ADDIS ABABA UNIVERSITY COLLEGE

OF VETERINARY MEDICINE AND

AGRICULTURE MODEL/MOCK EXIT
EXAMINATION FOR DVM PROGRAM
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Part-II: Veterinary Microbiology II

Instruction: Choose the Best Answer and Encircle Your Letter of Choose

1. Which one of the following is describe Marek's disease?

*
1 point
A. lymphomatous and neuropathic disease
B. One of the important viral diseases of poultry
C. Gallid Herpesvirus 3- oncogenic strains
D. Fowl paralysis

2. Which of the following clinical specimen is preferred for Isolation and identification of
FMD Virus?

*
1 point
A. Vesicular fluid
B. Epithelium covering a vesicle
C. Flaps of epithelial tissue still attached
D. Blood
E. All

3. Which one of the following is true about Newcastle disease causing Virus?

*
1 point
A. Avian Paramyxovirus 1 (APMV-1)
B. It is negative sense RNA viruses.
C. They are enveloped viruses
D. They possess icosahedral symmetry
4. Which one of the following Newcastle disease virus strain is causing mild infections of
the respiratory tract?

*
1 point
A. Velogenic
B. Mesogenic
C. Lentogenic
D. Avirulent

5. Which one of the following is true about Rinderpest virus?

*
1 point
A. H is responsible for attachment
B. Specific cytopathic effects develop after three days.
C. Rinderpest virus is pleomorphic
D. F is responsible for entry into the cell.
E. All

6. Which one the following is not appropriate samples to detect Rinderpest virus and
PPR virus from live animals?

*
1 point
A. Blood in EDTA or heparin
B. lacrimal fluid
C. Urine
D. Necrotic tissue from the oral cavity

7. Which of the following diagnostic tool is prescribed test for international trade of PPR
disease?

*
1 point
A. Sandwich ELISA
B. PCR
C. Competitive ELISA
D. Virus neutralization test
E. Agar gel immunodiffusion

8. Which is not about African horse sickness virus

*
1 point
A. The virus can survive at room temperature (37°C for 37 days) for nearly a month.
B. The viruses are stable at basic pH range of 6.3-12.0.
C. The genome is replicated in the nuclease in a conservative fashion.
D. There are 9 serotypes of AHSV and all these serotypes are immunologically distinct.
E. The virus can also be cultivated in chicken embryo fibroblast, but no CPE are produced.

9. Which is not morphological Characteristics of Influenza virus?

*
1 point
A. Highly pleiomorphic (variable),
B. The outer surface of the particle consists of a lipid envelope
C. The genome is of s/s (-)sense RNA linear non segmented
D. Glycoprotein spikes of two types Haemagglutinin (HA) and Neuraminidase (NA).
E. The inner side of the envelope is lined by the matrix protein.

10. Which is not true about rabies virus?

*
1 point
A. attaches to a cell by interaction G protein
B. The virions are present in the cytoplasm as large endosomes (cytoplasmic vesicles).
C. Messenger RNAs must be transcribed by polymerase (L) present in the core.
D. Rabies virus induce minimal CPE,
E. Presence of rabies virus in tissue culture system is confirmed by antibody test

11. A positive result in a serological test(antibody test) indicates what?

*
1 point
A. The patient has recently been exposed to a virus
B. The patient is currently infected with the virus
C. The patient has never been exposed to the virus
D. The patient was previously infected with the virus

12. Which of the following describes correct viral cytopathic effect?

*
1 point
A. Cytocidal: Viruses cause lysis of host cells
B. Noncytocidal: Viruses alter cell metabolism and kill the cell
C. Cytocidal: Viruses alter cell metabolism but don't kill the cell
D. Noncytocidal: Viruses cause lysis of host cells

13. What is cytocidal viral cytopathic effect?

*
1 point
A. Viruses cause lysis of host cells
B. Viruses alter cell metabolism but don't kill the cell
C. The spread of disease caused by virions in the body
D. A virus getting transmitted from one individual to another

14. Which one of the following virus is responsible to cause major disease of each
domestic animal species, except sheep, including such important diseases as infectious
bovine rhinotracheitis, pseudo rabies, and Marek’s disease?

*
1 point
A. Parvovirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Herpes viruses
D. Togavirus

15.Which birds are most commonly affected by Newcastle disease?

*
1 point
A. Chicken
B. Ducks
C. Pigeons
D. All of the above

16. Type of virus-cell interaction in which virus replicate and viral progeny produce and
they are fully infective is

*
1 point
A. Abortive infection
B. Productive infection
C. Nonproductive infection
D. Cytolytic Infection

17. All are types of primary tissue culture, but not one:

*
1 point
A. Continuous cell line
B. Organ culture
C. Suspension culture
D. Monolayer

18. Which of the following viruses belongs to the Rhabdovirus family?

*
1 point
A. Yellow fever virus
B. Coronavirus
C. Rabies virus
D. Hepatitis C virus
19. Which of the following is not a characteristic shared by most Rhabdoviruses?
*
1 point
A. Enveloped structure
B. Rod shaped virions
C. Highly pathogenic nature
D. Single-stranded genome with poly A tail

20. Most Rhabdoviruses are spread through:

*
1 point
A. Contaminated food and water supplies
B. Sexual contact
C. Inhaling airborne particles
D. Biting from an infected animal
21. What shape are virions of rhabdoviruses?
*
1 point
A. Spherical
B. Ovoid
C. Pleomorphic
D. Rod shaped

22. What is the most common cause of Foot and Mouth Disease?

*
1 point
A. Parasitic infection
B. Bacterial infection
C. Viral infection
D. Fungal infection

23. What type of animals can get Foot and Mouth Disease?

*
1 point
A. Dogs and cats
B. Pigs and cows
C. Fish and birds
D. All of the above

24. What are the clinical signs associated with Foot and Mouth Disease?
*
1 point
A. Weight loss, decreased appetite, labored breathing
B. Fever, mouth sores, lameness
C. Swelling and lesions on feet, vomiting
D. All of the above

25. Which of the following practice prevent spread of Foot and Mouth Disease?

*
1 point
A. Vaccinations
B. Improved hygienic practices
C. Quarantine infected animals
D. All of the above

26. What type of Nucleic acid the Foot and Mouth Disease Virus contain?

*
1 point
A. Both DNA and RNA
B. RNA
C. DNA
D. DNA or RNA

27. What one of the following can be susceptible to PPR Virus?

*
1 point
A. Pigs
B. cattle
C. Sheep
D. All of the above

28. How do Foot and Mouth Disease spread?

*
1 point
A. Airborne particles
B. Artificial insemination
C. Contact with infected animals or animal products
D. All of the above

29. Which is not true about Coronaviruses?

*
1 point
A. are enveloped viruses with a helical nucleocapsid that contains single-stranded RNA with positive
(messenger) polarity.
B. The capsid consists of a densely-packed icosahedral arrangement of 60 protomers, each consisting of 4
polypeptides, VP1, VP2, VP3 and VP4.
C. have distinctive club-shaped surface projections that give the appearance of a solar corona to the
virion.
D. replicate in the cytoplasm and bind to cytoplasmic vesicles; no viral antigens appear on the surface of
the infected cell.

30 Which one of the following is no true about Safe Working Environment Level 4
Laboratories?

*
1 point
A. Use only level I and level II Biological safety cabinet
B. Very severely restricted in most of the countries by government decree
C. Airtight and access through airlocks
D. Ensure that nothing passes outside the room without being sterilized

31. Where a primary replication of African swine fever virus is occurs?

*
1 point
A. Monocytes
B. Cytoplasm
C. Nuclease
D. Macrophages
32. Which is true about dengu virus?
*
1 point
A. Dengue fever can be caused by 4 different serotypes of the dengue virus
B. The virus can cause inflammation of central nervous system and heart muscles with rashes over the
body
C. cause respiratory tract infections
D. It is a highly contagious virus of mice and mortality may approach to 100% in virulent outbreak cases.

