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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2c/24-25
MOCK CLAT 48
TR ID.

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1 INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
I
I,l Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes) Maximum Marks: 120
I
1. Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader 10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POTNT PEN ontyfor i
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booklet (QB), please request the invigilator for

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3.
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SE
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Hence, OMR response Sheet shall be handled 13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card
t carefully. duly Signed by the invigilator, as the same has
4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be to be produced at the time of Admission.
I
r
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 6ffi,LEDGE"
CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER

Subiect Q. No. Page No.

English Language 01-24 3
Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-52 10
Legal Reasoning 53€4 16
Logical Reasoning 85-108 31
Q u a ntitative Tech4lqqes 109-120 38

Head Om@! r27, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal l+91-76765644001 httDe://m.toprankem.cout Pa€le2ot14
 6ffiLurrE"
SECTION-A : ENGl,lstl LANGI-;AGE
Directions (Q.1Q.2a): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): The human newborn is one of the most helpless and dependent of all living creatures. Its
survival and relief of distress depend on the love and protection of the parents. But as the child moves into
toddlerhood, that love and protection become increasingly dependent on being a good little girl or boy. Over
time, the chiltl has to internalise a remarkable number of rules and values to stay in the good graces of the
seemingly omnipotent parents, the only security base the small child has. So being good is the basis for feeling
secure. And being bad is a precarious, scary thing, as it's associated with possible loss of love and threat of
punishment.

Being good is based on what is learned from the parents, which reflects the cultural worldview the parents
themselves were taught. And so we strive for self-esteem because it tells us that we are good worthy people and
therefore loved and protected. Of course, as we develop cognitively, we learn that there are threats too big for
our parents, and that they are not omnipotent. But they have taught us bigger things in which we can believe,
and therefore we shift our primary bases of security to our god, our nation, our family line, science, humanity.
As adults, we still need that self-esteem, that sense of significance, to feel secure, but we get it by feeling like
worthy contributors to those larger entities we have learned to believe in. Doing so allows us to feel that we will
continue on, as valued Christians, artists, scientists, Australians, and so forth.

Having been convinced by Becker that awareness of mortality plays a significant role in human behaviour, we
formalised these ideas into terror management theory to introduce them into psychological science. We
submitted a paper to the American Psychologist journal, explaining the theory and how it can account for so
much we know from anthropology, archaeology, history, as well as psychology. Neither the editors nor the
reviewers were pleased. One review was just a sentence long: 'I have no doubt that this woul d be of no interest
to any psychologist, living or dead.'
Such comments gave no clues on what the reviewers disliked, but our guess was that their reactions were due to
two aspects of the theory: first, that it concems a scary topic, the inevitability of death; and second that it's a big
theory, with psychoanalyic roots, that seems to help account for a lot of aspects of human behaviour. Ever since
the reaction against Sigmund Freud in the 1950s, academic psychologists have been suspicious of big theories,
accusing them ofbeing unfalsifiable, or unscientific.

We never bought into the falsifiability argument regarding any theory. It's dways a matter of being able to derive
hypotheses and developing methods to test them. But getting an empirical handle on this big theory wasn't easy.
We came up with three basic hlpotheses that have now been supported by more than 1,000 published studies
across a wide range of domains, including prejudice, nationalism, political preferences, economics, art,
marketing, consumerism, environmentalism, legal decisionmaking, aggfession, athletic achievement, romantic
relationships, mental health, and physical health.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from " This mortal coil " , by Jeff Greenberg, aeon

l. According to the passage, how is a child's sense of security positively influenced by their adherence to parental
expectations?
(a) Adhering to parental rules and values ensures a child's emotional stability by strengthening their social
adaptability.
(b) A child's sense of security is positively enhanced when they meet parental expectations, reinforcing a feeling
of safety derived from parental approval.
(c) Following parental guidance without deviation provides children with a lifelong assurance of unconditional
parental love and affection.
(d) Childr€n who consistently behave well foster an environment where parental protection and love are guaranteed.
HeadOftlce:i27, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal l+gt-76765644m1 httorr//r*m'.tourerrken,com Page 3 of 44
 6ffi,LEDGE
2. What does the passage imply about the role of broader societal structures in shaping an individual's self-esteem
and sense of continuity in life?
(a) Societal structures like religion and national identity play a minimal role in shaping an individual's self-
esteem, which is largely determined by personal achievements.
(b) As adults, individuals outgrow the need for societal approval and find self-esteem solely through self-
reflection and personal development.
(c) Broader societal structures such as religion, science, and national identity provide a framework for
individuals to derive a sense of significance and continuity, enhancing self-esteem.
(d) The reliance on societal structures for self-esteem is a sign of incomplete personal development and cognitive
immaturity.
3 In the context of the passage, what is the antonym of "omnipotent" as used in the sentence:
(a) Almighty (b) Limited (c) Benevolent (d) Omniscient
4. What is the tone of the author in the passage?
(a) Reflective and confident, with an undertone of vindication.
(b) Apologetic and uncertain, expressing doubt in their theory.
(c) Humorous and sarcastic, mocking the field ofpsychology.
(d) Indifferent and detached, showing no emotional investment'
5 In the context of the passage, what does the phrase "getting an empirical handle on this big theory'r most
likely mean?
(a) Developing practical, testable hypotheses and methodologies to validate the theory.
(b) Abandoning the theory due to its complex psychoanalytic roots and lack of empirical support.
(c) Gaining access to financial resources for conducting large-scale psychological studies.
(d) Simpliffing the theory to make it more understandable and widely accepted.
6 Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the author's view on the reaction of academic psychologists to
big theories?
(a) The author believes academic psychologists reject big theories because they are too complex to understand.
(b) The author thinks academic psychologists are primarily concerned with the scientific validity of big theories.
(c) The author suggests that academic psychologists are hesitant to accept big theories due to past biases.
(d) The author argues that academic psychologists reject big theories mainly because they dislike psychoanalytic
approaches.

Passage (Q.7-Q.12): What first took place in Rome in 1960, with 400 athletes from 23 countries, has grown into
a global phenomenon that brings together the world's best Para athletes every four years to compete before
millions of spectators and billions of television viewers around the world. Para athletes are ambassadors of
change. Their performances inspire and excite the world and redefine for many people what is humanly possible.
No other event can empower individuals through social inclusion and societal opporlunity like the Paralympic
Games. Likewise, no other event can change the views of so many millions of people or stimulate Governments
to create investment programmes or pass new legislation that will benefit many generations of individuals with
impairments.

A total of 84 inspirational stories represented India at the Paralympics 2024. Their stories and collective success
will be recorded in India's sporting history with aplomb. The medals tally reflected a rise-from the 24th spot
in Tokyo to the l Sth in Paris. The medal haul rose sharply in the last two events. However, the beginning of
India's Paralympic joumey was sedate. A blank in 1968 was followed by the first medal-a gold in swimming-
at the next edition. After a break from participation n 1976 and 1980, India won four medals in 1984. Then there
were blanks from Seoul to Sydney.

Head omce! r27, zone II, MP Natar, Bhopal I

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 ,il. bommaua
EI LEGALEI}GE.
The story of failure went beyond the Games. The paralympic Committee of India (PCI)
was mired in needless
controversies. A semblance of normalcy prevailed after Rio 2016. The tally increased
from four in Rio to 19 in
Tokyo. In Paris, the count rose to 29 medals with seven gold. What was heartening
is that most athletes billed as
medal hopes did go on to win-Avani Lekhara and Sumit Antil retained their gold
medals, while the l7-year-
old para-archer Sheetal Devi became a sensation.

Credit must go to the newly-elected PCI that took charge months ahead of paris,
but the unprecedented support
athletes received from the government through the Sports Authority of India must
also be noted. They supported
all sports and the total spend was about Rs 74 crore under the Target Olympic podium, Khelo
India and national
centres of excellence schemes.

The impact of the Paralympics will go beyond sport. As a country, India has
a substantial population of persons
with various disabilities-according to the census, the number was at 2.68 crore in 201l.
Not just in sports, but
the success of so many para athletes is inspirational to persons with disabilities to
rise above their stations. On
the other hand, the authorities must not compare this success with the Olympic
Games.
In conclusion, India's performance at the 2024 Paralympics marks a significant milestone that
transcends the
realm of sports. It is a narrative of triumph over adversity, of turning past failures into
stepping stones for success.
This evolution in India's Paralympic journey serves not only as a source of national pride
but also as a beacon of
inspiration for millions of differently-abled individuals. Moving forward, it is imperative
that the lessons learned
from these games inform future policies and actions, creating an environment where all
athletes receive the
support and recognition they deserve. Celebrating these achievements is just the beginning;
the real victory lies
in sustaining this momentum and continuing to build a more inclusive society.
Source: Extractedwith edits and revisions-from " Paralympians dowhat Olympians could
not,,, by TNIE
7 What assumption does the passage make about the impact of the Paralympic Games on
societal attitudes toward
disability?
(a) The Paralympic Games have a negligible impact on societal attitudes and governmental
policies regarding
disability.
(b) The Paralympic Games highlight the limitations of individuals with impairments more than
their capabilities.
(c) The Paralympic Games can transform societal attitudes and motivat" goy.*-"ots to improve
conJitions for
individuals with impairments.
(d) The Paralympic Games discourage societal inclusion by emphasizing the differences between para
athletes
and non-disabled individuals.

8. What can be infened about the progression of India's Paralympic journey from the passage?
(a) The initial phases of lndia's Paralympic participation saw consistent success in medal ally.
(b) India's Paralynpic success has remained stagnant over the years, with no significant changes in the
number
of medals won.
(c) Organizational controversies within the Paralympic Committee of India (PCI) had no impact on the athletes'
performances in the Games.
(d) India's performance in the Paralympics improved significantly over time, with notable success in
recent
events.

9 What does the term "unprecedenl6d" impl] in the context of the support athletes received from the government?
(a)
Expected and usual level of support that had been seen in previous events.
(b)
The support was minimal and largely symbolic, lacking substantial impact.
(c)
The support was extraordinary and greater than what had been provided before.
(d)
The support was inconsistent and varied greatly among different sports.

Head OfiI,ce: rz7, Zone lI, MP Nagcr, Bhopal l.+91-frft5644ool httpsr rytw.topEnkeE.com Page 5 of 44
 6
10. What is the antonym of "sedate" as used in the description of lndia's early Paralympic journeY?
(a) Tranquil (b) Turbulent (c) Soothing (d) Moderate
India's achievements nthe2024
11. what does the author suggest should be the primary focus moving forward after
Paralympics?
(a) To focus solely on winning more medals in future Paralympic Games.
(b) fo reduce the financial support as the athletes have proven their capability'
(c) To use the lessons from the games to inform policies that support and recognize all athletes'
(d) To celebrate the current achievements without planning for future improvements'
India impact India's performance in
lz. According to the passage, how did the support from the Sports Authority of
the2024 ParalYmPics? .
of^ training
(a) The Sports Authority of India's direct involvement in coaching resulted in the improvement
techniques.
preparation without
(b) Substantial funding from the Sports Authority of India enabled athletes to focus solely on
financial concerns.
(c) The sports Authority of India collaborated with intemational sports organizations to enhance
India's
participation and global recognition'
increased their
(d) The Sports Authority of India focused on promoting lesser-known para-athletes, which
chances of competing internationally'
passage (e.13-e.1S): India's connections with East Asia have changed dramatically in recent years, influenced
a
and commerce connections with East
by both historical links and current geopolitical dynamics. India's cultural
Silk Route existed'
Asia can be traced back to ancient times when Buddhism spread and the maritime
.India,s Near East, by Avinash paliwal can be viewed as a stage of geoeconomic connection epitomized by the
.Act East, poliry, *d it i, critical not only to its great-power rivalry with China, which erupted in the 1962 war
partitioned regions on Earttr' Due to
but also to the idea(s) of India itself. It is also one of the most delicately
religious and ethnic nationalism, as well
community and class strife, ttre region has produced extreme forms of
goal of regional hegemony have exacerbated such
as communist groups. The Indian state's survival instinct and
extremes.
.Act East' policy, rrytrich was'introduced in 2014, aims to strengthen diplomatic and
currently, India,s
Japan' and the ASEAN countries'
commercial ties with East Asian .o*t i"., especially with South Korea'
worries about regional security
China,s expanding influence in the Indo-pacific, shared economic interests, and
are the main drivers of this change. In addition to encouraging deeper
military and commercial collaboration,
and ASEAN-led initiatives'
India has taken an active position in regional fora such as the East Asia Summit
a multipolar and balanced Asia,
India,s expanding **""tio, with East Asia is a vital component in its aim of
with an emphasis on improving connectivity, trade, and marine security.
It presents a simple but
This book provides a new history of India's eastward-looking diplomacy and statecraft.
provinces, as well as
powerful argument, set against the backdrop of separatist struggle in India's northeastern
'Act East' conceal a painful
rivalry with Beijing and tslamabad in Myanmar and Bangladesh. The objectives of
Avinash Paliwal's record of a
truth: India prioriuo, political stability Lver economic opportunities in the area.
state,s battle to overcome conflict, relocation, and interventionism reveals
the limits of independent India's
influence in the Near East.
School of oriental and
Author Avinash patiwal is an intemational relations reader at the University of Iondon's
journalist and international
African Studies, where he focuses on South Asian strategic issues. He is a former
My Enemy's Enemy: India in
affairs commentator wtro has written India's Near East: A New History and
Afghanistan from Soviet lnvasion to US Withdrawal'
 6ffiLEDGE"
Speaking about the book, Srinath Raghavan, professor of international relations and history at Ashoka
University
said, "Broadly conceived, deeply researched and vividly written, Avinash Paliwal's book opens up new
dimensions of India's intemational history and foreign policy. Indispensable for everyone interested in the past,
present and potential futures of India in Asia."

