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Power Systems
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Practice Questions
PSUs – Electrical Engineering
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Economics of Power Generation
Practice Questions
LEVEL-1 Questions 07. The annual cost characteristics of two plants
are given as
01. The incremental transmission loss of a plant C1 = Rs. 5/kW + paise 0.02/kWhr and
is C2 = Rs. 7/kW + paise 0.015/kWhr.
(a) Positive always Which plant can be selected for base load
(b) Negative always
operation?
(c) Can be Positive or Negative
(d) None (a) plant 1
(b) plant 2
02. In a power plant, a reserve generating (c) any of the two plants
capacity which is not in service but is in (d) none of these
operation is known as
(a) Hot Reserve 08. The choice of amount of generation and size
(b) Cold Reserve of units in a station is governed by best
(c) Firm power compromise between
(d) Spinning reserve (a) Plant load factor and plant capacity
factor
03. Area under the daily load curve divided by 24 (b) Plant capacity factor and plant use factor
gives (c) Plant load factor and plant use factor
(a) Average load (d) None of these.
(b) Maximum demand
(c) Units generated 09. More efficient plants are used as
(d) None (a) base load stations
(b) peak load stations
04. The maximum demand of a consumer is 2kW (c) both A and B are correct
and his daily energy consumption is 20 units. (d) None .
Find the load factor?
(a)10.15 (b) 41.6% 10. The value of demand factor is
(c) 50% (d) 60% (a) less than one
(b) greater than one
05. It is always economical to improve the p.f of (c) equal to one
an installation to (d) None of these.
(a) zero
(b) unity 11. The value of diversity factor is
(c) a little less than unity (a) less than one
(d) a little more than unity. (b) more than one
(c) equal to one
06. Power plant having maximum demand more
(d) None of these
than installed capacity will have utilization
factor
12. The overall cost/kWh generated is reduced if
(a) less than 100%
(b) equal to 100% (a) maximum demand is high
(c) more than 100% (b) load factor is high
(d) None of these. (c) load factor is low
(d) diversity factor is low
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Engineering Publications
2 Practice Questions
13. A power plant with a Load factor of 0.5 20. The annual peak load on a 30 MW power
produces energy 16,000 MWh with a M.D of station is 25 MW. The Power station supplies
8000 kW over a time period. For how many loads having maximum demands of
hours has the plant been in operation. 10MW,8.5 MW, 5 MW and 4.5 MW. The
(a) 8000 Hrs (b) 4000 Hrs. annual load factor is 45 %. Find the average
(c) 8760 Hrs. (d) 1000 Hrs. load?
(a) 10250 kW (b) 11250 kW
14. Generating station has a connected load of (c) 14250 kW (d) 16250 kW
40MW and a Maximum demand of 20 MW.
The demand factor is 21. In the above problem, Diversity factor is
(a) 0.7 (b) 0.6 (a) 3.80 (b) 1.02
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.4 (c) 1.12 (d) 1.22
22. If a plant has zero reserve capacity, the plant

15. A 100 MW plant has M.D. of 50 MW. Plant load factor always
reserve capacity is
(a) Zero (b) 100 MW (a) equals plant capacity factor
(c) 50 MW (d) None (b) is greater than plant capacity factor.
(c) is less than plant capacity factor
16. A 100MW power plant has load factor of 0.5 (d) None of these.
and utilization factor of 0.2. Its average
demand is 23. If some reserve capacity is available in a
(a) 10MW (b) 5 MW power plant,
(c) 7 MW (d) 6 MW (a) its load factor is always greater than its
capacity factor
17. If Capacity factor = Load factor then plant’s (b) its load factor equals the capacity factor
(a) Reserve capacity is maximum (c) its load factor is always less than its
(b) Reserve capacity is zero capacity factor
(c) Reserve capacity is less (d) none of these.
(d) None.
24. In an interconnected grid system, the
18. A power station has installed capacity diversity factor of the whole system.
300MW. Its capacity factor is 50% and its (a) Decreases
load factor is 75%. Its maximum demand is (b) increases
(a) 100MW (b) 150MW (c) remains same
(c) 200MW (d) 250MW (d) None of these.
19. In an interconnected system consisting of a 25. The highest point on a load curve represents
nuclear power stations, steam station and (a) Average demand
diesel generating station, which plant can be (b) maximum demand
used as base load plant? (c) Diversified demand
(a) Steam station (d) None
(b) Diesel generation plant
(c) Nuclear power station 26. The order of load factor of a Nuclear power
(d) None of the above. station is
(a) 40 to 50% (b) 50 to 65%
(c) 80 to 90% (d) None
ACE
3 Economics of Power Generation
27. Capacity factor of a power station is 32. In terms of plant powers Pn and Pm loss
Maximum demand coefficients Bmn, the total transmission loss
(a) PL is
Average demand
N N N N
(b)
Average demand on station (a) 
m 1 n 1
 B mn Pn (b) P
m 1 n 1
m B mn
Maximum demand on station N N N N
(c)   Pm B mn Pn (d)   2P m B mn
Maximum installed capacity of station m 1 n 1 m 1 n 1
(c)
Average demand of station
33. In the optimum generator scheduling of
Average demand of station
(d) different power plants, the minimum fuel cost
Iinstalled capacity of station is obtained when
(a) Only the incremental fuel cost of each
28. Major share of power produced in India is plant is the same
through (b) The penalty factor of each plaint is the
(a) Thermal power plants same
(b) Hydro electric power plants (c) The ratio of the incremental fuel cost to
the penalty factor for each plant is the
(c) Nuclear power plants same
(d) Diesel power plants. (d) The incremental fuel cost to each plant
multiplied by its penalty factor is the
29. Essential requirement of peak load plant same
(a) It should be capable of starting quickly
(b) It should be run at high voltage 34. A power plant has a maximum demand of 15
(c) It should run at low voltage MW. The load factor is 50% and the plant
factor is 40%. The operating reserve is
(d) It should be small in size.
(a) 3.0 MW
(b) 3.75 MW
30. Load curve is a graph drawn between (c) 6.0 MW
(a) Load Vs Voltage (b) Load Vs time (d) 7.5 MW
(c) P.F. Vs Load (d) Voltage Vs time
35. The load curve of a system is shown in the
31. Unit commitment is a procedure in which figure. The load factor of the system is
(a) Scheduling of total generation is done 100

economically
load
(b) Optimal combination of units in a
10
system is chosen at any given time
1000 hours 8760
(c) Most efficient machines are selected for
financial economy (a) 1.66%
(b) 6.013%
(d) Most efficient machines are selected for (c) 16.6%
minimum reactive power loss. (d) 60.13%
ACE
36. The power generated by two plants 40. The load duration curve for a power station is
are P1  50 MW, P2  40 MW . If the loss as shown in the below figure. The reserve
coefficients are B11  0.001, B 22  0.0025 capacity in the plant at 70% capacity factor is
and B12  0.0005 , then power loss will be 90
MW
(a) 5.5MW
(b) 6.5MW 50
(c) 4.5MW
(d) 8.5MW
37. A thermal generating station has an installed 0 % Time 100

