SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI
SEC : SR AIIMS SUPER60 & MPL DATE: 30-03-20
SUB: BIOLOGY NEET PART TEST - 5 Max. Marks :720

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :

Pattern of the Entrance Examination:-

Paper containing 180 objective type questions ,from Biology, Physics and Chemistry

Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only to darken the appropriate circle. Answers marked
with pencil would not be evaluated.

Each item carries 4marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For
each incorrect response 1mark will be deducted from the total score

1. Which one of the following statements is (1) Lateral meristems

incorrect? (2) Intercalary meristems
(1) Apical meristems are primary (3) Intrafascisular cambium
meristems (4) Phellogen
(2) All primary meristems are apical 4. Which one of the following is not a

meristems cylindrical meristem?

(3) Shoot apical meristem occupies the (1) Interfacicular cambium

distant most region of the stem axis (2) Phellogen

(4) During the formation of leaves and (3) Protoderm

(4) Fascicular vascular cambium
elongation of stem axis some cells left
5. Which one of the following is primary in
behind from shoot apical meristem
origin but useful for secondary growth?
constitute axillarybud
(1) Fascicular vascular cambium
2. Meristematics cells that lie immediately
(2) Inter fascicular cambium
proximal to root cap is
(3) Phellogen
(1) Protoderm
(4) Protoderm
(2) Root apical meristems
6. Which of the following has no ancestral
(3) Initials of root caps
relation with Sauropsids-
(4) Initials of cortex
(1) Turtle
3. Which of the following tissues shall
(2) Birds
regenerate parts removed by grazing
(3) Mammals
herbivores
(4) Snakes
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7. Upon analysing the representative (1) Unevenly thickened cellwalls with
evolutionary history of vertebrates, through cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin
geological periods, one of the following (2) Usually absent in underground root
conclusions can be reached- system
(1) All lizards have evolved from only (3) Not formed during secondary growth
dinosaurs (4) All of the above are correct
(2) Tuataras are direct descendent of 12. Statement-1: The cells of parenchyma are
thecodonts. generally isodiametric, spherical, oval round
(3) Pelycosaurs became extinct much after but not polygonal or elongated in shape.
the therapsids. Statement-2:In a primary dicot stem or in a

(4) Extinct therapsids were possibly the leaf petiole, collenchyma is present below

fore runners of present day mammals. endodermis.

(1) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct
8. Which of the following appeared latest
(2) Statement 1 is correct but statement is
(recently) in comparison of other 3-
wrong
(1) Monocotyledons
(3) Statement 1 is wrong but statement 2 is
(2) Dicotyledons
correct
(3) Seed ferns
(4) Both S-1 and S-2 are wrong
(4) Progymnosperms 13. Which one of the following sclereids are
9. First cellular forms of life appeared on earth considered to be stone cells?
about- (1) Brachy sclereids
(1) 200 million years ago (2) Macro sclereids
(2) 2000 million years ago (3) Trichosclereids
(3) 200 billion years ago (4) Astro sclereids
(4) 2000 billion years ago 14. Identify mismatch among the following pairs
10. Which of the following dinosaurs was about (1) Xylem fibres – Obliterated central
20 feet in height and had huge fearsome lumen
dagger like teeth- (2) Xylem arrangement in roots – Endarch
(1) Tyrannosaurus (3) Phloem of – Albuminous cells
Gymnosperms
(2) Triceratops
(4) Epidermal cells – cytoplasmic lining
(3) Brachiosaurus
around the central large vacuole
(4) Stegosaurus
15. Which one of the following usually absent in
11. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
primary phloem of dicots?
true with regard to the tissue that is
(1) Companian cells
hypodermal in position and it can assimilate
(2) Phloem parenchyma
food but provide resilient strength
(3) Bast fibres
(mechanical support) to the various parts of
(4) Sieve tube elements
the dicot plants
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16. Jawless fishes probably evolved around 21. Which one of the following statements is
(1) 500 mya incorrect?
(2) 350 mya (1) Stomatal apparatus include stomatal
(3) 250 mya aperture, guard cells and surrounding
(4) 200 mya subsidiary cells
(2) The guard cells of stomata are dumb –
17. Statement-1- Due to continental drift South
bell shaped in monocots excluding
America joined North America.
grasses
Statement-2- Some of the South American
(3) The trichomes and root hairs are
species were over ridden by North American different in their origin structure and
species. function
Options are- (4) At maturity the bast fibres lose their
(1) Both the statements are correct protoplasm and become dead.
(2) Both the statements are incorrect 22. Which one of the following is a correct
(3) Statement 1 is correct , 2 is incorrect match?
(4) Statement 2 is correct , 1 is incorrect (1) Conjoint vascular bundles – Xylem and
18. During human evolution pre historic cave art phloem present on different radii
(2) Parenchyma which lie between xylem
developed about-
and phloem in roots – Conjunctive
(1) 10000 years ago
tissue
(2) 18000 years ago
(3) Radial V.B of roots – Open type
(3) 40000 years ago
(4) Phloem fibres – Present in primary as
(4) 75000 years ago. well as secondary phloem
19. Incorrect statement is- 23. Match column-I with column-II
(1) Agriculture came around 10,000 years Column-I Column-II
back A) Sclerenchymatous I) Dicotyledonous
(2) Homo habilis had brain capacity about hypodermis stem
650-800 cc B) Starch Sheath II) Adaxial
(3) Neanderthal man had less brain Epidermalcells
capacity than homo habilis of monocot leaf
C) Bulliform cells III) Abaxial
(4) Neanderthal man had more brain
epidermal cells of
capacity than homo habilis.
monocot leaf
20. Incorrect statement is-
D) Undifferentiated IV)Monocot leaf
(1) Homo habilis probably didn’t eat meat
V) Monocot stem
(2) Homo erectus probably ate meat Mesophyll
(3) Cave paintings by pre historic humans (1) A – V; B – I; C – II; D – IV
can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter (2) A – V; B – I; C – III; D - IV
(4) Ramapithecus started to buried their (3) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – V
dead (4) A – IV; B – V; C – III; D – IV