Shivshankar Menon, former foreign Indian secretary, ambassador to China and national security adviser
called
the book a'rigorous scholarly work of contemporary relevance,.
"India's Near East is a rigorous scholarly work of great contemporary relevance. For a
deep and basic
understanding of the geopolitical dynamics of a partitioned land that was once administratively
united by
colonialism, and for its twentieth-century evolution through war, conflict and social and administrative
change,
this will long be the book to tum to," said Menon.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from " New book explores India's strategic shifi eastward amid
geopolitical ivalries and regional complexities,,, The print
13. What is the primary goal of India's'Act East'poliry, as described in Avinash Paliwal's "India's Near East"?
(a) To promote Buddhist cultural exchanges exclusively with East Asian countries.
(b) To enhance diplomatic and commercial relationships primarily with South Korea, Japan, and ASEAN
countries.
(c) To establish a regional monopoly over economic and military activities in East Asia.
(d) To solely improve maritime security across the Indian Ocean without engaging in diplomatic endeavors.
14. According to Avinash Paliwal, what underlying issue does the 'Act East' policy mask in the context of India's
northeastern provinces?
(a) The policy masks the economic downtum in India's northeastem provinces without addressing political
instability.
(b) The policy prioritizes political stability over economic opportunities in the region.
(c) The policy aims to suppress all forms of religious and ethnic nationalism in the northeastern provinces.
(d) The policy is solely focused on resolving communist insurgencies in the northeastern provinces.
l5 Which of the following pairs of words are s)monyrns, especially in the context of international diplomacy as
described in Avinash Paliwal's discussion of India's foreign policy?
(a) Collaborate - Compete (b) Strengthen Bolster
-
(c) Suppress - Encourage (d) Disengage - Withdraw
l6 What does the idiom 'tum to" most closely mean as used in Shivshankar Menon's statement about the book
"India's Near East"?
(a) To physically rotate towards something. (b) To rely on as a soruce of information.
(c) To change direction in a strategy. (d) To begin a new chapter.
t7 What does the term "epitomized" most closely mean as used in the context of the passage describing the
'Act
East'policy in Avinash Paliwal's book?
(a) Demonstrated through a series of failures. (b) Diminished by external circumstances.
(c) Represented incompletely or inadequately. (d) Represented perfectly or typified.
18. The passage suggests that one of the reasons lndia focuses on political stability in its northeastern provinces is:
(a) To prevent separatist movements from weakening the countrSrrs overall regional influence and security.
(b) Because the area's economic development is critical to India's growing trade relations with East Asia.
(c) To counter China's growing influence in Bangladesh and Myanmar by controlling border regions more
effectively.
(d) Since political instability in the northeast directly affects India's relations with ASEAN cormtries
and Japan.

Head Oficcr r27, Zone II, MP Nagar, l+9t-76765644@l Pa€/el ol 4

 6ffiLEDGE-
a momentous impact in Indian
Passage (Q.19-Q.24): Perhaps, no other single work of fiction has made such
Its impact is all the more
English Literature in recent yeils ils Arundhati Roy" s The God of Small Things.
Indeed, the work has been widely
significant considering that the author has so far produced only one novel.
motivated such major novelists as
acclaimed as an important book of the post-modernist literary trend that
has

Salman Rushdie, Upanayan Chatterjee, Shashi Tharoor, R' M istry who

immortalized themselves with just one
socio-political issues
novel. She is one of the few Indian English writers actively interested in contemporary
various topics in recent
which is amply evidenced in a number of articles, interviews and books she wrote on
years.
into focus is the family and
The God of small things is about several themes - one of the chief issues it brings
woman and her independence
social mechanism evolved over centuries in traditional Indian society to suppress
as a human being. Right at the centre is woeful tale of Amma,
mother of Rahel and Estha, who suffers silently,
where some woman
yet simmers inside her a deep discontent. Traditional joint families are neatly structured
and, therefore, enjoy certain power'
assume dominant role with greater authority over others who are lower down
personal tragedies of
The complex structure is Jeeply embedded and has given rise to countless stories of
hardships in their lives
unequally placed women. Their unequal position creates great misery, suffering
and
and personal renunciation'
forcing them to accept the oppressive system in a spirit of religious submissiveness
It is interesting to note how Mammachi and Baby Kachaman fit into the oppressive system that blatantly
and then drive her to her miserable
victimizes Amma. They become her active oppressors, seeking to corner her
death.
with regard to Amma"s
one of the most glaring instances of it is the ambiguous stand adopted by these women
relation with Velutha. They express scant sympathy for Amma"s lonely life,
her tragic marital circumstances
and her anxiety about her children. on the other hand, their casteist
hostility finds double force in Amma velutha
indulgences with low caste
relationship and breaks out into expression of moral outrage, rrytrile Chako"s sexual
..Man"s Needs", Amma"s affair with velutha is treated as an unpardonable offence
women is overlooked as
against family..s reputation and status. Thus one can see that in this
novel Arundhati Roy puts under focus
interests. In this all are involved-the so-
deliberately constructed agencies of cruelty that work against women"s
traditional Indian society such forces
called progressive politicians, the family members, the police etc. In the
people. Social structures are so
flourish and find encouragement in maintaining their hold over the weaker
lives of women in the novel
formed as to sanctiff women"s victimization. Roy"s depiction of the miserable
generates in unmistakable terms the perpetuation of these exploitative forces'
yet there is a wider view of
In The God of g66ll ffuings, there is enough exploration of female experience,
sheds enough light on the plight of
society as other ideas have been blended with this basic theme. The novel
women and how they live under oppressive forces including their relationships
with men who conffol them' It
goes without saying that women are treated as objects of lust and sexual
gratification. They are robbed of basic
in which men dominate,
amenities of life. Thus they are forced to live in a system of social structure and practices
oppress and e4loit women."
Sensibility in God of Small Things - A
Source: Extractedwith edits and revisions from the journal "Feminine
Nayak'
study of Antndhuti Roy's The God of Small Things", written by Prof. Felix
in the passage?
l9 What is the meaning of the phrase "simmers inside her a deep discontent" as used
(a) She feels peaceful but confused.
(b) She has hidden anger and dissatisfaction'
(c) She is outwardly happy but physically weak'
(d) She is content with her position in life.

Pag€ 8 of 44
Hord OfR.., rz7, Zone lI, MPNagor' Shopat +gr-76765e44oo1
|
 ^1, Mulur
r.' I;GAIEDGE
20 Which of the following is a simile that best describes the social structures
discussed in the passage?
(a) Social structures are like chains that bind women to their victimization.
(b) Social structures are oppressive and unjust.
(c) Social structures flourish by maintaining control over weaker people.
(d) social structures ensure the family's reputation remains intact.
2t which of the following idioms best describes how Chako's behavior is treated
differently from Amma,s in the
novel?
(a) The apple doesn't fall far from the tree. (b) Sweep it under the
rug.
(c) Spill the beans. (d) Barking up the wrong fiee.
22. what is one of the main themes explored in The God of small Things?
(a) Women are treated with respect and equality.
(b) The novel only focuses on political issues, not personal relationships.
(c) Women enjoy freedom and control over their lives.
(d) women live under oppressive forces and are exploited by men.
23 which of the following best represents the symbolic significance of the traditional
family structure as depicted
in The God of Small Things?
(a) It serves as a foundation for moral guidance and support for all family
members.
(b) It is portrayed as a microcosm of the larger societal system that perpetuates
inequality
and oppression,
particularly towards women.
(c) It highlights the importance of maintaining cultural traditions and
the stability they provide in a rapidly
changing society.
(d) It reflects the harmonious coexistence of individuals within a hierarchical
yet balanced family structure.
24. what is the best representation of the main idea of the passage?
(a) The God of small Things critiques caste-based discrimination through
the character of velutha,s tragic fate.
(b) Arundhati Roy uses her novel to expose the complex and pervasive
oppression of women in society.
(c) The passage highlights the impact of The God of Small Things on Indian
English literature and its style.
(d) The novel focuses primarily on how men control the social structures
that perpetuate women,s suffering.

HeidOm@r127, ZonetI, Nagar, Bhopat | +gI-ZCICSO q+ai

Page g of rl4
 6 LEGALEDGE
tOO|gIffi

KNOWLEDGE
SECTION -B : CURRENT A FFAIRS,INCLUDIN GG ENERAL
the questions'
Directions (Q.25-Q.52): Read the information carefully and answer
Passage (Q.25-Q.30): Iran-Israel War
exposing Israel's military preparations
Two highly classified US intelligence documents have leaked, allegedly
originating from the National
for a potential strike on Iran, the New York Times reported The documents,
images and information collected by
Geospatial-Intelligence Agency (NGA) - "responsibte ror analysing
and operational readiness'
American spy satelliter" - off"i irrrights into Israeli military exercises
on Telegram by accounts largely associated with
The two documents, dated october 15 and 16, were circulated
showing Israel's military exercises, which
pro-Iran sentiments. They provide detailed analyses of satellite images
appear to be in preparation for a retaliatory srike on
lran. The potential strike comes in the wake of escalating
tensions following an Iranian missile barrage on october 1,
itself a retaliation for an earlier Israeli attack'
for Strike on [ran" and outlines recent
one of the documents is titled "Israel: Air Force continues Preparations
against Iran. These preparations reportedly
Israeli exercises that seem to rehearse a potential military operation
and the repositioning of missile systems in
include air-to-air refuelling operations, search-and-rescue missions,
reveals Israeli efforts to move munitions and other
anticipation of potential rr"nian strikes. The second document
military assets to strategic locations.
2024) onlsrael was in retaliation for -
25. As per the IRGC, the recent missile barrage (october
l. violation of Iran's sovereigntY
2. martyrdom of Ismail HaniYeh
3. signing an agreement with Saudi Arabia that favours sunnis over shias
Select the correct answer using the given code -
(a) Only lartdl- (b) Onlv 2atd3 (c) Onlyl and3 (d) 1'2and3 a

26. Whichofthefollowingisincorrectwithrespecttotheongoingcrisis?
:- to fieht against Israel'
(a) Iran has recently clated the 'Axis of ,"sistar,ce' a shia military organization
(b) Iran does not recognise Israel's right to exist and seeks its eradication'
organization'
(c) Israel has gone orr-tt. offensive against the Shia Islamist political and military
(d) Recently the Israeli troops began an invasion of southern Lebtrnon.
Guterres as PNG Qtersona non grata) on Israeli soil'
27 Israel has recently declared UN Secretary General Antonio
to this development?
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT related
"unequivocally condemned" kan's
(a) Israel,s reason for this announcement was because Guterres hadn't
missile strikes on Israel.
for banning Guterres from entenng
(b) A lo4 countries have supported a letter that has "condemned" Israel
Israeli territory'
European, African countries and
(c) The letter has been circulated by Chile and has been supported by many
much of the Global South.
soutr and di&r't associate itelf wifi it'
(d) This letter, however, saw the first time trat India broke from dre Gilobal
that intercepted a number of Iranian missiles
28. what is the name of Israel,s ballistic missile defence (BMD) system
in April 2024?
(a) Arrow Aerial Defence SYstem (b) Fattah-2
(c) Thaad batterY (d) Stunner Defence System
systems designed to intercept ballistic missiles at
29 which of the folowing are India's indigenous missile defence
different altitudes?
(a) Barak-8 and QRSAM (b) PAD and AAD
(c) AMS and MRSAM (d) PAD and Barak-8
Pegp 10 ot
Head Olllcec 127, ZoncII,MPNalar' Bhopal t+gt-76765644oo1
 Bfrrrrtra
€ LEGATEDGE
30. The 5-400 is highly effective against a wide range of aerial threats, including ballistic and cruise missiles. These
have been bought from -
(a) USA (b) Israel (c) France (d) Russia
Passage (Q.31-Q.36): West Bengal ..Aprajita,, Anti_Rape Bill
The iecent Ap araiitawoman and Child (West Bengal Criminal Laws
Amendment) Bill, zo24,falls into a similar
pattern' Passed unanimously by the Wesl Bengal assembly on September
3 this year, it seeks capital punishment
for rape convicts.The legislation allegedly came into play to strieta Chief Minis"r
irrr-"" |lifr."!:;no'*u,
in the eye of a storm as RG Kar was run by her chosen principal, Dr sandip
Ghosh. Hours after Ghosh resigned
following a national uproar, Mamata committed a rare political blunder oi appointing
him principal of another
medical college instead of letting matters cool.
In the public eye, the slip up made her equally responsible as Ghosh for
all his omissions and commissions while
at RG Kar' As a result, the Aparajita bill hasn't given her respite, as the
ceasework agitation ofjunior doctors
across the state, demanding justice for the victim, continues to uuito momentum.