capacity of 15 MW and supplies a daily load
of 10 MW for 12 hours and 5 MW of (a) zero (b) 10 MW
remaining 12 hours. The plant capacity factor (c) 30 MW (d) 50 MW
for this station is
(a) 1
41. A power station’s plant load factor is defined
(b) 0.75
as the ratio of
(c) 0.67
(a) The energy generated to that of
(d) 0.5
maximum energy that could have been
generated
38. Two generators rated at 200 MW and 400
MW operating in parallel. Both the (b) Average load to peak load
governors have a drop of 4% when the total (c) Minimum load to peak load
load is 300 MW. They share the load as (d) Minimum load to average load
(suffix ‘1’ is used for generator 200 MW and
suffix ‘2’ is used for generator 400 MW)
42. In a load duration curve for an integrated
(a) P1  100 MW and P2  200 MW power system, the uppermost crest represents
(b) P1  150 MW and P2  150 MW the energy contributed by which one of the
following?
(c) P1  200 MW and P2  100 MW
(a) Base power stations
(d) P1  200 MW and P2  400 MW (b) Major thermal stations
(c) Peaking hydro or gas turbine stations
39. In terms of power generation and Bmn
(d) Non – conventional power stations
coefficients, the transmission loss for a two-
plant system is (Notations have their usual
meaning) 43. The daily energy produced in a thermal
power station is 720 MWh at a load factor of
(a) P12 B11  2 P1 P2 B12  P22 B22 0.6. What is the maximum demand of the
(b) P12 B11  2 P1 P2 B12  P22 B22 station?
(a) 50 MW
(c) P22 B11  2 P1 P2 B12  P12 B22
(b) 30 MW
(d) P12 B11  P1 P2 B12  P22 B22
(c) 72 MW
(d) 720MW
ACE
44. The economics of power plant is greatly 02. The cost function of 50 MW generator is
influenced by: given by F(Pi) = 0.02 Pi2 + 53 Pi + 225 Rs/hr
1. Load factor When 100% load is applied, incremental fuel
cost will be
2. Utilization factor
3. Unit capacity 03. The fuel cost of 2 units are as follows.
4.Type of load F1  0.2 P12  30P1  60 
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4  Rs/hr
F2  0.15 P22  20 P2  80
(b) 1, 3 and 4 Calculate the generation schedule of the each
(c) 1, 2 and 3 unit for Lagrangian multiplier of 120Rs/
(d) 2, 3 and 4 MWhr
04. The Incremental fuel cost of 2 plants are

45. The incremental fuel cost for two generating given as
units given by
dF1
IC1 = 25 + 0.2 PG1 = 0.1 P1 + 20
dp1
IC2 = 32 + 0.2 PG2 Rs/MWhr.
dF2
Where PG1 and PG2 are real power generated = 0.12 P2 + 16
by the units. dp 2
The economic allocation for a total load of The loads on each plant 20  P  125.
250 MW, neglecting transmission loss is Determine the economic division of load
given by: between the two units for a total demand of
150 MW.
(a) PG1 = 142.25 MW;PG2 = 107.5 MW The losses are neglected, the corresponding
(b) PG1 = 109.75 MW;PG2 = 140.75 MW Incremental fuel cost is?
(c) PG1 = PG2 + 125 MW
(d) PG1 = 100 MW;PG2 +150 MW 05. The incremental fuel cost curves at
generators A and B are shown below. How
would be a load of more than 2PG be shared
LEVEL-2 Questions between A and B if both generators are
running.
01. For economic operation, the generator with
IC
highest positive incremental transmission loss
Gen B
will operate at :
(a) The lowest positive incremental cost of Gen A
production
(b) The lowest negative incremental cost of
MW
production Min PG Max
(c) The highest positive incremental cost of
production (a) Both will share equally
(d) None of the above (b) Gen B will share more than PG
(c) Gen A will share more than PG
(d) Both will share more than PG
ACE
06. A given alternator in economic operation 11. A 10 MW generator is connected to load

mode. The incremental fuel cost is given by through a transmission line. If the
(0.002 P+8) Rs/MWhr. The incremental incremental cost of production is
dP dF
power loss of alternator is L = 0.2.  0.1p  3 Rs./MWhr and loss in
dP dp
The Lagrangian multiplier of alternator is 25. transmission line is 1MW, the incremental
Then power generation of alternator in mw is. cost of received power in Rs./MWhr is
(a) 5.44 (b) 5
07. In a two plant system a penalty factor of plant
(c) 4.44 (d) 4
2 is 1.25 and the Incremental fuel cost of the
same plant is 400 Rs/MWhr. The cost
received by plant one is? 12. The penalty factor is
#  PL = 5MW
08. The loss coefficients of 2 bus system are B11
= 0.001, B22 = 0.002, B12 = B21 = – 0.0008.
Calculate the loss which are included in the Pd = 45MW
system for a generation schedule of P1 = 150
MW, P2 = 100 MW. (a) 1.21 (b) 1.0
(c) 1.11 (d) 1.31
09. Two power plants interconnected by a tie –
13. In a two plant system, the load is placed at
line have loss coefficient B22 = 10-3 MW-1.
plant 2. For a change of load of 5MW, the
Power is being dispatched economically with
generation change at plant 1 is 8MW. The
plant 1 as 125 MW and plant 2 as 100 MW.
penalty factors are
The penalty factors for plants 1 and 2 are
(a) 1, 1.5 (b) 1.25, 1
respectively
(c) 1.6, 1 (d) 1.3, 1
P1 P2
  14. A power generating station has a maximum
demand of 1000 MW. The annual load factor
LOAD
is 75% and plant capacity factor is 60%.
Calculate the reserve capacity
(a) 1 & 1
(a) 250 MW
(b) 1 & 1.25
(b) 500 MW
(c) 1.25 &1 (c) 750 MW
(d) 1.25 & 1.67 (d) 1250 MW
15. The load on the power plant w.r.t time for 24
10. 2
F1 = 0.2 P + 30P1 + 100 Rs/hr Hr are given as
1
F2 = 0.25 P22 + 40P2 + 150 Rs/hr Time (Hr) 0-6 6-8 8-12 12-14 14-18 18-22 22-24
Load(MW) 40 50 60 50 70 80 40
The load is 130 MW. The generation limits
are 20  P1  80 and 40  P2  100. The The load factor of power station is as
generation schedules are
(a) 0.75 (b) 0.71
(c) 0.60 (d) 0.68
ACE
16. Power station having Load factor= 70%, 07. Ans: (b)
capacity factor = 50%, used factor = 60% Sol: Operating cost for base load plant should be
maximum demand = 20 MW then annual minimum even though it has high installation
energy production is cost.
(a) 122.8 GWh (b) 198.55 GWh Here operating cost of C2 is 0.015 kWhr
(c) 128.2 GWh (d) 188.82 GWh which is less than that of C1.
08. Ans: (b)

Solutions Sol: Plant capacity Factor: It is defined as the
ratio of average demand on the station to the
LEVEL-1 maximum installed capacity.
Plant use Factor: It is the ratio of kWh
generated to the product of plant capacity and
01. Ans: (c) the number of hours for which the plant in
Sol: The incremental transmission loss of a operation.
plant can be Positive or Negative.
09. Ans: (a)
02. Ans: (a) Sol: More efficient plants are used as base load
Sol: In a power plant, a reserve generating stations.
capacity which is not in service but is in
10. Ans: (a)
operation is known as a hot reserve
Sol: Demand Factor: It is the ratio of maximum
demand on the power station to its connected
03. Ans: (a)
load, the value of demand factor is less than
Daily load
Sol: Average load = one.
perday hours
04. Ans: (b) 11. Ans: (b)
Average load Sol: Diversity Factor: The ratio of the sum of
Sol: Load factor =  100 individual maximum demand to the
Maximum load
simultaneous maximum demand on the
20 power station is known as diversity factor.
  100
2  24 The value of diversity factor is more than
= 41.6% one.
05. Ans: (c) 12. Ans: (b)

Sol: It is always economical to improve the power Sol: The overall cost / kWh generated is reduced
factor of an installation to a little less than if load factor is high.
unity.
13. Ans: (b)
06. Ans: (c) Average load
Sol: Load factor =
Maximum Load Maximum demand
Sol: Plant use factor 
Installed capacity Average load = 0.5  8000 kW
Power plant having maximum demand more = 4000 kW
than installed capacity will have utilization Energy = Average load  time
factor is more than 100%. 16000  10 6
 time   4000 hrs
4000  10 3
ACE
14. Ans: (c) Average load = ?

