b) Dehradun
249. Which one of the following Indian cities is not located on (c) Nainital (d) Pune
a river bank ? [2019-II] 260. Which one of the following is not among the principal
(a) Agra (b) Bhagalpur languages of Jammu and Kashmir? [2020-I]
(c) Bhopal (d) Kanpur (a) Urdu (b) Gujari
250. Where are Jhumri Telaiya and Mandar Hills situated ? (c) Koshur (d) Monpa
[2019-II] 261. The major part of Central Asia is dominated by which one
(a) Jharkhand (b) Bihar of the following language families? [2020-I]
(c) Assam (d) West Bengal (a) Indo-European (b) Sino-Tibetan
251. Who was the author of the book ‘Plagues and Peoples’ ? (c) Austric (d) Altaic
[2019-II] 262. The First Delimitation Commission in India was constituted
(a) William H. McNeill (b) W.I. Thomas in [2020-I]
(c) Rachel Carson (d) David Cannadine (a) 1949 (b) 1950
252. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer (c) 1951 (d) 1952
using the code given below the lists : [2019-II] 263. Hilsa is the national fish of [2020-I]
List I List II (a) Pakistan (b) India
(Institute) (Location) (c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal
A. National Institute 1. Chennai 264. The Vijaynagar Advanced Landing Ground of the Indian
of Ayurveda Air Force, which was reopened recently, is located in
B. National Institute 2. Bengaluru [2020-I]
of Homoeopathy (a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Arunachal Pradesh
C. National Institute 3. Kolkata (c) Karnataka (d) Himachal Pradesh
of Unani Medicine 265. Rustom-2, which crashed in Karnataka recently, was
D. National Institute 4. Jaipur a/an [2020-I]
of Siddha (a) fighter aircraft (b) helicopter
Code : (c) transport aircraft (d) unmanned aerial vehicle
A B C D 266. The maiden trilateral naval exercise involving India,
(a) 1 2 3 4 Singapore and Thailand was held at [2020-I]
(b) 1 3 2 4 (a) Port Blair (b) Chennai
(c) 4 3 2 1 (c) Panaji (d) Kochi
(d) 4 2 3 1 267. The National Water Academy (NWA) is located at
253. In India, May 21 is observed as [2019-II] [2020-I]
(a) NRI Day (a) Dehradun (b) Hyderabad
(b) National Youth Day (c) Bhopal (d) Khadakwasla
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268. Which one of the following was the host country for World 270. The Government of India has recently constituted a civilian
Tourism Day, 2019? [2020-I] award in the name of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in the field
(a) USA (b) India of contribution to [2020-I]
(c) Russia (d) Canada (a) unity and integrity of India
269. BRICS Summit, 2020 will be hosted by [2020-I] (b) art and culture
(a) India (b) China (c) social work
(c) Russia (d) Brazil (d) entrepreneurship
1. (d) The International Development Association (IDA) is 11. (c) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar is the chairman of 13th Finance
an international financial institution which is administered Commission. The Finance Commission of India came into
by International Bank for Reconstruction and Development existence in 1951. It was established under Article 280 of the
(IBRD). Indian Constitution by the President of India.
2. (d) The 2001 census put the number of persons 12. (b) It is the mark that is attached on a product which is
belonging to Scheduled Tribes in India at 84.3 million which available in our daily lives as well as certified as
is 8.2% of the total population. contributing to environmental preservation in terms of less
3. (b) The target year for eliminating the revenue deficit by environmental burden. It is also aimed for the consumers
the Government of India is 2008-2009. to make an environmentally friendly product choice, and
4. (d) The Marrakesh Agreement, manifested by the also to consider the relation of life and environment.
Marrakesh Declaration, was an agreement signed in 13. (a) The Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries
Marrakesh, Morocco, on 15 April 1994, marking the (OPEC) is an organization consisting of the world's major
culmination of the 12-year-long Uruguay Round and oil-exporting nations. The OPEC was founded in 1960 to
establishing the World Trade Organization. coordinate the petroleum policies of its members, and to
5. (c) The Sixth WTO Ministerial Conference was held in provide member states with technical and economic aid.
Hong Kong, China, 13-18 December 2005. Iraq, Kuwait, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela were the
6. (c) Malaysia is not a member of OPEC. In 2014 OPEC OPEC founding member nations in 1960. Algeria joined it
comprised twelve members: Algeria, Angola, Ecuador,Iran, later in 1969.
Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, the United 14. (a) Bhilai Steel Plant- USSR, Bokaro Steel Plant- USSR,
Arab Emirates and Venezuela. Indonesia (1962- suspended Durgapur Steel Plant- U.K
its membership from January 2009). 15. (a) IOR-ARC, a regional cooperation initiative of the
7. (d) Dadabhai Naoroji calculated the per capita income of Indian Ocean Rim countries, was established in Mauritius
British India in 1870 as being ` 20. in March 1997 with the aim of promoting economic and
8. (b) The Twelfth Finance Commission of India was technical cooperation. It is an international organisation
appointed on 1 November 2002 to make recommendations consisting of coastal states bordering the Indian Ocean.
on the distribution of net proceeds of sharable taxes Presently it has 19 members- Australia, Bangladesh, India,
between union and states. The commission was headed Indonesia, Iran, Kenya, Malaysia, Madagascar, Mauritius,
by C. Rangarajan. The commission submitted its report on Mozambique, Oman, Seychelles, Singapore, South Africa,
30 November 2004 and covered the period from 2005-10. Sri Lanka, Tanzania, Thailand, UAE and Yemen. The
9. (d) The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
was formed on 8 August 1967. It is a political and economic (OECD) is an international economic organisation of 34
organization of ten Southeast Asian countries. Indonesia, countries, founded in 1961 to stimulate economic progress
Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, and world trade. India is not a member of it.
Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar (Burma), and Vietnam. South 16. (d) The Association of Southeast Asian Nations
Korea is not a member of ASEAN. (ASEAN) encompasses ten South East Asian countries:
10. (a) The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-sectoral Brunei Darussalam, Cambodia, Indonesia, Lao PDR,
Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is an Malaysia, Myanmar (Burma), Philippines, Singapore,
international organisation involving a group of countries Thailand, and Vietnam. East Asia Summit (EAS) includes
in South Asia and South East Asia. These are: Bangladesh, ASEAN plus three countries as well as India, Australia,
India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Bhutan and Nepal. New Zealand, United States, and Russia. India is not the
The Asia-Pacific Trade Agreement (APTA) is previously full member of ASEAN.
known as the Bangkok Agreement. It is the oldest preferential 17. (b) Pt Jawaharlal Nehru was the first chairman of the
trade agreement between countries in the Asia-Pacific Planning commission of India.
region.
18. (b) • Juan Somavía is the former Director-General of 29. (a) Pakistan has been the largest contributor to the United
the International Labour Organization. Nations peace keeping Force. India comes second.
• Margaret Chan is the Director-General of the World 30. (a) These ten non-permanent members are elected by
Health Organization. the General Assembly for two-year term starting on 1
• Kemal Dervis is a Turkish economist and politician January, with five replaced each year.
and former head of the United Nations Development 31. (a) The EU is the world's largest economy. The flag of
Programme. Europe is used to represent both the European Union and
• Mohamed Mustafa El Baradei was the Director the Council of Europe. The European anthem is based on
General of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). the prelude to "The Ode to Joy". It was adopted by
19. (d) The IAEA has its headquarters in Vienna, Austria. The European Community leaders in 1985. Beginning in the
IAEA was established as an autonomous organization on year 1999 with some EU member states, now 19 out of 28
29 July 1957 to the peaceful use of nuclear energy. EU states use the euro as official currency in a currency
20. (c) The World Bank comprises two institutions: the union. Its combined armed forces are the second largest in
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development the world.
(IBRD) and the International Development Association 32. (d) India and Bangladesh were strong allies during the
(IDA). Bangladesh Liberation War in 1971. The historic Ganges Water
21. (a) The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) Sharing Treaty was concluded in 1996. Indian External Affairs
seeks to promote the peaceful use of energy. It was Minister Sushma Swaraj visited Bangladesh in her first official
established as an autonomous organization on 29 July overseas trip in June, 2014. On May 7 of 2015 the Indian
1957. The IAEA has its headquarters in Vienna, Austria. Parliament, in the presence of Bangladeshi diplomats,
The IAEA as an autonomous organization is not under unanimously passed the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA)
direct control of the UN, but the IAEA does report to both as its 100th Constitutional amendment, thereby resolving all
the UN General Assembly and Security Council. 68-year old border disputes since the end of the British Raj.
22. (b) The WTO officially commenced on 1 January 1995 33. (d) The Trusteeship Council suspended operation on 1
under the Marrakesh Agreement, signed by 123 nations November 1994, with the independence of Palau, the last
on 15 April 1994, replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs remaining United Nations trust territory, on 1 October 1994.
and Trade (GATT), which commenced in 1948. The aims of the Trusteeship System have been fulfilled to such
23. (c) As per the data available, there seems to be gender an extent that all Trust Territories have attained self-government
disparity depending on the location, as the Northern states or independence, either as separate States or by joining
(particularly Punjab, Haryana, and Himachal Pradesh) seem neighbouring independent countries. It is made up of the five
to be more biased then the Southern states. The sharpest permanent members of the Security Council --China, France,
decline for the age group of zero to six years is observed in Russian Federation, United Kingdom and United States.
the Northern States particularly in Punjab (793 per 1000 34. (a) The Maastricht Treaty was signed on February 7,
females) and Haryana (820 per 1000 females):(2011 Census) 1992 by the leaders of 12 member nations, and it reflected
24. (b) The Port of Kandla Special Economic Zone (KASEZ) the serious intentions of all countries to create a common
was the first special economic zone established in India as economic and monetary union. It is responsible for the
well as in Asia. Kandla, is a seaport in Kutch District of creation of the European Union, signed in Maastricht
Gujarat. (Netherlands).
25. (b) In 2008, according to a report published by the 35. (c) Countries facing balance-of-payment difficulty may
International Food Policy Research Institute there was no apply import restrictions under provisions in the GATT
"clear general relationship between Bt cotton and farmer 1994 agreement and under the General Agreement on Trade
suicides but also stated that it could not reject the in Services (GATS).
"potential role of Bt cotton varieties in the observed 36. (d) Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) are an international type
discrete increase in farmer suicides in certain states and of monetary reserve currency, created by the International
years, especially during the peak of 2004 in Andhra Pradesh Monetary Fund (IMF) in 1969, which operate as a supplement
and Maharashtra. to the existing reserves of member countries.
26. (d) All statements are correct. 37. (b) The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) are
27. (b) eight international development goals that were established
28. (a) following the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in
1. The industrial policy 1948- Ushered in mixed economy 2000. The goals are as follows:
2. The industrial policy 1956- Began the process of 1. To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
state -centric economy 2. To achieve universal primary education
3. The industrial policy 1980- Reaffirmed faith in mixed 3. To promote gender equality
economy 4. To reduce child mortality
4. The industrial policy 1991- Initiated public private 5. To improve maternal health
partnership 6. To combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases
EBD_7341
7. To ensure environmental sustainability 46. (a) The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and
8. To develop a global partnership for development Development is the prestigious award accorded annually
38. (d) The Magic Track pad is a multi-touch track pad by India to individuals or organizations for promoting
produced by Apple Inc. It offers standard multi-touch international peace, development. Angela Merkel was
gestures, including two-finger scrolling, pinch to zoom, given the prize in 2013 and Indian Space Research
rotate, and three-finger swiping. Users can also invoke Organization (ISRO) was chosen for 2014.
Expose or switch between applications by using four 47. (b) Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs has introduced a
fingers, all capabilities previously found on the company's Pension and Life Insurance fund scheme called Mahatma
notebook multi-touch track pads. Gandhi Pravasi Suraksha Yojana (MGPSY) for the Overseas
39. (c) Social forestry or community forestry scheme taken Indian workers having Emigration Check Required (ECR)
up under the social forestry programme, is the raising of passports.
trees on community land and not on private land as in farm The objective of MGPSY is to encourage and enable the
forestry. All these programmes aim to provide for the entire overseas Indian workers by giving government
community and not for any individual. In farm forestry contribution to:
individual farmers are being encouraged to plant trees on • Save for their Return and Resettlement (R&R)
their own farmland to meet the domestic needs of the family. • Save for their old age,
40. (b) The UNDP's Human Development Report 1997 presents • Obtain a Life Insurance cover against natural death
a new definition of poverty viewed from a human development during the period of coverage.
perspective. Rather than measuring poverty solely in terms The government contribution available under the MGPSY
of income, the report introduces a composite multidimensional is for a period of five years or till the return of subscribed
scale called the Human Poverty Index (HPI). worker back to India, whichever is earlier.
The Human Poverty Index measures deprivation in terms of 48. (d) As more and more people populate flood prone areas,
five attributes of poverty: illiteracy, malnutrition, early death, the potential for damage from flood increased.The most
poor health care, and poor access to safe water. flood prone areas are the Brahmaputra and the Gangetic
41. (b) National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) is a basins in the Indo-Gangetic plains. The other flood prone
poverty alleviation project implemented by Ministry of areas are the north-west region of the west flowing rivers
Rural Development. Ministry of Rural Development like Narmada and Tapti, the Central India and the Deccan
launched Swarnajayanti Grameen Swarojgar Yojana (SGSY) region with major east flowing rivers like Mahanadi, Krishna
to focus on promoting self-employment among rural poor. and Cauvery.
SGSY has now been restructured as NRLM. This scheme 49. (d) Paramilitary Forces" refers to the organisations which
was launched in 2011 with a budget of $ 5.1 billion and is assist the Indian Armed Forces. They are:
one of the flagship programmes of Ministry of Rural • The Assam Rifles
Development. • The Indian Coast Guard
42. (b) ONGC VIDESH Limited (OVL) recently signed 50. (a) The Fédération Internationale de Football Association
definitive agreements for the acquisition of Hess (FIFA) is an association governed by Swiss law founded in
Corporation's 2.7213% participating interest in the Azeri, 1904 and based in Zurich. It has 209 member associations
Chirag and the Deep Water Portion of Guneshli Fields in and its goal, enshrined in its Statutes, is the constant
the Azerbaijan sector of the Caspian Sea (ACG) and 2.36% improvement of football.
interest in the Baku-Tbilisi-Ceyhan Pipeline (BTC), for US$ 51. (c) The SAARC Secretariat is based in Kathmandu,
1 Billion. ACG is the largest oil and gas field complex in Nepal. The Secretariat is headed by the Secretary General,
Azerbaijan and is one of the largest producing oil fields in who is appointed by the Council of Ministers from Member
the world. States in alphabetical order for a three year term. The
43. (b) Both the statements are true, but statement ll is not Secretary General is assisted by eight Directors on
the correct explanation of statement l. deputation from the Member States.
44. (c) Prof Chintamani Nagesa Ramachandra Rao is one of The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
the world's foremost solid state and materials chemists. (SAARC) is an economic andgeopolitical organisation of
He became the first Indian in April this year to reach the H- eight countries that are primarily located in South Asia or
index of 100, reflecting the enormity of the volume of his the Indian subcontinent. The first summit was held in Dhaka
published research work. on 8 December 1985 when the organisation was established
45. (c) Pragati is a short range ballistic missile designed to by the governments of Bangladesh, Bhutan, India,
strike targets at ranges of 60-170 kilometres. It is based on Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
the Prahaar missile, developed by the DRDO for the Indian 52. (b) SAFTA is a trade liberalization programme among the
Army and is considered as the export variant of that missile. South Asian countries.
The Pragati missile uses solid propellant and is launched 53. (c) The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral
from a Mobile Launcher System (MLS). It has all weather Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is an
day and night operational launch capability. international organisation involving a group of countries
inSouth Asia and South East Asia. These are: Bangladesh, 67. (b) Operation Kachhapa is associated with the
India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka,Thailand, Bhutan and Nepal. In conservation of Olive Ridley Sea turtle.It was started in
6 June 1997, a new sub-regional grouping was formed in September 1998 by Wildlife Protection Society of India.
Bangkok and given the name BIST-EC (Bangladesh, India, 68. (b) Baiji is a citylocated in the north of Baghdad (Iraq). It
Sri Lanka, and Thailand Economic Cooperation). is a major industrial centre best known for its oil refinery.
54. (a) The correct match is as follows: 69. (a) The correct match is as follows:
National academy of Direct taxes- Nagpur Railway equipment- Bhilai
Rafi Ahmad Kidwai National Postal Academy- Ghaziabad Automobile (Truck)- Jabalpur
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy- Shipbuilding- Kochi
Hyderabad Bicycle- Ludhiana
Indira Gandhi National Forest Academy- Dehradun 70. (c) Treatment of domestic sewage before its release is
55. (b) Patola saris are a double ikat woven sari, usually made the most appropriate and correct practice from the point
from silk, made inPatan, Gujarat, India. Velvet patola styles of view of a healthy environment.
are also made in Surat. Patola-weaving is a closely guarded 71. (c) The correct match is as follows:
family tradition. Sharavati Valley- Karnataka
56. (d) V.M. Dandekar, Nilkanth Rath and P. V. Sukhatme made Satkosia Gorge- Odisha
significant contribution to measuring under-nutrition and Pirotan Island- Gujarat
poverty. Bhagwan Mahavir- Goa
57. (b) Indian Army conducted "Sarvada Vijay" combat drill The Sharavathi Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is in the
in West Rajasthan as part of regular training aimed at honing Shimoga District of Karnataka. Satkosia Gorge Wildlife
war-fighting skills in temperatures as high as 45 degree Sanctuary was established in 1976 in Odisha. The
Celsius. The overall aim of the exercise is to practise sanctuary is popular for its deciduous forests, dry
conventional cross-border thrusts into enemy territory. deciduous forests and moist peninsular Sal forests. Pirotan
Indian Air Force will also join in as part of the joint operation. Island is an Arabian Sea island in the Marine National
58. (b) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) Park, Jamnagar District of Gujarat state. Bhagwan
has developed state-of-the-art target training system - Mahaveer Sanctuary is a 240 square kilometres protected
DHVANI - for shooters of the Indian Army. The area located in the Western Ghats of South India, in
sophisticated acoustic sensor-based indigenous system Sanguem taluk, Goa.
will help the Army develop shooting techniques for its 72. (c) The word "vaccination," coined by Edward Jenner
combat personnel. in 1796 is derived from the Latin root vaccinus which
59. (d) Cloud seeding is the application of scientific means from the cow or pertaining to cows.
technology that can enhance a cloud's ability to produce 73. (d) In 1994, the UN General Assembly proclaimed the 16
precipitation. September as'International Day for the Preservation of
60. (a) PRL was founded by efforts of Dr. Vikram Sarabhai. the Ozone Layer' commemorating the date of the signing
TIFR was established under the vision of Dr. Homi Bhabha. in 1987, of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that
Dr. CNR Rao and P.C Mahalanobis credited with Deplete the Ozone Layer.The theme for 2014 celebration
establishing JNCASR and ISI respectively. is "Ozone Layer Protection: The Mission Goes On".
61. (a) Gagan provides free enhanced satellite navigation 74. (a) The BRICS Leaders agreed to the establishment of a
signals over India that are 10 times more precise than GPS. New Development Bank. In addition, the Leaders also
It is jointly developed by ISRO and Airports Authority of agreed on the establishment of the contingent reserve
India (AAI). arrangement (CRA) with an initial size of US$100 billion.
62. (c) The Andaman and Nicobar Command is India's first Another outcome of the Summit was the establishment of
and only joint tri-service command, with rotating three- the BRICS Think Tanks Council and the BRICS Business
star Commanders-in-Chief from the Army, Navy and Air Council.
Force reporting directly to the Chairman of the Chiefs of 75. (d) The Chairperson or a Member shall not be removed
Staff Committee. from his office except by an order made by the President on
63. (d) Arihant is a Nuclear powered ballistic missile submarine. the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity after an
64. (b) South eastern command is not a command of the inquiry made by a sitting Judge of the Supreme Court in
Indian Army. which such Chairperson or other Member had been
65. (a) Master Chief Petty Officer is a rank in the Indian Navy. informed of the charges against him and given a reasonable
66. (a) Project Seabird is a Greenfield Naval Base at West opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges.
Coast of India. The main features of the project are- large 76. (d) They are Inclusive growth, Faster growth and
basin protected by 5.5 km of breakwaters, reclaimed areas Sustainable growth.
for development of shiplift and berthing facilities, aircraft 77. (c) This is the autobiography of Naseeruddin Shah.
carrier berthing facilities, large onshore developments with 78. (d) Upari is a category of tenancy tenure held during
residential complexes, admin facilities etc. Maratha regime
EBD_7341
79. (c) The MIDORI Prize for Biodiversity was established January 1, 1995. The members of the World Trade Organization
in 2010 on the occasion of the twentieth anniversary of (WTO) agree to accord MFN status to each other. Exceptions
the AEON Environmental Foundation which coincided allow for preferential treatment of developing countries,
with the celebration of the International Year of regional free trade areas and customs unions.
Biodiversity. The MIDORI Prize honours three individuals 89. (c) The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) is a group of states
who have made outstanding contributions to which are not formally aligned with or against any major
conservation and sustainable use at local and global levels power bloc. The organization was founded in Belgrade in
and who have influenced and strengthened various 1961.India is a founder member of this organization.
biodiversity-related efforts as well as raised awareness 90. (b) All of them gave financial help to the Congress
about biodiversity.Dr. Kamal Bawa, an Indian Scientist, movement. Ambalal Sarabhai was a leading industrialist of
on 8 September 2014 won the MIDORI Prize in Biodiversity Ahmedabad. Ghanshyam Das "G.D." Birla was an Indian
2014. Dr. Kamal Bawa was honoured for his research that businessman;Walchand Hirachand Doshi was an Indian
included climate change in the Himalayas. industrialist, founder of Walchand group of
80. (b) It remains in force for one month and extend from companies.Thus,all of them were Indian industrialists.
time to time by further notification. 91. (d)
81. (c) It is directly under the federal Ministry of Home 92. (c) Option (C) is not in the list of principles of panchsheel.
Affairs and its headquarters at New Delhi. This agreement stated the five principles as:
82. (a) 1. Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and
83. (d) The territorial scope of Act expanded to the states of sovereignty.
the North-East,-Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, 2. Mutual non-aggression.
Tripura Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram. Any person 3. Mutual non-interference in each other's internal affairs.
arrested and taken into custody under this Act shall be 4. Equality and cooperation for mutual benefit.
made present over to the officer in charge of the nearest 5. Peaceful co-existence.
police station with the least possible delay, together with 93. (d) The 28-year-old Doctor came as a part of the five
a report of the circumstances occasioning the arrest. The member team and stayed in China for almost 5 years
Armed Forces (Assam and Manipur) Special Powers Act, working in mobile clinics to treat wounded soldiers. In
1958 empowered only the Governors of the States and 1939, Dr. Kotnis joined the Eighth Route Army (led by
the Administrators of the Union Territories to declare areas Mao Zedong) at the Jin-Cha-Ji border near the
in the concerned State or the Union Territory as WutaiMountain Area.
'disturbed'. 94. (c) In 1993, India ratified the Convention. It was adopted by
84. (c) Indian coast guard is an organization under the the United Nations on 18 December 1979. The CEDAW entered
Ministry of Defence. The Indian Coast Guard was formally into force on 3rd of September, 1981. It defines what constitutes
established on 18 August 1978 by the Coast Guard Act, discrimination against women and sets up an agenda for
1978 of the Parliament of India as an independent armed national action to end such discrimination. By accepting the
force of India. Convention, States commit themselves to undertake a series
85. (d) The Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of of measures to end discrimination against women in all forms.
Discrimination against Women (CEDAW), adopted in 1979 95. (c) Vishakha and other women groups filed Public Interest
by the UN General Assembly and is often described as an Litigation (PIL) against State of Rajasthan and Union of
international bill of rights for women and GM was adopted India to enforce the fundamental rights of working women
in 1995. under Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution of India.
86. (b) Information under the RTI Act 2005 can be provided The judgment of August 1997 given by a bench of J. S.
in respect of Assam Rifles,Border Security Force,National Verma (then C.J.I)., Sujata Manohar and B. N. Kirpal,
Security Guards. provided the basic definitions of sexual harassment at
87. (a) Supreme command of the Indian Armed Forces is the workplace and provided guidelines to deal with it.
vested in the President of India. On 15 August 1947, each 96. (d) After the 1999 Kargil conflict the Arun Singh committee,
Service was placed under its own Commander-in-Chief. In constituted as part of group of ministers (GoM) in April 2000
1955, the three Service Chiefs were re-designated as the Chief under the chairmanship of L K Advani, former Deputy Prime
of the Army Staff (rank of General), the Chief of the Naval Minister recommended the creation of the Chief of Defence
Staff (rank of Vice-Admiral) and the Chief of the Air Staff Staff (CDS) post since the existing system of chiefs of staff
(rank of Air Marshal) with the President as the Supreme committee had not been able to deliver on important issues.
Commander. The Chiefs of Staff Committee is a forum for service chiefs to
88. (a) GATT was signed by 23 nations in Geneva on October discuss matters having a bearing on the activities of services
30, 1947 and took effect on January 1, 1948. It lasted until and to advise the ministry. Its members include Chief of the
the signature by 123 nations in Marrakesh on April 14, Army Staff (COAS), Chief of the Naval Staff (CNS), Chief of
1994 of the Uruguay Round Agreements, which the Air Staff (CAS), and Chief of Integrated Defence Staff (a
established the World Trade Organization (WTO) on non-voting member).
97. (c) Myanmar (Burma) has neighbour countries - 111. (a) Rafale Medium multirole combat Aircraft is related
India, China, Bangladesh and Vietnam. It is ruled by a with France. It has nuclear stretegic strike capacity. India
military government. The National League for Democracy got agreement with France for its deal.
decided not to take part in the election (in 2010). Myanmar 112. (a) The list of importers of defence equipments (in 2014) -
is associated with ASEAN. (i) Saudi Arabia = $ 6.5 bn.
98. (b) The members of BRICS are Brazil, Russia, India, China (ii) India = $ 5.6 bn.
and South Africa. These countries are distinguished by (iii) China = $ 2.6 bn.
their large and fast growing economies. This forum (iv) UAE = $2.2bn.
encourages commercial, political and cultural cooperation (v) Taiwan = $2.2 bn.
among the member countries. 113. (d) Arihant is a nuclear powered ballistic missile
99. (c) Panchsheel Agreement was signed between India and submarine. It was launched on 26 July 2009 on the
China (29 April 1954) on the following principles - anniversary of Vijay Diwas (Kargil War).
I. Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity 114. (d) The 14th Asia Security Summit was held in May 2015
and sovereignty. in Singapore. The summit creates a sense of community,
II. Mutual non-aggression defence and security in the region (Asia).
III. Mutual non-interference in each other's internal affairs. 115. (b) The defence Research and Development organization
IV. Equality and mutual benefit and (DRDO) of India has around 50 laboratories having
V. Peaceful coexistance. ovethan 16000 scientific technical persons across the
100. (b) Rio + 20 is the short name for United Nations country.
conference on sustainable Development. It occured on 116. (c) Red Flag is a joint exercise between India and United
20-22 June 2012 in Brazil. It focused on the creation of states of America. It is an advanced aerial combat training
sustainable development goals. exercise. Its objective is to train pilots and any other flight
101. (d) MERCOSUR was organised in 1991, It has five crew members from the U.S and NATO.
members-Argentina, Brazil Paraguay, Uruguay and 117. (b) Sri Lanka allowed a Chinese submarine to dock at his
Venezuela. Its objective is to promote free trade and easy Colombo harbour in November 2014. It was opposed by
movement of people, currency and materials. India, but China said it was common practice for Navy to
102. (b) Borobudur is situated at Java in Indonesia. It is stop for refuelling and crew refreshment.
famous for stupas constructed in the 8th-9th century A.D., 118. (c) The South Western Railway Zone Headquarter which
during the reign of the Sailendra Dynasty. is situated in Hubli city in Karnataka has the highest
103. (b) Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) and Electronics elevation of 671m (approximately 2056 feet) from the mean
Corporation of India Limited both jointly developed EVM sea level.
(Electronic voting Machine). It was implemented partly in 119. (a) Norman Borlaug won Nobel Peace Prize for
1999 election and totally in 2004 election. developing high yielding varieties combined with modern
104. (c) Khan Shaheb Osman Ali stadium is situated at agricultural production techniques and by this maintaining
Fatullah in Bangladesh. Nearly 25000 people can sit in world peace.
this stadium. 120. (c) Citizenfour is a 2014 documentry film directed by
105. (b) The theme of World No Tobacco Day 2015 was "Stop Lavra Poitras, concerning Edward Snowden and the NSA
illicit trade of tobacco products". spying scandal.
106. (a) The Armed Forces (special Powers) Act has been 121. (b) Telegram services are permanently discontinued now.
with drawn by the Tripura Government. It was imposed in On 14th July 2013, this service is closed forever.
1997 to control insurgency in Tripura. 122. (b) Army Air Force Navy
107. (b) Kundapur Vaman Kamath, the first President of the (i) Lt. General Air Marshal Vice
New Development Bank of BRICS countries. He also took Admiral
the charge as the chairman of Infosys. (ii) Major General Air Vice Marshal Rear
108. (b) Weibo is a social media platform which is used in Admiral
China. It is a microblogging website. It was launched by (iii) Brigadier Air Commodore Commodore
Sina Corporation on 14th August, 2009; it is one of the 123. (d) When we sprinkle water on warm surface it provides
most popular social media platforms in China. coldness due to latent heat of water.
109. (b) The current vice chairperson of NITI Aayog is 124. (b) The UID/Aadhar Card is not a citizenship card.
Arvind Panagariya (62 yrs old). He is an Indian American 125. (b) The First summit of the FIPIC was held in Suva (Fiji)
economist and Professor of Economics at Columbia in November 2014.
University. Dr. Rajiv Kumar took over as Vice Chairman of 126. (c) Thermal power is the "largest" source of power in India.
NITI Aayog on 1st September 2017. There are different types of thermal power plants based on
110. (d) The ministry of defence does not provide regular the fuel used to generate the steam such as coal, gas, and
budgetary support to United Service Institution of India, Diesel. About 71% of electricity consumed in India are
New Delhi. generated by thermal power plants.
EBD_7341
Current Situation of Various Sources of Power Generation and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL, India) for the
in India is given below: Indian Air Force.
T yp es of Power Installed Percentage 136. (d) Neil O'Brien was a famous quiz master. He is credited
Plan t Capacity (MW ) Sh ar e
with pioneering quizzing in India. He had conducted the
first well-organised, formal quiz in 1967.
1. Ther mal power 153848 68.14
137. (b) Noted Physicist Stephen Hawking said: "If you feel
132288 58.59
you are in a black hole, don't give up. There's a way out."
(i) C oal Gas 20360 9.02
He said he had discovered a mechanism "by which
(ii) Gas based 1200 0.53 information is returned out of the black hole".
(iii) Oil based 138. (c) The Dhanush is an upgraded version of the Swedish
2. Hydro P ower 39623 17.55 155-mm Bofors howitzers. It is a 45-calibre gun with a
maximum range of 40 km. The upgraded guns are produced
3. Nuc le ar P ower 4780 2.12
by Indian Ordnance Factory Board.
4. Renewable 27542 12.20
139. (c) Defending champion Novak Djokovic defeated last
Source of Energy
year runner up Andy Murray to lift The Australin Open
Total Energy 225793 100 Tennis Tournamnet for the record sixth time.
127. (d) 140. (b) Argentina was defeated by Chile in the final of Copa
128. (d) Wild Ass Sanctuary also known as the Wild Ass America Football Championship, 2016.
Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Little Rann of Kutch in 141. (d) Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park located at
the Gujarat state of India. a height of 7,000ft (2133m) is the highest altitude Zoo in
Guindy National Park is located at Tamilnadu. Main the world. It is also known as Darjeeling Zoo.
attraction of this park is blackbuck, chital, spotted deer, 142. (d) Countries like Israel,Slovakia etc. are not a member of
jackal, small Indian civet, three-striped palm squirrel. MTCR but voluntarily following the MTCR export rules.
Namdapha was originally declared a Wildlife Sanctuary in 143. (a) Squadron of Tejas consists of 20 planes, including
1972, then a National Park in 1983 and became a Tiger four in reserve.
Reserve under the Project Tiger scheme in the same year. 144. (d) The Andaman and Nicobar Command was set up in
Jaldapara is a national park situated at the foothills of the 2001. The Then Vice Admiral Arun Prakash was appointed
Eastern Himalayas in Alipurduar District of northern West as the first Commander-in-Chief of the Andaman & Nicobar
Bengal. Command.
129. (a) The Rajiv Gandhi Centre for Biotechnology (RGCB) 145. (d) The Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee
is Located at Thiruvananthapuram, the capital city of Kerala, (COSC) is held by the senior-most of the three serving
It was began in 1990. In 2007 the Union Cabinet of the Chiefs of Staff from Army, Navy and Air Force. The
Government of India took the landmark decision to make Chairman COSC coordinates the tri-Service requirements
RGCB a national research centre. of commonality in operations, equipment acquisition etc.
130. (b) T-155 is a Turkish 155mm self-propelled howitzer. 146. (a) Jammu and Kashmir Rifles is an infantry regiment of
131. (a) The Lokapalas (also called Dikpalas) are known in the Indian Army.
Hinduism as the guardians of the directions. Each god or 147. (d) The Corps of Army Air Defence was raised on 10 Jan
goddess represents a specific cardinal direction and are 1994. It is Air DEfence corps of Indian Army. It has now
used in ritual for various purposes. Varuna, (the Lord of grown in stature and has proved its mettle in all major
the West), Kubera, (the Lord of the North),Yama, (the conflicts of the past. The Corps is now going through a
Regent of the south) and Indra, (the Lord of the East) are transformative period of modernization with induction of
the Gods known as the Lokpalas or the Guardian of the new weapon systems and upgradation of existing weapon
Universe. systems.
132. (d) Potassium Bromate is a carcinogen. It is cancer 148. (b) The Indian Army is organised into following
causing chemical and not a neurotoxin. Based on findings commands, these are 7 in number.
of CSE and recommendation of FSSAI, the Union S.No. Command
government banned the use of potassium bromate as a 1 Western command
food additive. 2 Eastern command
133. (b) During June 2016 referendum, the England and wales 3 Northern command
voted for exit from the European Union (Brexit). Scotland 4 Southern command
and Northern Ireland both backed staying in the EU.
5 Central command
134. (d) ISRO successfully flight tested India's first reusable
6 South Western Command
aerospace from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota
7 Army Training Command (ARTRAC)
in 2016. The rocket booster used solid fuel for the launch.
135. (d) Sukhoi -30 MKI fighter is a multirole combat aircraft 149. (a) Prior to 2006-The first rank for commissioned officer
jointly developed by the Sukhoi Design Bureau, Russia in the Indian Army was second 2nd Lieutenant. Ajai Vikram
Singh Cadre Review-2006 abolished these ranks -and now- bronze medal. The Silver medal was won by badminton
junior most officer rank is Lieutenant. player P. V. Sindhu in the women’s singles and the Bronze
150. (c) Tatra is the heavy duty military vehicles. Akash,Trishul medal by wrestler Sakshi Malik in the women’s 58 kg
and Astra are air defence missile systems. category.
151. (a) North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) is a 162. (b) India joined Missile Technology Control Regime
trilateral agreement signed between United States of (MTCR) in 2016 with an aim to strengthen MTCR’s
America, Canada and Mexico. It was created as a trade objective of restricting the proliferation of missiles,
bloc in North America. complete rocket systems, and unmanned air vehicles.
152. (b) Transmission of HIV infection takes place mainly 163. (d) India signed an memorandum of understanding with
due to transfusion of contaminated blood and blood Bangladesh in 2016 which will allow India to use Mongla
products. Other means, such as eating contaminated food seaports to transport goods. The port will strengthen trade
and water, inhaling polluted air, and shaking hand with between the two countries. Gwadar, Hambantota and
infected persons do not cause HIV transmission as these Chabahar ports are located in Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and
do not cause HIV virus to get mingled with blood. Iran respectively.
153. (c) Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake located in 164. (b) South Asian Association for Regional
Manipur. Cooperation (SAARC) is the regional inter governmental
154. (b) Sufficient calorie (carbohydrate) and fats, but organization and geopolitical group of nations in South
deficient proteins in diet cause Kwashiorkor disease (or Asia. Its members include Afghanistan,
edematous malnutrition) in children. The disease is Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, the Maldives, Pakistan,
characterized by edema, irritability, and an enlarged liver. and Sri Lanka. Observer states include Australia, China,
Kwashiorkor is commonly observed in low and lower the European Union, Iran, Japan, Mauritius, Myanmar,
middle income regions facing famine. South Korea, and United States.
155. (d) Project Tiger, a tiger conservation programme 165. (b) Devendra Jhajharia won a Gold medal for India in the
launched in 1973, aimed at preserving tigers and their Men’s Javelin Throw event at 2016 Rio Paralympic Games
habitats and ensuring viable population of tigers in India. in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. His javelin throw was 62.25 meters.
The programme focused on several tiger reserves His fellow Indians were Rinku Hooda, at fifth-place, and
including North East conservation unit. Namdhapa and Sundar Singh Gurjar, who did not start the event.
Pakke (Arunachal Pradesh), Nameril (Assam), Dampa Mariyappan Thangavelu won Gold medal in high jump.
(Mizoram) are some of the tiger reserves in North-East. 166. (c) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited designed and
156. (d) Biosphere reserves are protected areas of terrestrial handed over two light combat aircraft Tejas to the Indian
and coastal ecosystems which ensures the conservation Air Force in 2016. Tejas is the smallest single-engine
of biodiversity and its sustainable use. There are 18 tactical fighter aircraft in the world and is designed as a
biosphere reserves in India, such as Agasthyamalai, single-seater.
Nokrek , and Great Nicobar. Great Himalayan is not a 167. (b) Argentine Football player Lionel Messi was
biosphere reserve, but a national park in Kullu district of diagnosed with growth hormone deficiency as a child. He
Himachal Pradesh. is the first player to win the European Golden Shoes award
157. (d) The U.S. has the world’s largest railway network. for three times, between 2010 and 2013, and holds the all-
158. (d) South African rand, denoted by ZAR, is the currency time record with 50 goals scored in 2011–12.
of South Africa. Currency of Burundi, Libya and Sudan is 168. (b) On June 15, 2016, Laser Interferometer Gravitational-
Burundian franc, Libyan dinar, and Sudanese pound Wave Observatory (LIGO) detected a second set of
respectively. gravitational waves, which was recorded on December 26,
159. (d) Indian peafowl or blue peafowl (Pavo cristatus) is 2015. Analysis of the observed signal, called as GW151226,
the national bird of India. Indian lotus or Nelumbo nucifera indicated that the waves was due to the merger of two
Gaerth is the national flower of India. Ficus benghalensis black holes with masses of 14.2 and 7.5 solar masses, at a
or the Indian banyan is the national tree of India. distance of 1.4 billion light years.
Mangifera indica is the botanical name of mango tree and 169. (a) Officers Training Academy (in Chennai) is a training
national animal of India is panthera tigris (Royal Bengal establishment of the Indian Army. National Defence
Tiger) Academy (Khadakwasla) is the Joint Services academy
160. (c) The newspaper The Australian highlighted the leak of the Indian Armed Forces. Armed Forces Medical
of sensitive information about the combat capability of College (Pune) provides medical services to the Armed
India’s Scorpene-class submarine. French defense Forces. National Defence College of India (New Delhi) is
contractor DCNS was hired to build the submarine a centre of learning for Indian Defence and Civil Services
exclusively for India. DCNS said that the leak may have officer.
come from India rather than from France. 170. (a) Peacetime Gallantry Awards recognize courage or
161. (a) In Summer Olympics held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, self-sacrifice away from battlefield and include Ashok
from 5 to 21 August 2016, India won one silver and one Chakra, Kirti Chakra and Shaurya Chakra. Param Vir Chakra
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and Vir Chakra are Wartime GallantryAwards and recognizes 180. (c) The 2020 Summer Olympics (Games of the XXXII
self-sacrifice at battlefield. Yudh Seva Medal is military Olympiad) will be held in Tokyo, Japan, which will feature
decorations for service during wartime. 207 participating nations, more than 12,000 athletes, and
171. (b) Southern Naval Command, one of the three main 324 in 33 sports. The opening and closing ceremony will
formations of the Indian Navy, is headquartered in Kochi, be held on July 24 and 9 August respectively.
Kerala at Indian Navy base, INS Venduruthy, and consists 181. (b) Htin Kyaw was elected as the President of the
of Flag Officer Sea Training (FOST), a training squadron, Republic of the Union of Myanmar on 15 March 2016.
training establishments and bases, etc. Aung San Suu Kyi is the leader of the ruling National
172. (c) Saakshar Bharat scheme was launched on 8th League for Democracy party. Myint Swe is the Vice
September 2009 during the 11th Plan, with an aim to raise President of Republic of Union of Myanmar. Henry Van
literacy rate to 80%, to bridge gender gap to 10% and Thio is the Second Vice President of Myanmar since 2016.
decrease regional and social disparities, with focus on 182. (*) Option A and B are correct. Wrong options
women, SCs, STs, minorities, other disadvantaged groups. 183. (b) The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs),
It focused mainly on adult education, with emphasis on otherwise known as the Global Goals, are a universal call
non-literates in the age group of 15-36 years. to action to end poverty, protect the planet and ensure
173. (c) The 8th BRICS summit was held from October 15-16, that all people enjoy peace and prosperity. The 17 Goals
2016, in Benaulim, Goa, India. The witnessed summit build on the successes of the Millennium Development
participation of five member countries Brazil, Russia, India, Goals, while including new areas such as climate change,
China and South Africa. Several topics were discussed economic inequality, inn ovation, sustainable
such as, fighting terrorism, setting up credit rating agency consumption, peace and justice, among other priorities.
and research centres in agriculture and railways sectors. The SDGs came into effect in January 2016, and they will
174. (d) India signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) continue to guide UNDP policy and funding until 2030.
with Mozambique for import of pulses through private 184. (d) Teejan Bai is an exponent of Pandavani, a traditional
sectors or government-to-government sales through state performing art form, from Chhattisgarh, in which she enacts
agencies of the two countries. The MOU includes emphasis tales from the Mahabharata, with musical
on exports of Tur and other pulses from Mozambique to accompaniments.
India for five financial years. 185. (b) Dadasaheb Phalke Award is one of the highest and
175. (a) Copyright ensures protection of artistic and literary most prestigious awards that is given for the great
works. A copyright does not require registration and arises contribution in the field of cinema. Manoj kumar received
automatically as soon as work is created and lasts until 70 2016 Dadasaheb Phalke Award given on ceremony of 63rd
years after the death of the creator. Patent, industrial National Film Awards.
design, trademark, all need registration to provoke 186. (d) The Nobel Prize in Physics 2016 was awarded with
protection of intellectual property rights. one half to David J. Thouless, and the other half to F.
176. (b) Economist and philosopher Amartya Kumar Sen has Duncan M. Haldane and J. Michael Kosterlitz “for
received Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences in theoretical discoveries of topological phase transitions
1998 and Bharat Ratna in 1999 for his work in welfare and topological phases of matter”.
economics. He contributed in research on fundamental 187. (a) In October 2016, Irom Sharmila launched a political
problems in welfare economics and study on poverty. party named Peoples’ Resurgence and Justice Alliance to
177. (b) The rank of Captain of Indian Navy is equivalent to contest two Assembly constituencies of Khurai and
Group Captain in the Indian Air Force and Colonel of Khangabok.
Indian Army. Other ranks in the Indian Navy are Rear 188. (c) The Cassini–Huygens mission, commonly called
Admiral, Commodore, and Commander. Cassini, was a collaboration between NASA, the
178. (c) Farkhor Air Base in Farkhor in Tajikistan, is the only European Space Agency, and the Italian Space Agency to
Indian Air Force’s (IAF) air base outside India. IAF has carried send a probe to study the planet Saturn and its system,
out joint exercises with some countries like UK, France, including its rings and natural satellites.
Russia. IAF has separate Maintenance Command which was 189. (b) Tata Steel Limited is an Indian multinational steel-
formed in Kanpur on 26 January 1955. Arjan Singh is the making company headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra,
only person to be promoted as Marshal of IAF. The India. Bharat Aluminium Company Ltd. is an Indian
headquarters of maintenance command is now in Nagpur. aluminium company. Bharat Petroleum Corporation
179. (c) The Indian Navy commissioned the manoeuvrable Limited is an Indian state-controlled Maharatna oil and
fast attack craft INS Tihayu at the Eastern Naval Command gas company headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
on October 19, 2016. The ship was commissioned into the Bharat Electronics Limited is an Indian state-owned
Indian Navy by Vice Admiral HCS Bisht AVSM. INS Tihayu aerospace and defence company with about nine
would be based in Visakhapatnam under the Naval Officer- factories, and several regional offices in India.
in-Charge (Andhra Pradesh) and would be used for coastal 190. (d) NH 2 connects Delhi-Agra-Allahabad and Kolkata.
patrol and surveillance operations. NH4 connects Thane- Pune- Bangalore- Chennai. NH 7
connects Varanasi-Nagpur-Bangalore-Kannyakumari. NH and Community Organisations to enhance forest