"We wanted the centre to amend is existing laws and include stricter clauses to ensure
exemplary punishment
for perpetrators and quicker justice for victims. They showed no enthusiasm
for it. That,s why we made the move
first' This Bill, once enacted, can serve as a model for the rest of the country,,,
Mamata said in the assembly
during the debate on the bill.
3l Recently, the Aprajia Bill was passed, following the introduction of similar bills in Andhra pradesh
and
Maharashtra aimed at amending criminal laws related to rape cases. What
t are the names of the bills introduced
by Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra?
(a) Disha Criminal Laws (Andhra AmendmenO Bill and Shakti Criminal Laws (Maharashtra
Amendment) Bill
(b) Aprajita Criminal Laws (Andhra Amendment) Bill and Shole Criminal
Laws (Maharashtra Amendment) Bill
(c) Shakti Criminal Laws (Andhra AmendmenO Bill and Disha Criminal Laws (Maharashtra
Amendmeng Bill
(d) Shole Penal Laws (Andhra AmendmenO Bill and Shakti Mahila Suraksha
Bill
32. which of the following accurately describes key features of the Aparajita Bill related to the punishment for rape,
gang rape, and the disclosure of a rape victim's identity?
(a) It enhances punishment for the offence of rape (BNS Section 64) either to life imprisonment for
the
remainder of the convict's natural life or death,or with a penalty.
(b) For gang-rape, the bill prescribes the death penalty only along with
a fine.
(c) The bill prescribes imprisonment of 3-5 years and a fine for disclosing a rape
victim's identity - up from two
years in jail under BNS Section 72.
(d) If the victim dies or is left in a vegetative state, the Bengal bill makes imprisonment for at least 20 years,
which may extend to life imprisonment for the remainder of one,s life
33 The Aparajita Bill amended several important laws and leverages Article
2s4(z) of the Indian Constitution.
which of the following statements correctly explains the role of Article 254(2) ?
(a) Article 254(2) allows a state legislature to pass a law that is always superior
to a central law.
(b) Article 254(2) permits the state legislature to pass a law contradicting
a central law on a concurrent list
subject to Presidential assent.
(c) Article 254(2) grants the state legislature the ability to pass laws that
only apply to the central government.
(d) Article 254(2) allows states to pass laws on matters exclusively in the
Union List without any restrictions.
34. Which two landmark cases emphasized the judiciary's stance on the supremacy
of central legislation over state
amendments?
(a) Kesavananda Bharaii v. State of Kerala (1973) and Golaknath v. State punjab
of (1967)
(b) State of West Bengal v. Union of India (1964) and KK Verma v. Union
of India (1960)
Head Oftlce! r27, Zone tI, MPNagar, Bhopal l+9r-76765644@l
Page 11 ot 44
 *
(1980)
(c) SR Bommai v. Union of India (1994) and Minerva Mills Ltd v. Union of India
(1950)
(d) Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India (2006) and A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
of the current legal framework for rape, including protections under
In light
Pocso, what does the term "Zero
35
FIR" mean with respect to the rights of a rape victim?
but with priority processing'
(a) An FIR that must be frled only within the jurisdiction where the crime occurred
without requiring further
(b) An FIR that is automaticaily regist.r.d io cases of insufficient evidence,
investigation.
the incident
(c) An FIR that can be frled at any police station, regardless of the location of
to crimes against minors'
(d) A special FIR that applies only to cases under the POCSO Act and is limited
filed on average every hour for crimes against
36. According to the NCRB report for 2022,how many FIRs were
to the national average?
women in lndia, and how does the crime rate in Delhi compare
(a) 2|FIRs every hour, with Delhi's crime rate lower than the national average
to the national average
iti ls FIRs every hour, with Delhi's crime rate equal than the national average
i.i oo FIRs every hour, with Delhi's crime rate lower
rate significantly higher than the national average
iO) Sf FIRs every hour, with Delhi's crime
Passage (Q37-Q.42): Wayanad Landslide
in the district of wayanad in Kerala
In the early hours of July 30,2oz4,chooralmala and Mundal&ai villages
The massive landslides so far has claimed
were hit by devastating landslides triggered by torrential downpour.
130 people are still missing as of August 13' This
over 230 lives. AccorJing to the district administration, over
is the worst natural disaster to occur in Kerala since the 2018 floods.
panchayat, are nearly 50 km away from the district
Chooratmala and Mundakkai, both located in Meppadi
Mundakkai is just 2'3 km a
headquarters in Kalpetta. They were known for its scenic landscapes and waterfalls.
away frorn Chooralmala town by road'
operation in the area to look for possible
Following the incident, the authorities launched a massive rescue
Disaster Response Force (NDRF), Fire and
survivors. A combined rescue mission of the Indian A*y, National
Rescue Services, Forest and Wildlife authorities, and the
police, along with hundreds of volunteers and
forest area and mud-filled locations' on
government offrcials rescued several sffanded people in the surrounding
people \ilere staying in 9l relief camps in Wayanad
August l, Chief Minister pinarayi Vijayan said over 9,300
district.
sensing centre (NRsc), the "crown of
37 According to the satellite imagery released by ISRo's National Remote
Level (MSL).what does the term "crown of a
the randslide,, or the orign is above 1,550m above Mean Sea
landslide" refer to?
closest to its origin'
(a) The uppennost part of the soil or rock surface not involved'in the landslide,
(b) The lowermost part of the landslide where debris accumulates
(c) The region where the landslide velocity is the highest'
iO fn. with the most significant destruction caused by the landslide'
area
highest number of landslides betrreen 2015
38. According to the Geological survey of India, Kerala reported the
and July 2022.
tghatpercent4ge of the country's totat landslide incidents did Kerala accornt for during this
period?
(a) Kerala accounted for 45Vo of the country's total
(b) Kerala accounted for 600/o of the county's total
(c) Kerala accounted fot 50%o of the county's total
(d) Kerala accounted for 70% of the country's total

PaOs 12 of u
Head Offlce: rz7, Zonc lI, MPNa3ar,
-l+gt-?6765644oo'
 39
6ffiLEDcf
In the context of the International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction, what are the key principles
of the Sendai
Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction, and when was it first introduced?
(a) It focuses on economic resilience post-disaster, and was introduced in 2020
as part of the Sustainable
Development Goals.
(b) It advocates for post-disaster reconstruction and was first adopted in 2013 to promote
recovery efforts.
(c) It emphasizes preparedness, resilience, and mitigation, and was introduced in 2015
as part of the post-2g15
development agenda.
(d) It promotes short-term recovery strategies, introduced in 2018 in response to increased
natural disasters.
40. The Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024, ntroduced significant changes
to the Disaster Management
Act, 2005' What is one of the key provisions of the 2024 Amendment, and how does it
alter the roles of the
National and State Executive Committees?
(a) The Bill abolishes both the National and State Executive Committees, transferring
all functions to local
governments.
(b) The Bill allows only the State Executive Committees to draft disaster management
plans,while the National
Executive Committee is tasked with implementation.
(c) The Bill mandates that NDMA and SDMA, instead of the National and
State Executive Committees, will
now prepare disaster management plans.
(d) The-Bill limits the role of the National Executive Committee to post-disaster recovery
operations, removing
its authority over planning and preparedness.
4l According to the IDMC's 'Global Report on Internal Displacement,'what was the primary
reason for the sharp
decline in natural disaster-induced displacement in India in 2023 compared to 2022?
(a) A new government initiative significantly improved flood relief efforts across
affected regions.
(b) A significant reduction in tectonic activity, which led to fewer earthquakes
and landslides.
(c) The construction of advanced dams and reservoirs to manage floodwaters
across India.
(d) Developing El Nifio conditions brought drier weather, resulting in fewer flood-related
disasters.
42. What are the primary applications of the payloads onboard ISRo's latest Earth observation
Satellite (EoS-0g),
launched on August 16,2024?
(a) Military surveillance, satellite communication, and deep space exploration.
(b) Tracking urbanization, monitoring global financial markets, and securing international
borders.
(c) Environmental monitoring, disaster management, and scientific research.
(d) Maritime security, oil exploration, and international defense collaborations.
Passage (Q.43-Q.46): Firsr Legally Binding International AI Treaty
The first legally binding international AI treaty will be open for signing on Thursday
by the countries that
negotiated it, the council of Europe human rights organisation said.

The AI Convention, which has been in the works for years and was adopted in
May after discussions between
57 countries, addresses the risks AI may pose, while promoting responsible innovation.

"This convention is a major step to ensuring that these new technologies can be harnessed
without eroding our
oldest values, like human rights and the rule of law," Britain's justice minister,
Shabana Mahmood, said in a
statement.

The AI Convention mainly focuses on the protection of human rights of people affected by AI systems and is
separate from the EU AI Act, which entered into force last month.
The EU's AI Act entails comprehensive regulations on the development, deployment,
and use of AI systems
within the EU internal market.An ad hoc committee in 2019 started examining the feasibility
of an AI framework
convention and a Committee on Artificial Intelligence was formed in2022 which drafted
and negotiated the text.
Head Oftice: rz7, Zone II,MPNagar, Bhopal | +91-75765544m1 [1t1ff rysw.toorsilkc'!ffi Page 13 of 44
 @ffiLEDGE
is the headquarters of the council of Europe (coE), and which
countries are expected to sign the first
43. where
legally binding international treaty on Artificial Intelligence (AI)?
(a) Brussels, Belgium; European Union and China
(b) Paris, France; United States and Canada
(c) Strasbourg, France;European Union, United States, and United Kingdom
(d) Geneva, Switzerland; Japan and South Korea
Bletchley Declaration, and which countries
44. Many steps have been taken earlier regarding AI safety. What is the
November 2023?
signed this agreement at the first-ever AI Safety Summit in
signed by the US, Russia' and
(a) The Bletchley Declaration is focused on regulating military AI systems; it was
Japan.
(b) The Bletchley Declaration addresses the risks and opportunities of "frontier
AI"; it was signed by 28
countries and the EuroPean Union
AI innovations; it was signed by the European Union'
(c) The Bletchley Declaration is focused on healthcare
Brazll, and Canada.
only; it was signed by the G20
(d) The Bletchley Declaration mandates the regulation of AI in financial sectors
countries.
it apart from other conversational AI models?
45. What is Strawberry, the new AI model from openAl, and what sets
information, making its
(a) Strawberry is a reasoning-focused AI that pauses and deliberates before sharing
responses more thoughtful
rapid but less accurate
(b) Strawberry is designed to instantly retrieve and process large datasets, ensuring
responses to comPlex Problems'
an emphasis on multitasking
(c) Strawberry is an AI specialized in handling real-time voice-to-text tasks with
and speed. a
reasoning or problem-solving
(d) Strawberry focuses on creating artistic and creative outputs, with limited
capabilities.
organized by the Ministry of Electronics and
46. what is the primary purpose of the 'Global IndiaAI Summit'
Information Technology in July 2024?
all AI technologies developed
(a) To launch India,s first AI legislation that mandates government control over
in the countrY ,. .,
focus on military applications'
(b) To explore the use of AI solely in defense and security operations, with a
and corporate governance in India'
(c) To promote AI research focused solely on enhancing financial technology
development and deployment
(d) To foster collaboration and knowledle e*charrge for the ethical and inclusive
of AI technologies in various sectors'
Passage (Q.47-Q.52): Section 6A - SC Decision
The Supreme court on Thursday upheld the constitutional validity
of a contentious clause in India's citizenship
parliamentary supremacy over
law applicable only to Assam, in a landmark judgment that and underlined
govemment's defence of the Citizenship
citizenship matters and potentially strengthened the Union
(Amendment) Act, or CAA.

The bench, led by chief Justice of India (cJI) Dhananjaya

Y chandrachud, also flagged the problem of continued
to monitor the implementation of its
influx of immigiants into India as "serious", and decided to set up a bench
by fencing the porous borders with
directions,underscoring the need to curb illegal movement of immigrants
Bangladesh.

Page 14 44
Head Offlce: rz7, Zone I!, MPNagar' Bhopol I +gr-7576S64400 |
 Justice Surya Kant wrote a concurring verdict for himself
6
and justices MM Sundresh and Manoj Misra. CJI
Chandrachud wrote a separate but concurring opinion.
Justice JB pardiwala dissented, holding that Section 64
was arbitrary and constitutionally invalid.
47. which of the following statements about the section 6.{ of the
citizenship Amendment Act is INC.RRECT?
(a) ItstatesthatJanuary l,1965shallserveasthebasecut-offdateforthedetectionanddeletionof..foreigners,,
(b) This section was not present in the original Act, but
was later added.
(c) This Section was a result of a tripartite agreement.
(d) None of the above
48. The author of the lead opinion of the SC Bench, Justice
Kant observed that:
(a) The incessant migration from Bangladesh has nothing
to do with Section 6(4)
(b) A large part of the fault lay with the government's
failure to detect and deport the post-1966 immigrants.
(c) The sktutory machinery and Tribunals tasked with the
identification and detection of illegal immigrants or
foreigners in Assam inadequate and disproportionate to the
requirement of giving time-bound effect to the
legislative object of section 64 read with other varid laws.
(d) All of the above.

49 what is the operation Searchright in relation to this decision?

(a) This was Assam govemment's recent drive to detect
illegal migrants as per law.
(b) This was the recent campaign name given by the
opporJrs of the Section 6A. to get this law invalidated by
the SC.
(c) This was a mission launched by the Pakistan Army to curb
the Bengali nationalist movement in East pakistan
in 1971.
(d) This was mission launched by the Indian Army to facilitate pakistani
the escape from the Army of Bengali
nationalists from Bangladesh to India temporarily in 1971.
50. The sc was hearing petitions filed by NGos that urged the apex
court to declare Section 64 unconstitutional
because -
(a) It was unconstitutional to not let people from genuine persecuted
communities stay in India.
(b) This section was putting an incredible strain on
the state's economic and developmental goals.
(c) This section was blocking genuine helpless people
from taking refuge in India.
(d) This section was changing Assam's demographic
and was in violation of Articles 4 and 5 of the constitution.
5l Justice Pardiwala was the lone dissenting voice in the
Bench. what was his objection to the Section 64?
(a) A nation can't accommodate immigrants and refugees,
while simultaneously prioritising sustainable
development and equitable allocation of resources.
(b) Section 6,{ violates Article 29(l) of the Constitution.
(c) This section incentivises undocumented immigrants
from Bangladesh to stay in Assam indefinitely until
they are detected.
(d) The petitioners' argument that influx of immigrants
affected the rocal people,s right to sustainable
development is their fundamental right which .rri b.
upheld.
52. which Article of the constitution gives Parliament the power "to
make any provision with respect to the
acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters
relating to citizenship,,?
(a) Article l0 (b) Article 11 (c) Article 12 (d) Article 13

Head 127, Tane

 @ ffir-uucE
_ C: LEGAL

answer the questions'

Directions (Q.53-Q.S4): Read the comprehension carefully and
led by chief Justice D'Y' Chandrachud along with Justices
Passage (Q.53-Q.57): The Supreme court of India,
case that questions the constitutional immunity
J.B. pardiwala and Manoj Misra, has taken up a signifrcant
which involves allegations of sexual harassment
granted to the Governor of a state under Articl; rot. ihe case,
the court to ask for insights from the Attorney
by west Bengal Governor c.v. Ananda Bose, has prompted
General of India, R Venkataramani'
the Governors are not answerable to any court for
Article 361 of the constitution provides that the President and
Furthermore, it states that "no criminal proceedings
the exercise and performance of their powers and duties.
,'no process for the arrest or imprisonment" can be executed
whatsoever shall be instituted or continued,, and
of these protections-specifically the terms "criminal
against them while they are in offrce. The interpretation
now under scrutiny by the Supreme Court'
proceedings" and "process for the arrest or imprisonmenf'r-ls
protections extend to actions such as the registration of
an
The core of the issue is whether these constitutional
cognizance of an offense' which mark the
FIR, the initiation of a preliminary inqury, o. a *agist'atelaking
west Bengal argues that the inability to take any of
these
commencement of a criminal case. The petitioner from in
actions against Governor Bose until he leaves offrce
could violate rights and impact the integrity of evidence
cases of misconduct.
potest peccare or "the king can do no wrongl', an idea rooted
This debate fiaces back to the Latin maxim rex non this
legal framework. The constituent Assembly adopted
in English legal traditions and incorporated into India's
g, concerns raised about its implications.
principle without extensive debate on September 1g4g, despite
the years' Notably, in the 2017 criminal case against t
Judicial interpretations of Article 361 have evolved over
Rajasthan Governor,Kalyan Singh related to the Babri
Masjid demolition, the Supreme court ruled that Singh
remains Governor of Rajasthan"' but could be tried
once he
enjoyed immunity undei,q.rticle 361 "as long as he the
Governor of Madhya Pradesh' Ram Naresh Yadav'
left office. Similarly, in the vyapam scam involving then
Madhya pradesh High court ruled that registeringl
FIR did not constitute "instituting" criminal proceedings,
the Governor while in offrce'
allowing the investi[ation to continue without implicating
prasad vs union of India conceming the Bihar Assembly's
Moreover, in a 2006 landmark ruling in Rameshwar 361(l)
the Governor has "complete immunity" under Article
dissolution, the supreme court stated that while
the court from examining the validity of their actions,
when exercising their powers, this does not prevent
including for malafides.
[Extracted with edits and revisions
from htps://www.deccanherald.com/india/supreme-court-agrees-to-
1 I 2l 001
examine-constitutional-provision-granting-immunity-to-governors-3
of Devnagar is accused of misusing his official powers by
53 During his tenure, Governor Arjun Mehra of the state
for personal use. An investigative journalist uncovers
unilaterally authorizing the diversion of state funds Governor
and files a petition for criminal proceedings against
substantial evidence supporting these accusations protects the
Article 361 of the constitution, which
Mehra. However, the state prosecutor hesitates, citing a debate
his tenure. The case gamers public interest, and
Governor from crirninar proceedings and arrest during journalist argues that the
arises regarding the scope of the Governor's
immunity under the constitution. The
the constitutional immunity provisions' which of the
immediate need for accountability should override
following is most accurate in this regard?
actions, if proven tnre, constitute a grave misuse
(a) The criminal pro"""ang, can be initiated as the Govemor's
of power.
against Governor Mehra while he is in offrce'
(b) No criminal proceedings can be instittrted or continued
according to Article 361 of the Constitution'
Pagp 16 d 4
Headoftlcerl2T, Zone tt, MPNafr, BhoPal
 (c) The Governor can be detained for interrogation
6
as this does not constitute formal arrest or continuation
criminal proceedings. of
(d) The Govemor's immunity does not cover actions
of financial misconduct, and he can be prosecuted wtrile
in office.
54. considering the constitutional protections provided to
the Governor under Article 361 and its implications
legal proceedings, which ofthe following situations on
best aligns with the potential violation ofrights and integrity
of evidence mentioned in the case against Governor Bose?
(a) A lawsuit filed against a state Governor for
actions taken in their official capacity,
term ends, leading to potentiar loss of critical evidence.
- --r----J -v'EJ vs until
' delayed err!' orrvr
after their
I