Sol: Demand factor Average load
Load factor 
Maximum demand max imum demand
=
connected load Average load = load factor  maximum
20 MW demand
  0.5
40 MW Average load = 0.45  25 = 11.25 MW
= 11250 kW.
15. Ans: (c)
Sol: Reserve capacity = Installed 21. Ans: (c)
capacity – Maximum demand Sol:
= 100 MW – 50 MW Sum of individualmax. demand
Diversityfactor 
= 50 MW simultaneous maximumdemandon powerstation
10  8.5  5  4.5
16. Ans: (a) Diverstiy factor 
25
Sol: L.F = Load Factor 28
PUF = Plant Utilization Factor  = 1.12
L.F = 0.5, PUF = 0.2 25
22. Ans: (a)
Average demand = PUFL.F Installed
Sol: If a plant has zero reserve capacity, the plant
capacity
load always equals capacity factor
= 0.2  0.5  100
= 10 MW
23. Ans: (a)
Sol: If some reserve capacity is available in the
17. Ans: (b)
power plant, its use factor is always greater
Sol: If capacity factor is equal to the load factor
than its capacity factor.
then plant’s reserve capacity is zero
24. Ans: (b)
18. Ans: (c) Sol: In a interconnected grid system the diversity
Average load of plant factor of the whole system is increases.
Sol: Capacity factor 
Installed capacity
25. Ans: (b)
Average load = 0.5300 = 150 MW
Sol: The highest point on a load curve represents
Average load 150 maximum demand. It is the greatest demand
Maximum demand  
L.F 0.75 of load on power station during a given
= 200 MW period.
19. Ans: (c)
Sol: Nuclear power station is used as a base load 26. Ans: (c)
plant. Sol: The order of load factor of a Nuclear power
station is 80 to 90%.
20. Ans: (b)
27. Ans: (d)
Sol: The annual peak load = 30 MW
Sol: It is defined as the ratio of average demand
Power station = 25 MW on the station to the maximum installed
Maximum demands = 10 MW, 8.5 MW, capacity.
5 MW and 4.5 MW Average demand of station
The annual load factor = 45% = 0.45 Installed capacity of station
ACE
28. Ans: (a) Area I = 1001000

Sol: Major share of power produced in India is Area II = 10[7760]
through a thermal power plant. 1
Area III =  7760  90
29. Ans: (a) 2
Sol: The peak load plant it should be capable of Area I  AreaII  AreaIII
Avg load 
starting quickly. 8760
= 60.136
30. Ans: (b) Avg load
load factor 
31. Ans: (b) Max demand
Sol: Unit commitment is a procedure in which 63.136
optimal combination of units in a system is   100 = 60.13%
100
chosen at any given time.
32. Ans: (c) 36. Ans: (c)
n n
33. Ans: (d)

Sol: Power loss = 
m 1 n 1
PmBmnPn
Sol: In the optimum generator scheduling of
different power plants, the minimum fuel cost  B11 P12  P1 P2 B12  P2 B 21 P1  P22 B 22
is obtained when the incremental fuel cost to =0.001(50)2+5040(0.0005)+50
each plant multiplied bys its penalty factor is 40(0.0005)+4020.0025
the same.
= 2.511+4 = 4.5 MW
34. Ans: (b)
Sol: Given data, 37. Ans: (d)
L.F= 0.5, M.D = 15 MW, P F = 0.4 Sol: Average load
Average load 10  12  5  12
P.F  =  7.5 MW
Installed capacity 24
Plant capacity factor
L.F  Max demand
Installed capacity  Average load 7.5
plant factor =   0.5
Installed capacity 15
0.5  15
  18.75
0.4 38. Ans: (a)
Operating Reserve = Installed capacity – Sol: As both generators have same drooping
maximum demand characteristics they will share the total
= 18.7515 = 3.75 MW load in proportion to their ratings
35. Ans: (d)  Load shared by 200 MW

Sol: Area under the curve 200 1
  (Total load)
load 200  400 3
100 1
I
  300 = 100 MW
III 3
10
Load shared by
II
hr 400
1000 8760 400 MW   300 = 200 MW
200  400
ACE
(ii) Utilization Factor: It is defined as the

39. Ans: (a)
ratio of maximum demand to the plant
40. Ans: (b) capacity.
Sol: Average load (iii) Unit capacity
1
50  100   40  100 (iv) Type of load.
 2 = 70 MW
100
Average load 45. Ans: (a)
Capacity factor  Sol: Given PG1  PG 2  250 MW ---- (1)
Installed capacity
70 For economic operation incremental fuel
 Installed capacity   100 MW
0.7 costs of two generating units must be same.
 Reserve capacity = Installed capacity –  IC1  IC 2
max demand 25  0.2 PG1  32  0.2 PG 2
= 100  90 = 10 MW
0.2 PG1  0.2 PG 2  7 ------------- (2)
41. Ans: (b) Solving equation (1) & (2)
Sol: A power station’s plant load factor is defined
as the ratio of average load to the maximum PG1= 142.5 MW and
demand during a given period is known as PG2 = 107.5 MW
load factor.
42. Ans: (c)

Sol: In a load duration curve for an integrated Level‐2 Key
power system, the uppermost crest
represents the energy contributed by 01. (a) 02. 55 MWhr 03.PD = 558.33MW
peaking hydro or gas turbine stations 04. P1 = 63.36MW 05.(c)
P2 = 86.36MW
43. Ans: (d) 06. 1000 MW 07. 500MWhr
Sol: Maximum demand
Average load 720 08. 18.5MW 09. (b)
=   50 MW
Load factor 0.6  24 10. P1= 80 MW , P2 = 46.67 MW 11. (c)
12. (c) 13.(c) 14.(a) 15. (b)
44. Ans: (b)
Sol: The economics of power plant is greatly 16. (a)
influenced by
(i) Load Factor : The ratio of average
load to the maximum demand during a
given period is known as load factor.
Load Frequency Control
Practice Questions
LEVEL-1 Questions 06. The main objective of load frequency
controller is to apply control of:
01. In the integral control of single-area system, (a) Frequency alone
when the system frequency error is reduced (b) Frequency and at the same time of real
to zero power exchange via the outgoing lines
(a) the integral output and the speed (c) Frequency and at the same time of
changer position attain a constant value reactive power exchange via the
(b) the integrator output increases but the outgoing lines
seed changer position remains constant (d) Frequency and bus voltage
(c) the integrator output decreases and the
speed changer position also comes 07. Consider the following statements
down 1. A controls area constitutes coherent
(d) the integrator output decreases but the group of generators
speed changer position moves up. 2. In central AGC of a given control area,
the change in (error) frequency is
02. Single control area fitted with proportional volume control error
plus integral controller is 3. In automatic voltage generation, the
(a) synchronous and unstable zero steady state error can be achieved
(b) synchronous and stable by using PI controller
(c) Non – synchronous and unstable Out of these statements
(d) non – synchronous and stable (a) All are correct
(b) 1 & 3 are correct
03. Load frequency control is achieved by (c) 2 & 3 are correct
properly matching the individual machines (d) 1 & 2 are correct
(a) reactive power LEVEL-2 Questions