33. Which one of the following Laboratory waste container colour- wrongly coded?

*
1 point
A. Red - For incineration
B. Light blue - For autoclaving
C. Black - Normal household waste: local authority refuse collection
D. White or clear plastic- soiled linen

34. Which one of the following statement is true?

*
1 point
A. A virion contains DNA and RNA.
B. Viruses are acellular.
C. Viruses replicate outside of the cell.
D. Most viruses are easily visualized with a light microscope.

35. Which one of the following is incorrect about Specimen Processing and Inoculation
for Isolation of Virus?

*
1 point
A. Urine specimens should have the pH adjusted toward neutrality before inoculation.
B. Respiratory or genital specimens are treated with antibiotics before inoculation to prevent bacterial or
fungal overgrowth.
C. After inoculation, cultures are incubated at 35 °C to 37 °C and inspected periodically.
D. sterile body fluids cannot be inoculated directly onto cell cultures with out decontamination

36. Which statement is not true of viral replication?

*
1 point
A. A lysogenic infection kills the host cell.
B. There are six basic steps in the viral replication cycle.
C. Viral replication does affect host cell function.
D. Newly released virions can infect adjacent cells.

37 Which one of the following is not true about Serum neutralization test?

*
1 point
A. This test is less specific and sensitive for viruses which produce cytopathic effects (CPE).
B. It is considered to be the definitive standard against which other serological tests are compared.
C. Neutralizing antibodies usually correlate closely with immune protection.
D. The presence of neutralizing antihodies in the serum prevents infection of the cells and CPE.

38. Which of the following is not associated with prions?

*
1 point
A. Replicating shapes
B. Mad cow disease
C. DNA
D. Infectious proteins

39. Which one of the following not describe the virus ?

*
1 point
A. Possess either DNA or RNA
B. Do possess active protein synthesizing apparatus
C. Do not have a nucleus, cytoplasm, mitochondria or ribosomes
D. No metabolic activity outside host: obligate intracellular parasites

40. Which one of following family comprises African horse sickness Virus?

*
1 point
A. Orthomyxoviridae
B. Reoviridae
C. Retroviridae
D. Birnaviradae

41. Which of the following is not about FMD virus?

*
1 point
A. Couse rarely fatal in adult animals
B. The virus affects cattle, swine, sheep, goats and other cloven-hoofed ruminants.
C. Known by fever and blister-like sores on the tongue and lips & others parts.
D. Contain seven strains (A, O, SAT1, SAT2, SAT3, Asia1 and Asia 2)

42. Which one of the following host Blue Tongue Virus cause fatal disease?

*
1 point
A. Cattle
B. Sheep
C. Goat
D. Horse

43. Which one of the following Paramyxoviruses may not?

*
1 point
A. Replicate in the nuclease
B. Induce cell-cell fusion via F protein,
C. causing multinucleated giant Cell
D. Transmitted in respiratory droplets

44. The following is true of rabies virus

*
1 point
A. The majority of cases world-wide result from bat bites
B. Infection may be prevented by active and passive immunisation
C. Human Rabies vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine
D. The animal reservoir differs from country to country
E. May be diagnosed by serology

45. Which is one of the following does not represent Lumpy skin disese virus in
Ethiopia?

*
1 point
A. It is severe in cows at peak lactation and causes a sharp drop in milk yield.
B. Couse to secondary bacterial mastitis.
C. The Virus Able to infect Human
D. Couse Temporary or permanent infertility may occur in cows and bulls.

46. Which one of the following genera contain causative agent of Rabies?

*
1 point
A. Vesiculo virus
B. Lyssa virus
C. Ephemerovirus
D. Novirhabdovirus genus

47. Which one of the following is not characteristic of Retrovirus?

*
1 point
A. single-stranded RNA with
B. Icosahedral nucleocapsid
C. The envelope has glycoprotein surface spikes.
D. Their genome in virion is diploid.

48. Which one of the following is not describe morphological Characteristics of Influenza
virus?

*
1 point
A. Highly pleiomorphic (variable),
B. The outer surface of the particle consists of a lipid envelope
C. The genome is of s/s (-)sense RNA linear non segmented
D. Glycoprotein spikes of two types Haemagglutinin (HA) and Neuraminidase (NA).
E. The inner side of the envelope is lined by the matrix protein.

49. Which one of the following virus Inclusion body situated in cytoplasm?
*
1 point
A. Pox virus
B. Herpes virus
C. Measles virus
D. Picorna virus

50. Which one of the following is not true about Complement fixation test?

*
1 point
A. It is a classic method for demonstrating the presence of antibody in serum.
B. It contains as indicator sheep red cells, complement and detect antibody
C. Complement fixation Test is assumed positive when Red Blood cell lysis occurs.
D. Complement fixation Test is assumed negative lack hemolysis

Context cleared
Which one of the following is describe Marek's disease?
*

1 point

A. lymphomatous and neuropathic disease

B. One of the important viral diseases of poultry

C. Gallid Herpesvirus 3- oncogenic strains

Which one of the following is describe Marek's disease?

*

1 point

A. lymphomatous and neuropathic disease

B. One of the important viral diseases of poultry

C. Gallid Herpesvirus 3- oncogenic strains

D. Fowl paralysis
The correct answer is: B. Marek's disease is one of the important viral diseases of
poultry, caused by Gallid Herpesvirus 2 (GaHV-2), also known as Marek's disease
virus. It is characterized by lymphomatous and neuropathic symptoms in affected
birds.

Which of the following clinical specimen is preferred for Isolation and identification
of FMD Virus?
*

1 point

A. Vesicular fluid

B. Epithelium covering a vesicle

C. Flaps of epithelial tissue still attached

D. Blood

E. All

The preferred clinical specimen for isolation and identification of Foot-and-Mouth

Disease (FMD) virus is vesicular fluid.

Option A is the correct answer. Vesicular fluid is the most appropriate clinical sample
for the isolation and identification of FMD virus because it contains high viral titers
and is less likely to be contaminated with other microorganisms compared to other
samples. Options B and C are also suitable for FMD virus isolation, but they may
contain lower amounts of virus and are more likely to be contaminated with other
microorganisms. Option D (blood) is not suitable for FMD virus isolation because the
virus does not circulate in the blood during the acute phase of the disease.

. Which one of the following is true about Newcastle disease causing Virus?
*
1 point
A. Avian Paramyxovirus 1 (APMV-1)
B. It is negative sense RNA viruses.
C. They are enveloped viruses
D. They possess icosahedral symmetry

A. Avian Paramyxovirus 1 (APMV-1) is true about Newcastle disease causing Virus.

Newcastle disease virus (NDV) is Avian Paramyxovirus 1 (APMV-1), and it belongs
to the family Paramyxoviridae. Option B is incorrect because NDV is a negative-
sense RNA virus. Option C is correct; NDV is an enveloped virus. Option D is
incorrect because NDV has a helical symmetry.

Which one of the following Newcastle disease virus strain is causing mild infections
of the respiratory tract?
*
1 point
A. Velogenic
B. Mesogenic
C. Lentogenic
D. Avirulent

C. Lentogenic strains of Newcastle disease virus cause mild infections of the

respiratory tract in chickens.

Newcastle disease virus (NDV) strains are classified into three pathotypes based on
their virulence in chickens: lentogenic, mesogenic, and velogenic. Lentogenic strains
are the least virulent and typically cause mild to moderate respiratory disease in
chickens. They are commonly used as vaccine strains for NDV. Mesogenic strains
cause moderate to severe respiratory disease, and velogenic strains cause severe
respiratory and neurological disease, with high mortality rates. Avirulent strains do
not cause clinical disease in chickens.

. Which one of the following is true about Rinderpest virus?

*
1 point
A. H is responsible for attachment
B. Specific cytopathic effects develop after three days.
C. Rinderpest virus is pleomorphic
D. F is responsible for entry into the cell.
E. All

D. F is responsible for entry into the cell.

Rinderpest virus is a negative-sense RNA virus that belongs to the family

Paramyxoviridae. The virus has two surface glycoproteins, hemagglutinin (H) and
fusion (F), which are responsible for attachment and entry into the host cell,
respectively. Option A is incorrect because H is responsible for attachment, not F.
Option B is incorrect because specific cytopathic effects develop within 24 to 48
hours after infection, not three days. Option C is incorrect because Rinderpest virus is
a pleomorphic virus, meaning it has variable shapes and sizes. Option E is incorrect
because only option D is true about Rinderpest virus.