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24. Which one of the following has lower density 29. In a population of 1,000 individuals, 600 are
in the stem of a tree growing in a temperate homozygous Rh+(DD), 240 are heterozygous
-
region? Rh+(Dd) and 160 are Rh (dd). The frequency
(1) Duramen of recessive allele (d) in that population is
(2) Alburnum (1) 0.32
(3) Early wood (2) 0.56
(4) Late wood (3) 0.16
25. Which one of the following is possible (4) 0.28
during the progress of secondary growth in a 30. A fossil, at present, contains 1/8th of its
dicot stem year after year? original carbon-14. How old is the fossil?
(1) Spring wood become autumn wood (The half-life of carbon-14 is 5,730 years)
(2) Phelloderm become phellum (1) 45,840 years
(3) Primary medullary rays become (2) 34,380 years
secondary medullary rays. (3) 17,190 years
(4) 22,920 years
(4) Sapwood become Heart wood.
31. All tissues exterior to the vascular cambium
26. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 belongs
is known as
to
(1) Periderm
(1) Homo neanderthalensis
(2) Bark
(2) Homo habilis
(3) Alburnum
(3) Homo erectus
(4) Phellum
(4) Homo sapiens
32. Which of the following is a true statement?
27. Homo sapiens arose in -----------------and
(1) Complementary cells are derived from
moved across continents and developed into phellum
distinct races. (2) Towards the end of the season soft bark
(1) America is formed in the dicot stems.
(2) Asia (3) Part of conjunctive tissue and part of
(3) Africa pericycle forms valscular cambium by
(4) China dedifferention in dicot roots.
28. Incorrect is- (4) In a dicot root secondary medullaryrays
(1) The most successful story is the which are formed during secondary
evolution of man with language skills growth derived from phellogen.
and self-consciousness. 33. Which of the following shows similarity to
(2) Australopithecus probably lived in East both sapwood and spring wood
African grasslands (1) Both are lighter in colour
(3) The skull of baby chimpanzee is more (2) Both are darker in colour
like adult human skull than adult (3) Both contain lesser amount of
chimpanzee skull secondary xylem
(4) Dryopithecus was more man like. (4) Both are having xylem vessels with
narrow lumen only
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34. Bark does not contain 40. Which one of the following is incorrect about
(1) Secondary phloem the conditions on the Earth at the time of
(2) Secondary cortex origin of life?
(3) Cork (1) High temperature
(4) Medulla (2) Oxidising atmosphere
35. Which one of the following shows (3) Volcanic storms
anatomical features like sclerenchyma (4) Atmosphere with hydrogen, CH4, NH3
around vascular bundles also in the outer and water vapour
cortex, without endodermis and pericycle? 41. Which one of the following show shortest
(1) Dicot root life span?
(2) Monocot stem (1) Rice plant
(3) Dicot leaf (2) Butter-fly
(4) Dicot stem (3) Banana tree
36. Alfred Wallace, who worked in Malay (4) Crow
Archipelago, is the coauthor of 42. Which one of the following statements is
(1) Use and disuse theory incorrect?
(2) Natural selection theory (1) Cell deivision is itself a mode of
(3) Biogenetic law reproduction in bacteria, Amoeba and
(4) Laws of embryology Paramoecium
37. de Vries described mutations as (2) The term clone is applicable to the off
(1) Non-heritable variations spring formed by vegetative
(2) Slow and gradual changes reproduction
(3) Minor variations (3) Bulbils are vegetative propagules
(4) Saltation formed from radical buds in Agave
38. Evolution of one species (or group) into a (4) During asexual reproduction, zoospores
wide variety of species (or groups) adapted to are produced by Chlamydomonas
different modes of life is termed 43. Idendtify the incorrect match of the
(1) Adaptive convergence following
(2) Anagenesis (1) Hydra – gemmules
(3) Adaptive radiation (2) Pencillium – Conidia
(4) Stasigenesis (3) Potato – Eyebuds
39. Who experimentally demonstrated that, life (4) Ginger – Rhizome
cannot arise spontaneously from nutrient 44. Buds of Bryophyllum which are used for
broth in sterilised flasks? vegetative propagation are
(1) A.I. Oparin (1) Adventitious buds
(2) Louis Pasteur (2) Cauline buds
(3) Georges Cuvier (3) Dormant buds
(4) S.L. Miller (4) Serial buds