(b) generated voltages
(c) turbine inputs
(d) turbine and generator ratings 01. Consider the following statements regarding
load frequency control:
04. Load frequency control uses 1. Time constant of automatic load
(a) proportional controllers alone frequency control is about 15 seconds
2. Integral control eliminates static
(b) integral controllers alone
frequency drop
(c) both proportional and integral controllers 3. In tie-line load bias control, the control
(d) either proportional or integral controllers signal for each area is proportional to
change in frequency as well as change in
05. Load frequency controllers are carried out tie-line power.
with Which of the statements given above are
(a) P controllers only correct?
(b) I controllers only (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) D controllers only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
(d) PID controllers
ACE
02. A turbine-generator set has a regulation network to be lossless, the system frequency
constant of 6% on the generator rating of for a total load of 400 MW is
120MVA, 50Hz. The generator frequency (a) 47.5 Hz (b) 48.0 Hz
decreases by 0.01 Hz. The increase in turbine (c) 48.5 Hz (d) 49.0 Hz
output for steady-state operation is:
(a) 0.8 MW (b) 0.4 MW
(c) 0.2 MW (d) 40 MW
Solutions
03. The main objectives of load frequency control LEVEL-1
in a power system are:
01. Ans: (a)
1. To bring the steady state error to zero
after load change  
 
2. To maintain the net tie-line flow  1  P
Sol:  f  
3. To maintain voltages on all buses   1 
D
4. To economize the cost of generation B 

 R 
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
The above equation gives the steady state
04. The block diagram of a generator load model changes in frequency caused by changes in
is shown below for a 50 Hz generator. The load demand.
inertia constant of the system is Speed regulation R is naturally so adjusted
that changes in frequency are small. From the
PD(s) above equation, we can find that the steady
– state change in frequency has been reduced to
10
PG(s) F(s) zero by the addition of the integral controller.
+ S 2
 reaches steady state (a constant
value) only when PC = PD = constant.
(a) 5 MJ/MVA (b) 4.5 MJ/MVA
Because of the integrating action of the
(c) 3MJ/MVA (d) 2.5 MJ/MVA
controller, this is only possible if
05. A power system has a total load of 1260 MW  = 0.
at 50 Hz. The load varies 1.5% for every 1 %
change in frequency. The steady state change 02. Ans: (d)
in frequency when 60 MW load is suddenly
tripped (No speed control action) Sol: Single control area fitted with proportional
(a) 0.5 Hz (b) 1 Hz plus integral controllers is Non-synchronous
(c) 1.22 Hz (d) 1.66 Hz and stable
03. Ans: (d)

06. A power system has two synchronous
Sol: Load frequency control is achieved by
generators. The governor turbine
properly matching the individual machines
characteristics corresponding to the
turbine and generator ratings
generators are
P1 = 50 (50 – f), P2 = 100(51 – f)
Where f denotes the system frequency in Hz,
04. Ans: (c)
and P1 and P2 are respectively, the power Sol: In load frequency control, the control
outputs (in MW) of turbine 1 and 2.
objective is to regulate the frequency of each
Assuming the generators and transmission
ACE
13 Load Frequency Control
area and to simultaneously regulate the tie

