VUTS NEET-2025 TEST-07

NEET

VIJAY UDGHOSH TEST SERIES-2.0

TEST-07
DURATION: 90 Minutes DATE: 28/01/2025 M.MARKS: 360

Topic Covered
Physics : Thermal Properties of Matter, Kinetic Theory of Gases and Thermodynamics.
Chemistry : Hydrocarbon.
Botany : Plant Kingdom- I-upto Bryophytes.
Zoology : Chemical Coordination and Integration.
GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1. There are four sections in the Question paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of
Section-1 (Physics), Section – II (Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section-IV
(Zoology) and all questions are compulsory.
2. Each question carry 4 Marks and for each incorrect response, one Mark will be
deducted from total scores. The maximum marks are 360.
3. No student is allowed to carry and textual material, printed or written, bits of papers,
pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
4. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take
away this Test Booklet with them.

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VUTS NEET-2025 TEST-07

SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
1. Thermal conductivity has units of:
(1) J m−1 K−1
(2) J kg−1 K−1 (4)
(3)
(3) J ohm sec−2 K−2
(4) Wm−1 K−1

2. If wavelength at 4500 K is𝜆𝑚 , the wavelength at

1500 K is 10. Two materials having coefficients of thermal
𝜆 conductivity 3K and K and thickness d and 3d,
(1) 3𝑚 (2) 9𝜆𝑚
respectively, are joined to form a slab as shown in
𝜆𝑚
(3) 9
(4) 3𝜆𝑚 the figure. The temperatures of the outer surfaces
are 𝜃2 and 𝜃1 respectively, ( 𝜃2 > 𝜃1 ). The
3. The average thermal energy for a mono - atomic temperature at the interface is:
gas is: (k𝐵 is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute
temperature)
7 5
(1) 2 K 𝐵 T (2) 2 K 𝐵 T
3 1
(3) 2
K𝐵 T (4) 2
K𝐵 T 𝜃2 +𝜃1 𝜃1 5𝜃2
(1) 2
(2) 6
+ 6
4. 50 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 50 g of water at 𝜃1 9𝜃2 𝜃1 2𝜃2
(3) 10
+ 10
(4) 3
+ 3
80°C, final temperature of mixture of will be
(1) 60𝑜 C (2) 0𝑜 C
𝑜 11. A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first
(3) 4 C (4) 40𝑜 C
becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow and
finally turns to white hot. The correct explanation
5. On a new scale of temperature (which is linear)
for the above observation is possible by using:
called the W scale, freezing and boiling points of
(1) Newton’s Law of cooling
water are respectively 39𝑜 W and 239 𝑜 W. What
(2) Stefan’s Law
will be the temperature on the new scale
(3) Kirchhoff’s Law
corresponding to a temperature of 39 𝑜 C on the
celcius scale? (4) Wien’s displacement Law
(1) 139𝑜 W (2) 200𝑜 W
(3) 117𝑜 W (4) 78𝑜 W 12. Two rods of different materials having coefficients
of linear expansion𝛼1 , 𝛼2 and Young’s moduli Y 1
6. If m mass of a substance undergoes a phase and Y 2 respectively are fixed between two rigid
change, then amount of heat required will be massive walls. The rods are heated such that they
(1) 𝛥 Q = mc 𝑝 𝛥 T (2) 𝛥 Q = mL undergo the same increase in temperature. There is
(3) 𝛥 = m 𝑠 𝛥 T (4) 𝛥 Q = mC 𝑣 𝛥 T no bending of rods. If 𝛼1 : 𝛼2 = 2 : 3 the thermal
stresses developed in the two rods are equal
7. If 𝛼 , 𝛽 , and 𝛾 are coefficients of linear, superficial provided Y 1 : Y 2 is equal to:
and volume expansion respectively, then: (1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 9
(1) 3𝛾 = 2𝛽𝛼1 + 𝛼2 (2) 2𝛾 = 3𝛽
(3) 𝛼 = 3𝛾 (4) 𝛼 = 2𝛽 13. The coefficient of linear expansion of crystal in
one direction is 𝛼1 and that in every direction
8. The ratio of radii of two spheres of same material perpendicular to it 𝛼2 The coefficient of cubical
is 1: 4. Then, the ratio of their heat capacity will expansion is:
be: (1) 𝛼1 + 𝛼2 (2) 𝛼1 + 2 𝛼2
(1) 1/4 (2) 1/32 (3) 2𝛼1 + 𝛼2 (4) None of these
(3) 1/64 (4) 1/2
14. Two rods A and B of different materials are
9. Which one of the figures gives the temperature welded together as shown in figure. Their thermal
dependance of density of water correctly? conductivities are K 1 and K 2 . The thermal
conductivity of the composite rod will be:

(1) (2)

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VUTS NEET-2025 TEST-07
(1) 2(K1 + K 2 ) (2) K1 + K2 isobaric and isochoric. Out of 1, 2, 3 and 4, which
𝐾 +𝐾 3(𝐾1+𝐾2) one is adiabatic?
(3) 1 2 2 (4) 2

15. Assertion (A): A beaker is completely filled with

water at 4 𝑜 C. It will overflow, both when heated
or cooled.
Reason (R): There is an expansion of water below
as well as above 4 𝑜 C.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (1) 3 (2) 2
explanation of A. (3) 4 (4) 1
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true. 5
19. If one mole of a monoatomic gas 𝛾 = 3 is mixed
7
16. The P – T relation for an adiabatic expansion is: with one mole of a diatomic gas 𝛾 = , what is the
5
(1) 𝑃1−𝛾 𝑇 𝛾 = constant value of  for the mixture?
(2) 𝑃 𝛾−1 𝑇 𝛾 = constant (1) 1.5 (2) 1.60
(3) 𝑃 𝛾 𝑇1−𝛾 = constant (3) 1.52 (4) 1.53
(4) 𝑃 𝛾 𝑇 𝛾−1 = constant
20. An absolute zero is the temperature at which
17. Heat energy absorbed by a system in going through (1) all liquids freeze
a cyclic process shown in the figure is (2) molecular motion ceases
(3) efficiency of engines becomes infinite
(4) none of these

21. If the amount of heat given to a system is 35 J and

the amount of work done on the system is 15 J,
then the change in internal energy of the system is:
(1) 20 J (2) 30 J
(3) – 50 J (4) 50 J
(1) 25𝜋 J (2) 6.25𝜋 J
(3) 2.25𝜋 J (4) 100𝜋 J 22. If a gas has n degrees of freedom, ratio of specific
heats of gas is
𝑛 2
18. An ideal gas undergoes four, different processes (1) 1 + (2) 1 +
2 𝑛
from the same initial state as shown in P - V 1+𝑛 1
diagram. Four processes are adiabatic, isothermal, (3) 2
(4) 1 + 𝑛

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
51. When Grignard reagent (CH3MgBr) is treated with (1) HBr, NaOH
water, we get (2) BH3 .THF, NaOH – H2O2
(1) Ethane (3) BH2 , NaOH
(2) Ethyl alcohol ⊖
(3) Methyl alcohol (4) HBr, R – O – O – R, hv; Me3 𝐶𝑂 𝐾 ⊕
(4) Methane
54. Which of the following compounds on hydrolysis
gives acetylene?
52. (1) CaC2 (2) Mg2C3
(3) Al4C3 (4) Cu2Cl2

How many dichloro products are formed in the 55. The increasing order of nitration of the following
above reaction (excluding stereoisomers)? compounds is:
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 4 (4) 3

53. Which reagent is best to perform the following

transformation?
(1) (b) < (a) < (c) < (d)
(2) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d)
(3) (b) < (a) < (d) < (c)
(4) (a) < (b) < (d) < (c)
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VUTS NEET-2025 TEST-07

56. [A] ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯

Lindiar 's Catayst
H2 CH3 – C  C – CH3

⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Na/liq. NH3
[B]. [A] and [B] are (3)
respectively.
(1) cis, trans-2-butene
(2) Both trans-2-butene
(3) Trans, cis-2-butene
(4) Both cis-2-butene (4)

57. In the complete combustion of CnH2n+2, the

number of oxygen moles required is- 61. Nitration of benzene is:
nO 2  n+1  (1) Nucleophilic substitution
(1) (2)   O2 (2) Electrophilic substitution
2  2 
(3) Electrophilic addition
 3n+1   n+2 
(3)   O2 (4)   O2 (4) Nucleophilic addition
 2   2 
62. How many monobrominated products will be in
58. Benzene reacts with n-propyl chloride in the the reaction? (excluding stereoisomers)
presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to give
predominantly Br
(1) Isopropyl benzene ⎯⎯⎯
2 → Products,
hv
(2) n-propyl benzene
(3) Propiophenone (1) 6 (2) 4
(4) 1-chloro-3-propyl benzene (3) 5 (4) 3

59. 1-Bromo-3-chloro cyclobutane will react with two

63. Predict the product of the following reaction:
moles of Na in ether producing?
Cr2O3
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
773K,10− 20atm
(1) (2)
(1)