(b) A criminal case initiated against a former Governor

immediately after they leave ofiice, regarding actions
taken during their tenure.
(c) An investigation into alleged misconduct by a Governor,
wherepreliminary inquiries are postponed until the
end of their term, risking the degradation of evidence.
(d) A civil lawsuit against a Governor for personal
financial dealings unrelated to their official duties, allowed
to proceed while in office.

55. Governor Ashok verma of the state of vindhyachal

is implicated in a high-profile comrption scandal involving
the award of government contracts to his close associates.
e whistleblower provides substantial evidence,
prompting the state's Anti-comrption Bureau (ACB)
to consider registering an FIR against various officials
involved' including Governor verma. The ACB's legal team,
recalling the piecedent set by the vyapam case,
debates whether the registration of an FIR against
the Governor, who is currently in office, would contravene
his constitutional immunity under Article 361. A public
interest litigation (pIL) is subsequently filed, challenging
the ACB's hesitation and seeking clarification on
the permissible scope of inifial legal actions against
governor' The court is now tasked with determining a sitting
whether to allow the regisiation of the FIR without
implicating the governor in ongoing criminal pro.""dirgr.
which of the following is most accurate in this
regard?
(a) The registration of the FIR against Governor
verma is valid, as it does not constitute the instituting of
criminal proceedings, which is consistent with the vyapam
precedent.
(b) The registration ofthe FIR is invalid, as any legal
actionthat names the Governorwhile in office is prohibited
under Article 361.
(c) The ACB can proceed with the FIR against other
officials but must excrude Governor verma until he leaves
office, to avoid constitutional violations.
(d) Registering an FIR and initiating an investigation
are considered the same under Article 361; therefore,
neither can proceed while the Governor is in office.
56. In light of Article 361(l) and its interpretation regarding
the immunity of a Governor, which of the following
situations best illustrates the court's capacity to scrutinle
the actions of a Governor for potential malafides,
despite their immunity?
(a) A Governor is charged with comtption during their
tenure, but the case cannot proceed until they leave
office, as criminal proceedings are barred under their immunity.
(b) A Governor's decision to dissolve a state assembly
is challenged in the supreme court, which reviews
decision of Governor for potential malafides despite the the
Governor,s immunify.
(c) An opposition party files a civil lawsuit against
a siuing Governor for defamation during a political
campaign, alleging malice.
(d) A complaint is filed against a Governor for misuse
of official resources, but the complaint is dismissed
without investigation due to the Governor,s immunity.

HeadOfiIeruT, ZoneII, Bhopal

17 ot
 @
Supreme Court's ruling on the immunity of Governors
57. Which of the following statements correctly interprets the
proceedings?
under Article 361 of the Constitution in criminal
proceedings, including registration of an
(a) The immunitY under Article 361 extends to all forms of criminal
Governor while in offtce'
FIR, ensuring no legal actions can commence against a
(b) The Supreme Court has consistently ruled that Governors enjoy absolute immunity from criminal
and subsequent judiciat proceedings.
prosecution, which includes both the initiation of an investigation
of criminal proceedings, but do
(c) Article 361's Protections for Governors prevent the arrest and continuation
not necessarilY bar Preliminary inquiries or the registration
of an FIR'
their actions cannot be
(d) Governors under Article 361 are immune from anY form of judicial scrutiny, and
challenged in court until they leave office
decision in granting
passage (Q.5&Q.62): In a recent ruling, a Mumbai Special court cited the Supreme court's
Purushottam Mandhana, arrested on charges
bail to Delhi chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal to release businessman (ED)
The court found that the Enforcement Directorate
of money laundering linked to a Rs 975 crore bank fraud.
,,reasons to believe" for his arrest, a procedural necessity under the Prevention of
did not provide Mandhana the
Money Laundering Act (PMLA).
record a "reason to believe," based on the "material
Section 1g of the PMLA mandates that an ED offrcer must
under the PMLA. Furthermore, it requires that the accused
on record,,, that the accused has committed an offence
This provision is crucial because PMLA
be informed of the grounds for arrest "as soon as maybe [possible]."
sets a high threshold for bail, necessitating strict
adherence to legal protocols during arrest'

stems from the Supreme court's July 12 nrling in

The legal basis for the Mumbai Speciar court,s decision
the PMLA cannot be artitrary and must be based
Kejriwal,s case, where the court emphasized that arrests under
This ruling higfiighted the importance ofjudicial scrutiny
on valid "reasons to believe" that meet legal standards'
liberty.
to prevent violations of the fundamental right to life and
2023, -the case of pankaj Bansal vs Union of India, that
Moreover, the Supreme court had previously ruled in
,,grounds of arrest" to an accused in writing at the time of arrest is mandatory under Section 19 of
disclosing the
transparency and accountabillty in the arrest process'
the pMLA. This requirement is significant as it ensures
if necessary.
allowing the accused to challenge the legality of the arrest
Section 45 of the PMLA, which deals with bail,
first states that no court can grant bail for offences under this
negative language in the provision itself shows that
law, and then proceeds to mention a few exceptions. The
bail is not the rule but the exception under PMLA'
prosecutor in all bail applications, and when the prosecutor
The provision makes it mandatory to hear the public "reasonable
opposes bail, the court is required to apply a twin
test. These two conditions are: (i) that there are
offence"; and (ii) that "he is not likely to commit
grounds for believing that [the accused] is not guilty of such
any offence while on bail".
underscored in a related context under the Unlawful
The importance of these procedural safeguards was furrher
invalidated the arrest ofNewsclick founder Prabir
Activities prevention Act (UApA), where the supreme court

Extracted with edits and revisions from https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explainedJaw/arvind-

kejriwal-bail-supreme-court-pmla-case-money-laundering-case-excise-policy-case-ed-pmla-act-section-9-
9483s661

't8
tz7, zaw MPNaSar, l+gt-767656aaoDl
 rl, Emdcn-
Tf,' LEGATEDGE
58 Rahul Mehta, a well-known financier in Mumbai, is arrested by the Enforcement
Directorate (ED) on suspicions
of money laundering amounting to Rs 450 crore linked to overseas shell companies.
At the time of arrest, the
ED officer verbally informs Rahul that they have "reason to believe" he is involved
in money laundering based
on his recent financial activities and transactions. However, Rahul's legal team
challenges the arrest in court,
arguing that no concrete "material on record" was provided at the time of arrest
to substantiate the ,,reason to
believe," as mandated by Section 19 of the PMLA. The court now needs to assess
whether the procedural
requirements under the PMLA were met, focusing specifically on the
legitimacy of the arrest without
documented evidence at the time. which of the following is most accurate
in this regard, assuming the
contentions of Rahul's team is true?
(a) The arrest is valid as the ED officer had a subjective "reason to believe"
Rdhul was involved in money
laundering, fulfrlling the requirement under PMLA.
(b) The arrest is valid since the ED's ongoing investigation is expected to gather
material, making the initial lack
of documentation acceptable.
(c) The arrest is valid because the verbal statement of "reason to believe" by the
ED officer is sufficient under
PMLA, regardless of whether it is documented.
(d) The alrest is invalid because the ED officer failed to provide concrete
and written ',material on record,, at the
time of arrest to justify the "reason to believe," as required by Section 19 of the pMLA.
59 Ankit Patel, a reputed businessman, is arrested on allegations of laundering over Rs
100 crore through his textile
export company. Following his arrest under the Prevention of Money Laundering
Act (pMLA;, antit applies
for bail' During the bail hearing, the prosecution presents evidence suggesting
Ankit's involvement in muliiple
shell companies and offshore transactions suspected of laundering funds. However,
Ankit,s defense argues that
the evidence is circumstantial and highlights his lack of criminal history
and his significant ti"r,
asserting that he poses no flight risk and is not likely to tamper with evidence. "o.-*ity
After listening to public
Prosecutor, The court is faced with deciding whether to grant bail under
Section 45 of the PMLA, which requires
satisfaction that there are prime facie reasonable grounds for believing that
the accused is not guilty and that he
will not commit any offense while on bail. Which of the following is most accurate in this
regard?
(a) Bail should be granted because Ankit has strong community ties and
no prior criminal record, indicating he
is not likely to commit any offense while on bail.
(b) Bail should not be granted because the serious nature of the allegations
requires a higher threshold of proof
for the non-guilt ofthe accused before bail can be considered.
(c) Bail should be granted as Ankit's involvement with the shell companies
has not been conclusively proven,
satisfying the court of reasonable grounds for believing he is not guilty.
(d) Bail should not be granted, as the court must be satisfied that Ankit
is not guilty of the oftense charged and
not likely to commit any offense while on bail, which has not been conclusively
established by the defense.
60 In line with the Supreme Court's guidelines on arrests under the Prevention
of Money Laundering Act (pMLA),
which situation correctly reflects the required standard for a valid
"reason to believe,, based on the ,'material on
recordt'?
(a) An ED offrcer arrests a corporate executive based on a detailed
whistleblower report and preliminary
evidence suggesting undisclosed overseas transactions.
O) An ED officer arrests a property developer for high volume transactions during a real
estate boom without
any direct evidence of illegality.
(c) An ED officer arrests an art dealer after noting unusually high-value purchases
at an auction, but without
specific evidence linking these purchases to money laundering.
(d) An ED officer arrests an individual based solely on their previous criminal
record for fraud, with no current
evidenoe of money laundering.

Hcad Oftlce! r27, Zone lI, MP Nagar, Bhopal

Page t9 of 44
 6 top'srffi

Directorate (ED) on suspicions of involvement

61. Vivek GuPta, a financial analyst, is arrested by the Enforcement their
his arrest, the ED officers verbally inform him of
in a large-scale foreign exchange fraud. At the time of to
suspicions detailing the specific grounds for
his arrest, citing the urgency of securing his custodY Prevent
the arrest in court, arguing that the arrest violates
potentt al evidence tamPering. Vivek' s legal team challenges vs
19 of the PMLA, as established in the case ofPankaj Bansal
the Supreme Court's directive under Section the PMLA
the arrest meets the legal requirements under
Union of India. The court must now decide whether
Which of the following is most accurate in this regard?
arrest is sufficient under extreme circumstances
(a) The arrest is validls the verbal explanation at the time of
where evidence tampering is feared' i. 1,,- --:^r^+^^ +L^ Dr\rr
PMLA
at the time of arrest directly violates the
(b) The arrest is invariibecause not providing written grounds
stipulations as reinforced by the Supreme Court'
to vivek at the time of arrest meets the basic
(c) The arrest is valid since the verbal information provided
requirements for transparency and accountability' ^-^-. L..^^
for a temporary bypass of the requirement for
(d) The arrest is valid because the urgency of the situation allows
written grounds, which can be submitted later'

Vikram, an entrepreneur, is arrested under charges

of fraud involving a government subsidy scheme intended
62. At
the case garners significant public attention'
for small businesses. Due to the nature of thJallegations,
unable to attend due to a medical emergency'
vikram,s initial bail hearing, the public prosecutor is,nexpectedly previously
The defense argues for immediate bail o, tt"
gto"nds that Vikram poses no flight risk and has a
in bail
unblemished record. The judge, aware of the statutory requirements to hear the public prosecutor
of the public
of the prosecutor at the hearing. Given the absence
applications, faces a dilemma Jue to the absence
piosecutor, should the court grant bail to Vikram?
not unduly delay the legal proceedings and vikram 't
(a) Yes, because the absence of the public prosecutor should
has a clean record.
of the public prosecutor, and without this, the
(b) No, because the statutory requirement mandates the hearing
bail hearing cannot proceed correctly'
(c)Yes,becausethechargesarerelatedtoanon-violentcrimeandVikramhassignificantcommunityties'
harm to public resources' which necessitates
(d) No, because the naturJ of the charges implies a risk of financial
a rigorous application of the twin test'