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45. In which one of the following organism 50. Transfer of alleles between different
sexual reproduction occurs just before the populations is termed
onset of adverse condition. (1) Genetic drift
(1) Funaria, Marchantia (2) Gene flow
(2) Rhizopus, Spirogyra (3) Genetic load
(3) Selaginella, Salvinia (4) Gene mutation
(4) Cycas, Pinus 51. In which one among the following do not
46. Which of the following is a concept of show clear cut vegetative, reproductive and
Lamarckism? senescent phases?
(1) Evolution of life forms is driven by use (1) Rice Plant
and disuse of organs (2) Raphanus sativus
(2) Evolution is caused by large difference (3) Banyan tree
arising suddenly in a population (4) Strobilanthus kunthiana
(3) Organisms with beneficial variations 52. Oestrus cycles are operated in which one of
reproduce and leave more progeny the following animals
(1) Monkeys
(4) Allele frequencies in a population are
(2) Apes
stable and remain constant from
(3) Dogs
generation to generation
(4) Humans
47. Analogous organs are the result of-
53. Match column-I with column-II
(1) Convergent evolution
Column-I Column-II
(2) Divergent evolution
A) Fucus I) Marchantia
(3) Convergent and divergent evolution
B) Bisexual
both
condition II) Sponge
(4) Anthropogenic activities
C) Dioecious III)Heterogametes
48. According to the theory of spontaneous
Spermatophyte
generation,
D) Antherozoids IV) Datepalm
(1) Life originates from decaying and
A B C D
rotting matter
(1) III I II IV
(2) Life comes only from pre-existing life
(2) III II IV I
(3) Units of life called spores were
transferred to the Earth (3) II III I IV
(4) All living organisms are created by (4) II I III IV
God as such 54. Identify the pair of organisms given below in
49. Which of the following group represent which the haploid chromosomal number of
convergent evolution- the first one is four times less to the diploid
(1) Wolf and Tasmanian wolf number of the second one respectively
(2) Bobcat and Tasmanian tiger cat (1) Maize; Onion
(3) Lemur and spotted cuscus (2) Fruitfly; Onion
(4) All the above. (3) Cat; Dog
(4) Housefly; Apple
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55. In which of the following there is no 61. This figure is a bisexual flower belongs to
parthenogenesis which one of the following plants
(1) Honeybees
(2) Fruitfly
(3) Lizards
(4) Rotifers
56. Which of the following features is used to
identify a male cockroach from a female
(1) Cucurbita
cockroach?
(2) Vallisnaria
(1) presence of a Boat shaped sternum on
(3) Borassus
the 9th abdominal segment
(4) Sweet potato
(2) presence of caudal style
62. How many of the following sentences are
(3) presence of anal cerci
correct?
(4) forewings with darker tegmina
A) Each anther lobe of a typical young
57. The sac like structure used for storing food in
anther has a single pollensac.
cockroach
B) A typical microsporangium of the
(1) gizzard
flowering plant is generally surrounded
(2) crop
by four wall layers.
(3) hepatic caecae
C) Endothecium of anther wall is useful in
(4) proventriculus
anther dehiscence.
58. Abdominal segments without spiracles in
D) Endothecium is one to several layered
Periplaneta-
in different family members.
(1) 9th and 10th
(1) A and B are correct
(2) 3rd and 4th
(2) B and C are correct
(3) 5th and 6th
(3) C and D are correct
(4) 7th and 8th (4) A and D are correct
59. One of the following is not a function of 63. Which one of the following is a correct with
haemolymph in cockroach regard to function of tapetum?
(1) Distributes nutrients to the tissues (1) It nourishes sporogenous cells only
(2) Carries oxygen to the tissues (2) It nourishes the developing spore
(3) Collects nitrogenous wastes from mother cells only
tissues (3) It nourishes archesporial cells
(4) Transports hormones to the target (4) It nourishes the developing
organs pollengrains
60. Number of segmental ganglia present in 64. Monothecous, reniform anthers which are
abdominal region of cockroach showing transverse dehiscence are present in
(1) 9 (1) China rose
(2) 6 (2) Aloe
(3) 10 (3) Arhar
(4) 3 (4) Pisum
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65. How many of the following are true with 70. Which of the following acts as a aquatic
respect to pollengrains ? respiratory organ in adult frog ?
(1) The exine exhibits fascinating array of (1) Lungs
patterns and designs.
(2) Gills
(2) Vegtative cell has large irregular
(3) Skin
shaped nucleus.
(4) Book gills
(3) The vegetative cell floats in the
71. Which one of the following is ubiquitous in
cytoplasm of generative cell
(4) 1 and 2 are correct occurrence in India and causes Pollen
66. Which one of the following is not a part of allergy?
male reproductive system of cockroach (1) Water hyacinth
(1) Spermathecae (2) Carrot grass
(2) Pseudopenis (3) Datura
(3) Phallic gland
(4) Cyanodon
(4) Titillator
72. Which one of the following is incorrect?
67. In cockroach the number of ootheca formed
(1) Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil –
by a female and number of moultings
Papaver
exhibited by a nymph respectively are
(1) 9-10 and 3 (2) Ovary with many ovules – papaya;
(2) 3 and 9-10 water melon, orchids.
(3) 9-10 and 13 (3) Micropyle and chalaza on a straight
(4) 13 and 9-10 line – anatroprus ovule.
68. Total number of spermathecae in cockroach (4) Hilum represent a junction between
are-
funicle and micropyle
(1) one
73. Smallest cells of a matured Polygonum type
(2) two
of embryosac are/is
(3) three
(1) Synergids
(4) 2 pairs
69. A frog with body temperature of 20 degree (2) Central cell
celsius is transferred to an area with 30 (3) Antipodal
degree Celsius temperature. (4) Egg cell
What will be the body temperature of frog in 74. Identify the incorrect match.
the new environment (1) Viola – Some flowers in this plant
(1) 20 degree Celsius
produced assured seed – set in the
(2) 30 degree Celsius
absence of pollinators.
(3) 25 degree Celsius
(2) Cucurbita – Only xenogamy is possible
(4) fluctuated between 20 and 30 degree
(3) Zostera – Hypohydrophily
Celsius
(4) Amorphophallus – Entomophily
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75. Which one of the following is a genetic 81. Which one of the following is a false fruit
mechanism to prevent autogamy ? developed from multicarpellary apocarpous
(1) Self – incompatibility gynoecium with fleshy and edible thalamus?
(2) Herkogamy (1) Apple
(3) Heterostyle (2) Cashew fruit
(4) Dicliny (3) Strawberry
76. A mature female frog can lay (4) Custard apple
(1) 2500 to 3000 unfertilised eggs 82. The unique event to flowering plants is
(2) 2500 to 3000 fertilised eggs (1) Syngamy
(3) 5000 unfertilised eggs
(2) Complex tissue contain xylem vessels
(4) one mature ovum at one copulation.
(3) Endosperm formation
77. Which gland plays a key role in
(4) Double fertilization
metamorphosis of frogs tadpole
83. Statement-1: Embryo development precedes
(1) Thymus gland
endosperm development.
(2) Adrenal gland
Statement-2: In the structure of embryo of
(3) Thyroid gland
grasses coleorhizae is surrounded by root
(4) Pancreas gland
cap.
78. In Frog, Skin helps in exchange of gases
(1) Both Statement-1 and 2 are correct
because
(2) Statement-1 is correct but Statement -2
(1) It is kept moist by the mucus and water
is incorrect
(2) It is thin
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement -
(3) It is richly supplied with blood
(4) All of these 2 is correct