(3) (4)
(2)

60. When the given compound is subjected to

(3)
chlorination and Bromination, what are the major
product, A and B respectively.
(4)

HgSO ,H SO
64. Ph – C  C–CH3 + H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
4 2 4→

Major product is
(1) Ph − C− CH 2 − CH3
||
O
(2) Ph − CH 2 − CH − CH3
(1) |
OH
(3) Ph − CH− CH 2 − CH3
|
OH
(2) (4) Ph − CH 2 − C− CH3
||
O
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65. Hydration of propyne gives– OH CH3

(1) 1-Propanol (2) 2-Propanol | |
(3) Propanal (4) Propanone (3) CH 3 — C — CH — CH 3
|
CH 3
66. The reagent used for the conversion of
CH3 CH2 CO2 H → CH3 CH2 CH3 is ________. CH3
(1) Sodalime (2) red P and HI |
(4) HOCH 2 — C— CH 2 — CH3
(3) Na/dry ether (4) NaBH4 |
CH3
67. Which of the following compounds will yield 2,
3-pentanedione on reductive ozonolysis?
(1) 2, 3-Pentadiene (2) 2-Pentene 71. When 2-butyne is treated with H2/Lindlar's catalyst,
(3) Cyclopentene (4) 2-Pentyne compound X is produced as the major product and
when treated with Na/liq. NH3 it produces Y as the
68. Which one of these will react with sodium metal? major product. Which of the following statements is
(1) Ethyne (2) Ethene correct?
(3) Ethane (4) Ether (1) X will have higher dipole moment and higher
boiling point than Y
69. Which among the following reagent do not give (2) Y will have higher dipole moment and higher
syn. addition with alkenes? boiling point than X
(1) Br2 (2) dil. KMnO4/OH⊖ (3) X will have lower dipole moment and lower
(3) OsO4 (4) H2/Ni boiling point than Y
(4) Y will have higher dipole moment and lower
70. The product of the following reaction is boiling point than X
CH3
| Br
(i) Hg (OAc) .H O
CH3 — C — CH = CH 2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 2 →
CH3
(ii)NaBH 4
| alc.KOH →
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
72. Product.
CH3
CH3
CH3
| The product will be:
(1)
CH3 — C — CH— CH 3
| |
CH3 OH (1) (2)

CH3
|
(2) CH 3 — C — CH 2 — CH 2OH
| (3) (4)
CH3

SECTION-III (BOTANY)
101. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. red algae? (1) Leafy stage of gametophyte develops directly
(1) Mostly marine, greater concentration found in from a spore
warmer areas (2) Upright, slender axis bear spirally arranged
(2) Unicellular members are not found leaves
(3) Sexual reproduction is only oogamous (3) Rhizoids are unicellular
(4) Stored food is very similar to amylopectin and (4) Sporophyte consists of foot and capsule only
glycogen in structure
104. The type of life cycle in Fucus is
102. Artificial system (1) Haplontic
(1) Gave equal weightage to vegetative and sexual
(2) Diplontic
characteristics
(3) Haplo-diplontic
(2) Gave equal importance to each character and at
the same time hundreds of characters can be (4) Diplo haplobiontic
considered
(3) Is based on cytological information 105. In the life cycle of Funaria, how many antherozoids
(4) Is based on chemical constituents can be formed from 100 sperm mother cells?
(1) 100 (2) 200
103. In mosses (3) 400 (4) 800
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VUTS NEET-2025 TEST-07

106. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. bryophytes (1) A - Gametophyte ; B - Leaves ; C - Rhizoids
(1) First group of plants where embryo formation (2) A - Capsule ; B - Leaves ; C - Rhizoids
occurred (3) A - Capsule ; B - Frond ; C - Rhizoids
(2) Non-vascular homosporous plants (4) A - Capsule ; B - Leaves ; C - Adventitious
(3) Sporophyte is parasitic on multicellular green Roots
gametophyte
(4) Fertilization is internal as well as external 113. Green algae differs from bryophytes in
(1) Having gametophytic plant body
107. Bryophytes are also called amphibians of plant (2) Absence of trachea
kingdom because (3) Having zooidogamy
(1) Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte
(4) Life cycle pattern
(2) Zygote does not undergo meiosis immediately
(3) Produce biflagellate male gametes
(4) Can live in soil but depend on water for 114. Identify the organisms on the basis of following
Fertilization Diagrams

108. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. bryophytes

(1) Have independent gametophyte with
unicellular rhizoids always
(2) Sporophyte is fully or partially dependent upon
gametophyte
(3) They are non-vascular archegoniates
(4) Homosporous forms with sporic meiosis