8 connects Delhi-Jaipur- Ahmedabad- Mumbai. ecosystem services and improve the livelihoods of forest
191. (d) A carbon credit is a generic term for any tradable dependent communities in Central Indian Highlands.
certificate or permit representing the right to emit one tonne 200. (d) Universal Basic Income (UBI) ensures every citizen
of carbon dioxide or the mass of another greenhouse gas has a right to a minimum income to cover their basic needs
with a carbon dioxide equivalent (tCO2e) equivalent to one as a long-term solution to reduce poverty in the country.
tonne of carbon dioxide. (1 tonne is equal to 1000 kgs) It an alternative to subsidies for poverty alleviation.
192. (d) Tuvalu, in the South Pacific, is an independent island 201. (b) National Highways Authority of India launched two
nation within the British Commonwealth. Its 9 islands mobile Apps – MyFASTag and FASTag Partner to facilitate
comprise small, thinly populated atolls and reef islands the availability of FASTags for Electronic Toll Collection.
with palm-fringed beaches and WWII sites. It was in news 202. (b) Pragati is a MHRD Scheme being implemented by of
because of increasing global warming which is resulting AICTE aimed at providing assistance for Advancement
in melting of ice and increasing of sea level. of Girls pursuing Technical Education. This is an attempt
193. (c) The National Handloom Day is being observed every to give young Women the opportunity to further her
year on 7 August to honour the handloom weavers in the education and prepare for a successful future by
country and also carter an impetus to India’s handloom “Empowering Women through Technical Education”
industry. 203. (b) Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana was initiated to bring
194. (d) Israel has launched its first environmental research the member of parliament of all the political parties under
satellite named as Venus (Vegetation and Environment the same umbrella while taking the responsibility of
Monitoring New Micro-Satellite). It is first spatial developing physical and institutional infrastructure in
environmental research vehicle designed for orbital villages and turn them into model villages. Under this
monitoring of Earth’s vegetation, scheme, each member of parliament needs to choose one
195. (b) The theme for World Environment Day 2017 was village each from the constituency that they represent,
“Connecting People to Nature”. It implored people to get except their own village or their in-laws village and fix
outdoors and into nature, to appreciate its beauty and its parameters and make it a model village by 2019.
importance, and to take forward the call to protect the 204. (d) The National Air Quality index will consider eight
Earth. pollutants that impact health. These are P particulate matter
196. (d) INSV Tarini which will circumnavigate the globe in PM 10 and PM 2.5, nitrogen dioxide, sulphur dioxide,
five legs with stop-overs at four ports (Fremantle, ozone, carbon monoxide, ammonia and lead.
Australia; Lyttleton, New Zealand; Port Stanley, the 205. (c) The project, under the Integrated Coastal Zone
Falklands; and Cape town, South Africa). Management Project (ICZMP), was developed in West
197. (c) The Partition Museum is a public museum located in Bengal, Odisha and Gujarat as pilot projects. The
the Town Hall in Amritsar, India. The museum aims to programme will include wastewater treatment, solid waste
become the central repository of stories, materials, and management and mapping of ecologically sensitive areas
documents related to the post-partition riots that followed such coastal and marine wildlife, apart from livelihood
the division of British India into two independent schemes for coastal settlements such as coral
countries: India and Pakistan. The museum was transplantation, seaweed cultivation, and crab and mussel
inaugurated on 17 August 2017 farming. Tourism activities will include scuba diving and
198. (b) Setu Bharatam was launched by Prime Minister coral reef watch programmes.
Narendra Modi on 4 March 2016 at a budget of ¹ 102 206. (a) National Water Academy (NWA) is a training
billion with an aim to make all national highways free of institution of the Ministry of Water Resources,
railway crossings by 2019. The programme aims for Government of India. NWA conducts training programs
building bridges for safe and seamless travel on National that cover all aspects of water resources development and
Highways. management at basin scale, viz. hydrology, hydrometry
199. (b) A Grant Agreement from the Global Environment and telemetry; flood management; investigation, planning
Facility (GEF) of the World Bank of USD 24.64 million for and formulation of river valley projects; environmental and
“Ecosystem Service Improvement Project” was signed social aspects of river valley projects; design of dams /
recently. The size of Project is USD 24.64 million which barrages /canals /gates/ hydro-power structures and FEM;
entirely will be financed by the World Bank out of its GEF dam safety and instrumentation; GIS and Remote Sensing;
Trust Fund. The project’s duration is 05 years. Ministry Hydro-informatics; IWRM; Water Policy; etc. NWA has
of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) its own self contained campus in the lush green environs
will implement the Project in the States of Chhattisgarh of Khadakwasla, about 15 Km from the Pune city center,
and Madhya Pradesh through Indian Council of Forestry with hostel facilities for outstation participants.
Research & Education under the National Mission for 207. (a) Mizoram and Lakshadweep had the h ighest
Green India. The objective of the Project is to strengthen percentage of its population as ST (~95%), while Punjab
the institutional capacity of the Departments of Forestry and Haryana had 0% as per 2011 census.
EBD_7341
208. (b) UNESCO has not only recognized our architecture submitted its formal membership application to the NSG in
but also has tagged many of India's national parks and May 2016. India proposed the Comprehensive Convention
sanctuaries as world heritage under the category of Natural on International Terrorism in 1996. The Commonwealth
World Heritage Sites. These are Kaziranga National Park, Heads of Government Meeting 2015, also known as
Manas Wildlife Sanctuary, Keoladeo National Park, Nanda CHOGM 2015 was the 24th meeting of the heads of
Devi Biosphere Reserve, Sundarban National Park, Great government of the Commonwealth of Nations. It was held
Himalayan National Park, Khangchendzonga National in Malta from 27 to 29 November. It's a biennial summit
Park. meeting.
209. (c) North Central Railway is headquartered at Allahabad. 219. (b) The Indian Coast Guard's motto is Vayam Rakshamah,
The North Eastern Railway is headquartered at Gorakhpur. which translates from Sanskrit as "We Protect". Some
West central railway is headquartered at Jabalpur. South Additional responsibilities of the Indian Coast Guard are:
Central railways has its headquarters at Secunderabad Offshore Security Coordination Committee (OSCC),
Railway Station. National Maritime Search and Rescue Coordinating
210. (c) Maximum age of joining National Pension System Authority, Lead Intelligence Agency, Coastal Security.
(NPS) has been increased from the 60 years to 65 years 220. (c) Nirbhay is India's first indigenously designed and
under NPS- Private Sector. developed long-range subsonic cruise missile which can
211. (a) India sends first wheat shipment to Afghanistan via be deployed from multiple platforms. The missile was
Chabahar port in Iran. This is a major push for India's developed by the Aeronautical Developmen t
Afghan outreach bypassing Pakistan -- for the first time Establishment (ADE), Bengaluru. It is currently under
under the 2016 Indo-Afghan-Iran trilateral pact. development and undergoing flight trials.
212. (b) Antrix Corporation Limited is the commercial arm of 221. (d) The Ministry of Power, Government of India has
the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). It is recently constituted a Committee to investigate the causes
administered by the Department of Space (DoS) of the accident that occurred on 1st November, 2017 at
213. (d) The theme of WFI 2017 is 'Transforming the Food Feroze Gandhi Thermal Power Plant Ltd., Unchahar, in Uttar
Economy'. Germany, Japan and Denmark are Partner Pradesh. It's chairman is Shri P.D. Siwal, Member (Thermal),
Countries to World Food India. Italy & Netherlands are CEA.
the Focus Countries. 222. (b) Indian short film 'The School Bag', which tells a story
214. (c) Goa hosted the Nobel Prize Series - India 2018 (Science based in Pakistan, has won the Best Short Film Award at
Impacts Life) from February 1-28 2018. The Goa government the South Asian Film Festival of Montreal (SAFFM). It is
executed a trilateral Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) directed by Dheeraj Jindal.
with the Department of Bio-Technology, Ministry of 223. (a) Five time world champion Mary Kom won gold medal
Science and Technology, Government of India (GoI) and in Asian Women's Boxing Championships in Light
Nobel Media, Sweden to hold the Nobel series. Flyweight (48 kg) category. She defeated North Korea's
215. (b) The Ministry of Communication has recently Kim Hyang Mi in the final bout 5-0. It was her fifth gold
launched a Pan India scholarship programme for medal in 48 kg category in Asian Women's Boxing
schoolchildren called Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana'. The Championships ( earlier won in 2003, 2005, 2010 and 2012).
objective of the scheme is to increase the reach of 224. (b) World Soil Day is celebrated annually on the 5th of
Philately. Under the scheme of SPARSH (Scholarship for December at the Food and Agriculture Organization of the
Promotion of Aptitude & Research in Stamps as a Hobby), United Nations (FAO) headquarters in Rome. The theme
it is proposed to award annual scholarships to children of for the 2017 event is 'Caring for the Planet starts from the
Standard VI to IX having good academic record and also Ground'.
pursuing Philately as a hobby through a competitive 225. (b) H S Prannoy is the winner of the men's singles title at
selection process in all postal circles. the 82nd Senior National Championship Senior National
216. (b) The Sri Ranganathaswamy temple at Srirangam in Badminton Championships.
Tamil Nadu has won UNESCO Asia-Pacific award for 226. (c) Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader,
cultural heritage conservation programme in the Awards Group Captain, Wing Commander, Air Commodore, Air
of Merit category. The traditional method of renovating Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal.
temple premises as well as re-establishment of rainwater 227. (b) "One country, two systems" is a constitutional
harvesting and historic drainage system in preventing principle formulated by Deng Xiaoping, the Paramount
flooding were two key parameters that earned temple the Leader of the People's Republic of China (PRC), for the
award. reunification of China during the early 1980s. He suggested
217. (b) India beat China to win women's Asia Cup hockey that there would be only one China, but distinct Chinese
title 2017. India won the prestigious trophy in 2004 as well regions such as Hong Kong and Macau could retain their
after they defeated Japan 1-0. own economic and administrative systems, while the rest
218. (d) India officially joined the Missile Technology Control of China uses the socialism with Chinese characteristics
Regime (MTCR) as a full member on 27th June 2016. India system. Under the principle, each of the two regions could
continue to have its own governmental system, legal, has been assigned to ITBP for Border Guarding duty and
economic and financial affairs, including trade relations accordingly it replaced Assam rifles in Sikkim and
with foreign countries. Hong Kong was a colony of the Arunachal Pradesh in 2004-2005.
United Kingdom, ruled by a governor for 156 years (except 232. (d) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana (PMKSY) was
for four years of Japanese occupation during WWII) until launched in 2015-16 with objectives to enhance physical
1997, when it was returned to Chinese sovereignty. access of water on farms; expand cultivable area under
228. (a) The Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and assured irrigation; improve water use efficiency in
Climate Change (MoEFCC) has unveiled third National agriculture and introduce sustainable conservation
Wildlife Action Plan for 2017-2031 to chalk out future road practices.
map for wildlife conservation. The key focus areas of this 233. (d) DDU-GKY is a part of the National Rural Livelihood
plan includes integration of climate change into wildlife Mission (NRLM), tasked with the dual objectives of adding
planning, conservation of coastal and marine ecosystem, diversity to the incomes of rural poor families and cater to
mitigation of human-wildlife conflict, focus on wildlife the career aspirations of rural youth. DDU-GKY is uniquely
health among others. The NWAP has five components, focused on rural youth between the ages of 15 and 35
17 themes, 103 conservation actions and 250 projects. The years from poor families. The Vision of DDU-GKY is to
five components are - strengthening and promoting the "Transform rural poor youth into an economically
integrated management of wildlife and their habitats; independent and globally relevant workforce"
adaptation to climate change and promoting integrated 234. (b) The Port of Hambantota is located in Hambantota
sustainable management of aquatic biodiversity in India; District, Southern Province, Sri Lanka.
promoting eco-tourism, nature education and participatory 235. (a) The projects under Coastal Berth Scheme of the
management; strengthening wildlife research and flagship Sagarmala Programme are distributed over eight
monitoring of development of human resources in wildlife states with the highest number of projects in Maharashtra
conservation and enabling policies and resources for (12 projects), Andhra Pradesh & Goa
conservation of wildlife in India. (10 projects), Karnataka (6 projects), Kerala and Tamil Nadu
229. (b) eBiz is one of the integrated services projects and (3 projects), Gujarat (2 projects) and West Bengal (1
part of the 31 Mission Mode Projects (MMPs) under the project).
National E-Governance Plan (NEGP) of the Government of 236. (b) 'SAMPRITI-2017' is a joint militaiy exercise between
India. eBiz is being implemented by Infosys Technologies armed forces of India and Bangladesh. It is held alternately
Limited (Infosys) under the guidance and aegis of in India and Bangladesh every year with an aim to build
Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), and promote positive relations between the armies of the
Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India. two neighbours.
The focus of eBiz is to improve the business environment 237. (a) The Vishakha Guidelines were a set of procedural
in the country by enabling fast and efficient access to guidelines for use in India in cases of sexual harassment.
Government-to-Business (G2B) services through an online They were promulgated by the Indian Supreme Court in
portal. This will help in reducing unnecessary delays in 1997 and were superseded in 2013 by the Sexual Harassment
various regulatory processes required to start and run of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and
businesses. Redressal) Act, 2013.
230. (b) The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most Vishakha and others v State of Rajasthan was a 1997
abundant of all sea turtles found in the world, inhabiting Indian Supreme Court case where Vishakha and other
warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans. women groups filed Public Interest Litigation (PIL) against
These turtles, along with their cousin the Kemps ridley State of Rajasthan and Union of India to enforce the
turtle, are best known for their unique mass nesting called fundamental rights of working women under Articles 14,
Arribada, where thousands of females come together on 19 and 21 of the Constitution of India. The petition was
the same beach to lay eggs. filed after Bhanwari Devi, a social worker in Rajasthan was
231. (d) The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) is one of the brutally gang raped for stopping a child marriage.
five Central Armed Police Forces of India, raised on 24 The court decided that the consideration of
October 1962, under the CRPF Act, in the wake of the "International Conventions and norms are significant for
Sino-Indian War of 1962. The ITBP was intended for the purpose of interpretation of the guarantee of gender
deployment along India's border with China's Tibet equality, right to work with human dignity in Articles 14,
Autonomous Region. The ITBP, which started with 4 15, 19(1)(g) and 21 of the Constitution and the safeguards
battalions, has since restructuring in 1978 has undergone against sexual harassment implicit therein." The petition,
expansion to a force of 56 battalions as of 2017 with a resulted in what are popularly known as the Vishaka
sanctioned strength of 89,432. ITBP is basically a Guidelines. The judgment of August 1997 given by a bench
mountain trained Force and most of the officers & men of J. S. Verma (then C.J.I)., Sujata Manohar and B. N. Kirpal,
are professionally trained Mountaineers and Skiers. The provided the basic definitions of sexual harassment at the
entire stretch of Indo-China border comprising 3488 kms, workplace and provided guidelines to deal with it. It is
EBD_7341
seen as a significant legal victory for women's groups in 249. (c) Bhopal is the capital city of the Indian state of Madhya
India. Pradesh and it is not located on any River bank. While
238. (b) In 2010, South Africa began efforts to join the BRIC Agra is located on bank of River Yamuna, and Bhagalpur
grouping, and the process for its formal admission began and Kanpur are located on the bank of River Ganga.
in August of that year. South Africa officially became a 250. (a) Jhumri Telaiya is a city in the Koderma District of
member nation on 24 December 2010, after being formally Jharkhand, India. It is situated in the Damodar Valley.
invited by the BRIC countries to join the group. The group Mandar Parvat, also known as Mandar Hill is a small
was renamed BRICS - with the "S" standing for South mountain situated in Banka district under Bhagalpur. It is
Africa - to reflect the group's expanded membership. In about 700 ft high and approximately 45 km south of
April 2011, the President of South Africa, Jacob Zuma, Bhagalpur city off Bausi, a place located on the state
attended the 2011 BRICS summit in Sanya, China, as a full highway between Bhagalpur and Dumka.
member. 251. (a) Plagues and Peoples is a book on epidemiological
239. (b) In the earlier times, Elephanta Island was known as history by William Hardy McNeill published in New York
Gharapuri and it was the capital of Konkan Mauryas. City in 1976. It was a critical and popular success, offering
The island 'Elephanta' was forenamed after the statue of a radically new interpretation of the extraordinary impact of
an elephant, sited near the landing area of the island, by infectious disease on cultures as a means of enemy attack.
a Portuguese. The cave temples of Elephanta are 252. (c) The National Institute of Ayurveda is located in Jaipur,
dedicated to Lord Shiva. Rich in sculptural content, the the capital of the State of Rajasthan in India.
earliest temples trace their origin in the 5th century B.C. The National Institute of homoeopathy is located in
Elephanta Caves represent Lord Shiva in his 'lingam' as Kolkata, the capital of the State of West Bengal in India.
well as in his typical life form originating from the National Institute of Unani Medicine is situated in
Shivalingam in the colossal image and in 8 evident forms. Bangalore in Karnataka state of India. Established in 1984,
240. (a) Khasi is part of the Austroasiatic language family, it is accredited from other and it is affiliated to Rajiv Gandhi
and is related to Cambodian, and Mon languages of University.
Southeast Asia, and the Munda branch of that family, National Institute of Siddha is situated in Chennai in
which is spoken in east–central India. Tamil Nadu (Chennai) state of India. It is accredited from
241. (c) Apart from the headquarters of the Eastern and the Central Council of Indian Medicine (CCIM) and it is affiliated
South Eastern Railways, Kolkata is also has the to Tamil Nadu Dr. M.G.R. Medical University.
headquarters of the Kolkata Metro Railways, which is now 253. (d) May 21 is observed as Anti-Terrorism Day throughout
a zone of the Indian Railways. the country. SICI pledges to oppose all forms of terrorism
242. (d) The Jatakas were written in Pali around the middle of and violence on Anti-Terrorism Day and to spread the
the first millennium CEo. message of peace and humanity.
243. (a) Pakyong Airport is a Greenfield airport near Gangtok, 254. (b) The Naropa festival is a grand Buddhist festival which
the state capital of Sikkim, India. Opened in September, occurs in every 12 years, has started at the 17th century
2018, Pakyong Airport is one of the five highest airports in Hemis Monastery in Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir. The
India at 4500 ft. main event of the festival is the celebration of the 1,000th
244. (d) On 15 October, the United Nations commemorates the birth anniversary of spiritual Saint Naropa.
International Day of Rural Women, under the theme, 255.. (c) Gully Boy, featuring Ranveer Singh and Alia Bhatt
"Sustainable infrastructure, services and social protection in lead, was selected as India’s official entry in the
for gender equality and the empowerment of rural women International Feature Film category at the 92nd Academy
and girls". Awards.
245. (a) The Bombay Secretariat was completed in 1874 and 256. (a) The global goalkeeper award is given by Bill and
designed by Captain Henry St. Clair Wilkins in the Venetian Melinda Gates Foundation.
Gothic style. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has been conferred
246. (a) Mataji Maharani Tapaswini was one of the strongest the ‘Global Goalkeeper Award’ for the Swachh Bharat
proponents of female education in India. Her greatest Abhiyan launched by the government.
contribution came in the form of the Mahakali Pathshala 257. (a) Gandhi Solar Park: Prime Minister Narendra Modi
which she set up in Kolkata in 1893. along with other world leaders inaugurated the Gandhi
247. (b) Solar Park at the UN headquarters in New York on
248. (d) Wular Lake is one of the largest fresh water lakes in September 24, 2019.
Asia. It is sited in Bandipora district in Jammu and Kashmir, 258. (c) It began with the Portuguese, who went to West
India. The lake basin was formed as a result of tectonic Africa in search of gold. The first Europeans to come to
activity and is fed by the Jhelum River. The lake’s size Africa’s West Coast to trade were funded by Prince Henry,
varies seasonally from 12 to 100 square miles (30 to 260 the famous Portuguese patron, who hoped to bring riches
square kilometres). to Portugal.
259. (d) College of Military Engineering (abbreviated as CME) 264. (b) VIJAY NAGAR advanced landing ground of Indian
was established in the year 1943. It is a premier technical Air Force is located in ARUNACHAL PRADESH. The
training institution of the Indian Army Corps of Indian Air Force (IAF) inaugurated the resurfaced runway
Engineering, located in Dapodi, Pune, Maharashtra, India. at the Advance Landing Ground (ALG) here which will
The college is affiliated to JNU (Jawaharlal Nehru enable operations by military transport aircraft at the base
University). near the China border.
260. (d) The official language of Jammu and Kashmir is Urdu. 265. (d) A Defence Research and Development Organisation
However, Kashmiri is the local language of Jammu & (DRDO) aircraft Rustam-2(UAV) unmanned aerial vehicle
Kashmir. Kashmiri (gujari), which is an Indo-Aryan crashed at an open field in the Chitradurga district of
language, is also known as Koshur. People living in Karnataka.
Kashmir Valley speak Kashmiri. 266. (a) Singapore, India and Thailand have commenced a
Dakpakha, known in India as Tawang Monpa, is an East trilateral naval exercise at Port Blair in the Andaman and
Bodish language spoken in the Tawang district of Arunachal Nicobar Islands. The Singapore-India-Thailand Maritime
Pradesh, claimed by Tibet as a part of Lho-kha Sa-khul, and in Exercise (SITMEX) is the maiden trilateral exercise
northern Trashigang District in eastern Bhutan, mainly in involving the Republic of Singapore Navy (RSN), Indian
Chaleng, Phongmed. Navy and the Royal Thai Navy.
261. (a) The major families in terms of numbers are Indo- 267. (d) National Water Academy (formerly known as Central
European and Indo-Aryan languages and Dravidian Training Unit) was set up in Central Water Commission
languages in South Asia and Sino-Tibetan in East Asia. by the Ministry of Water Resources, RD and GR, Govt. of
Several other families are regionally dominant. India in the year 1988, to impart training to the in-service
262. (d) In India, such Delimitation Commissions have been engineers of various Central/State organizations involved
constituted 4 times – in 1952 under the Delimitation in the Development & Management of Water Resources.
Commission Act, 1952, in 1963 under Delimitation It was established under USAID assistance and
Commission Act, 1962, in 1973 under Delimitation Act, strengthened with the subsequent assistance received
1972 and in 2002 under Delimitation Act, 2002. The main from the World Bank.NWA is located at Khadakwasla,
task of the commission is redrawing the boundaries of Pune, Maharashtra.
the various assembly and Lok Sabha constituencies based 268. (b) India hosted World Tourism Day 2019.
on a recent census. The representation from each State is 269. (c) Russia will host the BRICS summit in the summer of
not changed during this exercise. However, the number 2020, Russian President Vladimir Putin said on Friday at a
of SC and ST seats in a state are changed in accordance meeting with his South African counterpart Cyril
with the census. Ramaphosa on the sidelines of the G20 summit.
263. (c) Hilsa is the national fish of Bangladesh and it 270. (a) Government of India has instituted ‘Sardar Patel
contributes 10% of the total fish production of the country, National Unity Award’ - Highest Civilian Award for
with a market value of $1.74 billion. Hilsa also holds a contribution to Unity and Integrity of India.
very important place in the economics of West Bengal of
India with 12.5% of the catch.
EBD_7341
272 Miscellaneous
9 Miscellaneous
1. Consider the following statements [2009-II] (b) Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu
1. Geshe Ngawang Tashi (Lama Tashi) was nominated (c) Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala
for 48th Annual Grammy Awards for his album 'In (d) Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh.
the Heart of the Moon'. 8. The 2006 Nobel Prize in Medicine has been awarded jointly
2. Aashish Khan and Zakir Hussain were nominated to whom among the following? [2009-II]
for 49th Annual Grammy Awards for their album 1. Andrew Z Fire of Stanford University, School of Medicine.
“Golden Strings of the Sarod”, in the Traditional 2. John C Mather of NASA Centre, Maryland.
World Music category. 3. Roger D Koruberg of Stanford University, California.
Which of the following given above is/are correct? 4. Craig C Mello of University of Massachusetts Medical
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 School, Worcester.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the codes given below
2. The rare astronomical event, transit of mercury across sun (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
took place on 9th November, 2006, when the planet came (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
between Sun and Earth. [2009-II] 9. Which one of the following is not a Defence Public Sector
The next transit visible from India will be in which one of Undertaking? [2009-II]
the following years? (a) Bharat Electronics Ltd
(a) 2010 (b) 2012 (b) National Hydroelectric Power Corporation Ltd
(c) 2014 (d) 2016 (c) Bharat Earth Movers Ltd
3. Consider the following statements [2009-II] (d) Mazgaon Dock Ltd
1. Bhutan is going to hold its first ever parliamentary 10. In which event did Manjeet Kaur excel in the Doha Asiad-
elections in the year 2010. 2006? [2009-II]
2. Bhutan has banned anyone without a university (a) 100 m race (b) 4 × 400m women relayrace
degree from contesting elections. (c) Shooting (d) Discus throw
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 11. Which one of the following has successfully been tested
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 by India in November, 2006? [2009-II]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Rocket launching using solid fuel
4. Who among the following heads Wipro Limited-one of (b) Ballistic missile capable of carrying nuclear warhead
the largest computer companies in India? [2009-II] (c) Ballistic missile covering 5000 km distance
(a) Nandan Nilekani (b) Azim Premji (d) Interceptor missile
(c) YC Deveshwar (d) Sunil Mittal 12. Prof. Muhammad Yunus is renowned in which one of the
5. Athlete of which one of the following countries died in following areas? [2009-II]
equestrian competition in the 15th Asian Games at Doha? (a) International economics (b) Human rights
[2009-II] (c) Freedom of press (d) Micro credit concept
(a) South Korea (b) Japan 13. The historic peace agreement of November, 2006 in Nepal
(c) China (d) Malaysia has been signed between which of the followings?
6. Consider the following statements [2009-II] [2009-II]
1. United States-India Peaceful Atomic Energy (a) King and SPA (b) King and Maoists
Cooperation Act, 2006 was named in honour of the (c) SPA and Maoists (d) King, SPA and Maoists
Chairman of the House Committee on International 14. Which of the following Indians are recipients of the highest
Relations. French Civilian Award of the 'Knight of Legion'?
2. About 25% of world's total thorium reserves are in [2009-II]
India. 1. Lata Mangeshkar 2. Kishore Kumar
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. Satyajit Ray 4. Amitabh Bachchan
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Select the correct answer using the code given below
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
7. Where is the Central Coffee Research Institute situated? (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
(a) Balehonnur, Karnataka [2009-II]
Miscellaneous 273
15. In the year 2006, Muhammad Yusuf, a Pakistani batsman (c) An indigenously developed air-borne early warning
has broken the record of highest aggregate runs in test system
cricket in a calender year which uptill stood in whose name? (d) A fighter aircraft with a powerful radar and missiles
[2009-II] 27. How is Kishori Amonkar well known as? [2009-II]
(a) Don Bradman (b) Sachin Tenldulkar (a) Classical dancer (b) Classical singer
(c) Barry Richards (d) Vivian Richards (c) Poet (d) Theatre personality
16. Which of the following women of Indian origin has been 28. Who among the following as a recipient of the Magsaysay
adjudged as the 'Miss Great Britain 2006' to represent UK award? [2009-II]
in the Miss Universe content? [2009-II] (a) Nirmala Deshpande (b) Arvind Kejriwal
(a) Kiran Desai (b) Preeti Desai (c) Suprabha Seshan (d) CNR Rao
(c) Hema Sarkar (d) Khalida Akhtar 29. Where is the National Institute of Ocean Technology
17. Where is the Wanderers Test Cricket ground located? located? [2009-II]
(a) Colombo (b) Melbourne [2009-II] (a) Chennai (b) Mangalore
(c) Auckland (d) Johannesburg (c) Thiruvanthapuram (d) Visakhapatnam
18. The development of which of the following administrative 30. Who among the following Indian artists was conferred
concepts could be attributed to German Sociologist Max the prestigious French Award- ‘The Knight of the Order of
Weber? [2009-II] Art and Letters’? [2009-II]
(a) Democracy (b) Bureaucracy (a) Indira Goswami (b) Anjole Ela Menon
(c) Pluralism (d) Corporatism (c) Gopi Gajwani (d) Yash Chopra
19. Consider the following statements about National Security 31. Consider the following statements about Lakshya
Guards (NSG) [2009-II] 1. It is one of India's advanced light helicopters.
1. NSG was set-up in the year 1984. 2. It is remote-controlled from the ground and designed
2. Hostage rescue missions and counterhijack to impart training to pilots. [2009-II]
operations are its primary tasks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 32. Who coined the term 'Dictatorship of the Proletariat'?
20. Which one of the following is not a computer language? [2009-II]
[2009-II] (a) V Lenin (b) Francis Bacon
(a) Cobol (b) Visual Basic (c) Karl Marx (d) J Stalin
(c) HTML (d) Netscape 33. Where was the First Non-Aligned Summit (NAM) Meet
21. Well-known company Suzlon is engaged in which one of held? [2009-II]
the following? [2009-II] (a) New Delhi (b) Cairo
(a) Oil exploration (b) Telecommunication (c) Belgrade (d) Havana
(c) Wind energy (d) Petrochemicals 34. Venugopal Dhoot is associated with which one of the
22. Who invented Black Box Flight Recorder? [2009-II] following? [2009-II]
(a) Robert Stephenson (b) John Shorthand (a) Suzlon (b) Videocon
(c) David Warren (d) David Robinson (c) Ranbaxy (d) Maruti Udyog
23. Which country hosts the Azlan Shah Cup Hockey 35. Whom did Venus Williams defeat in the women finals of
tournament? [2009-II] the Wimbledon-2007? [2009-II]
(a) Malaysia (b) Indonesia (a) Amelie Mauresmo (b) Marion Bartoli
(c) Pakistan (d) UAE (c) Justin Henm Hardenne (d) Maria Sharapova
24. Recently, as a geopolitical strategic relationship, India has 36. The great lawn tennis player Bjorn Borg is from which
been active in creating a quadrilateral coalition. Which country? [2009-II]
one of the following is not in the proposed coalition? (a) Sweden (b) Australia
[2009-II] (c) USA (d) Italy
(a) Australia (b) Indonesia 37. Where will be the Asian Games-2010 held? [2009-II]
(c) Japan (d) USA (a) Beijing (b) Pyongyang
25. Who among the following is the author of the book. ‘The (c) Guangzhou (d) Shanghai
Namesake’? [2009-II] 38. Who is the author of the book ‘Conquest of Self’ ?
(a) Arundhati Roy (b) Amitava Ghosh [2009-II]
(c) Jhumpa Lahiri (d) Kiran Desai (a) Aurobindo Ghosh (b) Rabindranath Tagore
26. With reference to the defence of India, what is Bison, that (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) S Radhakrishnan
was recently in news? [2009-II] 39. Where is the national institute of nutrition located?
(a) An unmanned low flying aircraft for reconnaissance [2009-II]
(b) An indigenously developed all weather (a) Bengaluru (b) Hyderabad
multipurpose helicopter (c) Mysuru (d) Pune
EBD_7341
274 Miscellaneous
40. Match the following [2009-II] 49. Dr C Rangarajan Committee is associated with which one
of the following? [2009-II]
List I (Name) List II (Game)
(a) Pricing and taxation of petroleum products
A. Dola Banerjee 1. Badminton (b) Estimation of national income
B. Aparna Popat 2. Snooker (c) TAX structure
(d) Estimation of money supply
C AnujaThakur 3. Chess
50. Match the following [2009-II]
D. Parimarjan Negi 4. Archery
List I List II
Codes (Institute of Indian Systems (Location)
A B C D
of Medicine)
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 4 1 2 3 A. National Institute of Unani 1. Kolkata
(c) 2 1 3 4 Medicines
(d) 4 1 3 2 B. National Institute of 2. Jaipur
41. The 2010, Commonwealth Games will be hosted by New Homoeopathy
Delhi. Two new disciplines will be added to the games. C. National Institute of 3. Chennai
What are they? [2009-II] D. AyurvedaInstitute of Siddha
National 4. Bengaluru
(a) Billiards and Kabaddi (b) Tennis and Archery
(c) Basketball and Volleyball (d) Tennis and Billiards Codes
42. Adoor Gopalakrishnan, the recipient of Padma Vibhushan A B C D
Award, 2006 is associated with which one of the following (a) 4 2 1 3
fields? [2009-II] (b) 3 1 2 4
(a) Civil Services (b) Art (c) 4 1 2 3
(c) Literature and Education (d) Social Work (d) 3 2 1 4
43. Who among the following won the Wimbledon Women's 51. Two greenfield airport projects in India are being
Tennis Championship, 2007? [2009-II] implemented on Build Own Operate Transfer (BOOT) basis.
(a) Amelie Mauresmo (b) Venus Williams One is at Bengaluru. Where is the other one located?
(c) Marion Bartoli (d) Svetlana Kuznetsova [2009-II]
44. Consider the following statements [2009-II] (a) Hyderabad (b) Chennai
1. India has 10 Pressurized HeavyWater Reactors (PHWRs). (c) Kolkata (d) Mumbai
2. The spent fuel from the PHWRs is reprocessed into 52. Match the following [2009-II]
plutonium. List I List II
3. All imported reactors are under the safeguards of
the international Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). Folk Dance State
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. Bhavai 1. Mizoram
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 B Thabal Chongba 2. Assam
45. Consider the following statements [2009-II] C Cheraw 3. Manipur
1. Noble Peace Prize is presented annually in Oslo by D. Bhortal Nritya 4. Rajasthan
the king of Norway. Codes
2. The Nobel laureate receives three things-a diploma, A B C D
a medal and a document confirming the prize amount. (a) 4 1 3 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) 2 1 3 4
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 4 3 1 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 2 3 1 4
46. Where is the Central Rice Research Institute located? 53. Which one of the following is not identified by Central
(a) Bengaluru (b) Kanpur [2009-II] Pollution Control Board as heavily polluting industry?
(c) Coimbatore (d) Cuttack [2009-II]
47. What is 'Super 301'? [2009-II] (a) Pulp and paper (b) Sugar
(a) A name of modern computer (c) Tea (d) Fertilizer
(b) A new variety of wheat 54. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(c) American Trade Law [2009-II]
(d) A new vaccine for AIDS (a) Fiat : Italy (b) Nissan Japan
48. Where is the International Advanced Research Centre for (c) Toyota : Japan (d) Hyundai : Germany
Powder Metallurgy and New Materials (ARCI) located? 55. Which among the following is the oldest board under the
[2009-II] Department of Commerce? [2009-II]
(a) Bengaluru (b) Hyderabad (a) The Rubber Board (b) The Tea Board
(c) Coimbatore (d) Machilipatnam (c) The Coffee Board (d) The Tobacco Board
Miscellaneous 275
56. The Kyoto Protocol commits the developed nations, 65. In which one of the following places is the Indira Gandhi
including economies in transition to reduce emissions of Centre for Atomic Research located? [2009-II]
green house gases by which one of the following during (a) Thiruvananthapuram (b) Sriharikota
the years 2008-2012? [2009-II] (c) Kalpakkam (d) Trombay
(a) An average of 4% below 1990 levels 66. Match the following [2009-II]
(b) An average of 5% below 2000 levels List I List II
(c) An average of 4.2% below 2000 levels
(d) An average of 5.2% below 1990 levels A. Girija Devi 1. Leading woman executive
57. Which one of the following industries is not recommended B. Indira Nooyi 2. Leading writer
by Investment Commission as National Thrust Area? C. Kiran Desai 3. Hematologist turned
[2009-II]
executive of the BBC trust
(a) Tourism (b) Information Technology
(c) Agro-processing (d) Textiles D. Chitra Bharucha 4. Anti-liquor activist
58. Liberhan Commission has been appointed to deal with Codes
which one of the following? [2009-II] A B C D
(a) Anti-Sikh Riots, 1984 (b) Demolition of Babri Masjid (a) 3 1 2 4
(c) Godhra Incident (d) Mumbai Communal Riots (b) 4 1 2 3
59. Consider the following statements [2009-II] (c) 4 2 1 3
1. Doris Lessing becomes the oldest person to win the (d) 3 2 1 4
Nobel Prize in Literature (2007). 67. Match the following [2009-II]
2. She is a school dropout.
List I List II
3. Jane Moor is the pseudonym of Doris Lessing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. M F Hussain 1. Tabla
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 B. Zakir Hussain 2. Classical dance
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these C. Ulhas Kashalkar 3. Painting
60. Who among the following is the Common wealth Secretary
General? [2009-II] D. Yamini Krishnamurty 4. Vocal classical
(a) Rajiv Chandran (b) Kamalesh Sharma Codes
(c) Shashi Tharoor (d) Shiv Shankar Mukherjee A B C D
61. Among the following persons whose birth anniversary is (a) 3 1 4 2
celebrated as Sadbhavana Divas and death anniversary (b) 2 4 3 1
as Anti-terrorism Day? [2009-II] (c) 2 3 4 1
(a) Indira Gandhi (b) Rajiv Gandhi (d) 3 4 1 2
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Sanjay Gandhi 68. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
62. Who among the following is the author of the book 'India [2009-II]
Remembered'? [2009-II] (a) Hindalco Industries : Novelis
(a) JK Rowling (b) Robert Dallek (b) Tata Steel : Corus Group
(c) Pamela Mountbatten (d) Stephen Hawking (c) Jet Airways : Air Sahara
63. Who among the following fast bowlers has taken a hat- (d) Kingfisher Airlines : MDLR Airlines
trick in the very first over of a Test Cricket Match? 69. Which one of the following days is observed as the World
[2009-II] Environment Day? [2009-II]
(a) Glenn McGrath (b) K Pietersen (a) 28th February (b) 4th March
(c) C Walsh (d) Irfan Pathan (c) 5th June (d) 16th September
64. Match the following [2009-II] 70. Meghnad Saha is known for his contribution in which one
of the following fields? [2009-II]
List I List II
(a) Physics (b) Medical Science
A. Jeev Milkha Singh 1. Archery (c) Environmental Science (d) History
B. Jayanta Talukdar 2. Cricket 71. Which one of the following is the correct chronological
order of the Secretary Generals of the United Nations?
C. N Kunjarani Devi 3. Power lifting
[2009-II]
D. Jhulan Goswami 4. Golf (a) U Thant-K Waldheim-BB Ghali-K Annan
Codes (b) K Waldheim-U Thant-BB Ghali-K Annan
A B C D (c) U Thant-K Waldheim-K Annan-B B Ghali
(a) 4 1 3 2 (d) K Waldheim-BB Ghali-U Thant-K Annan
(b) 4 3 1 2 72. Which one of the following is a programme that converts
(c) 2 3 1 4 high level language to machine language? [2009-II]
(d) 2 1 3 4 (a) Linker (b) Assembler
(c) Interpreter (d) Compiler
EBD_7341
276 Miscellaneous
73. The quarantine regulation for preventing entry of diseased 84. Match the following [2009-II]
plants into the country is done by which one of the List l List II
following? [2009-II]
(Player) (Sport)
(a) National Botanical Research Institute
(b) Botanical Survey of India A. Gagan Narang 1. Archery
(c) National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources B. Akhil Kumar 2. Swimming
(d) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research C. Mangal Singh 3. Boxing
74. Who among the following have won the Nobel Prize for D. Virdhawal Khade 4. Rifle Shooting
Economics in 2007? [2009-II] Codes
1. Eric S Maskin 2. Roger B Myerson A B C D
3. Hu Jintao 4. Leonid Hurwicz (a) 4 1 3 2
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (b) 2 3 1 4
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 4 3 1 2
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 (d) 2 1 3 4
75. Holding a 'Bandh' was declared illegal for the first time in 85. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
India by which one of the following High Courts?[2009-II] [2009-II]
(a) Rajasthan High Court (b) Gujarat High Court Nobel Laureate of 2008 Discipline
(c) Kerala High Court (d) Maharashtra High Court (a) Martti Ahtisaari : Peace
76. In which one of the following Indian States is the game of (b) Yoichiro Nambu : Physics
polo said to have originated? [2009-II] (c) Jean-Marie Gustave Le Clezio : Literature
(a) West Bengal (b) Meghalaya (d) Osamu Shimomura : Physiology
(c) Manipur (d) Sikkim 86. Which one of the following pairs is not correct matched?
77. In which one of the following years did the Right to Person Bank [2009-II]
information Act come into force? [2009-II] (a) OP Bhatt : SBI
(a) 2003 (b) 2004 (b) KV Kamath : ICICI
(c) 2005 (d) 2006 (c) Aditya Puri : HDFC
78. Who among the following was the fourth President of (d) Vikram Pandit : IDBI
independent India? [2009-II] 87. Match the following [2009-II]
(a) Zakir Hussain (b) Zail Singh List l List II
(c) VVGiri (d) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy (Year) (UN's International Year)
79. Which one of the following is the first geostationary, A. 2002 1. International Year of Ecotourism
telecommunication satellite of India? [2009-II]
(a) INSAT-IA (b) APPLE B. 2004 2. International Year of Microcredit
(c) ROHINI (d) ARYABHATTA C. 2005 3. International Year of Planet Earth
80. To encourage increase in the quality, quantity and
availability of food in the world the World Food Prize is D. 2008 4. International Year of Struggle
founded by [2009-II] against Slavery and its Abolition
(a) Prof. MS Swaminathan Codes
(b) UNDP A B C D
(c) Professor Norman Borlaug (a) 3 4 2 1
(d) WHO (b) 1 4 2 3
81. Billy Doctrove, a member of the Elite Panel of ICC umpires (c) 3 2 4 1
belongs to which one of the following countries? (d) 1 2 4 3
[2009-II] 88. What does Fuwa, the official Mascot of the 2008 Olympic
(a) South Africa (b) West Indies Games, contain? [2009-II]
(c) Australia (d) New Zealand (a) Four popular animals of China and the Olympic Flame
82. Wh o among the following has been selected for (b) Five popular animals of China and the map of China
Netherlands Golden Ark Awarded for the year 2008? (c) Five popular animals of China
[2009-II] (d) Four popular animals of China and the world map
(a) Medha Patkar (b) Charudutt Mishra 89. Who among the following has created world record in the
(c) Baba Amte (d) Baba Ramdev men's 100 metre sprint event at 2008 Olympic Games?
83. Who among the following has been awarded the 'Officer [2009-II]
of the Legion of Honour,' the highest civilian distinction (a) Usain Bolt (b) Churandy Martina
of the Government of France? [2009-II] (c) Asafa Powell (d) Walter Dix
(a) NR Narayana Murthy 90. In appreciation of his environmental research and campaigns,
space agency NASA has recently named a minor planet after
(b) Ratan Tata
whom among the following? [2009-II]
(c) KM Birla
(a) Sainudeen Pattazhy (b) Anil Agarwal
(d) Mukesh Ambani (c) Sunita Narayan (d) RK Pachauri
Miscellaneous 277
91. Consider the following statements about Comprehensive 100. Which one of the following is a medium range surface to
Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) [2009-II] air missile? [2009-II]
1. The treaty comes into force only if and when all (a) Trishul (b) Nag
nuclear capable countries sign it. (c) Prithvi (d) Akash
2. Iraq and India have not signed the treaty. 101. The 'Red Data Book' containing information on all wild
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? plants and animals in danger of extinction has been
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 published by which one of the following? [2009-II]
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) International Union for Conservation of Nature and
92. Which one of the following countries has recently tested Natural Resources (IUCN)
a two-stage satellite launch rocket named the Safir-e-Omid (b) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
or the Ambassador of Peace? [2009-II] (c) World Conservation Union (WCU)
(a) Israel (b) Iran (d) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(c) Pakistan (d) Turkey 102. What is the correct chronological order of conferring Bharat
93. Which one of the following countries has adopted a new Ratna to the following? [2009-II]
Constitution in the year 2008 aiming to pursue a modern, 1. MS Subbalakshmi
multi-party, democratic system and giving more power to 2. Professor Amartya Sen
the judiciary and legislature? [2009-II] 3. Dr APJ Abdul Kalam
(a) Japan (b) Bhutan 4. Sushri Lata Dinanath Mangeshkar
(c) Maldives (d) Singapore Select the correct answer using the codes given below
94. Which one of the following Committees/ Commissions was (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 3, 1, 2, 4
formed to study and suggest pricing pattern for oil and (c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 4, 3, 1, 2
natural gas sectors in India? [2009-II] 103. Which one of the following feature films is official nominee
(a) BK Chaturvedi Committee for Oscar, 2008 from India? [2009-II]
(b) Sachar Committee (a) Rock on (b) Walu
(c) BN Srikrishna Commission (c) Drona (d) Tare Jameen Par
(d) M Veerapa Moily Commission 104. Consider the following statements about environmental
95. Which one of the following countries has recently carried concerns in history [2009-II]
out military operations in Georgia? [2009-II] 1. In the Indian Ocean region, early French and British
(a) USA (b) Poland scientists pondered over possible linkages of
(c) Russia (d) Kyrgyzstan deforestation, the wholesale denuding of the native
96. Which one of the following books had been named as tree cover and the cycles of water replenishment.
winner of the Best of the Booker Award in 2008? 2. In the USA, there were similar fears by the late 19th
(a) The Enchantress of Florence [2009-II] century.
(b) Disgrace 3. There was hardly and environmental concerns in
(c) Midnight's Children the past about wrider global impacts of the way
(d) The Siege of Krishnapur resources were used.
97. Who among the following is the first man (after Bjorn Borg Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
in 1990) to win the French Open and Wimbledon Singles (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1
Title back to back? [2009-II] (c) Only 3 (d) Only 2
(a) Rafael Nadal (b) Roger Rederer 105. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar awards are given to those who
(c) John McEnroe (d) Daniel Nestor excel in the field of science and technology. The Institute
98. Who among the following had won the Wimbledon associated with Professor Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar is
Women's Singles Title, 2008? [2009-II] (a) CSIR (b) DST [2009-II]
(a) Ana Ivanovic (b) Maria Sharapova (c) ICMR (d) IISc
(c) Serena Williams (d) Venus Williams 106. The following figure shows the proportion of the
99. Match the following [2009-II] population for four years in various age groups in
List I List II percentage [2009-II]
(City) (Stadium) 1971 1981 1991 2001
A. Bengaluru 1. Sawai Mansingh 0 to 14 years 42.03 35.57 37.5 35.44
B. Chennai 2. Sardar Patel
15 to 29 years 23.97 25.90 26.7 26 65
c. Motera 3. Chinnaswami
30 to 64 years 28.03 28.04 29 30.44
D. Jaipur 4. Chidambaram
65 years and 5.97 6.49 6.80 7.47
Codes
A B C D above
(a) 1 2 3 4 Based on the information provided above identify the state
(b) 3 4 2 1 of dependency ratio from 1971 to 2001.
(c) 1 3 2 4 (a) It has increased (b) It has decreased
(d) 3 2 4 1 (c) It has remained constant (d) It has fluctuating tendency
EBD_7341
278 Miscellaneous
107. Roh Moo-hyun, the President (2003-2008) of which one of of wealth, philanthropy and political leadership were all
the following countries has committed suicide in May, regarded as part of nation-building. Written in a style that
2009? [2009-II] is simple and translucent in its sincerity, the book brings
(a) Japan (b) South Korea alive an important era in the life of the nation, its changing
(c) Indonesia (d) North Korea social mores, evolving principles of corporate governance
108. Which one of the following is not and independent and enduring family values.
department under the Government of India? [2009-II] Who among the following is the author of the book?
(a) Department of Atomic Energy (a) KK Birla (b) Dhiru Bhai Ambani
(b) Department of Bio-Technology (c) Jamshedji Tata (d) LN Mittal
(c) Department of space 117. Who among the following holds the world record for the
(d) Planning Commission fastest century in a One Day International cricket match?
109. Consider the following statements about the Treaty of [2009-II]
Lisbon (2007) [2009-II] (a) Sanath Jayasuriya (b) Virendra Sehwag
1. This is an international agreement signed to change (c) Shahid Afridi (d) None of these
the functioning of European Union. 118. Which one of the following statements is/are correct?
2. To enter into legal force, the treaty must be ratified by [2009-II]
at least 3/4th member States of the European Union. 1. The committee on the status of women in India
Which of the statement given above is/are correct? (NSWI) recommended the setting up of a National
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Commission for Women.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The first Chairperson of the National Commission
110. Recently a large number of children/infants have fallen for Women was Mrs Jayanti Patnaik.
sick because of the use of melamine contaminated dairy 3. The main task of the Commission is to study and
products in the world. Due to this many countries like monitor all matters relating to the constitutional
South Africa, Japan and Singapore etc. have stopped and legal safeguards provided for women.
import of these products. Which of the following countries Select the correct answer using the codes given below
was the main exporter of such products? [2009-II] (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) Only 2
(a) China (b) Bangladesh
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
(c) Pakistan (d) Iran
119. What is the common first digit of the number of the Superfast
111. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
and Shatabdi trains regardless of zones presently running
[2009-II]
in India? [2009-II]
(a) Pawan Munjal : Hero Honda Motors
(a) 0 (b) 1
(b) Venu Srinivasan : TVS Motors
(c) Deepak Parekh : Tata Steel (c) 2 (d) 3
(d) KV Kamath : ICICI Bank 120. Consider the following statements about Noble Prize
112. The aircraft carrier Admiral Gorshkov procured by India 1. It is never awarded posthumously. [2009-II]
from Russia is renamed as [2009-II] 2. Nobel Prize in Economics is given since 1901.
(a) INS Virat (b) INS Godavari Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) INS Trishul (d) INS Vikramaditya (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
113. Which one of the following committees was constituted (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
by Ministry of Human Resource Development Government 121. Consider the following statements [2009-II]
of India, as per the direction of the Supreme Court of India 1. Nuclear winter is a term that describes the predicted
to frame guidelines on student union election in colleges/ climatic effects of nuclear war.
universities? [2009-II] 2. A 2008, study published in the proceedings of the
(a) Moily Committee (b) Lyngdoh Committee National Academy of Science, USA found that a
(c) Sachar Committee (d) Ganguly Committee nuclear weapons exchange between Pakistan and India
114. The acronym of which one of the following missile is using their current arsenals could create a near-global
perceived as the confluence of the two nations (India and ozone hole, triggering human health problems and
Russia) represented by two rivers? [2009-II] wreaking environmental havoc for at least a decade.
(a) Astra (b) Akash Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Prithvi (d) BrahMos (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
115. The year 2009 is being celebrated by the UN as [2009-II] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) International Year of Reconciliation 122. Consider the following statements [2009-II]
(b) International Year of Astronomy 1. The Walker Cup is associated with Golf.
(c) Both (a) and (b) 2. The event is contested biennially in odd numbered years.
(d) All of the above 3. The teams contesting the trophy comprising the
116. Consider the following statements about a famous leading amateur golfers of the United Kingdom and
autobiographical narrative [2009-II] Great Britain and Ireland.
The author of the book is/was the head of one of India's Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
leading business houses and a Member of Rajya Sabha. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 Only
In the book he embraced principles in which the creation (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Miscellaneous 279
123. Consider the following statements [2009-II] (a) ERS-2 and ERS-Envisat (b) GOCE and Proba-1
1. An Inconvenient Truth is a documentary film about (c) Herschel and Planck (d) Rosetta and Hubble
global warming directed by Al Gore. 129. Consider the following statement about Aruna Roy.
2. The film focuses on Al Gore and his travels in [2009-II]
support of his efforts to educate the public about 1. She was one of the prominent leaders of the right
the severity of the climate crisis. to information movement, which eventually led to
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? the enactment of Right to Information Act in 2005.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 2. She was the founder of the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Sangathan.
124. Match the following [2009-II] 3. She served as a civil servant in the Indian Administrative
List l List II Service.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Military Academies in India Location (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
A. High Altitude Warfare school 1. Agra (c) Only 1 (d) All of these
B. Counter Insurgency and Jungle 2. Gulmarg 130. The equipment SONAR is used to determine the
Warfare School (a) depth of the seabed [2010-I]
C. Paratrooper's Training School 3. Vairengte (b) intensity of an earthquake
(c) cruising altitude of an aircraft
D. Combat Army Aviation Training 4. Nashik Road (d) speed of a moving object
School 131. Bluetooth technology allows [2010-I]
Codes: (a) wireless communications between equipments
A B C D (b) signal transmission on mobile phones only
(a) 2 3 1 4 (c) landline to mobile phone communication
(b) 2 1 3 4 (d) satellite television communication
(c) 4 1 3 2 132. Consider the following statements about concordat
(d) 4 3 1 2 [2010-I]
125. Which one of the following statements regarding Bharat 1. It is an agreement between the Roman Catholic
Ratna Award is not correct? [2009-II] Church and the state.
(a) The original specifications for the award called for 2. The President of Brazil did not sign a Concordat
a circular Gold Medal, 35 mm in diameter, with the during the Pope Benedict XVI's visit to Brazil in 2007.
sun and the Hindi legend 'Bharat Ratna' above and 3. Concordat of 2009 was signed between the Holy
a floral wreath below. The reverse was to carry the See and Portugal.
state emblem and motto. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) The provision of Bharat Ratna was introduced in 1954 (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) Bharat Ratna is awarded to Indian citzens only (c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3
(d) The first ever Indian to receive this award was the 133. Consider the following statements [2010-I]
famous scientist, Chandrasekhara Ventkata Raman 1. The gross revenue from the telecom sector in India
126. Which one of the following statement with respect to India accounts for 3% of the GDP (2009).
Air Force is not correct? [2009-II] 2. Centre for Development of Telematics is better
(a) Chetak is a single engine turboshaft helicopter of known as C-DOT.
Russian origin 3. The switch from digital technology to the analog
(b) SU-30 is a twin engine fighter of Russian origin system revolutionised telephony in India.
(c) Mirage-2000 is a multi-role fighter of French origin Which of the statements gives above is/are correct?
(d) MiG-29 is a twin engine fighter aircraft of Russian origin (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
127. Consider the following statements in respect of protection (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
of copyright in India [2009-II]
134. Consider the following statements UNESCO's World
1. Copyright is a legal right given to creators of literarcy,
Heritage mission is to [2010-I]
dramatic, musical and artistic works and produces of
1. take over the management, maintenance and
cinematograph films and sound recordings.
preservation of World Heritage sites.
2. Copyright protects only the expression and not the
2. encourage state parties to the Convention concerning
ideas. There is no copyright of an idea.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct? the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Heritage to nominate sites within their national
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 territory for inclusion on the World Heritage List.
128. In May, 2009 European Space Agency (ESA) successfully 3. provide emergency assistance for World Heritage
launched two of its most ambitious astronomy missions to sites in immediate danger.
unveil the secrets of the darkest, coldest and oldest parts of Which of the statements given above are correct?
the universe. Name the two most complex science satellites (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
ever built in Europe used in this mission. [2009-II] (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
EBD_7341
280 Miscellaneous
135. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan has been jointly awarded the Codes