79. Male frogs differ from females in having (4) Both Statement-1 and 2 are incorrect

(1) copulatory pads 84. Most common type of endosperm

(2) vocal sacs development is

(3) webbed feet (1) Free nuclear endosperm
(4) both 1 and 2 (2) Cellular endosperm
80. Incorrect related to earthworm is (3) Helobial endosperm
(1) Septal nephridia open into intestine (4) Both 1 and 3 are correct
(2) Integumentary nephridia open on the 85. Polyembryony is seen in plants producing
body surface (1) Hesperidium fruit
(3) Pharyngeal nephridia open into (2) Drupe with edible endosperm
intestine. (3) Heterogamous head and cypsela fruit
(4) The different types of nephridia are (4) Parthenocarpic fruit of Musa
basically similar in structure. paradisiacal
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86. Incorrect related with earthworm is 92. The displacement of a particle from its mean
(1) Two pairs of testes are present position (in metre) is given by
(2) Vasa deferentia run up to the 18th y = 0.2 sin(10π t + 1.5π ) cos(10π t + 1.5π )
segment The motion of particle is
(3) Four pairs of spermathecae are present (1) Periodic but not S.H.M.
(4) Two pairs of ovaries are present. (2) Non-periodic
87. In Earthworm Blood glands are not present (3) Simple harmonic motion with period
on the segments 0.1 s
(4) Simple harmonic motion with period
(1) fourth
0.2 s
(2) fifth
93. Two particles executes S.H.M. of same
(3) sixth
amplitude and frequency along the same
(4) seventh
straight line. They pass one another when
88. The name of first body segment in the
going in opposite directions, and each time
Earthworm is their displacement is half of their amplitude.
(1) Prostomium The phase difference between them is
(2) Peristomium (1) 30°
(3) Pygidium (2) 60°
(4) Clitellum (3) 90°
89. Rows of S-shaped setae in earthworm are (4) 120°
absent in 94. On a smooth inclined plane, a body of mass
(1) first body segment M is attached between two springs. The other
(2) last body segment ends of the springs are fixed to firm supports.
(3) Clitellar region If each spring has force constant K, the
(4) In all the above regions and segment period of oscillation of the body (assuming
90. Which of the following is included in phylum the springs as massless) is
with highly evolved characters
(1) Earthworm
(2) Cockroach
(3) Frog
(4) Pila
91. A particle executes simple harmonic motion 1/2
M
(amplitude = A) between x = −A and x = +A . (1) 2π  
The time taken for it to go from 0 to A/2 is  2K 
1/2
T1 and to go from A/2 to A is T2 . Then  2M 
(2) 2π  
(1) T1 < T2  K 
T1 > T2 Mg sin θ
(2) (3) 2π
2K
(3) T1 = T2 1/2
 2 Mg 
(4) T1 = 2T2 (4) 2π  
 K 
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95. Two simple pendulums of length 5 m and 20 (1) f/2
m respectively are given small linear (2) f
displacement in one direction at the same (3) 2f
time. They will again be in the phase when (4) f/4
the pendulum of shorter length has 99. A particle performs Simple Harmonic
completed .... oscillations. Motion of amplitude A and angular
(1) 5 frequency ω along a straight line. When it is
(2) 1 3
at a distance A from mean position, its
(3) 2 2
(4) 3 kinetic energy gets increased suddenly by an
96. A simple pendulum has time period T1. The 1
amount mω2 A 2 , due to an impulsive force.
point of suspension is now moved upward 2
Then new amplitude of oscillations of the
according to equation y = kt 2 where
particle will be :
k = 1 m / sec 2 . If new time period is T2 then
5
(1) A
T12 2
ratio will be (g = 10m/s2) 3
T22 (2) A
2
(1) 2/3
(3) 2A
(2) 5/6
(4) 5A
(3) 6/5 100. The amplitude of a damped oscillator
(4) 3/2 becomes half in one minute. The amplitude
97. Three masses 700g, 500g, and 400g are
1
suspended at the end of a spring as shown after 3 minute will be times the original,
X
and are in equilibrium. When the 700g mass
where X is
is removed, the system oscillates with a
(1) 2 × 3
period of 3 seconds, when the 500 gm mass
is also removed, it will oscillate with a period (2) 23
of (3) 32
(4) 3 × 22
101. A disc of radius R and mass M is pivoted at
the rim and is set for small oscillations . If
simple pendulum has to have the same
period as that of the disc, the length of the
(1) 1s simple pendulum should be
(2) 2s 5R
(1)
(3) 3s 4
12 2R
(4) s (2)
3
5
3R
98. A particle executes simple harmonic motion (3)
4
with a frequency f. The frequency with 3R
(4)
which its kinetic energy oscillates is 2
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102. An air chamber of volume V has a neck area (1) 2π b
of cross-section ‘a’ into which a ball of mass 2π
‘m’ just fits and can move up and down (2)
b
without any friction as shown. When the ball
2π
is pressed down a little and released, it (3)
b
executes S.H.M with what time period. (B is
(4) π
bulk modulus of elasticity of air) 2
b
105. A S.H.M. has amplitude ‘a’ and time period
T. The maximum velocity will be
4a
(1)
T
air 2a
(V) (2)
T
a
Ba 2 (3) 2π
(1) 2π T
mV 2π a
2 (4)
1 Ba T
(2)
2π mV 106. 2 kg of ice at – 20°C is mixed with 5 kg of
mV water at 20°C in an insulating vessel having a
(3) 2π negligible heat capacity. Calculate the final
Ba 2 mass of water remaining in the container. It
1 Ba 2 is given that the specific heats of water and
(4) ice are 1 kcal/kg per °C and 0.5 kcal/kg/°C
2π mV
103. A U-tube of uniform bore of cross-sectional while the latent heat of fusion of ice is 80
kcal/kg]
area A is set up vertically with open ends up.
(1) 7 kg
A liquid of mass M and density d is poured
(2) 6 kg
into it. The liquid column will oscillate with (3) 4 kg
a period (4) 2 kg
M 107. A substance of mass m kg requires a power
(1) 2π input of P watts to remain in the molten state
g
at its melting point. When the power is
MA turned off, the sample completely solidifies
(2) 2π
dg in time t sec. What is the latent heat of fusion
of the substance
M
(3) 2π Pm
Adg (1)
t
M
(4) 2π Pt
2Adg (2)
m
104. A particle moves such that its acceleration a
m
is given by a = −bx . Where x is the (3)
Pt
displacement from equilibrium position and b
t
is a constant. The period of oscillation is (4)
Pm
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108. Ice, water and steam co-exist at triple point 112. In a thermodynamic process pressure of a
temperature 273.16 K and pressure 4.6 mm fixed mass of a gas is changed in such a
Hg In a system in which the triple point manner that the gas releases 30 joules of heat
conditions of temperature and pressure exist, and 10 joules of work was done on the gas. If
the pressure is increased a little while the initial internal energy of the gas was 30
keeping the temperature constant , then the joules, then the final internal energy will be
system contains. (1) 2 J
(2) – 18 J
(1) ice only
(3) 10 J
(2) water only
(4) 58 J
(3) steam only
113. A cyclic process ABCD is shown in the
(4) water and ice
figure P-V diagram. Which of the following
109. In a pressure cooker the cooking is fast
curves represent the same process
because
(1) the boiling point of water is raised by
the increased pressure inside the cooker
(2) The boiling point is lowered
(3) More steam is available for cooking
(4) more pressure is available at 100°C
110. A diatomic gas is used in a Carnot engine as
the working substance. If during the adiabatic
expansion part of the cycle the volume of the
gas increases from V to 32V, the efficiency (1)
of the engine is
(1) 0.25
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.75
(2)
(4) 0.99
111. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic
process ABCDA as shown in the figure. The
net work done by the system in the cyclic
process ABCDA (3)
P
C B
3P0
2P0 O
(4)
P0
A D 114. In an adiabatic change, the pressure P and
V temperature T of a monoatomic gas are
V0 2V0
related by the relation P ∝ T C , where c
(1) PV
0 0 equals
(2) 2 PV
0 0
(1) 5 / 3
PV (2) 2 / 5
0 0
(3) (3) 3 / 5
2
(4) Zero (4) 5 / 2
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Sec : SR AIIMS S60 & MPL NEET PART TEST -5 Date :30-03-19

115. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in (1) 275 K

the following diagram : (2) 325 K
(3) 250 K
(4) 380 K
119. A Carnot engine, having an efficiency ofη
=1/10 as heat engine, is used as a
refrigerator. If the work done on the system
is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from
Match the following the reservoir at lower temperature is
Column-1 Column-2 (1) 100J
P. Process I a. Adiabatic (2) 99 J
Q. Process II b. Isobaric (3) 90 J
R. Process III c. Isochoric (4) 1 J
S. Process IV d. Isothermal 120. An ideal gas is taken through the cycle
(1) P - c, Q -a, R-d, S-b A→B→C→A, as shown in the figure. If the
(2) P -c, Q - d, R - b, S – a net heat supplied to the gas in the cycle is 5 J,
(3) P - d, Q - b, R - a, S –c the work done by the gas in the process
(4) P - a, Q - c, R - d, S –b C→A is
116. A gas undergoes a process in which the
pressure and volume V are related as
VP n = constant. The bulk modulus for the
gas in the process is
(1) n P
1 (1) – 5 J
n
(2) P (2) – 10 J
P (3) – 15 J
(3) (4) – 20 J
n
121. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes
(4) Pn
a transition from A to B along a path AB as
117. The coefficient of performance of a
shown in the figure
refrigerators 5. If the temperature inside
freezer is -20°C, the temperature of the
surroundings to which itrejects heat is:
(1) 21°C
(2) 31oC
(3) 41°C
(4) 11°C
The change in internal energy of the gas
118. A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has
during the transition is
an efficiency of 40%. By how much should
(1) 20 kJ
the temperature of source be increased so as
(2) -20 kJ
to increase its efficiency by 50% of original
(3) 20 J
efficiency?
(4) -12 kJ
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122. The molar heat capacity in a process of a 127. Three conducting rods of same material and
Q cross-section are shown in figure.
diatomic gas if it does a work of when a Temperatures of A, D and C are maintained
4
heat of Q is supplied to it is at 20°C, 90°C and 0°C. The ratio of lengths
2 of BD and BC if there is no heat flow in AB
(1) R is :-
5
5
(2) R
2
10
(3) R
3
6 (1) 2/7
(4) R (2) 7/2
7
123. P-V diagram of a diatomic gas is a straight (3) 9/2
line passing through origin. The molar heat (4) 2/9
capacity of the gas in the process will be 128. A wall has two layers A and B made of
(1) 4 R different materials. Both the layers have
(2) 2.5 R same thickness. The thermal conductivity of
(3) 3 R material A is twice of B. What is the
4R temperature difference across the layer A if
(4) under thermal equilibrium, temperature
3
124. A thermally insulated container is divided difference across the wall is 360C
into two parts by a screen. In one part the (1) 60C
pressure and temperature are P and T for an
(2) 120C
ideal gas filled. In the second part it is
vacuum. If now a small hole is created in the (3) 240C
screen, then the temperature of the gas will (4) 360C
(1) Decrease 129. A cylinder of radius R made of a material of
(2) Increase thermal conductivity K1 is surrounded by a
(3) Remain same cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer
(4) None of these radius 2R made of material of thermal
125. When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at conductivity K2. The two ends of the
constant pressure, the fraction of the heat
combined system are maintained at two
energy supplied which increases the internal
different temperatures. There is no loss of
energy of the gas is
heat across the cylindrical surface and the
(1) 2/5
system is in steady state. The effective
(2) 3/5
(3) 3/7 thermal conductivity of the system is
(4) 5/7 (1) K1 + K 2
126. Which of the following material is most K1K 2
suitable for cooking utensil ? (2)
K1 + K 2
(1) Low conductivity and low specific heat
(2) High conductivity and low specific K1 + 3K 2
(3)
heat 4
(3) High conductivity and high specific 3K1 + K 2
heat (4)
4
(4) Low conductivity and high specific
heat
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130. The energy spectrum of a black body exhibits 135. Assuming the sun to be a spherical body of
a maximum around a wavelength λ0 . The radius R at a temperature of TK, evaluate the
temperature of the black body is now total radiant power incident on earth, at a
changed such that the energy is maximum
distance 'r' from the sun (ro is the radius of
3λ0
around a wavelength . The ratio of
4 the earth and σ is Stefan's constant)
power radiated by the black body in second
R 2σT 4
case to first case is (1)
(1) 256/81 r2
(2) 64/27
4πr02R 2σT 4
(3) 16/9 (2)
(4) 4/3 r2
131. A black body is at a temperature of 2880 K.
The energy of radiation emitted by this object πr02 R 2σT 4
(3)
with wavelength between 499 nm and 500 r2
nm is U1, between 999 nm and 1000 nm is U2
and between 1499 nm and 1500 nm is U3. r02 R 2σT 4
(4)
The Wien's constant b = 2.88 × 106 nm K . 4πr 2
Then 136. Which of the following can involve in
(1) U1 = 0
Friedel craft’s reactions
(2) U3 = 0
(3) U1 >U2 OCH3
(4) U2 >U1
132. A bucket full of hot water cools from 75oC to
70oC in time T1, from 70oC to 65oC in time (1)
T2 and from 65oC to 60oC in time T3, then COOH
(1) T1 = T2 = T3
(2) T1 > T2 > T3 (2)
(3) T1 < T2 < T3 NO2
(4) T1 > T2 < T3
133. Hot water cools from 60oC to 50oC in the
first 10 minutes and to 42oC in the next 10 (3)
minutes. The temperature of the surrounding NH2
(1) 5oC
(2) 10oC
(3) 15oC (4)
(4) 20oC PCC
134. Statement A) : Natural convection can not 137. CH 3 − CH = CH − CH 2 OH   → X. Then
take place in freely falling lift. X is
Statement B) : Temperature of human body
(1) CH 3 − CH = CH − COOH
is kept constant by forced convection.
(1) A and B both are false (2) CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 2OH
(2) A is true, B is false
(3) CH 3 − CH = CH − CHO
(3) A is false, B is true
(4) A and B both are true (4) CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CHO
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138. Wrong match is (2) 4-hydroxy -3- methoxy benzene
CH ( OCrOHCl2 )2 carbaldehyde
(3) 2-hydroxy -3- methoxy benzene
carbaldehyde
(4) 3-hydroxy -2- methoxy benzene
(1) ….. intermediate
carbaldehyde
in Etard reaction
144. The correct order of decreasing acidic
(2) CH 2 = CHO − … Formed during Aldol character of
condensation of acetaldehyde (A) O2 N − CH 2 − COOH
CH ( COCH 3 )2 (B) F3C − COOH
(C) NC − CH 2 − COOH
(3) ……. Intermediate in (D) CCl3 − COOH is
the preparation of benzaldehyde from (1) A>B>C>D
toluene with CrO3 and acetic anhydride (2) B>D>A>C
(4) R-CH=NH….intermediate in Stephen’s (3) B>D>C>A
reaction (4) C>A>D>B
139. Which product is not formed in cross aldol 145. Which of the following will not undergo
condensation of mixture of ethanol and Hell-volhard-zelensky reaction?
propanal (1) acetic acid
(1) But – 2-enal (2) propanoic acid
(2) Pent-2-enal (3) 2,2-dimethyl propanoic acid
(3) 2-methyl –but-2-enal (4) 2-methyl propanoic acid
(4) 2-methyl-pent-1-enal 146. CH 3CH 2CN  LiAlH 4
→ A,
140. Which of the following does not undergoes
CH 3CH 2 NC 
NaHg
C2 H 5OH
→ B . Then A and B are
cannizzaro reaction
(1) H-CHO (1) Functional isomers
(2) C6H5-CHO (2) Chain isomers
(3) (CH3)3CCHO (3) Position isomers
(4) CH3CHO (4) Tautomers
R COOH 147. Regarding esterification of carboxylic acid
the correct statements are
KMnO4-KOH A) C-O cleavage takes place in carboxylic
Heat, H3O+
acids
141. In this B) O-H cleavage takes place in alcohol
reaction ‘R’ cannot be C) Alcohols act like nuclophiles
(1) Methyl D) In the net reaction water molecule is
(2) Isopropyl eliminated
(3) Secondary butyl (1) A, B only
(4) Tertiary butyl (2) A only
142. “A” gives red ppt of Cu2O with Fehling’s (3) A, B, C only
reagent and white ppt of “Ag” with Tollen’s (4) A, B,C, D
reagent. “B” gives white ppt with Tollen’s
reagent but cannot give red ppt with 148. I. C6 H 5 N 2Cl 
CuCl / HCl
→ C6 H 5Cl + N 2
Fehling’s reagent. A,B respectively II. C6 H 5 N 2Cl →
Cu / HCl
C6 H 5Cl + N 2 + CuCl
(1) Acetaldehyde, benzaldehyde Incorrect statements among the following
(2) Acetaldehyde, acetone (1) Reaction ‘I’ is Sandmeyer’s reaction
(3) Benzaldehyde, Acetaldehyde (2) Reaction ‘II’ is Gattermann reaction
(4) Acetone, Acetaldehyde (3) Yield of chlorobenzene is more in
143. The IUPAC name of vanillin is reaction ‘I’
(1) 2-hydroxy - 6 – methoxy benzene (4) Yield of chlorobenzene is more in
carbardehyde reaction ‘II’
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149. Statement -I : Sulphanilic acid exists as 155. Which of the following is least basic
dipolar ion. (1) ( C2 H 5 )2 NH (2) ( C2 H 5 )3 N
Statement -II: Acetic acid is stronger than
benzoic acid. (3) ( CH 3 )2 NH (4) C2 H 5 NH 2
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is NH2
false
(2) Both statements I and II are true ( CH CO ) O
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is 
3 2 2
Pyridine
→A
true 156.
(4) Both statements I and II are false Incorrect about “A” is
150. The correct order of basic strength of the (1) Common name of “A” is acetanilide
following is (2) A is a ketone
(1) p – chloroaniline > p – nitroaniline > p (3) IUPAC name of “A” is N-phenyl
– methoxyaniline ethanamide
(2) p – chloroaniline > p – methoxyaniline (4) Functional group in “A” is an o,p
> p – nitroaniline directing group on benzene
(3) p – methoxyaniline > p – chloroaniline
157. CH 3CH 2CHO  X
→ CH 3CH 2CH 3 “X”
> p – nitroaniline
(4) p – methoxyaniline > p – nitroaniline > cannot be
p – chloroaniline (1) Zn-Hg/Conc.HCl
151. Gabriel method can be used for preparation of (2) LiAlH4
(1) C6 H 5 NH 2 (3) N 2 H 4 , KOH / glycol
(2) ( CH 3 )2 NH (4) HI + Re dP /1500 C