. Which one the following is not appropriate samples to detect Rinderpest virus and
PPR virus from live animals?
*
1 point
A. Blood in EDTA or heparin
B. lacrimal fluid
C. Urine
D. Necrotic tissue from the oral cavity

D. Necrotic tissue from the oral cavity is not an appropriate sample to detect
Rinderpest virus and PPR virus from live animals.

Blood in EDTA or heparin, lacrimal fluid, and urine are appropriate samples to detect
Rinderpest virus and Peste des petits ruminants (PPR) virus from live animals. Blood
in EDTA or heparin is commonly used for serological tests, virus isolation, and
nucleic acid detection. Lacrimal fluid and urine samples are suitable for virus isolation
and nucleic acid detection. In contrast, necrotic tissue from the oral cavity is not an
appropriate sample for live animals because it indicates advanced disease stages and
virus may not be present in sufficient quantity to detect.

. Which of the following diagnostic tool is prescribed test for international trade of
PPR disease?
*
1 point
A. Sandwich ELISA
B. PCR
C. Competitive ELISA
D. Virus neutralization test
E. Agar gel immunodiffusion

D. Virus neutralization test is the prescribed test for international trade of Peste des
petits ruminants (PPR) disease.

The World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) prescribes the virus neutralization
(VN) test as the standard test for international trade of PPR disease. This test
measures the neutralizing antibodies in serum samples and provides quantitative
results. Options A, B, and C are also used for PPR diagnosis, but they are not
prescribed tests for international trade. Option E (Agar gel immunodiffusion) is used
for PPR diagnosis, but it is a qualitative test and not a prescribed test for international
trade.

. Which is not about African horse sickness virus

*
1 point
A. The virus can survive at room temperature (37°C for 37 days) for nearly a month.
B. The viruses are stable at basic pH range of 6.3-12.0.
C. The genome is replicated in the nuclease in a conservative fashion.
D. There are 9 serotypes of AHSV and all these serotypes are immunologically
distinct.
E. The virus can also be cultivated in chicken embryo fibroblast, but no CPE are
produced.

C. The genome is replicated in the nuclease in a conservative fashion is not about

African horse sickness virus.

African horse sickness virus (AHSV) is an Orbivirus that belongs to the family
Reoviridae. Option A is correct; the virus can survive at room temperature for a
prolonged period. Option B is also correct; AHSV is stable at a basic pH range.
Option D is correct; there are nine serotypes of AHSV, and all are immunologically
distinct. Option E is also correct; AHSV can be cultivated in chicken embryo
fibroblasts, but it does not produce cytopathic effects (CPEs). Option C is incorrect;
AHSV replicates its genome in the nucleus, but it is not in a conservative fashion.

Which is not morphological Characteristics of Influenza virus?

*
1 point
A. Highly pleiomorphic (variable),
B. The outer surface of the particle consists of a lipid envelope
C. The genome is of s/s (-)sense RNA linear non segmented
D. Glycoprotein spikes of two types Haemagglutinin (HA) and Neuraminidase (NA).
E. The inner side of the envelope is lined by the matrix protein.

C. The genome is of s/s (-)sense RNA linear non-segmented is not a morphological

characteristic of Influenza virus.

Influenza virus is a pleomorphic virus that is variable in shape and size. Option A is
correct. The outer surface of the influenza virus particle consists of a lipid envelope,
which is studded with two types of glycoprotein spikes, hemagglutinin (HA) and
neuraminidase (NA). Option B is correct. Option C is incorrect because the genome of
influenza virus is segmented, not non-segmented, and it is composed of eight
segments of single-stranded (-)sense RNA. Option D is correct. The inner side of the
envelope is lined by the matrix protein, which stabilizes the structure of the virus
particle. Option E is correct.

Which is not true about rabies virus?

*
1 point
A. attaches to a cell by interaction G protein
B. The virions are present in the cytoplasm as large endosomes (cytoplasmic vesicles).
C. Messenger RNAs must be transcribed by polymerase (L) present in the core.
D. Rabies virus induce minimal CPE,
E. Presence of rabies virus in tissue culture system is confirmed by antibody test

B. The virions are present in the cytoplasm as large endosomes (cytoplasmic vesicles)
is not true about rabies virus.

Rabies virus is a negative-sense, single-stranded RNA virus belonging to the family

Rhabdoviridae. Option A is correct; the virus attaches to a cell by interacting with the
G protein present on the surface of the host cell. Option B is incorrect; the virions are
present in the cytoplasm but are not enclosed in large endosomes. Option C is correct;
messenger RNAs must be transcribed by the viral polymerase (L) present in the core.
Option D is correct; rabies virus induces minimal cytopathic effects (CPE) in cell
culture. Option E is correct; the presence of rabies virus in tissue culture can be
confirmed by an antibody test such as the fluorescent antibody test (FAT).

A positive result in a serological test(antibody test) indicates what?

*
1 point
A. The patient has recently been exposed to a virus
B. The patient is currently infected with the virus
C. The patient has never been exposed to the virus
D. The patient was previously infected with the virus

D. The patient was previously infected with the virus.

A positive result in a serological test (antibody test) indicates that the patient was
previously infected with the virus and has developed an immune response (antibodies)
against it. Serological tests detect the presence of antibodies in a patient's blood or
other body fluids, indicating exposure to a particular virus or other infectious agent. A
positive result does not necessarily mean that the patient is currently infected with the
virus, as antibodies may persist in the body for some time after the infection has
resolved.

Which of the following describes correct viral cytopathic effect?

*
1 point
A. Cytocidal: Viruses cause lysis of host cells
B. Noncytocidal: Viruses alter cell metabolism and kill the cell
C. Cytocidal: Viruses alter cell metabolism but don't kill the cell
D. Noncytocidal: Viruses cause lysis of host cells

A. Cytocidal: Viruses cause lysis of host cells is the correct description of viral
cytopathic effect.

Viral cytopathic effect (CPE) is the morphological changes that occur in infected cells
as a result of viral replication. Option A is correct; cytocidal CPE refers to the
destruction of host cells by viruses through lysis or cell death. Option B is incorrect;
non-cytocidal CPE refers to the morphological changes in cells without causing cell
death. Option C is also incorrect; viruses that alter cell metabolism without killing the
cell usually do not cause CPE. Option D is incorrect; non-cytocidal CPE does not
involve lysis of host cells.

D. A virus getting transmitted from one individual to another What is cytocidal viral
cytopathic effect?
*
1 point
A. Viruses cause lysis of host cells
B. Viruses alter cell metabolism but don't kill the cell
C. The spread of disease caused by virions in the body

A. Viruses cause lysis of host cells.

Cytocidal viral cytopathic effect (CPE) refers to the destruction of host cells by
viruses through lysis or cell death. When a virus infects a host cell, it replicates and
produces new virions, which are then released from the cell by lysis or budding. The
release of new virions can cause damage to the host cell, leading to cytopathic effects
such as cell rounding, membrane blebbing, and eventually cell death. These changes
can be seen under a microscope and are indicative of viral infection. Option B is
incorrect; viruses that alter cell metabolism without killing the cell usually do not
cause CPE. Option C is incorrect; the spread of disease caused by virions in the body
is not the definition of cytocidal viral CPE.

What is cytocidal viral cytopathic effect?

1 point
A. Viruses cause lysis of host cells
B. Viruses alter cell metabolism but don't kill the cell
C. The spread of disease caused by virions in the body
D. A virus getting transmitted from one individual to another

A. Viruses cause lysis of host cells.

Cytocidal viral cytopathic effect (CPE) refers to the destruction of host cells by
viruses through lysis or cell death. When a virus infects a host cell, it replicates and
produces new virions, which are then released from the cell by lysis or budding. The
release of new virions can cause damage to the host cell, leading to cytopathic effects
such as cell rounding, membrane blebbing, and eventually cell death. These changes
can be seen under a microscope and are indicative of viral infection. Option B is
incorrect; viruses that alter cell metabolism without killing the cell usually do not
cause CPE. Option C is incorrect; the spread of disease caused by virions in the body
is not the definition of cytocidal viral CPE. Option D is unrelated to the definition of
cytocidal viral CPE.