2009 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for his contributions in A B C D
[2010-I] (a) 4 3 2 1
(a) identifying the molecular ruler in ribosomal assembly (b) 1 2 3 4
which ensures error-free synthesis of protein in cells (c) 4 2 3 1
(b) synthesising a group of life-saving antibiotics (d) 1 3 2 1
(c) the work on green fluorescent protein of jellyfish 143. Which one of the following countries' Central Bank has
(d) successfully crystallising the large subunits of ribosome procured 200 metric tons of gold from the IMF in October
in cells 2009? [2010-I]
136. Which one of the following states has seen a series of (a) China (b) Sri Lanka
(c) Singapore (d) India
strong public protests against the Armed Forces Special
144. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Powers Act in force in that state? [2010-I]
1. Carlos Ghosn : Nissan Motor Company [2010-I]
(a) Nagaland (b) Manipur 2. Bill Green : Accenture
(c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Jharkhand 3. Carlos Bartz : Yahoo
137. Which one of the following is not an issue straining Indo- 4. Andy Bond : Vodafone
China relations? [2010-I] Codes
(a) Construction of a dam across the river Brahmaputra (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
in Tibet (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Visit of Dalai Lama to Arunachal Pradesh 145. Consider the following paragraph and identify the person
(c) Stapling of Chinese visa for the people of Jammu referred to in it [2010-I]
and Kashmir A Nobel Laureate in Literature, she is a member of
(d) Linking Kashmir valley with the Indian Railways Network Romania's ethnic German minority who was prosecuted
138. In the assembly polls that took place in three states in for her critical depictions of life 'Behind the Iron Curtain'.
October 2009, the Indian National Congress got absolute She made her debut in 1982 with a collection of short stories
majority in [2010-I] entitled 'Niederungen' which depicted the harsh life in a
(a) all the three States of Maharashtra, Haryana and small, German-speaking village in Romania. This book was
Arunachal Pradesh censored by the Communist Government.
(b) Maharashtra and Arunachal Pradesh (a) Doris Lessing (b) Gunter Grass
(c) Haryana and Maharashtra (c) Herta Mueller (d) Imre Kertesz
(d) Arunachal Pradesh only 146. AVAHAN'-the Indian segment of Bill and Melinda Gates
139. Which one the following states has won the overall Foundation (BMGF) is engaged in the prevention of
championship title in the 63rd National Aquatic (a) dengue (b) polio [2010-I]
Championship held in Kerala in 2009? [2010-I] (c) HIV/AIDS (d) filariasis
147. Consider the following paragraph and idenitify the person
(a) Kerala (b) Karnataka
referred to therein using the code given below
(c) Asom (d) West Bengal She joined the diplomatic corps in 1949 and became the
140. Launched recently by the Central Board of Excise and first woman dipolmat of India. She was the Ambassador to
Customs, 'ACES is a [2010-I] Hungary, Ghana and the Netherlands. [2010-I]
(a) new centralised, web-based software application of (a) CB Muthamma (b) Nirupama Rao
the Board (c) Chokila lyar (d) Meira Kumar
(b) service desk division of the Board for collection of 148. The major thrust of Jawahar Rozgar Yojna (JRY) is on [2010-I]
service taxes (a) removal of poverty among the Scheduled Castes in
(c) new division of the Board for disseminating rural areas
information about the direct tax structure in force (b) creating additional wage employment opportunities
(d) new form of service tax return in rural areas
141. Piramal Life Science is a/an [2010-I] (c) creating employment opportunities in urban areas
(a) Life Insurance Company (d) providing training to rural youth for self-employment
(b) Drug Research Company 149. High Altitude Warfare School of the Indian Army is located
(c) SEZ (Special Economic Zone) at [2010-I]
(d) PSU dealing with healthcare amenities (a) Gulmarg (b) Siachin
142. Match the following [2010-I] (c) Leh (d) Manali
150. Consider the following statements [2010-I]
List l List II 1. The DRDO developed two variants of Prithvi Missile.
(Name of warhead) (Type) 2. Prithvi II is equipped with features of maneuverability
to deceive the enemy defence system.
A. Tejas 1. Air-to-air missile
3. Induction of Prithvi Missile enhances the capability of
B. Arjun 2. Ship-based missile the Indian Army to attack multiple targets simultaneously.
C. Dhanush 3. Main battle tank Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 2
D. Astra 4. Light combat aircraft (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Miscellaneous 281
151. Consider the following statements about the Queen's Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Baton Relay [2010-I] (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
1. The helix shape of the Baton for the 2010 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
Commonwealth Games, created out of aluminium, is 156. Which one of the following statements about WADA
coated with a graded and layered soil pattern in (World Anti-Doping Agency) code is not correct? [2010-I]
black, yellow and red to represent the diversity of (a) The code is the core document that provides the
Commonwealth nations. framework for harmonized anti-doping policies,
2. This relay traditionally begins with a commencement rules and regulations within sport organisations
ceremony at Buckingham Palace, London, during and among public authorities.
which, the Queen entrusts the Baton containing (b) The code entered into force from January 1, 2004.
her message to the athletes to the first honorary (c) Under the code, the use of any prohibited substance
relay runner. by an athlete for medical reasons is not possible.
3. The Rely for the 1998 Games in Kuala Lumpur (d) Under the code, a sanction could be applied in
Malaysia was the first to travel to other nations of cases where there is evidence that an anti-doping
the common wealth. rule violation has occurred, but where there is no
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? positive doping-control test.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 157. Which one of the following statements about Gangubai
(c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3 Hangal, who died in July 2009, is not correct? [2010-I]
152. In the month of October 2009, the Indian Air Force in (a) She was a Hindustani classical singer of Kirana Gharana
Mumbai airport forced a flight on North American Airlines (b) She was awarded Bharat Ratna in 2002
Boeing 767 to land. Which of the following statements in (c) She was a campaigner to increase awareness for
this respect is/are correct? [2010-I] organ donation
1. It was forced to land, because the Indian Air Force was (d) She had the rare honour of being felicitated by nine
reported that there was a bomb planted in the plane. Prime Ministers and five Presidents of India
2. The plane was travelling to Bangkok, Thailand from 158. Prominent Indian social activist Deep Joshi was awarded
Fujiriah, United Arab Emirates. the prestigious Ramon Magsaysay Award for the year 2009
3. The plane was carrying US troops. for his [2010-I]
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) philanthropic work in the form of the Lok Biradari
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 Prakalp amongst the Madia Gonds in Gadchiroli
(c) Only 2 (d) All of these district of Maharashtra and the neighbouring
153. Which one of the following can be provided under RTI States of Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
Act, 2005? [2010-I] (b) extensive work in applying wireless technologies to
(a) Information leading to incitement of an offense develop remote areas of the Himalayas.
(b) Information leading to disclosure that may constitute (c) vision and leadership in bringing professionalism
contempt of court to the NGO movement in India.
(c) Conditional disclosure relating to information on (d) dedicated service for cancer patients and intensive
intellectual property research in the prevention and cure of the disease.
(d) Information relating to Cabinet Papers recording 159. Who among the following were jointly awarded the Rajiv
deliberations of Council of Ministers Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2008? [2010-I]
154. On which one of the following grounds, in August 2009, (a) MC Marykom, Vijender Singh, Sushil Kumar
Scottish authorities released to return home Abdel Basset (b) MC Marykom, Vijender Singh, Saina Nehwal
al-Megrahi, a former Libyan agent, jailed for life for the (c) Vijender Singh, Sushil Kumar, RS Rathore
bombing of Pan Am Flight 103 on December 1988 that (d) MC Marykom, Sushil Kumar, RS Rathore
killed 270 people, most of whom were US nationals? 160. Which one of the following pairs with respect to computer
[2010-I] is not correctly matched? [2010-I]
(a) UN requested the Scottish authorities to release him (a) 1 megabyte : (1024) × (1024) bytes
(b) He was dying of cancer (b) Compiler : A programme which translates a high-
(c) Charges against him could not be established in level language programme into machine language
the Scottish Court of Law (c) Liveware: The users working on the system
(d) US granted pardon to him (d) Plotter: An electronic device used to convert digital
155. Consider the following statements about lawn tennis court electronic signals to communication channel electronic
[2010-I] signals and vice-versa
1. Hard courts are faster than clay courts but not as 161. In the year 2009, Japan launched its first satellite to monitor
fast as grass courts. greenhouse gases. What is the name of the satellite?
2. The French Open is played on a hard court, but the [2010-I]
US Open is played on a clay court. (a) Tadami (b) Yasushi
3. An approximate North/South orientation of the (c) Kuoto (d) Ibuki
court is desirable during evening play.
EBD_7341
282 Miscellaneous
162. Which one of the following is the solitary aircraft carrier of (b) telecommunication technology which provides data
the Indian Navy that turns 50 in 2009, and has the in a variety of ways from point to point links to ful
distinction of being the oldest floating airfield in service? mobile cellular type access.
[2010-I] (c) a cutting edge open specification that enables
(a) INS Viraat (b) INS Trishul short range wireless connection between desktop
(c) INS Godavari (d) INS Vikramaditya and notebook computers, mobile handsets, camera
163. Which one of the following is the central theme of the phones, headsets, even a computer mouse.
Chipko Movement, started by Sunderlal Bahuguna in 1973? (d) internet based service whereby shared resources,
[2010-I] software and information are provided to computers
(a) Conservation of river water and other devices on demand.
(b) Protection of birds 171. In IP Spoofing [2010-II]
(c) Protection of cheetahs (a) secret data are illegally distributed through computer
(d) Conservation of forests networks
164. Consider the following paragraph and identify the person (b) cyber criminals attack another computer by identifying
refferred to therein with the help of the code given below. the electronic identity of a trusted machine in order
After training under Ustad Abdul Rehman Khan of Patiala to mask his own true electronic identity
Gharana, he turned to Ustad Ghulam Mustafa Khan. (c) data confidentiality is achieved using cryptographic
‘Memories Come Alive’ is his autobiography. He was and steganographic algorithms
awarded Dada Saheb Phalke Award. [2010-I] (d) cyber terrorist, cyber fraud or cyber crimes are identified
(a) SD Burman 172. What is a green data centre? [2010-II]
(b) Bhupen Hazarika (a) A data centre created by environmentalists to keep
(c) Manna Dey record of green technology, clean production techniques.
(d) Bhimsen Joshi (b) A repository for the storage, management and
165. Which one of the following is not a football tournament? dissemination of mechanical, lighting, electrical and
[2010-I] computer systems developed to optimise energy
(a) l-League (b) Irani Trophy efficiency and environmental impact
(c) Bardoloi Trophy (d) Durand Cup (c) A data centre for green building for optimising of
166. Which Asian team will be out of the next FIFA Football power consumption using energy efficient technology
World Cup for the first time after a gap of 20 years? (d) A repository providing information about details of
[2010-I] small scale industries adopting energy efficiency
(a) Saudi Arabia (b) South Korea measures
(c) Japan (d) Iran 173. Consider the following statements regarding the ambitious
167. An underwater meeting held recently has drawn attention National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency, one of
world over. The meeting was held by [2010-I] the eight missions under the National Action Plan on
(a) some Somali pirates to make a new strategy for Climate Change. [2010-II]
capturing ships for ransom 1. The mission is expected to save 23 million tonne oil
(b) some environmental scientists for promoting equivalent of fuel and avoid the need to build
awareness for saving water additional capacity over 19000 MW.
(c) some environmental activists for promoting 2. During the next four years the mission will help
awareness against air pollution achieve green house gas emission reduction of
(d) the Cabinet of a country to highlight the threat of 98.55 million tonnes per year.
rising sea level for the country 3. The mission will also kickstart the country's first
168. Which one of the following Indian company has recently market based trading in energy efficiency saving in
acquired African mobile service operation in fifteen line with international carbon trade.
countries from Zain? [2010-II] Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Bharti-Airtel (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(b) Tata Teleservices (c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3
(c) Reliance Communications 174. Consider the following paragraph and identify with the code
(d) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited given below the cartoon character (s) described therein
169. An Inconvenient Truth' is film directed by AI Gore to He has/they have already completed the 75th year of his/
promote public awareness about [2010-II] their appearance. It is/they are the only cartoon character
(a) terrorism (b) global warming (s) to appear as mascot for the sports team of a major
(c) nuclear threats (d) communalism American University, University of Oregon. His/their
170. Cloud computing refers to [2010-II] dominant personality trait is his/their short temper and in
(a) any type of computer network that is wireless and contrast, his/their positive looks on life. [2010-II]
is associated with telecommunication network whose (a) Godzilla (b) Mickey Mouse
interconnections between nodes is implemented (c) Donald Duck (d) Tom and Jerry
without the use of wires.
Miscellaneous 283
175. Consider the following statements [2010-II] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
l. The Bhopal based Union Carbide India Limited was (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
subsidiary of Dow chemical company at the time of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the gas tragedy in 1984. 181. Which amongst the following countries is the largest troop
2. The Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster Act (1985) provided contributor to the United Nations peace keeping mission?
Government of India the rights to represent all (a) India (b) China [2010-II]
victims of the disaster in or outside India. (c) Pakistan (d) Bangladesh
3. The subsidiary, which had operated the Bhopal 182. In which one of the following pair of states has the Indian
plant, was sold to Eveready Industries India Limited, Army launched "Operation Good Samaritan"? [2010-II]
in 1994. (a) Asom and Manipur
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Manipur and Nagaland
(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Assam and Nagaland
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (d) Nagaland and Jammu and Kashmir
176. Who among the following sport starts was conferred 183. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding
honorary Lieutenant Colonel rank by the Territorial Army? the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act? [2010-II]
[2010-II] (a) It gives army officers acting under the Act legal
(a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Kapil Dev immunity for their action
(c) Abhinav Bindra (d) Saina Nehwal (b) The Act confers armed forces special powers in
177. Consider the following statements regarding Sukhoi PAK operations against the Naxals
FA T-50 aircraft. [2010-II] (c) There has been widespread agitation against the Act
1. It is a joint venture of USA and India. (d) Justice (Retd.) BP Jeevan Reddy Committee was
2. It is a fifth generation fighter aircraft. constituted to review the Act
3. It has the ability to super cruise or operate at speeds 184. Statement I India receives the highest share of FDI inflow
beyond the sound. from Mauritius. [2010-II]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Statement II There is Double Taxation Avoidance agreement
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 between India and Mauritius.
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Codes
178. Consider the following passage about a folk dance form of (a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II
India. [2010-II] is the correct explanation of Statement I
This dance is performed solo or in group of 3 or 4 females (b) Both the statements are individually true, but Statement II
essentially on the occasion of worship of Goddess Manasa. is not the correct explanation of statement I
As per mythology, Behulaa had to dance before the (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
Goddess Manasa to get back her husband's (Lakhindar) (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
life. The dancers while dancing leave their hair open. 185. To boost India's power-generating capacity, the Jawaharlal
Another striking moment of this dance is dancing with Nehru Solar Mission was launched in India in January
Daa (sharp weapon used for sacrifice)and rotating of 2010. Which of the following statements regarding this
dancers' head in rapid circular motion, with open tresses. Mission is/are correct? [2011-I]
Which one of the following dance form is described above? 1. India is fast exhausting reserves of fossil fuel resources.
(a) Padayani dance (b) Deodhani dance 2. Solar energy is a clean source of energy.
(c) Bagurumba dance (d) Gaur dance 3. India lacks technology for development of other
179. Which one of the following statements regarding FIFA alternative sources of power generation.
World Cup, 2010 is not correct? [2010-II] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) South Africa became the first host nation to fail to (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
qualify for the tournament's second round (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1
(b) The tournament was the culmination of a 186. Which one among the following is not true regarding the
qualification process that began in August 2007 draft National Food Security Bill? [2011-I]
(c) This is the first time that the tournament was (a) Every BPL family in the country shall be entitled to
hosted by an African nation 25 kg of wheat or rice per month at `3 per kg
(d) Zakumi the official mascot for the FIFA World Cup. (b) The distribution will be on universal entitlement by
2010 is an African bush elephant ensuring coverage of every adult under the public
180. Which of the following statements regarding the United distribution scheme
Nations Millennium Development Goals Report, 2010, is/ (c) The Central Government shall allocate required
are correct? [2010-II] quantity of wheat and/or rice from the central pool
1. The aggregate food availability globally was to State Governments, which will be distributed
relatively good in the years 2008 and 2009. through fair shops
2. There has been good progress in the last two decades (d) The draft Bill has been cleared by the empowered
in South Asia in reducing hunger levels and India is all group of Ministers for discussion in the Cabinet
set to achieve the millennium development goal.
EBD_7341
284 Miscellaneous
187. SIMBEX is an annual joint maritime bilateral exercise (b) providing wage employment in rural areas a legal
conducted between [2011-I] binding for the State Governments
(a) China and India (c) providing a statutory guarantee of wage employment.
(b) Singapore and Indonesia (d) augmenting food security through wage employment
(c) India and Singapore in rural areas
(d) Malaysia and Thailand 196. Statement I : In Vietnam War, Americans used powerful
188. According to Goldman Sachs' review of emerging defoliants such as Agent Orange over large areas of dense
economies, by 2050 which one of the following would be forest and agricultural fields. [2011-I]
the order of the largest economies in the world? [2011-I] Statement II : Defoliants are very dangerous war weapons
(a) China-USA- India-Brazil-Mexico which leave the forests and agricultural fields barren.
(b) USA-China-lndia-Brazil-Mexico Codes
(c) China-USA-Brazil-lndia-Mexico (a) Both the statements are individually true and
(d) USA-Mexico-China-India-Brazil Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
189. There is a distinct change in public policies promoting (b) Both the statements are individually true, but Statement II
human development in India in the postgloblised era. This is not the correct explanation of Statement I
change has been termed as [2011-I] (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(a) individual-centric approach to development (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
(b) state-centric approach to development 197. Along with goods manufactured using child labour, some
(c) right-based approach to development of the developed countries have started to boycott goods
(d) performance-based approach to development manufactured in developing countries using 'sweat labour'.
190. Which one of the following is nuclear-capable submarine- 'Sweat labour' implies goods produced by [2011-I]
launched ballistic missile? [2011-I] (a) female labourers at a very low wage
(a) Sagarika (b) Shourya (b) labourers working in inhuman/unhealthy working
(c) Prithvi (d) Nag conditions
191. Which one of the following is an indigenously built light (c) labourers working for more than eight hours a day
combat aircraft of India? [2011-I] without any break
(a) Akash (b) Vikrant (d) labourers where there is a wage discrimination between
(c) Tejas (d) Arjun male and female labourers
192. Which one of the following is the name of the Airborne 198. Sukhoi-30 MKI Squadron is not stationed at
Early Warning And Control System (AEWACS) inducted (a) Tezpur (b) Pune [2011-I]
in the Indian Air Force in 2009? [2011-I] (c) Jamnagar (d) Bareilly
(a) Phoenix (b) Eagle 199. Eco-Mark is given to an Indian product which is
(c) Kite (d) Phalcon [2011-I]
193. In August 2010, Russian President hosted a summit of (a) rich in protein (b) environment friendly
four nations to discuss about the menace of terrorism and (c) economically viable (d) pure and unadulterated
narcotics at the Black Sea Resort Sochi. The countries 200. Why is Switzerland unable to join European Union (EU)
which attended were [2011-I] till date (2010) despite its government's persistent effort to
(a) Brazil, Russia, India and China do so? [2011-I]
(b) Russia, Afghanistan, India and Pakistan (a) Few EU countries like France and Germany are
(c) Russia, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan and Afghanistan opposed to Switzerland's joining the Union
(d) Russia, Afghanistan. Pakistan and Tajikistan (b) The Swiss people continue to vote against joining the
194. In August 2010, a container ship had collided with another EU as they do not want to lose Switzerland's sovereignty
ship in the Arabian Sea near Mumbai. Which one of the (c) EU rejected Switzerland's application as Swiss
following was the consequence of that? [2011-I] Government did not agree to use Euro as currency
(a) The container ship was not damaged (d) All of the above
(b) The container ship sank and the entire oil of the 201. Evergreening of patents is done by [2011-I]
ship spilled in the sea causing great damage to the (a) citing another use of the same product
aquatic lives (b) citing another process of forming the same product
(c) The container ship was tilted, some boxes fell into (c) applying for extension of patent term
the sea, some moderate scale oil spill took place (d) citing another product with same use
and subsequently the ship was made upright 202. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
(d) The container ship was just tilted and subsequently 1. Kiran MKll : Aerobatic aircraft [2011-I]
made upright 2. MI 35 : Attack helicopter
195. Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act makes 3. Mirage 2000 : Military transport aircraft
a paradigm shift from the previous wage employment (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
programmes by [2011-I] (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(a) focusing on all-round development of the rural people.
Miscellaneous 285
203. A devastating Cloud Burst swept over Leh on August 2. National Crime Record Bureau is the nodal agency
2010. Which one of the following statements with regard mandated to implement the network in all the states.
to Cloud Burst is not correct? [2011-I] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Cloud Burst is a localised weather phenomenon [2011-II]
representing highly concentrated rainfall over a (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
small area in a short duration of time (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 or 2
(b) Cloud Burst occurs due to upward movements of 209. Which of the following statements regarding the United
moisture laden air with sufficient rapidity to form Nations Peacekeeping Force is/are correct? [2011-II]
cumulonimbus clouds 1. The first peacekeeping force was sent to Egypt.
(c) Cloud Burst occurs only in hilly areas 2. Peacekeeping force is accountable to the Security
(d) There is no satisfactory technique till now for Council.
predicting Cloud Burst 3. First women peacekeeping force was sent by India
204. Which of the statements given below is/are correct? to Liberia.
[2011-I] Select the correct answer using the codes given below
1. The Armed Forces Special Power Act (AFSPA) was (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
first enforced in the hills of Assam. (c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3
210. Which among the following is/are example/examples of
2. The AFSPA is enforced in regions notified as
youth unrest in India? [2011-II]
'disturbed area'.
1. Naxalite movement
3. Under the provisions of the Act, the Chief Minister
2. Anti-foreigners movement in Assam
of a state can declare the whole state or part of it
3. Anti-Mandal Commission agitation
as 'disturbed area'. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
(c) Only 1 (d) 1 and 2 211. The term used to describe the process by which an
205. Which one among the following was the objective of outsider, immigrant or subordinate group becomes
starting the Nirmal Gram Puraskar incentive scheme? indistinguishably integrated into the dominant host society,
[2011-I] is known as [2011-II]
(a) Encourage Panchayati Raj Institutions to take up (a) Accommodation (b) Cultural imperialism
sanitation promotion 100% defecation-free environment (c) Acculturation (d) Adaptation
(b) Enable rural schools to provide safe and clean 212. Which one of the following is not a formal agency of social
drinking water for children control? [2011-II]
(c) Provide toilets to all rural households (a) Courts (b) Police
(d) Provide financial assistance to States to install (c) Family (d) Teachers
water purification systems in rural schools 213. What is the target of the Millennium Development Goal of
206. Which one among the following statements regarding the United Nations with respect to Universal Primary
Rabindranath Tagore's concern for the natural world and Education? [2011-II]
environment is not correct? [2011-I] (a) All children both boys and girls would complete a
(a) Caring for nature on aesthetic grounds, as Tagore full course primary schooling by 2015
did, has now become one of the major environmental (b) All children both boys and girls are to be literate
concerns in the developed countries of the world by 2050
(b) Tagore's short stories and novels exhibit his concern (c) All boys should go to school to complete a full
for nature course of primary schooling by 2025
(c) Tagore's vision of education emphasised the need to (d) All girls should be enrolled in primary school by 2015
generate environmental awareness among the students 214. Which one among the following is not included in the
(d) Tagore's concern about the environment was basic functions of operating system? [2011-II]
activated by pragmatic and utilitarian considerations (a) Job control (b) Job scheduling
207. Consider the following statements [2011-I] (c) Memory management (d) Data management
1. India has a published nuclear doctrine. 215. Consider the following statements about Euthanasia
2. The doctrine advocates 'no-first-use' policy. 1. It refers to the practice of ending the life in a manner
3. The authority to release nuclear weapons for use which relieves pain and suffering. [2011-II]
resides in the person of the President of India. 2. In the case involving Aruna Shanbaug, the Supreme
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Court of India has suggested that passive Euthanasia
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 be legalised through the Supreme Court monitored
mechanism only.
(c) Both 2 and 3 (d) All of these
3. Active voluntary Euthanasia is legal in Belgium,
208. Which of the following statements about the Crime and
Luxembourg and the Netherlands.
Criminal Tracking Network System (CCTNS) is/are correct?
1. It will facilitate real time access of classified criminal
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
data to the law enforcement authorities. (c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 2
EBD_7341
286 Miscellaneous
216. In the case of the nuclear disaster which of the following 223. Which of the following changes have been brought in
options for cooling the nuclear reactors may be adopted? Egypt after the recent popular uprising that overthrew
1. Pumping of water to the reactors. [2011-II] President Hosni Mubarak? [2011-II]
2. Use of boric acid. 1. Adopting a new Constitution.
3. Taking out the fuel rods and keeping them in a cooling 2. Reducing presidential terms from 6 years to 4 years.
pond. 3. Limiting the President to two terms.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 4. Presidential candidate must be over 40 years.
(a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
217. The 'Shillong Declaration,' in news recently, was on (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
(a) Food Security Act [2011-II] 224. Which of the following changes were brought in Nepal
(b) Right to Education Act after the end of monarchy? [2011-II]
(c) Prevention of Corruption Act 1. The Singha Durbar (Lion Palace) has become
(d) Right to Information Act official seat of Government of Nepal.
218. Consider the following statements about National 2. Narayanhity Royal Palace has been turned into a
Knowledge Commission [2011-II] public museum.
1. It is an advisory body to the Prime Minister constituted 3. King's portrait on Nepalese banknotes, was replaced
as per the provisions of the Constitution of India. by the image of Pashupatinath Temple.
2. Mr Sam Pitroda is the Chairman of the Commission. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 225. On 15th March, 2011, foreign ministers of G-8 nations failed
219. Who among the following was choosen for the Dada to reach an agreement on military action against Libya
Saheb Phalke Award for the year 2010? [2011-II] because. [2011-II]
(a) K Balachander (b) D Ramanaidu 1. Germany and Russia blocked flight restrictions
(c) VK Murthy (d) Adoor Gopalakrishnan sought by Britain and France.
220. Which one of the following teams won the maximum 2. French attempt for a no-fly zone could not reach
number of Gold Medals in the 34th National Games 2011, consensus.
held in Jharkhand? [2011-II] 3. United Nations has been non-supportive for any
(a) Manipur (b) Services kind of action against Libya.
(c) Haryana (d) Maharashtra Select the correct answer using the codes given below
221. In the era of globalisation, international migration is one (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
of the biggest challenges of 21st century. To deal with (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only l
this, which of the following steps have been taken by the 226. Consider the following statements [2011-II]
Government of India? [2011-II] 1. National Cadet Corps (NCC) is a pre independence
1. Establishment of 24/7 helpline to provide information organisation.
to jobseekers. 2. The motto of NCC is Unity and Discipline.
2. Undertaking steps to ratify the UN Convention on Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Transnational Organised Crime and its protocols. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
3. Implementing e-Governance in emigration management (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
to detect instances of misrepresentation, forgery etc. 227. Consider the following information and identify from the
through real time validation of informationon public- code given below the legendary Hollywood actress who
private partnership basis. is also remembered as a champion for a number of
Select the correct answer using the codes given below charitable causes, notably the fight against AIDS.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 She appeared is more than 50 films and won three Oscars
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 including one for her performance in 'Butterfield 8' and
222. Which of the following statements regarding Global-INK another for 'Who's Afraid of Virginia Woolf?' The London-
(Indian Network of Knowledge) is not correct? [2011-II] born actress was a star at age 12, a bride and a divorcee at
(a) It is an ICT (Information and Communication 18, a screen goddess at 19 and a widow at 26. [2011-II]
Technology) enabled platform for next generation (a) Ingrid Bergman (b) Elizabeth Taylor
knowledge management (c) Katharine Hepburn (d) Nicole Kidman
(b) The network will serve as a strategic 'virtual think tank' 228. In the year 2011, NASA launched a mission to study the
(c) The outcome target will be the germination of ideas on moon from crust to core through its [2012-I]
development and articulating and mapping out solutions (a) Gravity Recovery and Interior Labocatory
through innovation and technological interventions (b) Fast Auroral Snapshot Explorer Spacecraft
(d) The network is being developed by Reliance (c) Ultraviolet Spectroscopic Explorer Spaceraft
communication (d) Transition Region and Coronal Explorer Spacecraft
Miscellaneous 287
229. The Indian Research Station 'Himadri' is located at 240. In which one among the following Latin American
(a) Siachen (b) Darjeeling [2012-I] countries, a woman has the first time won for, the
(c) Arctic Region (d) Antarctica presidential elections for the second term? [2012-I]
230. Sabin Award is given for the conservation of [2012-I] (a) Brazil (b) Venezuela
(a) amphibians (b) reptiles (c) Uruguay (d) Argentina
(c) birds (d) corals 241. Which one among the following statements is correct with
231. In the year 2011, a missile named 'PRHAR', developed by regard to the C-5M Super Galaxy? [2012-I]
DRDO was test fired. This is a [2012-I] (a) It is a large military helicopter
(a) short-range surface to air missile (b) It is a large military transport aircraft
(b) long-range surface to air missile (c) It is a galaxy of stars very close to the Sun
(c) short-range surface to surface missile (d) it is a US fighter aircraft to be completed in 2014
(d) long-range surface to surface missile 242. Match the following [2012-I]
232. The year 2011 was the centenary year for which one among List I List II
the following policy-making bodies of the Government of
(Short-listed books for (Author)
India in scientific research and development? [2012-I]
(a) ISRO (b) ICAR DSC Prize for South
(c) ICMR (d) CSIR A.Asian Literature 2012) 1. Kavery Nambisan
Bharathipura
233. In the year 2011, a scientist from USA discovered 'BISIN' B. A Street in Srinagar 2. Shehan Karunatilaka
which [2012-I]
(a) is a natural preservative and can extend food's life C. Chinaman 3. Chandrakanta
for several years D. The Story that must 4. UR Ananthamurthy
(b) can insulate cells of brain not be told
(c) claims for fastest prevention of bacterial infection Codes
(d) is a distant galaxy A B C D
234. Which one among the following statements is correct? (a) 4 2 3 1