(3) ( CH 3 )3 N N 2Cl
(4) CH 3 NH 2
152. Regarding Benzene diazonium fluroborate, 
HBF4 ,Cu
NaNO2
→ X ; " X " is
correct statements are 158.
A) Prepared from aniline by diazotization
F NO2
followed by heating the salt with HBF4
B) By direct fluorination of benzene with
F2 gas
C) Unstable at room temperature and (1) (2)
soluble in water NH2 BF3
D) Stable at room temperature and
insoluble in water
(1) A and C (3) (4)
(2) A and D 159. CH 3 − COOH → CH 3 − CH 2 − OH ;' X '
'x'

(3) B and C
can be
(4) B and D
A) LiAlH4 / ether B) B2H6
153. The preffered reagent used to convert
C) NaBH4
nitrobenzene into aniline commercially is
(1) B only (2) A,C only
(1) H2/ Pd+ ethanol
(3) A,B only (4) A, B,C
(2) Sn+ HCl
160. Coupling of benzene diazoniumchloride with
(3) Fe+H2O/HCl
phenol is an example of
(4) LiAlH4
(1) Nucleophillic addition of benzene
154. Boiling point is highest for
diazonium chloride
(1) Butanal
(2) Electrophillic substitution of phenol
(2) Butanone
(3) Nucleophillic substitution of phenol
(3) Ethoxy ethane
(4) Electrophillic substitution of benzene
(4) 1-Butanol
diazonium chloride
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161. I : C6 H 5 N 2⊕Cl + H 3 PO2 + H 2O → OH
O COOC2 H 5
C6 H 6 + X + N 2 + HCl CH 2OH
II: C6 H 5 N 2⊕Cl − + C2 H 5OH + H 2O →
(3) (4)
C6 H 6 + Y + N 2 + HCl C2 H 5OH
H 2O / H +
167. C2 H 5COOH  
→ x   →y+z.
About X and Y, the incorrect statement is H+

(1) ‘X’ is an inorganic acid. ‘Y’ on Then x, y, z are

oxidation with acidified KMnO4 gives (1) C2 H 5 COOCH 3 , C2 H 5OH, CH 3OH
organic acid (2) C2 H 5COOC2 H5 , C2 H 5COOH, C2 H 5OH
(2) In ‘X’ central atom exhibit sp3
(3) CH3COOC2 H5 , CH 3COOH, C2 H 5OH
hybridisation
(3) Y can give positive Tollens test (4) C2 H 5 COOC2 H 5 , C 2 H 5 OH, C3 H 7 OH
(4) X is tribasic acid 168. Which of the following gives alkali insoluble
162. Identify the correct statement derivative with benzene sulphonyl chloride
(1) Nitriles are strong bases than amines (1) R3N
(2) Cyanides boil at higher temperature (2) RNH2
than their isomeric isocyanides (3) R2NH
(3) In the preparation of cyanides from (4) All of these
aldoximes acetic anhydride is used,
169. The hybridization of carbon atoms in
which act as acetylating agent
acrolein
(4) Alkyl isocyanides on oxidation with
(1) sp2
HgO produces alkyl isothiocyanate
163. Molecular formula of amine is C4H11N. The (2) sp3
number of 20 amines possible are (structural (3) sp
isomers only) (4) Both sp2 and sp3
(1) 2 170. 1 – phenyl propan-1-one is also called as
(2) 3 (1) Benzo phenone
(3) 5 (2) Acetophenone
(4) 4 (3) Propiophenone
164. Aniline is subjected to direct nitration. Major (4) Acetyl benzene
product obtained is
(1) o-nitro aniline
(2) m-nitro aniline
(3) p-nitro aniline
(4) all are obtained in equal proportions
171.
165. Carbyl amine test is not answered by
What is Q?
(1) Isopropyl amine
(2) Diethyl amine
(3) Tertiary butyl amine
(4) Benzene amine (1)
O
O
C − OC2 H 5 NaBH 4
→ P. (2)

166. ‘P’ is
OH OH (3)
CH 2OH CHO

(1) (2) (4)

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172. In which of the following reaction 175. The incorrect match is
benzaldehyde is not produced? (1) Hinsberg reagent - C 6 H 5 SO2Cl
(2) Stephen’s reducing agent -
SnCl2 + HCl
(1) (3) Aniline yellow –

(4) Clemmenson reduction –

(2) H 2 / Pd − BaSO4
176. Mesityl oxide is a
(1) Aldehyde
(2) Cyclic ether
(3) (3) Openchain ether
(4) Ketone
177. Incorrect match is
(4)
173. An organic compound ‘P’ with Molecular
formula C 8 H 8O forms an orange red (1) Malonic acid -
precipitate with 2, 4-DNP reagent, gives (2) Glutaric acid –
yellow ppt. On heating with I 2 + NaOH but HOOC − (CH 2 ) 4 − COOH
doesn’t reduces Tollen’s (or) Fehling’s (3) Maleic acid - (CH ) (COOH ) 2
2
reagent. The organic compound ‘P’ is
(4) Terepthalic acid –