. Which one of the following virus is responsible to cause major disease of each
domestic animal species, except sheep, including such important diseases as infectious
bovine rhinotracheitis, pseudo rabies, and Marek’s disease?
*
1 point
A. Parvovirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Herpes viruses
D. Togavirus

C. Herpes viruses.

Herpes viruses are responsible for causing major diseases of each domestic animal
species, except sheep, including infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR) in cattle,
pseudorabies in swine, and Marek's disease in chickens. These viruses belong to the
family Herpesviridae, which is a large family of enveloped, double-stranded DNA
viruses. Option A (Parvovirus) and Option D (Togavirus) are incorrect; these viruses
are not responsible for causing major diseases of each domestic animal species.
Option B (Adenovirus) is also incorrect; although adenoviruses can cause diseases in
domestic animals, they do not cause major diseases in each species except for sheep.

Which birds are most commonly affected by Newcastle disease?

*
1 point
A. Chicken
B. Ducks
C. Pigeons
D. All of the above

A. Chicken.

Newcastle disease is a viral disease that affects a wide range of domestic and wild
bird species. However, chickens are the most commonly affected species. Other
domesticated birds, such as turkeys and ducks, can also be affected by the virus, but
they are less susceptible than chickens. Pigeons and doves are also known to be
susceptible to Newcastle disease virus, but they are more resistant than chickens. So,
option A (chicken) is the most accurate answer. Option B (ducks) and Option C
(pigeons) are partially correct but not the most commonly affected species. Option D
(All of the above) is incorrect because not all bird species are equally susceptible to
Newcastle disease.

Type of virus-cell interaction in which virus replicate and viral progeny produce and
they are fully infective is
1 point
A. Abortive infection
B. Productive infection
C. Nonproductive infection
D. Cytolytic Infection

B. Productive infection.

Productive infection is a type of virus-cell interaction in which the virus enters the
host cell, replicates, and produces fully infective viral progeny. In this type of
infection, the virus uses the host cell's machinery to produce new virions, which are
then released to infect other cells. Productive infections can be either lytic or non-
lytic, depending on whether or not the host cell is destroyed during the release of the
virions. Options A (Abortive infection) and C (Nonproductive infection) describe
virus-cell interactions in which the virus is unable to complete its replication cycle
and produce fully infectious virions. Option D (Cytolytic infection) describes a type
of productive infection in which the host cell is destroyed during the release of the
virions.

All are types of primary tissue culture, but not one:

*
1 point
A. Continuous cell line
B. Organ culture
C. Suspension culture
D. Monolayer

A. Continuous cell line.

Continuous cell lines are not a type of primary tissue culture. They are derived from
primary tissue cultures but can be maintained indefinitely through numerous passages
in culture. Primary tissue cultures are cultures of cells that are derived directly from
an organism's tissues and can be maintained in vitro for a limited period. Options B
(Organ culture), C (Suspension culture), and D (Monolayer) are all types of primary
tissue culture.

Which of the following viruses belongs to the Rhabdovirus family?

*
1 point
A. Yellow fever virus
B. Coronavirus
C. Rabies virus
D. Hepatitis C virus

C. Rabies virus.

Rabies virus belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family. Rhabdoviridae is a family of

negative-sense, single-stranded RNA viruses that includes several important human
and animal pathogens such as rabies virus and vesicular stomatitis virus. Option A
(Yellow fever virus) belongs to the Flaviviridae family. Option B (Coronavirus)
belongs to the Coronaviridae family. Option D (Hepatitis C virus) belongs to the
Flaviviridae family.

Which of the following is not a characteristic shared by most Rhabdoviruses?

1 point
A. Enveloped structure
B. Rod shaped virions
C. Highly pathogenic nature
D. Single-stranded genome with poly A tail

C. Highly pathogenic nature.

Although some rhabdoviruses are highly pathogenic, the level of pathogenicity varies
among different viruses in the family. Therefore, highly pathogenic nature is not a
characteristic shared by most rhabdoviruses. Rhabdoviruses are characterized by their
enveloped structure, rod-shaped virions, and a single-stranded RNA genome with a 3'
poly(A) tail. Some of the important members of the rhabdovirus family are rabies
virus, vesicular stomatitis virus, and Chandipura virus.

Most Rhabdoviruses are spread through:

*
1 point
A. Contaminated food and water supplies
B. Sexual contact
C. Inhaling airborne particles
D. Biting from an infected animal

D. Biting from an infected animal.

Most rhabdoviruses, including rabies virus and vesicular stomatitis virus, are spread
through biting from an infected animal, such as a dog, bat, or rodent. The virus is
present in the saliva of the infected animal and can enter the body through a bite or
scratch. Other modes of transmission, such as contaminated food and water supplies,
sexual contact, or inhaling airborne particles, are not typically associated with
rhabdovirus infections.

What shape are virions of rhabdoviruses?

*
1 point
A. Spherical
B. Ovoid
C. Pleomorphic
D. Rod shaped

D. Rod shaped.

The virions of rhabdoviruses are characterized by their rod-shaped morphology.

Rhabdoviruses are enveloped viruses with a single-stranded RNA genome. The
virions are approximately 75-180 nm long and 45-100 nm in diameter, with a bullet-
shaped or rod-shaped appearance. This morphology can be seen under an electron
microscope. Option A (Spherical) and Option B (Ovoid) are incorrect; these shapes do
not describe the morphology of rhabdoviruses. Option C (Pleomorphic) is also
incorrect; although some viruses can display pleomorphic shapes, rhabdoviruses are
consistently rod-shaped.

What is the most common cause of Foot and Mouth Disease?

*
1 point
A. Parasitic infection
B. Bacterial infection
C. Viral infection
D. Fungal infection

C. Viral infection.

Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) is most commonly caused by a viral infection. The
virus responsible for FMD belongs to the family Picornaviridae, and there are seven
different serotypes of the virus. FMD affects cloven-hoofed animals such as cattle,
pigs, sheep, and goats. The virus is highly contagious and can be spread through direct
contact with infected animals, contaminated equipment, or even through the air.
Options A (Parasitic infection), B (Bacterial infection), and D (Fungal infection) are
incorrect; these types of infections are not associated with FMD.

What are the clinical signs associated with Foot and Mouth Disease?
1 point
A. Weight loss, decreased appetite, labored breathing
B. Fever, mouth sores, lameness
C. Swelling and lesions on feet, vomiting
D. All of the above

B. Fever, mouth sores, lameness.

The clinical signs associated with Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) in animals are
fever, mouth sores, and lameness. The mouth sores can be painful and cause drooling,
and the lameness can be severe enough to cause reluctance to move. Weight loss,
decreased appetite, labored breathing, swelling and lesions on feet, and vomiting are
not typically associated with FMD. However, other diseases may cause similar
clinical signs, so laboratory testing is necessary to confirm a diagnosis of FMD.
Option D (All of the above) is incorrect because weight loss, decreased appetite,
labored breathing, swelling and lesions on feet, and vomiting are not typically
associated with FMD.

Which of the following practice prevent spread of Foot and Mouth Disease?
1 point
A. Vaccinations
B. Improved hygienic practices
C. Quarantine infected animals
D. All of the above

D. All of the above.

All of the options listed can help prevent the spread of Foot and Mouth Disease
(FMD). Vaccinations can be used to protect animals against FMD, although the
vaccine may not provide complete protection against all serotypes of the virus.
Improved hygienic practices, such as disinfecting equipment and limiting contact
between animals from different farms, can also help prevent the spread of FMD.
Quarantine of infected animals and culling of infected herds is also an important
control measure to prevent the spread of FMD. Therefore, Option D (All of the above)
is the most accurate answer.

. What type of Nucleic acid the Foot and Mouth Disease Virus contain?
*
1 point
A. Both DNA and RNA
B. RNA
C. DNA
D. DNA or RNA

B. RNA.

The Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) virus contains a single-stranded RNA genome.
The RNA genome of FMDV is positive-sense, meaning that it can be directly
translated into proteins by host cell machinery. The genome of FMDV is
approximately 8.5 kilobases in length and contains a single open reading frame that
encodes a polyprotein. The RNA genome is enclosed within a protein shell called a
capsid, which is composed of 60 copies of each of four structural proteins. Therefore,
Option B (RNA) is the correct answer.