The Current Prime Minister of Nepal Dr Baburam Bhattarai (b) 1 2 3 4
is heading a [2012-I] (c) 4 3 2 1
(a) Consensus Government of all major political parties (d) 1 3 2 4
of Nepal 243. Which one among the following companies received
(b) Nepali Congress Maoist UML coalition Government Golden Peacock Environment Management Award for the
(c) Nepali Congress Maoist coalition Government year 2011? [2012-I]
(d) Maoist Madhesi coalition Government (a) BCCL (b) NTPC
235. China recently objected the participation of an Indian (c) SAIL (d) TISCO
company in its joint venture with another country for 244. Consider the following statements [2012-I]
offshore oil exploration. Which one among the following 1. The Kalinga Prize is an award given by UNESCO
is that country? [2012-I] for exceptional skill in presenting scientific ideas to
(a) Myanmar (b) South Korea lay people.
(c) Taiwan (d) Vietnam 2. Dorairajan Balasubramaniam was the last person from
236. Which one among the following statements about NATO India to receive the Kalinga Prize.
is not correct? [2012-I] Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) NATO is a collective defence organisation in Europe (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) The US is an ex officio member of NATO (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Turkey is a member of NATO 245. Which of the following statements is correct with regard
(d) NATO has 28 independent member states to Yudh Abhyas? [2012-I]
237. World's first gold and jewellery encrusted car- Gold Plus, (a) It is an Indian military 'war game' with regard to Pakistan
was unveiled in the year 2011 as a tribute to 5000 years of (b) It is an Indian military exercise with Oman
Indian jewellery making. Who among the following was (c) It is an Indian military exercise with Bhutan
the maker of the car? [2012-I] (d) It is an Indian military exercise with US
(a) Tata Motors (b) Maruti Suzuki 246. Assume that India and Pakistan are engaged in an
(c) Hundai (d) Volkswagen increasingly volatile situation over the LoC in Jammu and
238. An African country, Sudan has been broken into two recently Kashmir with a Kargil type infiltration by Pakistan. A
with formation of a new country named South Sudan. conventional war between both the countries is inevitable
Economy of South Sudan will depend on its [2012-I] under the shadow of nuclear weapons. In this situation,
(a) agricultural product (b) minerals what is the nuclear capacity that India should possess
(c) forest product (d) fishery product against Pakistan to deter a nuclear exchange? [2012-I]
239. The Operation Polo was associated with the annexation of (a) A first use nuclear policy
which one among the following Princely States into Indian (b) A much larger nuclear arsenal than Pakistan
Union? [2012-I] (c) A credible nuclear deterrence with second strike capability
(a) Kashmir (b) Junagadh (d) An intercontinental ballistic missile with a range of
(c) Travancore (d) Hyderabad 5000 km
EBD_7341
288 Miscellaneous
247. In February 2011, which among the following countries 1. He was awarded the Ondaatje Prize for this book,
has elected Mr Thein Sein, a military general turned civilian The Sly Company of People Who Care.
leader as its first President? [2012-I] 2. He is a cricket journalist.
(a) Malaysia (b) Costa Rica Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(c) Thailand (d) Myanmar (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
248. Which among the following countries has recently decided (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
to give grant of U$ 1 billon for reconstruction of Nalanda 255. Which one among the following statements about
University? [2012-I] Mohammad Nasheed of Maldives is not correct?
(a) USA (b) China [2012-II]
(c) UK (d) Japan (a) He was the first President of Maldives to be elected
249. Who won the Wimbledon 2011 men's singles title? through Multiparty elections
[2012-I] (b) He become the President of Maldives in the year 2008
(a) Novak Djokovic (b) Roger Federer (c) He was a strong advocate of the policies of
(c) Rafael Nadal (d) Andy Roddick longtime President Maumoon Abdul Gayoom
250. The year 2011 has been celebrated by UNESCO and IUPAC (d) He has been advocating and promoting democracy
as, International Year of Chemistry to mark the 100 years and Human Rights in Maldives
of Nobel Prize winning by Madam Curie in Chemistry. In 256. Which one among the following popular cartoon
this context, which of the following statements is/are characters has recently completed 50 years of creation?
correct? [2012-I] [2012-II]
1. The unified theme of the celebration is Chemistry- (a) Chota Bheem
our life, our future. (b) Mowgli
2. The celebrations are made to mark the contributions (c) 'Ultterly Butterly" Amul Girl
of women to the development of science. (d) The Common Man
Select the correct answer using the codes given below 257. Farkhor Air Base, operated by the Indian Air Force, is
(a) Only I (b) Only 2 situated in which one among the following countries?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 [2012-II]
251. Which one among the following is the fastest Indian (a) Kazakhstan (b) Uzbekistan
Supercomputer recently developed by ISRO? [2012-I] (c) Afghanistan (d) Tajikistan
(a) Aakash A-l (b) Saga 220 258. INS Vikramaditya, scheduled for induction into the Indian
(c) Jaguar-Cray (d) Tianhe-IA Navy soon, is the name given to [2012-II]
252. Which one among the following statements is correct? (a) an aircraft carrier
[2012-I] (b) a nuclear submarine
(a) Due to border problems, India's trade with China (c) an amphibious assault vessel
did not register a quantum jump between the years (d) a stealth ship
2001 -2010 259. The Treaty on Integrated Development of Mahakali River
(b) The stand off between India and China on Pakistan was signed between India and [2012-II]
and Arunachal Pradesh did not let India s trade to (a) Pakistan (b) Nepal
grow with China in the years 2001-2010 as much as (c) Bhutan (d) Bangladesh
it grew in the years 1991-2001 260. The Partnership Council was launched the Strategic
(c) While India-China trade has registered a quantum Partnership Agreement signed in the year 2011 between
jump between the years 2001-2010, both the India and [2012-II]
countries have ensured parity of trade (a) United States (b) China
(d) Inspite of border problems, India's trade with (c) Maldives (d) Afghanistan
China registered a quantum jump during the years 261. The Indian Army undertook Operation Meghdoot to
2001 - 2010 establish Indian control over [2012-II]
253. Which one among the following statements about (a) Sir Creek (b) Alksai Chin
globalisation is not correct? [2012-I] (c) Siachen Glacier (d) Drass Sector
(a) Advocates of globalisation argue that it will result 262. In the year 2012, India undertook its largest military exercise
in greater economic growth since independence. This was named [2012-II]
(b) Critics of globalisation argue that it will result in (a) Yuddh Abhyas (b) Rudra Akrosh
greater economic disparity (c) Sudarshan Shakti (d) Shoor Veer
(c) Advocates of globalisation argue that it will result 263. Consider the following statements [2012-II]
in cultural homogenization 1. Mahesh Bhupathi and Sania Mirza won the French
(d) Critics of globalisation argue that it will result in Open Mixed Doubles Title in the year 2012.
cultural homogenization 2. This is their first Grand Slam title together.
254. Consider the following statements about Rahul Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Bhattacharya, who won the prestigious Royal Society of (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Literature Ondaatje Prize, 2012 [2012-II] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Miscellaneous 289
264. The year 2002 Code of Conduct related to territorial and 272. Nobel Prize in Chemistry for the year 2012 was given for
maritime dispute in the South China sea was signed the work on [2013-I]
between China and [2012-II] (a) G-protein coupled receptors
(a) Philippines (b) Vietnam (b) human stem cell cloning
(c) United States ofAmerica (d) ASEAN (c) antimalarial vaccine
265. Which one among the following nuclear capable countries (d) neurotransmitters
has a declared No First Use Policy? [2012-II] 273. Some atheists, skeptics and non-believers called to
(a) United States of America celebrate '25th December' as Newtonmas Day instead of
(b) People's Republic of China observing 'Christmas Day'. The reason they propose that
(c) Pakistan [2013-I]
(d) Russia (a) both Isaac Newton and Jesus Christ were great
266. Consider the following statements about Viswanathan (b) Isaac Newton was born on 25th December
(c) 'Skeptic Society' was founded on 25th December
Anand [2012-II]
(d) Isaac Newton was a deep believer of Christianity
1. He has won the World Chess Championship five times.
274. Who among the following is/are the Indian writer(s) short-
2. He is the first sports person to receive the Padma listed for the DSC Prize for South Asian literature for the
Vibhushan Award. year 2013? [2013-I]
3. He is currently the Number 1 rating player on the FIDE 1. Amitabh Ghosh 2. JeetThayil
Ratings. 3. Uday Prakash
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 (d) All of these (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1
267. Which one among the following Indian events will be 275. Who among the following was declared as the immediate
upgraded an international event from February, 2013? future President of China in the 18th National Congress of
(a) Toshali Craft Mela [2012-II] the Communist Party of China held in November, 2012?
(b) Surajkund Craft Mela (a) Zhang Dejiang (b) Xi Jinping [2013-I]
(c) Sindhu Darshan Festival (c) Liu Yunshan (d) Li Keqiang
(d) Pushkar Fair 276. Cosider the following statements [2013-I]
268. Anna Hazare was awarded with the Padma Bhushan in During the last week of November 2012, Palestinian
recognition for [2012-II] engineers dug up the tomb of Yasser Arafat. This was
(a) his war against corruption and launching Bhrashtachar done promarily to
Virodhi Jan Andolan 1. Place the remains ofYasser Arafat in a mosque compound.
(b) his service to the Indian Army 2. Confirm the prevailing suspicion that Israel had
(c) transforming a barren dry village called Ralegan Siddhi poisoned him.
in Maharashtra's Ahmednagar district into a model Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
village of self-sufficiency, eco-friendly and harmony (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(d) his remarkable social service in the Adivasi areas of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Bihar 277. Who among the following is the author of the book, ‘Sachin:
269. Which one among the following statements about Barack Born to Bat-The Journey of Cricket’s Ultimate Centurian’?
Obama is not correct? [2013-I] [2013-I]
(a) Khalid AH Ansari (b) Boria Majumdar
(a) In the year 2012, he was elected as the President of
(c) Kiran Nagarkar (d) Ed Hawkins
USA for the second time, defeating the republican
278. Consider the following statements regarding e-courts,
candidate Mitt Romney
launched recently in India [2013-I]
(b) He is the first African-American President of USA 1. Theywill facilitate hearing of cases via video conferencing.
(c) He is the first Democratic President since Franklin 2. They will follow the some procedures that are laid
D Roosevelt to twice win the majority of the out for hearing appeals in as open court.
popular vote in USA presidential election Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(d) He is the only American President who won the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Nobel Peace Prize (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
270. European Union's annual Sakharov Prize for freedom of 279. The Rohingya are the minorities of [2013-I]
thought for 2012 has been won by [2013-I] (a) South Africa (b) Canada
(a) Guillermo Farinas from Cuba (c) Myanmar (d) Bhutan
(b) Nasrin Sotoudeh and Jafar Panahi from Iran 280. During the last part of November 2012, there was a severe
(c) Ali Farzat from Syria and Mohammed Bouazizi from Tunisia fire accident which took away the lives of more than
(d) Asmaa Mahfouz and Ahmed-al-Senussi from Egypt hundred people in Bangladesh. The accident occurred
and Libya respectively inside a [2013-I]
271. Rafael Nadal won the French Open Tennis Title, 2012. He (a) textile factory
defeated [2013-I] (b) jute factory
(a) Andy Murray (b) Roger Federer (c) polythene manufacturing factory
(c) Novak Djokovic (d) David Ferrer (d) cement factory
EBD_7341
290 Miscellaneous
281. Which one among the following countries initiated the 289. Consider the following statements about Malala Yousafzai
process of Fourth Wave of Democratic Transition? [2013-I]
[2013-I] 1. In November, 2012, she was awarded with the Bravery
(a) Libya (b) Afghanistan Award by the World Peace and Prosperity Foundation.
(c) Tunisia (d) Morocco 2. The United Nations declared 10th November as
282. The President of India on 20th November, 2012 released a 'Malala Day' in honour of her contribution in the
commemorative postage stamp on the occasion of field of girls' education.
Ramgopal Maheshwari's birth centenary year celebration. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Which of the following statements regarding Ramgopal (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Maheshwari is/are correct? [2013-I] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. He is regarded as a doyen of journalism in India. 290. Which one among the following was added in the year
2. He was a trusted aid of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose 2012 in the list of world heritage sites of the UNESCO?
and helped him in mobilising the forces of Indian [2013-I]
National Army in Kohima. (a) Western Ghats (b) Agra Fort
Select the correct answer using the codes given below (c) Ajanta Caves (d) Meenakshi Temple
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 291. Which one among the following regarding G-20 is not
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct? [2013-I]
283. Mention the odd man out. [2013-I] (a) A group of developed countries
(a) Didier Drogba (b) Oliver Kahn (b) An integral part of the United Nations
(c) Lionel Messi (d) Cristiano Ronaldo (c) Outside the World Bank and IMF
284. The Government of India has recently made it mandatory (d) An offshoot of G-7
for oil marketing companies to blend 5% ethanol with petrol. 292. Which one among the following has been included as
Which of the following is/are the likely consequence/ a parameter for the first time under the National Ambient
consequences of the policy? [2013-I] Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) based on Central
1. Lower India's dependence on fossil oil. Pollution Control Board and IIT-Kanpur research, WHO
2. Reduce fuel import bill. guidelines and European Union limits and practices?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below [2013-I]
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Oxides of nitrogen
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Ozone (d) Carbon monoxide
285. Fourth BRICS Summit, held in New Delhi in March, 2012, 293. Outstanding historian Eric Hobsbawm who expired on 1 st
deliberated on the challenges faced by India for sustainable October, 2012, has authored a large number of books. The
growth. Which one among the following is not a part of title of his famous autobiography is [2013-I]
the formulated challenges? [2013-I] (a) Bandits
(a) Improvements required in public sector management (b) Uncommon People : Resistance, Rebellion and Jazz
(b) Inclusive growth (c) The New Century : In Conversation with Antonio Polito
(c) Improvements required in physical infrastructure (d) Interesting Times : A 20th Century Life
(d) Development in the agricultural sector 294. Consider the following statement
286. Which one among the following statements about Grigori Rich countries have largely cheated the developing countries
Perelman is not correct? [2013-I] of the 30 billion dollars of funds. They had committed to transfer
(a) He is a genius from Russia to the poor ones between 2010 and 2012.
(b) He rejected the offer of professorship in Princeton Which one among the following relating to the above
and Stanford University statement is not correct? [2013-I]
(c) He works in the area of cosmology (a) The above statement is a report out of Oxfamresearch
(d) He has refused to accept the 'Fields Medal' and the (b) The developed nations only provided one-third of
'Millennium Prize' recently the total funding
287. Why was Kaushik Basu, the ex-economic advisor to the (c) Green Peace International stated that it is a false
Prime Minister of India, in news recently? start' than a 'fast start'
He was appointed as [2013-I] (d) Oxfam's research report says that levels of public
(a) the President of the IMF climate finance are set to fall in the year 2013
(b) the President of the World Bank compared to past 3 year
(c) the Economic Advisor of the United Nations 295. 'Global Dimming' means [2013-I]
(d) the Chief Economist of the World Bank (a) gradual increase of the temperature of ionosphere
288. Who among the following was selected for the prestigious (b) gradual loss of biodiversity hot spots
Indira Gandhi Prize for peace, disarmament and (c) gradual reduction in the amount of global direct
development, 2012? [2013-I] irradiance at the Earth surface
(a) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf (b) Ela Bhatt (d) gradual increase in the melting of ice in polar regions
(c) Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva (d) Sheikh Hasina
Miscellaneous 291
296. Which of the following statements about India-China 306. Which one among the following Indian scientists has
relations is/are correct? [2013-II] been awarded the '2012 award for International Science
1. 'Look East' policy is a vital part of the relationship. Cooperation by Chinese Academy of Sciences?[2013-II]
2. There is an active defence exchange programme. (a) KS Srinivasan (b) Sreekumar Banerjee
3. Institutional mechanism to share international waters (c) DD Bhawalkar (d) CNR Rao
is in place. 307. With which one among the following countries, did India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below sign a Memorandum of Understanding on Cooperation in
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 the field of Election Management and Administration (on
(c) Only 1 (d) 2 and 3 April 12, 2013 in New Delhi)? [2013-II]
297. Which one among the following was the main demand of (a) Japan (b) Mauritius
the '2013 Shahbag Protests'? [2013-II]
(c) Thailand (d) Sri Lanka
(a) Employment for all above eighteen years
308. Which one among the following was a major decision taken
(b) Equal rights for men and women
(c) Capital punishment for those convicted of crimes against at the fifth BRICS summit held recently? [2013-II]
humanity during 1971, Bangladesh Liberation War (a) Establishment of a new development bank
(d) Introduction of Urdu and Arabic languages as (b) Reformation of the United Nations
compulsory subjects in primary education (c) Common military exercise
298. Consider the following statements [2013-II] (d) Cultural exchange among the BRICS countries
1. ISRO has recently given clearance for using the 309. The Saudi Arabia government has recently decided to
frequency from KU band for using the satellite for strictly implement a law called Nitaqat law. As a result
internet in trains in India. [2013-II]
2. KU frequency range is allocated to be exclusively (a) 10% jobs in Saudi should be reserved for Saudi nationals
used by satellite communication system. (b) 50% jobs in Saudi should be reserved for Saudi nationals
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) A foreigner will be allowed to work in Saudi Arabia
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 for a maximum period of 10 years
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 'Foreigner's' job contracts in Saudi Arabia will be on
299. The ‘Thomas Cup is associated with [2013-II] year to year basis
(a) Table Tennis (b) Lawn Tennis 310. In April, 2013, an agreement was signed, between India
(c) Badminton (d) Billiards and a country which extends the use of training and
300. Which legendary actor has been awarded the Dada Saheb exercise facilities in India to the army of that country for a
Phalke Award, 2012? [2013-II] further period of five years from August, 2013. Sort out the
(a) Shashi Kapoor (b) Pran Krishan Sikand country from among the following [2013-II]
(c) Anupam kher (d) Soumitra Chatterjee (a) Malaysia (b) Singapore
301. Which one among the following countries has won the (c) Myanmar (d) Bangladesh
ICC Women's World Cup, 2013 held in India? [2013-II]
311. Who among the following was not associated with the art
(a) India (b) West Indies
(c) Australia (d) Sri Lanka of painting? [2013-II]
302. Which Indian musician has recently been awarded with (a) Abanindranath Tagore (b) Abdur Rahman Chaghatai
lifetime achievement Grammy Award? [2013-II] (c) Nandlal Bose (d) Satish Chandra Mukherjee
(a) AR Rahman (b) Pt Ravi Shankar 312. The Pulitzer Prize for fiction in the year 2013 has been
(c) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan (d) Lata Mangeshkar announced for the book [2013-II]
303. British Scientist Robert Edwards, winner of Nobel Prize for (a) 'The Orphan Master's Son' authored by Adam Johnson
Physiology and Medicine, passed away on April 10, 2013. (b) 'What We Talk About When We Talk About Anne
What was so important about him? [2013-II] Frank' authored by Nathan Englander
(a) He was the pioneer in the field of cloning (c) 'The Snow Child' authored by Eowyn Ivey
(b) He led the human genome project (d) None of the above
(c) His pioneering works led to the birth of the first test 313. VS Ramadevi, who died in Bengaluru on April 17, 2013,
tube baby was the Governor of Karnataka and Himachal Pradesh.
(d) He discovered the artificial heart What was more specific abou her? She was the [2013-II]
304. Well known film 'Chittagong', directed by Bedabrata Pain, (a) Governor of the two States simultaneously
is mainly based on the life of [2013-II] (b) only female Chief Election Commissioner of India
(a) Subodh Roy (b) Binod Bihari Chowdhury (c) only female Indian High Commissioner to United Kingdom
(c) Preetilata Wadedar (d) Ganesh Ghosh (d) Governor of Reserve Bank of India
305. Consider the following statements [2013-II] 314. On March 8, 2013 President of India has released a
1. Rafael Nadal won Men's Singles French Open Tennis commemorative postage stamp on late Sahir Ludhianvi at
Tournament-2013, defeating Spanish compatriot David Rashtrapati Bhawan. Ludhianvi was [2013-II]
Ferrer.
(a) the translator of the Omar Khayyam's Rubaiyat into Hindi
2. This is Nadal's maiden French Open title.
(b) an eminent social activist of India
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) one of the top Urdu dramatists and actor
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) widely acclaimed as a peoples poet
EBD_7341
292 Miscellaneous
315. 'Silent Spring', considered by many as one among the 2. India was elected Chair of the Association from
greatest science books of all time, is written by Rachel 2013 to 2015.
Carson. The book deals with [2013-II] 3. There are twenty member nations in the Association.
(a) wild life preservation Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) protection of the environment (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) pollution of the water body (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
(d) None of the above 322. Indian Navy commissioned its first Advanced Light
316. Which of the following nations were recently suspended Helicopter Squadron at Kochi in November 2013. What is
with regard to the voting rights by the UNESCO for not the name of the helicopter? [2014-I]
paying their dues to it? [2014-I] (a) Chetak (b) Dhruv
1. USA 2. Israel (c) Rudra (d) Cheetah
3. Iran 4. Iraq 323. Consider the following statements about UN Frontline
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Workers Global Leadership Award [2014-I]
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 1. Martha Dodray, an auxiliary nurse and midwife from
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above Bihar, was conferred the Award in the year 2013.
317. The Union Ministry of Environment and Forest recently 2. Martha Dodray was awarded for her dedicated
approved in principle a proposal for Western Ghats service in the bird flu affected areas of India.
development prepared K Kasturirangan-led panel. The Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
panel has recommended a ban on development activities (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
in around 60000 sq km ecologically sensitive area spread (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
over [2014-I] 324. Internal Security Academy is located at [2014-I]
(a) Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, (a) Nashik (b) Mount Abu
Kerala and Karnataka (c) Hyderabad (d) Pune
(b) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and 325. Heena Sidhu, who recently won a World Cup Gold Medal
Tamil Nadu for India, is associated with [2014-I]
(c) Odisha, Maharashtra, Goa, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh (a) shooting (b) archery
and Tamil Nadu (c) weightlifting (d) boxing
(d) Karnataka, Odisha. Gujarat Kerala. Maharashtra 326. The concept of hegemony is used to understand the
and Tamil Nadu capacity to 'manufacture consent'. Here, hegemony implies
318. Carefully read the following passage and identify the 1. class ascendency in ideological spheres. [2014-I]
person referred to in that 2. deploying ideological resources to shape behaviour
Her best known works are The Golden Notebook, Memoirs of weaker states/powers.
of a Survivor and The Summer Before the Dark. She was the 3. provision of global public goods by a dominant power.
oldest recipient of the Nobel Prize in Literature. [2014-I] 4. military dominance in relative and absolute terms.
(a) Alice Munro (b) Doris Lessing Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(c) Herta Muller (d) Elfriede Jelinek (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
319. Non-military Confidence Building Measures (CBMs) in a (c) Only 4 (d) Only 1
peace process include [2014-I] 327. Match the following [2014-I]
1. people to people contact across borders.
List-I List-ll
2. literary and cultural interaction under government and
non-governmental agencies. (Author) (Concept/Book)
3. increase in travel facilities. A. Hobbes 1. Natural Law
4. joint initiatives to tackle common socio-economic B. Rousseau 2. 'Might is Right'
problems.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below C. Locke 3. Discourse on Inequality
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 D. Adam Smith 4. The Wealth of Nations
(c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these Codes
320. Rachel Carson's famous book, Silent Spring refers to A B C D
(a) geology of terrain where river originates [2014-I] (a) 2 1 3 4
(b) ecology and degradation of a hot spring due to (b) 2 3 1 4
excessive tourism (c) 4 3 1 2
(c) biodiversity of an unknown terrain rich in flora and fauna (d) 4 1 3 2
(d) the death of songbirds due to eating insects 328. Which of the following was the theme of World
poisoned with pesticides Environment Day 2014 ? [2014-II]
321. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Ocean (a) Green Economy. Does it include you?
Rim Association [2014-I] (b) Think. Eat. Save
1. The 13th Council of Ministers meeting of the (c) Many Species. One Planet. One Future
Association was held in November 2013 in Perth. (d) Small Islands and Climate Change
Miscellaneous 293
329. Union Government in June 2014 granted Navaratna status 337. Which of the following statements about Marrakesh
to [2014-II] Treaty is/ are correct? [2014-II]
1. Engineers India Ltd. 1. The main goal of the treaty is to create a set of
2. Coal India Ltd. mandatory limitations and exceptions for the
3. India Trade Promotion Organization benefits of the blind and visually impaired.
4. National Buildings Construction Corporation Ltd. 2. India has ratified the treaty.
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 3. The treaty has come into force from July 2014.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
330. Which of the following is not correct regarding the 2014 (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
FIFA Football World Cup ? [2014-II] 338. Consider the following statements about world's first
(a) 'We Are One' is the official song Modern Slavery Bill, published in June 2014 by the British
House of Commons : [2014-II]
(b) 'Dar um Jeito (We Will Find AWay)' is the official anthem
1. This is the first of its kind bill in Europe which
(c) Brazil is the first country to host a World Cup for
specifically addresses slavery and trafficking in the
the second time 21st century.
(d) For the first time two consecutive World Cups are 2. The Bill fixes the maximum sentence available for
not hosted in Europe the most serious offenders up to 14 years.
331. 'Garuda-V', concluded recently, is a joint exercise between Which of the statements given above is/are correct
the Air Forces of India and [2014-II] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Japan (b) Canada (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Russia (d) France 339. Consider the following statements about 'Project Mausam':
332. In May 2014, an agreement for credit of US $ 24 million [2014-II]
(equivalent) from World Bank for additional financing for l. The Project was launched in June 2014 by the
Uttarakhand Rural, water supply and sanitation Project Ministry of External Affairs.
was signed. The objective/objectives of the agreement 2. At the macro level, the project aims to re-connect
was/were [2014-II] and re-establish communications between countries
1. To improve the effectiveness of rural water supply and of the Indian Ocean world, which would lead to an
sanitation (RWSS) services through decentralization enhanced understanding of cultural values and
2. To restore services of damaged schemes in the concerns; while at the micro level, the focus is on
disaster affected areas in the State of Uttarakhand understanding national cultures in their regional
Select the correct answer using the code given below: maritime milieu.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
333. Which of the following statements about India-Sri Lanka (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
relations is/are correct ? [2014-II] 340. Consider the following statements about Star Alliance
1. India and Sri Lanka have a Free Trade Agreement. Network : [2014-II]
2. India has emerged as the highest exporter to Sri 1. Established in the year 1997, it is the leading global airline
Lanka as on May 2014. network with the highest number of member airlines,
Select the correct answer using the code given below: daily flights, destinations and countries flown to.
2. Air India has recently joined the Star Alliance in a
bid to garner more revenue.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
334. Consider the following statements : [2014-II]
1. Government of India has recently upgraded the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
National Industrial Classification from NIC-1987 to 341. Which of the following statements is/ are correct?[2014-II]
NIC-2008. 1. In June 2014, the World Heritage Committee has
2. NIC is an essential statistical standard for inscribed the Great Himalayan National Park
developing and maintaining comparable database Conservation Area (GHNPCA) on the World
according to economic activities. Heritage List on the basis of UNESCO Guidelines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. The Great Himalayan National Park (GHNP) is
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only located in Sikkim.
(c) Both land 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code given below :
335. Manipur clinched the 20th Senior National Women's (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Football Championships title 2014 by defeating [2014-II] (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Assam (b) Odisha 342. Consider the following statements : [2014-II]
(c) West Bengal (d) Kerala 1. World Vitiligo Day is observed on 25th June every year.
336. Novak Diokovic, who won the Men's Wimbledon Tennis 2. Vitiligo is a progressive skin disease.
Open Tournament 2014, is from [2014-II] Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Serbia (b) Spain (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Switzerland (d) England (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither l nor 2
EBD_7341
294 Miscellaneous
343. Stepwell Rani-ki-Vav was approved as a World Heritage 350. Which of the following statements is/are correct with
Site by the UNESCO recently. It is located at [2014-II] regard to the Living Planet Report - 2014 (Species and
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat Spaces, People and Places) released by World Wildlife
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra Fund (WWF)? [2015-I]
344. Seeking to revive historic ties, the Indian Air Force has 1. The Living Planet Index (LPI), which measures
gifted a vintage Dakota Aircraft from its museum to more than 10,000 representative populations of
(September 2014) [2015-I] mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians and fish, has
(a) the Pakistan Air Force (b) the Bangladesh Air Force declined by 52% since 1970.
(c) the Chinese Air Force (d) the Sri Lankan Air Force 2. The most dramatic regional LPI decrease occurred
345. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of National in Africa.
AYUSH Mission, approved by the Union Cabinet recently? Select the correct answer using the code given below :
[2015-I] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. Improvement of AYUSH education through (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
enhancement in the number of upgraded educational 351. Which among the following teams won the Duleep Trophy
institutions. Cricket Tournament, 2014 ? [2015-I]
2. Better access to AYUSH services through increase (a) East Zone (b) Central Zone
in the AYUSH hospitals and dispensaries, (c) West Zone (d) South Zone
availability of drugs and manpower.
352. Which of the following statements is/are true with regard
3. Providing sustained availability of quality raw
to the newly launched Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana ?
material for AYUSH system of medicine.
[2015-I]
Select the correct answer using the code giver below :
1. Under the scheme, Centre will provide ? 10 crore each
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 2 only for every State and Union Territory of the country for
346. The 3rd Meeting of the SAARC Culture Ministers, the development of various facilities for the tribals.
convened in New Delhi on September 25, 2014, unanimously 2. The scheme mainly focuses on bridging infrastructural
resolved [2015-I] gaps and gap in human development indices between
1. to declare 2015 - 16 as the SAARCYear of Cultural Heritage. Scheduled Tribes and other Social Groups.
2. that Bamiyan will be the SAARC cultural capital for Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2015 - 16. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. to promote SAARC culture online by launching a (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
dedicated SAARC website on culture, with emphasis 353. Which of the following statements with regard to the
on digitization of rare manuscripts, rare books and proposed Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank is/are
other articles of intangible cultural value. correct ? [2015-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1. India is one of the founding members of the Bank.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only 2. The Bank is to be headquartered in Shanghai.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code given below :
347. Consider the following statements : [2015-I] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
l. The Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan is restructured into the (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Swachh Bharat Mission. 354. Which one of the following is not a part of service sector
2. The Swachh Bharat Mission has two sub-Missions – in India? [2015-II]
Union Territories and States. (a) Transport (b) Construction
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (c) Hotels and restaurants (d) Insurance
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 355. Which one of the following is a non-renewable resource?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Solar energy (b) Coal [2015-II]
348. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? (c) Water (d) Fisheries
[2015-I] 356. Which one of the following is not an example of
1. ‘Yudh Abhyas 2014’ was an India – USA military exercise. externalities? [2015-II]