line power as per inter-area power contracts. 07. Ans: (b)
As in the case of frequency, proportional plus Sol: In AGC, change in frequency is area control
integral controller will be installed so as to error.
give zero steady state error in tie line power
of low as compared to the contracted power.
Level‐2 Key
05. Ans: (d)
Sol: Load frequency controllers are using PID 01. (d) 02. (b) 03. (b) 04. (d)
controllers 05. (d) 06. (b)
06. Ans: (b)
Sol: The main objective of load frequency
controller is to apply control of frequency and
at the same time of real power exchange via
the outgoing lines.
Circuit Breakers
Practice Questions
06. A thyrite lightning arrestor has
LEVEL-1 Questions
(a) Inverse resistance characteristics
01. What is the preferred type of CB to be (b) a gap
installed in extra high voltage ac system?
(a) Bulk oil type CB (c) efficient earthing
(b) Air Blast CB (d) a combination of inverse resistance
(c) Vacuum CB characteristics and gap.
(d) Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6) CB.
07. Match List – I with List – II and select the
02. Keeping in view the cost and overall
correct answer using the code given below
effectiveness, the following circuit breaker is
the lists:
best suited for capacitor bank switching
List – I
(a) Vacuum (b) air blast
(c) SF6 (d) oil A. Operating coil
B. Restraining coil
03. The interrupting time of a circuit breaker is
the period between the instant of C. Bias coil
(a) initiation of short circuit and the arc List – II
extinction on an opening operation.
(b) energizing of the trip circuit and the arc 1. Through current
extinction on an opening operation. 2. Differential current
(c) initiation of short circuit and the parting
3. Second harmonic current.
of primary arc contacts.
(d) energizing of the trip circuit and the Codes:
parting of primary arc contacts. A B C
(a) 1 3 2
04. Which property of SF6 as makes it most (b) 2 3 1
suitable for use in circuit breakers? (c) 3 2 1
(a) Higher dielectric strength (d) 2 1 3
(b) Higher Molecular weight
(c) Higher dielectric strength and higher
Molecular weight 08. For which of the following reasons is a
(d) Low Molecular weight differential relay biased to avoid mal-
operation when used for transformer
05. Which of the following reason make HRC protection
fuses preferable in power circuits? (1) Saturation of CTs
1. They have inverse time characteristics. (2) Mismatch of CT ratios
2. They are consistent in performance.
(3) Difference in connection of both Sides
3. They can be selected for proper
discrimination. (4) current setting Multiplier
Select the correct answer by using the codes Select the correct answer using the codes
given below. given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
ACE
15 Circuit Breakers
09. The switch that is operated only under no 14. Arc splitters are used in the following circuit
load condition is breaker
(a) AB Switch (b) OCB (a) cross – jet explosion pot OCB
(c) ABCB (d) Isolator (b) plain explosion pot OCB
(c) Single break plain OCB
10. The sequence of operation of isolator, CB (d) Double break OCB
and earth switch while opening a circuit is
(a) earth switch opens, isolator opens, C.B. 15. The rupturing capacity of a circuit – breaker
opens is measured in
(a) ampere (b) volt
(b) earth switch closes, isolator opens, C.B. (c) watt (d) volt-ampere
opens
(c) C.B. opens, isolator opens, earth switch 16. In an inverse definite minimum time,
closes electromagnetic type over-current relay, the
minimum time feature is achieved because of
(d) Isolator opens, earth switch closes, C.B. (GATE-00)
opens (a) Saturation of the magnetic circuit
(b) Proper mechanical design
11. The fault clearing process takes place in the (c) Appropriate time delay element
following order in a circuit-breaker. (d) Electromagnetic damping.
(a) Relay contacts close, C.B. contacts
separate and arc extinguish 17. For a round wire, the approximate value of
fusing current is given by (GENCO)
(b) Relay contacts close, the battery supplies
the current to the trip coil, C.B contacts (a) K d 3 (b) Kd 2
separate & arc extinguished. 1
(c) d3 (d) d8
(c) Relay contacts close, the trip circuit of K
C.B. closes, trip coil of C.B. energized,
contacts separate and arc extinguished. 18. The operating time of instantaneous relay is
(GENCO)
(d) None of the above.
(a) 0.001 sec (b) 0.01sec
(c) 0.1 sec (d) 1 sec
12. The recovery voltage of a circuit – breaker
comprises 19. Making capacity of a circuit breaker is equal
(a) a Power frequency component only to (SSC-2012)
(b) a high frequency component only (a) 2.55 times symmetrical breaking current
(c) both power frequency and high (b) 1.5 times symmetrical breaking current
frequency components (c) 2 times symmetrical breaking current
(d) a transient component only.
(d) Symmetrical breaking current
13. In D.C. Circuit – breaker arc quenching is
done by 20. If the current is 3000 A, for an I.D.M.T. relay
(a) Zero Current interruption with a plug setting of 50% and C.T. ratio of
(b) Low resistance interruption 400/5, the plug setting multiplier would be
(c) High resistance interruption (IAS-2010)
(d) Normal resistance interruption (a) 7.5 (b) 15.0
(c) 18.75 (d) 37.5
ACE
21. If the fault current is 3000 A for a relay with 25. Match List I with List II and select the correct
a plug setting of 50% and CT ratio of 1000: answer using the codes given below the lists
1, the plug setting multiplier would be (IES-95)
(IAS-2010) List I(Equipment)
(a) 1.5 (b) 3 A. Circuit Breaker
(c) 4.5 (d) 6 B. Lightning Arrester
22. Which is the circuit breaker (CB) preferred C. Governor
for the interruption of high voltage and low D. Exciter
current? (PSC-12) List II ( Function)
(a) Oil CB (b) Air blast CB
(c) Vacuum CB (d) All are correct 1. Voltage control
2. Power control
23. The symmetrical breaking capacity of a 3- 3. Over voltage protection
phase circuit breaker is given by 4. Over current protection
(PSC-12)
Codes:
(a) 3 normal voltage  rated A B C D
symmetrical current (a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 normal voltage  rated symmetrical (b) 4 1 2 3
current (c) 4 3 2 1
(c) normal voltage  rated symmetrical (d) 2 3 4 1
current  factor of safety
(d) None of the above 26. Impulse ratios of insulators and lightning
arresters should be (IES-96)
24. Match List-I (Devices) with List-II (a) both low
(Application)and select the correct answer (b) high and low respectively
using the codes given below the lists : (c) low and high respectively
(IES-94) (d) both high
List – I
A. Microprocessor 27. Breaking capacity of a circuit breaker is
B. Breather usually expressed in terms of
(TSTransco-15)
C. Magnetic links (a) Ampere (b) Volts
D. Klydonograph (c) MW (d) MVA
List – II
1. Monitoring surge voltages 28. In a 220 kV system, the inductance and
capacitance up to the circuit breaker location
2. Digital protection
are 25mH and 0.025  F respectively. The
3. Monitoring surge currents
value of resistor required to be connected
4. Power transformer across the breaker contacts which will give
Codes: no transient oscillations, is (IES-01)
A B C D (a) 25 
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 250 
(b) 4 2 3 1 (c) 500 
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 1000 
(d) 2 4 3 1
ACE
17 Circuit Breakers
29. Which of the following circuit breakers has 33. The arc voltage in a circuit breaker is:
the lowest voltage range?
(a) SF6 circuit breaker (a) in phase with the arc current
(b) Air-blast circuit breaker (b) lagging by 90o with arc current
(c) Tank type oil circuit breaker
(d) Air-break circuit breaker (c) leading by 90o with arc current
(d) lagging by 45o with arc current
30. Which of the following statements are
correct?
(1) Using SF6 gas at low pressure and low LEVEL-2 Questions
velocity, the current chopping can be
minimized 01. The inductance and capacitance of a line are
(2) SF6 breaker is silent in operation and respectively 1.0 H and 0.01 F. If the
moisture ingression in to the gas cycle instantaneous value of interrupted current is
is almost nil 10A, the voltage across the breaker contacts
(3) SF6 breaker performance is affected due will be
to variation in atmospheric conditions
(a) 125 kV
(4) SF6 breaker have been developed for
voltage ranges from 115kV to 500 kV (b) 100 kV
ratings and with interrupting time of 3 (c) 75 kV
cycles & less (d) 66 kV
(a) 1, 2, 3 only (b) 1, 2, 4 only
(c) 1, 3, 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 02. In connection with the extinction in circuit
breaker, resistance switching is employed
31. The restriking voltage of a circuit breaker where in a resistance is placed in parallel
with resistance switching is shown below with the poles of the circuit breaker as shown
then the value of resistance is in the figure. This process introduces
damping in the LC circuit. For critical
damping, the vale of ‘r’ should be equal to
r
L
CB
1 L 1 L
(a) R  (b) R 
2 C 2 C e C Fault
1 L
(c) R  (d) R=0
2 C
32. HRC fuses provide best protection against: C C

(a) (b) 0.5
L L
(a) lightning
L L
(b) short circuits (c) 0.5 (d)
(c) overload C C
(d) over voltage
ACE
03. Three sections of a feeder are provided with 07. For differential protection of power
circuit breakers CB1, CB2, CB3, CB4, CB5 transformer (delta-delta) the current
and CB6. For a fault F as indicated in figure. transformers will have
F (a) Delta-delta connection
(b) Star-delta connection
CB1 CB2 CB3 CB4 CB5 CB6 (c) Star-star connection
(d) Delta-star connection
(a) CB5 must be set to trip after CB1trips.
(b) CB5 must be set to trip after CB3 and CB4
trip.
Solutions
(c) CB5 must be set to trip after CB2 trips.
LEVEL-1
(d) CB5 must be set to trip before CB1,
CB2, CB3 and CB4 trip. 01. Ans: (d)
Sol: The extra high voltage circuit breaker is
04. Resistance switching is normally employed in sulphur hexafluoride (SF6).
02. Ans: (a)
(a) All breakers Sol: The best suitable for capacitor bank
(b) Bulk oil breakers switching is vacuum circuit breaker.
(c) Minimum oil breakers
(d) Air blast circuit breakers 03. Ans: (b)
Sol: The interrupting time of a circuit breaker is
05. In a 220 kV system, the inductance and the period between the instant of energizing
capacitance up to the circuit breaker location of the trip circuit and the arc extinction on an
are 25mH and 0.025F respectively. The opening operation.
value of resister required to be connected
across the breaker contacts which will give 04. Ans: (c)
no transient oscillations, is Sol:
(i) The current chopping tendency is
(a) 25  (b) 250 
minimized by using the gas SF6 at low
(c) 500  (d) 1000  pressure and low velocity.
(ii) The closed circuit gas cycle and low
06. When high rate of rise of recovery voltages velocity operation eliminates the
are expected in networks consisting of moisture problem and gives noiseless
generators, transformers, reactors and lines, operation of the breaker.
circuit breakers with shunt resistance are (iii) Because of the outstanding arc
employed. To ensure exponential build up to quenching properties of SF6, the arcing
50 Hz recovery without overshoot, the time is small and therefore, contact,
resistance connected is, (L is the inductance erosion is less.
of the line and capacitance from line to (iv) The circuit breaker performance is not
ground is C) affected due to the atmospheric
(a) LC (b) LC conditions.
(v) Electrical clearances are drastically
L L reduced due to high dielectric strength
(c) 0.5 (d)
C C of SF6
ACE
19 Circuit Breakers
05. Ans: (d) 12. Ans: (a)