Tell me more.
Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) is caused by a highly contagious virus that primarily
affects cloven-hoofed animals such as cattle, pigs, sheep, and goats. The virus
responsible for FMD is a single-stranded RNA virus that belongs to the family
Picornaviridae.

The RNA genome of FMDV is positive-sense, meaning that it can be directly

translated into proteins by host cell machinery. The genome of FMDV is
approximately 8.5 kilobases in length and contains a single open reading frame that
encodes a polyprotein. The polyprotein is then cleaved by viral and host proteases into
individual structural and non-structural proteins.

The structural proteins of FMDV are responsible for forming the capsid, which
encloses the RNA genome. The capsid is composed of 60 copies of each of four
structural proteins: VP1, VP2, VP3, and VP4. The non-structural proteins of FMDV
are involved in viral replication and evasion of the host immune response.

Although FMDV is primarily transmitted through direct contact with infected animals
or contaminated materials, it can also be spread through the air over short distances.
Vaccines are available for FMDV, but they must be carefully matched to the specific
serotype of the virus to be effective. Control measures for FMDV typically involve
quarantine of infected animals, culling of infected herds, and improved biosecurity
practices to prevent the spread of the virus.

What one of the following can be susceptible to PPR Virus?

*
1 point
A. Pigs
B. cattle
C. Sheep
D. All of the above

C. Sheep.

PPR virus (Peste des petits ruminants virus) primarily infects sheep and goats, making
option C the correct answer. PPRV belongs to the family Paramyxoviridae and is
closely related to rinderpest virus, which primarily infects cattle and other ruminants.
However, PPRV is not typically known to infect pigs, and pigs are not considered a
susceptible host for this virus. Therefore, option A (pigs) and option B (cattle) are
incorrect.

How do Foot and Mouth Disease spread?

*
1 point
A. Airborne particles
B. Artificial insemination
C. Contact with infected animals or animal products
D. All of the above

C. Contact with infected animals or animal products.

Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) primarily spreads through direct contact with infected
animals or animal products. The virus can be present in saliva, nasal secretions, urine,
feces, milk, and even in the air expelled by infected animals. Therefore, contact with
contaminated equipment, vehicles, feed, bedding, or clothing can also contribute to
the spread of FMD.

Airborne transmission of FMD can occur over short distances, particularly in humid
or wet conditions that promote the formation of droplets containing the virus.
However, airborne transmission is not considered a primary mode of transmission for
FMD. Artificial insemination is also not a common mode of transmission for FMD.

Therefore, option C (Contact with infected animals or animal products) is the most
accurate answer.

How do Foot and Mouth Disease spread?

*
1 point
A. Airborne particles
B. Artificial insemination
C. Contact with infected animals or animal products
D. All of the above

C. Contact with infected animals or animal products.

Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD) primarily spreads through direct contact with infected
animals or animal products. The virus can be present in saliva, nasal secretions, urine,
feces, milk, and even in the air expelled by infected animals. Therefore, contact with
contaminated equipment, vehicles, feed, bedding, or clothing can also contribute to
the spread of FMD.

Airborne transmission of FMD can occur over short distances, particularly in humid
or wet conditions that promote the formation of droplets containing the virus.
However, airborne transmission is not considered a primary mode of transmission for
FMD. Artificial insemination is also not a common mode of transmission for FMD.

Therefore, option C (Contact with infected animals or animal products) is the most
accurate answer.

Which is not true about Coronaviruses?

1 point
A. are enveloped viruses with a helical nucleocapsid that contains single-stranded
RNA with positive (messenger) polarity.
B. The capsid consists of a densely-packed icosahedral arrangement of 60 protomers,
each consisting of 4 polypeptides, VP1, VP2, VP3 and VP4.
C. have distinctive club-shaped surface projections that give the appearance of a solar
corona to the virion.
D. replicate in the cytoplasm and bind to cytoplasmic vesicles; no viral antigens
appear on the surface of the infected cell.

D. Replicate in the cytoplasm and bind to cytoplasmic vesicles; no viral antigens

appear on the surface of the infected cell.

The statement in option D is not true about coronaviruses. Coronaviruses replicate in

the cytoplasm, but they do not bind cytoplasmic vesicles. Instead, they form
characteristic double-membrane vesicles derived from the endoplasmic reticulum.
Also, viral antigens do appear on the surface of infected cells, allowing for detection
by the host immune system.

Options A, B, and C are true statements about coronaviruses. Coronaviruses are

enveloped viruses with a helical nucleocapsid that contains single-stranded RNA with
positive (messenger) polarity. The capsid consists of a densely-packed icosahedral
arrangement of 60 protomers, each consisting of 4 polypeptides, VP1, VP2, VP3, and
VP4. They have distinctive club-shaped surface projections that give the appearance
of a solar corona to the virion.

30 Which one of the following is no true about Safe Working Environment Level 4
Laboratories?
*
1 point
A. Use only level I and level II Biological safety cabinet
B. Very severely restricted in most of the countries by government decree
C. Airtight and access through airlocks
D. Ensure that nothing passes outside the room without being sterilized
A. Use only Level I and Level II Biological safety cabinet.

The statement in option A is not true about Safe Working Environment Level 4
Laboratories. Level IV laboratories are designed for the safe handling of highly
pathogenic organisms and are equipped with the highest level of biocontainment
measures. Biological safety cabinets of Level I and II are not appropriate for working
with organisms that require Level IV containment. Instead, Level IV laboratories use
special Class III biological safety cabinets or other specialized equipment such as
positive pressure suits to protect workers from the highly infectious agents.

Options B, C, and D are true statements about Level IV laboratories. These labs are
very severely restricted in most countries by government decree, and they are
designed to be airtight with access through airlocks. They also ensure that nothing
passes outside the room without being sterilized to prevent the release of potentially
dangerous pathogens into the environment.

Share

How do Class III biological safety cabinets differ from Level I and II cabinets?

Class III biological safety cabinets are designed for use in the highest level of
biocontainment, whereas Level I and II cabinets are used for lower levels of
biocontainment. The primary difference between Class III and Level I/II cabinets is
the level of protection they provide to the user and the environment.

Class III cabinets are completely enclosed and gas-tight, with a glove system attached
to allow the user to manipulate materials inside the cabinet. The cabinet provides a
negative-pressure environment to prevent the escape of infectious agents, and all
exhaust air is filtered through high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters before
being released into the environment. The user wears a positive-pressure suit to prevent
any exposure to the infectious agents being handled.

On the other hand, Level I and II cabinets use a flow of HEPA-filtered air to create a
partial barrier between the user and the materials being handled. Level I cabinets
provide protection for the user and the environment, while Level II cabinets provide
additional protection with a recirculating HEPA-filtered air system and an exhaust
HEPA filter to prevent the escape of infectious agents.

In summary, Class III biological safety cabinets are designed to provide the highest
level of protection for the user and the environment when working with highly
infectious agents, while Level I and II cabinets are used for lower levels of
biocontainment.

Where a primary replication of African swine fever virus is occurs?

*
1 point
A. Monocytes
B. Cytoplasm
C. Nuclease
D. Macrophages
32. Which is true about dengu virus

D. Macrophages.

The primary replication of the African swine fever virus occurs in macrophages. After
the virus enters the host's body through a bite from an infected tick or direct contact
with infected pigs or pig products, it targets macrophages and monocytes, which are
types of white blood cells. The virus replicates in these cells and then spreads to other
tissues and organs, causing widespread damage and eventually death.

As for the next question:

Which is true about Dengue virus?