2. ‘Yudh Abhyas 2014’was conducted in Himachal Pradesh. (a) Pollution of air by a cement factory.
Select the correct answer using the code given below : (b) Health hazard caused to the person due to smoking
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only by himself/herself
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Smoke coming out of neighbour's vehicle
349. Consider the following statements with regard to the First (d) Increase in land price of adjacent plots due to
Renewable Energy Global Investors Meet and Expo (2015): construction of a road by the Government.
[2015-I] 357. Among the currently operational Indian Satellites, there is
1. This is a follow-up to the 'Make in India' initiative. no: [2016-I]
2. The central theme of the meet is to attract large scale
(a) Communication satellite
investments in the renewable energy sector in India.
(b) Navigation satellite
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(c) Earth observation satellite
(d) Jupiter orbiter satellite
Miscellaneous 295
358. Which one of the following is not a monitorable target of (c) Mizoram – Arunachal Pradesh – Himachal Pradesh –
the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Abhiyan? [2016-I] Sikkim
(a) Provide girls’ toilet in every school in 100 child Sex (d) Arunachal Pradesh – Himachal Pradesh – Sikkim –
Ratio (CSR) districts by the year 2017 Mizoram
(b) 100 percent girls’ enrolment in secondary education 368. The rate of population growth during 2001-2011 decade
by the year 2020 declined over the previous decade (1991-2001) in all of the
(c) Promote a protective environment for girl children following States, except [2018-II]
through implementation of Protection of Children (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala
from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 (c) Goa (d) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Train Elected Representaives / Grassroot functionaries 369. As per Census 2011, the concentration of Scheduled Caste
as Community Champions to mobilize communities population (going by percentage of Scheduled Caste
to improve CSR and promote girls’s education population to total population of the State) is the highest
359. Which one of the following is not an objective of the in the State of [2018-II]
Rashiriy Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)? [2016-I] (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Himachal Pradesh
(a) Improve the overall quality of private educational (c) Punjab (d) West Bengal
institutions 370. The 2+2 Bilateral Dialogue was held in September 2018
(b) Ensure reforms in the affiliation academic and between [2018-II]
examination systems (a) External Affairs and Defence Ministers of India with
(c) Correct regional imbalances in access to higher education their US counterparts
(d) Create enabling atmosphere in the higher educational (b) Finance and Defence Ministers of India with their
institutions to devote themselves to research and Russian counterparts
innovations (c) Home and Defence Ministers of India and their
360. The Erawan shrine, which witnessed a major bomb blast in counterparts in Pakistan
August 2015, is located at : [2016-I] (d) External Affairs and Defence Ministers of India with
(a) Singapore (b) Bangkok their counterparts in Pakistan
(c) Kuala Lumpur (d) Kabul 371. Who is the Chairman of the Defence Planning Committee
361. Who among the following is the first Indian sportsperson Set up in April 2018? [2018-II]
to reach the finals in the world badminton Championship (a) The Prime Minister
(Women) in 2015? [2016-I] (b) The National Security Advisor
(a) Jwala Gutta (b) Saina Nehwal (c) The Defence Minister
(c) P.V Sindhu (d) Madhumita Bisht (d) The Chief of the Army Staff
362. Woman development Report for each year at global level 372. ‘Tejas’ is the name of which one of the following?
is published by : [2016-I] [2018-II]
(a) WTO (b) World Bank (a) Main battle tank (b) Nuclear submarine
(c) UNDP (d) IMF (c) Light combat aircraft (d) Aircraft carrier
363. Leander paes won the US Open Mixed Doubles Tennis 373. The policy on strategic partnerships in defence was
Title (2015) Partnering with : [2016-I] approved by the Ministry of Defence in May 2017. Which
(a) Kristina Mladenovic (b) Flavia Pennetta of the following is not among the four segments identified
(c) Martina Hingis (d) Sania Mirza by the Ministry for acquisition through the strategic
364. Who among the following is the winner of the world Food partnership route? [2018-II]
Prize (year 2015)? [2016-I] (a) Artillery guns
(a) Sanjaya Rajaram (b) Baldev Singh Dhillon (b) Fighter aircraft and helicopters
(c) Sir Fazle Hasan Abed (d) Rajendra Singh Paroda (c) Submarines
365. Which one of the following nations went for Parliamentary (d) Armoured fighting vehicles and main battle tanks
elections in the month of August 2015 ? [2016-I] 374. The acronym ‘CAATSA’ refers to a piece of legislation
(a) Maldives (b) Fiji enacted by which one of the following countries?
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Singapore [2018-II]
366. Which one of the following nations has faced severe (a) United Kingdom (b) United States of America
economic crisis in the year 2015 resulting in default in (c) Russia (d) India
repayment of IMF loan? [2016-I] 375. Who among the following is the Convener of the ‘Task
Force’ set up in November 2017 by the Government of
(a) China (b) Greece
India to review the Income-tax Act and draft a new direct
(c) Ireland (d) Belgium
tax law? [2018-II]
367. Which one of the following is the correct ascending
(a) Girish Ahuja (b) Mukesh Patel
sequence of States in terms of their population density as
(c) Arbind Modi (d) Mansi Kedia
per [2018-II]
376. With regard to the cabinet decision in July 2018, the
(a) Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – Mizoram – Himachal
percentage increase in Minimum Support Price (MSP) is
Pradesh
maximum in which one of the following crops? [2018-II]
(b) Arunachal Pradesh – Mizoram – Sikkim – Himachal
(a) Jowar (Hybrid) (b) Bajra
Pradesh
(c) Maize (d) Soya bean
EBD_7341
296 Miscellaneous
377. In which one of the following States was ‘DEFEXPO 2018’ 386. SWAYAM is [2018-II]
held in April 2018? [2018-II] (a) a network that aims to tap the talent pool of scientists
(a) Goa (b) Karnataka and entrepreneurs towards global excellence
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh (b) a Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) initiative
378. The two defence industrial corridors announced by the on a national platform
Finance Minister in his 2018 Budget speech are coming up (c) an empowerment scheme for advancing the
in which of the following States? [2018-II] participation of girls in education
(a) Odisha and West Bengal (d) a scheme that supports differently abled children to
(b) Punjab and Haryana pursue technical education
(c) Gujarat and Maharashtra 387. Under the PRASAD Tourism Scheme, which one of the
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu following has not been identified as a religious site for
379. What is India’s first Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC) development? [2018-II]
called? [2018-II] (a) Ajmer (Rajasthan) (b) Haridwar (Uttarakhand)
(a) Vikrant (b) Virat (c) Somnath (Gujarat) (d) Velankanni (Tamil Nadu)
(c) Vaibhav (d) Varaha 388. Name the Indian cricketer who is not inducted to the ICC
380. Which one of the following manufacturers is engaged in Cricket Hall of Fame (till July 2018). [2018-II]
upgradation of the Swedish 155-mm Bofors Howitzer under (a) Rahul Dravid (b) Sunil Gavaskar
the project ‘Dhanush’? [2018-II] (c) Sachin Tendulkar (d) Anil Kumble
(a) Bharat Electronics Limited 389. The Central Water Commission has recently entered into
(b) Ordnance Factory Board a collaborative agreement with which one of the following
(c) Bharat Dynamics Limited entities for flood forecasting? [2018-II]
(d) Mishra Dhatu Nigam (a) Skymet (b) Google
381. Which one of the following is the official mascot of Tokyo (c) MetService (d) AccuWeather
2020 Olympic Games? [2018-II] 390. The tagline ‘Invaluabe Treasures of Incredible India’ is
(a) Soohorang associated with the logo for [2018-II]
(b) Vinicius de Moraes
(a) Archaeological Survey of India
(c) The Hare, the Polar Bear and the Leopard
(b) India Tourism Development Corporation
(d) Miraitowa
(c) Geological Survey of India
382. ‘Mission Satyanishtha’, a programme on ethics in public
(d) Geographical Indications (GI) of India
governance, was launched recently by the [2018-II]
391. Which organization was started at the Haridwar Kumbh
(a) Indian Railways
Mela in 1915? · [2018-II]
(b) Central Bureau of Investigation
(a) Sanatan Dharma Sabha (b) Dev Samaj
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Enforcement Directorate (c) Brahmin Sabha (d) Hindu Mahasabha
383. Which one of the following regarding the tenure of the 392. The Inter-State Council was seet up in 1990 on the
elected members of the Autonomous District Council is recommendation of [2019-I]
correct? [2018-II] (a) Punchhi Commission (b) Sarkaria Commission
(a) Five years from the date of election (c) Rajamannar Commission (d) Mungerilal Commission
(b) Five years from the date appointed for the first meeting 393. Paul Allen, who died in October 2018, was the co-founder
of the Council after the election of [2019-I]
(c) Six years from the date of administration of Oath (a) Oracle (b) IBM
(d) Six years from the date of election (c) Microsoft (d) SAP
384. Which one of the following statements regarding the 394. The mobile app ‘cVIGIL’ is helpful in [2019-I]
Universal Declaration of Human Rights is not correct? (a) conducting free and fair e-tendering process in
[2018-II] government offices
(a) The UN General Assembly adopted the Human (b) fighting against corruption in public services
Rights Charter on 10th December, 1948. (c) removing garbage from the municipal areas
(b) Some of the provisions of the Fundamental Rights (d) reporting violation of model code of conduct in
enshrined in the Constitution of India are similar to election-bound States
the provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human 395. ‘Prahaar’ is [2019-I]
Rights. (a) a battle tank (b) a surface-to-surface missile
(c) The Right to Property is not a part of the Universal (c) an aircraft carrier (d) a submarine
Declaration of Human Rights. 396. Who among the following is/are the recipient/recipients
(d) India is a signatory to the Universal Declaration of of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2018? [2019-I]
Human Rights. (a) Virat Kohli
385. Ace athlete Neeraj Chopra is an accomplished player in (b) S. Mirabai Chanu and Virat Kohli
[2018-II] (c) Neeraj Chopra
(a) Hammer throw (b) Javelin throw (d) Hima Das and Neeraj Chopra
(c) Shot put throw (d) Discus throw
Miscellaneous 297
397. Who among the following is the first Indian to win Pulitzer (b) Initiate dialogue with all insurgent groups in India
Prize? [2019-I] (c) Undertake develpment activities in Naxal-dominated
(a) Arundhati Roy (b) Gobind Behari Lal areas
(c) Vijay Seshadri (d) Jhumpa Lahiri (d) Ensure food security
398. Saurabh Chaudhary excels in which one of the following 407. Which one of the following States of India is not covered
sports? [2019-I] by Flood Forecasting Stations set up by the Central Water
(a) Archery (b) Shooting Commission? [2019-I]
(c) Boxing (d) Judo (a) Rajasthan (b) Jammu and Kashmir
399. ‘Sub-prime crisis’ is a term associated with which one of (c) Tripura (d) Himachal Pradesh
the following events? [2019-I] 408. The city of Cartagena, which is famous for Protocol on
(a) Economic recession Biosafety, is located in [2019-I]
(b) Political instability (a) Colombia (b) Venezuela
(c) Structural adjustment programmes (c) Brazil (d) Guyana
(d) Growing social inequality 409. Which one among the following is the most populated
400. Which one of the following developments took place State in India as per Census 2011? [2019-I]
because of the Kansas-Nebraska Act of 1854? [2019-I] (a) Goa (b) Mizoram
(a) The Missouri Compromise was repealed and people (c) Meghalaya (d) Sikkim
of Kansas and Nebraska were allowed to determine 410. Find the correct arrangement of the following urban
whether they should own slaves or not. agglomerations in descending order as per their population
(b) The Act did not permit the territories the right to size according to Census 2011. [2019-I]
vote over the question of slavery. (a) Delhi-Mumbai-Kolkata-Chennai
(c) The voice of the majority in regards to the issue of (b) Mumbai-Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai
slavery was muzzled. (c) Mumbai-Kolkata-Delhi-Chennai
(d) The Federal Government to decide on slavery. (d) Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai-Delhi
401. Which one of the following issues was included in the 411. Consider the following statements relating to Coal India
Indo-US Nuclear Agreement of 2007? [2019-I] Limited: [2019-I]
(a) India has ‘advance right to reprocess’ US-origin 1. It is designated as a ‘Maha Ratna’ company under
safeguarded spent fuel. the Ministry of Coal.
(b) India did not have the right to build a strategic fuel
2. It is the single largest coal-producing company in
reserve with the help of the other supplier countries.
the world.
(c) India should not test a nuclear device.
3. The headquarters of Coal India Limited is located at
(d) The US will impede the growth of India’s nuclear
Ranchi, Jharkhand.
weapons programme.
402. Which of the following are the core functions of the United
Nations multidimensional peacekeeping operations?
1. Stabilization [2019-I] (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 , 2 and 3
2. Peace consolidation 412. Afro-Asian solidarity as a central element of India’s foreign
3. To extend support to a losing State in a war policy was initiated by which of the following Prime
Select the correct answer using the code given below. Ministers? [2019-I]
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (a) Narendra Modi (b) I. K. Gujral
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only (c) J. L. Nehru (d) Manmohan Singh
403. The South China Sea Dispute involves which of the 413. Which one of the following statements with regard to
following countries? [2019-I] India’s surgical strike mission inside Pakistan Occupied
1. China 2. Vietnam Kashmir is correct? [2019-I]
3. Malaysia 4. Indonesia (a) It was conducted in the year 2018.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (b) It was led by the Indian Air Force.
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) It was not given any name.
(c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) It was sanctioned by the United Nations.
404. ‘The ‘Kyoto Protocol’ is an international treaty that 414. Which one of the following statements about the National
commits State parties to reduction in [2019-I] Green Tribunal is not correct? [2019-I]
(a) poverty (b) greenhouse gases emission (a) It was set up in the year 2010.
(c) nuclear armaments (d) agricultural subsidy (b) It is involved in effective and expeditious disposal
405. The ‘Beijing Declaration’ is concerned with which one of of cases relating to environmental protection and
the following issues? [2019-I] conservation of forests.
(a) Rights of children (b) Rights of women (c) It may consider giving relief and compensation for
(c) Right to development (d) Reduction of tariffs damages to persons and property.
406. The ‘Gujral Doctrine’ relates to which one of the following (d) It is bound by the procedures laid down under the
issues? [2019-I] Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
(a) Build trust between India and its neighbours
EBD_7341
298 Miscellaneous
415. In October 2018, India was elected as a member to the Select the correct answer using the code given below.
United Nations Human Rights Council for a period of (a) 1 , 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 only
(a) five years (b) four years [2019-I] (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1 , 2 and 4
(c) three years (d) two years 423. Which one of the following are the benefits of the Pradhan
416. Consider the following statements about the Bureau of Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY)? [2019-I]
Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) : [2019-I] 1. Free treatment available at all public and empanelled
1. It is the implementing agency of Pradhan Mantri private hospitals in times of need
Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP). 2. Cashless and paperless access to quality health-care
2. It has been registered as an independent society services
under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. 3. Government provides health insurance cover of up
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? to `5,00,000 per family per year
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 4. Pre-existing diseases are not covered
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
417. Consider the following statements about a scheme (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 , 2 and 3
launched by the Government of India: [2019-I] (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4
It was launched to provide social security during old age 424. The 11th BRICS Summit in 2019 will be hosted by
and to protect elderly persons aged 60 years and above (a) China (b) Russia [2019-I]
against a future fall in their interest income due to uncertain (c) Brazil (d) India
market conditions. The scheme enables old age income 425. What is SWAYAM ? [2019-II]
security for senior citizens through provision of assured (a) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
pension/return linked to the subscription amount based (b) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Youth Aspiring Minds
on government guarantee to Life Insurance Corporation (c) StudyWebs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiration Minds
of India (LICI) (d) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Youth of Aspiration
Identify the scheme. Minds
(a) Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana 426. Who among the following in his book ‘The Managerial
(b) Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana Revolution’ argued that a managerial class dominated all
(c) Liveability Index Programme industrial societies, both capitalist and communist, by
(d) Rashtriya Vayoshri Yojana virtue of its technical and scientific knowledge and its
418. Who among the following won India’s first ever gold administrative skills ? [2019-II]
medal in the International Youth Olympic Games (2018) (a) James Burnham (b) Robert Michels
held in Argentina? [2019-I] (c) Gaetano Mosca (d) Vilfredo Pareto
(a) Neeraj Chopra (b) Praveen Chitravel 427. Which one of the following is the motto of NCC ?
[2019-II]
(c) Jeremy Lalrinnunga (d) Suraj Panwar
(a) Unity and Discipline (b) Unity and Integrity
419. E. K. Janaki Ammal National Award on Taxonomy is
(c) Unity and Command (d) Unity and Service
administered by the [2019-I]
428. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare [2019-II]
(b) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy 1. India is a signatory to the United Nations Convention
(c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).
(d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change 2. Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal Ministry in the
420. Which one of the following pairs of military training Government of India for the UNCCD.
institute of India and location is not correctly matched? Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Army war college : Mhow [2019-I] (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) High Altitude : Gulmarg (c) Both l and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Warfare School 429. The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
(c) Army Air Defence : Pune was founded in [2019-II]
College (a) Colombo (b) Islamabad
(d) Rashtriya Indian : Dehradun (c) Kathmandu (d) Dhaka
Military College 430. Which one of the following countries is not a founding
421. Which one of the following viruses is responsible for the member of the New Development Bank ? [2019-II]
recent death of lions in Gir National Park? [2019-I] (a) Brazil (b) Canada
(a) Canine Distemper Virus (c) Russia (d) India
(b) Nipah Virus 431. The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a
(c) Hendra Virus web-based online software application designed,
(d) Foot-and-Mouth Disease Virus developed, owned and implemented by the [2019-II]
422. Till 2018, which of the following countries have legalized (a) Department of Financial Services
the possession and use of recreational cannabis? (b) Institute of Government Accounts and Finance
(1) America (2) Canada [2019-I] (c) Controller General of Accounts
(3) Nigeria (4) Uruguay (d) National Institute of Financial Management
Miscellaneous 299
432. The National Dope Testing Laboratory functions under 442. Which one of the following is the earliest launched scheme
[2019-II] of the Government of India? [2020-I]
(a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (a) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana
(b) Ministry of Science and Technology (b) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(c) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (c) Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs (d) Deendayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
433. In how many phases was the general election, 2019 443. The “Basel Convention’ is aimed at protecting human
conducted in India ? [2019-II] health and environment against adverse effects of which
(a) 6 phases (b) 7 phases of the following? [2020-I]
(c) 8 phases (d) 9 phases (a) Hazardous wastes
434. Which one of the following statements about the (b) Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
Organization of Islamic Cooperation is not correct ? (c) Mercury
[2019-II] (d) Chemicals and pesticides
(a) Its permanent Secretariat is located at Jeddah. 444. Who among the following won the Best Men’s Player
(b) It endeavours to safeguard and protect interests of the Award of FIFA Football Awards, 2019? [2020-I]
Muslim world in the spirit of promoting international (a) Cristiano Ronaldo (b) Virgil van Dijk
peace and harmony among various people of the world.
(c) Lionel Messi (d) Xavi
(c) It is the largest inter-governmental organization of
445. Greta Thunberg, a teenaged environment activist who was
the world.
in news recently, hails from [2020-I]
(d) It has consultative and cooperative relations with
the UN. (a) Sweden (b) Germany
435. Who among the following won the Italian Open Women’s (c) USA (d) Canada
Tennis Singles Title, 2019 ? [2019-II] 446. Amitabh Bachchan was recently conferred with the
(a) Karolina Pliskova (b) Johanna Konta prestigious Dada Saheb Phalke Award. Who among the
(c) Naomi Osaka (d) Serena Williams following was the first recipient of the award? [2020-I]
436. Which among the following IN ship (s) participated in the (a) Prithviraj Kapoor (b) Devika Rani
SIMBEX - 19 ? [2019-II] (c) Sohrab Modi (d) Naushad
1. INS Kolkata 2. INS Shakti 447. Which one of the following statements about the famous
3. INS Vikrant text of Panchatantra is correct? [2020-I]
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) It is a philosophical text reflecting the debates of the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only time and refuting rival positions.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) lonly (b) It is a text ushering in linguistics as a formal science.
437. ‘Triples’ is a new format of [2019-II] (c) It is a text discussing developments in various
(a) Boxing (b) Judo spheres of natural sciences.
(c) Chess (d) Badminton
(d) It is a text showing through illustration what should
438. ‘The Sasakawa Award’ of United Nation is given in
and should not be done.
recognition of the work done in the field of [2019-II]
448. Which one of the following is not a feature of the
(a) Disaster Reduction (b) Peace Keeping
(c) Health Services (d) Poverty Alleviation Ayushman Bharat Scheme? [2020-I]
439. Why was India’s G.S. Lakshmi in news recently? [2019-II] (a) There is no cap on family size and age.
(a) She was the first Indian to play cricket for an English (b) The scheme includes pre- and post-hospitalization
County Club. expenses.
(b) She became the first female ICC match referee. (c) A defined transport allowance per hospitalization will
(c) She was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award for also be paid to the beneficiary.
the year 2019. (d) The scheme provides a benefit cover of `10 lakh per
(d) She was the recipient of the Booker Prize in the year 2019. family.
440. Who among the following was elected as the President of 449. Which of the following statements with regard to Coal
Indonesia for the second term ? [2019-II] India Limited (CIL) is/are true? [2020-I]
(a) Joko Widodo (b) Prabowo Subianto 1. CIL has its headquarters at Kolkata.
(c) Sandiaga Uno (d) Jusuf Kalla 2. CIL operates through 82 mining areas spread over
441. Which one of the following is not an objective of the twenty provincial States of India.
MGNREGA? [2020-I] 3. CIL is the single largest coal- producing company in
(a) Providing up to 100 days of skilled labour in a financial the world.
year Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(b) Creation of productive assets (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Enhancing livelihood security (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Ensuring empowerment to women
EBD_7341
300 Miscellaneous
450. The Hunter Commission (1882) appointed to survey the 453. Which one of the following is the latest addition to the
state of education in India [2020-I] AYUSH group of health care system? [2020-I]
(a) deprecated University education (a) Unani
(b) overruled the Despatch of 1854 (b) Siddha
(c) endorsed the Despatch of 1854 with greater emphasis (c) Sowa-Rigpa
on primary education (d) Reiki
(d) criticized the grants-in-aid system of schooling 454. Which one of the following is the nodal agency in India for
451. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the United Nations Environment Programme? [2020-I]
formation of the Commissions starting from the earliest? (a) The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
[2020-I] (b) The Ministry of Science and Technology
(a) Finance Commission, Planning Commission, Investment (c) The Ministry of Earth Sciences
Commission, Election Commission (d) The Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Election Commission, Planning Commission, Finance 455. According to the Census 2011, in India, what is the
Commission, Investment Commission percentage of people (approximately) considered to be
(c) Planning Commission, Election Commission, Finance migrants (internal), i.e., now settled in a place different
Commission, Investment Commission from their previous residence? [2020-I]
(d) Investment Commission, Finance Commission, (a) 25% (b) 35%
Planning Commission, Election Commission (c) 45% (d) 55%
452. The formulation of policy in respect to Intellectual Property 456. Suppose an agricultural labourer earns ` 400 per day in her
Rights (IPRs) is the responsibility of [2020-I] village. She gets a job to work as babysitter in a nearby
(a) the Ministry of Law and Justice town @ `700 per day. She chose to work as agricultural
(b) the Department of Science and Technology labourer. Which one of the following is the opportunity
(c) the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal cost of the agricultural labourer? [2020-I]
Trade (a) `1,100 (b) `700
(d) the Ministry of Human Resource Development (c) `400 (d) `300
1. (b) In the Heart of the Moon is a 2005 record by Malian 7. (a) Central Coffee Research Institute is situated at
musicians Ali Farka Toure on the guitar and is providing Balehonnur, Karnataka.
vocals and Toumani Diabate on the kora. Tashi was one of 8. (a) In 2006, Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine is
the nominees for the Best Traditional World Music shared by Professor Andrew Z. Fire at Stanford University,
category at the 2006 (49th) Grammy Awards. California, USA, and Professor Craig C. Mello at the
The 49th Annual Grammy Awards was a ceremony University of Massachusetts Medical School in Worcester,
honouring the best in music for the recording year beginning USA. They received the prize for their discovery that double-
September 15, 2005 and ending September 14, 2006 in the stranded RNA triggers suppression of gene activity in a
United States. Aashish Khan and Zakir Hussain were homology-dependent manner, a process named RNA
nominated for 49th Annual Grammy Awards for their album interference (RNAi).
'Golden Strings of the Sarod'. 9. (b) NHPC Limited is an Indian Hydro Power Generation
2. (d) company that was incorporated in the year 1975.
3. (b) National Assembly elections were held in Bhutan for 10. (b) Manjeet Kaur is an Indian sprint athlete from Punjab
the first time on 24 March 2008. Candidates for Parliament who specializes in 400 metres.
must possess a formal university degree while candidates 11. (b)
for local offices need to produce certificate of functionally 12. (d) Muhammad Yunus is a Bangladeshi social
literacy test to attest that they are adequately skilled. entrepreneur, banker, economist and civil society leader
4. (b) Wipro Limited- Azim Premji who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize for founding the
5. (a) Equestrian athlete Kim Hyung Chil of South Korea Grameen Bank and pioneering the concepts of microcredit
died during the 15th Asian Games at Doha. and microfinance.
6. (c) The Henry J. Hyde United States-India Peaceful 13. (c)
Atomic Energy Cooperation Act of 2006, also known as 14. (c) Knight of Legion is a French award established by
the Hyde Act is the U.S. domestic law that modifies the Napoleon Bonaparte on 19 May 1802. Indian recipients of
requirements of Section 123 of the U.S. Atomic Energy Act this award are Lata Mangeshkar, Satyajit Ray and Amitabh
to permit nuclear cooperation with India and in particular Bachchan.
to negotiate a 123 Agreement to operationalize the 2005 15. (d) He surpassed Vivian Richard's telly of 1710 runs.
Joint Statement. He chaired House International Relations 16. (b) Preeti Desai became the 1st ever winner of Indian
Committee from 2001 to 2007. India has about 25% of origin.
world's thorium reserves.
Miscellaneous 301
17. (d) Bidvest Wanderers Stadium is a stadium situated in 35. (b) Marion Bartoli is a French professional tennis player
Illovo, Johannesburg in Gauteng Province, South Africa. who was defeated by Venus Williams in the final of the
Test, One Day and First class cricket matches are played Wimbledon 2007.
here. 36. (a) Bjorn Borg is a former world No. 1 tennis player from
18. (b) Max Webber propounded the bureaucratic theory of Sweden.
organisation and management. Bureaucracy is an 37. (c) The 2010 Asian Games were held in Guangzhou, China
administrative system designed to accomplish large-scale from November 12 to 27, 2010.
administrative tasks by systematically coordinating the work 38. (c) The book 'Conquest of Self' is written by Mahatma Gandhi.
of many individuals. He has emphasised that bureaucratic 39. (b) The National Institute of Nutrition (NIN) is located in
type of power is the ideal one. Hyderabad. It was founded by Sir Robert Mc Carrison in
19. (c) The National Security Guard (NSG) was set up in the year 1918 as 'Beri-Beri' Enquiry Unit in a single room
1984 as a Federal Contingency Deployment Force to tackle laboratory at the Pasteur Institute, Coonoor, Tamil Nadu.
all facets of terrorism in the country. The NSGs are trained 40. (b) Dola Banerjee- Archery
to conduct counter-terrorism tasks including counter- Aparna Popat - Badminton
hijacking tasks on land, sea, and air; Bomb disposal Anuja Thakur- Snooker
(search, detection and neutralization of IEDs); PBI (Post Parimarjan Negi- Chess
Blast Investigation) and Hostage Rescue missions. 41. (b) Lawn Tennis and Archery were added in 2010
20. (d) Netscape is an Internet browser that was popular Commonwealth Games .
during the early 1990's. 42. (b) Adoor Gopalakrishnan is a Malayalam film director.
21. (c) Suzlon is a vertically integrated wind power company. 43. (b) Venus williamss defeated Marion Bartoli in the final.
Suzlon makes and installs windmills, and works as 44. (b) India has 19 operational pressurized heavy water
renewable energy solutions providers. reactors (PHWRs). Nuclear reprocessing technology was
22. (c) Dr David Warren was an Australian scientist, best developed to chemically separate and recover fissionable
known for inventing and developing the flight data plutonium from irradiated nuclear fuel. India's 10 nuclear
recorder and cockpit voice recorder (also known as the reactors with a total generation capacity of 1,940 MW have
'black box'). now put under International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
23. (a) The Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is an annual international safeguards.
men's field hockey tournament which is held in Malaysia. 45. (b) The Chairman of the Norwegian Nobel Committee
It began in 1983 as a biennial contest. presents the Nobel Peace Prize in the presence of the King
24. (b) Indonesia is not in the quadrilateral coalition. of Norway on 10 December each year. The Nobel laureate
25. (c) The Namesake (2004) is the first novel by Jhumpa receives a diploma, a medal and a document confirming
Lahiri. the prize amount.
26. (d) Bison is a fighter aircraft with a powerful radar and 46. (d) Central Rice Research Institute - Cuttack
missiles. 47. (c) Section 301 of the U.S. Trade Act of 1974 authorizes
27. (b) Kishori Amonkar, an Indian classical vocalist, the President to take all appropriate actions including
recognized as one of the foremost singers in the Hindustani retaliation, to obtain the removal of any act, policy, or practice
tradition as an innovative exponent of the Jaipur gharana. of a foreign government that violates an international trade
28. (b) In 2006, Kejriwal was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay agreement or is unjustified, unreasonable or discriminatory
Award for Emergent Leadership recognising his and that burdens or restricts U.S. commerce.
involvement in a grassroots movement Parivartan using 48. (b) International advanced research centre for powder
right to information legislation in a campaign against metallurgy and new materials is located in Hyderabad.
corruption. 49. (a) In February 2006, C Rangarajan drew up a new plan
29. (a) National institute of ocean technology is located in for pricing of petroleum products.
Chennai. The major aim of starting NIOT under the Ministry 50. (c) National Institute of Unani Medicine - Bengluru
of Earth Sciences is to develop reliable indigenous National Institute of Homeopathy- Kolkata
technology to solve the various engineering problems National Institute of Ayurveda - Jaipur
associated with harvesting of non-living and living National Institute of Siddha- Chennai
resources in the Indian Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ). 51. (a)
30. (b) Anjolie Ela Menon was conferred with the Award in 52. (c) Bhavai - Rajasthan
2007. Thabal Chongba - Manipur
31. (d) Lakshya is an Indian remotely piloted high speed target Cheraw - Mizoram
drone system. It is developed by the Aeronautical Bhortal Nritya - Assam
Development Establishment (ADE) of DRDO. 53. (c)
32. (c) The term was coined by Joseph Weydemeyer and 54. (d) Hyundai - South Korea
was adopted by the founders of Marxism, Karl Marx and 55. (c) The Government of India established the 'Coffee
Friedrich Engels in the 19th century. Board' through a constitutional act "Coffee Act VII of 1942"
33. (c) The first Conference of Heads of State or Government under the administrative control of Ministry of Commerce
of Non-Aligned Countries was held in September 1961 in and Industry.
Belgrade. 56. (d) The Kyoto Protocol is a legally binding agreement
34. (b) Venugopal Dhoot is the Chairman & Managing under which industrialized countries will reduce their
Director of Videocon Group. collective emissions of greenhouse gases by 5.2%
EBD_7341
302 Miscellaneous
compared to the year 1990. The Kyoto Protocol treaty was 72. (d) A compiler is a special programme that processes
negotiated in December 1997 at the city of Kyoto, Japan statements written in a particular programming language
and came into force on February 16th, 2005. and turns them into machine language or "code" that a
57. (b) computer's processor uses.
58. (b) The Liberhan Commission was an inquiry commission 73. (c) NBPGR's one of the activities is to conduct plant
by the Government of India to investigate the destruction quarantine examination of plant materials introduced by
of the disputed structure Babri Masjid in Ayodhya in 1992. the Bureau for pests and pathogens; treat and salvage
59. (b) Lessing was the eleventh woman and the oldest person infested/infected material and carry out research on plant