Sol: HRC (High Rupturing capacity) fuse Sol: The power frequency r.m.s voltage that
preferable in power circuit appears across the breaker contacts after the
(i) They are consistent in performance transient oscillations die out and final
(ii) They have inverse time characteristics extinction of arc has resulted in all the poles
(iii) They can be selected for proper is called the recovery voltage.
discrimination.
13. Ans: (c)
06. Ans: (d) Sol: In DC circuit – breaker arc quenching is by
Sol: A thyrite lighting arrestor has a combination high resistance interruption in this method arc
of inverse resistance characteristics and gap. resistance is increased so as to reduce the
current to a value which is insufficient to
maintain the arc.
07. Ans: (d)
Sol: Operating coil  .Differential current 14. Ans: (a)
Restraining coil  Through current Sol: Arc splitters are used in the cross jet
Bias coil  Second harmonic current. explosion pot oil circuit breaker are used this
type of pot is just a modification of plain
08. Ans: (b) explosion pot. It is made of insulating
Sol: The differential relay biased to avoid mal – material and has channels on one side which
operation when used for transformer act as arc splitter. The arc splitter helps in
protection is increasing the arc length thus facilitating arc
(i) Mismatch of CT ratios extinction.
(ii) Saturation of CTs.
Fixed contact
09. Ans: (d)
cross jet explosion pot
Sol: Isolator: It will be operated only under no - P
load condition.
Arc Splitter
(i) The necessity of line isolator is to be
provide more clearance M plain explosion pot
(ii) Breaking capacity of line isolator is zero
(iii) Sequence of operation is first load moving contact
interrupter has to operate and next line
15. Ans: (a)
isolator.
Sol: The rupturing capacity of a circuit breaker is
measured in ampere.
10. Ans: (c)
Sol: The sequence of operation of isolator, CB 16. Ans: (a)
and earth switch while opening a circuit is Sol: Operating time
C.B. opens, isolator opens, earth switch in seconds (b)
closes
(a)
11. Ans: (c)
Sol: The fault clearing process takes place in the
Multiples of plug setting
following order in a circuit – breaker relay
contacts close, the trip circuit of C.B closes, In curve (a) the time of operation of relay
trip coil of C.B energized, contacts separate remains same over the working range,
and arc extinguished.
ACE
because before the saturation of core, the 22. Ans: (c)

torque T = KI2 Sol: The vacuum circuit breaker preferred for the
Where as during early saturation as the interruption of high voltage and low current.
current I increases “K” decreases, hence the 23. Ans: (a)
torque remains constant and hence the time of Sol: The symmetrical breaking capacity of a 3 –
operation. phase circuit breaker.
If we made the core to saturate at later time  3  rated system voltage  symmetrical
the characteristic is as curve (b), which is the
breaking current
known as inverse definite minimum time
characteristic. The time current characteristic 24. Ans: (d)
is inverse over some range and then assumes Sol: Microprocessor  Digital protection
the definite time form. Breather  Power transformer
17. Ans: (a) Magnetic links  Monitoring surge currents
Sol: For a round wire the approximate value of Klydonograph  Monitoring surge voltages
fusing current is given by k d 3 25. Ans: (c)
18. Ans: (c) Sol: Circuit Breaker Over current protection
Sol: The operating time of instantaneous relay is Lightning Arrester Over voltage protection
0.1 sec. Governor Power control
Exciter  Voltage control
19. Ans: (a) 26. Ans: (b)
Sol: The capacity of a circuit breaker to be closed Sol: Lightning arresters are always connected in
onto a short circuit depends upon its ability to shunt with the equipment to be protected, to
with stand the effects of electromagnetic divert or discharge the surge to the ground by
forces. providing a low-impedance path for the surge
making current = the peak value of fault currents. So that the surge arrester’s
current corresponds to first cycle protective level is less than the surge voltage
 2 1.8  symmetrical breaking current withstanding capacity of the insulation of
= 2.55  symmetrical breaking current equipment being protected.
making capacity = 2.55  symmetrical 27. Ans: (d)
breaking current Sol: Breaking capacity of circuit breaker is
usually expressed in terms of MVA.
20. Ans: (b)
I f referto sec ondary side 28. Ans: (c)
Sol: PSM =
Re lay setting  Rated ROC current L
3000  (5 / 400) Sol: Critical Resistance, R  0.5
= = 15 C
0.5  5
25 10 3
 0.5 6
 0.5 106
21. Ans: (d) 0.025 10
3000  (1 / 1000)  0.5  103  500
Sol: PSM= =6
0.5  1
29. Ans: (d)
Sol: Air-break circuit breakers are used for
voltages, below 1kV.
ACE
21 Circuit Breakers
30. Ans: (b)

Sol: SF6 breaker performance is not affected due Level‐2 Key
to variation in atmospheric conditions.
Hence option 1, 2, & 4 are correct 01. (b) 02. (c) 03. (d) 04. (d) 05. (c)
31. Ans: (c) 06. (c) 07. (c)
32. Ans: (b)