Dengue virus is a mosquito-borne virus that belongs to the family Flaviviridae. Here
are some true statements about Dengue virus:

Dengue virus is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Aedes
mosquitoes, which are typically active during the daytime.
Dengue fever is the most common clinical manifestation of Dengue virus infection,
and symptoms can include fever, headache, muscle and joint pain, fatigue, nausea,
vomiting, and rash.
Dengue virus can cause severe dengue, also known as Dengue hemorrhagic fever,
which can be life-threatening. Severe dengue is more likely to occur in people who
have been infected with multiple serotypes of the virus.
There is no specific treatment for Dengue virus infection, but supportive therapy can
help manage symptoms and prevent complications. Prevention measures include
controlling mosquito populations and using personal protective measures such as
insect repellent and protective clothing.
Which is true about dengu virus?
1 point
A. Dengue fever can be caused by 4 different serotypes of the dengue virus
B. The virus can cause inflammation of central nervous system and heart muscles with
rashes over the body
C. cause respiratory tract infections
D. It is a highly contagious virus of mice and mortality may approach to 100% in
virulent outbreak cases.

A. Dengue fever can be caused by 4 different serotypes of the dengue virus.

Dengue virus is a mosquito-borne virus that can cause a range of clinical

manifestations, including Dengue fever, Dengue hemorrhagic fever, and Dengue
shock syndrome. Here are some true statements about Dengue virus:

Dengue fever can be caused by any of the four serotypes of the Dengue virus (DEN-1,
DEN-2, DEN-3, DEN-4), which are closely related but distinct viruses. Infection with
one serotype of the virus does not provide immunity to the other serotypes, and
subsequent infections with different serotypes can increase the risk of severe Dengue.
The virus can cause symptoms such as fever, headache, muscle and joint pain, nausea,
vomiting, and rash. Severe Dengue can lead to plasma leakage, severe bleeding, organ
failure, and even death.
While Dengue virus can cause inflammation of various organs, including the central
nervous system and heart muscles, respiratory tract infections are not typically
associated with Dengue virus infection.
Dengue virus is not a highly contagious virus of mice. While some strains of the virus
can infect mice, the primary host and reservoir for the virus are Aedes mosquitoes,
which transmit the virus to humans.
Therefore, option A (Dengue fever can be caused by 4 different serotypes of the
Dengue virus) is the correct answer.

Which one of the following Laboratory waste container colour- wrongly coded?
1 point
A. Red - For incineration
B. Light blue - For autoclaving
C. Black - Normal household waste: local authority refuse collection
D. White or clear plastic- soiled linen

C. Black - Normal household waste: local authority refuse collection.

The laboratory waste container color in option C is wrongly coded. Black is not the
correct color for normal household waste or local authority refuse collection. Instead,
black is typically used for non-infectious waste that requires special handling, such as
sharps containers or broken glass. Normal household waste is typically collected in a
general waste bin or bag, which is often color-coded as green or gray.

Here are the correct color codes for the other options:

A. Red - For incineration of hazardous waste

B. Light blue - For autoclaving or chemical treatment of non-hazardous waste
D. White or clear plastic - For soiled linen or other laundry that requires washing and
disinfection.

Therefore, the correct answer is option C.

Which one of the following statement is true?

1 point
A. A virion contains DNA and RNA.
B. Viruses are acellular.
C. Viruses replicate outside of the cell.
D. Most viruses are easily visualized with a light microscope.

B. Viruses are acellular.

The statement in option B is true. Viruses are acellular, meaning that they are not
composed of cells like bacteria, fungi, or plants. Instead, viruses are tiny infectious
agents that consist of genetic material (either DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein
coat called a capsid. Some viruses also have an outer envelope made of lipids.

Here are some additional statements about viruses and virions:

A virion is a complete infectious virus particle that contains genetic material (either
DNA or RNA) and a protein coat (capsid) that protects the genetic material. Some
viruses also have an outer lipid envelope.
Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, meaning that they can only replicate inside
a host cell. They do not have the machinery to carry out metabolic processes or
reproduce on their own.
Viruses can infect a wide range of organisms, including animals, plants, bacteria, and
even other viruses.
Because of their small size and lack of cellular structure, most viruses cannot be
visualized with a light microscope. Instead, electron microscopy or other specialized
techniques are needed to visualize viruses and virions.
for Isolation of Virus?
*
1 point
A. Urine specimens should have the pH adjusted toward neutrality before inoculation.
B. Respiratory or genital specimens are treated with antibiotics before inoculation to
prevent bacterial or fungal overgrowth.
C. After inoculation, cultures are incubated at 35 °C to 37 °C and inspected
periodically.
D. sterile body fluids cannot be inoculated directly onto cell cultures with out
decontamination

D. Sterile body fluids cannot be inoculated directly onto cell cultures without
decontamination.

The statement in option D is true. Sterile body fluids, such as cerebrospinal fluid or
blood, cannot be inoculated directly onto cell cultures without decontamination, as
they may contain substances that are toxic to the cells or that interfere with viral
growth. The fluids must be processed first to remove potential inhibitors or
contaminants, such as red blood cells or clotting factors.

Here are some additional statements about the isolation of viruses:

Urine specimens may require adjustment of the pH before inoculation to maintain

viral viability.
Respiratory or genital specimens may be treated with antibiotics or antifungal agents
to prevent bacterial or fungal overgrowth, which can interfere with virus isolation.
After inoculation, cultures are typically incubated at the optimal temperature for the
virus being isolated, which can range from 33 °C to 37 °C depending on the virus.
Cultures are inspected periodically for signs of viral growth, such as cytopathic effects
or the presence of viral antigens.
Cell cultures are the most common method for virus isolation, but other methods such
as embryonated eggs or animal inoculation may also be used depending on the virus.
Which statement is not true of viral replication?
1 point
A. A lysogenic infection kills the host cell.
B. There are six basic steps in the viral replication cycle.
C. Viral replication does affect host cell function.
D. Newly released virions can infect adjacent cells.

A. A lysogenic infection kills the host cell.

The statement in option A is not true of viral replication. In a lysogenic infection, the
viral genome integrates into the host cell's DNA and can remain dormant for a period
of time. During this time, the host cell is not necessarily killed, and may even continue
to divide and replicate normally. However, in some cases the viral genome can
become activated and enter the lytic cycle, which does result in the death of the host
cell.

Here are some additional statements about viral replication:

There are six basic steps in the viral replication cycle: attachment, penetration,
uncoating, replication, assembly, and release. These steps may vary somewhat
depending on the type of virus.
Viral replication can affect host cell function in a variety of ways, depending on the
virus and the type of cell infected. Some viruses may cause cell death or disrupt
cellular processes, while others may have more subtle effects on cell function.
Newly released virions can infect adjacent cells, leading to the spread of infection
within the host organism or to other individuals. This can occur through direct cell-to-
cell contact, or through the release of virions into the extracellular space where they
can infect nearby cells.
37 Which one of the following is not true about Serum neutralization test?
*
1 point
A. This test is less specific and sensitive for viruses which produce cytopathic effects
(CPE).
B. It is considered to be the definitive standard against which other serological tests
are compared.
C. Neutralizing antibodies usually correlate closely with immune protection.
D. The presence of neutralizing antihodies in the serum prevents infection of the cells
and CPE.

A. This test is less specific and sensitive for viruses which produce cytopathic effects
(CPE).

The statement in option A is not true about the serum neutralization test. In fact, the
serum neutralization test is often used specifically for viruses that produce cytopathic
effects (CPE), as it can detect the presence of neutralizing antibodies that prevent CPE
from occurring in cell cultures.

Here are some additional statements about the serum neutralization test:

The serum neutralization test is a serological assay that measures the ability of
antibodies in a patient's serum to neutralize a specific virus. It is based on the principle
that neutralizing antibodies can prevent viral infection of cells in culture.
The serum neutralization test is considered to be the gold standard for measuring
neutralizing antibody titers, and is often used to evaluate the immune response to
vaccines or to diagnose viral infections.
Neutralizing antibodies are thought to be an important correlate of protective
immunity for many viral infections, although the exact levels required for protection
may vary depending on the virus and the individual.
In the serum neutralization test, the presence of neutralizing antibodies in the serum
prevents viral infection of cells and the development of cytopathic effects (CPE),
which can be observed microscopically.
Which of the following is not associated with prions?
1 point
A. Replicating shapes
B. Mad cow disease
C. DNA
D. Infectious proteins

C. DNA.

The item in option C is not associated with prions. Prions are infectious agents that are
composed entirely of protein, and do not contain DNA or RNA. They are unique in
that they do not have a nucleic acid genome like viruses, bacteria, fungi, and other
organisms. Instead, prions are thought to replicate by inducing normal cellular
proteins to adopt the misfolded conformation of the infectious form.