109. Rhodophycean members show which one of the

following features?
(1) Characteristic colour is due to dominance of
fucoxanthin
(2) Asexual reproducton by zoospores is quite
common
(3) Absence of flagellated gametes in their life
cycle
(4) Sexual reproduction by isogamy, anisogamy
and oogamy method
(1) A - Laminaria; B - Chara;
C - Fucus; D - Porphyra
110. Most important criteria for the classification of algae
is (2) A - Porphyra; B - Laminaria;
(1) Thallus structure C - Chara; D - Fucus
(2) Pigmentation (3) A - Chara; B - Laminaria;
(3) Reserve food materials C - Porphyra; D - Fucus
(4) Reproduction (4) A - Porphyra; B - Fucus;
C - Chara; D – Laminaria
111. In rhodophyceae, the mode of sexual reproduction is
(1) Anisogamy 115. Algae are chlorophyll bearing, simple, thalloid,
(2) Oogamy autotrophic and largely aquatic organisms in which
(3) Isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy (1) The size ranges from the microscopic
(4) Anisogamy and oogamy unicellular forms like Chlamydomonas to the
filamentous forms like Volvox
112. Identify the structures A, B and C in the figure given (2) Hydrocolloids are universally present
below (3) Thallus structure, size and pigments are highly
variable
(4) Major criteria of classification is cell wall

116. From the characters given below, how many are

associated with numerical taxonomy?
a. Usage of statistical tools for data analysis
b. Based on all observable characteristics
c. After the data processing numbers and codes
are assigned to all characters
d. Hundreds of characters are considered at same
time
e. Give equal weightage to all characters
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 2
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VUTS NEET-2025 TEST-07

117. Leaf like photosynthetic organ is associated with 121. A : Spore is the first cel l of gametophytic
algal group generation in bryophytes.
(1) Showing only oogamous reproduction R : Gametophyte is independent.
(2) Having predominance of r-phycoerythrin (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(3) Where members may reach a height of 100 reason is the correct explanation of the
metres assertion
(4) Usually having grass-green colour (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
118. Gelidium, Ectocarpus, Chara, Dictyota, assertion
Polysiphonia, Gracilaria, Sargassum, Porphyra, (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
Fucus, Laminaria, Volvox, Ulothrix, Spirulina, false
Nostoc (4) If both Assert ion and Reason are false
Choose the correct option w.r.t. number of members statements
and their algal group
(1) Red alga - 3 members 122. Find the one which is not concerned with
(2) Brown alga - 5 members haplodiplontic life cycle
(3) Green alga - 4 members (1) Organisms where life cycle phases are
(4) Blue green alga - 1 member multicelled and always free living
(2) Bryophytes
119. Choose the correct sequence of steps involved in life (3) Pteridophytes
cycle of bryophyte. (4) Brown algae like Ectocarpus and Kelps
A - Sporophyte, B - Zygote, C - Gametogenesis,
D - Gametophyte, E- Meiosis, F - Syngamy, 123. A : Zygotic meiosis occurs in Volvox.
G - Spore R : Life cycle is haplontic in this algae.
(1) A → C → E → F → B → D → G (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(2) D → C → F → B → A → E → G reason is the correct explanation of the
(3) D → C → F → B → E → G → A assertion
(4) D → C → F → E → B → A → G (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
120. Multicelled, green, filamentous juvenile assertion
gametophyte and a mature erect leafy gametophyte (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
are found in all, but not in false
(1) Sphagnum (2) Polytrichum (4) If both Assert ion and Reason are false
(3) Funaria (4) Marchantia statements

SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
151. ‘X’ only stores and releases hormones and is
therefore not considered a true endocrine gland.
Identify ‘X’.
(1) Anterior pituitary gland
(2) Posterior pituitary gland
(3) Parathyroid gland
(4) Thyroid gland

152. Exophthalmos is linked

(1) Hypothyroidism
(2) Graves’ disease
(3) Hyperparathyroidism
(4) Pituitary dwarfism