Sol: HRC fuses provide best protection against
short circuits.
33. Ans: (a)
Sol: The are voltage in a circuit breaker is in
phase with the arc current. such that the
power factor is always unity.
Protective Relays
Practice Questions
LEVEL-1 Questions List – II
1. Distribution feeder protection
2. Long transmission Line protection
01. The relay which is having capability of
3. Transformer protection
anticipating the possible major fault in a
4. Protection of alternators against
transformer is
unbalanced loading
(a) Over current relay Codes:
(b) Differential relay A B C D
(c) Buchholz relay (a) 4 3 1 2
(d) Over fluxing relay. (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 1 3 4 2
02. Match list – I (Equipments) with List – II
(Applications) and select the correct answer
04. Match List – I (Relay) with List – II
List – I
(Protected power system component) and
A. Metal oxide arrester select the correct answer using the code given
B. Isolator below the lists:
C. Auto-recloser List – I
D. Differential relay A. Distance relay
B. Under frequency relay.
List – II C. Differential relay
1. Protects generator against short circuit D. Buchholz relay
faults. List – II
2. Improve transient stability 1. Transformers
3. Allows C.B for maintenance 2. Turbines
4. Provides protection against surges 3. Bus bars
Codes: 4. Shunt capacitors.
A B C D 5. Alternators
(a) 4 3 2 1
6. Transmission lines
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 1 2 Codes:
(d) 3 4 2 1 A B C D
(a) 6 5 3 1
03. Match List – I (Types of relays) with List – II (b) 3 1 4 2
(Protective schemes) and select the correct (c) 6 1 3 2
answer (d) 3 5 4 1
List – I
05. The type of CT connection it is employed for
A. Negative – sequence relay
the protection of star – delta connected 3-
B. Harmonic – restraint differential relay phase transformer is
C. over – current relay with time delay (a) Delta - delta (b) Star - star
D. Mho relay (c) Star - delta (d) Delta – star
ACE
23 Protective Relays
06. Match List – I (Type of Fault) with List – II 10. Match List – I with List – II and select the
(Type of protection) and select the correct correct answer using the code given below
answer using the code given below the lists: the lists:
List – I (Type of Tr. Lines)
List – I A. Short line
A. External phase fault B. Medium line
B. Faults between phases. C. Long
C. Phase to earth fault List – II (Type of distance relay preferred)
1. ohm relay
2. Reactance relay
List – II 3. Mho relay
1. Differential protection Codes:
2. Earth fault relay A B C
3. Over – current protection (inversion time (a) 1 2 3
delay o/c relay) (b) 3 2 1
4. Thermal relay (c) 2 1 3
(d) 3 1 2
Codes:
A B C 11. The transmission line distance protection
(a) 3 1 2 relay having the property of being inherently
(b) 4 2 1 directional is
(c) 3 2 1 (a) Impedance relay (b) Mho relay
(d) 4 1 2 (c) Ohm relay (d) Reactance relay
07. How many relays are used to detect inter 12. Reactance relay is normally preferred for
phase fault of a 3-phase system? protection against
(a) One (b) Two (a) earth faults
(c) Three (d) Six (b) phase faults
(c) open circuit faults
08. Which is the main relay for protecting upto (d) none of these
80% - 90% of the transmission line-length in
the forward direction? 13. Which of the following relays is used for the
(a) Directional over-current relay protection of a series compensated EHV line.
(b) Mho relay (a) Impedance relay
(b) Reactance relay
(c) carrier – current protective relay
(c) Mho relay
(d) Impedance relay. (d) static distance relay/Micro processor
based relay
09. Which relay is used to detect and protect
internal faults of a transformer? 14. What are the typical values of percentage bias
(a) Buchholz relay of differential values used for generator and
(b) Directional relay transformer protection?
(c) Thermal relay (a) 5% and 20% respectively
(d) Distance relay (b) Both 5%
(c) Both 20%
(d) 20% and 5% respectively.
ACE
15. Match List – I with List – II and select the 19. Protection scheme used to detection of loss of
correct answer using the code given below excitation of a very large generating unit
the lists: feeding power into a grid employs
(a) under voltage relay
List – I (Protection scheme)
A. Differential protection (b) offset Mho relay
B. Buchholz protection (c) under frequency relay
C. Earth fault protection (d) percentage differential relay
D. Thermal protection
20. In the protection of transformers, harmonic
List – II (Type of faults) restraint is used to guard against
1. Phase to phase and phase to ground (GATE-01)
2. Phase to ground
3. Short circuit (a) Magnetizing inrush current
4. Inter – turn (b) Unbalanced operation
5. Over loading (c) Lightning
(d) Switching over-voltages
Codes:
A B C D
21. A negative sequence relay is commonly used
(a) 1 4 2 5
to protect (GATE-11)
(b) 5 2 3 1
(c) 1 2 3 5 (a) An alternator
(d) 5 4 2 1 (b) A transformer
(c) A transmission line
16. A relay most likely to operate on power
swings is (d) A bus bar
(a) over current relay
(b) Inverse definite Minimum time relay. 22. Mal-operation of differential protection of
(c) Mho relay transformers due to magnetizing inrush
(d) Reactance Relay current is prevented by (IAS-2010)
(a) setting the current of the relay higher
17. For reducing tower footing resistance, it is than the maximum value of inrush
better to employ current
(a) chemical and counter poise (b) keeping the time-setting long enough
(b) chemical and ground rods for the inrush current to fall to a value
(c) ground rods and counter poise below the primary operating current of
(d) chemical, ground rods and counter poise. the relay
18. The reactance relay is essentially (c) bypassing the inrush current from the
(a) an over-voltage relay with current operating coil of the relay
restraint. (d) filtering the third harmonic content of
(b) an over – current relay with directional the inrush current flowing through the
restraint. operating coil and passing through the
(c) a directional relay with voltage restraint. restraining coil
(d) a directional relay with current restraint.
ACE
23. Match List-I (Power system components) 27. Consider the following statements. Which of
with List-II (Relaying schemes) and select these statements are correct?
the correct answer using the codes given 1. Reactance relays are preferred for
below the Lists: (IAS-10) ground fault relaying
List-I (Power system Components) 2. Impedance relays are most suitable for
A. Power Transformer protecting long transmission lines
B. Transmission Lines 3. Mho relays are best suited for long
transmission line protection
C. Alternator
4. Reactance relays are widely used for
List-II (Relaying schemes) protection of Medium transmission lines
1. Differential relaying (TSNPDCL-15)
2. Distance relaying (a) All of them (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Codes:
A B C 28. For protection of parallel feeders fed from
(a) 1 1 2 one end the relays required are :
(b) 2 1 1 (HMWS-15)
(c) 1 2 1 (a) Directional relays at both the ends
(d) 2 1 2 (b) Non-directional relays at both the ends
(c) Directional relays at the source end and
24. If the fault current is 2000 A, the relay setting non-directional relays at the load end
is 50% and CT ratio is 400: 5, then what is (d) Non-directional relays at the source end
the plug setting multiplier? and directional relays at the load end
(IAS-10)
(a) 25 (b) 15 LEVEL-2 Questions
(c) 50 (d) 10
01. For the protection of a very long extra high
25. A relay has a rating of 5A, 2.2 sec IDMT and voltage line, the protective relay used is
a relay setting of 125% TMS=0.6. It is (a) Over current with extremely inverse
connected to a supply circuit through a C.T. characteristics
400/5 ratio. The fault current is 4000A. The (b) Percentage differential relay
pick up current of the relay is (c) Reactance type distance relay
(APPSC-12) (d) Mho type distance relay
(a) 6.25A (b) 5A
02. If the fault current is 2 kA, the relay setting is
(c) 8A (d) 2.2A 50% and the C.T. ratio is 400/5, then the plug
setting multiplier of a relay will be
26. Under voltage relays are mainly used for (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 10
(IES-10)
(a) Motor protection 03. An over current relay having a current setting
(b) Transformer protection of 125% is connected to a supply circuit
through a current transformer of ratio 400/5.
(c) Transmission line protection
The pick –up value will be
(d) All the above (a) 6.25A (b) 500A
(c) 100A (d) 80A
ACE
04. An over-current relay, having a current 07. In a 3-step distance protection, the reach of
setting of 12.5% is connected to a supply the three zones of the relay at the beginning
circuit through a current transformer of ratio of the first line typically extends upto
400/5. The pick-up value is (a) 100% of the first line, 50% of the
(a) 0.625 A second line and 20% of the third line.
(b) 10 A (b) 80% of the first line, 50% of the second
(c) 12.5 A line and 20% of the third line.
(d) 15 A (c) 80% of the first line, 20% of second
line and 10% the third line.
05. The plug setting of a negative sequence relay (d) 50% of first line, 50% of second line
is 0.2 A. The current transformer ratio is 5:1. and 20% of the third line.
The minimum value of line to line fault
current for the operation of the relay is 08. Consider the problem of relay co-ordination
1 for the distance relays R1 and R2 on adjacent
(a) 1A (b) A lines of a transmission system figure. The
1.732
zone 1 and zone 2 settings for both the relays
0.2 are indicated on the diagram. Which of the
(c) 1.732 A (d) A
1.732 following indicates the correct time setting
for the zone 2 of relays R1 and R2
06. A two machine power system in shown Zone2(R2)
below. Transmission line XY has positive Zone1(R2)
sequence impedance of Z1 and zero
sequence impedance of Z0
R1 R2
X Y
  Zone1(R1)
Zone2(R1)
. F
An ‘a’ phase to ground fault with zero fault (a) TZ2R1 = 0.6s, TZ2R2 = 0.3s
impedance occurs at the centre of the (b) TZ2R1 = 0.3s, TZ2R2 = 0.6s
transmission line. Bus voltage at X and line (c) TZ2R1 = 0.3s, TZ2R2 = 0.3s
current from X to F for the phase ‘a’, are
(d) TZ2R1 = 0.1s, TZ2R2 = 0.3s
given by Va Volts and Ia Amperes,
respectively. Then, the impedance measured
by the ground distance relay located at the 09. A three-phase 11/66 kV, delta star
terminal X of line XY will be given by transformer, protected by Merz-price scheme
has CT ratio of 400/5 on L.T. side. Ratio of
(a) Z1/2 C.T. on H.T. side will be equal to
(b) Z0/2 (IES-EE-99)
(c) (Z0 + Z1)/2 (a) 1:23
(b) 23:1
(d) Va/Ia 
(c) 23: 3
(d) 3 :23
ACE
10. An active power restrained over current relay Differential relay Protects generator
will have characteristics in RX Plane as against short circuit
X faults.
(a)
03. Ans: (a)
Operates Sol: Negative – sequence relay  Protection of
R alternators against unbalanced loading
0
Harmonic – restraint differential relay
(b) X Transformer protection
Operates Over – current relay with time delay 
0
R Distribution feeder protection
Mho relay  Long transmission Line
protection
Operates X
04. Ans: (a)
(c)
Sol: Distance relay  Transmission lines
Under frequency relay.  Alternators
0
R Differential relay Bus bars
Buchholz relay  Transformers
X
(d)
Operates
05. Ans: (d)