178. Jone’s reagent is

(1)
(1) CrO3 + H 2 SO4 /acetone
(2) K 2Cr2O7 + H 2SO4
(2) (3) Cold, dilute alkaline KMnO4
(4) Pd − BaSO4 /Quinoline
179. Which of the following not only gives
carbylamines test but also undergoes
(3)
diazotization under appropriate conditions
(1) CH3NH2
(2) C6H5NH2
(3) (CH3)2NH
(4)
(4) C6H5CH2CH2NH2
174. Meta bromo nitrobenzene is treated with
180. Complete hydrolysis of acetonitrile in acid
magnesium and dry ether to give X. X when
medium produces
treated with dry ice followed by acidification
gives (1) CH 3CH 2OH
(1) Meta amino benzaldehyde (2) CH 3COOH
(2) Benzoic acid (3) CH 3 NC
(3) Meta nitro Benzoic acid
(4) Meta nitro benzyl alcohol (4) CH 3COOCH 3
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 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI
SR AIIMS S60 & NEET MPL NEET PART TEST – 5 KEY Date : 30-03-20

BIOLOGY
1) 2 2) 3 3) 2 4) 3 5) 1 6) 3 7) 4 8) 1 9) 2 10) 1
11) 4 12) 4 13) 1 14) 2 15) 3 16) 2 17) 1 18) 2 19) 3 20) 4
21) 2 22) 2 23) 1 24) 3 25) 4 26) 3 27) 3 28) 4 29) 4 30) 3
31) 2 32) 3 33) 1 34) 4 35) 2 36) 2 37) 4 38) 3 39) 2 40) 2
41) 2 42) 3 43) 1 44) 1 45) 2 46) 1 47) 1 48) 1 49) 4 50) 2
51) 3 52) 3 53) 2 54) 2 55) 2 56) 2 57) 2 58) 1 59) 2 60) 2
61) 4 62) 2 63) 4 64) 1 65) 4 66) 1 67) 3 68) 2 69) 2 70) 3
71) 2 72) 4 73) 3 74) 2 75) 1 76) 1 77) 3 78) 4 79) 4 80) 3
81) 3 82) 4 83) 4 84) 1 85) 1 86) 4 87) 4 88) 2 89) 4 90) 3

PHYSICS

91) 1 92) 3 93) 4 94) 1 95) 3 96) 3 97) 2 98) 3 99) 3 100) 2

101) 4 102) 3 103) 4 104) 2 105) 4 106) 2 107) 2 108) 2 109) 1 110) 3

111) 4 112) 3 113) 1 114) 4 115) 1 116) 3 117) 2 118) 3 119) 3 120) 1

121) 2 122) 3 123) 3 124) 3 125) 4 126) 2 127) 2 128) 2 129) 3 130) 1

131) 4 132) 3 133) 2 134) 4 135) 3

CHEMISTRY

136) 1 137) 3 138) 3 139) 4 140) 4 141) 4 142) 1 143) 2 144) 2 145) 3

146) 1 147) 4 148) 4 149) 1 150) 3 151) 4 152) 2 153) 3 154) 4 155) 4

156) 2 157) 2 158) 2 159) 3 160) 2 161) 4 162) 2 163) 2 164) 3 165) 2

166) 4 167) 2 168) 3 169) 1 170) 3 171) 2 172) 3 173) 1 174) 3 175) 4

176) 4 177) 2 178) 1 179) 2 180) 2

 SOLUTIONS ∴ 3 = t = 2π
(500 + 400 )
…...(i)
PHYSICS k

91) Using x = A sin ωt When 500 gm mass is also removed, the left
π out mass is 400 gm.
For x = A / 2, sin ωT1 = 1 / 2 ⇒ T1 =
6ω ∴ t ′ = 2π
400
…..(ii)
π k
For x = A, sin ω (T1 + T2 ) = 1 ⇒ T1 + T2 =
2ω 3 900
⇒ = ⇒ t ′ = 2 sec
π π π π t′ 400
⇒ T2 = − T1 = − = i.e . T1 < T2
2ω 2ω 6ω 3ω 98) Ans: 2f
92) y = 0 .2 sin(10π t + 1 .5π ) cos(10π t + 1.5π ) 99) Due to impulse, the total energy of the
= 0 .1 sin 2(10π t + 1 .5π ) [∵ sin 2 A = 2 sin A cos A] particle becomes :
= 0.1 sin(20 π t + 3 .0π ) 1 1
2π 2π 1
mω2 A 2 + mω2 A = mω2 A 2
∴ Time period, T = = = = 0 . 1 sec 2 2
ω 20 π 10 Let: A ' be the new amplitude (Apply energy
93) y = a sin(ωt + φ0 ) . According to the question conservation law)
a a π 5π 1
y= ⇒ = a sin(ω t + φ0 ) ⇒ (ω t + φ0 ) = φ = or
∴ mω 2 ( A ') = mω 2 A 2 ⇒ A ' = 2 A
2
2 2 6 6
π
2
Physical meaning of φ = : Particle is at point 100) Amplitude of damped oscillator
6
− λt
P and it is going towards B A = A0 e ; λ = constant, t = time
a/2
A0
For t =1 min. = A0 e − λ t ⇒ e λ = 2
2
A O P B
A A
a For t = 3 min. A = A0 e − λ × 3 = λ0 3 = 30
5π (e ) 2
Physical meaning of φ= : Particle is at point
6 ⇒ X = 23
P and it is going towards O 101) Time period of a physical pendulum
a/2 1 2
 mR + mR 
2

T = 2π
I0
= 2π  2 
A O P B mgd mgR
a
3R
5π π 2π = 2π …..(i)
So phase difference ∆φ = − = = 120 ° 2g
6 6 3
1/ 2
Slope is irrelevant hence T = 2π 
M 
94) 
 2K 
95) If t is the time taken by pendulums to come
in same phase again first time after t = 0 . and
N S = Number of oscillations made by shorter
length pendulum with time period TS . N L =
Number of oscillations made by longer l
Tsimple pendulum = 2π …..(ii)
length pendulum with time period TL . Then g
t = N S TS = N L TL 3
Equating (i) and (ii), l = R.
5 20 l 2
⇒ N S 2π = N L × 2π ( ∵ T = 2π )
g g g  F 
 