Passage(Q.63.Q.67):TheConstitutionoflndiasecuresthefreedomofTrade,Commerceandlntercourse from
to reasonable restrictions & public interest ranging
within the Territory of India under Article 301, subject (right to
parr XIII (Art. 301-307) is in addition toArticles 14
Article 3oz- 3o7.It is worth mentioning that
equality) & 19 (freedom ofbusiness)'
The
to protect this freedom specifically USA and Germany'
Most federal constitutions contain special provisions
guaranteeing freedom of commerce' trade and intercourse
Indian constitution also contains prori.ions good are
can be absolute' Limitations for the common
throughout the territory of India. However, no freedom regulatory
self-defeating licence. That is why, legitimate
in such freedom, lest it should degenerate into a
inherent
measuresarenotconsideredtoconstituterestrictionsonthisfreedom.
intercourse shall be free throughout the territory
of India' It
Articre 301 guarantees that trade, commerce and states' to secure
imposes a general limitation on the exercise of
legislative power, whether of the union or of the
from one part of the territory of India to another'
unobstructed flow of trade, commerce and intercourse
the other provisions of Part XIII (Articles 302 to 305)
ofthe
This guarantee of freedom is expressly subject to
'

restrictions, by law, on the freedom of trade' commerce

constitution. Article 302 enables Parliament to impose may be required in
or within any part of the territory of tndia as
and intercourse between one state and another
be used by Parliament to make any law which
public interest. But, this power to place restrictions cannot
Page 20 ot 41
Head ofrlce! 127' Zme lI, MPNagar, Bhopal l+gt-761656q+ool
 .-. bBrilaffis
€T UCALEDGE
discriminates between one State and another or gives preference to one State over another, "by virtue
of any
Entry in the Seventh Schedule relating to trade and commerce,' Article 303(l)l
I
Clause (2) of Article 303 engrafts an exception to the limitation contained in clause (l), in
as much as it permits
Parliament to make a law giving preference, or making discrimination between one State
and another, if it is
declared by such law that it is necessary to do so for the purpose of dealing with a situation
arising from scarcity
of goods in any part of the territory of India.
The limitations imposed by Article 303(l) on Parliament also apply to State Legislatures.
This means that State
Legislatures cannot make laws that discriminate between States in matters of trade and
commerce.
However, State Legislatures do not have the exceptional power provided to Parliament under
Article 303(2). In
otherwords, while Parliament can make discriminatory laws during a situation of scarcity, State
Legislatures do
not have this authority.
[Source: hthrs://interstatecouncil.eov.in/wp-contenVuploads/2015/06/CHAPTERjKVIIl.pdf]
63. Karnataka is a major agricultural state in India, known for its production of crops such
as rice, sugarcane, and
various fruits and vegetables. However, due to local political pressures and concerns over supporting
the
livelihoods of Karnataka's farmers, the state government decided to enact a policy that severely restricted
the
flciw of agricultural goods from other states into Karnataka. Under this new policy, the state government
of
Karnataka imposed exorbitant taxes and levies on the entry of agricultural products from Maharashtra
and Tamil
Nadu. Additionally, the state government introduced . licensing system, which made it extremely
difficult for traders and farmers from neighboring states to "o.pi",
engage in cross-border trade. This included mandatory
permits, inspections, and high fees for any goods entering Karnataka. Is it valid in light
of the passage?
(a) No, because the law to discriminate between states in tade can only be made by Parliament
on the ground ofscarcity.
(b) Yes, because the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse can be put to limitations
under Article 30 I .
(c) No, because the law to impose restrictions on other states in inter-state trade can only
be made by parliament
on the ground ofnatural disaster.
(d) Yes, because the state government is empowered underArticle 303 to impose restrictions
on inter-state trade.

64. The Nilgiri River originates in Karnataka and flows into Kerala. Both states heavily rely
on the river for
irrigation, drinking water, and other essential pu{poses. Over the years, disputes had
arisen over the distribution
of water from the Nilgiri River, as well as allegations of Karnataka's excessive use of
water, leading to adverse
effects downstream in Kerala. In an attempt to address the water-sharing dispute and
concerns over the equitable
distribution of resources, the Parliament of India enacted a law that imposed several
trade restrictions between
Kerala and Karnataka. The law stipulated that certain goods and commodities
could not be transported across
state borders, particularly those that were considered essential for the
agriculture and industrial sectors. A strict
licensing system was put in place, requiring traders and businesses to
obtain special permits for trade with the
neighboring state. Is it valid in light of the passage?
(a) Yes, because such a restriction is allowed under Article 302 for public
interest.
(b) No, because such restrictions cannot be imposed as freedom of trade
and commerce is free throughout India.
(c) Yes, because such a restriction is allowed under Article 303 for scarcity
of a private commodity.
(d) No, because such restrictions can be imposed by the state government
under Article 303.
65 In case Parliament enacts a law that prohibits supply for an essential good
to another state for the reason that the
other state has glut in the supply of that good from imports from a neighbouring
country, then:
(a) Such a law will not infringe the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse
under Article 301.
(b) Such a law will not infringe Article 303 (2) as there was a ground
on which discrimination was made.
(c) Such a law would infringe Article 301 as such restrictions can only be put for public
interest or scarcity.
(d) Such a law would not be violating Article 303 (2) as there was scarcity of such goods
in one state.
Head Offier r*7, Zone Il, MPNcgar, Bhopal l+gt-26765644@ lhttos!//sw.toprankelgffi
Page 21 of 44
 €ffiL"DGE'
because it is
the import of goods from two neighbouring state
66. If State government enacts a law that prohibits
excessively affecting that industry in their state, then:
and intercourse under Article 301
(a) The legislation will impinge on the freedom oftrade, commerce
states' producers under Article 19
(b) The legislation will impinge on the rights given to the neighbouring
(c) The legislation will impinge on power glven underArticle303regardingdiscriminationandrestriction.
(d) All of the above
i 1- - on
-- the ^-k' of
^L^ entry -andcfrom other states to tits
^€ goods
67 If State of premachal enacts a law which puts an additional tax
territories, then:
trade, commerce and intercourse is not absolute'
(a) Such a law will not infringe Article 301 as the freedom of
restriction is given to the President'
(b) Such a law will infringe articte lol as the power of putting
as it is liable to be restricted under Article
(c) such a law will not infringe on the freedom of trade and commerce
19.
as such power is not given to the state
government'
(d) Such a law will infringe Article 302 and303
2024 declared that caste-based division of
labour in
Passage (Q.6&Q.72): The Supreme Court on october
3,
in
..unconstitutional,, marking a significant milestone in addressing institutional biases entrenched
prisons is
Bench headed by chief Justice of India D'Y'
India,s correctional system. Accordingly, a three-judge for
prison manuals that reinforced such caste differences
chandrachud struck down severar provisions in State
prisoners'
being violative of the fundamental rights of
for classification only when it seeks to benefit victims
Underscoring that caste may be employed as a criterion
prison manuals failed to achieve this objective and instead
of caste discrimination, the top court ruled that the justifred when it seeks to
caste-based classification can be
contravened Article 14 of the constitution It added "segregating
economic conditions of disadvantaged groups' ?
remedy past injustices and improve the social and in the
prisoners on the basis of caste would reinforce caste
differences or animosity that ouglrt to be prevented
based on "habit"'
differentiating between inmates
first place,,, it reasoned. The judges further opined that equalrty'
..custom,,, ..superior mode of living," and "natural tendency to escape" offends principles of substantive
and indirect discrimination against marginalised
The ruling also flagged the perpetuation of both direct the high
work to the marginalised castes' while allowing
communities. "By assigning cleaning and sweeping under Article
castes to do cooking, the manuals directly
discriminate. This is an instance of direct discrimination
tasks to these communities based on theirpurported
l5(l),,, the Bench asserted. Furthermore, assigning specific deemed to result in
,.customary,, roles, rather than offering ..-ore-rkil'ied, dignifi.d, or intellectual work," was
indirect discrimination'
cooked by members of a "suitable caste"
or "menial duties" to
Referring to Pnson rules that require food to be these practices
"accustomed" to such work, the court noted that
be exclusivelY Performed bY communities restrict the
Article 17 of the Constitution' "When Prison Manuals
constituted untouchability, prohibi ted under life. At the same time, such
communities, they violate their right to
reformation of Prisoners from marginalised that theY should
groups of a sense of dignitY and the expectation
provisions dePrive Prisoners from marginalised
be treated equallY", the Chief Justice
further underscored'
'casteist' provisions tn
revisions,from "Why did the SuPreme Court strike down
[Extracted, with edrts and
India's prison manuals? | Explained/ The Hindu/,

Page 2JZ ot
Head Office: e7, Zone II, MPNagar' Bhopal nq-7a765644a1
 ,. bqanlmr
€' IJGALEDGE-
68. Which of the following scenarios does not rq)resent caste-based discrimination,
as per the court,s ruling?
(a) Arjun, a prisoner from a marginalised community, is assigned cleaning
duties because the prison authorities
believe that this matches his community's traditional role. The authorities argue that
this assignment
preserves cultural practices within the prison.
(b) Sameer, from a marginalised caste, is given the opportunity to work in the
library alongside prisoners from
other castes, as the prison aims to provide equal access to skilled and dignified
work regardless of caste
background.
(c) Ravi, a prisoner from a higher caste, is assigned to cooking duties while prisoners
from marginalized castes
are assigned to cleaning and sweeping. The prison manual states that such divisions
are based on the
"customary roles" of these communities.
(d) Pooja' a prisoner from a marginalised community, is given only menial
asks like sweeping, while inmates
from higher castes are given roles involving learning new skills. The prison authorities
argue that this
allocation of duties is based on the habits and customs of the inmates.
69 Ravi files a case against a state-run organisation in Karnataka, challenging their policy
of reserving 30% of
employment seats for candidates from Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST).
He that the
reservation policy harms his religious feelings by favouring certain castes. The ".gr",by stating
state defends the polty
that the reservation is specifically designed to uplift the marginalised castes
who have historically faced
discrimination, providing them with better employment opportunities and helping
to improve their social and
economic condition, which has historically been affected by discrimination.
Choose the court,s reasoning.
(a) The court strikes down the reservation policy, stating that any classification
based on caste is discriminatory
and violates the principle of equality under Article 14 of the Constitution
(b) The court concludes that the reservation policy must be ended because it goes
against the principle of merit,
stating that everyone should have equal opportunities regardless of caste.
(c) The court finds that reservations based on caste should only apply if all members
of a caste are disadvantaged,
ruling that the policy should consider individual situations instead of making general
a classification based
on caste.
(d) The court decides that the reservation is justified because caste
can be used as a reason when it aims to
provide support to those who have faced discrimination, helping to
improve their social and economic status.
70. The Supreme Court ruled that prison manuals restrict the
reformation of prisoners from marginalised
communities, violate their right to life and take away their dignity. Based
on this ruling, decide if the court
believes that prisoners from marginalised groups should be treaLd
equally and given chances for reformation.
(a) Yes, because the court highlighted that all prisoners deserve
equal treatment and opportunities to reform, and
denying marginalised prisoners this chance goes against their
fundamental rights.
(b) No, because the court stated that different treatment is needed
based on a priloner's caste to maintain order
and disciplinewithin the prison system.
(c) Yes' because the ruling emphasises that all prisoners should
have the opportunify to reform, and while it
highlights the importance of diglity, it also mentions the need to remove untouchability from the
Constitution.
(d) No, because the court's ruling only examines the prison manuals
and does not propose any changes to how
all
prisoners should be treated.
7l Analyse the following scenarios and decide which of these violates the principles
of substantive equality.
I' A prison policy assigns inmates with a history of escaping to higher security cells, while other inmates are
allowed in lower-securit5r areas, without considering their current behaviour
or reform effors.
II' A prison implements a job allocation system where inmates can apply for various tasks, such as
cooking,
teaching, or maintaining the library. Selection is based on individual
skills and interests.
Head Om@s r27, Zone II, MPNagar, Bhop al | +gt-767656 44@l
Page 23 ot 44
 ffi
to engage in cleaning work, arguing that it aligns with
III. Prison authorities require prisoners of lower caste like managing
caste prisoners are given more skilled tasks
their community's traditional roles, while upper
the library.
IV.Arehabilitationprogramcategorisesprisonersbasedontheirinterestsandpreviousworkexperience,
their skills and provides access to training for all'
allowing them to choose roles that match
V.Askill-buildingprograminaprisonofferscourseslikecarpentry'tailoring''idt:Tlt:erliteracy^All
provided to those who didn't have expenence
prisoners ur" to participate, and extra assistance is
".r"o.,rJged
of such work.
rural backgrounds mu.St perform farming tasks,
VI' A prison manual stipulates that inmates who come from familiar
to administrative work, assuming they are more
while those from urban backgrounds are assigned
with paperwork.
(a)I,IIandV(b)IandIIIonly(c)I,lIIandV(d)I,IIIandVI
prisoners are assigned
against the prison authorities, arguing that
72. Ramesh, a prisoner, files a petition in court by assigning
that the prison is reinforcing caste differences
work based on their caste background. He claims the opportunity
He argued that every prisoner should have
tasks based on caste and the system is discriminatory.
to engage in more skilled or dignified work'
Thestateprisonauthoritydefendsitsactionsbyarguingthatthegivenworksarebasedontheprisoners'past
..customary roles,, they are familiar wrth. They criim that this division is not intended to
be
skills and the skills' They
smoothry by utilising each prisoner's background
discriminatory but to ensure that the prison runs
within the prison, as prisoners are fiIore comfortable
further argue that this system helps maintain order
performing tasks they are accustomed to' Decide' reinforces
assigning tasks based on "customary roles"
(a) The court will rure in favour of Ramesh, ruring that
practices violite the principles of substantive equality
and
caste differences and is discriminatory. such
solely based on their caste background'
dignity, and prisoners should not be urrign.d work based on
accepting their argument that assigning tasks
(b) The court will rule in favour of the prisoi authorities, it is aimed at
..customary roles" respects the prisoners' previous skills and does not violate their rights
as

maintaining order and efficiency in the prison'

(c)Thecourtwillconcludethatbothpartieshavevalidpointsandthatamiddlegroundshouldbefoundwhere the manual's
skills and preferences, rather than folrowing
prisoners can choose their work based on their
caste-based assignments the assignments
of ill-treatment or abuse of the prisoners'
(d) The court will oJ.ia. that since there is no evidence
basedoncustomaryroleswillbeallowed,aslongasthelivingconditionsareequalforallinmates'
in the recentvidhan Sabha session, registration
passage (Q.73-Q.7s): According to the new B*-z,,4approved
those violating direction will
government has become compulsory and
of private coaching institutes by the state passed to register and regulate private
heavy penalties ranging up t"o n l lakh. The Bill has been
have to face jobs, and professional
coaching institutes providing coaching
for competitive examinations in higher studies,
courses.
private coaching Institutes 8111,2024' no
and Regulation of
As per the provisions of rhe Haryana Registration or give false
to be published any misleading advertisement
private coaching institute shall publish J, .uur. a fine of Rs 25'000 for
of violation of the Act, iishall be liable for
information related to coaching and in case the registration of
Rs 1 lakh for the subsequent vioration and if the violation continues then
the first violation,
the private coaching institute shall be
cancelled'
deputy commissioner in
there shall be an Authority, headed by the
After the implementation of the new law, to include the sP of the district
and regulate private coachinginstitutes
each district across the state to register

Pag€ u
Head Office! 127' Zone lI, MP Nagar' Blropal
 €ffiLEDGE
concerned and education department officers. The authorities will constitute a grievance
redressal cell at the
district level and will inspect violation of rules or upon a complaint against such private
coaching institutes.
The Act also stated that every private coaching institute shall engage at least one
full-time counsellor to address
mental health and stress-related issues among students. For the registration of a new
coaching centres, an
application needs to be made to the district-level Authority, whereas in case of those private
coaching institutes
which have been established prior to the commencement of this Act shall also get themselves
registered for a
period of three years within a period of three months from the commencement
of this Act.
While talking to the media persons, Haryana Higher Education Minister Mool Chand
Sharma said the state
government is taking various welfare measures in the field of education.
Answer the following questions that the bill is enacted.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from *Bill-2024 for registration of private coaching institutes in Haryana
passed" by Parvesh Handq The Financial World].