ever to receive the Nobel Prize in Literature. She was awarded quarantine/seed-health problems. National Bureau of Plant
the 2007 Nobel Prize in Literature. She left school at the age of Genetic Resources (NBPGR) was established in 1976.
14 and was self-educated from then on. In 1982 Lessing tried 74. (c) The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in
to publish two novels under a pseudonym Jane Somers to Memory of Alfred Nobel 2007 was awarded jointly to
show the difficulty new authors faced in trying to have their Leonid Hurwicz, Eric S. Maskin and Roger B. Myerson
works in print. "for having laid the foundations of mechanism design
60. (b) Kamalesh Sharma was the 5th and current Secretary theory".
General of the Commonwealth of Nations from 2008. He 75. (c) A pan India "bandh" is more of a political tool to fulfil
was re-appointed Secretary General of the 54-nation populist agenda of certain political institutions. It was in
Commonwealth grouping for a four-year term beginning 1997 that Kerala High Court had ruled that these types of
April 2012. "bandhs" are illegal. That was the first time that political
61. (b) The Sadbhavana Diwas or Harmony Day is parties received a blow to their populist tactics. This was
celebrated to commemorate the birth anniversary of the challenged in the Apex court to which the Supreme Court
late Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi. It is celebrated every in 1998, upholding the Kerala HC verdict, said that these
year on 20th August. Anti-Terrorism Day observed Across "bandhs" are "illegal and unconstitutional" means of
India on 21 May. The day is celebrated as Death protest.
Anniversary of former Prime Minister of India Rajiv Gandhi. 76. (c) The origins of the game in Manipur are traced to
62. (c) The book 'India Remembered: A Personal Account of early precursors of Sagol Kangjei. This was one of three
the Mountbattens during the Transfer of Power' was written forms of hockey in Manipur, the other ones being field hockey
by Pamela Mountbatten. She was the daughter of Lord (called Khong Kangjei) and wrestling-hockey (called Mukna
Mountbatten who was the last Viceroy of India. Kangjei). In Manipur, polo is traditionally played with seven
63. (d) Irfan Pathan took the hattrick in Karachi test against players to a side.
Pakistan (2006). 77. (c) The Right to Information Act (RTI) was passed by
64. (a) Jeev Milkha Singh - Golf the Indian Parliament on 12 May 2005 and received
Jayanta Talukdar- Archery Presidential assent on 15 June 2005. It came into force on
N Kunjarani- Power lifting 12 October 2005.
Jhulan Goswami- Cricket 78. (c) V.V. Giri was appointed as Acting President of India
65. (c) IGCAR was established in the year 1971, under the following the death of Zakir Hussain. He resigned in a few
Department of Atomic Energy, Government of India. The months to take part in the presidential elections. After this
Reactor Research Centre is situated at Kalpakkam (Chennai). he became president of India and held office in 1969. V V
66. (b) Girija Devi- Anti-liquor activist Giri is the only president to have served as both an acting
Indira Nooyi- Leading woman executive president and the president of India.
Kiran Desai- Leading writer 79. (b) The Ariane Passenger PayLoad Experiment (APPLE),
Chitra Bharucha- Haematologist-turned-executive of an experimental GEO communication satellite was launched
the BBC Trust by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on July
67. (a) M.F Hussian- Painting 19th 1981. APPLE was an experimental communications
Zakir Hussian - Tabla satellite with a C-Band transponder. This satellite was
Ulhas Kashalkar- Vocal Classical launched by Ariane, a launch vehicle of the European
Yamini Krishnamurty- Classical dance Space Agency.
68. (d) Kingfisher Airlines was established in 2003. It is 80. (c) In 1985, Borlaug met with the chief executive of
owned by the Bengaluru based United Breweries Group. General Foods Corporation, James Fergusen. Norman
It is founded by Vijay Mallya. Borlaug presented his long standing desire for the
69. (c) World Environment Day (WED) is celebrated every establishment of a major prize for agriculture. The idea of a
year on 5 June to raise global awareness to take positive prize was met favourably by the Senior General Foods
environmental action to protect nature and the planet Earth. Management, but they expanded the scope of the prize to
It is run by the United Nations Environment Programme include all of the links of the food chain - from farm to
(UNEP). table. General Foods Corporation organized a prize
70. (a) Meghnad Saha was an Indian astrophysicist best management structure and in 1986 announced the founding
known for his development of the Saha equation, used to of the General Foods World Food Prize.
describe chemical and physical conditions in stars. 81. (b) He turned into cricket umpiring after working as
71. (a) U Thant- 30 November 1961 -31 December 1971 football referee.
Kurt Waldheim- 1 January 1972 -31 December 1981 82. (b) Mishra works on Himalayan wildlife.
Boutros Boutros-Ghali- 1 January 1992 -31 December 83. (a) Narayana Murthy is an Indian IT industrialist and
1996 Kofi Annan- 1 January 1997 -31 December 2006 the co-founder of Infosys who was conferred the Officer
Miscellaneous 303
of the Legion of Honour, the highest civilian distinction of 102. (b) Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam : 1997
the government of France. The Legion of Honour is the MS Subbalakshmi : 1998
highest civilian distinction that can be conferred in France Professor Amartya Sen : 1999
regardless of the social status or the nationality of the Lata Mangeshkar : 2001
recipients. It was created in 1802 by Napoleon Bonaparte. 103. (d) 'Tare Zameen Par' was the India's entry to oscars.
84. (c) Gagan Narang- Rifle Shooting 104. (b)
Akhil Kumar- Boxing 105. (a) The award is named after the founder Director of the
Mangal Singh Champia- Archery Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) India,
Virdhawal Khade- Swimming the late Dr (Sir) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar and is known as
85. (d) Osamu Shimomura won Noble prize in chemistry. He the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (SSB) Prize for Science and
worked for green Fluorescent protein. Technology. The Prize is given each year for outstanding
86. (d) Vikram Pandit- CEO of Citi Group 2002. contributions to science and technology.
87. (b) 2002 - International Year of Ecotourism 106. (d)
2004 - International Year of Struggle against Slavery 107. (b) Roh Moo-hyun was the ninth President of the South
and its Abolition Korea. He committed suicide by leaping from a hill behind
2005- International Year of Microcredit his house on May 23, 2009.
2008- International Year of Planet Earth 108. (d) Planning Commission is an independent department
88. (a) The official mascots of the 2008 Beijing Olympics under the GOI. Department of Atomic Energy is a
were inspired by the Five Olympic Rings. Named Fuwa in department under PMO, Department of Bio-Technology
Chinese, or Friendlies in English, these adorable characters and Department of space are under ministry of Science
have become beloved both home and abroad. They were and Technology.
designed to represent the playfulness of children who form 109. (a) Before an EU treaty can enter into force, it must be
a circle of friends. They five mascots represent four of ratified by all member states. Ratification takes different
China's living animal treasures, the Panda, the Tibetan forms in each country, depending on its traditions,
Antelope, the Swallow, the Fish, and the Olympic Flame. constitutional arrangements and political processes. The
89. (a) Bolt completed the race in record time of 9.69 seconds. Treaty of Lisbon was signed by the EU member states on
90. (a) The US space agency NASA has named a 'minor' planet 13 December 2007.
after a Kerala zoology professor Sainudeen Pattazhy. The 110. (a)
minor planet '5178 CD4' has been named after him. The 111. (c) Deepak Parekh- Chairman of HDFC
minor planet will now be known as '5178 Pattazhy. 112. (d) In 2004, Admiral Gorshkov was sold to India for
91. (b) Article XIV of the CTBT stipulates that for the treaty conversion into a STOBAR carrier now named INS Vikramaditya.
to enter into force the signature and ratification by all the 113. (b) The Lyngdoh Committee was set up by the Ministry
44 states possessing nuclear weapons capabilities and of Human Resource Development (MHRD) in 2006 as per
research reactors as listed in Annex 2 is a prerequisite. the direction of the Supreme Court to reform students'
92. (b) The Safir-e-Omid is the name of the first Iranian union elections and to get rid of money and muscle power
expendable launch vehicle that is able to place a satellite in student politics. Former Chief Election Commissioner
in orbit. J.M. Lyngdoh was chairman of the committee.
93. (b) 114. (d) BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile being
94. (a) Chaturvedi recently headed a government panel, developed by BrahMos Aerospace, a joint venture
which in early August 2008, suggested ways to reduce the between DRDO of India and NPO Mashinostroeyenia
government's oil subsidy bill that included upward monthly (NPOM) of Russia. The missile is named after two rivers,
revisions of fuel prices. the Brahmaputra in India and the Moskva in Russia.
95. (c) Russia has recently carried out its military operations 115. (c)
in Georgia. 116. (a)
96. (c) Salman Rushdie's book declared as the winner. 117. (c) Shahid Afridi scored a century on 37 balls against Sri
97. (b) Lanka.
98. (d) 118. (c) The objective of the NCW is to represent the rights
99. (b) Bengluru - Chinnaswami of women in India and to provide a voice for their issues
Chennai - Chidambaran and concerns. The subjects of their campaigns have
Motera - Sardar Patel included dowry, politics, religion, equal representation for
Jaipur - Sawai Mansingh women in jobs, and the exploitation of women for labour.
100. (d) Akash is a medium-range mobile surface-to-air missile. They have also discussed police abuses against women.
It is developed by the Defence Research and Development 119. (c) '2' is for superfast, Shatabdi, Jan Shatabdi, and some
Organisation (DRDO), Ordnance Factories Board and other classes of trains regardless of zones. For these, the
Bharat Electronics (BEL) in India. next digit is usually the zone code.
101. (a) A Red Data Book contains lists of species whose 120. (a) The prize is not awarded posthumously; however, if
continued existence is threatened. Species are classified a person is awarded a prize and dies before receiving it,
into different categories of perceived risk. Each Red Data the prize may still be presented. Noble Prize in Economics
Book usually deals with a specific group of animals or is given since 1969.
plants (e. reptiles, insects, mosses). It has been published 121. (c) Nuclear winter is a term that describes the climatic
by International Union for the Conservation of Nature and effects of nuclear war. It is a hypothetical climatic effect. A
Natural Resources (IUCN). 2008 study published in the Proceedings of the National
EBD_7341
304 Miscellaneous
Academy of Science found that a nuclear weapons • Help national governments to safeguard World
exchange between Pakistan and India using their current Heritage properties by providing technical assistance and
arsenals could create a near-global ozone hole, triggering professional training;
human health problems and causing environmental damage • Provide emergency assistance for the World Heritage
for at least a decade. sites in immediate danger;
122. (*) The Walker Cup is a golf trophy contested biennially • Carry out public awareness activities for World
in odd numbered years between teams comprising the Heritage conversation;
leading amateur golfers of the United States and Great Britain • Support participation of the local population in the
and Ireland. (None of the given alternatives is correct as 1 preservation of their cultural and natural heritage;
and 2 is correct but 3 is incorrect) • Encourage international cooperation in the conservation
123. (b) 'An Inconvenient Truth' is a 2006 documentary film of world's cultural and natural heritage.
directed by Davis Guggenheim about former United States 135. (d) Sir Venkatraman "Venki" Ramakrishnan FRS is an
Vice President Al Gore's campaign to educate citizens about Indian-born American and British structural biologist, best
known for his pioneering work on the ribosome. In 2009 he
global warming.
shared the Nobel Prize in Chemistry with Thomas A. Steitz
124. (a) High Altitude Warfare School - Gulmarg (Jammu and
Kashmir) and Ada E. Yonath, for studies of the structure and function
Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School - Vairengte of the ribosome.
(Mizoram) 136. (b) The act led to strong public protest especially in
Paratrooper's Training School - Agra Manipur where Irom Sharmila has been on hunger strike
Combat Army Aviation Training School- Nasik Road for the past 12 years with the demand of abolishing Armed
125. (c) The first recipients of the Bharat Ratna were politician Forces Special Power Act 1958.
C. Rajagopalachari, scientist C. V. Raman and philosopher 137. (d) Linking Kashmir valley with the Indian railways Network
Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, who were honoured in 1954. is not an issue straining Indo- China relations.
126. (a) HAL, Helicopter Division started manufacturing of 138. (d)
helicopters in 1962, by entering an agreement with M/s 139. (b) Karnataka, who retained the overall championship title
SUD-AVIATION (Presently M/s AIRBUS (Former bagging 18 golds, 17 silvers and eight bronze medals, finished
EUROCOPTER), France) for production of Aloutte III their journey in the six-day event with 318 points.
helicopters (Chetak). The first Chetak (Aloutte III) in 'Fly 140. (a) ACES a new centralized web-based software
Away' condition delivered in 1965. application of the board which was launched by Central
127. (c) Copyright is a bundle of rights given by the law to Board of Excise and Customs.
the creators of literary, dramatic, musical and artistic works 141. (b) Piramal Life Science Ltd. is a Drug Research Company.
and the producers of cinematograph films and sound 142. (a) Tejas- Light combat aircraft
recordings. The rights provided under Copyright law Arjun- Main battle tank
include the rights of reproduction of the work, Dhanush- Ship-based missile
communication of the work to the public, adaptation of Astra- Air-to-air missile
the work and translation of the work. Copyright protects 143. (d) RBI purchased 200 MT gold from IMF to raise the
the expressions and not the ideas. There is no copyright share of gold in India's foreign exchange reserves.
in an idea. 144. (d)
The Copyright Act, 1957 governs the subject of copyright 145. (c) Herta Müller is a German novelist, poet, essayist and
law in India. recipient of the 2009 Nobel Prize in Literature.
128. (d) 146. (c) Avahan is an initiative sponsored by the Bill &
129. (d) Aruna Roy is an Indian political and social activist Melinda Gates Foundation to reduce the spread of HIV in
who founded and heads the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti India. It began in 2003.
Sangathana. She served as a civil servant in the Indian 147. (a) Chohivia Belliappa Muthamma was the first woman
Administrative Service between 1968 and 1974. She was a to clear the Indian Civil Services examinations. She was
leader of the Right to Information movement through also the first woman to join the Indian Foreign Service.
National Campaign for People's Right to Information which She was the first Indian woman diplomat as well. She
led to the enactment of the Right to Information Act in became the first Indian woman Ambassador also.
2005. Muthamma was posted as India's Ambassador to Hungary,
130. (a) SONAR (Sound Navigation and Ranging) is used to Ghana and Netherlands.
determine the depth of seabed. 148. (b) Jawahar Rozgar Yojna was launched on April 1, 1989
131. (a) Bluetooth technology allows wireless communications by merging National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)
between equipments. and Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme
132. (b) Concordat of 2009 was signed between the Holy sea (RLEGP). The main target audience of this plan was the
and Schlesming-Holstein state. people below poverty line. This plan aims to provide 90 to
100 days of employment to people residing in the rural and
133. (d) The gross revenue from the telecom sector in India
accounts for 7% of the GDP (2009). most backward areas is the biggest employment generating
programmes in the country. Its main thrust is creating
134. (d) UNESCO's World Heritage mission is to-
additional wage employment opportunities in rural areas.
• Encourage countries to sign the World Heritage
149. (a) The High Altitude Warfare School (HAWS) is a training
Convention; nominate sites within their national territory;
and research establishment of the Indian Army. In 1948,
establish management plans and set up reporting systems
Indian Army established a ski school in Gulmarg which later
on the state of conservation of their World Heritage Sites;
became the High Altitude Warfare School of the Indian army.
Miscellaneous 305
150. (a) The Prithvi missile project encompassed developing 163. (d) Chipko Movement was a non-violent movement
3 variants for use by the Indian Army, Indian Air Force and aimed at protection and conservation of trees and forests
the Indian Navy. from being destroyed. The villagers used to hug the trees
Prithvi I - Army Version and protect them from woodcutters from cutting them. It
Prithvi- ll - Air Force Version was started in 1970s.
Prithvi III - Naval Version 164. (c) He was awarded Dada Saheb Phalke Award in 2007.
151. (b) 165. (b) Irani Trophy is associated with cricket. It was named
152. (a) The aircraft did not have AOR clearance. The plane after the late Z.R. Irani, who was associated with the Board
was travelling to Bangkok, Thailand from Fujiriah, United of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI)
Arab Emirates. It was carrying US Marines. 166. (a) Saudi Arabia.
153. (a) The following is exempt from disclosure under 167. (d) The Government of the Maldives has held a cabinet
section 8 of the Act: meeting underwater to highlight the threat of global
Information including commercial confidence, trade warming to the low-lying Indian Ocean nation. President
secrets or intellectual property, the disclosure of which would Mohamed Nasheed and his cabinet signed a document
harm the competitive position of a third party, unless the calling for global cuts in carbon emissions.
competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest 168. (a) Bharti Airtel acquired Zain Group's mobile operations.
warrants the disclosure of such information. 169. (b)
154. (b) 170. (d) Cloud computing refers to applications and services
155. (c) The French Open is played on clay while US Open offered over the Internet. The idea of the "cloud" simplifies
uses hard courts. Clay courts slow down the ball and the many network connections and computer systems
produce a high bounce in comparison to grass courts or involved in online services. Examples of cloud computing
hard courts. Grass courts are the fastest type of courts in include online backup services, social networking services
common use. An approximate North/South orientation is and personal data services.
desirable to avoid the effects of low sun during evening 171. (c) The protocol does not provide data confidentiality.
play. It is achieved using cryptographic and steganographic
156. (c) algorithms.
157. (b) Gangubai Hangal was an Indian singer of the khyal 172. (b) A green data centre is a repository for the storage,
genre of Hindustani classical music, belonged to the Kirana management and dissemination of data in which the
gharana. Gangubai Hangal received a number of awards mechanical, lighting, electrical and computer systems are
but did not receive Bharat Ratna, which include: designed for maximum energy efficiency and minimum
• Karnataka Sangeet Nritya Academy Award, 1962 environmental impact. The construction and operation of
• Padma Bhushan, 1971 a green data centre includes advanced technologies and
• Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, 1973 strategies. The examples are:
• Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship, 1996 • Minimizing the footprints of the buildings
• Padma Vibhushan, 2002 • The use of low-emission building materials, carpets
158. (c) Joshi is being recognised for "his vision and and paints
leadership in bringing professionalism to the NGO • Sustainable landscaping
movement in India, by effectively combining 'head' and • Waste recycling
'heart' in the transformative development of rural 173. (a) NMEEE is an integrated approach for climate change
communities. Joshi was the co-founder of Professional mitigation through energy efficiency measures.
Assistance for Development Action (PRADAN) and now It is an Indian government initiative proposed to address
works as an independent consultant for the NGO which national problems of inefficient energy use. It is one of
works for rural poor, promoting self-help groups, eight proposals created by India's 'National Action Plan
developing locally suitable economic activities, mobilising for Climate Change' and is based on the Energy
finances and introducing systems to improve livelihoods Conservation Act of 2001.
of rural people. 174. (c) Donald Duck made its first appearance 75 years ago
159. (*) The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna (RGKR) is the India's on June 9, 1934 as a minor character in the Disney cartoon
highest award given for best sportsperson every year. This called "Little Wise Hen.
award is named after the former Prime Minister of India 175. (c) A significant day in Union Carbide's recent history
late Rajiv Gandhi and was established in the year 1991-92. was August 4, 1999 when it was announced that Union
The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2009 was given to MC Carbide would become a subsidiary of The Dow Chemical
MaryKom (Boxing), Vijender Singh (Boxing) and Sushil Company ("TDCC") as part of a transaction valued at $11.6
Kumar (Wrestling). billion. This transaction closed on February 6, 2001. Since
160. (d) The plotter is a computer printer for printing vector Union Carbide's acquisition by TDCC, Union Carbide sells
graphics. most of the products it manufactures to TDCC and is an
161. (d) Ibuki is world's 1st satellite dedicated to GHG important part of the Dow family of companies. In 1994,
monitoring. UCC sold its entire stocks to McLeod Russel India and
162. (a) INS Viraat was the flagship of the Indian Navy before was renamed 'Eveready Industries India'.
INS Vikramaditya was commissioned in 2013. She is the 176. (b) Kapil Dev Commissioned as an honorary Lt. Colonel
oldest aircraft carrier in service in the world as the Royal in 2008.
Navy's HMS Hermes and was transferred to India in 1987. 177. (b) The Russian Sukhoi T-50 PAK-FA stealth fighter is a
fifth-generation combat aircraft such as the Lockheed
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306 Miscellaneous
Martin F-22 Raptor and F-35 Joint Strike Fighter. It has the 193. (d) 194. (c)
ability to super cruise or operate at speeds beyond the 195. (c) The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
sound. Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) aims at enhancing the
178. (b) Deodhani dance is a folk dance of Assam. It is a solo livelihood security of people in rural areas by guaranteeing
or group performance. In the group performance, it hundred days of wage employment in a financial year to a
essentially comprises 3 or 4 women. This dance form is rural household who volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
associated with the worship of the snake goddess Manasa. MGNREGA was passed in the legislation on 25th August
179. (d) The mascot of the 2010 FIFA World Cup is a leopard, 2005. The proposal provides a lawful assurance for 100 days
and goes by the name Zakumi. The leopard was chosen as of service in each fiscal year to mature members of every
the mascot for the 2010 World Cup since the same is rural family.
commonly found all over the country of South Africa. 196. (a) Agent Orange is one of the herbicides and defoliants
180. (c) Aggregate food availability globally was relatively good used by the U.S. military as part of its herbicidal warfare
in 2008 and 2009 but higher food prices and reduced programme, Operation Ranch Hand during the Vietnam
employment and incomes meant that the poor had less access War from 1961 to 1971. During the Vietnam War, between
to the food. According to the global hunger index the 1962 and 1971, the United States military sprayed nearly
countries of south Asia are found to have made better 20,000,000 U.S. gallons (75,700,000 L) of chemical herbicides
progress over the past two decades. India is all set to achieve and defoliants in Vietnam. The campaign destroyed 5
the millennium development goal. million acres (20,000 km2) of upland and mangrove forests
181. (d) Bangladesh, Pakistan, and India have consistently and millions of acres of crops.
occupied the top 3 places of top troop contributor lists for 197. (b) Those who are employed for long hours, at low pay and
almost a decade (United Nations, 2005-2013). in poor working conditions are called sweat labour. This can
182. (b) At the behest of the Chief of the Army Staff, a long- be common for workers in many poor countries.
term plan was evolved for development works in Nagaland 198. (c) The IAF has now deployed the Sukhoi-30MKIs at
and Manipur under Operation Good Samaritan. several of its bases in the eastern and the western regions
183. (b) The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) is of the country along the porous borders. The bases include
an Act of the Parliament of India which was passed on 11 Tezpur and Chabua in Assam along the borders with China,
September 1958. It is an Act to enable certain special powers Bareilly in Uttar Pradesh and Jodhpur in Rajasthan along
to be conferred upon members of the armed forces in with its major home base Pune in Maharashtra.
disturbed areas in the States of Assam , Manipur, 199. (b) Eco-Mark is an eco-labelling scheme which was
Meghalaya, Nagaland and Tripura and the Union Territories constituted by the Government of India in 1991 for easy
of Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram. It is not associated identification of environment-friendly products.
with operations against the Naxals. 200. (b) The Swiss federal government remains deeply
184. (a) Both statements are individually true and Statement divided over EU membership as its long-term goal, and in
ll is the correct explanation of Statement l a March 2001 referendum more than 70% of Swiss voters
185. (b) rejected rapid steps toward EU membership.
186. (b) The Empowered Group of Ministers recently cleared 201. (a) Evergreening is not a formal concept of patent law; it
the draft National Food Security Bill, 2011 which aims to is best understood as a social idea used to refer to the
cover 67.5 per cent of India's 120 crore people including myriad ways in which pharmaceutical patent owners use
three-fourth of the rural population and half the people in the law and related regulatory processes to extend their
urban areas. The Bill proposes free foodgrain for the very high rent-earning intellectual property rights particularly
vulnerable sections and foodgrain at subsidised rates for over highly profitable (either in total sales volume or price
households categorised as 'priority' and 'general' under per unit) "blockbuster" drugs. It is used by patent holders
the targeted public distribution system. to extend the life of their patent protection beyond that
187. (c) Indian Navy and Republic of Singapore Navy (RSN) available under TRIPS.
conducted annual bilateral naval exercises named 202. (b) Kiran MK 11: Aerobatic aircraft
SIMBEX. MI 35: Attack helicopter
188. (a) According to Goldman Sachs review of emerging Mirage 2000: Jet fighter aircraft
economies, by 2050 the largest economies in the world will 203. (c) The cloudburst is a localised weather phenomena
be as follows: China, USA, India, Brazil, and Mexico. representing highly concentrated rainfall over a small area
189. (d) lasting for few hours. This leads to flash floods/ landslides,
190. (a) Sagarika is a nuclear-capable submarine-launched house collapse, dislocation of traffic and human casualties
ballistic missile with a range of 750 kilometres. on large scale. They occur most often in desert,
191. (c) The Tejas is an Indian single-seat, single-jet engine, mountainous regions and interiors of continents.
LCA-multi-role light fighter developed by Hindustan 204. (d) The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act of 1958
Aeronautics Limited. (AFSPA) is an act to enable certain special powers to be
192. (d) Phalcon is an Airborne early warning and control conferred upon members of the armed forces in disturbed
(AEW&C) active electronically scanned array radar areas in the States of Assam , Manipur, Meghalaya,
system developed by Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI) Nagaland, Tripura and the Union Territories of Arunachal
and Elta Electronics Industries of Israel. Its primary Pradesh and Mizoram. The AFSPA gives the armed forces
objective is to provide intelligence to maintain air enormous powers to shoot, arrest and search in the name
superiority and conduct surveillance. It was induced in of aiding civil power. It was first applied to the north eastern
the Indian Air Force in 2009. states of Assam and Manipur.
Miscellaneous 307
205. (a) Government of India (GOI) has been promoting 213. (a) The second goal in the United Nations Millennium
sanitation coverage in a campaign mode to ensure better Development Goal ensures that, by 2015, children
health and quality of life for people in rural India. To add everywhere, boys and girls alike, will be able to complete a
vigour to its implementation, the government launched an full course of primary schooling.
award based Incentive Scheme for fully sanitized and open 214. (b) A job scheduler is a computer application for
defecation free Gram Panchayats, Blocks, Districts and States controlling unattended background program execution
called "Nirmal Gram Puraskar" (NGP) in October 2003 and (commonly called batch processing).
gave away the first awards in 2005 as a component of its 215. (a) Euthanasia is the practice of intentionally ending a
flagship scheme Total Sanitation Campaign (TSC). life in order to relieve pain and suffering. On 24 January
206. (d) 2011 the Supreme Court of India responded to the plea for
207. (b) A draft nuclear doctrine was prepared by the National euthanasia filed by Aruna's friend, journalist Pinki Virani,
Security Advisory Board chaired by the late K. by setting up a medical panel to examine her. The court
Subrahmanyam and handed over to the government on rejected the petition on 7 March 2011. However, in its
August 17, 1999. The salient features of the government landmark opinion, it allowed passive euthanasia in India.
statement included the following: India will build and 216. (b)
maintain a credible minimum deterrent; follow a no-first-use 217. (d) Right to Information conference passed a 12-point
posture; and will use nuclear weapons only "in retaliation resolution urging that the law's jurisdiction be expanded to
against a nuclear attack on Indian territory or on Indian cover Public-Private Partnership (PPP) entities, political
forces anywhere. parties, trade unions and nongovernmental organizations.
208. (c) CCTNS aims at creating a comprehensive and The "Shillong Declaration" was approved at the conclusion
integrated system for enhancing the efficiency and of a three day national RTI conference in Shillong, attended
effectiveness of policing through adopting of principle of by about 1,000 persons. The declarations also calls for
e-Governance and creation of a nationwide networking transparency in all religious and faith-based institutions
infrastructure for evolution of IT-enabled state-of-the-art about the use of public money for private purposes.
tracking system around 'Investigation of crime and 218. (b) The National Knowledge Commission is a high-level
detection of criminals'. The objectives of CCTNS are as advisory body to the Prime Minister of India with the
follows: objective of transforming India into a knowledge society. The
• Provide the Investigating Officers of the Civil Police National Knowledge Commission (NKC) was constituted on
with tools, technology and information to facilitate investigation 13th June 2005 with a time-frame of three years from 2nd October
of crime and detection of criminals. 2005 to 2nd October 2008.
• Facilitate Interaction and sharing of Information 219. (a) Dadasaheb Phalke Award is given to a film
among Police Stations, Districts, State/UT headquarters personality for his/her outstanding contribution to the
and other Police Agencies. growth and development of Indian Cinema. The award
209. (a) The first UN armed force was established to create a comprises a Swarna Kamal, a cash Prize of Rs. 10,00,000
buffer between Israeli and Egyptian forces in the Sinai. (Rupees Ten Lakhs) and a shawl. K. Balachander was given
The first all women contingent in peacekeeping mission, a the prize for the year of 2010. He made more than 100 films
formed Police Unit from India, was deployed in 2007 to the in various Indian languages through his production house,
UN Operation in Liberia. Kavithalayaa Productions which was established in 1981.
210. (d) Mandal Commission was set up in 1978 by Morarji 220. (b) Services(SSCB) won the maximum number of gold
Desai government to identify the socially or educationally medals (70) in the 34th National Games 2011 held in
backward classes to consider the question of seat Jharkhand.
reservations and quotas for people to redress caste 221. (a)
discrimination. It was chaired by B. P. Mandal. It 222. (d) India has launched the Global-India Network of
recommended 27% reservation quota for OBC. In 1990 V.P. Knowledge (Global-INK) which will tap the knowledge
Singh, the Prime Minister at the time announced the power of its Diaspora. Global-INK will enable Indian experts
implementation of the report of Mandal Commission which living abroad to contribute to the development of the
led to protests. Indian social sector and share innovative ideas for the
211. (c) Acculturation is a process in which members of one market. The network is a web-based next generation
cultural group adopt the beliefs and behaviours of another knowledge management, collaboration and business
group. Although acculturation is usually in the direction solution platform powered by Support Central. Overseas
of a minority group adopting habits and language patterns Indian Facilitation Centre (OIFC) has partnered with Tata
of the dominant group, it is the processes of change in Consultancy Services (TCS) to develop the Global-INK.
artifacts, customs and beliefs that result from the contact 223. (b) The military junta, headed by effective head of state
of two or more cultures. Mohamed Hussein Tantawi, announced on 13 February
212. (d) The enforcement of conformity by society upon its that the constitution would be suspended, both houses
members, either by law or by social pressure is called social of parliament dissolved and the military would rule for six
control. Formal type of social control is exercised by known months (until elections could be held).
and deliberate agencies of social control, such as law, 224. (b) Between 1945 and 2007, Nepalese bank notes were
punishment, army, constitution, courts, Police, family etc. issued with the portraits of four different kings. Starting in
Man is forced to accept these forms of social control. October 2007 the king's portrait was replaced by Mount
Generally these forms are exercised by secondary groups. Everest on all notes which have been issued since.
EBD_7341
308 Miscellaneous
225. (b) France and Britain pressed for agreement on a no- 234. (a) Dr. Baburam Bhattarai was the 35th Prime Minister of
flight zone, while Germany and Russia opposed the measure Nepal from August 2011 to March 2013. He was heading a
. The Libyan crisis dominated the first meeting of France's consensus government of all major parties of Nepal.
Group of Eight presidency but Germany and Russia 235. (d)
blocked flight restrictions sought also by Britain. On March 236. (a) NATO is an intergovernmental military alliance based
17 Security Council Resolution 1973 authorized the use of on the North Atlantic Treaty which was signed on 4 April
"all necessary measures "short of an invasion and 1949. The organization constitutes a system of collective