153. Layers of adrenal cortex from outer to inner side is

(1) Zona reticularis→ Zona fasciculata→ Zona (1) (i)-g,(ii)-f,(iii)-e, (iv)-d, (v)-a (vi)-b, (vii)-c
glomerulosa (2) (i)-d,(ii)-f,(iii)-d, (iv)-e, (v)-a (vi)-b, (vii)-c
(2) Zona glomerulosa → Zona fasciculata→ Zona (3) (i)-e,(ii)-f,(iii)-g, (iv)-d, (v)-b (vi)-c, (vii)-a
reticularis (4) (i)-d,(ii)-f, (iii)-e, (iv)-g, (v)-c (vi)-b,(vii)-a
(3) Zona fasciculata → Zona reticularis → Zona
glomerulosa 155. Match list-I with II and select the correct option
(4) Zona fasciculata → Zona glomerulosa → Zona (a) Adrenaline (1) Myxoedema
reticularis (b) Hyperparathyroidism (2) heart beat
(c) Oxytocin (3) Salt-water balance
154. Match the hormone of column I with their function (d) Hypothyroidism (4) Child birth
in column II (e) Aldosterone (5) Demineralization
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VUTS NEET-2025 TEST-07

(1) a-1 b-5 c-4 d-2 e-3 (1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d

(2) a-2 b-5 c-4 d-1 e-3 (3) c, d (4) a, b, c, d
(3) a-2 b-3 c-4 d-1 e-5
(4) a-4 b-3 c-2 d-1 e-5
161. Which of the following is correct about human?
156. ___A___ secretion of growth hormone since birth (a) Over secretion of GH in children leads to
results in stunted growth causing ___B___. Excess gigantism
amounts of this hormone at adolescence leads to (b) Pars intermedia secretes only one hormone
individuals that suffer from __C___. Choose the called melatonin
option that fills the blank suitably
A B C (c) Posterior lobe of pituitary is also called as pars
(1) Thyroxine Cretinism Gigantism nervosa
(2) TSH Dwarfism Myxoedema (d) Posterior pituitary stores and releases two
(3) Low Pituitary Acromegaly hormones called ADH and vasopressin
dwarfism (1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d
(4) GH Cretinism Gigantism (3) a, c only (4) a, b, c, d
157. Following is a diagrammatic representation of the
mechanism of hormone action. 162. Which one of the following condition is not linked
to deficiency of thyroid hormones
(1) Cretinism
(2) Simple Goitre
(3) Myxodema
(4) Exophthalmic condition

163. Oxytocin and vasopressin, which are actually

synthesized by the __A__ and are transported
__B__ to __C__. Choose A, B, C from the given
options

Which of the following statement does not support

the hormone action depicted.
(1) It explains the action of a hormone which
interacts with membrane bound receptors.
(2) It explains the action of a hormone which
interacts with intracellular receptors in nucleus.
(3) The hormone regulates chromosome function
by the interaction of hormone receptor complex 164. Receptors in case of hormones of protein nature are
with genome.
present on
(4) A second messenger is not generated
(1) Extra cellular matrix (2) Blood
158. Binding of a hormone to its receptor leads to the (3) Plasma membrane (4) Nucleus
formation of a ________ complex
(1) Second messengers 165. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by
(2) Hormone-receptor anterior pituitary gland?
(3) cAMP
(4) Enzyme substrate (1) Follicle stimulating hormone
(2) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
159. Which of the following in not a second messengers? (3) Oxytocin
(1) Ca++ (2) cAMP (4) Growth hormone
(3) IP3 (4) T3

160. Which of the following is correct about endocrine 166. Process of parturition is facilitated by:
glands ? (1) Oxytocin (2) Relaxin
(a) These are ductless glands (3) Gonadotropins (4) Relaxin and Oxytocin
(b) Their secretions are called hormones
(c) Endocrine glands release hormones into the 167. The secretion of glucocorticoids from the adrenal
blood and transport to a distantly located target
cortex is under the control of:
organ
(d) Invertebrates possess very complex endocrine (1) FSH (2) STH
systems with many hormones (3) ACTH (4) TSH
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VUTS NEET-2025 TEST-07

168. Select the right match of the endocrine gland and (1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
their hormones among the options given below: (2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(4) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)

170. PTH is
(1) Hyperglycemic (2) Hypercalcaemic
(3) Hypoglycemic (4) Hypocalcaemic
(1) (A) - (iv), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (i)
171. The 24-hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as
(2) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (iii), (D) - (i)
the sleep - wake cycle is regulated by the hormone:
(3) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (iii)
(4) (A) - (iv), (B) - (ii), (C) - (i), (D) - (iii) (1) Adrenaline (2) Melatonin
(3) Calcitonin (4) MSH
169. Match the following columns and select the correct
option. 172. Hypersecretion of GH by pituitary results in:
(1) Cretinism (2) Dwarfism
(3) Gigantism (4) None of these

173. The mineralocorticoid hormone of the adrenal

cortex which causes the Na retention and K
excretion is:
(1) Cortisol (2) Progesterone
(3) Testosterone (4) Oxytocin

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