⇒ NS = 2N L  a 
n = 2 ( n − 1) ⇒ n = 2 102) B=
 ∆V 
−
96) y = Kt 2 ⇒
d 2y
= ay = 2 K = 2 × 1=2m/s2 ( ∵ K=  V 
dt 2
1m/s2)  ∆V  (ay)
F = −Ba  
 = −B (a )
l l  V  V
Now, T1 = 2π and T2 = 2π
g (g + a y )
Ba 2 Ba 2
T1 g + ay 6 T12 6 ma = − y a=− y
Dividing, = ⇒ ⇒ = V Vm
T2 g 5 T22 5
97) When mass 700 gm is removed, the left out Ba 2 mV
mass (500 + 400) gm oscillates with a period W= T = 2π
mV Ba 2
of 3 sec
103) Let liquid is displaced slightly by ‘y’ Comparing above equation with given
downwards in left arm. The level of right equation
arm will rise by the same amount. Therefore γ 5/3 5
P ∝ TC ⇒ C = = =
unbalanced head of liquid becomes 2y. Fr = - γ −1 5 / 3 −1 2
115) Conceptual
Force exerted by ‘2y’ height of liquid
2Adg
116) VP n = c
∴ ( dv ) P n + n ( P ) .dp.v = 0
Fr = - (2ydg) A W= n −1
M
Ma = - 2ydgA dp −dp p
∴ dv = −nv. ∴ =
a=-
2dgA
y T = 2π
M P ( dv / v ) n
M 2Adg TL
117) COP = =
104) We know that Acceleration = − ω 2 TH − TL
(displacement) and a = −bx (given in the Where TL → lower temperature
problem) & TH → Higher temperature
Comparing above two equation
TL
2π 2π So, 5 =
ω = b ⇒ ω = b ∴ Time period T =
2
= TH − TL
ω b
a 2π 6 6
105) v max = aω = ⇒ TH = TL = ( 253) = 303.6K
T 5 5
106) Initially ice will absorb heat to raise it's T2 300
temperature to 0oC then it's melting takes 118) η = 1− ⇒ 1− = 0.4 ⇒ T1 = 500K
T1 T1
place. If m = Initial mass of ice, m' = Mass of
50
ice that melts and mw = Initial mass of water. Now η ∋= 0.4 + 0.4 × = 0.6
By Law of mixture Heat gain by ice = Heat 100
loss by water. 300
Therefore 0.6 = 1 −
⇒ m × c × (20 ) + m ' × L = m w cw [20 ] 500 + ∆T
⇒ 2 × 0 .5(20 ) + m '×80 = 5 × 1 × 20 ⇒ m ' =1kg ⇒ 500 + ∆T = 750 ⇒ ∆T = 250K
So mass of water in the final mixture = 119) For engine & refrigerators operating
(5+1)Kg = 6Kg between two same temperatures
107) Pt=mL 1 1 1
η= ⇒ = ⇒β =9
108) Conceptual 1+ β 10 1 + β
109) Conceptual Q
2/ 5 β = 2 (From the principle of refrigerator)
110) T1 V1 γ−1 = T2 V2 γ−1 T1 = T2 2 5 ( ) Q
W
9 = 2 ⇒ Q 2 = 90 Joule
γ−1 10
T1 = T2 (32 ) T1 = 4T2
120) For cyclic process. Total work
7
5 5−1 T2 1 done = WAB + WBC + WCA ∆WAB = P∆V = 10(2 – 1)
T1 = T2 ( )
2 η = 1−
T1
= 1−
4 = 10J and∆WBC =0
(as V = constant)From FLOT, ∆Q = ∆U + ∆W
η = 0.75
∆U = 0 (Process ABCA is cyclic)
P0 V0
111) WBCOB = − Areaof ∆BCD = − ⇒∆Q = ∆WAB + ∆WBC + ∆WCA⇒ 5 = 10 + 0 +
2
∆WCA⇒∆WCA = – 5 J
P0 V0
WAODA = + Areaof ∆AOD = + PV
2 121) ∆U = nCV ∆T & T =
Wnet = 0 nR
112) ∆Q = ∆U + ∆W = (U f − U i ) + ∆W P2 V2 − P1V1
So ∆T = T2 − T1 =
⇒ −30 = (U f − 30 ) − 10 ⇒ U f = 10 J nR
nR  P2 V2 − P1V1  P2 V2 − P1V1
113) AB is isobaric process, BC is isothermal So ∆U = =
process, CD is isometric process and DA is γ − 1  nR  γ −1
isothermal process These process are −8 × 103
correctly represented by graph (a) ⇒ ∆U = = −20KJ
2
γ 5
114) T γ P 1 − γ = constant ⇒ P ∝ T γ − 1
 5  2(dU ) 130) According to Wien's law wavelength
122) dU = C V dT =  R dT or dT = …..(i)
2  5R corresponding to maximum energy
From first law of thermodynamics decreases. When the temperature of black
dU = dQ − dW = Q −
Q
=
3Q
. Now molar heat body increases i.e. λ m T = constant
4 4 T λ λ0 4
dQ Q 5 RQ 10 ⇒ 2 = 1 = =
capacity C= = = = R. T1 λ 2 3λ0 / 4 3
dT 2(dU )  3Q  3
2  Now according to Stefan's law
5R  4 
4 4
123) P-V diagram of the gas is a straight line E 2  T2  4 256
=  =   = .
passing through origin. Hence P ∝ V or E1  T1   
3 81
PV −1 = constant 131) According to Wien's displacement law
Molar heat capacity in the process λm T = b
PV x = constant is
R R
C= + ; Here γ = 1 .4 (For diatomic gas)
γ −1 1− x
R R
⇒C = + ⇒ C = 3R
1.4 − 1 1 + 1
124) In second part there is a vacuum i.e. P = 0. So
work done in expansion = P∆V = 0
125) When a gas is heated at constant pressure
b 2 . 88 × 10 6 nm -K
then its one part goes to increase the internal ∴ λm = = = 1000 nm
T 2880 nm
energy and another part for work done
against external pressure i.e. energy corresponding to wavelength
i.e. (∆Q) p = ∆U + ∆W 1000 nm will be maximum i.e.U2 will be
maximum U1<U2>U3
⇒ µ C p ∆T = µ C v ∆T + P∆V
Energy distribution graph with wavelength
So fraction of energy that goes to increase the will be as follows
∆U C 1 5 7 132) According to Newton's law of cooling rate of
internal energy = v = = [As γ =
(∆Q ) p Cp γ 7 5 cooling depends upon the difference of
for diatomic gas] temperature between the body and the
126) Conceptual surrounding. It means that when the
difference of temperature between the body
127) TB = TA = 200 C
and the surrounding is small then time
KA (90 − 20) KA ( 20 − 0) ℓ BD 70 7 required for same fall in temperature is more
= ⇒ = =
ℓ BD ℓ BC ℓ BC 20 2 in comparison with the same fall at higher
temperature difference between the body
128) R 1 = R, R 2 = 2R
and surrounding. So according to problem
R1 R
∆θ1 = ( ∆θ ) = ( 36) = 120 C T1<T2<T3.
R1 + R 2 3R θ1 − θ 2 θ + θ 2 
133) ∝ 1 −θ
129) We can consider this arrangement as a t  2 
parallel combination of two materials having For first condition
different thermal conductivities K1 and K2 60 − 50  60 + 50 
∝ − θ  ⇒ 1 = K [55 – θ]……(i)
10  2 
50 − 42  50 + 42 
For second condition ∝ −θ ⇒ 0.8 = K
10  2 
(46 – θ )…..(ii)
K 1 A1 + K 2 A 2 From (i) and (ii) we get θ = 10oC
For parallel combination K = 134) Conceptual
A1 + A 2
A1 = Area of cross-section of internal 135) Total power radiated by sun = σ T 4 × 4π R 2
cylinder = πR2, The intensity of power at earth’s surface
A2 = Area of cross-section of outer cylinder = σ T 4 × 4π R 2
=
π (2R)2 – π(R)2 = 3πR2 4π r 2
K .πR 2 + K 2 3πR 2 K + 3K 2 Total power received by earth
∴K = 1 = 1
πR + 3πR σ T4R 2
(π r )
2 2 4
= 2
2
0
r