73. Bright Future Coaching Institute, a well-known public coaching institute in Gurugram
preparatory classes for engineering and medical entrance exams had been
, Haryana, offering
running for over five years. In 2025,
it has continued to operate without registering under The Haryana Registration and Regulation of private
Coaching Institutes Bill,
2024, despite the new law making it compulsory. The local education authorities
discovered that Bright Future had not completed the mandatory registration process
and issued to impose a fine
on the institute. However, the institute's management argued that their reputation and years
oi operation
exempted them from compliance. Decide whether Bright Future Coaching Institute will
be liable to paythe fine
or not.
(a) Bright Future Coaching Institute will be liable to pay the fine of Rs 25,000 under the
Haryana Registration
and Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill,2024 because the new law made
it compulsory.
(b) Bright Future Coaching Institute will be liable to pay the fine of upto Rs 1,00,000
for the violation of
directions under Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill,2Oz4.
(c) Bright Future Coaching Institute will not be liable to pay the fine under the Haryana
Registration and
Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Blll,2024 because the Act will not be
applicable on the institute.
(d) Bright Future coaching Institute will not be liable to pay the fine under the
H"ryun" Registration and
Regulation ofPrivate Coaching Institutes Bill,2o24as theirreputation and years
ofoperation exempted them
from compliance.
74 Excel Minds coaching center, a private coaching institute in Hisar, Haryana,
ran an aggressive marketing
campaign claiming aL00o/o success rate in the state's medical entrance
exams. their advertisements, displayed
on billboards and prominently featured testimonials from
"toppers". However, an investigation by concerned
parents revealed that only a handful of students from Excel
Minds had actually qualified for medical entrance
exams and none had achieved top ranks as advertised. The parents
filed a case claiming that Excel Minds was
guilty ofviolation of The Haryana Registration and Regulation
ofPrivate coaching Instiirtes eill zgza asixcel
Minds intentionally deceived students and parents with false promises.
However, Excel Minds coaching center
argued that the advertisements were intended to convey
.orfid"o." in their coaching methods and not an actual
guarantee' Decide whetherExcel Minds wouldbe guilty
ofviolation ofThe Haryanai.egistration and Regulation
of Private Coaching Institutes Bill,2024 or not.
(a) Excel Minds would be guilty of violation of The Haryana
Registration and Regulation of private coaching
Institutes Bill, 2024 for publishing misleading advertisem"ri
o, giving false information related to their
coaching.
(b) Excel Minds would not be guilty of violation
of The Haryana Registration and Regulation of private
coaching Institutes Bill, 2024 because the advertisements
were intended to convey confidence in their
coaching methods and not an actual guarantee.

Head Ofricer rz7, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal +91-7676564400

| I
Page 25 of 44
 6 LEGATEDGE
to@{tre

Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching

( c) Excel Minds would be guiltY of violation of The Haryana
deceived students and parents with false Promises'
Institutes Bill, 2024 because Excel Minds intentionally
Registration and Regulation of Private
(d) Excel Minds would not be guiltY of violation of The Haryana
Coaching Institutes Blll, 2024 because the Act
will not be applicable on the institute'
Excel Minds coaching center was found to be
guilty of publishing misleading
75 suppose, in the above instance, ,,giraranteed admission" claims. Thereafter, it removed the
advertisements about their 100%o success rate and
This time, Excel Minds posted new advertisement
original ads but quickly launched a new marketing campaign. The blatant
,,90yo of our students secure admission to their dream colleges," without any factual basis'
claiming
them and the authorities decided to cancel the
disregard for authority and continued defiance aggravated
by personal agitation
registration of Excel Minds. However, Excel Minds argued that decision was influenced
coaching
the authorities can cancel registration of Excel Minds
on the part of the authorities. Decide whether Bill'
and Regulation of Private coaching Institutes
center on account of violation of rhe Haryana Registration
2024 or not.
center on account of violation of The
(a) The authorities can cancel registration of Excel Minds coaching
Institutes 8111, 2024 because the coaching
Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private coaching
related to their coaching'
published misleading advertisement or gave false information
on account of violation of The
(b) The authorities cancel registrati,on of Excel Minds coaching center
"unrio, Institutes Bill,zoz4because the decision was not
Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private coaching
based on aPPlication of the law'
center on account of violation of The
(c) The authorities can cancel registration of Excel Minds coaching
private
coaching blatant disregard
Institutes Bill,2024 because the
Haryana Registration and Regulation of
for authority and continued defiance aggravated the authorities'
Center on account of violation of The
(d) The authorities cannot cancel r"girt.tiin of Excel Minds Coaching
Institutes BIll,2024 because that decision was
Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching
influencedbypersonalagitationonthepartoftheauthorities.
private coaching
Registration and Regulation of
76. which of the folrowing is the main aim of rhe Haryana
Institutes Btll,2024?
examinations in higher studies' jobs' and
(a) To register and regulate private coaching institutes for competitive
professional courses.
giving false information related to coaching'
(b) To prevent publishing any misleading advertisement or
(c)Toaddressmentalhealthandstress-relatedissuesamongstudents.
(d) All of the above.
Achievers coaching Institute (A private coaching
77 In Kuruksheffa, Haryana, a complaint was fired against
institute for GLAT preparation) for charging
.*".rrii. fees without proper disclosure. The district's regulatory was
(DC) and two officers from the education deparfrnent'
authority, which includied the Deputy comriissioner inspection and decided
to the complaint. The authority did thorough
scheduled to inspectthe institute in response argued that the authorities
of such inspection. Hdwever, the institute
to revoke the institute,s license on the basis private coaching Institutes Bill,2024 to
Registration and Reguration of
are not empowered under The Haryana for charging excessive
revoke the institute,s license. Decide
*trethe, the authority can revoke institute's license
fees without proper disclosure or noL because
for charging excessive fees without proper disclosure
(a) The authority car-rerot. institute,s license private coaching Institutes
Haryana Registration and Regulation of
authorities are empowered under The
Bill, 2024 to revoke the institute's license' proper disclosure because
license for charging excessive fees without
(b) The authoritY cannot revoke institute's of Private Coaching
The Haryana Registration and Regulation
the authorities are not emPowered under
institute's license'
Institutes Bill, 2024 to revoke the Page mot 11

Head Ofticer r4,?fiell, MPNaga!, Bhopal

 (c) The authority
6ffirrDcE"
can revoke institute's license for charging excessive fees without proper
they had investigated properly in the presence of all required members
disclosure but only if
of the authority as mentioned under
The Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes
Bill, 2024.
(d) The authority cannot revoke institute 's license for charging excessive
fees without proper disclosure because
the quorum of the authority is not complete and not in accordance of The Haryana Registration and
Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024.
78' Which of the following private coaching institute can get itself registered
under the Haryana Registration and
Regulation of private Coaching tnstitutes Bill,2OZ4?
(a) At Pinnacle Academy, a coaching institute in Panchkula, Haryana,
the management recognizing the intense
pressure students faced while preparing for competitive
exams hired Dr. Riya Sharm", u p"rt+i-e counselor
who is a licensed psychologist with experience in educational counseling.
Dr. Sharma,siole was to provide
support through regular counseling sessions, workshops on stress
management, and mental health awareness
programs.
(b) In the town ofFatehabad, Haryana' Achieve More coaching
lnstitute had been serving students for over five
years, helping them prepare for various competitive
exams. However, when The Haryana Registration and
Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Btll,2}24came into
effect on O4.lo.z[z4,the owner, Ms. Kavita
singh submitted their registration application to the district-level authority
on 01.01.2025 for getting
registration till 0 1.0 1.2029.
(c) In the town of Ambala, Haryana, Future scholars coaching
Institute decided to open a new center to cater
to students preparing for competitive exams. The institute's director, Mr.
Rajiv Meht4 gattrered the
necessary documents and meticulously filled out the
application form, prwiding essential deails such as the
institute's proposed location, course offerings, faculty qualifications,
and safety measures in place for
students for registration with the state-level authority.
(d) In the city ofHisar, Haryana, Bright Future coachini
center had been a prominent establishment for students
preparing for engineering entrance exams for over
a decade. When The Haryana negist aiioo aoa negutatio,
of Private coaching lnstitutes Bt1l,2o24was enacted onz2.06.2024,Mr.Anil
Kumar, the director of Bright
Future, immediately submitted their application to the
district-level authority for getting registration till
22.06.2028.
Passege (Q'79-Q's4): The supreme court on Friday
expressed dismay over the persistent misunderstanding
and
misapplication of the law regarding the offences of criminal
breach of trust ant cheating which has sprouted
various unjust outcomes in society.

The court observed that it is coilrmon practice for police

officers to register FIRs for both criminal breach of trust
and cheating based on mere allegations of dishonesty or fraud.
This-mechanical approach, it noted, has led to
numerous instances of injustice and has muddied the legal
waters and thus needs to be remedied by setting
reforms and guidelines to maintain sanctity ofjustice.
The IPC (now BNS) through sec 405 defined criminal Breach
of Trust as "whoever, being in any manner
entrusted with property, or with any dominion overproperty,
dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own
use that property, or dishonestly uses or disposes of thai property
the mode in which such trust is to be discharged, or of
in violatioo #-y direction of law prescribing
any legal contrac! express or implied, which he has made
touching the discharge of such trust, or wilfully suffers any odrer person
soto do, commits ..criminal breach of
trust"."
The IPC (now BNS) through sec 415 defined cheating as o'whoever,
by deceiving any person, fraudulently or
dishonestly induces the person so deceived to deliver any property to
any percon, or to consent that any person
shall retain any property, or intentionally induces the person so deceived
to do or omit to do anything which he

Hcrd Olltccr rz7, Zorc U, Mp Nag*, E";

 Efll TT
€ LEGALET)ciE
or omission causes or is likely to cause damage
would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and which act
or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property,
is said to "cheat"."
are distinct in nature. criminal breach
while both offences involve dishonest intent, the court highlighted, they
of tnrst pertains to a situation where property is legally entrusted to a
person, who then dishonestly
from the outset, where a person is
misappropriates it. Cheating, however, involves a fraudulent inducement
deceived into parting with properly or consent, it said'
distinct and cannot coexist under the same set
The court was unequivocaithat both offences are ildependent and
of facts.
from "Must clari& the legal differences between cheating, criminal
breach
[Extracted, wittr edits and revisions
Times].
of t lot, says supreme court" by utkarsh Anand, The Hindustan
Breaoh of rrust in accordance to sec 405
79 Decide which of the following would not be an example of criminal
IPC?
on the sidewalk' The wallet
(a) Ravi, a college student, was walking home when he found a leather wallet
contained <20,000 in eash and several credit cards. Ravi took the
wallet home, thinking it might be difficult
an effort to locate the owner, Ravi
to find the owner. Instead of reporting the find to the police or making
abandoned property.
decided to use the money for his own expenses, believing it was
had entrusted her with
(b) Neha worked as a financial manager fo. a norr-profit organization. The organization
savings plan' Neha, however, saw an
<15,00,000 to invest in low-risk bonds, as part of their long-term
she could earn a high return for the
opportunity to make a quick profit in the stock market. Believing
informing or getting
organization,Neha used 110,0b,000 of the funds to invest in high-risk stocks without
approval from the organization's board'
shop. Before leaving for a
(c) Ramesh and sanjay were lifelong friends and business partners in an electronics
pay a supplier. Sanjay, facing personal
two-week pilgrimage, Ramesh entrusted Sanjay with {5,00,000 to
in hopes of winning more' However'
financial troubles A--u" to gambling debts, decided to use the money
Sanjay lost all the money gambling' i n-r^-^ r^-,^r..
bungalow. Before traveling
(d) Anil worked as a caretakei for Mr. Sharma, a businessman who owned a vacant
abroad for six months, Mr. Sharma instructed Anil to only
maintain the bungalow but seeing an opportunity
without Mr' Sharma's
to make money, Anil decided to lease the bungalow to a family temporarily,
wouldn't find out'
permission. Anil collected rent from the family, believing Mr' Sharma
parbrers in an electronics shop. Before leaving for a two-
80. Ramesh and Sanjay were lifelong friends and business
Sanjay, facing personal financial
week pilgrimage, Ramesh entrusted sanjay with <5,00,000 to pay a supplier.
of winning more. Surprisingly, Sanjay won
troubles due to gambling debts, decided to use the money in hopes
a large sum and was able to retum {5,00,000 to the
supplier as Ramesh had instructed. when Ramesh retumed"
he was initially unaware of Sanjay's actions. However, the
truth eventually came out when a mutual friend' who
had seen sanjay at the gambling den, told Ramesh about it.
Although Sanjay had returned the money as directed,
trust" under Section 405 of the IPc,
Ramesh filed a case ag-ainst Sanjay charging him with "criminal breach of
decide whether Sanjay can be held lible or not'
and
breach of trust" under Section 405 of the IPC because Ramesh
' ' Sanjay can be treid tiaUte for,,criminal
(a)
shop'
Saojay were lifelong friends and business partners in an electronics
of trust" under section 405 of the IPC because Sanjay did
(b) Sanjay cannot te hela liable for "criminal breach
due to gambling debts'
not had dishonest intentions but facing personal financial troubles
,,criminallreach of tnrst" under Section 405 of the IPC because by using the
(c) Sanjay can be held liable for
to hold the money for a supplierpayment'
money for gambling, he violated the instructions given by Ramesh
405 of the IPC because he had
(d) Sanjay cannot Ue treta liable for "criminal breach of trust" under Section
returned the money as directed to the supplier'