The current transformers for the protection of
Star-Delta connected 3-phase Transformer is
0 R
Delta-Star.
06. Ans: (a)
Sol: External phase fault  Over – current
protection (inversion time delay o/c relay)
Solutions
Faults between phases.  Differential
LEVEL-1 protection
Phase to earth fault Earth fault relay
01. Ans: (c)
Sol: The relays have the capability of anticipating 07. Ans: (b)
the possible major fault in transformer in Sol: Two relays are used to detect inter phase fault
Buchholz relay. It detects the incipient faults of a three phase system
at a stage much earlier than is possible with
other forms of protection 08. Ans: (b)
Sol: In Mho relay the operating torque is obtained
02. Ans: (a) by the V-I element and restraining torque due
to the voltage element. This means a Mho
Sol: Metal oxide arrester  Allows C.B for
relay is a voltage restrained directional relay.
maintenance
The main relay for protecting upto 90% of
Isolator  Provides protection against surges the transmission line length in the forward
Auto-recloser  Improve transient stability direction.
ACE
09. Ans: (a) 15. Ans: (a)

Sol: Buchholz relay is a gas-actuated relay
Sol: Differential protection Phase to phase and
installed in oil immersed Transformers for
phase to ground
protection against all kinds of faults. Name
after its inventor Buchholz. It is used to give Buchholz protection  Inter – turn
an alarm in case of incipient faults in the
transformer and to disconnect the transformer Earth fault protection  Phase to ground
from the supply in the event of severe Thermal protection Over loading
internal faults.
16. Ans: (d)
10. Ans: (c) Sol: Reactance relay is suitable for the protection
Sol: (i) Reactance relay is suitable for the protection of short transmission line because its
of short transmission line because its operation is operation is independent on arc resistance
independent on arc resistance. power swings on the short transmission line
(ii) The relay which is selected for long
is very less and less sever.
transmission line should be less affected
due to power swings. Mho relay is 17. Ans: (c)
preferred. Sol: For reducing tower footing resistance, it is
(iii) Medium transmission line Ohm relay is better to employ, ground rods and
preferred Arc resistance is comparable with counterpoise.
line impedance.
18. Ans: (b)
11. Ans: (b) Sol: In reactance relay the operating torque is
Sol: The transmission line distance protection obtained by current and the restraining torque
relay having the property of being inherently to a current – voltage directional element.
directional is Mho relay This means a reactance relay is an over
current relay with directional restraint.
12. Ans: (a) 19. Ans: (b)
Sol: Reactance Relay is normally preferred for Sol: Protection scheme used to detection of loss of
protection against earth faults. excitation of a very large generating unit
feeding power into grid employs offset Mho
13. Ans: (c) relay.
Sol: Mho relay is used for the protection of series
compensated extra high voltage line. This 20. Ans: (a)
relay which is selected for long transmission Sol: When the supply switch of transformer is
line should be less affected due to power closed then the magnetic inrush current
swing. having harmonics predominantly 2nd
harmonic will flow. Due to this the relay will
14. Ans: (a) operate, through it is not a fault. So as to
Sol: The percentage bias of differential values prevent this harmonic restraint coil is used in
used for generator is 5% and transformer the relay.
protection is 20%.
21. Ans: (a)
Sol: Negative sequence relay is used to protect the
alternator against unbalanced load conditions.
ACE
22. Ans: (c) 27. Ans: (b)

Sol: The Mal-operation of differential protection Sol: Reactance relays are widely used for
of transformers due to magnetizing inrush protection of short transmission lines.
current is prevented by passing the inrush As such statement ‘4’ should be wrong. Try
current from the operating coil of the relay. to eliminate the options, so option ‘B’ is
correct.
23. Ans: (c) Verification:-
Sol: Power TransformerDifferential relaying Statement 1:- Reactance relays are preferred
Transmission LinesDistance relaying for ground fault relaying. (correct).
Statement 3:- MHO relays are best suited for
Alternator Differential relaying long transmission line protection.
24. Ans: (d) 28. Ans: (d)

2000  (5 / 400) Sol: For protection of parallel feeders fed from
Sol: PSM =  10 one end the relays required are
0.5  5
At source end : Non Directional relays
25. Ans: (a) At load end: Directional relays
Sol: Relay Setting =
Pickup current of over current relay
Rated ROC current
Pickup current = 1.25 5  6.25A Level‐2 Key
26. Ans: (a) 01. (d) 02. (d) 03. (a) 04. (a)
Sol: Under voltage protection is necessary for 05. (c) 06. (d) 07. (b) 08. (a)
generator, motor, transformer and
transmission lines to avoid the fall in voltage 09. (b) 10. (b)
below the minimum prescribed value.

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PSUs – Electrical Engineering

15 All India 1st Ranks in ESE

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