Here are some additional statements about prions:

Prions are associated with a number of neurodegenerative diseases in humans and

animals, including Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), kuru, scrapie, and bovine
spongiform encephalopathy (BSE or "mad cow disease").
Prions are able to convert normal cellular proteins into the misfolded, infectious
conformation by a process called templating. The misfolded prion protein acts as a
template to induce other proteins to adopt the same conformation, leading to the
accumulation of the abnormal protein and the destruction of brain tissue.
Prions are highly resistant to inactivation by physical or chemical means, and can
remain infectious even after exposure to heat, radiation, or disinfectants.
Prion diseases can be transmitted through ingestion of contaminated meat, blood
transfusions, or surgical procedures that involve contaminated tissues. There is
currently no effective treatment or cure for prion diseases.
Which one of the following not describe the virus ?
1 point
A. Possess either DNA or RNA
B. Do possess active protein synthesizing apparatus
C. Do not have a nucleus, cytoplasm, mitochondria or ribosomes
D. No metabolic activity outside host: obligate intracellular parasites

B. Do possess active protein synthesizing apparatus.

The statement in option B does not describe the virus. Unlike cells, viruses do not
possess their own active protein synthesizing apparatus. Instead, they rely on the host
cell's machinery to replicate and produce viral proteins.

Here are some additional statements about viruses:

Viruses are infectious agents that are much smaller and simpler in structure than cells.
They consist of a nucleic acid genome (either DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protein
coat called a capsid, which may be surrounded by an envelope made of lipids.
Viruses do not have a nucleus, cytoplasm, mitochondria, or ribosomes. They are not
capable of carrying out metabolic functions or reproducing on their own.
Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, meaning that they must infect a host cell in
order to replicate and produce new virions. They do not have the machinery to carry
out metabolic processes or reproduce outside of a host cell.
Viruses can infect a wide range of organisms, including animals, plants, bacteria, and
even other viruses. They are responsible for a variety of diseases, from the common
cold to HIV/AIDS to COVID-19.
Which one of following family comprises African horse sickness Virus?
1 point
A. Orthomyxoviridae
B. Reoviridae
C. Retroviridae
D. Birnaviradae

B. Reoviridae

African horse sickness virus belongs to the family Reoviridae. The Reoviridae family
is a diverse group of viruses that are characterized by their double-stranded RNA
genome and their lack of an envelope. In addition to African horse sickness virus, the
family includes several other important human and animal pathogens, such as
rotaviruses, bluetongue virus, and Colorado tick fever virus.

Which of the following is not about FMD virus?

1 point
A. Couse rarely fatal in adult animals
B. The virus affects cattle, swine, sheep, goats and other cloven-hoofed ruminants.
C. Known by fever and blister-like sores on the tongue and lips & others parts.
D. Contain seven strains (A, O, SAT1, SAT2, SAT3, Asia1 and Asia 2)

A. Cause rarely fatal in adult animals.

The statement in option A is not correct regarding FMD virus. FMD virus can cause
significant morbidity and mortality in adult animals, particularly in those that are not
vaccinated or have low immunity to the virus.

Here are some additional statements about FMD virus:

FMD virus is a highly contagious viral disease that affects cattle, swine, sheep, goats,
and other cloven-hoofed animals. It is caused by a picornavirus and is characterized
by fever and blister-like sores on the tongue, lips, and other parts of the body.
FMD virus is considered to be one of the most economically important livestock
diseases in the world, as it can result in significant losses in production and trade
restrictions.
There are seven distinct strains of FMD virus, known as serotypes, that can infect
livestock: A, O, C, Asia1, and South African Territories (SAT) 1, 2, and 3. Each
serotype can cause disease in multiple species of animals.
FMD virus is primarily spread through direct contact with infected animals, but can
also be transmitted through contaminated feed, water, or fomites (inanimate objects
that can carry the virus). Vaccination is an important tool for preventing the spread of
FMD virus.
Which one of the following host Blue Tongue Virus cause fatal disease?
1 point
A. Cattle
B. Sheep
C. Goat
D. Horse

B. Sheep.

Blue tongue virus can cause fatal disease in sheep, particularly in certain breeds or
under conditions of high viral exposure. Cattle and goats can also be infected with the
virus, but typically do not show clinical signs of disease. Horses can become infected
with blue tongue virus, but usually do not develop clinical disease.

Which one of the following Paramyxoviruses may not?

1 point
A. Replicate in the nuclease
B. Induce cell-cell fusion via F protein,
C. causing multinucleated giant Cell
D. Transmitted in respiratory droplets

A. Replicate in the nucleus.

The statement in option A is not true about paramyxoviruses. Paramyxoviruses

replicate in the host cell's cytoplasm, not in the nucleus. They are enveloped viruses
that contain a single-stranded RNA genome and are known for their ability to induce
cell-cell fusion, leading to the formation of multinucleated giant cells.

Here are some additional statements about paramyxoviruses:

Paramyxoviruses are a large family of viruses that includes many important human
and animal pathogens, such as measles virus, mumps virus, respiratory syncytial virus
(RSV), and Newcastle disease virus (NDV).
Paramyxoviruses have a characteristic surface glycoprotein called the F protein,
which is responsible for inducing cell-cell fusion and the formation of multinucleated
giant cells.
Paramyxoviruses are transmitted through respiratory droplets or direct contact with
infected secretions. Some species can also be transmitted through contaminated
surfaces or objects.
Paramyxoviruses can cause a range of diseases in humans and animals, from mild
respiratory infections to severe neurological or systemic disease. Vaccines are
available for some paramyxoviruses, such as measles and NDV.
The following is true of rabies virus
1 point
A. The majority of cases world-wide result from bat bites
B. Infection may be prevented by active and passive immunisation
C. Human Rabies vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine
D. The animal reservoir differs from country to country
E. May be diagnosed by serology

B. Infection may be prevented by active and passive immunisation.

The statement in option B is true of rabies virus. Infection with rabies virus can be
prevented by a combination of active immunization with a rabies vaccine and passive
immunization with rabies immunoglobulin (RIG) in individuals who have been
exposed to the virus.
Here are some additional statements about rabies virus:

Rabies virus is typically transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected animal,
such as a dog, bat, or raccoon. In some parts of the world, such as Asia and Africa,
dogs are the main reservoir of the virus and are responsible for the majority of cases in
humans.
Rabies virus infection is generally fatal once symptoms develop, but can be prevented
if post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is administered promptly after exposure. PEP
consists of a series of rabies vaccine doses and, in some cases, rabies immunoglobulin
(RIG).
The rabies vaccine used in humans is an inactivated vaccine that is safe and effective.
It is not a live attenuated vaccine.
Rabies virus can be diagnosed by a variety of laboratory tests, including direct
fluorescent antibody (DFA) testing of tissues or saliva, viral isolation in cell culture,
and PCR testing of saliva or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Serological tests are not
typically used for diagnosis, but can be used to confirm exposure in animals or
humans.
Ethiopia?
*
1 point
A. It is severe in cows at peak lactation and causes a sharp drop in milk yield.
B. Couse to secondary bacterial mastitis.
C. The Virus Able to infect Human
D. Couse Temporary or permanent infertility may occur in cows and bulls.

A. It is severe in cows at peak lactation and causes a sharp drop in milk yield.

The statement in option A is true about Ethiopia. Ethiopia is a disease of cattle caused
by the bacterium Mycoplasma bovis. It is characterized by fever, respiratory
symptoms, and a sharp drop in milk yield, particularly in cows at peak lactation. The
disease can also lead to chronic mastitis and arthritis in affected animals.