occupation of Libya" to protect civilians and civilian- defence whereby its member states agree to mutual defence
populated areas" - the first UN-sanctioned combat in response to an attack by any external party. NATO has
operations since the 1991 Gulf War. 28 members, mainly in Europe and North America. Greece
226. (b) The NCC in India was formed with the National Cadet and Turkey became members of the Alliance in 1990.
Corps Act of 1948. It was raised on 15 July 1948. The 237. (a) Ratan Tata has unveiled world's first gold jewellery car to
National Cadet Corps can be considered as a successor of mark the occasion of 5000 glorious years of jewellery making
the University Officers Training Corps (UOTC) which was tradition in India, from its Group company Titan Industries.
established by the British in 1942. The motto of NCC is 238. (a) South Sudan is one of the poorest countries in the
world. South Sudan is rich in agricultural land and has one
'Unity & Discipline' which was adopted on 23 Dec 1957.
of the largest populations of pastoralists in the world.
227. (b) Dame Elizabeth Rosemond "Liz" Taylor was a British-
South Sudan exports timber to the international market.
American actress. She won the Academy Award for Best
Some of the states with the best known teaks and natural
Actress for Butterfield 8 (1960), played the title role in
trees for timber are Western Equatoria and Central
Cleopatra (1963). For Who's Afraid of Virginia Woolf? (1966) Equatoria.
Taylor won a second Academy Award. From the mid-1980s, 239. (d) Operation Polo, the codename of the Hyderabad
Taylor championed HIV and AIDS programs; she co- "Police Action" was a military operation in September 1948
founded the American Foundation for AIDS Research in in which the Indian Armed Forces invaded the State of
1985, and The Elizabeth Taylor AIDS Foundation in 1991. Hyderabad and overthrew its Nizam annexing the state
228. (a) The Gravity Recovery and Interior Laboratory into the Indian Union.
(GRAIL) was an American lunar science mission in NASA's 240. (d) Argentina held national presidential and legislative
Discovery Program which used high-quality gravitational elections on 23 October 2011. Incumbent president Cristina
fieldmapping of the Moon to determine its interior structure. Fernandez de Kirchner secured a second term in office
229. (c) Himadri Station is India's first Arctic research station after the Front for Victory won just over half of the seats in
located at Spitsbergen, Svalbard, Norway. It was the National Congress. Fernandez has deepened the
inaugurated on the 1st of July, 2008 by the Minister of policies started in 2003 by her husband and predecessor
Earth Sciences. as president, Nestor Kirchner, whose death last year played
230. (a) The Sabin Award provides a unique opportunity to a key role in reversing her political fortunes.
acknowledge and celebrate some of the truly pioneering 241. (b) The 'Lockheed C-5 Galaxy' is a large military transport
work that is going on to understand and tackle the decline aircraft originally designed and built by Lockheed and now
and extinction of amphibians worldwide, and to get a sense maintained and upgraded by its successor Lockheed
of the true passion and commitment of the individuals Martin. The C-5 Galaxy has been operated by USAF since
responsible for saving species. The award of US$25,000 is 1969. In that time, it has been used to support US military
given to individuals from all disciplines relevant to amphibian operations in all major conflicts including Vietnam, Iraq,
conservation and research anywhere in the world. Yugoslavia and Afghanistan.
231. (c) Prahaar is a solid-fuel rocket surface-to-surface 242. (c) Bharathipura - U R Ananthamurthy
guided short-range tactical ballistic missile developed by A street in Srinagar- Chandrakanta
DRDO of India. China man- Shehan Karunatilaka
232. (c) The Indian Council of Medical Research the apex The story that must not be told- Kavery Nambisan
body in India for the formulation, coordination and 243. (c) Maharatna Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
promotion of biomedical research. In 1911, the Government received the prestigious Golden Peacock Environment
of India set up the Indian Research Fund Association Management Award for the year 2011. The award was
(IRFA) with the specific objective of sponsoring and presented to SAIL in recognition of its initiatives and
coordinating medical research in the country. After achievements in the field of environment management. SAIL
independence, several important changes were made in in the last four years succeeded in reducing particulate
the organisation and the activities of the IRFA. It was emissions by 52%, specific water consumption by 11% and
redesignated the Indian Council of Medical Research specific energy consumption by 5%, and increased solid
(ICMR) in 1949 with considerably expanded scope of waste utilization by 18%.
functions. 244. (a) The Kalinga Prize for the Popularization of Science is
233. (a) The BISIN could extend the food's life for several an award given by UNESCO for exceptional skill in
years and even works for opened bottles of wine and salad presenting scientific ideas to lay people. Yash Pal was the
dressing. BISIN occurs naturally in some types of harmless last recipient of this prize.
bacteria. It prevents the growth of lethal bacteria including 245. (d) The India-US Combined Military Training Exercise
E-coli, salmonella and listeria. The substance could extend Yudh Abhyas 2014 concluded at Ranikhet in Uttarakhand
the life of a variety of everyday foods which have strict on 30 September 2014. It was the tenth exercise in the
use-by dates including seafood, cheese and canned Yudh Abhyas series that started in 2004 under US Army
goods. Pacific partnership program.
Miscellaneous 309
246. (c) warfare unless first attacked by an adversary using nuclear
247. (d) Thein Sein was elected the president of Myanmar in 2011. weapons. China became the first nation to propose and
248. (b) China pledge NFU policy when it first gained nuclear capabilities
249. (a) Novak Djokovic won the Wimbledon 2011 men's in 1964, stating "not to be the first to use nuclear weapons
single title. He won over Rafael Nadal. at any time or under any circumstances. India is also
250. (a) The International Year of Chemistry 2011 (IYC 2011) articulated this policy since 2003.
was a year-long commemorative event for the 266. (b)
achievements of chemistry and its contribution to 267. (b) The famous Surajkund Crafts Mela has been
humankind. Events for the year were coordinated by IUPAC, upgraded as an international event and known as Surajkund
the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry International Crafts Mela since February 2013. The event
and by UNESCO. The theme of IYC2011 was "Chemistry- is held in Haryana's Faridabad district, 20 km from New
our life, our future." It focused on the achievements of Delhi. The decision to upgrade the fair as an international
chemistry and its contributions to the well-being of event was taken at a high-level meeting of the fair's
humankind. governing body chaired by Union Tourism Secretary R.H.
251. (b) SAGA-220 is a supercomputer built by the Indian Khwaja.
Space Research Organisation (ISRO). As of May 2011, it is 268. (c) Anna Hazare is an Indian social activist who led
the fastest supercomputer in the nation with a maximum movements to promote rural development, increase
theoretical speed of 220 TFlops. government transparency, and investigate and punish
252. (d) corruption in public life. Hazare also contributed to the
253. (d) Critics of cultural homogenization theory point out development and structuring of Ralegan Siddhi, a village
that as different cultures mix, homogenization is less about in Parner taluka of Ahmednagar district, Maharashtra. He
the spread of a single culture as about the mixture of was awarded the Padma Bhushan award in 1992 for his
different cultures, as people become aware of other efforts in establishing this village as a model for others.
cultures and adopt their elements. 269. (d) Theodore Roosevelt, Woodrow Wilson, Barack
254. (c) Rahul also writes for Wisden Cricketer's Almanack Obama and Jimmy Carter were the Noble Peace Prize
and the Guardian. recipient American Presidents.
255. (c) In the 2008 presidential election, Nasheed was elected 270. (b) Lawyer Nasrin and film director Jafar jointly awarded
as the candidate of the first opposition coalition defeating the prize.
President Maumoon Abdul Gayoom who had ruled the 271. (c)
Maldives as President for 30 continuous years. Nasheed 272. (a) Robert Lefkowitz and Brian Kobilka were chosen for
assumed office on 11 November 2008. Noble Prize 2012 for studies of G-protein-coupled receptors
256. (c) Amul Girl was created in the year 1967 by ASP. in chemistry.
257. (d) Farkhor Air Base is a military air base located near the 273. (b) Some atheists, sceptics, and others have referred to 25
town of Farkhor in Tajikistan. It is operated by the Indian December as Newtonmas, a tongue-in-cheek reference to the
Air Force in collaboration with the Tajikistan Air Force. major Christian cultural holiday of the same date. Celebrants
258. (a) INS Vikramaditya is an aircraft carrier. send cards with "Reason's Greetings!" printed inside, and
259. (b) The Mahakali Treaty, signed in February 1996 exchange boxes of apples and science-related items as gifts.
between India and Nepal, pertains to sharing water of a The celebration may have had its origin in a meeting of the
river by the same name. The Mahakali Treaty basically Newton Association at Christmas 1890 to talk, distribute gifts
aims at an integrated development of water resources in and share laughter and good cheer. The name Newtonmas
the Mahakali River and has been finalized on the basis of can be attributed to the Skeptics Society, which needed an
equal partnership. alternative name for its Christmas party. '25th December' is
260. (d) the birthday of Isaac Newton.
261. (c) Operation Meghdoot was the codename for the 274. (a) Amitabh Ghosh, Jeet Thayil and Uday Prakash were
Indian Armed Forces operation to capture the Siachen Glacier selected for the DSC Prize for South Asian Literature for
in the disputed Kashmir region, precipitating the Siachen year 2013.
Conflict. It was launched on 13 April 1984. This military 275. (b) Xi Jinping is the General Secretary of the Communist
operation was unique as the first assault launched in the Party of China, the President of the People's Republic of
world's highest battlefield. China, and the Chairman of the Central Military
262. (d) Shoorveer was the biggest Military exercise of Army`s Commission. He assumed office on 15 November 2012.
South-Western Command involving over 50,000 troops, 276. (b) It was suspected that Arafat have been poisoned
culminated today in Hanumangarh district and nearby areas with polonium.
in Rajasthan. It began on March 1, 2012 and the Army 277. (a) Book is editted by C. Murzello.
Chief General V K Singh reviewed and witnessed its final 278. (c) The Project has been conceptualized on the basis of
stages on May 2 and 3 in Hanumangarh. the 'National Policy and Action Plan for Implementation of
263. (a) In mixed doubles, Sania Mirza picked up her first Information and Communication Technology in the Indian
Grand Slam title at the 2009 Australian Open. Partnering Judiciary-2005 by the e-Committee of the Supreme Court of
with Mahesh Bhupathi, they beat Nathalie Dechy & Andy India.
Ram 6-3, 6-1 in the final. 279. (c) The Rohingya people are Indo-Aryan peoples from the
264. (d) Rakhine State, Burma, who speak the Rohingya language.
265. (b) No first use (NFU) refers to a pledge or a policy by a They are a distinct, Muslim ethnic group mainly living in
nuclear power not to use nuclear weapons as a means of Myanmar, also live in Bangladesh, Saudi Arabia and Pakistan.
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310 Miscellaneous
In Myanmar, they are subjected to forced labour, have no had committed to transfer to the poor ones between 2010 and
land rights, and are heavily restricted. 2012. The fund has largely been a green-wash - recycling and
280. (a) Blaze occurred at Tazreen fashions in Dhaka. renaming existing funding as 'climate funding' and giving loans
281. (c) Tunisia and Egypt are now in the process of instead of grants, the report said. Research by Oxfam now
democratic transition. The resignations of President Ben suggests the developed countries have deceived the world
Ali and President Mubarak have paved the way towards and largely given loans or recycled existing promises as part
democratic transition. of the ODA commitments as contribution to the fast-track
282. (a) Ramgopal Maheshwari was a freedom fighter and a funds.
social worker is also regarded as a doyen of Journalism in 295. (c) Measurements from the 1960s to the early 1990s, backed
India. He was a person who worked for promotion of up by a wide range of data and a number of independent
Hindi Language. During the Indian freedom struggle, he studies showed, there were substantial declines in the amount
took the responsibility to mobilize central India and started of the sun's energy reaching the Earth's surface. This
a Hindi daily newspaper namely 'Nava Bharat' in the year reduction is known as "global dimming". The gradual
1934 from Nagpur. reduction in the amount of global direct irradiance at the
283. (b) Earth's surface was observed for several decades after the
start of systematic measurements in the 1950s.
284. (b) In 2013, India was the fourth-largest consumer and net
296. (c) India's Look East policy represents its efforts to
importer of crude oil and petroleum products in the world
cultivate extensive economic and strategic relations with
after the United States, China, and Japan. India's dependence
the nations of Southeast Asia in order to bolster its
on imported fossil fuels rose to 38% in 2012, despite the
standing as a regional power and a counterweight to the
country having significant domestic fossil fuel resources. strategic influence of the People's Republic of China. It
To reduce fuel import bill, the government has recently was initiated in 1991.
made it mandatory for oil marketing companies to blend 5% 297. (c) 2013 Shahbag protests began on 5 February 2013
ethanol with petrol. and later spread to other parts of Bangladesh. The people
285. (a) demanded capital punishment for Abdul Quader Mollah,
286. (c) Grigori Yakovlevich Perelman is a Russian who had been sentenced to life imprisonment, and for
mathematician who made landmark contributions to others convicted of war crimes by the International Crimes
Riemannian geometry and geometric topology before Tribunal.
apparently withdrawing from mathematics. 298. (c)
287. (d) 299. (c) Thomas Cup is associated with Badminton.
288. (a) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf was chosen for the Indira 300. (b) The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India's highest award
Gandhi Prize for peace, disarmament and development in cinema. Pran won the prize in 2012.
2012. She is the 24th and current President of Liberia. Sirleaf 301. (c) Australia won the tournament for the sixth time,
was also awarded the 2011 Nobel Peace Prize, jointly with beating West Indies by 114 runs in the final.
Leymah Gbowee of Liberia and Tawakel Karman of Yemen. 302. (b) On earlier occasions he received in the Best World
289. (a) July 12 was declared Malala Day by United Nations. Music Album category.
290. (a) The Western Ghats, older than the Himalayas, and 303. (c) Sir Robert Geoffrey Edwards was an English
described as one of the world's eight 'hottest hotspots' of physiologist and pioneer in reproductive medicine and in-
biological diversity were inscribed in the UNESCO World vitro fertilisation (IVF) in particular. Edwards successfully
Natural Heritage sites list in July 2012. Western Ghats are pioneered conception through IVF, which led to the birth of
a chain of mountains running parallel to India's western Louise Brown on 25 July1978.
coast, approximately 30-50 km inland, the Ghats traverse 304. (a) The movie also revolves around Master Surya Sen
the States of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, and his other associates.
Maharashtra and Gujarat. These mountains cover an area 305. (a) This is Nadal's 8th French open Men's single title.
of around 140,000 km in a 1,600 km long stretch that is 306. (d) He received the award alongwith 2 other scientists
interrupted only by the 30 km Palghat Gap at around 11°N. 307. (b) Mauritius and India have signed a MoU to cooperate
A significant characteristic of the Western Ghats is the in the field of Election Management and Administration
exceptionally high level of biological diversity and on 12 April 2013.
endemism. 308. (a) A major decision taken at the fifth BRICS summit held
291. (a) The G20 is a bloc of developing nations. It was recently was to establish a new development bank.
established on 20 August 2003. 309. (a) The Nitaqat law makes it mandatory for local
292. (c) The National Ambient Air Quality Standards companies to hire 10% jobs for saudi nationals. There has
been widespread perception that the policy would lead to
(NAAQS) are standards established by the United States
denial of job opportunities for a large number of Indians
Environmental Protection Agency under authority of the
working there. The Nitaqat (naturalisation) law, reserves
Clean Air Act that apply for outdoor air throughout the
10 per cent private jobs for the locals.
country. EPA has set National Ambient Air Quality 310. (b)
Standards for six principal pollutants, which are called
311. (d) Satish Chandra Mukherjee was known for
"criteria" pollutants. These are Carbon Monoxide, Lead,
establishing a system of national education in India, along
Nitrogen Dioxide, Particle Pollution and Sulphur Dioxide.
with Sri Aurobindo.
293. (d) Biography was released in 2002.
312. (a) The Pulitzer Prize for fiction was given to Adam
294. (a) A report released on the eve of climate change talks
Johnson for his work 'The orphan Master's Son'.
in Doha has suggested that rich countries have largely
cheated the developing nations of the $30 billion funds they
Miscellaneous 311
313. (b) V S Ramadevi was the first and only woman to become 334. (c) Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry on 27 June
Chief Election Commissioner of India. 2014 upgraded the National Industrial Classification 1987
314. (d) Sahir Ludhianvi was a popular Urdu poet who wrote (NIC-1987) to National Industrial Classification-2008 (NIC-
for Hindi films. 2008). It is an essential statistical standard for developing
315. (b) The book 'Silent Spring' deals with protection of the and maintaining comparable data base according to
environment. economic activities.
316. (b) Recently UNESCO suspended voting rights of USA 335. (b) Manipur on 12 May, 2014 won the 20th Senior
and Israel. Both the countries not paid their dues in protest National Women's Football Championships title at the
over to make palestine a UNESCO member. Golaghat Stadium in Assam. It defeated Odisha.
317. (b) It spreads over Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, 336. (a) Novak Djokovic is a Serbian professional tennis player.
Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. 337. (b) Marrakesh Treaty was signed to Facilitate Access to
318. (b) Doris May Lessing was a British novelist, poet, Published Works by Visually Impaired Persons and Persons
playwright, librettist, biographer and short story writer. with Print Disabilities. It was signed on 28 June, 2013. India
Her novels include The Grass is Singing (1950), The Golden ratified the treaty on 24 July, 2014 and was the first country
Notebook (1962), The Good Terrorist, and Canopus in to do so. It came into force from September, 2016.
Argos. Lessing was awarded the 2007 Nobel Prize in 338. (a) Britain on 10 June, 2014 published the world's first
Literature. Modern Slavery Bill. The Bill is first of its kind in Europe
319. (d) All statements are correct. and one of its first in the world. It for the first time
320. (d) Rachel Carson's book 'Silent Spring' refers to the specifically addressed slavery and trafficking in the 21st
death of song birds due to eating insects poisoned with century. The Bill will increase the maximum sentence
pesticides. available for the most serious offenders from 14 years to
321. (c) At this meeting, Australia took over as Chair of the life imprisonment.
Association from India which had been Chair since 2011. 339. (b) Project 'Mausam' is a Ministry of Culture project to
322. (b) Dhruv was commissioned by Indian Navy at kochi in be implemented by Indira Gandhi National Centre for the
November 2013. Arts (IGNCA), New Delhi as the nodal coordinating agency
323. (a) Martha Dodray worked in the field of polio with support of Archaeological Survey of India and National
eradication. Museum as associate bodies.
324. (b) Internal security Academy is located at Mount Abu. The endeavour of Project 'Mausam'is to position itself
325. (a) Heena Sindhu is associated with shooting. at two levels:
326. (a) "Hegemony is about the capacity to 'manufacture • At the macro level, it aims to re-connect and re-
consent'. Here, hegemony implies class ascendancy in the establish communications between countries of the Indian
social, political and particularly ideological….." this Ocean world, which would lead to an enhanced
substantiates the first point. understanding of cultural values and concerns;
"this notion of hegemony suggests that a dominant • At the micro level, the focus is on understanding
power deploys not only military power but also ideological national cultures in their regional maritime milieu.
resources to shape the behaviour of competing and lesser 340. (c) The Star Alliance is the world's largest global airline
powers spheres……". This substantiates the second point. alliance, headquartered in Frankfurt, Germany. It was
327. (b) Hobbes- Might is Right founded on May 14, 1997.Air India has joined on 11 July
Rousseau- Discourse on Inequality 2014.
Locke- Natural Law 341. (a) In June 2014, the Great Himalayan National Park was
Adam Smith- The wealth of Nations added to the UNESCO list ofWorld Heritage Sites.The
328. (d) The theme of World Environment Day 2014 is"Small UNESCO World Heritage Site Committee granted the status
Islands and Climate Change". to the park under the criteria of “exceptional natural beauty
329. (c) The Union Government on 24 June 2014 granted and conservation of biological diversity”. It is located in
Navratna status to Engineers India Ltd (EIL) and National Kullu region in the state of Himachal Pradesh.
Buildings Construction Corporation (NBCC). 342. (c) The World Vitiligo Day is observed on June 25 every
330. (c) Mexico, Italy, France, Germany and Brazil have hosted year. It is an initiative aimed to build global awareness
the event on two occasions. Mexico City's Estadio Azteca about vitiligo(skin disease). The idea of a World Vitiligo
and Rio de Janeiro's Maracanã are the only venues ever to Day was first nursed by Steve Haragadon.
have hosted two FIFA World Cup finals. 343. (b) Rani ki Vav stepwell is situated in the town of Patan
331. (d) The fifth edition of the Indo-French air exercise in Gujarat. It was added to the list of UNESCO's World
"Garuda" took place from 2nd to 13th June 2014 at Air Heritage Sites on 22 June 2014. It was constructed during
Force Station Jodhpur. the rule of the Solanki dynasty.
332. (c) The objective of the URWSSP is to improve effectiveness 344. (b) Indian Air Force on 18 September 2014 gifted a vintage
of rural water supply and sanitation (RWSS) services through Dakota aircraft from its museum to Bangladesh Air Force.
decentralization and restore service of damaged schemes in The Dakota aircraft played a crucial role in liberation of
the disaster affected areas of Uttarakhand. Bangladesh and formation of Bangladesh Air Force. The
333. (a) India and Sri Lanka have recently concluded the Dakota aircraft was given on a formal request from
India-Sri Lanka free trade accord.India has emerged as Sri Bangladesh Air Force to review and revive the historic ties
Lanka's biggest importing source nation ahead of China between the two countries.
and Singapore. India accounted for 18 per cent of Sri
Lanka's total imports.
EBD_7341
312 Miscellaneous
345. (a) On 15th September 2014, Government of India 356. (b) Externality is a result of an economic activity which
approved launching of National Ayush Mission (NAM) is realised by third one. It may be of two types - negative
to address gaps in health services in vulnerable and far- and positive. Pollution caused by a factory is negative
flung areas of the country. Department of Indian Systems one and increase in land price of a plot due to construction
of Medicine and Homoeopathy (ISM&H) was created in of a road.
March 1995 and renamed as Department of Ayurveda, Yoga 357. (d) Jupiter orbiter satellite is not currently operational
& Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy (Ayush) Indian satellite. The exploration of Jupiter is being done by
in November 2003 with a view to providing focused NASA (National Aeronautics and Space Administration).
attention to Development of Education and Research in 358. (b) One of the monitorable targets was to increase the
these systems of medicine. girl’s enrolment in secondary education from 76% in 2013-
346. (c) Delhi Resolution unanimously resolved- 14 to 79% by 2017.
• to declare 2016-17 as the SAARC Year of Cultural 359. (a) The objective of Rashtriya Uchchattar Shiksha
Heritage. Abhiyan (RUSA) is to improve the quality of existing state
• that Bamiyan will be the SAARC cultural capital and institutions by ensuring the prescription norms and
the inauguration ceremony of Bamiyan as SAARC cultural standards and adopt a mandatory quality assurance frame
capital will take place in April 2015. work.
• to promote SAARC culture online by launching a 360. (b) The Erawan shrine, built in 1956 is situated in Bangkok
dedicated SAARC website on culture, with emphasis on (Thailand). An explosion took place here on 17 August
digitization of rare manuscripts, rare books and other 2015 killing 27 people and 120 men got injured.
articles of intangible cultural value. 361. (b) Saina Nehwal became the first Indian women's player
347. (a) NBA(Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan) has been restructured to be World No. 1 in Badminton. She is presently ranked
into the Swachh Bharat Mission with two sub-Missions - two in the world.
Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) and Swachh Bharat 362. (c) The Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual
Mission (Urban). milestone published by the Human Development Report
348. (a) 'Yudh Abhyas 2014' was a fourteen day-long Indo-US office of the United Nations Development Programme
military exercise held in Uttarakhand to strengthen and broaden (UNDP)
inter-operability and cooperation between the two armies. 363. (c) Leander Paes and Martina Hingis win US open Mixed
349. (c) The first Renewable Energy Global Investors Meet & Doubles Tennis Title in year 2015.
Expo, also called RE-Invest 2015, was held in New Delhi 364. (c) Sir Fazle Hasan Abed, the founding chairman of a
from 15 February 2015 to 17 February 2015. The meet was leading rural development and anti-poverty organisation,
organised by the Union Ministry of New and Renewable based in Bangladesh has won the 2015 World Food Prize.
Energy as a follow-up to the Make in India initiative of the 365. (c) The Parliamentary election was held on 17 August
Prime Minister. 2015 in Sri Lanka.
350. (a) Living Planet Index (LPI), which measures more than 366. (b) On June 30, 2015 Greece became the first developed
10,000 representative populations of mammals, birds, country to fail to make an IMF Loan repayment.
reptiles, amphibians and fish, has declined by 52 per cent 367. (b) Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest record of
since 1970. The most dramatic regional LPI decrease population density having just 17 per square kilometre.
occurred in South America followed closely by the Asia- Mizoram has 52, Sikkim has 86 and Himachal Pradesh has
Pacific region. population density 123 per square kilometer.
351. (b) Central Zone won the tournament after beating South 368. (a) Growth of population from 1991-2001 is 11.7% in
Zone by 9 runs in the final at Delhi. Tamil Nadu,9.4% in Kerla, 15.2% in Goa and 14.6% in
352. (c) Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs on 28 October 2014 Andhra Pradesh where Growth of Population from 2001-
launched Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana (VKY) for welfare of 2011 in Tamil Nadu is 15.6%,in Kerala is 4.9%, in Goa is
Tribal people and particularly to lift human development 8.2% and in Andhra Pradesh is 11.1%. So Tamil Nadu is
indices of tribal people. Under the scheme, Union state where Population growth increase from 1991-2001
Government will provide 10 crore rupee for each block of to 2001-2011.
the states for the development of various facilities for the 369. (a) UP has the largest concentration of the total SC
Tribal people. These blocks have been selected on the population. Punjab has the largest share of dalits in its
population at 31.9%. Himachal Pradesh and West Bengal
recommendations of the concerned States and have very
follow Punjab with 25.2% and 23.5%.
low literacy rate. The scheme was launched on pilot basis.
370. (a) India-U.S 2+2 Ministerial dialogue was held between
353. (a) In June 2014, China invited India to participate in the
Minister of External Affairs Smt Sushma Swaraj and
founding of the bank. On October 24, 2014, a signing ceremony
Minister of Defence Smt Nirmala Sitharaman and Secretary
held in Beijing formally recognized the establishment of the of State Michael R. Pompeo and Secretary of Defense
bank. Twentyone countries signed the Memorandum of James N. Mattis on September 6, 2018.
Understanding (MoU).India is one of them. The bank is 371. (b) The Union Government has formed Defence
headquartered in Beijing, China. Planning Committee (DPC), a new integrated institutional
354. (b) Construction falls in infrastructure sector . Infra mechanism that will drive country’s military and security
structure sector includes–roads, railways ports, airports, strategy and guide defence equipment acquisitions. It
electricity, telecommunications, irrigation and pipelines etc. will be under the chairmanship of National Security
355. (b) Solar energy, water and fisheries come in the category Advisor Ajit Doval.
of renewable resource and coal, crude oil and natural gases
are non-renewable one.
Miscellaneous 313
372. (c) Tejas is an Indian single-seat, single-jet engine, 383. (b) The elected members of the District Council shall
multirole light fighter designed by the Aeronautical hold office for a term of five years from the date appointed
Development Agency (ADA) and Hindustan Aeronautics for the first meeting of the Council after the general
Limited (HAL) for the Indian Air Force and Indian Navy. elections to the Council, unless the District Council is
373. (a) The policy on strategic partnerships in defence was sooner dissolved under paragraph 16 and a nominated
approved by the Ministry of Defence in May 2017. The member shall hold office at the pleasure of the Governor.
following four segments have been identified for 384. (c) A right to property is recognised in Article 17 of the
acquisition under Strategic Partnership (SP) route: Fighter Universal Declaration of Human Rights, but it is not
Aircraft, Helicopters Submarines Armoured Fighting recognised in the International Covenant on Civil and
Vehicles (AFVs) / Main Battle Tanks (MBTs) Political Rights or the International Covenant on
374. (b) The Countering America’s Adversaries Through Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.
Sanctions Act, CAATSA is a United States federal law 385. (b) Neeraj Chopra (born 24 December 1997) is an Indian
that imposed sanctions on Iran, North Korea, and Russia. track and field athlete, who competes in the javelin throw.
375. (c) The Centre has embarked on re-writing the decades- He represented India at the 2018 Asian Games where he
old Income Tax Act, 1961. During the Rajaswa Gyan won a gold medal, setting the national record of 88.06 m,
Sangam held in September this year, Prime Minister and at the 2018 Commonwealth Games where he also
Narendra Modi had observed that the Income Tax Act,
clinched the gold medal.
1961 was drafted more than 50 years ago and needs to be
386. (b) SWAYAM MOOCs platform is World’s Largest
re-drafted. The convenor of the eight member committee
Online Free E-Learning Platform Portal designed to achieve
will be Arbind Modi, Member, Central Board of Direct
taxes (CBDT). the three cardinal principles of Education Policy viz.,
376. (a) Percentage increase in Minimum Support Price for Access, Equity and Quality by covering School/
Jowar(Hybrid) is 42.94%, Bajra (36.84%), Maize(19.30%), Vocational, Under-Graduate, Post Graduate, Engineering
Soya bean(11.94%) . and Other Professional Courses.
377. (c) Defexpo India 2018, the tenth in the series of biennial 387. (b, c) Twelve cities namely Amaravati (Andhra Pradesh),
Land, Naval and Internal Homeland Security Systems Gaya(Bihar), Dwaraka(Gujarat), Amritsar(Punjab),
Exhibition, was held at Arulmigu Nithyakalyana Perumal Ajmer(Rajasthan), Kanchipuram(Tamil Nadu),
Temple, Thiruvidanthai, Thiruporur Taluk, Kancheepuram, Vellankani(Tamil Nadu), Puri(Odisha), Varanasi(Uttar
East Coast Road, Chennai, Tamil Nadu, India from 11th to Prasesh), Mathura(Uttar Pradesh), Kedarnath
14th April 2018. (Uttarakhand) and Kamakhya (Assam) have been
378. (d) The government has announced setting up two identified for development under Pilgrimage Rejuvenation
defence industrial corridors in the country to promote and Spirituality Augmentation Drive (PRASAD) by the
domestic production in both public and private sectors Ministry of Tourism.
and boost investments in the production of defence 388. (a) Rahul Dravid, the former wall of Indian cricket is the
armaments. The first of the two has been proposed to be latest Indian player who is included in the list of ICC hall
set up between Chennai and Bengaluru- connecting of fame in 2018 along with Former Australian captain Ricky
Kattupalli port, Chennai, Tiruchi, Coimbatore and Hosur. Ponting and retired England woman wicketkeeper-batter
The second has been proposed to be set up in Claire Taylor.
Bundelkhand region of Uttar Pradesh. 389. (b) The Central Water Commission (CWC) has entered
379. (a) INS Vikrant is the first aircraft carrier built in India into an agreement with Google to improve flood forecast
and the first Vikrant-class aircraft carrier built by Cochin systems and disseminate flood-related information by
Shipyard in Kochi, Kerala for the Indian Navy. The motto using technology developed by the tech giant.
of the ship is Jayema Sam Yudhi Sprdhah, which is taken 390. (d) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP)
from Rigveda 1.8.3 and can be translated as “I defeat those under Ministry of Commerce and Industry has unveiled
who fight against me”. tricolour logo for geographical indication (GI) certified
380. (b) The Dhanush is a 155 mm towed howitzer used by products. The logo has tagline “Invaluable Treasures of
the Indian Army. The design is based on the Bofors Incredible India” printed below it.
Haubits FH77 which India acquired in the 1980s. It has 391. (d) Hindu Sabha’s delegates founded the All-India
been developed by Ordnance Factory Board (OFB), Hindu Sabha which was responsible for starting the
Kolkata based on requirements of Indian Army and Kumbh Mela 1915.
manufactured by Jabalpur-based Gun Carriage Factory. 392. (b) The Inter-State Council is a non-permanent
381. (d) The mascot for the Olympics is named Miraitowa, constitutional body set up by a presidential order on the
and the Paralympic mascot is Someity. Miraitowa is a basis of provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of
combination of the Japanese words for future and eternity; India. The body was formed by a Presidential Order dated
Someity comes from a popular cherry blossom variety 28 May 1990 on recommendation of Sarkaria Commission.
“Someiyoshino” and echoes the English phrase “so Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 by the central
mighty.” government of India.
382. (a) The Indian Railways launched ‘Mission 393. (c) Paul Allen was the co-founder of Microsoft with Bill
Satyanishtha’ and a programme on Ethics in Public Gates in 1975.
Governance, in a first-of-its-kind event, at a day-long 394. (d) The Election Commission launched a mobile app,
function held at National Rail Museum, New Delhi on called 'Cvigil,' on July 3, 2018, for citizens to report any
July 27, 2018. violation of the model code of conduct during elections.
EBD_7341
314 Miscellaneous
395. (b) Prahaar is a solid-fuelled surface-to-surface short- 407. (d)