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 .t bor{ra
€l rucnuDcE
81. Decide which of the following is a correct example of Cheating as per Sec 415 of the tpc?
(a) Priya, a schoolteacher, was known in her community for her involvement in various activities. Mrs. Gupta,
an elderly resident, assumed Priya was a social worker dedicated to charitable causes. Based on this
assumption, Mrs. Gupta decided to donate {50,000 to Priy4 believing she was contributing to a charity. Mrs.
Gupta presented the money to Priya as a donation. Priya unaware of Mrs. Gupta's assumptions and the
intended charitable context, accepted the money and used it for her personal expenses.
(b) Rajesh, a small business owner, was struggling to find investors for his new startup. He met Sameer, an
experienced investor, and presented a fake investment opportunity. Rajesh forged documents showing
impressive financial projections and past successes. Rajesh convinced Sameer that investing {5,00,000 in
his startup would yield substantial returns. Sameer, impressed by the falsified documents and Rajesh's
convincing presentation, invested the amount.
(c) Raj, a financial advisor, made a presentation to several potential investors about a promising new investment
opportunity in a tech startup. He claimed that the startup had secured substantial contracts and was on the
verge of a major breakthrough, exaggerating the potential returns and downplaying the risks. Maya was not
impressed by Raj's presentation. However, before any investments were made or money was transferred,
Maya discovered that the startup was not as promising as he had claimed.
(d) All of the above.
82. Nischal found a leather bag containing {10,000 in cash and personal items while walking in the park. A few days
later, the rightful owner, Mrs. Rao, came forward to identiff the bag and requested its return. Nischal, who was
aware that the bag belonged to Mrs. Rao, falsely claimed that the bag was his own and refused to return it. He
kept the bag and its contents, despite knowing it did not belong to him. Nischal claimed that since he found the
bag, he believes he has a right to keep it under the principle of "finders keepers," asserting that it was his by
virtue of finding it. Decide whether Nischal can be held liable for cheating under Sec 415 of the IpC or not.
(a) Nischal can be held liable for cheating under Sec 415 of the IPC because Nischal deceived Mrs. Rao by
falsely claiming ownership of the bag.
(b) Nischal cannot be held liable for cheating under Sec 415 of the IPC because he did not intend to deceive
Mrs. Rao but genuinely thought the bag was now his property due to the circumstances of finding it.
(c) Nischal can be held liable for cheating under Sec 415 of the IPC because he deceived Mrs. Rao by falsely
claiming ownership of her property and unlawfully retained it, causing her loss and distress.
(d) Nischal cannot be held liable for cheating under Sec 415 of the IPC because since he found the bag, he
believes he has a right to keep it.

83. Anil, a trustee for a community fund, was responsible for managing donations meant for a local charity. Anil,
facing personal financial issues, decided to use part of the funds for his own expenses while falsely representing
to the community that the funds were being used for charity work. The police charged Anil
under both Criminal
Breach of Trust and cheating, as he both misappropriated the funds (CBT) and deceived the
donors about how
the funds were being used (cheating). However, he claimed that the actions for which
he is being charged were
part of a single continuous act ofmisappropriation and deception, and therefore,
charging him with both offenses
is redundant. Decide whether Anil can be charged under both Sec 405 and 415 of the
IpC or not.
(a) Anil can be charged underboth Sec 405 and 415 of the IPC because he both misappropriated
the funds (CBT)
and deceived the donors about how the funds were being used (cheating).
(b) Anil can be charged under both Sec 405 and 415 of the IPC because it is common practice
forpolice officers to
register FIRs for both criminal breach of trust and cheating based on mere
allegations of dishonesty or fraud.
(c) Anil cannot be charged under both Sec 405 and 415 of the IPC because
the actions for which he is being
charged were part of a single continuous act of misappropriation and deception,
and therefore, charging him
with both offenses is redundant.

Head Omce! r2Z, Zone II, MP Nagar,

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 ffiffiffiDGE
(d) Anil cannot be charged under both Sec 405 and 415 ofthe IPC because both offences are independent and

distinct and cannot coexist under the same set of facts.

84 Decide which of the following is not a colrect inference from the passage?
(a) The Supreme Court's dismay reflects a concern that the offenses of criminal breach of trust and cheating are
not being handled appropriately, potentially leading to unjust outcomes.
(b) The court emphasized on the distinct nature of these offenses and that they should be evaluated and
prosecuted according to their specific legal definitions and conflated or treated interchangeably.
(c) ihere is a need for reform or better guidelines to ensure that FIRs are registered and pursued in a manner
that accurately reflects the legal requirements of Criminal Breach of Trust and cheating.
(d) Criminal Breach of Trust concerns the breach of an established trust relationship, while cheating involves
deceitful actions designed to induce someone to give up property or consent from the outset.

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H..dOfii".t rz7, Zo.e lI, MP Nagar, Bhopal I
 ^* borslsr.
E IUcAIEDGE
SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONIN(
Directions (Q.85-Q.108): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.85-Q.90): Human behaviours, including tobacco and alcohol consumption,
dietary behaviours,
physical activity and sexual practices, play a key role in many of the leading causes
of aeath in developing and
developed countries. Even small changes in such behaviours can have substantial effects
on population health
outcomes. Understanding these behaviours and the contexts in which they occur is essential
for developing
effective evidence-based health behaviour change interventions and policies and for reducing
avoidable moUitity
and mortality.

Despite the relatively small investment in preventive health and behavioural science,
there is evidence for the
effectiveness of behaviour change interventions at individual, community and population
levels. Interventions
have been targeted at behavioural risk factors, encouraging protective behaviours, improving
adaptation to
chronic and acute illness and changing health professional behaviours to improve the quality
and efficiency of
services. While there are many examples of successful interventions, there are also examples
of ineffective
interventions; for those that are effective, the effects tend to be modest, with significant heterogeneity
of short-
terrn and long-term effects.

To maximise the potential efFrcacy of interventions, it is necessary to understand behaviour and

behaviour
change: in other words, it is necessary to have a theoretical understanding of behaviour
change. tn this context,
theory represents the accumulated knowledge of the mechanisms of action (mediators) and
moderators of change
as well as the a priori assumptions about what human behaviour is, and what the influences
on it are. The
application of theory is advocated as an integral step in intervention design and evaluation
and in evidence
a synthesis, for example, by the UK Medical Research Council's guidance for developing and
evaluating complex
interventions' This is for several reasons. First, the antecedents of behaviour and the causal
determinants of
change can be appropriately identifred and targeted by the intervention and component behaviour
change
techniques can be selected and/or refined and tailored. Second, theoretically identifred
mechanisms of action
(i.e., mediators) can be investigated to gain further understanding as to how the
intervention brings about its
effects. This allows researchers to determine whether unsuccessful interventions have failed
either because the
intervention has had no effect upon the hypothesised mediator or because the hypothesised (and
successfully
influenced) mediator has had no effect upon behaviour, thus facilitating more efficient
refinement of the
intervention. Third, theory summarises the cumulative knowledge of how to change
behaviour across different
populations, behaviours and contexts. Finally, theory-based interventions provide
an opportunity in which theory
can be tested. This aids development of more useful theories which, in turn, supports
intervention optimisation.
85. How might the principles outlined in the passage be applied to improve the effectiveness
of an intervention
aimed at reducing alcohol consumption in a specific population?
(a) By designing an intervention that includes widespread public health campaigns,
regardless of the
population's specific behaviors.
(b) By conducting a survey to identiff the most common reasons for alcohol consumption
in the population and
tailoring the intervention to address these reasons.
(c) By implementing an intervention that has been successful in another population,
without modifying it for the
new context.
(d) By focusing on increasing awareness of the health risks associated with alcohol
consumption without
addressing other factors.

86. According to the passage, why might some health behavior change interventions have
only modest or varied
effects?
(a) The interventions do not adequately address the underlying behavioral risk factors.
(b) The interventions are often too complex to be effectively implemented.
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 *ffi,LEIreE
(c) The interventions maY lack a theoretical basis, leading to ineftective targeting of behavior.
(d) The interventions are frequently conducted without sufficient fu nding.
is essential for understanding and
87 The passage argues that using theory in health behavior change interventions
reasoning?
,"rg"iirrg blhaviors effectiveiy. Which of the following most closely parallels this
understand complex concepts,
(aia teactrer insists on using proven educational methods to ensure students
rather than relying on intuition or trial and error'
issues can be
(b) A company decides to implement a new software system without testing it, assuming that any
resolved later.
tests,
(c) A doctor prescribes medication based on a patient's symptoms without conducting any diagnostic
believing the symptoms are sufficient for diagnosis'
principles'
(d) An architect designs a building based on aesthetic preferences alone, ignoring engineering
interventions are more
88. Which of the following, if tnre, would most strengthen the conclusion that theory-based
effective than those not based on theory?
behavior
(a) A meta-analysis shows that theory-based interventions consistently result in higher long-term
change rates compared to non-theory-based interventions'
difficult to
(b) Several theory-based interventions have been widely criticized for being overly complex and
implement'
rennrf that
rolc report
(c) Health professionals thet theory-based al more time-consumn ng but do not necessarily
the.rv-based interventions are
yield better results.
the needs of
(d) Research indicates that theory-based interventions are more expensive but often fail to address
diverse populations.
in changing
89 which of the following would best help evaluate the effectiveness of theory-based interventions
health behaviors?
non-theory- based
(a) A study comparing the long-term health outcomes of participants in theory-based versus
interventions.
healthcare
(b) An analysis of the costs associated with implementing theory-based interventions across different
systems.
(c) A survey of health professionals' opinions on the practicality of using theory in designing interventions'
(d) A review of the number of peer-reviewed articles that support theory-based interventions'
90. What is the central idea of the passage?
community,
(a) The success of behaviour change interventions is guaranteed if they are applied at individual,
and population levels.
(b) Understanding the theoretical basis of human behaviour and applying this knowledge
is essential for
outcomes'
designing effective behaviour change interventions and improving health
(c) Behaviour change interventions have had consistently strong long-term effects in improving public health,
regardless ofcontext'
of interventions
(d) preventive health and behavioural science are largely ineffective due to the modest impact
across different PoPulations.
paper
passage (Q.g1-Q.g6\z lg62,economist Hawkins Stern of the Stanford Research Institute published a
lt
titled
lThe Significance of Impulse Buying Today." Aware of the influence of behavioral psychology on

consumer habits, the william wrigley Jr company commissioned

this seminal study in order to gain insights
that would later shape strategies that vastly improved product sales.
practice of placing chewing gum
For anyone who has ever stood at a checkout counter and wondered about the
is that, by the time
on it, a review of Stem's work is highly recommended. The idea behind this strategy
Pag€ of 44
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 .- builfil1$-
Sl I^uc^g,LH)GE
consumers reach a checkout counter, their decision-making ability has been so exhausted by the act of making
choices about their other purchases that they are more vulnerable to impulsive buys, such as gum. Intriguingly,
some of the concepts outlined in this piece find application not only in economics but also in medicine. For
instance, the phenomenon of decision fatigue outlined above is also known to impair clinicians' prescribing
ability. One manifestation of this phenomenon is the increased likelihood that primary care clinicians will
prescribe antibiotics for upper-respiratory tract infections towards the end of a clinic day as opposed to the
beginning of one.
The phenomenon of decision fatigue is but one example of many that fall under the umbrella of behavioral
psychology, a field that studies the connection between the systematic tendencies in our thinking and the way
that these tendencies respond to environmental stimuli and, ultimately, manifest as actions. [n essence, whether
conscious or subconscious, deliberate or accidental, heuristics and biases are vital factors in the everyday
decision making of physicians and patients alike.
The field of behavioral psychology finds its application in behavioral design and choice architecture, powerful
tools with which to influence the practice of health care professionals and the behaviors ofpatients. When choice
architecture is designed to influence behavior in a predictable way but without restricting options, it is often
called anudge.In September 2015, The White House issued an executive order directing federal agencies to
incorporate behavioral science into their'programs, thereby establishing the formation of "nudge units" or
behavioral design teams. By influencing the behaviors of citizens and government employees, these units were
able to improve outcomes in many areas, including energy conservation, personal savings, and completion of
college financial aid applications.

9l The argument that placing chewing gum at the checkout counter is an effective sales strategy relies on which of
the following assumptions?
(a) Consumeni are generally aware of the reasons behind their impulsive purchases at checkout counters.
(b) Decision fatigue affects consumers in a way that makes them more likely to purchase items they did notplan to buy.
(c) Chewing gum is perceived by consumers as a high-stakes purchase.
(d) The act of making decisions about other purchases has little to no effect on the consumer's mental state by
the time they reach the checkout counter.
92 If a study were conducted to test the effectiveness of placing chewing gum at the checkout counter, which of the
following findings would most support the claims made in the passage?
(a) Consumers who buy chewing gum at the checkout counter report higher levels of satisfaction with their
shopping experience.
(b) Stores that remove chewing gum from the checkout counter see no significant change in overall sales.
(c) Consumers are more likely to purchase chewing gum at the checkout counter if it is placed near other small,
low-cost items.
(d) Consumers are more likely to purchase chewing gum at the checkout counter after making complex
purchasing decisions elsewhere in the store.
93 Which ofthe following, if true, could serve as the most effective counterargument to the idea that decision fatigue
significantly increases impulsive purchases at checkout counters?
(a) Some consumers r€,port feeling more focused and deliberate in their purchasing debisions as they approach
the checkout count€r.
(b) Retailers find that the placement of high-demand items at the checkout counter drives more sales than low-
cost impulse items like chewing gum.
(c) Consumers who shop with children are less likely to make impulsive purchases, despite experiencing decision
fatigue.
(d) Impulsive purchases at checkout counters are more closely related to the appeal of the items than to the
mental state of the consumer.
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 ffiffiLmGE
Based on the information presented in the passage, which of the following can most logically be inferred
about
94.
the relationship between decision fatrgue and impulse buying?
(a) Consumers at checkout counters have likely already made numerous decisions before encountering items for
impulse buys.
(b) Consumers axe less likely to experience decision fatigue in environments with a wide variety ofproduct
options.
(c) Impulse buying is more likely to occur when consumers are presented with complex choices rather than
simple ones.
(d) Retailers place small, inexpensive items at checkout counters to capitalize on consumer vulnerability caused
by decision fatigue.
fatigue
95. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously undermine the idea that the phenomenon of decision
plays a significant role in clinicians' prescribing pattems throughout the day?
(a) Clinicians are equally likely to prescribe antibiotics for infections regardless of the time of day.
(b) Clinics where doctors take regular breaks between consultations show similar prescribing patterns
throughout the day.
(c) Experienced clinicians are more likely to prescribe antibiotics than their less experienced colleagues,
irrespective of timing.
(d) Clinicians receive daily reminders about appropriate antibiotic use, significantly reducing inappropriate
prescriptions throughout the day.