Here are some additional statements about Ethiopia:

Ethiopia is primarily a disease of cattle, but can also affect other ruminant species
such as sheep and goats.
Ethiopia is caused by Mycoplasma bovis, a bacterium that lacks a cell wall and is
difficult to culture and treat with antibiotics.
In addition to respiratory and milk production symptoms, Ethiopia can also cause
reproductive problems such as temporary or permanent infertility in cows and bulls.
Ethiopia is a significant economic and animal welfare issue in many parts of the
world, particularly in dairy-producing regions. Control measures include good
biosecurity practices, vaccination, and prompt treatment of affected animals.
Which one of the following genera contain causative agent of Rabies?
1 point
A. Vesiculo virus
B. Lyssa virus
C. Ephemerovirus
D. Novirhabdovirus genus

B. Lyssa virus.

The causative agent of rabies belongs to the genus Lyssavirus, which is a member of
the family Rhabdoviridae. The Lyssavirus genus includes several other viruses that
can cause rabies in animals, such as the Lagos bat virus and the Mokola virus.

Here are some additional statements about rabies and Lyssavirus:

Rabies is a viral disease that affects the nervous system of mammals, including
humans. It is typically transmitted through the bite of an infected animal, such as a
dog, bat, or raccoon.
The Lyssavirus genus includes several different viral species that can cause rabies in
different animal species. For example, the most common cause of rabies in dogs in the
United States is the canid rabies virus, which is a variant of the Lyssavirus genus.
Rabies is a serious and often fatal disease, but can be prevented if post-exposure
prophylaxis (PEP) is administered promptly after exposure. PEP typically consists of
a series of rabies vaccine doses and, in some cases, rabies immunoglobulin (RIG).
Vaccines are available to protect against rabies in both animals and humans.
Vaccination of domestic animals such as dogs is an important tool for preventing the
spread of rabies to humans.
Which one of the following is not characteristic of Retrovirus?
1 point
A. single-stranded RNA with
B. Icosahedral nucleocapsid
C. The envelope has glycoprotein surface spikes.
D. Their genome in virion is diploid

D. Their genome in virion is diploid.

The statement in option D is not characteristic of retroviruses. Retroviruses have a

diploid genome, but their genome is not present in virions as a diploid. Instead,
retroviruses package two copies of their single-stranded RNA genome into each
virion.

Here are some additional statements about retroviruses:

Retroviruses are a family of RNA viruses that can infect both animals and humans.
They are known for their ability to reverse transcribe their RNA genome into DNA,
which can then integrate into the host cell's genome.
Retroviruses have an icosahedral nucleocapsid that is surrounded by an envelope
made of lipids and glycoproteins. The envelope has glycoprotein surface spikes that
are important for binding to and entering host cells.
Retroviruses can cause a range of diseases in humans and animals, including cancer
(such as human T-cell leukemia virus) and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
(AIDS, caused by human immunodeficiency virus or HIV).
Retroviruses can be transmitted through a variety of routes, including sexual contact,
blood transfusions, and mother-to-child transmission. Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is
available to treat HIV and can significantly improve the health and lifespan of people
living with HIV.
Which one of the following is not describe morphological Characteristics of Influenza
virus?
1 point
A. Highly pleiomorphic (variable),
B. The outer surface of the particle consists of a lipid envelope
C. The genome is of s/s (-)sense RNA linear non segmented
D. Glycoprotein spikes of two types Haemagglutinin (HA) and Neuraminidase (NA).
E. The inner side of the envelope is lined by the matrix protein.

A. Highly pleiomorphic (variable).

The statement in option A is not a characteristic of influenza virus morphology.

Influenza virus particles have a fairly consistent size and shape, and are not highly
pleiomorphic.

Here are some additional statements about the morphology of influenza virus:

Influenza virus particles are roughly spherical or filamentous in shape and are
approximately 100 nanometers in diameter.
The outer surface of the virus particle is surrounded by a lipid envelope that is derived
from the host cell membrane. The envelope contains two types of glycoprotein spikes,
hemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA), that are important for viral attachment
and entry.
The genome of influenza virus is composed of eight segments of single-stranded
negative-sense RNA. The RNA is encapsidated by the viral nucleoprotein (NP) and
the three polymerase proteins.
The inner side of the envelope is lined by the matrix protein, which plays a role in
maintaining the shape of the virus particle and anchoring the viral envelope to the
viral core.
Influenza virus particles can be visualized by electron microscopy, and their
morphology can be further characterized by cryo-electron microscopy and other
imaging techniques.
Which one of the following virus Inclusion body situated in cytoplasm?
1 point
A. Pox virus
B. Herpes virus
C. Measles virus
D. Picorna virus

D. Picorna virus.

Inclusion bodies associated with Picornaviruses are situated in the cytoplasm of

infected cells. These inclusion bodies are often referred to as "viroplasms" and are
sites of viral RNA replication and assembly of new virus particles.

Here are some additional statements about inclusion bodies and the viruses that
produce them:

Inclusion bodies are abnormal structures that can be observed in infected cells and are
often used as diagnostic markers for viral infections.
Poxviruses are known for producing cytoplasmic inclusion bodies called "Guarnieri
bodies," which are large and eosinophilic (staining pink) under microscope.
Herpesviruses can produce a variety of inclusion bodies depending on the type of
virus and the infected cell type. For example, herpes simplex virus can produce
"Cowdry type A" inclusion bodies in the nuclei of infected cells.
Measles virus does not typically produce prominent inclusion bodies, but infected
cells may show syncytia formation (fusion of multiple cells into a multinucleated
cell).
Picornaviruses are a family of RNA viruses that includes many important pathogens
of humans and animals, such as poliovirus, hepatitis A virus, and rhinovirus.
Which one of the following is not true about Complement fixation test?
1 point
A. It is a classic method for demonstrating the presence of antibody in serum.
B. It contains as indicator sheep red cells, complement and detect antibody
C. Complement fixation Test is assumed positive when Red Blood cell lysis occurs.
D. Complement fixation Test is assumed negative lack hemolysis

C. Complement fixation Test is assumed positive when Red Blood cell lysis occurs.

The statement in option C is not true about complement fixation test. Complement
fixation test is considered positive when there is no Red Blood Cell (RBC) lysis. This
is because the presence of antibody in the test sample will cause the complement to
bind, resulting in no hemolysis of the indicator RBCs.

Here are some additional statements about complement fixation test:

Complement fixation test is a serological assay used to detect the presence of specific
antibodies in a patient's serum. It is based on the ability of antibodies to fix
complement, a group of serum proteins that play a critical role in the immune
response.
Complement fixation test involves incubating the patient's serum with a known
antigen and a source of complement, such as sheep or guinea pig serum. After
incubation, an indicator system consisting of sheep RBCs is added. If complement has
been fixed by the patient's antibodies, there will be no hemolysis of the RBCs,
indicating a positive result.
Complement fixation test is a sensitive and specific assay that can detect low levels of
antibody in patient samples. It has been used for the diagnosis of a variety of
infectious and autoimmune diseases, such as syphilis and systemic lupus
erythematosus.
Complement fixation test has largely been replaced by newer serological assays, such
as enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), which are faster, easier to perform,
and more quantitative. However, complement fixation test remains an important tool
in some specialized applications, such as the detection of complement-fixing
antibodies in blood transfusion recipients.
Tell me more about bluetongue virus.

Bluetongue virus (BTV) is an arbovirus that infects ruminants, including sheep, goats,
and cattle. It is transmitted by biting midges of the genus Culicoides, which are found
throughout much of the world. Here are some key facts about Bluetongue virus:

BTV was first identified in South Africa in the early 1900s, but has since spread to
many other regions of the world. It is particularly common in tropical and subtropical
regions, but can also be found in temperate regions.
BTV is a member of the family Reoviridae and has a segmented double-stranded
RNA genome. There are at least 27 different serotypes of BTV, which can cause a
range of clinical signs in infected animals.
Clinical signs of BTV infection can include fever, lethargy, lameness, and swelling of
the face, tongue, and lips. In severe cases, BTV can cause internal hemorrhage,
respiratory distress, and death.
BTV infection can result in significant economic losses due to reduced productivity,
trade restrictions, and the cost of disease control measures. BTV is a notifiable disease
in many countries and is subject to strict surveillance and control measures.
Control measures for BTV include vaccination of susceptible animals, vector control,
and movement restrictions. Vaccines are available for most serotypes of BTV, but
may not provide cross-protection against all strains. Vector control can be difficult
and may involve the use of insecticides, environmental modification, and other
measures to reduce midge populations.