range tactical ballistic missile. It has been indigenously 408. (a) Cartagena is a port city on Colombia's Caribbean coast.
developed by DRDO. 409. (c) Among the following states, Meghalaya is the most
396. (b) The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in Sports and populated state in India as per census 2011.
Games is the highest sporting honour of the Republic of 410. (b) Mumbai-Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai
India. It was started in 1991-92. The winner of this award 411. (b) The headquarters of Coal India Limited is located at
gets 7.5 lac rupees. Winners of 2018 Rajiv Gandhi Khel ranchi, Jharkhand.
Ratna Award are Mirabai Chanu and Virat Kohli. 412. (c) Jawahar Lal Nehru declared Afro-Asian solidarity as
397. (b) Gobind Behari Lal: He won the Pulitzer in 1937 in the a central element of India's foreign policy in Bandung
journalism category. He shared the prize with four other Conference.
reporters for covering science at the Harvard University. 413. (c) The surgical strike mission in 2016 inside Pakistan
398. (b) Saurabh Chaudhary is an Indian sport shooter. He Occupied Kashmir was not given any name.
won the Gold medal at the 2018 Asian Games in 10 m Air 414. (d) The NGT is not bound by the procedure laid down
Pistol. He became the youngest Indian gold medallist at under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided
the Asian Games. by principles of natural justice.
399. (a) A situation starting in 2008 affecting the mortgage 415. (c) India was elected to the United Nations' top human
industry due to borrowers being approved for loans they rights body on Friday for a period of three years beginning
could not afford. As a result, a significant rise in foreclosures January 1, 2019, getting 188 votes in the Asia-Pacific
led to the collapse of many lending institutions and hedge category, the highest number of votes among all
funds. The financial crisis in the mortgage industry also candidates.
affected the global credit market resulting in higher interest 416. (c) A Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) has been
rates and reduced availability of credit. This is known as established on the 1st of De-cember 2008 comprising all
Subprime crisis. the pharma CPSUs under the Department of
400. (a) The Kansas-Nebraska Act was passed by the U.S. Pharmaceuticals. The Bureau has been registered as an
Congress on May 30, 1854. It allowed people in the inde-pendent society under the Societies Registration Act,
territories of Kansas and Nebraska to decide for them 1860 as a separate legal entity in April, 2010.
whether or not to allow slavery within their borders. The 417. (b) Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY) is a
Act served to repeal the Missouri Compromise of 1820 Pension Scheme an-nounced by the Government of India
which prohibited slavery north of latitude 36°30´. exclusively for the senior citizens aged 60 years and above
401. (a) The 123 Agreement signed between the United States which is available from 4th May, 2017 to 31st March, 2020.
of America and the Republic of India is known as the U.S.- 418. (c) Jeremy Lalrinnunga is an Indian weightlifter from
India Civil Nuclear Agreement or Indo-US nuclear deal. Aizawl, Mizoram who represented India in the 2018 Summer
India was given advance rights to reprocess US origin Youth Olympics in Bu-enos Aires. He won the gold medal
safeguarded spent fuel. in the Boys' 62kg category weightlifting with a lift of 274kg.
402. (d) United Nations multidimensional peace keeping It was India's first gold medal in the Youth Olympics Games.
operations work with the principle of impartiality and hence 419. (d) In order to encourage work of excellence in taxonomy
cannot extend support blindly to any state in a war. and also to encourage young students and scholars to
403. (c) The South China Sea disputes involve both island work in this science, the Ministry of Environment, Forests
and maritime claims among several sovereign states within and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has instituted a National
the region, namely Brunei, the People's Republic of China Award in Taxonomy named after the late Prof. E.K. Janaki
(PRC), Republic of China (Taiwan), Malaysia, the Ammal.
Philippines, and Vietnam. Although Indonesia is not part 420. (c) The Army Air Defence College is the training academy
of claims in the South China Sea dispute, after Joko Widodo for the Army Air Defence Corps of Indian Army. The college
became President of the country in 2014, he instituted a is located in the Gopalpur, Odisha.
policy in 2015 that, if any foreign fishermen were caught 421. (a) The Canine Distemper Virus (CDV) that killed 23 lions
illegally fishing in Indonesian waters, their vessels would in Gir, Gujarat belongs to one of the groups of viruses
be destroyed. called the morbillivirus. This virus group has some of the
404. (b) The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty which deadliest pathogens.
extends the 1992 United Nations Framework Convention 422. (b) After Uruguay, Canada became the second country
on Climate Change (UNFCCC) that commits state parties to have legalized the pos-session and use of recreational
to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the scientific cannabis.
consensus that (part one) global warming is occurring. 423. (b) Pre-existing diseases are covered from the day the
405. (b) The 1995 Fourth World Conference on Women in policy is issued to the indi-vidual in Pradhan Mantri Jan
Beijing marked a significant turning point for the global Arogya Yojana.
agenda for gender equality. The Beijing Declaration and 424. (c) Russia, India, China and South Africa extend full
the Platform for Action, adopted unanimously by 189 support to Brazil for its BRICS Chairmanship in 2019 and
countries, is an agenda for women's empowerment and the hosting of the 11th BRICS Summit.
considered the key global policy document on gender 425. (a) SWAYAM is a Hindi acronym that stands for “Study
equality. Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds” is an
406. (a) The Gujral Doctrine is a set of five principles to guide Indian Massive open online course (MOOC) platform.
the conduct of foreign relations with India's immediate SWAYAM is an initiative launched by the Ministry of
neighbours, notably Pakistan, as spelt out by I K Gujral. Human Resource Development, Government of India under
Miscellaneous 315
Digital India to give a coordinated stage and free entry to billion as of 2015 with 53 countries being Muslim-majority
web courses, covering all advanced education, High School countries. The organisation states that it is “the collective
and skill sector courses. It was launched on 9th July 2017 voice of the Muslim world” and works to “safeguard and
by Honorable President of India. protect the interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of
426. (a) In 1941, Burnham wrote a book analyzing the promoting international peace and harmony”.[1]
development of economics and society as he saw it, called The OIC has permanent delegations to the United
The Managerial Revolution: What is happening in the World. Nations and the European Union. The official languages
Burnham’s seminal work, The Managerial Revolution (1941), of the OIC are Arabic, English, and French.
theorized about the future of world capitalism based upon 435. (a) 2019 Italian Open – Women’s Singles. Elina Svitolina
its development in the interwar period. Burnham weighed was the two-time defending champion, but lost in the
three possibilities: (1) that capitalism was a permanent form second round to Victoria Azarenka. Karolína Plíšková won
of social and economic organization and would continue the title, defeating Johanna Konta in the final, 6–3, 6–4.
indefinitely; (2) that it was temporary and destined by its 436. (b) In addition to IN ships Kolkata and Shakti, long range
nature to collapse and be replaced by socialism; (3) that it maritime patrol aircraft Poseidon-8I (P8I) was participated
was currently being transformed into some non-socialist in simbex-19. The Singapore side was represented by RSN
future form of society.[21] Since capitalism had a more or ships Steadfast and Valiant, maritime patrol aircraft Fokker-
less definite beginning in the 14th century, it could not be 50 (F-50) and F-16 fighter aircraft.
regarded as an immutable and permanent form. 437. (d) BWF(Badminton) has also launched a new format, called
427. (a) The National Cadet Corps is the youth wing of Armed Triples, where it’s match between a team of three players
Forces with its Headquarters at New Delhi, Delhi, India. It each with presence of, at least one female. The players are
is open to school and college students on voluntary basis. not allowed to hit successive returns.
National Cadet Corps is a Tri-Services Organisation, 438. (a) The United Nations Sasakawa Award is the most
comprising the Army, Navy and Air Wing, engaged in prestigious international award in the area of Disaster Risk
grooming the youth of the country into disciplined and Management. It was instituted more than 30 years ago and
patriotic citizens. is jointly organized by the UNDRR and the Nippon
428. (a) India is a signatory to the United Nations Convention Foundation. A total grant of USD 50,000 is distributed
for Combating Desertification (UNCCD). The Ministry of among the winners which can be either organizations or
Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is the individuals.
nodal Ministry of Government of India (GoI) that oversees 439. (b) Former Indian cricketer GS Lakshmi is become the first
implementation of the Convention in the country. woman match referee to oversee a men’s ODI when she
429. (d) SAARC- South Asian Association for Regional officiates the opening match of the third series of the World
Cooperation (SAARC) was established with the signing of Cup League 2 in the United Arab Emirates.
the SAARC Charter in Dhaka on 8 December 1985. SAARC 440. (a) Joko Widodo (born Mulyono 21 June 1961), also
comprises of eight Member States: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, known as Jokowi, is an Indonesian politician who is the
Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. 7th and current president of Indonesia. Elected in July 2014
430. (b) The five founding members of the Bank include Brazil, as the first president not to come from an elite political or
Russia, India, China and South Africa. Bank’s Articles of military background, he was previously the Mayor of
Agreement specify that all members of the United Nations Surakarta from 2005 to 2012, and the Governor of Jakarta
could be members of the bank, however the share of the from 2012 to 2014. He was named president-elect on 22 July
BRICS nations can never be less than 55% of voting power. 2014.
431. (c) The Public Financial Management System (PFMS), 441. (a) The MGNREGA was initiated with the objective of
earlier known as Central Plan Schemes Monitoring System “enhancing livelihood security in rural areas by providing
(CPSMS), is a web-based online software application at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a
developed and implemented by the Office of Controller financial year, to every household whose adult members
General of Accounts (CGA).
volunteer to do unskilled manual work”.
432. (c) The National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL) is a 442. (b) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yajana) is a nationwide
premier analytical testing & research organization plan in India to provide good all-weather road connectivity
established as autonomous body under Ministry of Youth to unconnected villages. This Centrally Sponsored Scheme
Affairs and Sports, Government of India. It is the only was introduced in 2000 by the then-prime minister of India
laboratory in the country responsible for human sports Late Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
dope testing. It has significantly diversified its activities Union Government on 25 September 2014 launched
and roles by setting up unique dope testing facility and Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Antyodaya Yojana for urban and
proficiency testing provider scheme for forensic and rural poor.
analytical drug testing laboratories. Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana is a rural development
433. (b) The 2019 Indian general election was held in seven programme broadly focusing upon the development in
phases from 11 April to 19 May 2019 to constitute the 17th the villages which includes social development, cultural
Lok Sabha. The votes were counted and the result declared development and spread motivation among the people on
on 23 May. About 911 million people were eligible to vote, social mobilization of the village community. The programme
and voter turnout was over 67 per cent – the highest ever, was launched by the Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi
as well as the highest ever participation by women voters. on the birth anniversary of Jayaprakash Narayan, on 11
434. (c) The Organisation of Islamic Cooperation is an October 2014.
international organization founded in 1969, consisting of DDU-GKY was launched on 25 September 2014 by
57 member states, with a collective population of over 1.8 Union Ministers Nitin Gadkari and Venkaiah Naidu on the
EBD_7341
316 Miscellaneous
occasion of 98th birth anniversary of Pandit Deendayal 450. (c) Hunter Education Commission was a landmark
Upadhyaya.[3] The Vision of DDU-GKY is to “Transform commission appointed by Viceroy Lord Ripon with
rural poor youth into an economically independent and objectives to look into the complaints of the non-
globally relevant workforce”. implementation of the Wood’s Despatch of 1854; the
443. (a) The Convention aims to protect human health and contemporary status of elementary education.
the environment against the adverse effects resulting from 451. (b) Election commission was established on 25 January
the generation, transboundary movements and 1950. Planning commission was established on 15 March
management of hazardous wastes and other wastes. ... The 1950. Finance commission was established on 22
Convention covers toxic, poisonous, explosive, corrosive, November 1951 and Investment commission was
flammable, ecotoxic and infectious wastes. established in December 2004. Thus option “b” is the
444. (c) The 2019 FIFA FIFPro Men’s and Women’s Players correct sequence of formation of the commissions starting
of the Year were announced at a gala celebration held at from the earliest.
the Teatro all Scala in Milan on Monday evening. Lionel 452. (c) Patents, designs, trademarks and geographical
Messi beat off competition from Juventus’ Cristiano indications are administered by the Controller General of
Ronaldo and Liverpool’s Virgil van Dijk to take the Men’s Patents, Designs and Trademarks which is under the
award. control of the Department of Industrial Policy and
445. (a) Thunberg was born on January 3, 2003, in Stockholm,
Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Sweden. Thunberg began her climate activism at age 15.
Intellectual Property, Inventions and Innovations.The
.She is known for her work against climate change, a
grant of a property right by the government, albeit
popular example of youth activism. She started protesting
on 20 August 2018, outside of the Swedish parliament in generally for a limited period of time, over useful intangible
Stockholm. intellectual output provides the owner of such legal
446. (b) This award is given annually at the National Films property rights the right to exclude all others from
Awards. The very first recipient of this award was Devika commercially benefiting from it.
Rani who received it in 1969 on the occasion of the 17th 453. (c) The National Health Policy (NHP) 2017 has strongly
National Films Awards. Dadasaheb Phalke is known as advocated mainstreaming the potential of AYUSH within
the ‘Father of Indian Cinema’. a pluralistic system of Integrative healthcare. The NHP
447. (d) Panchatantra is a text showing through illustration 2017 uses a new language of ‘medical pluralism’ and re-
what should and should not be done. According to Indian emphasizes the need for integrating AYUSH in the
tradition, it was written around 300 BCE by Pandit Vishnu National Health Mission, research and education. The
Sarma, a sage. However, based as it is on older oral Honorable Prime Minister’s vision for ‘New India’
traditions, its antecedents among storytellers probably endeavoring to empower youth, women and poor is indeed
hark back to the origins of language. One of the most laudable. The ‘New India’ also needs to be a ‘Healthy
influential Sanskrit contributions to world literature, it is India’ where its own traditional systems can play a
“certainly the most frequently translated literary product significant role. Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani,
of India” and there are over 200 versions in more than 50 Siddha, Sowa Rigpa, Homoeopathy collectively covered
languages. In the Indian tradition, the Panchatantra is a under the Ministry of AYUSH, represent a pluralistic and
nitisastra, a treatise on political science and human integrative scheme of health services.
conduct, or niti. It is said that Vishnu Sarma’s objective 454. (a) The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
was to instruct three dull and ignorant princes in the Change (MoEFCC) is the nodal agency in the
principles of polity, by means of stories administrative structure of the Central Government for
448. (d) Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya the planning, promotion, co-ordination and overseeing
Yojana (AB PM-JAY) [1] is a flagship scheme of the Indian the implementation of India’s environmental and forestry
government’s National Health Policy which aims to policies and programmes.
provide free health coverage at the secondary and tertiary 455. (b) 35 per cent
level[2] to its bottom 40% poor and vulnerable population. 45.36 crore Indians (35 per cent) in India are migrants
It provides a cover of 5 lakh per family per year for — now settled in a place different from their previous
medical treatment in empanelled hospitals, both public residence, Census 2011 data.
and private. 456. (d) When an option is chosen from alternatives, the
449. (b) Coal India Limited (CIL) is an Indian state-owned opportunity cost is the “cost” incurred by not enjoying
coal mining and refinery company headquartered in the benefit associated with the best alternative
Kolkata, West Bengal, India.[2] It is the largest coal- choice,hence 300 is opportunity cost in this case.
producing company in the world and a Maharatna PSU.
Coal India operates through 83 mining areas in 8 states in
India.

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EBD_7341

19. The weight of an object is due to [CDS-2021-I] (a) Sodium chloride

26. KIRAN (Knowledge Involvement in Research (a) Central Archives

HINTS & EXPLANATIONS

Chemistry that is formed over the silver metal on exposure to

unemployment ar e technological changes, the government launched a website, saubhagya. gov.

35. (d) NITI (National Institution for Transforming Miscellaneous

(c) Fabric of the cloth plays the role

æ distance ö 85. (b) When current flows through the filament of

Codes: 77. Which one of the following plants is popularly grown

(a) Equator (b) Tropic of Cancer

Code : List I (Type of Grass) List II (Country)

connects Varanasi-Nagpur-Bangalore-Kannyakumari. NH and Community Organisations to enhance forest

135. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan has been jointly awarded the Codes

395. (b) Prahaar is a solid-fuelled surface-to-surface short- 407. (d)

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