96 The main idea of the passage is best represented by:

(a) Behavioral design and choice architecture are powerful tools for improving healthcare and government
policy outcomes.
(b) Decision fatigue impacts both consumer behavior and clinical decision-making, highlighting the role of
behavioral psychology.
(c) Stem,s study on impulse buying is crucial for understanding consumer decisions at checkout courters in
retail.
(d) Nudge theory has proven effective in improving public sector outcomes, such as energy savings and
healthcare.
passage (e.97-Q.102): Social marketing in India has become increasingly focused on gender roles, family
hierarchy, and traditional marriage practices. Different forms of "femvertising" has taken hold there in
unexpected ways. To illustrate how this is happening, w€ selected for this article three emblematic
advertisements that not only challenge but also reverse the traditionally dominant roles that Indian fathers,
sons,

and husbands assume with the women in their lives'

Role inversion highlights men acting "out of script" to improvise a new way of assuming inherited, highly
codified familial roles. In these ads, Indian men, like their western counterparts, appear to have grown weary of
the limiting script and role that's been passed down to them.

The Ariel detergent ad opens with an older gentleman sitting at a dinner table, observing his grown daughter
performing a dizzying array of evening tasks while her husband sits watching television, calling out for his
evening tea, oblivious to her multi-tasking - a work call, preparing dinner, and supervising kids' homework' Her
father's off-screen voice reads a "Dear Daughter" letter in Hindi as he witnesses the gaping disparity of her
duties during the unpaid portion of her work day. Stunned by the pressures his "baby girl" is facing, the lamenting
dad acknowledges his direct responsibility for this state of affairs. Admitting that he provided the example that
she internalized, the dad resolves to change this once he's back home with mom, confiding that he is
"so very
sorryr" for not having provided a different role model. Cut to the next scene and dad is loading the machine with

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 SffiruDGE
his dirty laundry, much to mom's surprise, and the viewer is left with Ariel's parting slogan "Share the load"
because "why should laundry be a mother's job"?

When we repeatedly act out our roles in everyday life, we internalize information on our identity in the
form of social 'scripts' that we repeat and perfect over time. Now researchers have been applying the idea of
scripting practices to a variety of fields. Popular culture often provides striking examples of such gendered
scripts, as evident from studies on television and advertising as well as in social media and music. The advertising
culture in India seems ripe for revisiting these scripts, as our current research on Indian women's identity has
revealed.

In many homes, the kitchen still embodies gender segregation. Research into gender choice and domestic space
suggests that kitchen design preferences are gendered and linked to professional status: women versus men,
working versus non-working. The women's clothing company BIBA questioned this gendered space in apopular
2016 advertisement that went viral in lndia and beyond.

97. Which of the following is the primary argument of the author?

(a) Advertising in India, increasingly focused on redefining masculinity, pushes for a complete overhaul of all
gender-based societal norrns.
(b) Social marketing in India empowers women by reinforcing the importance of their traditional roles, while
subtly encouraging men to continue in their dominant positions.
(c) Social marketing in India subverting traditional roles of Indian men within the family reflects societal shifts
and a rethink on traditional gender roles.
a
(d) Advertising in India is primarily centered on encouraging men to take over women's traditional roles, pushing
women to take on more professional and leadership responsibilities.

98. What is the role of Aerial advertisement in the entire argument?

(a) The advertisement focuses on the father's personal apology and change in behavior which has been the cause
of his daughter's condition.
(b) The advertisement highlights conventional gender roles, yet challenges the gender dynamics.
(c) It illustrates reluctance of men to change their traditional roles and the expectation from women to handle
domestic chores.
(d) It highlights the need for more aggressive advertising strategies to address gender equality.
99. Which statement would the author most likely support?
(a) Men should take over household responsibilities while women handle external work.
(b) The focus should be more on women's rights than on men's rights.
(c) Challenging gender stereot)?es is necessary to build a more equitable society.
(d) It is crucial to recognize the shortcomings of a male-dominated society.
100. The author's argument "When we repeatedly act out our roles in everyday life, we intemalize
information on
our identity in the form of social 'scripts'that we repeat and perfect over time" depends on which
of the following
. assumption?
(a) Consistent repetition of societal roles reinforces the formation of social 'scripts'that
shape one,s identity.
(b) Social 'scripts' are formed only through intentional efforts to understand societal norns,
rather than through
habitual behaviors.
(c) Social 'scripts' are based primarily on individual preferences and not influenced
by societal nonns or
repetitive actions.
(d) Social 'scripts'are relevant and apply to individuals who actively seek to change their
roles in society.

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l0l. Each of the following cannot be inferred from the passage EXCEPT that
(a) The Ariel advertisement will contribute to a broader societal shift and bring gender equality in the society.
(b) The deeply entnenched traditional gender roles are not going to change so easily to bring gender equality in society.
man's responsibility.
i"i ffr. advertisement reinforces the idea that household chores should remain arole in contemporary society.
(d) Traditional gender roles and family dynamics continue to play a significant
102. In the context of the passage, the term "femvertising' is most likely to be
(a) female empowerment through socially-focused marketing'
(b) Marketing of products exclusively for women based on their preferences.
(c) Advertisements showing men and women in their conventional roles.
(d) Advertisements that cater men's needs to adopt female cenffic roles.
passage (e.103-Q.108): Ever frantically rush to your car after making a purchase to log in to yourbank account
because you might have spent too much? Maybe you've experienced that
jolt of happiness when you swipe your
you can tell, our
card followed bv a rust of guitt and shame when you realize you just busted your budget. As
first point of discussion on breaking bad spending habits relates to how you feel. Here are some tips: To break
bad spending habits, consider how they make you feel. Most spending feels fi.rn in the moment.
It's in the minutes
jot last not-so-great choice
- or even months - afterward that buyer's remorse sets in. Take a moment to down the
you made with your money. Note how you felt when you made the decision, how you felt in the minutes and
days after, and how you feel right now. You might notice a downward trajectory. This is what we
want to work
rewards! Decide
to change. Good spending habits might be a tough call at first, but they produce a lifetime of
your parents, or
which bad spending habits you want to break first. Take a look at your bank account, talk with
just look around yo* ho*. to get a feel for the spending habits you'd like to break. Feel free to start small and
select just one or two to address first. A few ideas include, going over on cell phone data, eating out when you
online,
have food at home, buying duplicates of items you forgot you already own, shopping impulsively
shopping sales because you love the thrill of a good deal, etc. I et's say you want to stop scrolling
through
Amazon prime before bed. you'll do best to replace this bad habit with a good one. You might decide to use a
digital alarm clock instead of your phone alarm, so you can leave your phone across the room at night. Replace
bad spending habits with good ones! By putting good spending habits in place, you'll eventually
make smart
money choices without much thought or effort.

103. The author is likely to agree with each of the following except that
(a) Replacing bad spending habits with positive alternatives can eventually lead to better financial decisions
with less effort.
(b) Spending money seems enjoyable but leads to feelings of guilt and regret aftenrard
habits'
(c) understanding tle emotional impact of spending can help individuals identiff and breakbad spending
in long-term regret.
(d) The e*citement of finding a good deal can lead to impulsive spending, which may result
to wtrich of the following
104. The stratery for improving one's spending habits in the passage can be best compared
approaches?
identiff areas of
(a) To improve academic performance, a student should review their past exam results,
weakness, and then create a study plan that focuses on these weak areas.
with those among
(b) To build stronger relationships, an individual should compare interactions among friends
them.
family, note the differences, and then use exclusive sfiategies for each of
the times when creative ideas flowed, and then do
(c) To increase creativity in problem-solving, recognize
experiments during times which are similar to those times.
their satisfaction and
(d) To achieve healthier eating habits, a person should track their food choices, observe
while reducing indulgent
anyresultant discomfort, and then gradually incorporate nutritious alternatives
foods.
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 6ffirgrlcE
105. which of the following would make the best title for the passage?
(a) Learning to Live with your poor Spending Habits
(b) Spending Money Without Feeling Regret
(c) Increasing Savings Through Higher Spending
(d) Tips for Better Spending Habits
106' Each of the following underlies the author's argument about improving spending habits EXCEpT that
(a) People are often unaware of the emotional trajectory of their spending decisions
(b) Buyer's remorse is a common outcome of impulsive or bad spending habits.
(c) People generally feel happier when they limit their spending to essential purchases only.
(d) Reflecting on past spending choices can help people break bad spending habits.
107. which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
(a) How you spend your money is just as important to your financial success as your decision to
save or get out
ofdebt.
(b) overspending or impulse-buying are signs of living and absorbing the realities of a capitalistic
world.
(c) Setting money goals and keeping them in mind whenever you swipe your card or hand
over cash will put
too much stress on you.
(d) 'Living on a budget' means living frugally. It means saving money to enjoy the goodness of life later.
108. According to the author, how do bad spending habits make us feel?
I (a) They feel rewarding throughout.
(b) They create conflicting feelings.
(c) They make us feel bad in the beginning.
(d) They create pressure to purchase things we don,t need.

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-E: ANTITATIvE TECHN
Dlrections (e.109-Q.112): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
.pl downstream is (a ie; mn, and ratio of the speed of boat 'P' in downstream and upstream is
The speed of boat
.S' can cover a distance of 240 km downstream in 6 hours and the ratio of the speed of boat
5:3, respectively. Boat
.p, and .S' in still water is 4:3, respectively. The speed of boat 'N' in still water is (a - 16) lor/h and it can catch boat
.D, which is 35 km ahead of it in 5 hours, when both the boats are travelling in the same direction.
oN' 'D') are rowing in the same river/strearn
Note:- All the boats ('P', 'S', and

109. What is the ratio of the speed of boat'S' in still waterto the speed of boat 'p' ilr still water?
(a) 4:3 O) s:3 (c) 5:4
(d) 9:7

110. The speed of boat 'N' in still water is how much percent ofthe speed ofthe sfeam?
(a) 2s0% O) 150% (c) 200% (d) 120%

1l l. Find the total time taken by boat 'P' to travel 120 km in upsheam and 150 km in downsheam.
(a) 5 houn (b) 4.5 hours (c) 6 hours (d) 7 hours

time taken by
112. If the downstream speed of another boat 'M' is l2}o/oofthat of the same of the boat 'P', then find the
boat
.M' to travel 160 km in the tpstream direction given the speed of the stream is l0 lfit/lt.
(a) 5 hours ft) 3.5 hours (c) 4.5 hours (d) 4 hours
questions.
Directions (Q.113-Q.116): Study the follOwing information carefully and answer the related
Following information gives the data regarding number of employees in different departments in company
A, B and C. There are only four departments in each company'
Company ttz 25o/oof total number of employees is in finance department which is l0 more than the
number
of employees in marketing department. tni respective ratio of number of male and female employees
in l
sales departrnent is 5: g anA ttreir difference is iO. fne average of numAerof employees
in marketing and
sales department taken together is I12. Some employees are in production department.
is 9: 1l
Company B: The respective ratio of number of employees in finance and marketing department
and their sum is 600-. Number of employees in sales department is 30% of number of employees
in
production department. Number or emptoyees in production department is 70 more than the number
of
employees in marketing department.
total number of
Company Cz 22%of total number of employees is in finance department and l2.5Yo of the
employeis is in sales department. fhe difference between the number of employees in finance and sales
department is 76. Number of employees in marketing department is 140% more than
the number of
employees in sales dePartment.
I13. The average of number of employees in production department from company B and C together is more
together'-
than the average of number of employees in marketing department from company A and B
Which of the following option is true for the given blank?
(a) 103 (b) 107 (c) e3 (d) e7

114. If the respective ratio of total number of employees in company A to that in company D is 4: 5 and
there
D to that in company B, then
arc Z5yo less employees in production department in company as compared
approximately wlat percent of number of employees from company D is in production department?
(a) 3l% (b) 35% @) 27% (d) 38%

I 15. If the average of number of employees in sales department from company A, C and
E together is 84, then
how many more/less is the number of employees in sales department in company E as'compared to that
in
company B?
(a) 32 (b) 28 (c) 30 (d) 34

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H..d OfiI..r rz7, Zone II, MPNatar, Bhopal I +9r-2676564400| lrtlDril^Ed deDrqDka!&seDr
 116. What is the respective ratio of total number of employees in company A and B together to the number of
6ffir-ErlcH
employees in marketing department from company A and c together?
(a) 3: I (b) 9: z (c) 8: 5 (d) 4: I
Directions (Q.117-Q.120): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
A sales company has four employees - Aman, Nihal, Sarjan and Pratap and each employee has to complete certain
number of calls to complete their desired target. Some of them did not complete the target while somi employees
completed more number of calls than the desired target.
The ratio of the number of call to be completed by Aman, Nihal, Sarjan and Pratap to meet their respective target
is
9: l2: l0: I 1, respectively.

For Aman - The number of calls made by him is 'A'oZ of total number of calls he has to complete to meet
the target.
Had he made 90 more calls, he would have completed his target.

For Nihal - The number of calls made by him is 20%o more than the number of his targeted calls and the number of
calls made by Aman is half of the number of calls made by him.

For Sarjan - The number of calls made by him is 75%o of his targeted calls. Had he made 'B' more calls, he
would
have completed his target.
For Pratap - Had he made 220 more calls, he would have completed his target. If he had taken 'C' more
calls, he
would have completed the A%o of a total number of calls he has to complete to meet the target.

I 17. What is the value of 'B'?

(a) 125 O) 140 (c) 175 (d) 200
,
I 18. Find the number of calls made by pratap.
(a) asO G) s00 (c) 220 (d) 330
I 19' Ifthe company paid Rs. l0 for each call till target and Rs. 15 for each additional call thereafter, then find the amount
received by Nihal.
(a) Rs.7200 (b) Rs.8400 (c) Rs.7800 (d) Rs.9000
120. What is the value of 'A'?
(a) 7s (b) 80 (c) e0 (d) 60

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SELF.ASSESSMENT PAGE

1 My sequence in today's Mock [write 1-5 in the box):

English Language Logical Reasoning Legal Reasoning

I
Quantitative Techniques
General lhowledge and Current Affairs

I I
2. Approx time devoted to each section:

English Language Logical Reasoning Legal Reasoning

General Knowledge and Current Affairs Quantitative Techniques

3. I:
E was too distracted during the Mock today
AL tr think I used the wrong sequence
E wrote today's Mock without any defined strategy around sequence, attempts etc in mind.
o spent a lot of time on section.

o couldn't understand the passage properly of these genres

Write a quick explanation of your mistakes.

That,s it! Now go through this page before you write your next Mock and ensure we don't repeat the same
mistakes.

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